

Clinical Microbiology
Textbook Exam Questions

Course Introduction
Clinical Microbiology is a comprehensive course focused on the study of microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites that are relevant to human health and disease. This course covers fundamental principles of microbial pathogenesis, laboratory diagnostic techniques, mechanisms of antimicrobial resistance, and epidemiology of infectious diseases. Emphasis is placed on the clinical presentation, diagnosis, treatment, and prevention strategies for infections caused by various pathogens. Students gain practical skills through laboratory work and case studies, preparing them to interpret microbiological data in real-world clinical settings and make informed decisions relevant to patient care and public health.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology for the Healthcare Professional 2nd Edition by VanMeter
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Chapter 1: Scope of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The proteins implicated in spongiform encephalopathy are __________.
Answer: prions
Q2) Which of the following lack nucleic acids?
A)Archaea
B)Viruses
C)Prions
D)Bacteria
Answer: C
Q3) The taxonomic resource for information on bacteria is __________.
Answer: Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology
Q4) Phase-contrast microscope
A)Observing insects
B)Three-dimensional images
C)Cytoplasmic streaming
D)Fluorescent dye
E)Ultrathin sectioned specimens
Answer: C
Q5) All bacteria are __________ cells.
Answer: prokaryotic
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Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Particles of an atom located in the outermost shell and available for chemical bonding are called
A)valence electrons.
B)isotopes.
C)excess electrons.
D)neutrons.
Answer: A
Q2) A positively charged ion is a(n)__________.
Answer: cation
Q3) The bond between amino acids is a(n)
A)ionic bond.
B)peptide bond.
C)hydrogen bond.
D)covalent bond.
Answer: B
Q4) When the solute concentration outside a cell is the same as the concentration inside the cell,the solution is called __________.
Answer: isotonic
Q5) The formation of polymers from simpler substances is referred to as __________.
Answer: synthesis

4
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microtubules
A)Cytoskeleton
B)Cytosol
C)Mitochondria
D)Golgi apparatus
E)rER
F)Bacterial ribosome subunit
G)Enzyme
H)Dental plaque
I)Phospholipids
J)Endocytosis
K)Cell wall
L)Passive transport
Answer: A
Q2) Binary fission is a form of reproduction used by A)viruses.
B)bacteria.
C)fungi.
D)helminths.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Psychrophiles are also referred to as A)cryophiles.
B)thermophiles.
C)mesophiles.
D)psychrotrophs.
Q2) Microorganisms that show optimal growth in moderate temperatures (between 25° C and 40° C)are called A)thermophiles.
B)psychrophiles.
C)mesophiles.
D)psychrotrophs.
Q3) Bacterial species whose shape is variable or morphologically indistinct depending on environmental conditions is called ________________________.
Q4) Legionella and Neisseria are examples of
A)facultative anaerobic gram-negative rods.
B)gram-negative aerobic rods and cocci.
C)spirochetes.
D)anaerobic gram-negative cocci.
Q5) Rhizobium is an organism typically used in the field of __________.
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Chapter 5: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Human papillomavirus
A)Polyarthritis
B)Plantar warts
C)Chickenpox
D)Common cold
E)Infectious mononucleosis
F)Gastroenteritis
G)Hemorrhagic fever
Q2) Group VI viruses according to the Baltimore classification system include the families Metaviridae,Pseudoviridae,and __________.
Q3) The correct sequence of stages in the multiplication of animal viruses is
A)adsorption, penetration, uncoating, replication, assembly, release.
B)penetration, adsorption, assembly, uncoating, replication, release.
C)adsorption, uncoating, penetration, replication, assembly, release.
D)penetration, uncoating, adsorption, replication, assembly, release.
Q4) The most common viruses causing respiratory illness belong to A)Herpesviridae.
B)Papovaviridae.
C)Adenoviridae.
D)Poxviridae.

