

Clinical Medical Assisting provides students with the foundational knowledge and hands-on skills required to support healthcare professionals in clinical settings. The course covers essential topics such as patient intake, vital signs measurement, specimen collection, laboratory procedures, medication administration, infection control protocols, and the principles of aseptic technique. Emphasis is placed on developing effective communication with patients and colleagues, maintaining accurate medical records, and adhering to legal and ethical standards in healthcare. Through a combination of classroom instruction and practical experience, students are prepared to play a vital role as part of the healthcare team in physicians offices, clinics, and other medical environments.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Human Diseases and Conditions 6th Edition by Margaret Schell Frazier
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681 Verified Questions
681 Flashcards
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37 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In preventive health care, the emphasis is on
A) accident intervention.
B) freedom of lifestyle.
C) prophylactic medical services.
D) personal rights.
Answer: C
Q2) The holistic concept of medical care focuses on
A) the needs of the whole person: spiritual, cognitive, social, physical, and emotional.
B) narrowly defining physical pathologic changes.
C) discounting the needs of a patient as a whole to expedite healing.
D) all of the above.
Answer: A
Q3) Benign tumors
A) tend to remain encapsulated.
B) infiltrate surrounding tissue.
C) do not compress surrounding tissue or obstruct organs.
D) do not resemble the tissue of origin.
Answer: A
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Q1) Treatment of hydrocephalus consists of placing a ventriculoatrial shunt.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Leukemia is characterized by an abnormal decrease in the number of immature WBCs.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The most common childhood malignancy is
A) Wilms' tumor.
B) leukemia.
C) anemia.
D) neuroblastoma.
Answer: B
Q4) Cryptorchidism may be treated with hormonal therapy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inflammation of the walls of blood vessels is called
A) pernicious anemia.
B) multiple sclerosis.
C) vasculitis.
D) immune neutropenia.
Answer: C
Q2) Immunoglobulins that provide the ability to recognize foreign organisms stimulating the antigen-antibody reaction are called
A) T-killer cells.
B) T-helper cells.
C) T-suppressor cells.
D) B-cells.
Answer: D
Q3) Testing for which immunodeficiency disease is now part of newborn screening in the United States?
A) SCID
B) Polymyositis
C) CVID
D) None of the above
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Treatment of diabetes mellitus includes A) a calculated diet and exercise.
B) insulin administration if needed.
C) blood and urine testing.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Which statement(s) is/are true about insulin?
A) Too much insulin, a delayed meal, or not enough food can result in insulin shock.
B) A reduction in insulin or insulin resistance results in hyperglycemia.
C) The functional pancreas secretes insulin and maintains glucose levels in a precise range.
D) All of the above are true.
Q3) A deficiency in the release of vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone [ADH]) by the posterior pituitary gland causes A) hypoglycemia.
B) dwarfism.
C) diabetes insipidus.
D) none of the above.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Labyrinthitis is an inflammation of the A) stapes.
B) conjunctiva.
C) semicircular canal.
D) tympanic membrane.
Q2) Serous otitis media may be either acute or chronic.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sensorineural hearing loss has noticeable onset.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The internal lens of the eye is elastic and, therefore, can focus images both near and far.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Drug therapy used in the treatment of mastoiditis includes
A) antibiotic or sulfonamide therapy.
B) hydrogen peroxide.
C) latanoprost [Xalatan].
D) prednisone.
7
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is a common contagious superficial skin infection caused by either Streptococcus or Staphylococcus aureus.
A) Psoriasis
B) Atopic dermatitis (eczema)
C) Impetigo
D) Seborrheic dermatitis
Q2) Appearance and location of lesions confirm the diagnosis of each of the three types of skin carcinoma.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A precursor to skin cancer is
A) squamous cell carcinoma (SCC).
B) basal cell carcinoma (BCC).
C) malignant melanoma.
D) actinic keratosis.
Q4) Itch mites and lice spread easily from one person to another by close physical contact.
A)True
B)False
8
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Q1) A bunion is also called hallux valgus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statement(s) about fibromyalgia is/are true?
A) It is a painful debilitating syndrome that causes chronic pain in muscles and soft tissues surrounding joints.
B) The cause is unknown.
C) Diagnosis includes pain at specific tender points.
D) All of the above are true.
Q3) A strained muscle is more serious than a sprained muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Inflammation of the bursae is called polymyositis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Overuse and overpronation are the most common factors that predispose an individual to shin splints.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inflammation, infection, or irritation of the large serous membrane that lines the abdominal cavity and folds over the visceral organs is called A) peritonitis.
