LUMO_SST_G09 by Uolo

SOCIAL SCIENCE

2025 Board Exam Solutions (Subject Code – 087)

NCERT Textbook Solutions Sample Papers

Identify Learning Gaps

Personalised Adaptive Learning

Elaborate Video Content Personalised Practice on App Revision & Time Management

AI Tutor

Do not buy this book if the scratch card is missing or already scratched.

Code–087)

Acknowledgements

Academic Authors: Dr. Anita Revis, Jyoti Sharma, Parul Jain

Book Production: Amisha Gupta, Sanjay Kumar Goel

Project Management: Vishesh Agarwal, Nagesh Pathak

VP, Learning: Abhishek Bhatnagar

All products and brand names used in this book are trademarks, registered trademarks or trade names of their respective owners.

First impression 2025

This book is sold subject to the condition that it shall not by way of trade or otherwise, be lent, resold, hired out, or otherwise circulated without the publisher’s prior written consent in any form of binding or cover other than that in which it is published and without a similar condition including this condition being imposed on the subsequent purchaser and without limiting the rights under copyright reserved above, no part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in or introduced into a retrieval system, or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without the prior written permission of both the copyright owner and the above-mentioned publisher of this book.

Book Title: LUMO Social Science 9

ISBN: 978-93-49697-22-5

Published by Lumo Learning Private Limited

Corporate Office Address:

91Springboard, 3rd Floor

145, Sector 44, Gurugram, Haryana 122003

CIN: U74999DL2017PTC322986

Illustrations and images: www.shutterstock.com, www.stock.adobe.com and www.freepik.com

All suggested use of the internet should be under adult supervision.

SOCIAL SCIENCE (Subject Code-087)

CLASS IX - 2025-26

COURSE STRUCTURE

History (India and the Contemporary World-I) 20

Forest, Society and Colonialism Interdisciplinary project as part of multiple assessments (Internally assessed for 5 marks) 5 Pastoralists in the Modern World (To be assessed as part of Periodic Assessment only) Geography (Contemporary India-I)

India—Size and

Physical Features of India

Drainage

Climate 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife (Only map pointing to be evaluated in the annual examination.)

map

6 Population 7 Interdisciplinary project as part of multiple assessments (Internally assessed for 5 marks) * Marks as mentioned

SOCIAL SCIENCE (Subject Code-087)

CLASS IX (2025-26)

MAP WORK

Subject Name of the Chapter List of areas to be located / labeled / identified on the map

History French Revolution

Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution

Nazism and the Rise of Hitler

Geography

India: size and location

India physical features

Outline political map of France. Locate/label/identify.

• Bordeaux, Nantes, Paris and Marseille

Outline political map of the World. Locate/label/identify

Major countries of First World War: Central Powers: Germany, Austria-Hungary, Turkey (Ottoman Empire). Allied Powers –France, England, Russia and USA

Outline Political Map of World. Locate/label/identify

Major countries of Second World War: Axis Powers – Germany, Italy, Japan. Allied Powers – UK, France, Former USSR, USA

• India – States and Capitals

• Tropic of Cancer, Standard Meridian (Location and Labeling)

• Neighbouring Countries

• Mountain Ranges: The Karakoram, the Zanskar, the Shivalik, the Aravali, the Vindhya, the Satpura, Western and Eastern Ghats

• Mountain Peaks – K2, Kanchan Junga, Anai Mudi

• Plateau – Deccan Plateau, Chota Nagpur Plateau, Malwa Plateau

• Coastal Plains – Konkan, Malabar, Coromandel & Northern Circar (Location and Labelling)

Drainage system

Rivers (Identification only)

• The Himalayan River Systems – Indus, Ganges & Sutlej

• The Peninsular Rivers – The Narmada, the Tapti, the Kaveri, the Krishna, the Godavari, the Mahanadi

• Lakes – Wular, Pulicat, Sambar, Chilika

Climate Annual rainfall in India, Monsoon wind direction

Population

• Population density of all states

• The state having highest and lowest density of population

Note: The Maps available in the website of Govt. of India may be used.

Multiple

SOCIAL SCIENCE (Subject Code-087)

CLASS IX

INTERNAL ASSESSMENT: 20 MARKS

Quiz, debate, role play, viva-voce, group discussion, visual expression, interactive bulletin boards, gallery walks, exit cards, concept maps, peer assessment, self-assessment etc. through interdisciplinary project

Portfolio Classroom, work done (activities/assignments) reflections, narrations, journals etc. Achievements of the student in the subject throughout the year. Participation of the student in different activities like Heritage India quiz, etc.

PRESCRIBED TEXT BOOKS

Chapter Walk Through

Chapter Number and Chapter Name

Concept

Key Terms and Definitions for focused learning.

Timeline in history chapters has been provided to facilitate structured understanding of the sequence of events in the chapter.

NCERT Zone provides Answers to NCERT Questions (Intext Questions, Activities and Exercises) for thorough understanding of the chapter.

Ample of Practice Questions of all types.

1 The French Revolution

The French Revolution, which began in 1789, was a significant turning point in world history as it led to the end of absolute monarchy and feudal privileges in France� French society was deeply unequal, divided into three estates, with the Third Estate comprising commoners bearing the heaviest tax burden� Economic hardship, including food scarcity and rising bread prices, fuelled public anger and unrest� Enlightenment philosophers such as Rousseau, Locke, and Montesquieu spread revolutionary ideas of liberty, equality, and justice The storming of the Bastille on 14 July became a powerful symbol of the people’s resistance to tyranny� Soon after, the Third Estate declared itself the National Assembly and began drafting a constitution to limit royal power� In 1792, the monarchy was abolished and France was declared a republic However, the period known as the Reign of Terror followed, where thousands were executed under Robespierre’s rule, including the king and queen� Women actively participated in the revolution but were denied equal political rights, and their clubs were eventually banned The revolution inspired democratic ideals and freedom movements around the world

The French Revolution

Causes of the French Revolution

Political: Absolute monarchy, unfair privileges of clergy and nobility

Economic: Heavy taxation on the Third Estate, debt due to wars, rising bread prices

Social: Division into three estates, feudal dues, inequality

Intellectual: Enlightenment ideas (Locke, Rousseau, Montesquieu)

Immediate Trigger: Convocation of the Estates-General in 1789

Major Events

Storming of Bastille –Symbol of king’s tyranny destroyed (14 July 1789)

Tennis Court Oath –National Assembly formed by the Third Estate

Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen

Execution of Louis XVI –1793

Reign of Terror – Under Robespierre (1793–1794)

Rise of Napoleon –1799 onward

Outcomes

Abolition of monarchy and feudalism

Rise of democracy and nationalism

Spread of revolutionary ideals across Europe

Temporary setbacks to women’s rights

Napoleonic Code influenced legal systems

Key Terms and Definitions

French Revolution (1789–1799): It was a period of radical social and political upheaval in France, leading to the overthrow of the monarchy and the rise of republican ideals

Troops: They are groups of soldiers organised for military service or operations�

Society of Estates: It was a social and political structure in pre-revolutionary France, dividing society into three main classes: the First Estate (clergy), the Second Estate (nobility), and the Third Estate (commoners)

Feudal: It refers to a social, economic, and political system in medieval Europe, where land was held in exchange for service and loyalty�

Constitutional Monarchy: It is a form of government where a monarch’s powers are limited by a constitution, and they typically serve as ceremonial heads of state, while elected officials govern

Republic: It is a system of government where the country is considered a “public matter,” and leaders are elected by citizens, rather than being hereditary monarchs�

Slavery: It is the condition in which individuals are owned by others and forced to work without personal freedom or rights�

National Assembly: It was a legislative body formed during the French Revolution by the Third Estate to represent the people and challenge the monarchy’s power�

Liberty: It is the state of being free from oppression, restrictions, or control, allowing individuals to act according to their own will�

Timeline

1789

Estates-General called; Bastille stormed; National Assembly formed

1792

France becomes a republic; monarchy abolished

1794

Robespierre executed; end of Reign of Terror

1774

Louis XVI ascends the throne of France

1791 Constitution limits the powers of the monarchy

1793

King Louis XVI executed; start of the Reign of Terror

1799

Napoleon Bonaparte over throws the Directory and seizes power

1795 Directory established to govern France

1804

Napoleon crowns himself Emperor of France

NCERT Zone

Intext Questions

1. Explain why the artist has portrayed the nobleman as the spider and the peasant as the fly.

Ans. • The artist has portrayed the nobleman as the spider and the peasant as the fly to symbolise the exploitative relationship between the two in pre-revolutionary France�

• Just as a spider traps and feeds on the fly, the nobleman benefits from the labour and suffering of the peasant

• The image reflects how the Third Estate, made up of peasants and workers, was burdened with heavy taxes and hard work, while the First and Second Estates enjoyed privileges without contributing�

• This metaphor highlights the injustice and oppression that led to growing anger and ultimately, the French Revolution�

2. Fill in the blank boxes with appropriate terms from among the following: Food riots, scarcity of grain, increased number of deaths, rising food prices, weaker bodies

Bad Harvest Disease epidemics

Scarcity of grain

Bad Harvest Disease epidemics

Increased number of deaths

The poorest can no longer buy bread

Rising food prices Food riots

Weaker bodies

3. What message is Young trying to convey here? Whom does he mean when he speaks of ‘slaves’? Who is he criticising? What dangers does he sense in the situation of 1787?

Source A

Accounts of lived experiences in the Old Regime

1. Georges Danton, who later became active in revolutionary politics, wrote to a friend in 1793, looking back upon the time when he had just completed his studies: ‘I was educated in the residential college of Plessis There I was in the company of important men … Once my studies ended, I was left with nothing I started looking for a post It was impossible to find one at the law courts in Paris The choice of a career in the army was not open to me as I was not a noble by birth, nor did I have a patron� The church too could not offer me a refuge I could not buy an office as I did not possess a sou My old friends turned their backs to me … the system had provided us with an education without however offering a field where our talents could be utilised�’

2. An Englishman, Arthur Young, travelled through France during the years from 1787 to 1789 and wrote detailed descriptions of his journeys He often commented on what he saw ‘He who decides to be served and waited upon by slaves, ill-treated slaves at that, must be fully aware that by doing so he is placing his property and his life in a situation which is very different from that he would be in, had he chosen the services of free and well-treated men And he who chooses to dine to the accompaniment of his victims’ groans, should not complain if during a riot his daughter gets kidnapped or his son’s throat is slit ’

Ans.

Ans. • Arthur Young is conveying a strong message about the injustice and inequality present in France before the Revolution

• When he refers to ‘slaves’, he is speaking about the common people or the Third Estate, especially the peasants and workers, who were burdened with taxes and had no political rights or privileges� He is criticising the privileged classes—the nobility and clergy (First and Second Estates)—who lived in luxury while contributing little to the state’s welfare

• The danger he senses in 1787 is that this growing social and economic inequality could lead to a violent uprising, as the oppressed classes might revolt against their suffering and lack of justice�

4. Representatives of the Third Estate take the oath raising their arms in the direction of Bailly, the President of the Assembly, standing on a table in the centre. Do you think that during the actual event Bailly would have stood with his back to the assembled deputies? What could have been David’s intention in placing Bailly the way he has done?

Ans. • It is unlikely that Bailly, the President of the Assembly, would have stood with his back to the assembled deputies during the actual event� As a leader addressing the gathering, he would have faced them while administering the oath

• Jacques-Louis David, the artist, may have intentionally portrayed Bailly with his back to the viewer to create a dramatic and immersive effect� By doing so, he places the viewer within the crowd of deputies, allowing them to feel part of this historic moment� This perspective enhances the emotional impact and highlights the unity and resolve of the Third Estate

5. Identify the symbols in the following box which stand for liberty, equality and fraternity. Reading political symbols

The majority of men and women in the eighteenth century could not read or write So images and symbols were frequently used instead of printed words to communicate important ideas The painting by Le Barbier (Fig� 8) uses many such symbols to convey the content of the Declaration of Rights� Let us try to read these symbols�

1. The broken chain: Chains were used to fetter slaves A broken chain stands for the act of becoming free

2. The bundle of rods or fasces: One rod can be easily broken, but not an entire bundle� Strength lies in unity�

3. The eye within a triangle radiating light: The allseeing eye stands for knowledge The rays of the sun will drive away the clouds of ignorance

4. Sceptre: Symbol of royal power

5. Snake biting its tail to form a ring: Symbol of Eternity A ring has neither beginning nor end

6. Red Phrygian cap: Cap worn by a slave upon becoming free�

7. Blue-white-red: The national colours of France�

8. The winged woman: Personification of the law

9. The Law Tablet: The law is the same for all, and all are equal before it�

Ans. • Liberty is symbolised by the red Phrygian cap, a symbol worn by freed slaves in ancient Rome�

• Equality is represented by the eye within a triangle, symbolising a vigilant and all-seeing law that treats all equally�

• Fraternity is depicted through shaking hands, symbolising unity and brotherhood among citizens

6. Explain the meaning of the painting of the Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen by reading only the symbols.

Ans. • The painting includes several powerful symbols�

• The angel signifies divine presence or guidance�

• The eye within a triangle symbolises the law as sacred and ever-watchful

• The broken chain represents freedom from tyranny and oppression�

• The tablet inscribed with the Declaration mirrors the Biblical Ten Commandments, indicating the sanctity and universal importance of human rights�

• The Phrygian cap symbolises liberty, while rays of light around the triangle suggest enlightenment and truth

7. Compare the political rights which the Constitution of 1791 gave to the citizens with Articles 1 and 6 of the Declaration (Source C). Are the two documents consistent? Do the two documents convey the same idea?

Source C

The Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen

1. Men are born and remain free and equal in rights�

2. The aim of every political association is the preservation of the natural and inalienable rights of man; these are liberty, property, security and resistance to oppression

3. The source of all sovereignty resides in the nation; no group or individual may exercise authority that does not come from the people

4. Liberty consists of the power to do whatever is not injurious to others

5. The law has the right to forbid only actions that are injurious to society

6. Law is the expression of the general will�

All citizens have the right to participate in its formation, personally or through their representatives All citizens are equal before it

7. No man may be accused, arrested or detained, except in cases determined by the law�

11. Every citizen may speak, write and print freely; he must take responsibility for the abuse of such liberty in cases determined by the law

12. For the maintenance of the public force and for the expenses of administration a common tax is indispensable; it must be assessed equally on all citizens in proportion to their means�

17. Since property is a sacred and inviolable right, no one may be deprived of it, unless a legally established public necessity requires it In that case a just compensation must be given in advance

Ans.

