Advanced Respiratory Care Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Advanced Respiratory Care is an in-depth course designed for students pursuing expertise in the assessment, diagnosis, and therapeutic management of patients with complex respiratory disorders. The curriculum focuses on advanced respiratory care modalities, including mechanical ventilation strategies, noninvasive ventilation, critical care monitoring, and innovative therapeutic interventions. Emphasis is placed on interpreting diagnostic data, applying evidence-based practices, and managing emergency situations in diverse clinical settings. The course also explores current trends, ethical considerations, and the integration of interdisciplinary approaches to improve patient outcomes in acute and chronic respiratory care.
Recommended Textbook
Integrated Cardiopulmonary Pharmacology 3rd Edition by Bruce J. Colbert
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15 Chapters
833 Verified Questions
833 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: General Pharmacologic Principles
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Sample Questions
Q1) The phase of drug testing that is performed to look for rare or serious adverse effects after the drug is marketed is:
A)Phase I.
B)Phase II.
C)Phase III.
D)Phase IV.
Answer: D
Q2) You note that a physician has made a new entry on a patient's chart.The entry reads "500 mg acetaminophen PO QID." What does this order mean?
A)500 mg acetaminophen by mouth,four times daily
B)500 mg acetaminophen per order,six times daily
C)500 mg acetaminophen preop,then daily
D)500 mg acetaminophen postop,then every 4 hours
Answer: A
Q3) In order for drugs to be effective without causing toxicity,they must be maintained within the ____________.
Answer: therapeutic range
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3
Chapter 2: The Metric System and Drug Dosage
Calculations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Converting a measure from milliliters to liters is accomplished by moving the decimal point three places to the right.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Terbutaline sulfate is available as 1 mg/1 ml in an ampule.How many milliliters are needed to administer a 0.75 dose?
A)1.5 ml
B)0.75 ml
C)0.15 ml
D)0.30 ml
Answer: B
Q3) The Joint Commission recommends that a zero always be placed after the decimal point when referring to drug dosage.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The metric system of measurement is based on the __________________.
Answer: powers of 10
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Chapter 3: Pharmacology of the Autonomic Nervous System
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59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The name of the parasympathetic neurotransmitter is:
A)Acetylcholine.
B)Cholinesterase.
C)Norepinephrine.
D)Adrenalin.
Answer: A
Q2) Once released,norepinephrine is immediately broken down by the enzyme monoamine oxidase (MAO).
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Drugs that antagonize the sympathetic response are known as ________________ or ________________.
Answer: antiadrenergics/sympatholytics
Q4) What are adrenergic blockers?
Answer: Adrenergic blockers are alpha or beta blockers that block or slow the effects of the sympathetic system at alpha or beta receptor sites.They are classified as sympatholytic drugs.
Q5) Catecholamines are adrenergic agents such as ________________.
Answer: dobutamine,dopamine,epinephrine,isoproterenol,or norepinephrine
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Chapter 4: Medicated Aerosol Treatments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aerosol particles are measured in ________________.
Q2) When administering a spontaneous aerosol treatment with an SVN,a mouthpiece is recommended for better deposition than with a mask.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Advantages of delivering aerosolized drugs via inhalation include all of the following except:
A)Smaller drug dosage.
B)Quick drug response.
C)Variable dosage.
D)fewer side effects.
Q4) One factor that determines the depth of penetration of an aerosol particle is the ________________.
Q5) The gas powering a nebulizer during aerosol therapy should be set at a flow rate of 10 to 12 lpm.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The category of drugs that desensitize the allergic response and prevents asthma is
6
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Chapter 5: Bronchodilators
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the efficacy of the inhalation route of administration for bronchodilating agents questionable?
Q2) Effects of parasympatholytic agents include: I.Bronchodilation
II)Decreased heart rate
III)Drying of pulmonary secretions
A)I and II
B)I and III
C)II and III
D)I,II,and III
Q3) Alpha-adrenergic drugs are used primarily for their bronchodilatory effect.