B) esophagitis.
C) appendicitis.
D) diverticulitis.
Q2) Hiatal hernia can be caused by
A) swallowing a foreign body.
B) a weakness that develops in the diaphragm.
C) lack of dietary bulk.
D) all of the above.
Q3) "Traveler's diarrhea," a common syndrome of gastroenteritis, is usually caused by A) ingestion of food or water contaminated with bacteria.
B) a virus.
C) a drug reaction.
D) an allergic reaction.
Q4) Vitamin D is considered highly toxic, especially in infants and children.
A)True
B)False
10
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Q1) Lung abscesses are often a complication of pneumonia caused by bacteria. Aspiration of food, a foreign object, bronchial stenosis, or neoplasms may cause pulmonary abscesses to form. A pulmonary abscess also may develop when a septic embolism is carried to the lung via the pulmonary circulation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The cause of pneumoconiosis is Legionnaires' disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In most cases the prognosis of lung cancer is good because people seek medical attention before metastasis occurs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A collection of air or gas in the pleural cavity, resulting in a collapsed lung, describes a condition called
A) emphysema.
B) bronchiectasis.
C) pneumoconiosis.
D) pneumothorax.
11
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Q1) The condition in which a reduction in the quantity of either red blood cells (RBCs) or hemoglobin (Hgb) exists is
A) anemia.
B) thrombocytopenia.
C) leukemia.
D) agranulocytosis.
Q2) The two upper chambers of the heart are the A) atria.
B) septa.
C) ventricles.
D) bundle of His.
Q3) MI is the death of myocardial tissue caused by ischemia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Patients with coronary heart disease always experience pain. A)True B)False
Q5) Sickle cell anemia is asymptomatic. A)True B)False
Page 12
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Q1) The urinary system is responsible for
A) cleansing the blood of waste products.
B) regulating the normal balance of water and electrolytes.
C) storing and excreting urine.
D) all of the above.
Q2) The disease that encompasses a group of symptoms referred to as the protein-losing kidney is
A) hydronephrosis.
B) acute glomerulonephritis.
C) nephrotic syndrome.
D) diabetic nephropathy.
Q3) Urinary urgency, frequency, and possible incontinence are symptoms of chronic renal failure (CRF).
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pyelonephritis is the most common type of kidney disease.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The incidence of STDs is increasing among A) senior citizens.
B) men having sex with men (MSM).
C) women.
D) both b and c.
Q2) The first sign of testicular cancer is
A) a painful lump discovered in the testicle.
B) a painless lump discovered in the testicle.
C) urinary incontinence.
D) sexual dysfunction.
Q3) The modes of transmission of hepatitis B include
A) contact with blood, semen, vaginal secretions.
B) sharing contaminated needles, accidental inoculation.
C) from an infected mother to her infant during birth.
D) all of the above.
Q4) One of the major risk factors for ectopic pregnancy is A) contraception.
B) poor diet.
C) history of PID.
D) exercise.
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Q1) Narrowing of intervertebral spaces on imaging studies may indicate degeneration of an intervertebral disk.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _____ involves degeneration of the nerves outside the CNS and affects the distal muscles of the extremities.
A) Bell's palsy
B) Neuralgia
C) Peripheral neuritis
D) Parkinson's disease
Q3) A disorder of the facial nerve (seventh cranial nerve) that causes a sudden onset of weakness or paralysis of facial muscles is
A) trigeminal neuritis.
B) Guillain-Barré syndrome.
C) epilepsy.
D) Bell's palsy.
Q4) TIA and transient global amnesia are the same thing.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Malingering is a PDO.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cluster B of PDOs includes paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A major affective disorder with abnormally intense mood swings is _____ disorder.
A) bipolar
B) obsessive-compulsive
C) major depressive
D) gender-identity
Q4) Bipolar disorder is a major affective disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The phases of the grief process are
A) denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.
B) not identifiable.
C) depression, bargaining, anger, and denial.
D) anger, denial, rejection, and acceptance.
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Q1) Victims of elder abuse are eager to admit to being victims.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The individual who has a body temperature above 105° F; red, hot, and dry skin; headache; dizziness; and shortness of breath is experiencing A) heat exhaustion.
B) heat stroke.
C) hypothermia.
D) all of the above.
Q3) There are no specific tests or documentation procedures available for the rape victim.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Rust rings on the cornea may be the result of an FB in the eye.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Carpal tunnel syndrome involves entrapment of the median nerve.
A)True
B)False
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