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Model – I: Floor Arrangement Directions (Q.1-5): Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions: Eight friends S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z live on eight different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lower most floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so on till the top most floor of the building is numbered eight. Z lives on an odd numbered floor below floor numbered five. Only three people live between Z and Y. X lives on an even numbered floor immediately above W but not on floor numbered six. The number of people living above Y is equal to the number of people living below V. U lives on an odd numbered floor. T lives on one of the floors below U.

How many persons live below the vacant floor? In the earlier articles we discussed about different models in Row arrangement, Circular arrangement along with the questions given in the previous examinations. In this article we are going to discuss about the miscellaneous models that were given in previous examinations like – Floor arrangement, Days, Months and Ages based on years. These models are a regular feature in both prelims and mains examinations.

Writer G. Shashi Kumar Subject Expert 1. In the given arrangement, if U interchanges with Y and Z interchanges with V, how many people will live between Z and Y? 1) None 2) Three 3) One 4) More than three 5) Two 2. Who amongst the following lives on floor numbered eight? 1) W 2) S 3) V 4) T 5) X 3. Which of the following is true as per the given arrangement? 1) As many people live below Y as above X 2) None of the given statements are true 3) Only one person lives between Y and W 4) T lives on the floor immediately above U 5) Y lives on an even number floor

Solutions (1-5): It is given that Z lives on odd numbered floor below floor numbered five. Hence Z lives either on floor numbered 1 or on floor numbered 3. Only three people live between Z and Y. Hence Y lives on either floor numbered 5 or on floor numbered 7 accordingly. The number of people live above Y is equal to the number of people live below V. Hence if Y lives on floor numbered 5 then V lives on floor numbered 4 or if Y lives on floor number 7 then V lives on floor numbered 2. It can be shown as follows. 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1

Y V

Z

8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1

Y

Z V

It is also given that X lives on an even numbered floor immediately above W but not on floor numbered six, which is not possible in case (ii). Hence it is eliminated. In case (i), X lives on floor numbered 8 and W lives on floor numbered 7. As U lives on an odd numbered floor. U lives on floor numbered 3 and T lives on one

IBPS POs Reasoning 4. Who live/s exactly between the floor/s on which V and W live? 1) Only Z 2) Only X of the floors below W. Hence T lives on floor numbered 2. The final arrangement is as follows. 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1

X W S Y V U T Z

1. If U interchanges with Y and Z interchanges with V then no one live between Y and Z.

Choice (1) 2. X lives on floor numbered 8. Choice (5) 3. Only one person lives between Y and W is true. Choice (3) 4. Both S and Y live between the floors on which V and W live. Choice (3) 5. Except T and X in all other pairs both the persons live on adjacent floors. Choice (4) (6-10): It is given that F lives on floor numbered two and only one person lives between A and C. A lives on one of the floors below E and C live on one of the floors below A. Hence if C lives on the first floor A lives on the third floor or if C lives on the third floor A lives on the fifth floor and if C lives on the fourth floor A lives on the sixth floor and E lives on the seventh floor. It can be shown as follows.

3) Both S and Y 4) Only T 5) Both X and Y 5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1) ZT 2) SW 3) UV 4) TX 5) VY 7 6 5 4 3 2 1

A F C

7 6 5 4 3 2 1

A C F

7 6 5 4 3 2 1

Directions (Q. 6-10): Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions: Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are living on a seven floored building. The lowermost floor is numbered one and the floor above it is numbered two and so on until the top most floor is numbered seven. One of the floors is vacant. F lives on the floor numbered two. Only one person lives between A and C. A lives on one of the floors below E but not immediately below. D lives immediately above B but not on the top floor. C lives on one of the floors below A. The vacant floor is neither on the lowermost floor nor even number floor. 6. Which of the following combination is true? 1) A-Floor Six 2) E-Floor Seven 3) C-Floor Five 4) D-Floor three 5) None of these 7. Who among the following lives on the fifth floor? 1) E 2) D 3) B 4) Vacant 5) A 8. Which of the following statement is correct? 1) E lives on one of the floor above D 2) Only one person lives between E and A 3) C lives immediately above F 4) A lives immediately above the vacant floor 5) None of these 9. How many persons live below the vacant floor? 1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) None of these 10. In which of the following floor does C live? 1) Immediately below F 2) Immediately above D 3) Immediately below B 4) Immediately below the vacant floor 5) None of these

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E A

ÚÛìqöËμdÙåªx C F

But it is also given that D lives immediately above B but not on the top floor which is not a possibility in case (ii) and case (iii). Hence these two are eliminated. In case (i), if B stays on the fourth floor, D stays the fifth floor or if B stays on the fifth floor, D stays on the sixth floor. But vacant floor is neither lower most floor nor even numbered floor hence D lives on the fifth floor, B lives on the fourth floor and E lives on the seventh floor. The top most floor is vacant. The final arrangement is as follows. 6. None of the given 7 Vacant combinations are 6 E true. 5 D Choice (5) 4 B 7. D lives on the fifth 3 A floor. 2 F Choice (2) 1 C 8. E lives on one of the floors above D is correct.

Choice (1) 9. Six persons live below the vacant floor. 10. C lives immediately below F.