• Articles 1 and 6 of the Declaration emphasise equality and that all citizens have a right to participate in law-making, either directly or through representatives�

• However, the Constitution of 1791 introduced distinctions between ‘active’ and ‘passive’ citizens, granting political rights (like voting) only to those who paid a certain amount of taxes�

• While both documents advocate equality in principle, the Constitution limits it in practice

• Thus, they are not entirely consistent; the Declaration promotes universal rights, whereas the Constitution restricts them based on property�

8. Which groups of French society would have gained from the Constitution of 1791? Which groups would have had reason to be dissatisfied? What developments does Marat (Source B) anticipate in the future?

Source B

The revolutionary journalist Jean-Paul Marat commented in his newspaper

L’ Ami du peuple (The friend of the people) on the Constitution drafted by the National Assembly:

‘The task of representing the people has been given to the rich the lot of the poor and oppressed will never be improved by peaceful means alone� Here we have absolute proof of how wealth influences the law� Yet laws will last only as long as the people agree to obey them� And when they have managed to cast off the yoke of the aristrocrats, they will do the same to the other owners of wealth’

Source: An extract from the newspaper L’ Ami du peuple

Ans. • The wealthy middle class (bourgeoisie), who paid taxes and owned property, gained political rights and were empowered by the Constitution

• However, the poor, women, and passive citizens remained without voting rights and were thus dissatisfied� Marat anticipates further unrest, suggesting that the reforms do not go far enough and that the people might rise again to demand true equality and justice�

• He foresees continued revolution unless all citizens are granted equal political rights�

9. Imagine the impact of the events in France on neighbouring countries such as Prussia, Austria-Hungary or Spain, all of which were absolute monarchies. How would the kings, traders, peasants, nobles or members of the clergy here have reacted to the news of what was happening in France?

Ans. • Kings and nobles would have been alarmed and fearful of revolution spreading to their own countries, potentially threatening their power�

• Traders and the bourgeoisie might have viewed the changes positively, hoping for more rights and freedom in their own lands�

• Peasants may have felt inspired by the possibility of liberation from feudal oppression�

• Clergy likely feared the loss of church privileges and power, as seen in France� Overall, the French Revolution likely sparked hope among the oppressed and panic among the ruling classes

10. Compare the views of Desmoulins and Robespierre. How does each one understand the use of state force? What does Robespierre mean by ‘the war of liberty against tyranny’? How does Desmoulins perceive liberty? Refer once more to Source C. What did the constitutional laws on the rights of individuals lay down? Discuss your views on the subject in class.

Ans. Desmoulins and Robespierre held different perspectives on the use of state force during the French Revolution�

• Robespierre believed that the use of state force was essential for protecting the Republic and its values He saw violence as a temporary but necessary tool to destroy

tyranny and safeguard liberty� His statement “the war of liberty against tyranny” referred to the need for revolutionary justice against those perceived as enemies of the Revolution�

• Desmoulins, on the other hand, criticised the excessive use of violence� He feared that liberty was being compromised by the very means meant to secure it� To him, liberty involved freedom from arbitrary arrests and executions, and he questioned the moral legitimacy of the Terror�

11. Describe the persons represented in the following figure – their actions, their postures, the objects they are carrying. Look carefully to see whether all of them come from the same social group. What symbols has the artist included in the image? What do they stand for? Do the actions of the women reflect traditional ideas of how women were expected to behave in public? What do you think: does the artist sympathise with the women’s activities or is he critical of them? Discuss your views in the class.

Ans. • The persons represented in the figure are mainly women, shown walking with determination� Their postures are upright and energetic, symbolising strength and resolve They are carrying objects like utensils, baskets, and weapons—symbols of both domestic life and rebellion

• These individuals do not all belong to the same social class; their clothing varies, indicating that women from diverse backgrounds took part in the march� One woman carries a drum, another waves a flag, and some hold spears or pikes, symbolising unity, resistance, and action�

• The symbols used—broken chains, a banner of liberty, and armed women—represent freedom, courage, and the collapse of oppression�

• The women’s actions challenge traditional gender roles, as women were not typically expected to lead or participate actively in public protests� Here, they are shown leading a political march, suggesting a shift in social norms�

• The artist appears to sympathise with the women by portraying them heroically and with dignity, recognising their powerful role in the Revolution�

12. Compare the manifesto drafted by Olympe de Gouges (Source F) with the Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen (Source C).

Source F

Some of the basic rights set forth in Olympe de Gouges’ Declaration.

1. Woman is born free and remains equal to man in rights�

2. The goal of all political associations is the preservation of the natural rights of woman and man: These rights are liberty, property, security, and above all resistance to oppression

3. The source of all sovereignty resides in the nation, which is nothing but the union of woman and man

4. The law should be the expression of the general will; all female and male citizens should have a say either personally or by their representatives in its formulation; it should be the same for all All female and male citizens are equally entitled to all honours and public employment according to their abilities and without any other distinction than that of their talents�

5. No woman is an exception; she is accused, arrested, and detained in cases determined by law Women, like men, obey this rigorous law

Ans. a. Focus on Gender:

• Source C – The Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen was written in 1789 and focuses solely on the rights of men It proclaims liberty, equality, and fraternity but does not mention women explicitly�

• Source F – Olympe de Gouges’ Declaration of the Rights of Woman and the Female Citizen (1791) was written in response to Source C She argues that women should enjoy the same rights as men and criticises the exclusion of women from political and legal equality

b. Key Articles:

• Source C – Article 1: “Men are born and remain free and equal in rights�”

• Source F – Article 1: “Woman is born free and remains equal to man in rights�” This is a direct challenge to Source C, adapting its content to include gender equality�

c. Equality and Law:

• Both documents stress equality before the law, but Source F goes further by demanding equal participation of women in law-making, public office, and civic duties

d. Tone and Purpose:

• Source C was a foundational document of the French Revolution, meant to guide the new constitutional monarchy and ensure basic liberties for men�

• Source F serves as a feminist critique, pointing out the Revolution’s failure to include half the population women in its vision of liberty and justice

13. Record your impressions of following print. Describe the objects lying on the ground. What do they symbolise? What attitude does the picture express towards non-European slaves?

Ans. This print presents a powerful scene portraying the inhuman treatment of non-European slaves� It is likely part of anti-slavery propaganda from the period of the French Revolution, aiming to raise awareness about the brutal reality of slavery�

Objects on the Ground:

• Chains and shackles – These symbolise the oppressive bondage of slavery

• Whip or weapon – It represents violence and cruelty inflicted on the enslaved�

• Tattered clothing – Suggests the poor and degraded condition of the slaves

Symbolism:

The objects highlight the dehumanising and exploitative nature of slavery They reinforce the message that enslaved individuals were treated as property, stripped of dignity and freedom�

Attitude Towards Non-European Slaves: The picture expresses deep sympathy towards non-European slaves and condemns the cruelty inflicted upon them� It portrays them as victims of injustice, urging the viewer to recognise their suffering and the moral failure of slavery�

14. Describe the picture in your own words. What are the images that the artist has used to communicate the following ideas: greed, equality, justice, takeover by the state of the assets of the church?

Ans. The picture is a symbolic representation of the French Revolution’s core ideas and the events that unfolded during the period It uses a range of vivid images to convey political messages

• Greed is shown through the exaggerated figures of clergymen or nobles, often illustrated with large stomachs, grabbing bags of gold or hoarding wealth� Their facial expressions and postures show selfishness and indulgence

• Equality is symbolised by people of different social groups standing together at equal height or holding hands, suggesting unity among the Third Estate and the demand for equal rights�

• Justice is typically shown using a figure holding a balance scale or a sword, indicating fairness and lawful action�

• Takeover of Church Assets is represented by state officials seizing land or wealth from the clergy, or by images showing church buildings with signs of confiscation, symbolising the nationalisation of Church property during the revolution�

Practice Questions

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. What was the one major consequence of the long years of war for France?

(a) Expansion of financial resources

(b) Strengthening of the economy

(d) Increase in wealth and prosperity

2. Under Louis XVI, France helped the thirteen American colonies gain independence from which common enemy?

(a) Spain (b) Portugal

3. What was the one major consequence of the population increase in France from 23 million in 1715 to 28 million in 1789?

(a) Decrease in food demand

(b) Rapid increase in the demand for food grains

(d) Decline in population growth

4. During the eighteenth century, the middle class in France emerged due to wealth earned from which of the following sources?

(a) Expanding overseas trade

(b) Manufacture of goods like woolen and silk textiles

(d) Both (a) and (b)

5. Match the following:

Year

A� 1774

B� 1789

C 1804

D� 1815

Event

i� Napoleon was defeated at Waterloo

ii� Napoleon becomes Emperor of France

iii Louis XVI becomes King of France

iv� Convocation of Estates General and the Bastille was stormed

(a) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i (b) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

6. On 5 May 1789, why did Louis XVI call together an assembly of the Estates General?

(a) To celebrate his coronation

(b) To declare war on neighboring countries

(d) To abolish the monarchy

7. What was the impact of the severe winter before the French Revolution?

(a) It led to a good harvest and lower bread prices�

(b) It caused a bad harvest, leading to rising bread prices�

(d) Farmers became wealthy due to high crop production

8. When did the National Assembly complete the draft of the constitution?

(a) 1771 (b) 1881

9. What action did the National Assembly take in April 1792 regarding Prussia and Austria?

(a) They voted to declare war against Prussia and Austria

(b) They considered Prussia and Austria a threat to the French Revolution�

(d) They allied with Prussia and Austria�

10. Why was Louis XVI sentenced to death and executed on 21 January 1793?

(a) He was accused of planning to restore the monarchy and betraying France�

(b) He voluntarily gave up his throne and chose execution�

(d) He lost a battle against Austria and Prussia�

11. Why did Robespierre’s government impose a maximum ceiling on wages and prices and ration meat and bread?

(a) To increase the wealth of the nobility

(b) To control inflation and ensure fair distribution of essential goods

(d) To allow businesses to make more profit

12. What was the result of the fall of the Jacobin government?

(a) The monarchy was restored immediately�

(b) The poorer sections of society gained more power�

(d) France was taken over by a foreign ruler

13. Why did women actively participate in the French Revolution?

(a) Women wanted to restore the monarchy

(b) Women hoped to pressure the revolutionary government to improve their lives

(d) Women aimed to establish their separate government�

14. What does the rise of about sixty women’s clubs, including the Society of Revolutionary and Republican Women indicate about the role of women in the French Revolution?

(a) Women were uninterested in politics and only focused on household work�

(b) Women actively organised themselves to demand greater rights and political participation�

(d) Women formed clubs only for social gatherings, not for political purposes

15. Which of the following statements are correct about the laws introduced by the revolutionary government to improve the lives of women?

(i) Schooling was made compulsory for all girls.

(ii) Fathers could no longer force their daughters into marriage.

(iii) Marriage became a religious sacrament controlled by the Church.

(iv) Marriage was recognised as a civil contract, entered into freely.

(a) i and iii only (b) i, ii and iv only

16. Why were the Caribbean colonies like Martinique, Guadeloupe, and San Domingo important to France during the 18th century?

(a) They were major industrial centres producing manufactured goods�

(b) They supplied essential raw materials like tobacco, indigo, sugar, and coffee, which were in high demand in Europe�

(d) They were self-sufficient and did not contribute much to the French economy�

17. What made it possible to meet the growing demand in European markets for sugar, coffee, and indigo?

(a) The use of advanced machinery in plantations

(b) The voluntary labour of workers in the colonies

(d) The import of these commodities from Asian countries

18. In which year was slavery finally abolished in French colonies?

(a) 1804 (b) 1820

19. What was the significance of the abolition of censorship after the storming of the Bastille in 1789?

(a) It allowed the king to control all forms of media more strictly�

(b) It gave people the freedom to express their opinions and discuss revolutionary ideas openly�

(d) It led to the end of all political debates in France�

20. How did plays, songs, and festive processions help spread revolutionary ideas like liberty and justice?

(a) They entertained people but had no connection to revolutionary ideas�

(b) They helped simplify complex political ideas so that even uneducated people could understand and relate to them�

(d) They discouraged people from participating in the revolution by distracting them with entertainment�

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A�

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

(d) A is false but R is true�

1. Assertion (A): The Bastille was hated by all in France�

Reason (R): It stood for the despotic power of the king�

2. Assertion (A): The French Government was forced to increase taxes to meet its regular expenses

Reason (R): The government had to spend a large portion of its budget on interest payments alone�

3. Assertion (A): Montesquieu’s proposal for the division of government into legislative, executive, and judiciary powers significantly influenced the creation of the American Constitution, which later became an important model for political thinkers in France�

Reason (R): The American Constitution was based on Montesquieu’s ideas but was mostly influenced by the British system of governance�

4. Assertion (A): In the Estates General, the Third Estate demanded that voting be conducted by the assembly as a whole, with each member having one vote, because they felt the current system, where each estate had one vote, was unfair

Reason (R): Louis XVI was determined to continue the old system of voting by estates, as he believed it would prevent the Third Estate from gaining too much influence�

5. Assertion (A): The Constitution of 1791 established a system of direct elections, allowing all citizens in France the right to vote for members of the National Assembly�

Reason (R): The Constitution of 1791 created an indirectly elected National Assembly, where citizens voted for electors who then chose the Assembly members, and not all citizens had voting rights

Picture Based Questions

1. Study the picture and answer the question that follows.

What was the significance of the Tennis Court Oath, as depicted in Jacques-Louis David’s sketch?

(a) It marked the beginning of the monarchy’s restoration in France�

(b) It symbolised the unity and determination of the Third Estate to create a new constitution�

(d) It led to immediate dissolution of the National Assembly�

2. What message does the painting of Napoleon crossing the Alps, intend to convey?

(a) Napoleon was a calm and peaceful ruler�

(b) Napoleon was reluctant to go to war�

(d) Napoleon preferred diplomacy over military action�

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30-40 words)

1. Who became the King of France in 1774, and whom did he marry?

2. How did France’s involvement in the American War of Independence impact its economy under Louis XVI?

3. What does the term ‘Old Regime’ signify?

4. What privileges did the members of the First and Second Estates enjoy in France?

5. What do you understand by the term ‘tithe’?

6. Why did the economic gap between the rich and the poor increase in France?

7. What is ‘livre’? When was it discontinued?

8. Who played a key role in bringing about change during the revolution?

9. What made France a constitutional monarchy?

10. What did John Locke argue in his Two Treatises of Government?

11. What major events occurred in France during 1792–93?

12. What is the origin of the song Marseillaise?

13. Who was Mirabeau?

14. What happened during the storming of the Bastille?

15. How did France’s involvement in the American Revolution impact its debt under Louis XVI?

Short Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. What actions did the National Assembly take on the night of 4 August 1789, and what were the results?

