Introduction to Hematology
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Introduction to Hematology offers students a foundational overview of the biology, physiology, and pathology of blood and blood-forming tissues. The course covers the components and functions of blood, including red and white blood cells, platelets, and plasma, as well as the principles of hematopoiesis. Students will explore common hematological disorders, laboratory techniques for blood analysis, and the clinical significance of various blood tests. This course provides essential knowledge for further study in medical, biomedical, and health science fields, and emphasizes the integration of hematology with broader physiological and pathological processes in the human body.
Recommended Textbook
Hematology in Practice 2nd Edition by Betty Ciesla
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19 Chapters
414 Verified Questions
414 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Hematology and Basic Laboratory Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) Standards and calibrators differ from control materials because:
A) An exact amount of analyte is present in a standard or calibrator
B) A variable amount of analyte is present depending on patient samples
C) Standards only need to be within a target range
D) Standards are run to the best estimate of the known value
Answer: A
Q2) Label the parts of the microscope.
Answer: 1. Objectives2. Stage3. Eye piece4. Base5. Light source6. Iris diaphragm7. Course adjustment knob8. Fine adjustment knob9. Stage adjustment knobs10. Clips11. Substage condenser 11ea8f8c_a35f_cfdc_b491_39c0cc95f0f6_TB3286_00
Q3) When handwashing after a patient contact, the soap application process should last at least:
A) 5 seconds
B) 15 seconds
C) 20 seconds
D) 30 seconds
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: From Hematopoiesis to the Complete Blood Count
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Opsonizing antibodies produced by the spleen serve to:
A) Strip the capsule from bacterial pathogens
B) Recycle erythrocyte byproducts
C) Aid in extramedullary hematopoiesis
D) Fight viral infection
Answer: A
Q2) T cells are responsible for humoral immunity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Erythropoietin is produced by the:
A) Kidneys
B) Liver
C) Spleen
D) Thymus gland
Answer: A
Q4) Patients with moderate anemias (7 to 10 g/dL) may be asymptomatic.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Red Blood Cell Production, Function, and
Relevant Red Blood Cell Morphology
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Red cell inclusions that are remnants of DNA are termed:
A) Cabot rings
B) Howell Jolly bodies
C) Heinz bodies
D) Pappenheimer bodies
Answer: B
Q2) Asynchrony in the bone marrow is defined as the:
A) Presence of nucleoli throughout each maturation phase
B) Presence of extremely basophilic cytoplasm in all precursors
C) Lack of nuclear development in precursor cells
D) Nuclear development and hemoglobin development that is unbalanced
Answer: D
Q3) Pappenheimer bodies are composed of:
A) Iron
B) Denatured hemoglobin
C) DNA
D) RNA
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Hemoglobin Function and Principles of Hemolysis
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hemoglobin molecule will either hold onto or release oxygen depending on the:
A) Amount of alpha or beta chains
B) Relationship between the pulmonary and venous circulations
C) Viscosity of the blood
D) M:E ratio
Q2) Which organ(s) is the most affected during extravascular lysis?
A) Liver and spleen
B) Kidney
C) Pancreas
D) Heart
Q3) 90% of in vivo hemolysis is intravascular.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Physiologic conditions in the body that can decrease hemoglobin's oxygen affinity include:
A) Increased pH
B) Decreased 2,3-DPG
C) Increased body temp
D) The presence of abnormal hemoglobins
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Chapter 5: The Microcytic Anemias
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26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the presumptive clinical condition?
A) Pernicious anemia
B) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
C) Iron deficiency trait
D) Thalassemia trait
Q2) In regards to the thalassemias, the deficit has nothing to do with iron.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The primary storage forms of iron are:
A) Ferritin and hemosiderin
B) Ferritin and transferrin
C) Hemosiderin and ferrous iron
D) Heme and ferritin
Q4) In iron deficiency anemia, the reticulocyte count will be:
A) Normal
B) Low
C) High
D) Extremely high
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Chapter 6: The Macrocytic Anemias
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The MCV in pernicious anemia will be in the range of:
A) 70 to 80 fL
B) 85 to 95 fL
C) 110 to 120 fL
D) 90 to 98 fL
Q2) Evidence of ineffective erythropoiesis in the CBC of patients with megaloblastic anemia are:
A) Anemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia
B) Anemia, thrombocytosis, leukopenia
C) Anemia, thrombophilia, leukocytosis
D) anemia, thrombocytosis, leukopenia
Q3) Intrinsic factor is secreted by the:
A) Parietal cells of the stomach
B) Ileum
C) Thyroid
D) Bone marrow
Q4) A bone marrow aspiration/examination is not necessary for patients with megaloblastic anemia.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Normochromic Anemias: Biochemical,
Membrane, and Miscellaneous Red Blood Cell Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the least severe clinical manifestations of G6PD deficiency is:
A) Acute hemolytic anemia
B) Favism
C) Neonatal jaundice
D) Congenital non-spherocytic hemolytic anemia
Q2) Individuals with Fanconi's anemia characteristically will have:
A) Intravascular hemolysis
B) Increased Hgb F
C) Ringed sideroblastics
D) Thrombocytosis
Q3) An osmotic fragility test is performed on a patient's sample.Initial hemolysis occurs at 0.75% NaCl and complete hemolysis occurs at 0.50% NaCl.These results are indicative of which of the following disorders?