Model – II: Vacant Floor Arrangement

Choice (5) Choice (1)

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The Constitution of India describes India as.. Model Questions 1. The distribution of powers betweeen Centre and the states in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the: 1) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909 2) Mountague-Chelmsford Act, 1919 3) Government of India Act, 1935 4) Indian Independence Act, 1947 2. What was the basis for constituting the Constituent Assembly? 1) The Indian Independence Act, 1947 2) The Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946 3) The resolution of Indian National Congress 4) The resolution of the Provincial legislature of Dominion of India 3. The Constituent Assembly of India started functioning from: 1) 9th December, 1946 2) 26th January, 1947 3) 1st January, 1947 4) 15th August, 1947 4. How much time the Constituent Assembly took to frame the Constitution of India? 1) 3 years 4 months 14 days 2) 2 years 11 months 18 days 3) 2 years 7 months 23 days 4) 3 years 11 months 5 days 5. Who was the Chairman of the Provincial Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly? 1) B.R. Ambedkar 2) Jawaharlal Nehru 3) Rajendra Prasad 4) Sardar Patel 6. The Presidential Government operates on the principle of: 1) Division of powers between centre and states 2) Centralisation of Powers 3) Balance of Powers 4) Separation of powers 7. Which of the following countries have an Unwritten Constitution? 1) USA 2) UK 3) India 4) Pakistan 8. The Unitary System of Government possesses which of the following advantages? 1) Greater adaptability 2) Strong State 3) Greater participation by the people 4) None of these 9. Which of the following countries enjoys a federal form of government? 1) China 2) USA 3) Cuba 4) Belgium 10. The declaration that Democracy is a Government "of the people, by the people, for the people" was made by: 1) Abraham Lincoln 2) George Washington 3) Theodre Roosevelt 4) Winston Churchill 11. The most essential form of the

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Parliamentary form of Government is the: 1) Sovereignty of the Parliament 2) Written constitution 3) Accountability of the executive to the legislature 4) Independent judiciary Who called Indian Federalism as the Co-operative Federalism? 1) G. Austin 2) K.C. Wheare 3) Ivor Jennings 4) D.D. Basu The idea of including the Emergency provisions in the Constitution of India has been borrowed from the: 1) Constitution of Canada 2) Weimar Constitution of Germany 3) Constitution of Ireland 4) Constitution of USA The office of the Lokpal and Lokayukta in India is based on which of the following? 1) Parliamentary Commissioner of UK 2) Ombudsman in Scandinavia 3) Procurator General of Russia 4) Council of State in France At the time of enactment of the Constitution, which one of the following ideals was not included in the preamble? 1) Liberty 2) Equality 3) Socialist 4) Justice Which among the following is the correct expression for the term "Secular" in India? 1) India has many religion 2) Indians have religious freedom 3) To follow the religion depends upon the will of an individual 4) There is no religion of the State in India Which one of the following liberty is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India? 1) Liberty of Thought 2) Liberty of Expression 3) Liberty of Belief 4) Economic Liberty With what subject to the Article 5 to 11 of the constitution of India deal? 1) Indian Union and its territory 2) Citizenship 3) Fundamental Duties 4) Union Executive Procedure for creation of Legislative Council in States has been described in which Article of the Constitution? 1) Article 69 2) Article 169 3) Article 269 4) Article 369 Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that "It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance"? 1) Article 215 2) Article 275 3) Article 325 4) Article 355 Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of States

General General Studies Studies Indian Indian Polity Polity Useful for All Competitive Exams

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and specifies their territories? 1) First 2) Second 3) Third 4) Fourth How does the Constitution of India describe India as? 1) A federation of States and Union Territories 2) A Union of States 3) Bharathvarsh 4) A federated nation Which of the following States is a member of the "Seven Sisters"? 1) West Bengal 2) Tripura 3) Orissa 4) Bihar Which one of the following is the first State to have been formed on linguistic basis? 1) Andhra Pradesh 2) Gujarat 3) Karnataka 4) Punjab The power to curve out a new State is vested in: 1) The Parliament 2) The President 3) The Council of Ministers 4) State's Reorganisation Commission By which one of the following Constitutional Amendments Delhi has become National Capital Region (NCR)? 1) 61st Amendment 2) 69th Amendment 3) 71st Amendment 4) 79th Amendment The brand name of 16 digit unique identification number assigned to each individual in the country is: 1) Pehchan 2) Maadhyam 3) Aabhar 4) Aadhar Which of the following can a court issue for enforcement of Fundamental Rights? 1) A decree 2) An ordinance 3) A Writ 4) A notification Civil equality implies: 1) Equality before law 2) Equality of opportunity 3) Equality distribution of wealth 4) Equal right to participate in the affairs of the state Which of the following is a bulwark of personal freedom? 1) Mandamus 2) Habeas Corpus 3) Quo Warranto 4) Certiorary Which of the following is not a Union Territory? 1) Goa 2) Lakshadweep 3) Dadra and Nagar Haveli 4) Chandigarh

32. Freedom of Press in India is: 1) Available to the people under the law of the Parliament 2) Specifically provided in the constitution 3) Implied in the right of freedom of expression 4) Available to the people of India under executive power 33. Part III of the Constitution of India relates to: 1) Fundamental Rights 2) Directive Principles of State Policy 3) Fundamental Duties 4) Citizenship 34. At present in the Constitution of India Right to Property is: 1) Fundamental Right 2) Legal Right 3) Moral Right 4) None of these 35. Which one of the following writs examines the functioning of Subordinate courts? 1) Quo Warranto 2) Mandamus 3) Certiorari 4) Habeas Corpus 36. Which one of the following subjects comes under the common jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the High Court? 1) Mutual disputes among States 2) Dispute between Centre and State 3) Protection of Fundamental Rights 4) Protection from the violation of the Constitution 37. According to the National Human Rights Commission (NHRM) Act, who amongst the following can be its Chairman? 1) Any serving judge of the Supreme Court 2) Any serving judge of the High Court 3) Only a retired Chief Justice of India 4) Only a retired Chief Justice of High Court 38. Panchayati Raj System in India is laid down under: 1) Fundamental Rights 2) Fundamental Duties 3) Directive Principles of State Policy 4) Election Commission Act 39. "Directive Principles of State Policy is a cheque which is paid on Bank's convenience". Who told it? 1) B.R. Ambedkar 2) K.M. Munshi 3) Rajendra Prasad 4) K.T. Seth 40. The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principle of State Policy in the Indian Constitution is to establish: 1) Political Democracy 2) Social Democracy 3) Gandhian Democracy 4) Social and economic democracy 41. How many Fundamental Duties are in the Indian Constitution?

42.

43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

49.