2. Why was France facing a financial crisis under Louis XVI?

3. What was the Estates General and why did the Third Estate oppose it?

4. How did the National Assembly form, and what was its aim?

5. What led to the storming of the Bastille on 14 July 1789?

6. What rights were established in the Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen, and what was the state’s duty regarding them?

7. What changes did the revolutionary government introduce to improve women’s lives?

8. Do you think Napoleon Bonaparte could have risen to power if the Jacobin government had succeeded in creating a stable democracy? Justify your answer.

9. Why is the period from 1793 to 1794 known as the Reign of Terror?

10. How did Enlightenment thinkers influence the French Revolution?

11. What role did Olympe de Gouges play in the French Revolution, and how did her activism end?

12. What was the impact of the abolition of censorship in 1789?

13. What changes did the Constitution of 1791 bring in France?

14. How did the slave trade contribute to the economic prosperity of French port cities like Bordeaux and Nantes?

Long

Answer Questions (100-120 words)

1. Describe the emergence of the middle class in the eighteenth century and their influence on revolutionary ideas.

2. How did the National Convention contribute to the formation of the First French Republic? What actions did it take to solidify its power?

3. Analyse the significance of the Estates General meeting on 5 May 1789. Also, explain the democratic principle that the Third Estate demanded.

4. How did the French Revolution impact the rest of Europe and the world in terms of political ideas and movements?

5. Evaluate the role of revolutionary clubs like the Jacobins in shaping the French Revolution. How did their ideological stance and political actions influence both the course of the revolution and its outcome?

6. Explain the reasons why the National Assembly was hesitant to pass laws extending the rights of man to slaves, and how the abolition of slavery evolved in France’s colonies.

7. What were the key reforms introduced by the National Assembly, and how did these reforms challenge the traditional feudal system?

8. To what extent did the formation of political clubs and newspapers by women during the French Revolution contribute to shaping public discourse and advancing their rights? Evaluate the impact of these actions on the revolution’s broader goals and outcomes.

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

In The Spirit of the Laws, Montesquieu proposed a division of power within the government, between the legislative, the executive and the judiciary. This model of government was put into force in the USA after the thirteen colonies declared their independence from Britain. The American Constitution and its guarantee of individual rights was an important example for political thinkers in France.

The ideas of these philosophers were discussed intensively in salons and coffee houses and spread among people through books and newspapers. These were frequently read aloud in groups for the benefit of those who could not read and write. The news that Louis XVI planned to impose further taxes to be able to meet the expenses of the state generated anger and protests against the system of privileges.

(a) What did Montesquieu propose in The Spirit of the Laws?

(b) What impact did Montesquieu’s ideas have on the USA?

Map Based Questions

1. On the outline map of France, mark and locate the following. (a) (b) (c)

14. (b) Women actively organised themselves to demand greater rights and political participation

15. (b) i, ii, and iv only

16. (b) They supplied essential raw materials like tobacco, indigo, sugar, and coffee, which were in high demand in Europe�

17. (c) The exploitation of slave labour in the Caribbean colonies

18. (c) 1848

19. (b) It gave people the freedom to express their opinions and discuss revolutionary ideas openly�

20. (b) They helped simplify complex political ideas so that even uneducated people could understand and relate to them�

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

(a) Nantes

(b) Bordeaux

Answers

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. (c) Drain of financial resources

2. (c) Britain

3. (b) Rapid increase in the demand for food grains

4. (d) Both (a) and (b)

5. (a) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

6. (c) To pass proposals for new taxes

7. (b) It caused a bad harvest, leading to rising bread prices

8. (c) 1791

9. (c) Both (a) and (b)

10. (a) He was accused of planning to restore the monarchy and betraying France�

11. (b) To control inflation and ensure fair distribution of essential goods

12. (c) The wealthier middle classes seized power

13. (b) Women hoped to pressure the revolutionary government to improve their lives

1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A�

2. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A�

3. (c) A is true but R is false

4. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A�

5. (d) A is false but R is true�

Picture Based Questions

1. (b) It symbolised the unity and determination of the Third Estate to create a new constitution�

2. (c) Napoleon was a heroic, brave, and determined leader�

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30-40 words)

1. • Louis XVI was of the Bourbon family� He became the King of France in 1774�

• When he was in his twenties, he got married to the Austrian princess, Marie Antoinette

2. • France supported the thirteen American colonies against Britain, adding over a billion livres to its already massive debt which was more than 2 billion livres�

• This led to the worsening of the country’s financial crisis�

3. • The term Old Regime refers to the political and social system in France before the French Revolution of 1789

• The Regime was characterised by absolutism, estates, privileges, inequality, inefficiency and growing unrest� Its collapse brought an end to this legacy and resulted in a republic�

4. The clergy (First Estate) and the nobility (Second Estate) enjoyed privileges by birth, including exemption from taxes and access to high-ranking positions in government and the church, giving them significant power over society�

5. • Tithe was a tax levied by the Roman Catholic Church in France before the French Revolution

• It was a tax on the land owned by the Third Estate, which was the common people of France, comprising one-tenth of the agricultural produce�

6. • Most workers were employed in workshops where owners fixed their wages�

• However, wages remained low while prices kept rising, making it difficult for the poor to afford necessities, thus widening the gap between the rich and the poor

7. • In the context of the French Revolution, the term “livre” refers to a unit of currency that was used in France as the official currency until the late 18th century

• It was discontinued in 1794 during the French Revolution�

8. • Peasants and workers lacked resources and plans to carry out full-scale measures that would bring about a change in the social and economic order�

• It was left to those groups within the Third Estate who had become prosperous and had access to education and new ideas

9. France became a constitutional monarchy with the 1791 constitution, which limited the monarch’s powers by separating them into different institutions: the legislature, executive, and judiciary, rather than concentrating them in the hands of one person�

10. • John Locke argued against the divine and absolute rights that monarchs derived from God and were therefore not accountable to their people�

• Instead, he believed that legitimate government stemmed from the consent of the people who had natural rights to life, liberty, and property

11. • In 1792–93, France became a republic� On 21 January 1793, King Louis XVI was executed by guillotine for treason�

• In 1794, the Jacobin Republic was overthrown, leading to the establishment of the Directory to rule France�

12. • The Marseillaise is the national anthem of France The song was composed by poet Roget de L’Isle after the declaration of war

• It was first sung by volunteers from Marseilles as they marched into Paris, which is how it got its name�

13. • Mirabeau was born into a noble family but was convinced of the need to do away with a society of feudal privilege�

• He brought out a journal and delivered powerful speeches to the crowds assembled at Versailles

14. • The Bastille prison was hoarded with arms and ammunition� A group of hundreds of people stormed the Bastille, hoping to find ammunition�

• In the ensuing fight, the commander was killed, and the seven prisoners were released�

15. • France’s support for the American colonies in their fight for independence added over a billion livres to its already existing debt, which had already surpassed 2 billion livres

• This debt, combined with other factors, led to unrest and eventually a revolution in France�

Short

Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. • On the night of 4 August 1789, the National Assembly abolished feudal privileges�

• Feudal dues, tithes, and noble exemptions from taxes were abolished�

• This act aimed to establish equality and reduce aristocratic influence�

• The Assembly’s actions laid the foundation for modern French society and shifted power from the nobility to commoners

2. France faced a financial crisis due to extravagant royal spending

• The involvement in costly wars, especially the American Revolution, led to massive debt�

• Tax reforms were not implemented effectively, and the tax burden fell heavily on the common people�

• Poor harvests in the 1780s worsened the situation, causing food shortages and rising prices�

3. • The Estates General was a representative body comprising three estates: clergy, nobility, and commoners�

• The Third Estate, representing common people, opposed voting by estates�

• Each estate had one vote, which often disadvantaged the Third Estate

• They demanded individual representation and equal voting rights, challenging the existing system of privileges for the clergy and nobility�

4. • The National Assembly formed after the Third Estate was locked out of the Estates General in 1789�

• Its aim was to create a new constitution limiting the power of the king

• The Assembly sought to establish civil rights and a fair system of governance

• It marked the beginning of the French Revolution and the end of absolute monarchy

5. • The storming of the Bastille was triggered by widespread fear of royal repression�

• The people were angered by economic hardships, including food shortages and high bread prices�

• The Bastille symbolised royal tyranny, and its fall marked the beginning of popular revolution

• The event also symbolised the end of absolute monarchy and the birth of a new republic�

6. • The Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen established fundamental rights like liberty, property, and resistance to oppression�

• It proclaimed that all men are born free and equal in rights�

• The state’s duty was to protect these rights and ensure the sovereignty of the people�

• It laid the foundation for democratic principles and human rights

7. • Revolutionary reforms improved women’s lives by allowing divorce and property rights

• The government took steps to educate women and protect them legally�

• Women were given the opportunity to participate more actively in public life

• Despite progress, women still lacked voting rights, highlighting limitations in the revolution’s vision of equality�

8. • If the Jacobin government had succeeded in establishing a stable democracy, political instability might have been reduced�

• Democratic checks and balances would have limited the rise of military leaders

• However, the continued instability, external threats, and failure to address economic challenges could have allowed a figure like Napoleon to rise�

• Napoleon’s military prowess could have still played a crucial role in his ascent�

9. • The Reign of Terror (1793-1794) was marked by extreme political repression

• Robespierre and the Jacobins used terror to suppress perceived counter-revolutionary threats�

• Thousands of political enemies, including aristocrats and moderates, were executed by guillotine�

• The period is remembered for its violent methods and the execution of King Louis XVI and many others

10. • Enlightenment thinkers like Rousseau and Montesquieu significantly influenced the French Revolution�

• Their ideas on liberty, equality, and separation of powers inspired revolutionaries�

• Rousseau’s idea of the social contract emphasised popular sovereignty�

• Montesquieu’s ideas on the separation of powers influenced the structure of the new government, shaping revolutionary ideals�

11. • Olympe de Gouges was a feminist and political activist during the French Revolution�

• She wrote the “Declaration of the Rights of Woman and Citizen,” advocating for women’s equality�

• Her activism was focused on demanding equal rights in marriage, education, and politics

• She was executed by guillotine in 1793 for opposing the radical revolutionary government, marking her tragic end�

12. • The abolition of censorship in 1789 allowed the free exchange of ideas and opinions�

• It led to the publication of revolutionary pamphlets and newspapers, spreading revolutionary ideals�

• The public was able to discuss and criticise the monarchy and government openly�

• This freedom of expression was crucial in rallying support for the revolutionary cause�

13. • The Constitution of 1791 transformed France into a constitutional monarchy�

• It limited the powers of the king and established a system of elected representatives�

• The Constitution created a separation of powers, dividing governance into executive, legislative, and judicial branches

• It also guaranteed civil rights and aimed to establish a more democratic system�

14.

• The slave trade was central to the economic prosperity of French port cities like Bordeaux and Nantes�

• French colonies supplied raw materials like sugar, coffee, and tobacco, which were in high demand in Europe

• The ports acted as key hubs in the triangular trade, where enslaved Africans were traded for goods�

• This trade contributed significantly to the wealth of the French economy during the 18th century

Long Answer Questions

(100-120 words)

1. • The emergence of the middle class, or bourgeoisie, in the 18th century, was driven by economic growth, urbanisation, and an increase in education�

• They were typically merchants, professionals, and intellectuals who were frustrated by the privileges of the aristocracy and clergy�

• They championed Enlightenment ideas, advocating for liberty, equality, and the abolition of feudal privileges

• Their influence on revolutionary ideas was significant, as they helped spread democratic ideals and push for constitutional reforms�

• The middle class played a critical role in the French Revolution by supporting the call for political representation and equality before the law�

• The National Convention, formed in 1792, proclaimed France as a republic, abolishing the monarchy and executing Louis XVI�

• It took decisive actions to solidify its power, including centralising authority in the hands of the Committee of Public Safety, led by Robespierre

• The Convention implemented radical reforms, such as universal male suffrage, legal equality, and the creation of a new calendar�

• It also defended the revolution against internal and external threats, leading to the Reign of Terror, during which thousands were executed as counter-revolutionaries�

• The National Convention was instrumental in the creation of the First French Republic and in laying the foundations of a new political order�

• The Estates General meeting on 5 May 1789 marked the beginning of a political crisis in France, as it was called to address the financial crisis�

• The Third Estate, representing the common people, opposed the traditional voting system that gave equal weight to the clergy and nobility, despite the Third Estate’s larger numbers�

• The Third Estate demanded a democratic principle of voting by head, where each representative would have one vote

• Their demands were ignored, leading to the formation of the National Assembly, which took the revolutionary step of pledging to draft a new constitution�

• This event was pivotal in the early stages of the French Revolution, setting the stage for the fight for equality and democratic representation�

• The French Revolution significantly impacted Europe and the world by spreading revolutionary ideals of liberty, equality, and fraternity

• It inspired revolutionary movements in Spain, Italy, and Latin America, as people sought to overthrow monarchies and establish republics�

• The revolution promoted the ideas of popular sovereignty, nationalism, and human rights, challenging traditional systems of monarchy and colonialism�

• It influenced the development of modern democratic institutions and legal frameworks, laying the foundation for the rise of liberal democracies worldwide�

• The French Revolution’s impact extended beyond Europe, inspiring political change across the globe�

5. • The Jacobins were a radical political club that played a crucial role in shaping the French Revolution, especially during its most extreme phase

• Led by Robespierre, they advocated for the abolition of the monarchy and the establishment of a republic, emphasizing the ideals of equality and fraternity�

• The Jacobins’ influence on the revolution was significant, as they implemented the Reign of Terror, executing thousands of perceived counter-revolutionaries to maintain the revolution’s course�

• They also pushed for radical social reforms and the redistribution of power, both of which influenced the future direction of France�

• While their methods led to the rise of Napoleon, the Jacobins’ ideological stance and actions significantly impacted the revolution’s trajectory

6. • The National Assembly was initially hesitant to extend the rights of man to slaves due to economic considerations and the powerful influence of colonial interests�

• France’s economy heavily relied on the labor of enslaved people in colonies like SaintDomingue, where sugar and coffee plantations thrived�

• The Assembly feared that granting freedom to slaves would disrupt the economy and provoke rebellion in the colonies

• However, after growing pressure from revolutionaries and slave revolts in the colonies, the National Convention abolished slavery in 1794�

• The abolition of slavery was a significant achievement for the revolution, but it was not fully enforced until later due to resistance from colonial elites�

7. • The National Assembly introduced key reforms that dismantled the traditional feudal system, including the abolition of feudal privileges like serfdom and tithes�

• It implemented the Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen, which enshrined individual liberties and legal equality for all�

• The Assembly reformed the Church, bringing it under state control, and created new legal systems that ensured equality before the law�

• The National Assembly also introduced changes to the tax system, ensuring that the nobility and clergy paid taxes like ordinary citizens�

• These reforms were foundational in challenging the old feudal order and promoting the principles of equality and individual rights�

8. • The formation of political clubs and newspapers by women during the French Revolution played a key role in advancing women’s rights and shaping public discourse�

• Women such as Olympe de Gouges and the Society of Revolutionary Women actively campaigned for gender equality, including the right to vote and participation in political life�

• Through their clubs and publications, they highlighted issues such as the lack of rights for women and advocated for greater social and legal equality

• Although their demands were not fully realised during the revolution, their actions helped lay the groundwork for later feminist movements�

• These actions also contributed to the broader goals of the revolution, pushing for a more inclusive society that acknowledged the rights of all citizens�

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1

(a) Montesquieu proposed the idea of the separation of powers in his work The Spirit of the Laws�

(b) Montesquieu’s ideas had a significant impact on the formation of the United States Constitution�

• His concept of the separation of powers was incorporated into the structure of the U�S� government, with distinct legislative, executive, and judicial branches

• His ideas helped shape the American system of checks and balances, ensuring that no single branch could dominate the others�

(c) • The ideas of philosophers like Montesquieu were discussed in various intellectual circles, particularly in salons and coffeehouses

• These venues, often attended by the bourgeoisie and educated elite, allowed for the exchange of ideas and discussion of political philosophy

Map Based Questions

1. (a) Nantes (b) Bordeaux (c) Marseillaise

(c) Marseilles

(b) Bordeaux

(a) Nantes

SELF-ASSESSMENT

Time: 1 Hour

Section A

Scan me for all answers.