Page 7
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Chapter 6: Eukaryotic Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following microorganisms require a moist environment to survive and most often live in ponds,streams,lakes,and oceans?
A)Mycorrhizae
B)Armillaria gallica
C)Blastospores
D)Protozoans
Q2) Masses of protoplasm containing thousands of nuclei are characteristic of a(n)__________.
Q3) The protozoan that lacks a cyst stage and therefore must be transferred quickly from host to host is
A)Giardia lamblia.
B)Trichomonas vaginalis.
C)Balantidium coli.
D)Entamoeba histolytica.
Q4) The antibiotics penicillin and cephalosporin are produced by A)algae.
B)slime molds.
C)fungi.
D)protozoans.
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Chapter 7: Physical and Chemical Methods of Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) The destruction of vegetative organisms by chemical or physical methods is called __________.
Q2) The lowest temperature by which all microorganisms in a particular liquid will be killed within 10 minutes is the __________.
Q3) Autoclaving will usually destroy/inactivate all fungi,bacteria,viruses,and most bacterial spores but will not necessarily eliminate A)neurotoxins.
B)prions.
C)protozoan cysts.
D)mycoplasmas.
Q4) The cleaning of glassware and tableware in restaurants falls into the category of A)degermation. B)sterilization.
C)disinfection.
D)sanitization.
Q5) Sterilization using dry heat requires a temperature of __________° C for a period of __________.
Q6) Food irradiation destroys the __________ of the cell.
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Chapter 8: Microbiological Laboratory Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following microorganisms can be cultured only in the footpads of mice or a species of armadillo?
A)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B)Mycobacterium leprae
C)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D)Mycoplasma
Q2) Selective medium for gram-positive bacteria while inhibiting gram-negative bacteria
A)MacConkey agar
B)Phenylethyl alcohol agar
C)Nutrient agar
D)Tryptic soy agar
E)Chocolate agar
F)Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate agar
G)Thayer-Martin agar
Q3) Which of the following media are defined and have an exact chemical composition?
A)Complex media
B)Synthetic media
C)Enriched media
D)Special media
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Chapter 9: Microbiological Laboratory Safety Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) A unique number that aids in finding additional toxicological information about a specific substance is the
A)CAS number.
B)atomic number.
C)DOT ID number.
D)RTECS number.
Q2) Which of the following eyewash/safety showers should be used for immediate flushing only,until the victim reaches another safety unit?
A)Emergency shower
B)Personal eyewash
C)Handheld drench hose
D)Combination unit
Q3) PASS stands for pull,aim,squeeze,and __________.
Q4) Ergonomic guidelines for nursing homes are issued by __________.
Q5) Fires from flammable metals require type __________ fire extinguishers.

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Chapter 10: Pharmacology
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Q1) The __________ is the ratio between a drug dose causing undesirable effects and the dose that causes the desired effects.
Q2) The generic name of a drug refers to its __________ name.
A)trade
B)proprietary
C)chemical
D)nonproprietary
Q3) Schedule II controlled substance
A)Morphine
B)Administered into the subarachnoid space
C)Diazepam
D)Administered into muscles
E)Aspirin
F)Administered sublingually
G)L-Dopa
H)LSD
Q4) The body's metabolism of drugs is called __________.
Q5) Drugs and substances with a high probability for abuse with no therapeutic use and a lack of safety controls are classified as Schedule __________.
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Chapter 11: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a synthetic antimicrobial drug?
A)Penicillin G
B)Penicillin V
C)Cephalosporin
D)Quinolone
Q2) Most agents that inhibit protein synthesis involve disrupting the process of __________.
Q3) Another term for the effectiveness of a drug is __________.
Q4) When two antibiotics are given together to increase the therapeutic effect,the phenomenon is referred to as A)antagonism.
B)mutualism.
C)synergism.
D)parasitism.
Q5) The findings of the antibacterial properties of Penicillium notatum were first published by A)Mosse.
B)Joubert.
C)Pasteur.
D)Fleming.
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Chapter 12: Infection and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Animals,usually arthropods,that carry pathogens from one host to another are called
Q2) All of the following areas of the human body contain normal flora except
A)Peritoneum
B)Urethra
C)Vagina
D)Mouth
Q3) The type of infection in which several infectious agents establish themselves at the same site is referred to as a
A)chronic infection.
B)necrotizing infection.
C)fatal infection.
D)mixed infection.
Q4) A nonliving object such as a tissue,towel,or even money that can be used to transmit a pathogen to a host is called a(n)__________.
Q5) A disease that breaks out only occasionally,such as typhoid fever in the United States,is referred to as a(n)__________ disease.
Q6) A microorganism capable of causing disease is called a(n)__________.
Q7) A worldwide epidemic is considered a(n)__________ disease.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: The Immune Response and Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ occurs when the immune system is unable to distinguish between self- and nonself-antigens and attacks the cells of the body.
Q2) The antibody found in body secretions is
A)IgA.
B)IgD.
C)IgE.
D)IgG.
Q3) Granulocytes are subdivided into three groups: __________,__________,and
Q4) GALT is an example of a collection of lymphatic nodules in the A)respiratory tract.
B)small intestine.
C)stomach.
D)female reproductive system.
Q5) Immunity that is a result of an actual infection is called A)artificially acquired passive immunity.
B)artificially acquired active immunity.
C)naturally acquired passive immunity.
D)naturally acquired active immunity.
Q6) B cells are responsible for __________-mediated immunity.
Page 15
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Chapter