A) Sickle cell anemia
B) Hgb C disease
C) Thalassemia major
D) Hereditary spherocytosis
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Page 9
Chapter 8: The Normochromic Anemias Caused by Hemoglobinopathies
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23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alkaline electrophoresis will not separate hemoglobin C from:
A) Hemoglobin A<sub>2</sub>
B) Hemoglobin F
C) Hemoglobin S
D) Hemoglobin A
Q2) Autosplenectomy is characteristic of:
A) Sickle cell trait
B) Hgb C disease
C) Thalassemia
D) Sickle cell anemia
Q3) In hemoglobin C disease, is substituted for glutamic acid.
A) valine
B) adenine
C) lysine
D) leucine
Q4) In sickle cell anemia, _____is substituted for glutamine.
A) valine
B) lysine
C) adenine
D) leucine
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Chapter 9: Leukopoiesis and Leukopoietic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following CD markers is more appropriately associated with the myelocyte?
A) CD4, CD8
B) CD33, CD13, CD14
C) CD45, CD33, CD13
D) CD19, CD22
Q2) Lymphocyte concentrations in peripheral blood are greatest during what age interval?
A) Immediately after birth
B) Older adult (40 to 70 years)
C) Young adult (16 to 40 years)
D) Young child (1 to 4 years)
Q3) Identify the cell at the end of the pointer.
A) Band neutrophil
B) Metamyelocyte
C) Promyelocyte
D) Monocyte
Q4) The primary function of lymphocytes is immunologic.
A)True
B)False
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Abnormalities of White Blood Cells:
Quantitative, Qualitative, and the Lipid Storage Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Opsonization of foreign bodies is defined as:
A) Preparing a foreign body for phagocytosis
B) Degranulation of neutrophils
C) Fusion of cytoplasmic granules
D) Bacteriocidal activity
Q2) All of the following are lipid storage syndromes/diseases except:
A) Gaucher's disease
B) Tay-Sachs disease
C) Chediak-Higashi syndrome
D) Niemann-Pick disease
Q3) Toxic vacuolization occurs most frequently in:
A) Neutrophils
B) Monocytes
C) Lymphocytes
D) Erythrocytes
Q4) Toxic granulation in neutrophils is a direct result of:
A) Cytokine production
B) Enhanced lysosome enzyme production
C) Toxic granulation
D) Ehrlichia infection
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Chapter 11: Acute Leukemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Low-risk ALL pediatric clinical trials require the WBC count to be less than:
A) 20 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
B) 50 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
C) 60 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
D) 75 \(\times\) 10<sup>9</sup>/L
Q2) Pure erythroid leukemia is defined as:
A) Erythroid precursors greater than 30%, myeloblasts less than 20%
B) Erythroid precursors greater than 50%, myeloblasts less than 40%
C) Erythroid precursors less than 50%
D) Erythroid precursors greater than 80%
Q3) The cells pictured above are most consistent for:
A) Acute myeloid leukemia
B) Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
C) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
D) Acute erythroid leukemia
Q4) ___is the rarest form of the AMLs.