Max. Marks: 40

6. When did Napoleon Bonaparte crown himself Emperor of France?

(a) 1804

(1 × 8 = 8 Marks)

Choose and write the correct answer for each of the following.

1. Why were peasants required to render services to the lord during the feudal system?

(a) To maintain peace and harmony in society

(b) To ensure the lord’s wealth and power were upheld

(d) To receive equal treatment from the lord and his family

2. Which of the following is not the national colour of France?

(a) Blue

(b) Green

(d) Red

3. What was the primary role of the clergy in the feudal system?

(a) To provide education to the peasants

(b) To collect taxes for the king

(d) To manage trade and commerce in villages

4. How were the ideas of philosophers like Montesquieu and Rousseau spread during the French Revolution?

(a) Through discussions in salons and coffee houses

(b) Through books and newspapers

(d) Both (a) and (b)

5. What inspired Raja Rammohan Roy during his time?

(a) The American Revolution

(b) The French Revolution and the July Revolution

(d) The Russian Revolution

(b) 1805

(d) 1807

7. Why did women actively participate in the French Revolution?

(a) Women wanted to restore the monarchy

(b) Women hoped to pressure the revolutionary government to improve their lives

(d) Women aimed to establish their separate government�

8. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): In France under the Old Regime, the monarch could not impose taxes at will� Reason (R): The monarch had to call a meeting of the Estates General, which would then approve his proposals for new taxes�

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A�

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

(d) A is false but R is true�

Section B

Answer the following questions.

9. Who could decide when to call a meeting of the Estates General in France? (2 Marks)

10. Differentiate between tithe and taille. (3 Marks)

11. What was the public reaction to Louis XVI’s plan to impose further taxes? (3 Marks)

12. What challenges did women of the Third Estate face during the French Revolution? (3 Marks)

13. What led to the storming of the Bastille on 14 July 1789? (3 Marks)

14. Why is the period from 1793 to 1794 known as the Reign of Terror? (3 Marks)

15. Analyse the reaction of the peasants during the rural uprisings to reveal their socio-political situation. (5 Marks)

16. Discuss the voting rights and citizenship status during the French Revolution, focusing on the distinctions made between active and passive citizens. (5 Marks)

17. How did the French Revolution impact the rest of Europe and the world in terms of political ideas and movements? (5 Marks)

2 Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution

The French Revolution inspired new political ideas across Europe, giving rise to demands for equality and justice. In the nineteenth century, liberals, radicals, and conservatives debated how society should change. Amid growing industrialisation and social inequality, socialist ideas gained popularity. Socialism challenged private property and promoted collective ownership. Influential thinkers like Karl Marx envisioned a classless, communist society. These ideas inspired revolutions, especially in Russia. The 1917 Russian Revolution overthrew the Tsarist autocracy and established a socialist state. The Bolsheviks, under Lenin’s leadership, led this historic transformation. The USSR later became a symbol of socialist ideology worldwide.

Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution

Age of Social Change

(Post-French Revolution)

Rise of ideologies:

• Liberals – rights, limited government

• Radicals – wider rights, women’s suffrage

• Conservatives –favoured gradual change

Industrialisation and the Rise of Socialism

Harsh factory conditions; poor wages and housing

Workers lived in crowded dormitories

Growth of discontent with capitalism

Birth of socialist ideas:

• Karl Marx

• Robert Owen

• Louis Blanc

Formation of socialist parties and Second International

Support from Indian thinkers: Nehru, Tagore, Usmani

Conditions in Tsarist Russia (Before 1917)

Ruled by Tsar Nicholas II (autocracy)

Power in hands of aristocracy, Church, and nobles

Peasants and workersfaced hardship

1905 Revolution

Dumaformed but limited power

Jadidists (Muslim reformers) demanded change

Revolutions of 1917

February Revolution (March):

• Tsarabdicates

• Provisional Government formed

• Workers form Petrograd Soviet

October Revolution

• Lenin and Bolsheviks seize power

• Promise of land, peace, and bread

Changes After Revolution and Civil War

Abolition of private property; land to peasants

Industries and banks nationalised

Civil War (1918–20): Reds vs Whites and Greens

Formation of the USSR (1922)

One-party rule and suppression of opposition

Inspired people in colonies, including India

Spread of socialism globally

Five-Year Plans and forced Collectivisation Famine, repression, mass arrests

Stalin’s Rule and Global Impact

Key Terms and Definitions

Socialism: A political and economic ideology opposing private property and advocating collective ownership for common welfare.

Duma: An elected consultative parliament set up in Russia after the 1905 Revolution.

Liberal: A person who wanted individual rights, religious tolerance, and elected parliamentary government but not universal suffrage.

Radical: A person who favoured drastic changes in society, including equality and rights for all, including women.

Conservative: A person who was resistant to change but later accepted gradual transformation while respecting traditions.

Communism: A political system based on socialism, where all property is owned collectively and there are no class divisions.

Capitalism: An economic system where property and businesses are privately owned and operated for profit.

Aristocracy: The privileged, land-owning upper class, often hereditary, that held power before revolutions.

Proletariat: The working class, especially industrial labourers who were often exploited in capitalist societies.

Bolsheviks: A revolutionary socialist group in Russia led by Lenin, advocating immediate revolution and a centralised party.

Mensheviks: A faction of the Russian Social Democratic Party that supported broad party membership and gradual reform.

Soviet: A local council of workers and soldiers formed in Russia during the revolutionary period.

Suffragette Movement: A political movement advocating the right of women to vote, supported by many radicals.

Jadidists: Muslim reformers in the Russian Empire who sought to modernise Islam and support educational and social reforms.

Dormitory: A large shared sleeping space used by workers, often with poor living conditions in industrial societies.

Timeline

1898

Formation of Russian Social Democratic Workers Party

1848–80s

Debates on socialism spread in Europe and Russia

MARCH 1917

February Revolution – Tsar abdicates

1905 Bloody Sunday and the First Russian Revolution

OCTOBER 1917

Bolsheviks seize power – October Revolution 1922

Formation of the USSR

1930–1933

Devastating famine due to forced collectivisation

APRIL 1917

Lenin presents April Theses

1918–1920

Civil War between Red (Bolsheviks) and White (opponents)

1929

Start of Stalin’s collectivisation

NCERT Zone

Intext Questions

1. List two differences between the capitalist and socialist ideas of private property.

Ans. Aspect Capitalist Idea Socialist Idea

Ownership of Property Property is privately owned by individuals or companies. Property is collectively owned by society or the state.

Purpose of Ownership Used for personal profit and wealth accumulation. Used for social welfare and equal benefit for all.

2. Why were there revolutionary disturbances in Russia in 1905? What were the demands of revolutionaries?

Ans. Reasons for Revolutionary Disturbances in Russia in 1905:

Autocratic Rule of the Tsar:

• Tsar Nicholas II ruled with absolute power and refused to share authority with a parliament.

Poor Living and Working Conditions:

• Workers faced long hours, low wages, and unsafe working environments.

• Peasants suffered from poverty, heavy taxes, and land hunger.

Lack of Political Freedom:

• No freedom of speech, press, or political association.

• Political parties were banned, and protests were suppressed.

Bloody Sunday (9 January 1905):

• Peaceful demonstrators led by Father Gapon were fired upon by the Tsar’s troops outside the Winter Palace in St. Petersburg.

• Over 100 people were killed, which triggered nationwide anger.

Demands of the Revolutionaries:

• Constitutional Government

° Introduction of a constitution and elected parliament (Duma)

• Civil Rights

° Freedom of speech, press, and association.

• Better Working Conditions

° Reduction in working hours, better wages, and labour rights.

• Land Reforms

° Redistribution of land from the aristocracy to peasants.

3. Why did people in Central Asia respond to the Russian Revolution in different ways?

Ans. People in Central Asia had mixed responses to the Russian Revolution due to differences in expectations, experiences, and outcomes:

Positive Responses:

• Hope for Liberation:

° Many people believed the revolution would end Tsarist oppression and give them autonomy (self-rule).

• Support for Equality:

° Groups like the Jadidists (Muslim reformers) supported the revolution because it promised social justice, land reform, and equal rights.

Negative Responses:

• Disappointment with Violence and Control:

° The October Revolution brought confiscation of property, high taxes, and strict central control, which frightened many.

• Continued Oppression:

° Though Tsarist rule ended, Russian Bolshevik officials often replaced them with similar harsh policies.

° Local customs like nomadism were discouraged, creating resentment.

4. Compare the passages written by Shaukat Usmani and Rabindranath Tagore. Read them in relation to Sources C, D and E.

Source C

Dreams and Realities of a Soviet Childhood in 1933

Dear grandfather Kalinin …

My family is large, there are four children. We don’t have a father – he died, fighting for the worker’s cause, and my mother … is ailing … I want to study very much, but I cannot go to school. I had some old boots, but they are completely torn and no one can mend them. My mother is sick, we have no money and no bread, but I want to study very much. …there stands before us the task of studying, studying and studying. That is what Vladimir Ilich Lenin said. But I have to stop going to school. We have no relatives and there is no one to help us, so I have to go to work in a factory, to prevent the family from starving. Dear grandfather, I am 13, I study well and have no bad reports. I am in Class 5 …

Letter of 1933 from a 13-year-old worker to Kalinin, Soviet President

From: V. Sokolov (ed), Obshchestvo I Vlast, v 1930-ye gody (Moscow, 1997).

Official view of the opposition to collectivisation and the government response

‘From the second half of February of this year, in various regions of the Ukraine… mass insurrections of the peasantry have taken place, caused by distortions of the Party’s line by a section of the lower ranks of the Party and the Soviet apparatus in the course of the introduction of collectivisation and preparatory work for the spring harvest.

Within a short time, large scale activities from the above-mentioned regions carried over into neighbouring areas – and the most aggressive insurrections have taken place near the border.

The greater part of the peasant insurrections have been linked with outright demands for the return of collectivised stocks of grain, livestock and tools …

Between 1st February and 15th March, 25,000 have been arrested … 656 have been executed, 3673 have been imprisoned in labour camps and 5580 exiled …’

Report of K.M. Karlson, President of the State Police Administration of the Ukraine to the Central Committee of the Communist Party, on 19 March 1930.

From: V. Sokolov (ed), Obshchestvo I Vlast, v 1930-ye gody

Source E

This is a letter written by a peasant who did not want to join the collective farm.

To the newspaper Krestianskaia Gazeta (Peasant Newspaper)

‘… I am a natural working peasant born in 1879 … there are 6 members in my family, my wife was born in 1881, my son is 16, two daughters 19, all three go to school, my sister is 71. From 1932, heavy taxes have been levied on me that I have found impossible. From 1935, local authorities have increased the taxes on me … and I was unable to handle them and all my property was registered: my horse, cow, calf, sheep with lambs, all my implements, furniture and my reserve of wood for repair of buildings and they sold the lot for the taxes. In 1936, they sold two of my buildings … the kolkhoz bought them. In 1937, of two huts I had, one was sold and one was confiscated …’ Afanasii Dedorovich Frebenev, an independent cultivator. From: V. Sokolov (ed), Obshchestvo I Vlast, v 1930-ye gody.

(a) What did Indians find impressive about the USSR ?

Ans. • Shaukat Usmani admired how Europeans and Asians mixed freely with no discrimination of caste or religion, showing true equality.

• Tagore praised how peasants and workers, once poor and illiterate like those in India, had become confident and were part of nation-building.

• Both writers admired the USSR’s focus on literacy, education, and development, especially among the lower classes.

(b) What did the writers fail to notice?

Ans. • Letters from Soviet children (like the one in Source C) revealed poverty, hunger, and child labour, which the writers overlooked.

• Independent peasants lost property and were heavily taxed and punished, which was not acknowledged in Usmani or Tagore’s accounts.

• The writers did not notice the mass arrests, executions, and forced collectivisation, which caused fear and suffering in rural USSR.

NCERT Exercises

1. What were the social, economic and political conditions in Russia before 1905?

Ans. Let us discuss the social, economic and political conditions in detail.

• Social Conditions: Russia had a rigid hierarchical society. The majority were peasants, living under difficult conditions. There was a growing dissatisfaction among workers, especially in cities, due to poor working conditions, long hours, and low wages.

• Economic Conditions: The economy was predominantly agrarian, and most people lived off agriculture. The industrial sector was underdeveloped compared to Western Europe, with few factories. There was also a growing working class in the cities as industrialisation slowly began, but wages were low, and living conditions were poor.

• Political Conditions: Tsar Nicholas II ruled with absolute power, and there were no political freedoms or democracy. Political repression was widespread, and the Tsar’s rule was increasingly unpopular.

2. In what ways was the working population in Russia different from other countries in Europe, before 1917?

Ans. • Before 1917, the working population in Russia was different from other European countries in several ways. While industrialisation had already advanced in many parts of Europe, Russia’s economy remained largely agrarian, with most people working as peasants on farms.

• The urban working class in Russia was small and underdeveloped compared to Western Europe. Workers in factories faced harsh conditions, long hours, and low wages.

• Additionally, there were no strong labour unions or workers’ rights movements in Russia, unlike in countries such as Germany or France.

• The Russian government also had little interest in improving working conditions, which led to widespread discontent and strikes.