Tissue, and Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Herpes simplex infections on lips and in the mouth are most commonly caused by A)HSV-1.
B)HSV-2.
C)HSV-6.
D)HSV-7.
Q2) A tinea infection in the groin area is commonly called "__________."
Q3) Tinea versicolor
A)HSV-1
B)Streptococcus pyogenes
C)HSV-2
D)Actinomyces
E)Escherichia coli
F)Varicella-zoster
G)HHV-6 and -7
H)Malassezia furfur
Q4) Chickenpox and shingles are caused by the __________ virus.
Q5) Leprosy is also known as ____________________________.
Page 16
Q6) Fungal infections of the skin are referred to as __________.
Q7) Infections that result in the death of infected tissue are called __________ infections.
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Page 17
Chapter 15: Infections of the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tuberculosis is caused by an organism of the genus A)Klebsiella.
B)Bordetella.
C)Chlamydia.
D)Mycobacterium.
Q2) Anthrax is caused by A)Haemophilus anthracis.
B)Bacillus anthracis.
C)Streptococcus anthracis.
D)Klebsiella anthracis.
Q3) The most virulent pathogen of the human flu virus is type A)A.
B)B.
C)C.
D)D.
Q4) The "strawberry tongue" symptom is often associated with A)rheumatic fever.
B)scarlet fever.
C)pneumonia.
D)pharyngitis.

Page 18
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Chapter 16: Infections of the Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Typhoid fever is caused by the bacterium
A)Escherichia coli.
B)Salmonella enterica.
C)Shigella flexneri.
D)Staphylococcus aureus.
Q2) The human pinworm Enterobius vermicularis lives in the __________ of humans.
A)duodenum
B)ileum
C)transverse colon
D)rectum
Q3) Necatoriasis
A)Ancylostoma duodenale
B)Streptococcus mutans
C)Escherichia coli
D)Entamoeba histolytica
E)Bacillus cereus
F)Taenia solium
G)Amoeba proteus
H)Enterobius vermicularis
Q4) The term "stomach flu" really refers to __________.
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Chapter 17: Infections of the Nervous System and Sensory
Structures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the causative agent for fungal meningitis,mostly in immunocompromised patients?
A)Trypanosoma brucei
B)Listeria meningitis
C)Cryptococcus neoformans
D)Trypanosoma cruzi
Q2) Pneumococcal infection of the middle ear is referred to as________________.
Q3) Sleeping sickness is caused by which type of microorganism?
A)Bacterium
B)Virus
C)Protozoan
D)Prion
Q4) American trypanosomiasis is also referred to as __________.
Q5) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a fatal brain disorder caused by a A)protozoan.
B)virus.
C)prion.
D)bacterium.
Q7) Chemically,prions are __________. Page 20
Q6) Leprosy is caused by the bacterium __________ .
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Page 21