1) Nine 2) Eleven 3) Twelve 4) Twenty How many times the President of India seek re-election to his post? 1) Only once 2) 2 times 3) 3 times 4) Any number of times Which of the following appointments is not made by the President of India? 1) Speaker of the Lok Sabha 2) Chief Justice of India 3) Chief of Air Staff 4) Chief of Army A Presidential Ordinance can remain in force: 1) For 3 months 2) For 6 months 3) For 9 months 4) Indefinitely Who can initiate impeachment of the President? 1) 1/4th members of either House of the Parliament 2) Half of the members of either House of the Parliament 3) Half of the state Legislatures 4) 1/3rd members of any State Legislature The President of India is elected by the numbers of an electoral college which does not include: 1) The elected members of the Rajya Sabha 2) The elected members of the Lok Sabha 3) The elected members of the State Assemblies 4) The elected members of the State Legislative Councils Which one of the following offices is held during the pleasure of the President of India? 1) Vice-President 2) Chief Justice of India 3) Governor of a State 4) Chairman of UPSC Who was the President of India at the time of proclamation of emergency in the year 1975? 1) V.V. Giri 2) Giani Zail Singh 3) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad 4) Shankar Dayal Sharma Who holds the power to appoint the nominees from Anglo-Indian Community in the Lok Sabha? 1) Minorities Commission 2) President of India 3) Prime Minister 4) Vice-President KEY

1) 3 6) 4 11) 4 16) 4 21) 1 26) 2 31) 1 36) 3 41) 2 46) 4

2) 2 7) 2 12) 1 17) 4 22) 2 27) 4 32) 3 37) 3 42) 4 47) 3

3) 1 8) 2 13) 2 18) 2 23) 2 28) 3 33) 1 38) 3 43) 1 48) 3

4) 2 9) 2 14) 2 19) 2 24) 1 29) 1 34) 2 39) 1 44) 2 49) 2

5) 4 10) 1 15) 3 20) 4 25) 1 30) 2 35) 3 40) 4 45) 1

Prepared by: N.D. Nagesh, Subject Expert.


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17

How much loan did he take? N. Vinaykumar Reddy Director, IACE, Hyderabad.

Model Questions Directions(Q.No. 1−5): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 5 1. (17.78)2 + 23% of 1299 − of 12 839 =? − (9.72)3 a) 850 b) 1700 c) 1275 d) 2135 e) 2450 4 2. 2153+627 = 28% of 799+ of (?) 9 a) 5750 b) 4320 c) 3800 d) 3370 e) 2850 3. 856 = ? + 428 − (315 ÷ 4 × 8.74) a) 1850 b) 2160 c) 2780 d) 2520 e) 1140 4. 713.41 − 263.78 ÷ (21.78% of 201) = ? a) 825 b) 542 c) 636 d) 707 e) 913 42 5. 3174 =? − (4/7) of of 2119 16 a) 7120 b) 6355 c) 5675 d) 4540 e) 3160 6. A man bought a piece of land for 1 Rs. 72000. He sold of the part 3 2 at 20% loss and of the remai3 ning at 25% profit. At what rate should he sell the remaining portion to earn a 20% profit on the whole land ? a) Rs. 32,200 b) Rs. 30,000 c) Rs. 25,000 d) Rs. 22,200 e) Rs. 27,200 7. Two vessels A and B contain spirit and water in the ratio 5 : 2 and 7 : 6 respectively. Find the ratio in which these mixtures be mixed to obtain a new mixture in

IBPS Clerk Prelims Reasoning Directions (Q.No. 1 - 5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight professors of a university working in three departments, viz Physics, Chemistry and English with not more than three of them in any department. Each of them has a different choice of sports from football, cricket, volleyball, badminton, lawn tennis, basketball, hockey and table tennis, not necessarily in the same order. D is in Chemistry department and does not like either football or cricket. F is associated with Physics with only A, who likes table tennis. E and H do not work in the same department as D. C likes hockey and does not work in English. G does not

vessel C containing spirit and water in the ratio 8 : 5 ? a) 2 : 5 b) 3 : 4 c) 5 : 8 d) 4 : 5 e) 7 : 9 8. Tap 'A' can fill the tank completely in 6 hrs while tap 'B' can empty it by 12 hrs. By mistake, the person forgot to close the tap 'B', As a result, both the taps, remained open. After 4 hrs, the person realized the mistake and immediately closed the tap 'B'. In how much time now onwards, would the tank be full? a) 2 hours b) 4 hours c) 3 hours d) 5 hours e) 6 hours 9. Abhishek took a loan at simple interest rate of 6% in the year with an increase of 0.5% in each subsequent year. He paid interest of Rs. 6125 after 5 years. How much loan did he take? a) Rs. 11700 b) Rs. 20000 c) Rs. 12500 d) Rs. 17500 e) Rs. 11000 10. From a group of 8 women and 6 men, a committee consisting of 3 men and 3 women is to be formed. In how many ways can the committee be formed if two of the men refuses to serve together? a) 800 b) 725 c) 896 d) 850 e) 757 Directions (Q.No.11-15): In each of the following questions two equations are given. You have to solve the equations and Give answer a) If x < y b) If x ≤ y c) Relationship between x and y cannot be determined d) If x ≥ y e) If x > y 2 11. I. 7x + 13x + 6 = 0 II. 4y2 + 7y − 11 = 0 12. I. x2 + 46x + 520 = 0 II. 3y2 − 17y + 24 = 0 13. I. 5y2 − 13y − 18 = 0 II. 11x2 + 23x + 12 = 0

work in Chemistry and does not like either cricket or badminton. One of those who is in Chemistry department likes football. The one who likes volleyball is in the department of Physics. None of those who are associated with Chemistry likes either badminton or lawn tennis. H does not like cricket. 1. Which of the following groups of professors work in Chemistry department? 1) EGH 2) AF 3) BCD 4) BGD 5) Data inadequate 2. In which department does E work? 1) Physics 2) English 3) Chemistry 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these 3. Which of the following combinations of Professors -Department - Favourite sport is correct? 1) E - Chemistry - Cricket 2) F - Physics - Lawn Tennis