• This unequal development contributed to social unrest, ultimately influencing the Russian Revolution of 1917.

3. Why did the Tsarist autocracy collapse in 1917?

Ans. The Tsarist autocracy collapsed due to a combination of factors:

• Political Inefficiency: Tsar Nicholas II was seen as an ineffective leader. He failed to address the needs of the Russian people and had little support among the intellectuals, workers, and peasants.

• Economic Hardships: World War I had drained Russia’s resources, leading to severe food shortages, economic collapse, and high military casualties.

• Social Unrest: The growing dissatisfaction among workers, peasants, and soldiers, coupled with mass protests, led to widespread unrest.

• Revolutionary Movements: Political parties such as the Bolsheviks, led by Lenin, were gaining support, calling for a radical change to the system.

The culmination of these factors led to the February Revolution of 1917, resulting in the abdication of Tsar Nicholas II and the end of the autocracy.

4. Make two lists: one with the main events and the effects of the February Revolution and the other with the main events and effects of the October Revolution. Write a paragraph on who was involved in each, who were the leaders and what was the impact of each on Soviet history.

Ans. The main events and effects of the February revolution vs. the October Revolution are discussed as follows:

(a) February Revolution:

The main events are as follows:

• Mass protests and strikes broke out in Petrograd (now St. Petersburg) due to food shortages and poor working conditions.

• The soldiers, initially sent to suppress the protests, joined the revolutionaries.

• Tsar Nicholas II was forced to abdicate, and a Provisional Government was established.

Their effects are as follows:

• It led to the end of the Tsarist autocracy.

• It led to the establishment of a Provisional Government.

• It caused the rise of the Soviets (workers’ councils) as a challenge to the Provisional Government’s authority.

(b) October Revolution:

The main events are as follows:

• The Bolshevik Party, led by Lenin, seized power from the Provisional Government in October 1917.

• The Bolsheviks, supported by workers and soldiers, took control of key government institutions.

• The Provisional Government was overthrown, and Lenin’s government took charge.

Their effects are as follows:

• It led to the establishment of Bolshevik rule in Russia.

• It led to the withdrawal of Russia from World War I (through the Treaty of BrestLitovsk).

• It led to the beginning of radical socialist reforms, such as land redistribution and nationalisation of industry.

Leaders Involved

The leaders involved in both revolutions are as follows:

• February Revolution: The Provisional Government was led by figures such as Alexander Kerensky. Key figures in the protest were workers, soldiers, and political leaders such as Leon Trotsky.

• October Revolution: It was led by Lenin and the Bolsheviks, along with Trotsky playing a major role in organising the revolution.

Impact on Soviet History

The February Revolution marked the collapse of the Tsarist regime and paved the way for the October Revolution. The October Revolution established the first communist government in the world, which eventually led to the creation of the Soviet Union.

5. What were the main changes brought about by the Bolsheviks immediately after the October Revolution?

Ans. Abolition of Private Property

• Land was declared social property and redistributed to peasants.

Nationalisation of Industry and Banks

• All major industries and banks were taken over by the state.

End of the Old Social Order

• Titles of the nobility were abolished, and aristocratic privileges ended.

• Large houses were divided among the poor according to family needs.

Establishment of a One-Party Rule

• The Bolshevik Party became the only legal political party; opposition was banned or crushed.

Peace with Germany

• Russia signed the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk in 1918, ending its involvement in World War I.

Suppression of Dissent

• The Cheka (secret police) was formed to arrest, imprison, or execute those who opposed the revolution.

New Symbols and Reforms

• Introduction of new uniforms, e.g., the Soviet hat (budeonovka).

• Control over education, censorship, and promotion of communist ideals.

6. Write a few lines to show what you know about:

• kulaks

• the Duma

• women workers between 1900 and 1930

• the Liberals

• Stalin’s collectivisation programme Ans. The given terms are explained as follows:

• Kulaks: The kulaks were wealthy peasants who owned larger farms and were seen as a threat by the Bolsheviks. During Stalin’s collectivisation, the kulaks were targeted for persecution. Many were executed or deported to labour camps.

• The Duma: The Duma was a legislative body created by Tsar Nicholas II in 1905 after the revolution. It was intended to appease the people by offering some political representation.

• Women Workers between 1900 and 1930: Women workers in Russia faced harsh working conditions, with low wages, long hours, and little social support. They were often employed in factories, particularly in textiles. After the Bolshevik Revolution, women gained more rights, including suffrage and access to education, but they still faced significant challenges in the workplace.

• The Liberals: The Liberals in Russia were moderate reformers who sought constitutional reforms, the establishment of a parliamentary system, and greater individual freedoms. They were a key part of the opposition to the Tsar but were often in conflict with the more radical socialist groups such as the Bolsheviks.

• Stalin’s Collectivisation Programme: Stalin’s collectivisation (1929 onwards) was a policy aimed at consolidating small farms into large, state-controlled collective farms (kolkhozes). It was intended to increase agricultural productivity and support industrialisation. However, it led to widespread famine, the destruction of livestock, and the suffering of millions of peasants.

Practice Questions

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. How did the French Revolution impact the structure of society?

(a) It reinforced the power of the monarchy and nobility.

(b) It created a more rigid class system.

(d) It led to the complete abolition of cities and towns.

2. What was the effect of the French Revolution on global discussions about society?

(a) It discouraged the spread of new ideas about individual rights.

(b) It led to the immediate return of absolute monarchies across Europe and Asia.

(d) It focused only on changes within France, with no impact on other countries.

3. What was the primary goal of the Suffragette movement?

(a) To provide women with the right to own property.

(b) To give women the right to vote.

(d) To allow women to join the military.

4. Which class of people supported the Bolsheviks the most?

(a) Nobles

(b) Workers

(d) Businessmen

5. Who was the Italian nationalist who conspired with others to achieve the overthrow of monarchs in Italy after 1815?

(a) Napoleon Bonaparte

(b) Giuseppe Mazzini

(d) Victor Emmanuel II

6. Which event forced Tsar Nicholas II to abdicate the throne?

(a) October Revolution

(b) February Revolution

(d) Industrial Revolution

7. By 1914, women made up ______ of the workforce in factories.

(a) 23% (b) 28%

8. Arrange the following events in the correct sequence:

I. Bloody Sunday Massacre

II. The 1905 Revolution

III. The First World War Begins

IV. February Revolution

(a) I, II, III, IV (b) II, I, IV, III

9. Which of the following was a belief of liberals in the 19th century?

(a) Only monarchs should have power.

(b) Women should not have any political rights.

(d) Nobles should make all economic decisions.

10. Match the following:

Column I Column II

A. Tsar Nicholas II i. Leader of Bolsheviks

B. Karl Marx ii. Last emperor of Russia

C. Vladimir Lenin iii. Wrote The Communist Manifesto

D. October Revolution iv. 1917 Bolshevik takeover

(a) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv

(b) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii

(d) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii

11. What did the Tsar want to do with the Duma?

(a) Expand its power

(b) Dissolve it

(d) Relocate it to another city

12. What was the significance of the lockout on 22 February 1917?

(a) It was the first major step in overthrowing the Tsar.

(b) It led to a city-wide strike and demonstrations.

(d) It was a small, localised issue with no larger impact.

13. Which of the following correctly represents the order of major changes under Bolshevik rule?

(a) Private property abolished → Workers’ control of industries → Nationalisation of banks → Land redistribution

(b) Workers’ control of industries → Land redistribution → Private property abolished → Nationalisation of banks

→ Land redistribution

(d) Land redistribution → Private property abolished → Workers’ control of industries

→ Nationalisation of banks

14. What was the consequence of rapid construction in the city of Magnitogorsk?

(a) Improved working conditions for workers.

(b) The steel plant was completed in one year.

(d) The city became an industrial hub with no labour issues.

15. Why did the government impose a curfew after the workers’ demonstrations?

(a) To prevent the spread of revolutionary ideas

(b) To provide safety for the workers

(d) To negotiate with the Petrograd Soviet

16. Which of the following best describes radicals in the 19th century?

(a) They supported monarchy and religious rule.

(b) They wanted rapid social and political change.

(d) They wanted only the rich to vote in elections.

17. Which of the following sentences is incorrect in the context of the post-October Revolution developments in Russia?

(a) The Bolsheviks seized power in October 1917 and removed the Provisional Government.

(b) Lenin’s April Theses called for peace, land reforms, and the nationalisation of banks.

(d) The Civil War broke out between the Bolsheviks and the opposition forces.

18. What was the primary reason for the Party’s actions of enforcing grain collections in 1928?

(a) To increase the supply of food to the military

(b) To strengthen agricultural practices in rural areas

(d) To improve the standard of living of peasants

19. Which of the following sentences is correct regarding the global influence of the Russian Revolution and the USSR?

(a) The Russian Revolution had little to no impact on the global political landscape.

(b) The USSR aimed to spread communism worldwide through peaceful means only.

(d) The USSR’s foreign policy was primarily focused on promoting capitalist ideologies in Europe.

20. What did socialists believe was the root of all social ills during their time?

(a) Lack of education

(b) Private property

(d) Industrialisation

21. What was the name of the cooperative community that Robert Owen sought to build in Indiana, USA?

(a) Harmony Village

(b) New Harmony

(d) Eden Community

22. What did Louis Blanc want the French government to do in relation to cooperatives and capitalist enterprises?

(a) Encourage private enterprises over cooperatives

(b) Replace cooperatives with capitalist enterprises

(d) Abolish cooperatives and strengthen the monarchy

23. What did Marx argue about industrial society?

(a) It was a feudal society.

(b) It was a socialist society.

(d) It was a communist society.

24. What does SPD stand for?

(a) Social Democratic Party

(b) Social Party of Denmark

(d) Social Politics Democracy

25. What percentage of the Russian empire’s population earned their living from agriculture?

(a) 45% (b) 60%

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion (A): The war effort in Russia was poorly organised, leading to military defeats.

Reason (R): The Russian army was well-equipped and had advanced technology to win battles easily.

2. Assertion (A): Foreign powers such as Britain, France, Japan, and the USA supported the Bolsheviks in the Russian Civil War.

Reason (R): Western nations feared the spread of communism and wanted to strengthen Lenin’s government.

3. Assertion (A): The Russian Social Democratic Workers Party had to operate as an illegal organisation before 1914.

Reason (R): All political parties were illegal in Russia before 1914 due to government repression.

4. Assertion (A): Marx believed that the conditions of workers could improve under capitalism with minimal changes, and they did not need to overthrow the system.

Reason (R): Marx argued that workers had to construct a radically socialist society where all property was socially controlled to free themselves from capitalist exploitation.

5. Assertion (A): The Bolsheviks’ rise to power was widely supported by existing socialist parties in Europe, and they encouraged workers’ movements across the globe.

Reason (R): Despite some criticism, the Bolsheviks’ establishment of a workers’ state inspired the formation of communist parties worldwide, and the Bolsheviks promoted their socialist experiment to colonial peoples and non-Russians.

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions

(30-40 words)

1. Who were liberals?

2. What do you understand by the suffragette movement?

3. Who was Giuseppe Mazzini and how did his ideas influence other nationalists?

4. Who was Robert Owen and what was his initiative in Indiana?

5. According to Marx, why could workers’ conditions never improve under capitalism?

6. What territories and religions were part of the Russian Empire under Tsar Nicholas II in 1914?

7. What was the primary occupation of the Russian population at the beginning of the twentieth century?

8. What actions did peasants in Russia take regarding land ownership in the early 1900s?

9. What did liberals in Russia advocate for during the 1905 revolution?

10. How did the Bolsheviks implement centralised planning through the Five-Year Plans?

11. How did World War I affect Russian industries?

12. What was the significance of the strike on 22–23 February, and how were women involved?

13. How did different groups react to the Bolshevik land redistribution, and what conflict followed?

14. How did collectivisation contribute to the famine of 1930–1933 in the Soviet Union, and what were its consequences?

15. What does the term ‘nomadism’ refer to?

Short Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. What was one key belief of liberals regarding religion and governance?

2. How did the views of conservatives change after the French Revolution?

3. What were some of the challenges faced by workers during industrialisation?

4. How did liberals and radicals respond to the challenges of industrialisation?

5. What did liberals and radicals believe would lead to societal development?

6. How did nationalists, liberals, and radicals work to change European governments after 1815?

7. Why did socialists oppose private property in the mid-nineteenth century?

8. What was Robert Owen’s vision for cooperative communities?

9. How did socialists influence politics in Europe by 1914?

10. How did industrial growth in Russia progress by the 1900s?

11. How were Russian peasants different from other European peasants?

12. What actions did Tsar Nicholas II take after the 1905 Revolution in relation to the Duma and political activity?

13. Why was the Russian Social Democratic Workers Party forced to operate illegally before 1914?

14. What role did army officials, landowners, and industrialists play in the Provisional Government, and how did they support the movement towards an elected government?

15. How did the Bolsheviks secure control over most of the former Russian empire by January 1920?

16. How did the Bolsheviks’ rise to power to influence global socialism?

17. What were the key criticisms of the USSR’s government by the 1950s?

Long Answer Questions (100-120 words)

1. Discuss the differing perspectives on societal change held by conservatives, radicals, and liberals in the aftermath of the French Revolution.

2. How did the beliefs of liberals and radicals regarding individual effort and economic freedom influence their approach to social and political reforms in the early nineteenth century?

3. Evaluate the difference between the First World War on the ‘eastern front’ and the ‘western front.’

4. How did the Bolshevik Party’s actions after November 1917 lead to the establishment of a one-party state in Russia, and what were the consequences for political opposition and the arts?

5. How did the Tsar’s actions after the 1905 Revolution reflect his attitude towards democratic reforms and political opposition?

6. Analyse the key ideas and contradictions within the beliefs of liberals during the nineteenth century. How did these contradictions affect the development of liberal ideologies and their implementation in society?

7. Why did working men and women rally around liberal and radical groups in the early nineteenth century?

8. How did socialists such as Robert Owen and Louis Blanc envision the creation of cooperatives?

9. What was the extent of the Russian Empire under Tsar Nicholas II in 1914, and what was its religious diversity?

10. How were Russian peasants’ attitudes towards the nobility different from those of French peasants, and what actions did they take in response to their situation?

11. What was the disagreement between Socialists and Social Democrats regarding peasants in Russia, and how did Lenin view the peasant class?

12. What events led to Bloody Sunday, and what was its significance in the 1905 Revolution?

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

Industry was found in pockets. Prominent industrial areas were St Petersburg and Moscow. Craftsmen undertook much of the production, but large factories existed alongside craft workshops. Many factories were set up in the 1890s, when Russia’s railway network was extended, and foreign investment in industry increased.