A)True
B)False
Q4) By what route are methylxanthines usually administered to patients with COPD?
A)Aerosol inhalation
B)Direct endotracheal instillation
C)Orally
D)Transcutaneously
Q5) Methylxanthines are believed to work by inhibiting ________________,which is the enzyme that deactivates cyclic AMP.
Page 7
Q6) Albuterol and levalbuterol are classified as ____________-acting beta-agonists.
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Chapter 6: Mucokinetics and Surfactants
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of hypertonic saline solutions for sputum induction is likely to cause bronchospasm.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ________________ aerosols dilute mucus by altering its water content.
Q3) Mucolytics achieve their effect in mucus control by changing the molecular structure of the mucous gel.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the two types of therapeutic approaches to surfactant administration for a premature infant with respiratory distress.
Q5) Surfactant that is naturally produced in lung tissue is called ________________ surfactant.
Q6) Identify the methods available for delivering bland aerosol to the lungs and explain how they differ.
Q7) When a patient has a dry,nonproductive cough,a ________________ saline solution can be administered to stimulate a cough and produce more mucus.
Q8) The saline solution that is considered to be an expectorant is ________________.
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Chapter 7: Anti-Inflammatory and Antiasthmatic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immunoglobulins are produced by which of the following?
A)Antigens
B)B lymphocytes
C)Antibodies
D)T lymphocytes
Q2) The antihistamine effect of Allegra is accomplished by which of the following mechanisms?
A)Blocking the action of histamine at histamine 1 receptors
B)Stabilizing the mast cell membrane and preventing release of histamine
C)Inhibiting the effect of histamine by blocking lipoxygenase pathways
D)Inhibiting cytokine release from nasal epithelial cells
Q3) Leukotriene modifiers can be used as an alternative to low-dose inhaled steroids for long-term control of asthma.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Patients on long-term systemic steroid use may develop Cushing's syndrome and osteoporosis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the mechanism of prostaglandin inhibitors in airway function.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Anti-Infective Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vancomycin is indicated for the treatment of chronic infections caused by gram-positive microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How do microorganisms develop resistance to anti-infective agents?
Q3) A patient you are caring for in the ICU has been diagnosed with pneumonia caused by Staphylococcus aureus.She was given a course of methicillin but has not shown any clinical or microbiological improvement.The most appropriate drug to treat her condition is:
A)Tobramycin.
B)Vancomycin.
C)Erythromycin.
D)Zithromax.
Q4) Antifungals work by preventing the organisms from producing which of the following?
A)Cholesterol
B)Chlorophyll
C)Ergosterol
D)Spores
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Chapter 9: Cardiac Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a ventricular arrhythmia?
A)Supraventricular tachycardia
B)Atrial flutter
C)Torsade de pointes
D)Atrial fibrillation
Q2) A common supraventricular arrhythmia is:
A)Torsade de pointes.
B)Atrial fibrillation.
C)Premature ventricular contractions.
D)Ventricular fibrillation.
Q3) Cardiac cells can become excited in which of the following situations? I)Oxygen deficit
II)Electrolyte imbalance
III)Ischemia
A)I and II
B)I and III
C)II and III
D)I,II,and III
Q4) Should a beta-blocking agent be prescribed to treat a patient with heart failure who has a history of asthma?
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Chapter 10: Blood Pressure and Antithrombotic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) When is hypertension considered an emergency,and how should it be treated?
Q2) Beta blockers should be used cautiously in patients with which of the following conditions?
A)Left-ventricular hypertrophy
B)Coronary artery disease
C)Heart failure
D)Insulin-dependent diabetes
Q3) Which of the following agents actually dissolves the fibrin of a clot?
A)Heparin
B)Plavix
C)Aspirin
D)Activase
Q4) Which of the following classes of diuretics should be considered for a patient who has low levels of calcium?
A)Thiazides
B)Loop diuretics
C)Potassium-sparing agents
D)Calcium-channel blockers
Q5) The primary autonomic mechanism for blood pressure homeostasis is the
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Chapter 11: Neuromuscular, sedative, anesthetic, and Analgesic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) All except which of the following drugs can cause loss of airway reflexes?