IBPS Clerk Prelims Quantitative Quantitative l a i c Aptitude Aptitude Spe

useful for

All Bank Exams

2 2 125 1 80 × × 72000 + × × × 3 3 100 3 100 120 72000 + x = × 72000 100 ⇒ x = 86400 − 59200 ⇒ x = Rs. 27,200 7) e; By rule of alligation, A _____ B 5 7 ==== 7 13

Mean Price 14. I. x4 − 13x2 + 36 = 0 II. y2 + 4y − 45 = 0 15. I. 6y2 − 14y + 8 = 0 II. 4x2 − 15x + 14 = 0

Key & Solutions

8 13

Mixture from Vessel A : Mixture from Vessel B 1 9 7 = : = = 7:9 13 91 9 8) b; In one hour, Tank A and B together can effectively fill 1 1  1  − =  6 12  12

of the tank

(1-5): 1) c;  23  5 324 +  1300 × −    × 840 = 100    12  x −1000 324 + 299 − 350 + 1000 = x x = 1273 = 1275 2) a; 28 4 2780 = × 800 +   x 100 9  4x  2780 = 224 +   ⇒x = 5750  9  3) e;  316   856 = x + 428 −   × 9  4   x = 856−428+711 = 1139 ⇒ 1140 4) d;  22   200 × 713 − 264 ÷   =x 100    264 ⇒ 707 x = 713 − 44 5) b;  4   42  3174 = x −   ×   ×2120  7   16  3174 = x − 3180 x = 3174 + 3180 = 6354 = 6355 6) e; Let he sells the remaining part for Rs. x.

⇒ In 4 hours Tank A and B can 1 1 ×4 = effectively fill = of 12 3 the tank. Time taken to fill the remaining  1 2 1 −  = of the tank  3 3 2 3 =   = 4 hours  1  6 9) d; Total interest = Rs. 6125 Rate = 6% and increasing by 0.5% every year Let total Loan Amount = P

3) H - English - Lawn Tennis 4) B - Chemistry - Table Tennis 5) None of these 4. Which is E's favourite sport? 1) Cricket 2) Badminton 3) Basketball 4) Lawn Tennis 5) None of these 5. What is G's favourite sport? 1) Cricket 2) Badminton 3) Basketball 4) Lawn Tennis 5) None of these

5) If both conclusions I and II are true. 6. Statements: A > B ≥ C = D < E; F > B = G Conclusions: I. F > D II. A ≤ F 7. Statements: Q ≥ P = R > S < T ≥ U; V≤T=W<X Conclusions: I. Q ≥ X II. R = V

Directions (Q. 6-7): In these questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statement(s). The statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer 1) If only conclusion I is true. 2) If only conclusion II is true. 3) If either conclusion I or II is true. 4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true.

Key & Solutions

P=

[6125 ×100 ]

[6 ×1 + 6.5 ×1 + 7 ×1 + 7.5 ×1 + 8 ×1 ]

612500 = Rs. 17500 35 10) c; Number of ways in which a committee can be formed if two of the men refuses to serve together = 8C3 (6C3− 2C2 × 4C1) = 56×16 = 896 (11-15): 11) c; =

Professor Department Sport A Physics T. Tennis B Chemistry Football C Chemistry Hockey D Chemistry Basketball E English Cricket F Physics Volleyball G English L. Tennis H English Badminton

1) 3;

2) 2;

3) 5;

I. 7x2 + 13x +6 =0 ⇒ 7x2 +7x +6x +6 =0 ⇒ (7x + 6) (x+1) = 0 (−6 ) , −1 ⇒x= 7 II. 4y2 +7y −11 = 0 ⇒ 4y2 + 11y −4y −11 = 0 ⇒ (y−1) (4y +11) = 0 −11 ⇒ y = 1, ∴No relation 4 12) a; I. x2 + 46x + 520 = 0 ⇒ x2 + 20x + 26x + 520 = 0 ⇒ (x + 20) (x + 26) = 0 ⇒ x = −20, −26 II. 3y2 −17y + 24 = 0 ⇒ 3y2 −9y −8y +24 = 0 ⇒ (y−3) (3y−8) = 0 8 ⇒ y = 3, y>x 3 ∴ 13) c; I. 11x2 +11x +12x +12 =0 ⇒ (x+1) (11x+12) = 0 ⇒ x = −1,

(−12 ) 11

II. 5y2 −5y +18y −18=0 ⇒ (y−1) (5y+18) =0

−18 ⇒ y = 1, ( ) ∴ No relation 5

14) c; I. x4−13x2 + 36 = 0 ⇒ (x2 −9) (x2 − 4) = 0 ⇒ x= ±3, ±2 II. y2 + 4y −45 = 0 ⇒ y2 + 9y −5y −45=0 ⇒ (y +9) (y−5) =0 ⇒ y = −9, 5 No relation 15) e; I. 6y2 −14y + 8 = 0 ⇒ 3y2 −7y + 4 = 0 ⇒ 3y2 − 3y −4y + 4 = 0 ⇒ (y −1) (3y −4) = 0 4 ⇒ y = 1, 3 II. 4x2 −15x +14 = 0 ⇒ 4x2 −8x −7x +14 = 0 ⇒ (x−2) (4x−7) = 0 7 ⇒ x = 2, ∴x>y 4 4) 1; 5) 4; 6) 1; Given statements: A > B ≥ C = D < E .....(i) F > B = G ...(ii) Combining both the statements, we get F > B ≥ C = D < E Thus F > D is true. Again, from (i) and (ii), we get F>B=G<A Hence, Conclusion II is not true. 7) 4; Given statements: Q ≥ P = R > S < T ≥ U .....(i) V ≤ T = W < X .....(ii) Combining both the statements, we get Q ≥ P = R>S<T = W< X Thus, we can't compare Q and X. Hence, conclusion I is not true. Again, from (i) and (ii), we get R>S<T≥V Thus, we can't compare R and V. Hence, conclusion II is not true. - K.M. Jaya Rao Subject Expert.


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ARITHMETIC

7

 9,  2018- 

If p% of p= 36 , q% of q= 48. Find p:q=?