Chapter 18: Infections of the Cardiovascular and Circulatory System
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Q1) Any infectious disease or infection that can be transmitted from vertebrate animals to humans is classified as __________.
Q2) When microorganisms enter the circulatory system through the lymphatic drainage and cause an infection,the condition is called A)bacteremia.
B)septicemia.
C)microbemia.
D)viremia.
Q3) All of the following are symptoms of endocarditis except A)fever and chills.
B)weight loss.
C)leg swelling.
D)muscle aches.
Q4) "Rabbit fever," a zoonotic disease,is caused by A)Bartonella henselae.
B)Spirillum minus.
C)Francisella tularensis.
D)Yersinia pestis.
Q5) Leishmaniasis is transmitted by the bite of the __________.
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Chapter 19: Infections of the Urinary System
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Q1) The tissues of the urethra become thinner and more fragile in older women because of a decrease in __________,thus increasing the chance of an opportunistic infection.
Q2) Cystitis
A)Staphylococcus epidermidis
B)Polyomaviruses JC and BK
C)Mycoplasma
D)Adenovirus
E)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
F)Leptospira
G)Trichomonas
Q3) The organism that is primarily responsible for causing cystitis is ___________________________.
Q4) In the urinary system,cytomegalovirus infections are typically associated with A)kidney transplant failure.
B)cystitis.
C)nephritis.
D)urethritis.
Q5) __________ and __________ are genera of organisms that are usually associated with UTIs related to sexual activity.
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Measures that can be taken to prevent bacterial vaginitis include
A)douching, use of contraceptive pills, and exercise.
B)use of absorbent tampons, frequent douching, and avoidance of tight pants.
C)avoidance of douching, use of panties with cotton crotch, and exercise.
D)avoidance of tight pants, use of panties with cotton crotch, and infrequent douching.
Q2) Bacteria that have been identified as frequently responsible for nonsexually transmitted infections of the reproductive system include
A)Escherichia coli, Gardnerella vaginalis, and Staphylococcus aureus.
B)Streptococcus faecalis, Klebsiella oxytoca, and Serratia marcescens.
C)Clostridium tetani, Bacillus cereus, and Staphylococcus aureus.
D)Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Helicobacter pylori, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Q3) The organism that is responsible for the vast majority of cases of fungal vaginitis is
A)Escherichia coli.
B)Streptococcus agalactiae.
C)Klebsiella oxytoca.
D)Candida albicans.
Q4) GBS stands for __________.
Q5) The organism most frequently associated with mastitis in women is __________ .
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Chapter 21: Sexually Transmitted Infectionsdiseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gummas are characteristic lesions of A)gonorrhea.
B)chlamydia.
C)syphilis.
D)chancroid.
Q2) Which of the following organisms typically causes sexually transmitted toxic shock syndrome?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C)Treponema pallidum
D)Haemophilus ducreyi
Q3) Syphilis is caused by the microorganism __________ and the disease occurs in __________ stages.
Q4) Lymphogranuloma venereum is an infection caused by A)Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B)Treponema pallidum.
C)Chlamydia trachomatis.
D)Ureaplasma urealyticum.
Q5) NGU is the abbreviation for __________.
Q6) HIV is the abbreviation for __________.
Page 25
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Chapter 22: Human Age and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Almost half of all the STIs diagnosed in the United States are among A)infants.
B)adolescents.
C)young adults.
D)the elderly.
Q2) Chickenpox is caused by the __________ virus.
Q3) Most common form of impetigo in infants
A)Congenital toxoplasmosis
B)Micrococcus
C)Cytomegalovirus
D)Staphylococcus aureus
E)Neisseria
F)Congenital rubella
G)Streptococcus
Q4) Infectious mononucleosis most often occurs in A)infants.
B)adolescents.
C)young adults.
D)the elderly.
Q5) Infectious mononucleosis is caused by __________.
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Chapter 23: Microorganisms in the Environment and Effects on
Human Health
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Q1) The majority of marine microorganisms are present in the A)benthic zone.
B)littoral zone.
C)profundal zone.
D)limnetic zone.
Q2) A set of guilds is referred to as a A)microhabitat.
B)biosphere.
C)community.
D)population.
Q3) Which of the following is the sixth most abundant element in the universe?
A)Nitrogen
B)Oxygen
C)Carbon
D)Hydrogen
Q4) The most abundant microbe population in soil consists of A)protozoans. B)helminths.
C)bacteria. D)fungi.
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Chapter 24: Emerging Infectious Diseases
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Q1) Protozoan emerging and reemerging diseases generally belong to group A)I.
B)II.
C)III.
D)IV.
Q2) CDC stands for
A)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
B)Children's Disease Center.
C)Central Disaster Control Center.
D)Central Drug Evaluation and Control Center.
Q3) IEIP
A)Program to reinforce the identification and response to emerging diseases around the world
B)Primary responsibility is to protect people in the United States from infectious diseases
C)Regulations to address a global approach to prevent, detect, and respond to any public health threat of international concern
D)Classifies infectious diseases into three categories
E)Provides instructions for destroying bioterrorism weapons
F)Assigns hospitals as primary response sites in cases of pandemic
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Page 28

Chapter 25: Biotechnology
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Q1) Which of the following is a vector created by the combination of viral DNA fragments and fragments from a plasmid?
A)Cosmid vector
B)Plasmid vector
C)Combined vector
D)Lambda phage vector
Q2) Recombinant DNA technology is also referred to as __________.
Q3) Which of the following is a true statement about recombinant DNA technology?
A)It is a single technique for genetic manipulation.
B)It involves the modification of an organism's genome.
C)It will replace biotechnology in the future.
D)It manipulates only the genotype.
Q4) Genetically modified crops are also referred to as __________ plants.
Q5) A genetic recombination process that uses a cytoplasmic bridge between the donor and the recipient is called
A)transduction.
B)ligation.
C)conjugation.
D)extension.
Q6) A sense strand is a __________ to __________ mRNA or DNA molecule.
Page 29
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