Coal production doubled and iron and steel output quadrupled. By the 1900s, in some areas factory workers and craftsmen were almost equal in number.

Most industry was the private property of industrialists. Government supervised large factories to ensure minimum wages and limited hours of work. But factory inspectors could not prevent rules being broken. In craft units and small workshops, the working day was sometimes 15 hours, compared with 10 or 12 hours in factories. Accommodation varied from rooms to dormitories.

Workers were a divided social group. Some had strong links with the villages from which they came. Others had settled in cities permanently. Workers were divided by skill. A metalworker of St. Petersburg recalled, ‘Metalworkers considered themselves aristocrats among other workers. Their occupations demanded more training and skill . . . ’ Women made up 31 per cent of the factory labour force by 1914, but they were paid less than men (between half and three-quarters of a man’s wage).

Divisions among workers showed themselves in dress and manners too. Some workers formed associations to help members in times of unemployment or financial hardship but such associations were few.

(a) What was the wage disparity between men and women workers by 1914?

(b) How did the industrial workforce in Russia remain socially divided despite working in the same sector?

Map Based Question

1. On the given outline political map of the world, mark and label the central powers.

Answers

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. (c) It opened up the possibility for a more equal society based on citizens’ rights.

2. (c) It sparked discussions about individual rights and the control of social power in many parts of the world.

3. (b) To give women the right to vote.

4. (b) workers

5. (b) Giuseppe Mazzini

6. (b) February Revolution

7. (c) 31%

8. (a) I, II, III, IV

9. (c) A government should be based on a constitution and parliamentary system.

10. (a) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv

11. (b) Dissolve it

12. (b) It led to a city-wide strike and demonstrations

13. (a) Private property abolished → Workers’ control of industries → Nationalisation of banks → Land redistribution

14. (c) Poor working conditions for the workers

15. (a) To prevent the spread of revolutionary ideas.

16. (b) They wanted rapid social and political change.

17. (c) The Bolsheviks had no immediate opposition and easily implemented all their policies.

18. (c) To fund industrialisation and urban growth

19. (c) The Russian Revolution inspired various revolutionary movements and socialist ideologies globally.

20. (b) Private property

21. (b) New Harmony

22. (c) Encourage cooperatives and replace capitalist enterprises

23. (c) It was a capitalist society.

24. (a) Social Democratic Party

25. (c) 85%

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

1. (c) A is true, but R is false.

2. (d) Both A and R are false.

3. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

4. (d) A is false but R is true.

5. (d) A is false but R is true.

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30-40 words)

1. • Liberals included the group of people who aimed to transform society. They envisioned a nation that embraced religious tolerance and opposed the unchecked power of dynastic rulers.

• Additionally, they sought to protect individual rights from government overreach.

2. • The suffragette movement was a social and political campaign aimed at securing women’s right to vote.

• It involved activism, protests, and legal challenges, advocating for gender equality and political participation, particularly in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.

3. • Giuseppe Mazzini was a prominent Italian nationalist whose revolutionary writings and ideas inspired nationalist movements worldwide.

• His vision of a united, free Italy influenced independence struggles in various countries, including India, where leaders such as Bal Gangadhar Tilak admired his ideals.

4. • Robert Owen was an English manufacturer, philanthropist, and social reformer who sought to improve working conditions and promote social equality.

• He is best known for founding the cooperative community of New Harmony in Indiana in 1825.

5. • Karl Marx believed that workers’ conditions could never truly improve under capitalism because the system inherently favoured private capitalists who accumulated wealth by exploiting labour.

• He argued that capitalists maximised profits by underpaying workers and extracting surplus value from their labour.

6. • In 1914, the Russian Empire encompassed diverse regions, including Finland, Latvia, Ukraine, Belarus, and Central Asia.

• While predominantly Russian Orthodox, it was religiously diverse, home to Catholics, Protestants, Muslims, and Buddhists, reflecting its vast multicultural and multiethnic population across different territories.

7. • At the beginning of the twentieth century, about 85 percent of Russia’s population were agriculturists, a higher proportion than in most European countries.

• Majority of the people in the Russian Empire relied on agriculture for their livelihood.

8. • Peasants in Russia demanded land from nobles, refusing to pay rent and sometimes resorting to violence, including murders of landlords.

• These actions escalated significantly in 1902 and spread across the country by 1905.

9. • During the 1905 revolution, liberals in Russia campaigned for a constitution.

• They worked with Social Democrats, Socialist Revolutionaries, peasants, workers, and nationalists, including Polish nationalists and jadidists, to demand political reforms and modernisation.

10. • The Bolsheviks introduced centralised planning by setting targets for a five-year period.

• The government fixed all prices to promote industrial growth, focusing on the first two Five-Year Plans (1927–1932 and 1933–1938) to drive economic development.

11. • World War I had a devastating effect on Russian industries, which were already limited in number.

• The German control of the Baltic Sea cut off essential supplies, leading to severe shortages, production declines, economic instability, and worsening conditions for workers and soldiers.

12. • The 22 February lockout led to mass strikes across 50 factories, with women leading many protests.

• This event became known as International Women’s Day, highlighting women’s crucial role in revolutionary movements and workers’ struggles.

13. • Peasant soldiers deserted to claim land, weakening the army.

• Non-Bolshevik socialists, liberals, and proTsarists opposed the Bolsheviks, forming the ‘whites’ and ‘greens,’ who controlled much of Russia and fought the Bolsheviks between 1918 and 1919.

14. Collectivisation severely disrupted Soviet agriculture, displacing peasants and reducing productivity. Combined with poor harvests and state grain requisition policies, it led to a catastrophic famine from 1930–1933. Over 4 million people perished, particularly in Ukraine, Kazakhstan, and other affected regions.

15. Nomadism is a lifestyle in which groups of people continuously move from one place to another, typically in search of food, water, or grazing land. This pattern of migration is often seasonal and can involve herding, hunting, and gathering, with no permanent settlements.

Short Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. Liberals’ Belief on Religion and Governance:

• Liberals believed in the separation of religion from the state, asserting that government should not be influenced by religious doctrines.

• They advocated for religious freedom, where individuals could follow any faith without governmental interference.

• They felt governance should be based on reason, equality, and individual rights, focusing on civil liberties rather than religious orthodoxy.

2. Conservatives’ Views After the French Revolution:

• After the French Revolution, conservatives opposed radical social change and sought to preserve traditional structures like monarchy, the church, and aristocracy.

• They believed the revolution led to chaos and instability, arguing for the restoration of order and hierarchy.

• Conservatives viewed any liberal or radical reform as a threat to social and political stability, supporting monarchy and privilege.

3. Challenges Faced by Workers During Industrialisation:

• Industrialisation brought harsh conditions for workers, including long hours and low wages. Many worked in unsafe environments, risking injury or death.

• Child labor was widespread, and workers lived in overcrowded slums with poor sanitation, contributing to disease.

• Workers had minimal job security, and trade unions were often banned, leading to a lack of political representation or rights.

4. Liberals and Radicals’ Response to Industrialisation:

• Liberals responded to industrialisation by advocating for reforms that improved workers’ conditions, such as higher wages, safer working conditions, and better access to education. They believed in gradual progress through legal reforms.

• Radicals, however, saw such reforms as insufficient and called for more drastic measures, including the redistribution of wealth and the establishment of socialist or cooperative societies.

5. Beliefs of Liberals and Radicals on Societal Development:

• Liberals believed societal development could be achieved through gradual reforms, advocating for free markets, individual rights, and constitutional governance. They saw these as pathways to a prosperous, democratic society.

• Radicals, however, believed that real societal progress could only be achieved through revolutionary change, including the redistribution of wealth, state control over resources, and an overhaul of capitalist structures.

6. Nationalists, Liberals, and Radicals After 1815:

• After 1815, nationalists sought the creation of independent nation-states, united by common culture, language, and heritage. Liberals supported constitutional governance, individual rights, and democracy, emphasizing gradual reforms.

• Radicals, in contrast, advocated for more immediate and revolutionary changes, pushing for widespread social and economic reforms to achieve equality and empower the working class, challenging existing hierarchies.

7. Socialists’ Opposition to Private Property:

• Socialists opposed private property, believing it led to social inequality and exploitation.

• They argued that the concentration of property in the hands of a few individuals or corporations resulted in the oppression of the working class.

• Socialists advocated for collective ownership, where resources and industries would be controlled by the state or the community to ensure equitable distribution and social justice.

8. Robert Owen’s Vision for Cooperative Communities:

• Robert Owen envisioned cooperative communities where workers lived and worked together in self-sustaining environments, sharing ownership of land and industry.

• He believed that these communities would promote social harmony and eliminate poverty by ensuring that workers had control over their work and living conditions.

• Owen’s ideas were based on creating a more just, equitable society through cooperative principles.

9. Socialists’ Influence on Politics by 1914:

• By 1914, socialists had gained significant influence in European politics. Socialist parties pushed for reforms such as labor rights, social welfare programs, and universal suffrage.

• They were key drivers behind the creation of social safety nets for workers and the expansion of political rights.

• Socialism’s rise led to significant changes in the political landscape, influencing government policies and shaping national elections.

10. Industrial Growth in Russia by 1900s:

• By the 1900s, industrialisation in Russia had grown rapidly, particularly in sectors like coal mining, steel production, and textiles.

• Despite this progress, industrial growth remained concentrated in urban areas, and the benefits were not widely distributed. Workers faced appalling conditions, long hours, and low wages.

• The state controlled much of the industry, prioritising military needs over the welfare of workers and peasants.

11.

Russian Peasants European Peasants

• Most Russian peasants lived under the oppressive system of serfdom until the 1860s, with limited land rights.

• Russian peasants faced harsher living conditions and were more tightly controlled by landowners, leading to greater poverty and social unrest.

• European peasants, especially in Western Europe, had more autonomy over their land.

12. Tsar Nicholas II’s Actions After the 1905 Revolution:

• After the 1905 Revolution, Tsar Nicholas II reluctantly introduced some reforms, including the creation of the Duma (a legislative body) to appease public demands for representation.

• However, Nicholas retained autocratic control and limited the Duma’s power.

• He failed to fully address the social and political issues that led to the revolution, which only deepened the discontent among workers, peasants, and political reformers.use.

13. Russian Social Democratic Workers’ Party’s Illegality Before 1914:

• The Russian Social Democratic Workers’ Party was forced to operate illegally before 1914 due to Tsarist repression.

• The party, which sought to overthrow the autocratic monarchy, was outlawed, and its members faced exile, arrest, and imprisonment.

• Operating in secrecy, the party worked underground, organising strikes and spreading revolutionary ideas among workers, despite constant surveillance and repression by the Tsarist regime.

14. Role of Army Officials, Landowners, and Industrialists in Provisional Government:

• In the Provisional Government formed after the 1917 revolution, army officials, landowners, and industrialists played a key role in stabilising the transition.

• They supported reforms but wanted to maintain their social privileges.

• However, their inability to meet the demands of workers, soldiers, and peasants for land and peace led to increasing unrest, and the government struggled to maintain control over the political situation.

15. Bolsheviks’ Control by January 1920:

• By January 1920, the Bolsheviks had secured control over most of the former Russian Empire through military victories, the leadership of the Red Army under Leon Trotsky, and the consolidation of power.

• The Bolshevik regime suppressed opposition, centralized power in Moscow, and established a totalitarian state.

• By this time, the Bolsheviks had defeated most internal and external opposition, ensuring their control over the newly formed Soviet state.

16. Bolsheviks’ Rise and Global Socialism Influence:

• The Bolshevik Revolution had a profound influence on global socialism, showing that a working-class revolution could succeed in overthrowing an imperial monarchy.

• The success of the Bolsheviks inspired socialist and communist movements worldwide, particularly in Europe, Asia, and Latin America.

• Their rise encouraged revolutionary movements and contributed to the spread of Marxist ideology, influencing the trajectory of global politics in the 20th century.

17. Criticisms of the USSR Government by the 1950s:

• By the 1950s, the USSR faced widespread criticism for its authoritarian rule, lack of political freedoms, and repressive policies.

• Under Stalin, the government had engaged in purges, forced collectivisation, and political repression. Critics also pointed to economic inefficiencies and the lack of attention to citizens’ welfare.

• While industrialisation advanced, many saw the regime as increasingly disconnected from the needs of ordinary people.

Long Answer Questions

(100-120 words)

1. Perspectives on Societal Change Post-French Revolution

• Conservatives wanted gradual change and a return to traditional institutions.

• They feared chaos and preferred monarchies and established churches.

• Liberals valued individual rights, equality before the law, and representative government.

• They opposed absolutism but supported property-based voting.

• Radicals demanded broader suffrage, equality, and often favoured republicanism.

• Radicals supported poor workers’ rights and often opposed economic inequality.

• While liberals wanted reform within limits, radicals supported more fundamental restructuring.

• All aimed for stability, but differed in pace and scope.

• Their views shaped European politics throughout the 19th century.

• The aftermath of the revolution forced ideological rethinking across classes.

2. Liberals, Radicals, and Economic Freedom

• Liberals believed that individuals should be free to pursue economic interests without state interference.

• They supported laissez-faire capitalism and private property rights.

• Radicals, though also valuing economic freedom, were critical of growing inequalities.

• Both supported merit and opposed hereditary privileges.

• They believed that enabling individual effort would result in societal progress.

• Education, freedom of speech, and a constitutional government were vital reforms they promoted.

• Radicals went further, demanding workers’ rights and political equality.

• These beliefs laid the foundation for industrial laws and electoral reforms.

• Economic liberalism shaped 19th-century political systems.

• Their approach was idealistic but had limited reach among the working class.

3. Differences Between Eastern and Western Fronts in WWI

Aspect Western Front Eastern Front

Geographical Location Primarily in France and Belgium

Main Participants Germany vs. France, Britain, and later the USA

Nature of Battles Prolonged, stalemated battles

Military Conditions Heavy artillery, gas attacks, and fortified positions

Civilian Impact Localised destruction near battle zones

Trench Systems Extensive, deeply entrenched networks

Strategic Importance Symbolised the grinding nature of industrial war

Outcome Stalemate until the German retreat in 1918

Spanned Eastern Europe, including parts of Russia and Poland

Germany and Austria-Hungary vs. Russia

Shorter, shifting frontlines and frequent territorial changes

Poor logistics, inadequate supplies for Russian troops

Widespread suffering due to scorched earth tactics

Minimal or no trench networks

Contributed to the collapse of the Tsarist regime

Contributed to the Russian Revolution and exit from WWI

4. Bolsheviks, One-Party State & Impact on Opposition and Arts

• After the November 1917 Revolution, the Bolsheviks dissolved the Constituent Assembly.

• They banned rival political parties and censored opposition voices.