T. Srinivas Yadav

Advisor Spoorthy Study Circle Ashoknagar, Hyd

  

A. 16(2/3)

B. 60

C. 83(1/3)

D. 85.72

D.

Percentages Test – 1 1.A 6.B 11.B 16.C 21.A 26.B 31.D 36.B

2.C 7.D 12.A 17.A 22.B 27.B 32.D 37.C

3.B 8.D 13.C 18.C 23.D 28.A 33.A 38.B

4.D 9.A 14.A 19.C 24.D 29.B 34.C 39.A

5.A 10.A 15.C 20.A 25.B 30.D 35.A


10 OSCILLATIONS

 9,  2018- 

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The potential energy of the spring is..

GOPIKRISHNA KRISHNA'S PHYSICS ACADEMY

NACHARAM 9603482817

JEE Special

1.a 7.c 13.b 19.d 25.b 31.d 37.a

2.b 8.c 14.c 20.b 26.d 32.b 38.b

ANSWERS 3.d 9.d 15.c 21.a 27.c 33.c 39.b

4.d 10.d 16.d 22.c 28.b 34.a 40.b.

5.a 11.b 17.d 23.c 29.b 35.b

6.a 12.d 18.d 24.a 30.a 36.a


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dæ) 1965 &ç) 1963 39. ª~X¯{≤ìø˘ yÓ¬s‡dtµ nH˚ qe\qT s¡∫+∫+~ mes¡T? m) dü˝≤àHé s¡w”› _) ≈£îwü«+‘Y dæ+>¥ dæ) $Áø£+ùdHé &ç) nì‘ê <˚XÊjYT 40. $<ë´ s¡+>∑+˝À |ü⁄s√>∑$TdüTÔqï ãs√&Ü sêÁwüº+ ìs¡“¤+<Ûä ÁbÕ<∏ä$Tø£ $<ä´qT m|ü&ÉT Á|üy˚X¯ ô|{Ϻ+~? m) 1909 _) 1906 dæ) 1911 &ç) 1904 41. Væ≤+<ä÷sTT»+˝Àì <äTsê#êsê\ ìs¡÷à\q¬ø’ <˚e düe÷CŸ dü+düúqT kÕú|æ+∫qyês¡T? m) s¡e÷u≤sTT s¡q&˚ _) •eHêsêj·TDY n–ïVü≤√Á‹ dæ) sê+u≤CŸù|sTT &ç) πøX¯e #·+Á<äùdHé 42. Äs¡´düe÷CŸqT kÕú|æ+∫q yês¡T mes¡T? m) sêC≤sêyÓ÷àVü≤Hé sêjYT _) bÕ+&ÉTs¡+>∑ dæ) <˚y˚+Á<äHê<∏é sƒê>∑÷sY &ç) kÕ«$T <äj·÷q+<ä düs¡dü«‹ 43. Ç+&çj·THé nHé¬sdtº Á>∑+<∏äø£s¡Ô mes¡T? m) ‹\ø˘ _) eT<äHé yÓ÷Vü≤Hé e÷\e´ dæ) yê\+f…ÆHé ∫s√˝Ÿ &ç) uÛ≤jYT |üs¡e÷q+<é 44. »dæºdt bÕغ @ dü+e‘·‡s¡+˝À ªÁ<ë$&É ø£»>∑+µ>± ù|s¡T e÷s¡TÃ≈£î+~? m) 1944 _) 1977 dæ) 1948 &ç) 1971 45. eTÁ<ëdt ˝ÒãsY j·T÷ìj·THéqT mes¡T kÕú|æ+#ês¡T? m) eTVü≤‘êà>±+BÛ _) _.|æ. yê#ê dæ) ø£s¡DYdæ+>¥ &ç) bÕ˝Ÿ|ü⁄≈£îe÷s¡Hé 46. Á<ë$&É ñ<ä´eT+ mø£ÿ&É ÁbÕs¡+uÛÑyÓTÆ+~? m) πøs¡fi¯ _) eTVü‰sêÁwüº dæ) Ä+Á<ÛäÁ|ü<˚XŸ &ç) ‘·$Tfi¯Hê&ÉT 47. Hê>∑|üPsY˝À sêDT\qT nee÷ì+∫, sê#·]ø£ edüTÔe⁄\qT ãVæ≤s¡+>∑ y˚\+ y˚dæqyês¡T mes¡T? m) &É˝ÖΩdæ _) ø±s¡Héyê©dt dæ) yê¬sHéùV≤dæº+>¥ &ç) Vü≤]¶+CŸ 48. eTVü‰sêÁwüº øå±eT |ü]dæú‘·T˝À¢ ¬s’‘·T\ #·≥ºã<ä›yÓTÆq Vü≤≈£îÿ\qT Á|ü#ês¡+ #˚dæq dü+düú @~? m) Ç+&çj·THé H˚wüq˝Ÿ ø±+Á¬>dt _) dü¬s«+{Ÿ‡ Ä|òt Ç+&çj·THé kıôd’{° dæ) |üPHê kÕs¡«»ìø£ düuÛÑ &ç) Äs¡´düe÷CŸ XÊK 49. eTVü‰sêÁwüº˝À ÁãVü≤àD e´‹πsø£ dü+πø‘ê\T Ç∫Ãq m) Á{≤eHéø√sY _) ∫ø±ø√˝Ÿ yÓTT<ä{Ï e´øÏÔ? dæ) ø±*ø£{Ÿ &ç) ø=∫ÃHé m) n+uÒ<äÿsY _) >√bÕ\ø£èwüí >√K˝Ò 34. ¬s’‘ê«Ø $<ÛëHêìï s¡÷bı+~+∫q yês¡T mes¡T? dæ) sêeTkÕ«$T &ç) CÀ´‹u≤|üP˝Ò m) ø±s¡Héyê©dt _) yÓ\¢d”¢ 50. á øÏ+~yê{Ï˝À dü]ø±ì »‘· @~? dæ) ¬øô|ºHé Ø&é &ç) mes¡÷ø±<äT m) u≤s√›* dü‘ê´Á>∑Vü≤+ ` >∑T»sê‘Y 35. @ dü+e‘·‡s¡+ qT+&ç uÛ≤s¡rj·T #˚‹ eè‘·TÔ\ yê] _) bÕu≤ï n>∑πs]j·THé ©>¥ ` eTVü‰sêÁwüº edüTÔe⁄\≈£î $<˚o e÷¬sÿfÒ¢ø±ø£ dü«<˚o e÷¬sÿ{Ÿ dæ) øÏkÕHé düuÛÑ ` ñ‘·Ôs¡Á|ü<˚XŸ ≈£L&Ü ˝Ò≈£î+&Ü b˛sTT+~? &ç) yÓ÷bÕ¢ ‹s¡T>∑Tu≤≥T ` πøs¡fi¯ m) 1757 _) 1813 dæ) 1833 &ç) 1773 düe÷<ÛëHê\T 36. n{Ϻyê ˇ|üŒ+<ä+ m|ü&ÉT »]–+~? 1._ 2.&ç 3.m 4.dæ 5.m m) 1932 _) 1920 6.dæ 7.&ç 8._ 9.dæ 10.dæ dæ) 1927 &ç) 1935 12.dæ 13._ 14._ 15.dæ 37. Vü≤j·T‘Y`m`C≤M<é J$‘· #·]Á‘·qT s¡∫+∫+~ 11.&ç 16.&ç 17._ 18.&ç 19._ 20.m mes¡T? 22.m 23._ 24.m 25._ m) wæ_¢H√e÷˙ _) nø£“sY VüQùd‡Hé 21.&ç 27.&ç 28.m 29._ 30.m dæ) ˙»sY &ç) VüQùd‡sTTHé Vü≤* 26.&ç 32._ 33.m 34.dæ 35._ 38. Ád”Ô $<ä´ yÓqTø£u≤≥T ‘·HêìøÏ ø±s¡D≤\T $#ê]+ 31._ 37.&ç 38.dæ 39.m 40._ #˚+<äT≈£î ªl uÛÑø£Ôe‘·‡\+µ Ä<Ûä«s¡´+˝À ø£$T{° 36.m 41._ 42.&ç 43.dæ 44.m 45._ m|ü&ÉT @sêŒf…Æ+~? 46.&ç 47.m 48.dæ 49.&ç 50._ m) 1967 _) 1968