A)Rozerem
B)Diprivan
C)Lidocaine
D)Ketalar
Q2) NMBAs are beneficial during mechanical ventilation for all except which of the following reasons?
A)Increased spontaneous breathing
B)Prevention of movement that can dislodge chest tubes
C)Reduced oxygen consumption
D)Improved patient-ventilator synchrony
Q3) _______________NBMAs stimulate nonselective cholinergic receptors causing parasympathetic responses.
Q4) Agents that inhibit acetylcholinesterase cause increased acetylcholine at the muscle end plate and result in stimulation of the muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Drugs that reduce CNS arousal are classified as ________________.
Q6) Why is Versed used during major and minor surgical procedures?
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Chapter 12: Therapeutic Medical Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The FIO<sub>2 </sub>delivered in _______________ oxygen systems is affected by the patient's rate and depth of breathing.
Q2) You are called to the emergency room to administer oxygen to a patient who is being treated for drug overdose.You notice that the patient's respiratory rate is six breaths per minute and that he is breathing very shallowly.This patient is ordered oxygen therapy to treat which of the following types of hypoxia?
A)Hypoxemic hypoxia
B)Anemic hypoxia
C)Circulatory hypoxia
D)Demand hypoxia
Q3) Of the following,which device is most likely to transmit bacteria?
A)A large-volume nebulizer
B)A jet-mixing mask
C)A simple mask
D)A nonrebreathing mask
Q4) The PaO<sub>2</sub> represents the amount of oxygen that is dissolved in the blood.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Pharmacologic Management of Obstructive
Pulmonary Disease: Asthma, chronic Bronchitis, and Emphysema
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pharmacologic agent _____________ is recommended for patients who are severely limited by their COPD to improve their activities of daily living.
Q2) Asthma that occurs two times or less per week and can be controlled is considered mild persistent asthma.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following describes asthma?
A)Presence of productive cough during 3 months of the year for 2 consecutive years
B)Episodes of reversible airway hyperreactivity and inflammation
C)Destruction of alveolar walls and loss of elastic recoil in the lung
D)Chronic sputum production and associated cough
Q4) ________________ is a drug that blocks IgE from activating mast cells in patients with severe allergic asthma.
Q5) Describe the clinical presentation of a patient with emphysema that you suspect is due to a deficiency of alpha<sub>1</sub>-antitrypsin.
Page 15
Q6) Why is it recommended to use nicotine replacements with Zyban?
Q7) Inhaled corticosteroids should always be administered with a ________________.
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Page 16
Chapter 14: Pharmacologic Treatment of Respiratory
Infectious Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibiotics that should be avoided in children are ________________ and ________________.
Q2) Antimicrobial regimens for sinusitis should continue _______________days after signs and symptoms improve.
Q3) Preventive measures to reduce the number of hospital-acquired pneumonia include which of the following?
I.Patient precautions to reduce aspiration
II.Health care worker hand washing
III.Vaccines against particular infections
A)I and II
B)I and III
C)II and III
D)I,II,and III
Q4) Drug treatment for TB includes combination therapy using all except which of the following antimicrobials?
A)Isoniazid
B)Pentamidine
C)Rifampin
D)Streptomycin
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Chapter 15: Medications for Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) All except which of the following are indications for beta blockers?
A)Suspected myocardial infarction
B)AV heart block
C)Supraventricular tachyarrhythmia
D)Unstable angina
Q2) Pulseless cardiac arrest is produced by all except which of the following arrhythmias?
A)Asystole
B)PEA
C)Atrial fibrillation
D)Ventricular fibrillation
Q3) Tachycardia that originates in the atria or AV node is called a/an ________________.
Q4) Dopamine can be used with hypovolemia after volume replacement.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When a patient experiences a myocardial infarction,irreversible death of myocardial cells has occurred.
A)True
B)False
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