• Established the Cheka (secret police) to eliminate dissent.

• Introduced censorship, curbing free expression in media and the arts.

• Art was used as a propaganda tool supporting communist ideals.

• Avant-garde experimentation gave way to socialist realism.

• Political opponents were exiled, imprisoned, or executed during the Red Terror.

• Bolsheviks centralised power under Lenin’s leadership.

• Workers’ Soviets lost autonomy as the party tightened control.

• The system laid foundations for Stalin’s authoritarian regime.

5. Tsar Nicholas II’s Response After 1905

• The 1905 Revolution forced Tsar Nicholas II to issue the October Manifesto.

• Promised a Duma (parliament), civil liberties, and limited reforms.

• However, reforms were superficial; real power stayed with the Tsar.

• Successive Dumas were dismissed if they challenged royal authority.

• The Tsar’s attitude remained autocratic and repressive.

• Political parties and trade unions faced strict surveillance.

• Censorship and arrests of revolutionaries continued.

• Peasant and worker grievances were largely ignored.

• His resistance to real democratic change sowed further unrest.

• The monarchy’s rigidity contributed to the 1917 revolutions.

6. Contradictions in 19th Century Liberal Beliefs

• Liberals promoted liberty, individual rights, and representative government.

• Supported free-market economics and limited government interference.

• Advocated for property-based suffrage, excluding workers and women.

• Valued political freedom but feared mass participation.

• Contradicted themselves by supporting freedom but denying social equality.

• Supported constitutional monarchies, not full democracies.

• Believed only propertied men could exercise reason.

• Ignored economic exploitation under capitalism.

• These contradictions limited their appeal among the working class.

• Their selective freedom led to the rise of socialism and mass movements.

7. Why Workers Supported Liberals and Radicals

• Workers faced poor wages, long hours, and unsafe working conditions.

• Liberals promised legal rights, constitutional protection, and education.

• Radicals demanded universal male suffrage and workplace reforms.

• Many workers believed political change would bring economic relief.

• Both groups challenged the privileges of the aristocracy.

• Support grew in urban areas where discontent was highest.

• Trade unions aligned with radical leaders.

• The 1830s and 1848 uprisings reflected workerliberal alliances.

• Women also joined movements for rights and suffrage.

• Despite differences, they shared a desire for justice and equality.

8. Cooperative Visions of Robert Owen and Louis Blanc

• Robert Owen, a British industrialist, believed in humane working conditions.

• Created a model cooperative in New Lanark, Scotland.

• Workers were given education, fair wages, and clean housing.

• Believed that shared ownership would create equality.

• Louis Blanc argued for state-supported cooperatives to guarantee employment.

• Advocated “right to work” during economic crises.

• Proposed government-funded workshops where workers could manage production.

• Opposed competition which he saw as socially destructive.

• Their ideas influenced later socialist and welfare models.

• Though limited in scale, they provided alternatives to capitalism.

9. Extent and Diversity of the Russian Empire in 1914

• The Russian Empire in 1914 was vast, covering parts of Europe and Asia.

• Included modern-day Russia, Ukraine, Poland, the Baltics, Central Asia, and the Caucasus.

• Contained over 125 million people with diverse ethnicities.

• Russian Orthodox Christianity was dominant, but there were Muslims, Jews, Catholics, and Buddhists.

• Ethnic minorities often faced cultural repression.

• Russification policies tried to impose Russian language and culture.

• Religious minorities were monitored and sometimes persecuted.

• Resistance movements grew in non-Russian areas.

• The size made governance complex and unstable.

• This diversity posed major challenges during times of revolution.

10. Russian vs French Peasants’ Attitudes Toward Nobility

• Russian peasants had a deep hostility toward the aristocracy.

• They saw land as rightfully theirs and demanded its redistribution.

• Often seized land and refused to pay rent or taxes.

• French peasants, after 1789, had gained some land rights earlier.

• French resentment had been channelled through the Revolution.

• Russian peasants were still largely under feudal-like control.

• Their uprisings were spontaneous and violent.

• French peasants supported the revolutionaries; Russian peasants acted independently.

• Russian nobles had more state support than in France.

• This discontent eventually fuelled revolutionary actions in Russia.

11. Socialists, Social Democrats & Lenin on Peasants

• Social Democrats believed the industrial working class, not peasants, would lead socialism.

• Saw peasants as backward, not revolutionary.

• Socialists like the Socialist Revolutionaries saw peasants as the main revolutionary force.

• Wanted land redistribution to empower them.

• Lenin disagreed with orthodox Marxists; saw peasants as allies of workers.

• Proposed the ‘worker-peasant alliance’ to overthrow Tsarism.

• He used the slogan “Peace, Land, and Bread.”

• Believed peasants’ support was essential for Bolshevik success.

• Lenin’s flexible approach helped gain rural support in 1917.

• This led to broader revolutionary participation.

12. Bloody Sunday: Events and Impact

• On 9 January 1905, workers marched peacefully to the Winter Palace in St. Petersburg.

• They demanded better wages, working hours, and constitutional reforms.

• Led by Father Gapon, they carried religious icons and patriotic symbols.

• The Tsar’s soldiers fired on the unarmed crowd.

• Over 100 people were killed, hundreds injured.

• The event became known as Bloody Sunday.

• It shattered the image of the Tsar as a “father figure.”

• Sparked strikes, uprisings, and unrest across the empire.

• Led to the 1905 Revolution and formation of Soviets.

• Though reforms were promised, repression soon resumed.

Map Based Question

1. (i) Germany (ii) Austria-Hungary (iii) Turkey

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1

(a) By 1914, women were paid less than men, earning between half and three-quarters of a man’s wage.

(b) • The Russian industrial workforce was divided by skill level, origin, and gender. Skilled metalworkers considered themselves superior, calling themselves “aristocrats” among workers.

• Some workers had rural roots and returned to villages, while others settled in cities. Women made up 31% of the workforce but earned significantly less than men, further contributing to divisions.

(c) • Working conditions were harsh, especially in small workshops where shifts could last up to 15 hours, compared to 10–12 hours in factories.

• Although the government regulated factories with minimum wages and limited working hours, inspectors could not always enforce rules. Living arrangements varied widely, from shared rooms to dormitories.

SELF-ASSESSMENT

Time: 1 Hour

Section A

Scan me for all answers.

Max. Marks: 40

4. What happened during the construction of the Magnitogorsk steel plant?

(a) It took five years, with no issues.

(1 × 8 = 8 Marks)

Choose and write the correct answer for each of the following.

1. Despite the decline of the USSR’s socialist reputation, what continued to hold respect among its people?

(a) Capitalist principles

(b) Socialist ideals

(d) Western democracy

2. Why did peasants resist collectivisation under Stalin?

(a) They wanted to abandon socialism altogether.

(b) They did not want to work on collective farms for various reasons.

(d) They were against the development of collective farms.

3. Match the following:

Column I

Column II

A. 1917 – February i. The New Economic Policy (NEP) was introduced by Lenin to revive the economy.

B. 1921 ii. The civil war ended in Russia, and the Bolshevik government consolidated power.

C. 1928 iii. The number of cattle in the Soviet Union fell drastically during collectivisation.

D. 1930 iv. Women workers played a key role in the February Revolution.

(a) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii

(b) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

(d) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii

(b) It was completed in three years, but workers faced poor living conditions.

(d) The project was delayed.

5. Arrange the following incidents in the correct sequence.

I. The Bolshevik Party was renamed the Russian Communist Party (Bolshevik).

II. Lenin dismissed the Constituent Assembly.

III. Land was declared social property, and peasants seized the land of the nobility.

IV. The Bolsheviks made peace with Germany at Brest Litovsk.

(a) I, II, III, IV (b) III, I, II, IV

6. What was formed by workers in industrial areas during the summer of 1917?

(a) Soldiers’ committees

(b) Trade unions

(d) All Russian Congress of Soviets

7. What was the impact of World War I on Russia’s industries?

(a) Industrial production increased rapidly.

(b) Labour shortages led to the shutdown of small workshops.

(d) Grain supplies were abundant in cities.

8. Which of the following events happened first during the Bolshevik uprising?

(a) The ship Aurora shelled the Winter Palace.

(b) Pro-government troops were sent to take over telephone and telegraph offices.

(d) Uprisings took place in other cities.

Section B

Answer the following questions.

9. What were the two important legacies of the Paris Commune of 1871? (2 Marks)

10. What issues did Soviet Russia face during the early period of the Planned Economy related to collectivisation? (3 Marks)

11. What were the conditions like in Petrograd during the winter of 1917, and how did the city’s layout reflect social divisions? (3 Marks)

12. How were workers in early 20th-century Russia divided socially and economically? (3 Marks)

13. How did the Provisional Government respond to growing Bolshevik influence and worker unrest? (3 Marks)

14. What were some of the challenges faced by workers during industrialisation? (3 Marks))

15. How did the Russian Civil War and the actions of the Bolsheviks lead to their eventual victory by 1920? (5 Marks)

16. Discuss the global impact of the Bolshevik Revolution and the evolution of socialism in the USSR. (5 Marks)

17. How did the Tsar’s actions after the 1905 Revolution reflect his attitude towards democratic reforms and political opposition? (5 Marks)

3 Nazism and the Rise of Hitler

The end of the First World War brought immense political and economic instability to Germany. The Weimar Republic was established in 1919, facing both internal unrest and external humiliation due to the Treaty of Versailles. Germany’s economy collapsed, causing widespread unemployment and hyperinflation. Amid this turmoil, Adolf Hitler emerged as a powerful speaker and leader of the Nazi Party. Hitler’s promises of restoring German pride and reversing the Treaty of Versailles gained him mass support. The Nazis used propaganda, fear, and suppression to consolidate power after coming to rule in 1933. Democracy was dismantled, and Hitler established a totalitarian regime. The Nazis promoted ideas of Aryan racial superiority and anti-Semitism. Jews, political opponents, and other minority groups became targets of brutal persecution. This chapter traces how Nazism grew and the devastating consequences it had on Germany and the world.

Nazism and the Rise of Hitler

Aftermath of the First World War

Defeat of Germany

Economic crisis and political instability

Weimar Republic

Formation in 1919

Challenges and weaknesses

Public dissatisfaction

Rise of Adolf Hitler

Nazi Party and ideology

Role of propaganda

Hitler’s charisma and oratory

Nazi State

Dismantling democracy

Establishment of dictatorship

Control over media, education, and youth

Racial Ideology

Aryan supremacy

Anti-Semitism

Targeting minorities

Destruction of democracy

Impact and Consequences

Holocaust

Concentration camps

Key Terms and Definitions

Nazism: Nazism refers to the far-right political ideology that emerged in Germany under Adolf Hitler, characterized by totalitarianism, extreme nationalism, and anti-Semitism, leading to the systemic oppression and extermination of Jews and other minority groups.

Nazi Propaganda: The techniques and methods used by the regime to influence public perception and promote its ideologies, often employing biased representations, euphemisms, and state-controlled media to achieve its goals.

Genocide: Genocide is the systematic and deliberate extermination of a particular group of people based on race, ethnicity, or nationality.

Holocaust: It refers to the genocide perpetrated by the Nazi regime from 1941 to 1945, during which approximately six million Jews, along with millions of others deemed undesirable, were systematically murdered.

Totalitarianism: A political system where the state holds total authority over society and seeks to regulate every aspect of public and private life.

Timeline

1919

Treaty of Versailles and establishment of the Weimar Republic

1929

Great Depression begins 1934

Hitler becomes Führer, establishing a dictatorship

1914–1918

First World War 1923

Hitler’s attempt to seize power through an armed uprising fails

Hitler becomes Chancellor of Germany

1939–1945

Second World War

1945 End of the Second World War and defeat of Nazi Germany

Nuremberg Laws enacted against Jews 1941–1945

Holocaust – mass extermination of Jews and other minorities

NCERT Zone

Intext Questions

Source A

‘For this earth is not allotted to anyone nor is it presented to anyone as a gift. It is awarded by providence to people who in their hearts have the courage to conquer it, the strength to preserve it, and the industry to put it to the plough… The primary right of this world is the right to life, so far as one possesses the strength for this. Hence on the basis of this right a vigorous nation will always find ways of adapting its territory to its population size.’ Hitler, Secret Book, ed. Telford Taylor.

Source B

‘In an era when the earth is gradually being divided up among states, some of which embrace almost entire continents, we cannot speak of a world power in connection with a formation whose political mother country is limited to the absurd area of five hundred kilometers.’ Hitler, Mein Kampf, p. 644.

(a) What do they tell you about Hitler’s imperial ambition?

Ans. • Hitler believed that land was not a gift but had to be conquered by the strong.

• He justified expansion by claiming it was the right of vigorous nations to adapt territory to their population needs.

• He emphasised survival of the fittest. Suggesting only powerful nations deserve to exist and expand.

• He argued that a true world power must control vast territories, criticising Germany’s limited size.

• These views support his concept of Lebensraum (living space), aimed at expanding German territory, especially in Eastern Europe.

• Hitler’s imperial ambition was based on militarism, racial superiority, and territorial expansion.

(b) What do you think Mahatma Gandhi would have said to Hitler about these ideas?

Ans. • Gandhi would have strongly opposed Hitler’s belief in violence and conquest.

• He would have rejected the idea that might make right and upheld the principle of non-violence (ahimsa).

• Gandhi believed in resolving conflicts through peaceful dialogue, not war or domination.

• He would have criticised Hitler’s disregard for human dignity and equality.

• Gandhi may have reminded Hitler that true strength lies in moral courage, not military power.

• He would have urged Hitler to respect the rights of all people and nations, regardless of size or strength.

2. (a) What does citizenship mean to you? Look at Chapters 1 and 3 and write 200 words on how the French Revolution and Nazism defined citizenship.

Ans. • Citizenship means being a recognised member of a nation, with equal rights, duties, and the freedom to participate in its political, social, and cultural life. A true citizen enjoys liberty, equality before the law, and a voice in governance.

• The French Revolution introduced a modern idea of citizenship. In 1789, revolutionaries abolished monarchy and declared that sovereignty belonged to the people. The Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen ensured liberty, property, and equality for all citizens – at least for men. However, women and the poor were initially denied these rights, showing the limitations of this new concept.

• Nazism in Germany promoted an exclusionary and racial concept of citizenship. Under Hitler, citizenship was restricted to ‘pure-blooded Aryans’. Jews, Roma, disabled people, and political opponents were labelled as ‘undesirables’ and stripped of their basic rights. The Nazi state believed in creating a racially pure Germany and excluded anyone who did not fit into their definition of a ‘true’ German.

• Thus, while the French Revolution expanded the idea of citizenship based on rights and equality, Nazism narrowed it through race, fear, and oppression.