X¯óÁø£yês¡+ 9 qe+ãsY, 2018

4

through this demat Account.

Derivative Call (Put) Warrants: Warrants issued by a third party which grant the holder the right to buy (sell) the shares of a listed company at a specified price.

Derivative Instrument:

BANKING TERMS

The basic banking terms are frequently asked in all the Bank Interviews. These terms are useful not only for your interview but also for your general knowledge. Know ledge and Understanding of Important Banking terms play a very crucial role in the final selection. Also these banking terms are useful for Banking Aspirants, Economics & Commerce students, MBA aspirants and students preparing for other similar level Exams. Knowing basic banking terms not only gives you an edge over other candidates but also shows your interest level for the job.

Basis Point:

One hundredth of 1%. A measure norm ally used in the statement of interest rate e.g., a change from 5.75% to 5.81% is a change of 6 basis points. Bear Markets: Unfavorable markets associated with falling prices and investor pessimism.

Co-operative Bank :

An association of persons who collecti vely own and operate a bank for the bene fit of consumers/customers, like Saras wat Co-operative Bank or Abhyu daya Co-operative Bank and other such banks.

Co-operative Society :

When an association of persons collec tively own and operate a unit for the benefit of those using its services like Apna Bazar Co-operative Society or Sahakar Bhandar or a Co-operative Hous ing Society.

Core Banking Solutions (CBS):

Core Banking Solutions is a buzz word in Indian banking at present, where bran ches of the bank are connected to a central host and the customers of connec ted branches can do banking at any breach with core banking facility.

Creditworthiness:

It is the capacity of a borrower to repay the loan / advance in time along with interest as per agreed terms.

Crossing of Cheques:

Crossing refers to drawing two parallel lines across the face of the cheque. A crossed cheque cannot be paid in cash across the counter, and is to be paid through a bank either by transfer, collection or clearing. A general crossing means that cheque can be paid through any bank and a special crossing, where the name of a bank is indicated on the cheque, can be paid only through the named bank.

Customer:

A person who maintains any type of account with a bank is a bank customer. Consumer Protection Act has a wider definition for consumer as the one who purchases any service for a fee like purchasing a demand draft or a pay order. The term customer is defined differently

Financial instrument whose value depends on the value of another asset.

by Laws, softwares and countries.

Current Account:

Current account with a bank can be opened generally for business purpose. There are no restrictions on withdrawals in this type of account. No interest is paid in this type of account.

Currency Board:

A monetary system in which the mone tary base is fully backed by foreign reser ves. Any changes in the size of the mone tary base have to be fully matched by corresponding changes in the foreign reserves.

Current Yield:

A return measure that indicates the amount of current income a bond provides relative to its market price. It is shown as: Coupon Rate divided by Price multiplied by 100%.

Custody of Securities:

Registration of securities in the name of the person to whom a bank is accoun table, or in the name of the bank’s nomi

Discount Bond:

A bond selling below par, as interest inlieu to the bondholders.

Bid-ask Spread:

The difference between a dealers’s bid and ask price.

Bid Price:

The highest price offered by a dealer to purchase a given security.

Blue Chips:

Blue chips are unsurpassed in quality and have a long and stable record of earnings and dividends. They are issued by large and well-established firms that have impeccable financial credentials.

Bond:

Publicly traded long-term debt securities, issued by corporations and governments, whereby the issuer agrees to pay a fixed amount of interest over a specified period of time and to repay a fixed amount of principal at maturity.

Book Value:

The amount of stockholders’ equity in a

f¯èþÆæÿÌŒý AÐóþÆŠÿ¯ðþ‹Ü (sîýG‹Üï³GïÜÞ, gê¡Äæý$ Ýë¦Æÿ$$ ´ùsîý ç³È„æüËMæü$ Eç³Äñý*VæüMæüÆæÿ…)

nee; plus deposition of securities in a designated account with the bank’s ban kers or with any other institution provi ding custodial services.