A) M1
B) M4
C) M6
D) M7
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Chapter 12: Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The JAK2 chromosomal mutation is associated with:
A) Polycythemia vera
B) CML
C) Leukemoid reaction
D) Myelofibrosis
Q2) Essential thrombocytosis can affect all three cell lines, but the main cell line affected is the:
A) Megakaryocytes
B) Erythrocytes
C) Granulocytes
D) Lymphocytes
Q3) A "dry tap" is a characteristic of myeloid fibrosis with myeloid metaplasia due to:
A) Increased infiltration of blast cells
B) Increased infiltration of abnormal platelets
C) Increased infiltration of abnormal red cells
D) Increased infiltration of fibrotic elements
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14
Chapter 13: Lymphoproliferative Disorders and Related
Plasma Cell Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are consistent with the clinical and pathological picture of Waldenström's macroglobulinemia except:
A) M spike due to Ig M
B) Lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly
C) Proliferation of lymphocytes and plasmacytoid lymphocytes
D) Destructive bone lesions
Q2) All of the following are related to the pathophysiology of multiple myeloma except:
A) Acceleration of plasma cells in the bone marrow
B) Increased levels of tyrosine kinase activity
C) Activation of osteoclasts
D) Production of an abnormal monoclonal protein
Q3) The TRAP stain is useful in the diagnosis of:
A) CLL
B) PLL
C) Hairy cell leukemia
D) Hodgkin's lymphoma
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15
Chapter 14: The Myelodysplastic Syndromes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refractory anemia is an anemia that:
A) Has more than 5% blasts in the peripheral blood
B) Is resistant to treatment
C) Will usually demonstrate a hypoplastic bone marrow
D) Demonstrates a 17g deletion routinely
Q2) Which of the following chromosome disorders in MDS has a poor predictive influence?
A) Chromosome 7 disorder
B) Trisomy 12
C) Trisomy 13
D) 17q deletion
Q3) One of the key white cell features in MDS is:
A) Hypersegmented neutrophils
B) Auer rods
C) Dohle bodies
D) Pseudo Pelger-Huët
Q4) A large percentage of the MDSs end in an acute leukemia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Overview of Hemostasis and Platelet Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Therapeutic thrombolytic agents include:
A) tPA
B) Streptokinase
C) Urokinase
D) All of the above
Matching
Q2) The anticoagulant known as heparin:
A) Inhibits PF3 activity
B) Inhibits thrombin activity
C) Degrades antithrombin activity
D) Chelates calcium
Q3) The first response of a cut vessel is:
A) Vasoconstriction
B) Platelet aggregation
C) Activation of the intrinsic pathway
D) Vasodilation
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17
Chapter 16: Quantitative and Qualitative Platelet Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Platelet aggregation cannot occur if ___is absent.
A) vWF
B) GP IIb/IIIa
C) cadmium
D) GP Ib
Q2) A decreased platelet count is most often anticipated when a patient demonstrates:
A) Rectal bleeding
B) Epistaxis
C) Genitourinary bleeding
D) Severe hemorrhage
Q3) The anticoagulant of choice for routine coagulation procedure is:
A) Sodium oxalate
B) Sodium citrate
C) Heparin
D) Sodium fluoride
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18
Chapter 17: Defects of Plasma Clotting Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following may lead to deficiencies of clotting factors except:
A) Renal disease
B) Liver disease
C) Autoimmune disease
D) Cardiovascular disease
Q2) The only clotting factor not synthesized exclusively by the liver is:
A) Factor V
B) Factor VII
C) Factor VIII
D) Factor IX
Q3) Christmas disease is another name for:
A) Hemophilia A
B) Hemophilia B
C) von Willebrand's disease
D) Factor VII deficiency
Q4) A man with hemophilia A and an unaffected female can produce a:
A) Female carrier
B) Male carrier
C) Male with hemophilia A
D) Normal female
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Chapter 18: Fibrinogen, Thrombin, and the Fibrinolytic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following hematology disorders will likely trigger an episode of DIC?
A) Sickle cell disease
B) Iron deficiency anemia
C) Idiopathic thrombocythemia
D) Acute progranulocytic leukemia
Q2) Prothrombin can only be converted to thrombin by the action of factor X, factor V, platelet factor 3, and:
A) Factor II
B) Fibrinogen
C) Calcium
D) Phosphorus
Q3) All of the following are functions of thrombin except:
A) Initiating the platelet release reaction
B) Simulating platelets to product PGI<sub>2</sub>
C) Activating factors V and VIII
D) Activating thromboplastin
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Chapter 19: Introduction to Thrombosis and Anticoagulant Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antithrombin inhibits all of the following factors except:
A) II a
B) VII a
C) IX a
D) XI a
Q2) Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) usually:
A) Occurs as a result of protein C deficiency
B) Will show an increase in platelets
C) Occurs 5 to 14 days after heparin therapy
D) Occurs only in males
Q3) The lupus anticoagulant is directed against:
A) Factor VIII
B) Factor X
C) Factor IX
D) Phospholipids
Q4) Coumadin acts in such a way that it:
A) Alters the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent factors
B) Reduces the circulating level of factors III and V
C) Reduces the circulating level of factor I
D) Cleaves carboxyreductase to generate glutamic acid
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