Debit Card:

A plastic card issued by banks to customers to withdraw money electroni cally from their accounts. When you pur chase things on the basis of Debit Card the amount due is debited immedia tely to the account. Many banks issue DebitCum-ATM Cards.

Debtor:

A person who takes some money on loan from another person.

Demand Deposits:

firm equals the amount of the firm’s assets minus the firm’s liabilities and preferred stock.

Broker:

Individuals licensed by stock exchanges to enable investors to buy and sell securities.

Brokerage Fee:

The commission charged by a broker.

Bull Markets:

Favorable markets associated with rising prices and investor optimism.

Call Option:

The right to buy the underlying securities at a specified exercise price on or before a specified expiration date.

Deposits which are withdrawn on dema nd by customers. E.g. savings bank and current account deposits.

Callable Bonds:

Demat Account concept has revolutioni zed the capital market of India. When a depository company takes paper shares from an investor and converts them in electronic form through the concerned company, it is called Dematerialization of Shares. These converted Share Certificates in Electronic form are kept in a Demat Account by the Depository Company, like a bank keeps money in a deposit account. Investor can withdraw the shares or purchase more shares

Capital Gain:

Demat Account:

Bonds that give the issuer the right to re deem the bonds before their stated maturity. The amount by which the proceeds from the sale of a capital asset exceed its origi nal purchase price.

Capital Markets:

The market in which long-term securities such as stocks and bonds are bought and sold.

Certificate of Deposits (CDs):

Savings instrument in which funds must remain on deposit for a specified period and premature withdrawals incur interest

penalties.

Certificate of Deposit:. Certificate of Deposits are negotiable receipts in bearer form which can be freely traded among investors. This is also a money market instrument,issued for a period ranging from 7 days to f one year .The minimum deposit amount is Rs. 1 lakh and they are transferable by endorsement and delivery.

Cheque:

Cheque is a bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker ordering the banker to pay a certain sum of money to the drawer of cheque or another person. Money is generally withdrawn by clients by cheques. Cheque is always payable on demand.

Cheque Truncation:

Cheque truncation truncates or stops the flow of cheques through the banking system. Generally truncation takes place at the collecting branch, which sends the electronic image of the cheques to the paying branch through the clearing house and stores the paper cheques with it.

Closed-end (Mutual) Fund:

A fund with a fixed number of shares issued, and all trading is done between investors in the open market. The share prices are determined by market prices instead of their net asset value.

Collateral:

A specific asset pledged against possible default on a bond. Mortgage bonds are backed by claims on property. Collateral trusts bonds are backed by claims on other securities. Equipment obligation bonds are backed by claims on equip ment.

Commercial Paper:

Short-term and unsecured promissory notes issued by corporations with very high credit standings.

Common Stock:

Equity investment representing owner ship in a corporation; each share repre sents a fractional ownership interest in the firm.

Compound Interest:

Interest paid not only on the initial deposit but also on any interest accumulated from one period to the next.

Contract Note:

A note which must accompany every security transaction which contains information such as the dealer’s name (whether he is acting as principal or agent) and the date of contract.

Controlling Shareholder:

Any person who is, or group of persons who together are, entitled to exercise or control the exercise of a certain amount of shares in a company at a level (which differs by jurisdiction) that triggers a mandatory general offer, or more of the voting power at general meetings of the issuer, or who is or are in a position to control the composition of a majority of the board of directors of the issuer.

Coupon:

The feature on a bond that defines the amount of annual interest income.


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Which bank was established in 1865 by Indians? Banking Knowledge/ Financial Awareness 1. What is 'bridge loan'? a) Interim finance allowed by banks to their customers pending disbursement of term loans by financial institutions b) Loan to play tennis c) Loan to play cricket d) Loan to play chess e) None of these 2. 'Practical Guide to Producing Consumer Price Indices'(PGPCPI) is printed by whom? a) ILO b) United Nations Organisation c) WB d) IMF e) WTO 3. Housing has how much weight in CPI-IW? a) 70% b) 15.3% c) 85% d) 90% e) None of these 4. The weaknesses of Basel II standards were exposed during the Global Financial Crisisof ______ which forced a rethink of the regulatory approach towards capital adequacy requirements. a) 2001 b) 2007-09 c) 1999 d) 1991 e) None of these 5. In September 2010, the Group of Governors and Heads of Supervision (GHOS) announced higher global minimum capital standards for commercial banks. This followed an agreement reached in July 2010 regarding the overall design of the capital and liquidity reform package, now referred aswhat? a) Basel I b) "Basel III" c) CAMELS d) SWIFT e) None of these 6. Which of the following are the important elements of the Basel III framework? a) Stricter requirements for the quality and quantity of regulatory capital, in particular reinforcing the central role of common equity b) An additional layer of common equity the capital conservation buffer - that, when breached, restricts discretionary pay-outs to help meet the minimum common equity requirement c) A countercyclical capital buffer, which places restrictions on participation by banks in system-wide credit booms with the aim of reducing their losses in credit busts d) Liquidity requirements - a minimum liquidity ratio, the Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR), intended to provide enough cash to cover funding needs over a 30-day period of stress; and a longer-term ratio, the Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR), intended to address maturity mismatches over the entire balance sheet; e) All the above 7. In India, Basel III capital regulation has been implemented from ______onwards in phases and it will be fully implemented by March 31, 2019. The latest round of reforms published by the Basel Committee in December 2017 have implementation timelines stretching up to 2022. a) 1999 b) April 1, 2013 c) 2004 d) 2006 e) None of these 8. In India, the CRAR prescribed by Reserve Bank being 9 percent as opposed to ___ percent required by Basel norms a) 2 b) 8 c) 4 d) 15 e) None of these 9. In the abbreviation NBFC-ND, the letters ND stand for what? a) No due b) Non-deposit taking(NBFCND:non-banking financial companies

non-depositing taking) c) Non delivery d) Never done e) None of these 10. The minimum paid-up equity capital for small finance banks shall be Rs. ___ crore a) 100 b) 500 c) 600 d) 900 e) None of these 11. The promoter's minimum initial contribution to the paid-up equity capital of small finance bank shall at least be ____ per cent and gradually brought down to 26 per cent within 12 years from the date of commencement of business of the bank.

a) Security on immovable property for a loan given by a bank b) Security on movable property c) Security on gold d) Security on fashion material e) None of these 17. In how many methods capitalis raised? a) By offer for sale b) By private placing c) By offering rights issue d) All the above e) None of these 18. How many types of bonds are there? a) Coupon bonds b) Zero coupon bonds c) Convertible bonds d) All the above e) None of these 19. How many types of mutual fund schemes are there? a) Open-ended scheme / plan

29.

30.

BANK PO/ CLERKS EXAM SPECIAL

20.

21.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

a) 60 b) 80 c) 40 d) 90 e) None of these The small finance banks will be required to extend 75 per cent of its ANBC to the sectors eligible for classification as priority sector lending (PSL) by the Reserve Bank. In the abbreviation ANBC, the letter A stands for what? a) Adjusted(ANBC:Adjusted Net Bank Credit) b) Asset c) Around d) After e) None of these The small finance bank will be subject to all prudential norms and regulations of RBI as applicable to existing commercial banks including requirement of maintenance of CRR and Statutory Liquidity Ratio(SLR). No forbearance would be provided for complying with the statutory provisions. In the abbreviation CRR, the letter C stands for what? a) Cash(CRR:Cash Reserve Ratio) b) Cushion c) Cake d) Customer e) None of these At least 50 per cent of its loan portfolio should constitute loans and advances of uptoRs. ___ lakh, for small finance banks. a) 25 b) 70 c) 80 d) 100 e) None of these Differentiated banks serving niche interests, local area banks, payment banks etc. are contemplated to meet credit and remittance needs of whom? a) Small businesses,". b) Unorganized sector, c) Low income households, d) Farmers and migrant work force e) All the above What is 'mortgage'?

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

b) Close - ended scheme / plan c) Growth scheme / equity oriented scheme d) Income scheme / debt oriented scheme e) All the above East India Company established which banks? a) Bank of Bengal(1809) b) Bank of Bombay(1840 ) c) Bank of Madras(1843 ) d) All the above(they were called as Presidency Banks)(In the 20th century beginning all the above banks amalgamated and established as Imperial Bank of India) e) None of these In 1865 which bank was established by Indians? a) Allahabad Bank b) Punjab National Bank c) Bank of India d) Canara Bank e) Bank of Baroda Co-operative banks in India finance rural area under which of the following? a) Farming b) Cattle c) Milk d) Hatchery e) All the above Co-operative banks in India finance urban areas under which of the following? a) Self - employment b) Industries c) Small scale units d) Home finance e) All the above What is the old name of Dena Bank? a) DevkaranNanji Banking Company Ltd. b) Canara Bank Hindu Permanent Fund c) The Govind Bank Private Limited d) Patiala State Bank e) None of these "The world's local bank" is the tag line of which bank? a) HSBC b) Citi bank c) BNP Paribas d) Lloyds TBS e) HDFC Bank Which are called as 'differentiated banks'? a) Payments banks and small banks are "niche" or "differentiated" banks; with the common objective of furthering financial inclusion. b) Nationalised banks c) Co-operative banks d) RRBs e) None of these Small banks will provide a whole suite of basic banking products, such as, ________ . a) Deposits and supply of credit, but in a limited area of operation b) Loans for big industrialists c) Loans for airline companies d) Loans for defence equipment e) None of these Payments banks will provide a limited range of products, such as, acceptance of

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

demand deposits and remittances of funds, but will have a widespread network of access points particularly to remote areas, either through their own branch network or through BCs or through networks provided by others. They will add value by adapting technological solutions to lower costs. In the abbreviation BCs, the letter B stands for what? a) Best b)Business(BCs:Business Correspondents) c) Broadband d) Buyer e) None of these How many types of markets are there? a) Perfect competition market b) Monopolistic competition market c) Monopoly market d) Oligopoly market e) All the above The prudential limits and other guidelines on Call money market for Payments Banks and Small Finance Banks will be the same as those applicable to ________ a) WB b) Scheduled Commercial Banks c) IMF d) ADB e) None of these NSDL Payments Bank Limited has commenced operations as a payments bank with effect from October 29, 2018. In the abbreviation NSDL, the letter N stands for what? a) National (NSDL:National Securities Depository Limited) b) New c) Navy d) Natural e) None of these Lakdawala Committee for estimation of poverty in _____, which recommended state specific consumption baskets for estimation of poverty. a) 1977 b) 1993 c) 1975 d) 1981 e) None of these What is PMT? a) Proxy Means Testing or PMT. It is a kind of a survey, a census based methodology. It does not require actually a survey. b) It is basically to identify that if you own a car you are not poor, so we can check that. If you have a big brick house, you are not poor. So basically you identify a set of durables easy to observe and if you own any of them or any 5 of them, then you are not poor. c) That is the rule that lots of countries use and it is called a proxy means testing. A standard way of identifying the poor is by using any version of this. d) Anybody who has a motor cycle is not poor, anybody who has gas cooker is not poor. e) All the above Banking sector will fall under which sector? a) Primary Sector b) Service sector c) Secondary Sector d) Small Scale Secgtor e) None of these What is base rate? a) Minimum lending rate decided by RBI which shall be adopted by all public sector banks b) It is profit rate c) It is commission rate d) It is discount rate e) None of these

Praturi Potayya Sarma Answers 1) a 2) b 3) b 4) b 5) b 6) e 7) b

8) b 9) b 10) a 11) c 12) a 13) a 14) a

15) e 16) a 17) d 18) d 19) e 20) d 21) a

22) e 23) e 24) a 25) a 26) a 27) a 28) b

29) e 30) b 31) a 32) b 33) e 34) b 35) a


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TS-Education_09-11-2018  
TS-Education_09-11-2018  
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