(b) What did the Nuremberg Laws mean to the ‘undesirables’ in Nazi Germany? What other legal measures were taken against them to make them feel unwanted?

Ans. • The Nuremberg Laws (1935) excluded Jews from German citizenship.

• Jews were forbidden to marry or have relations with ‘Aryan’ Germans.

• They were denied voting rights, government jobs, and public services.

• The laws defined Jewish identity based on racial ancestry, not religion or beliefs.

• Other groups such as Roma, Blacks, and the disabled were also targeted.

• Many were forcibly sterilised or sent to concentration camps.

• Jewish children were removed from German schools.

• Strict curfews and identification through the yellow Star of David were imposed.

• These legal measures isolated, humiliated, and dehumanised the ‘undesirables’.

• The aim was to exclude them entirely from society and prepare for their eventual elimination.

3. What do you think this poster is trying to depict?

Ans. • This Nazi propaganda poster portrays a stereotyped Jewish man sitting on a moneybag marked “Geld” (money) in front of a stock exchange.

• It falsely suggests that Jews worship money, are greedy, and control finance. The exaggerated features and setting aim to dehumanise Jews and blame them for Germany’s economic problems.

• The text at the bottom accuses Jews of committing crimes for wealth.

• This poster reflects the Nazi regime’s antisemitic ideology, which used fear and hatred to justify discrimination, exclusion, and violence against Jews.

• It played a key role in shaping public opinion and enabling Nazi racial policies.

4. Look at following figures and answer the questions: What do they tell us about Nazi propaganda? How are the Nazis trying to mobilise different sections of the population?

GERMAN FARMER YOU BELONG TO HITLER! WHY

The German farmer stands in between two great dangers today:

The one danger American economic systemBig Capitalism! The other is the Marxist ecoomic system of Bolshevism.

Big Capitalism and Bolshevism work hand in hand: they were born of Jewish thought and serve the master plan of world Jewery. Who alone can rescue the farmer from these dangers?

NATIONAL SOCIALISM

From: A Nazi leaflet, 1932

Ans. These sources reflect how Nazi propaganda aimed to win the support of various sections of German society:

• Appealing to Farmers: The 1932 leaflet portrays both capitalism and communism as threats to German farmers, falsely linking them to Jewish influence. It promises that only National Socialism can protect farmers, thus positioning the Nazis as saviours of rural Germany.

• Appealing to Workers: The second poster shows muscular workers holding tools, highlighting strength and unity. The slogan, “The brain and the fist,” links intellect with physical power, urging workers to vote for Hitler as their leader. It portrays Hitler as a soldier for the working class.

Nazi propaganda used fear, false claims, and strong visual imagery to unite farmers, workers, and soldiers under Hitler’s leadership, blaming Jews and communists for Germany’s problems and offering National Socialism as the solution.

5. Why does Erna Kranz say, ‘I could only say for myself’? How do you view her opinion?

Was the lack of concern for Nazi victims only because of the Terror? No, says Lawrence Rees who interviewed people from diverse backgrounds for his recent documentary, ‘The Nazis: A Warning from History’.

Erna Kranz, an ordinary German teenager in the1930s and a grandmother now, said to Rees: ‘1930s offered a glimmer of hope, not just for the unemployed but for everybody for we all felt downtrodden. From my own experience I could say salaries increased and Germany seemed to have regained its sense of purpose. I could only say for myself, I thought it was a good time. I liked it.’

Ans. • Erna Kranz says, “I could only say for myself” to acknowledge that her personal experience under Nazi rule was positive, but she is aware that others, especially the victims of Nazi persecution had vastly different and horrific experiences.

• She recognises that her improved life conditions, such as better salaries and a renewed national pride, were not shared by everyone.

• Her opinion reflects how many ordinary Germans supported or accepted the regime because of personal gains, economic stability, and national revival.

• However, it also highlights the moral blindness or selective awareness of the suffering inflicted on Jews, minorities, and dissenters.

• Her view is limited and individual, not universal.

NCERT Exercises

1. Describe the problems faced by the Weimar Republic.

Ans. • Political Instability: The Weimar Republic faced constant political instability with frequent changes in government and weak coalitions. Radical groups from both the left (Communists) and right (Nazis) opposed the democratic system.

• Economic Crisis: The Weimar Republic struggled with severe economic problems, especially the hyperinflation crisis of 1923 and the impact of the Great Depression, which left millions unemployed and created widespread poverty.

• Treaty of Versailles: The terms of the Treaty of Versailles (1919) caused resentment among Germans. The Weimar Republic was seen as responsible for accepting the harsh reparations and territorial losses imposed by the Allies.

• Lack of Popular Support: The Weimar Constitution and government were often seen as illegitimate by many Germans, who felt the Republic had betrayed the country by signing the armistice in 1918 and accepting the Versailles Treaty.

• Violence and Terror: There was constant violence from paramilitary groups, such as the Freikorps and Communist militias, destabilizing the country and leading to political assassinations and confrontations.

2. Discuss why Nazism became popular in Germany by 1930.

Ans. • Economic Hardship: The Great Depression (1929) devastated the German economy, causing mass unemployment and misery. People were desperate for a solution, and Nazis, under Hitler’s leadership, promised economic recovery and jobs.

• Nationalism and Resentment: Hitler capitalized on the widespread resentment towards the Treaty of Versailles, promising

to restore Germany’s lost pride and territory. Many Germans felt humiliated by the treaty and turned to Nazism for a sense of national revival.

• Charismatic Leadership: Hitler’s powerful oratory skills and ability to inspire the masses played a significant role in spreading Nazi ideology. He presented himself as the only leader capable of solving Germany’s problems.

• Weakness of Other Parties: The political fragmentation in Germany and the inability of the Weimar Republic to provide a stable government made the Nazis appear as a strong alternative to ineffective parliamentary politics.

• Nazi Propaganda: The Nazis effectively used propaganda to appeal to various sections of society, such as the working class, businessmen, and the military, by promising to address their specific concerns.

3. What are the peculiar features of Nazi thinking?

Ans.

• Racial Superiority: Nazis believed in the superiority of the “Aryan” race and promoted racial purity. They considered Jews, Roma (Gypsies), and Slavs as inferior and targeted them for extermination.

• Anti-Semitism: A core aspect of Nazi thinking was extreme anti-Semitism. The Nazis blamed Jews for many of Germany’s problems, including the defeat in World War I and the economic crises.

• Totalitarianism: The Nazis aimed to create a totalitarian state, where the government controlled all aspects of life, including politics, culture, education, and even private life.

• Nationalism and Militarism: Nazis believed in the expansion of German territory and the creation of a Greater Germany through military conquest, believing that the German “master race” had the right to dominate Europe.

• Social Darwinism: Nazi ideology applied Social Darwinism to justify the idea of survival of the fittest among races, where weaker races (e.g., Jews) would be eradicated to ensure the survival and dominance of the Aryan race.

• Anti-Communism: The Nazis viewed communism as a threat to their fascist ideology and saw Jews as being behind the spread of communism. Therefore, they promoted an anti-communist agenda.

4. Explain why Nazi propaganda was effective in creating a hatred for Jews.

Ans. • Portrayal of Jews as the ‘Other’: Nazi propaganda portrayed Jews as the enemies of the German people, blaming them for Germany’s economic problems, the defeat in World War I, and the spread of communism.

• Scapegoating: The Nazis created a narrative where Jews were scapegoated for Germany’s misfortunes. They were presented as a foreign and dangerous element within German society, responsible for corrupting the nation.

• Dehumanization: Jewish people were depicted as vermin, disease carriers, and parasites, making it easier to justify their exclusion, persecution, and eventual genocide.

• Use of Media and Art: The Nazis used films, posters, and newspapers to spread anti-Semitic messages. Films like The Eternal Jew and the newspaper Der Stürmer portrayed Jews in a negative and grotesque light, making anti-Semitism a common belief.

• Nuremberg Laws: The Nuremberg Laws (1935) institutionalized anti-Semitism by legally defining Jews and denying them citizenship rights, further isolating them from the rest of society and encouraging discriminatory actions.

5. Explain what role women had in Nazi society. Return to Chapter 1 on the French Revolution. Write a paragraph comparing and contrasting the role of women in the two periods.

Ans. Role of Women in Nazi Society:

• Traditional Gender Roles: The Nazis promoted the idea of women as mothers and caregivers, placing them in traditional roles within the family. Their primary responsibility was to bear and raise children, especially to populate the Aryan race.

• Encouragement of Motherhood: The Nazis encouraged large families and offered rewards for women who bore more children, such as the Mother’s Cross awards.

• Exclusion from Politics and Work: Women were discouraged from participating in politics and were pushed out of the workforce, especially in higher professional positions, to focus on home and family life.

Role of Women during the French Revolution:

• Active Participation in Public Life: Women played an active role during the French Revolution, notably in events like the March on Versailles in 1789, where women demanded food and political reforms. They also fought for women’s rights and participation in the revolutionary process.

• Role in Social and Political Movements: Revolutionary women such as Olympe de Gouges and Charlotte Corday were involved in promoting women’s rights and social reforms.

• Contrast with Nazi Role: Unlike the passive role women were given under the Nazis, during the French Revolution, women were more politically engaged, seeking equality and active involvement in the nation’s future.

6. In what ways did the Nazi state seek to establish total control over its people?

Ans. The given terms are explained as follows:

• Propaganda and Indoctrination: The Nazi regime used propaganda to manipulate public opinion and maintain control. This was achieved through state-controlled media, schools, and the arts, which all reinforced Nazi ideology.

• Suppression of Opposition: Political opposition was ruthlessly crushed. The Gestapo (secret police) and the SS (Schutzstaffel) were instrumental in silencing critics, arresting political opponents, and running concentration camps.

• Control over the Economy: The Nazis took control over major industries and implemented state-directed economic policies to reduce unemployment and prepare Germany for war.

• Military and Paramilitary Control: The Nazi regime established a military state where the Wehrmacht (army) was central to its power. Paramilitary organizations like the SA and SS played key roles in maintaining order and enforcing Nazi policies.

• Youth Indoctrination: The Nazi regime created organizations like the Hitler Youth and the League of German Girls to indoctrinate young people into Nazi values and ensure future loyalty to the state.

• Surveillance and Control: The regime constantly monitored its citizens, suppressing any dissent. Fear of surveillance, denunciation, and punishment kept many Germans compliant with Nazi policies.

Practice Questions

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. How did Pastor Niemoeller describe the reaction of ordinary Germans to the crimes committed during the Nazi regime?

(a) They were passive onlookers and silent.

(b) They supported the Nazis wholeheartedly.

(d) They were unaware of the crimes.

2. What is one of the key reasons for the silence of the majority of Germans during the Nazi regime?

(a) General lack of knowledge about Nazi policies.

(b) Widespread fear of Gestapo and repercussions.

(d) Economic prosperity under the Nazi rule.

3. How did the Nazi genocide during World War II shape global perceptions?

(a) It had no significant impact on international relations.

(b) It resulted in widespread denial of such events globally.

(d) It led to international laws against crimes against humanity.

4. Which process signifies a lack of action or opposition of Germans towards the Nazi policies despite knowing their implications?

(a) Ignorance (b) Passive complicity

5. What psychological impact did Nazi atrocities have on Jewish survivors post World War II?

(a) Loss of cultural identity

(b) Immediate assimilation into new societies

(d) Complete recovery as they were liberated

6. In the aftermath of Nazi Germany’s defeat, which of the following best describes the psychological impact on the German populace?

(a) Indifference and apathy

(b) Joy and celebration

(d) A sense of relief and freedom

7. Which of the following was a major social impact of the Nazi defeat on German society?

(a) Widespread unemployment and economic instability

(b) Rapid urban development

(d) Reconciliation with other European nations

8. How did the Nuremberg Trials contribute to the international legal system?

(a) They established the illegality of war altogether.

(b) They abolished all forms of capital punishment worldwide.

(d) They ended all forms of international crimes through punitive measures.

9. What was a significant outcome of the psychological impact of the Nazi defeat on children like Helmuth?

(a) They completely rejected Nazi ideologies without any lingering effects.

(b) They were unaffected by the Nazi defeat due to their young age and lack of comprehension of events.

(d) They quickly adapted to post-war dynamics without any repercussions.

10. After World War I, Germany faced many financial and territorial losses due to the Treaty of Versailles. Which clause particularly devastated Germany by forcing them to accept blame for the war?

(a) Reparation Clause

(b) War Guilt Clause

(d) Disarmament Clause

11. Which economic phenomenon hit Germany in 1923, caused by the country’s decision to print money to pay its reparations?

(a) Hyperinflation

(b) Stagflation

(d) Deflation

12. What was the result of the Dawes Plan introduced in 1924 in relation to the Weimar Republic?

(a) It limited French control over German industries.

(b) It allowed Germany to evade reparations altogether.

(d) It prompted the collapse of the Weimar Republic.

13. In the early 1930s, which event accelerated economic distress in Germany and led to rising extremism?

(a) The Treaty of Versailles

(b) The Great Depression

(d) The Dawes Plan

14. The political and economic conditions of Weimar Germany led to a specific term being used to describe the republic’s supporters. What were they called by opponents?

(a) Versailles Defenders

(b) Reparations Advocatesr

(d) November Criminals

15. How did Joseph Goebbels utilize propaganda to influence the German public in support of the Nazi regime?

(a) By creating propaganda that encouraged democratic principles.

(b) By promoting Aryan supremacy and racial purity ideals through films and radio.

(d) By providing accurate historical documentaries about World War I.

16. Why was Lebensraum (Living Space) considered a central concept in Nazi foreign policy?

(a) It aimed at short-term economic growth through trade agreements.

(b) It focused on non-violent integration of territories.

(d) It promoted isolationism by keeping Germany separate from European affairs.

17. Which of the following strategies was used by the Nazis to perpetuate anti-Semitism in German society?

(a) Implementing a widespread propaganda campaign portraying Jews as enemies of the state.

(b) Allowing free press to publish diverse viewpoints on racial issues.

(d) Establishing educational programs that promoted cultural understanding.

18. What was the primary focus of Nazi propaganda in relation to foreign policy during the 1930s?

(a) To justify territorial expansion and depict it as rightful reclamation.

(b) To encourage peace and cooperation with neighboring countries.

(d) To highlight weaknesses in the military capabilities of other nations.

19. How did the Great Depression contribute to the rise of the Nazi Party in Germany?

(a) It stabilized the German economy, reducing the need for extreme politics.

(b) It increased the popularity of alternative political parties, including the Nazis.

(d) It resulted in immediate prosperity for the German working class.

20. Which method was primarily used by Hitler to disseminate Nazi propaganda?

(a) Radio broadcasts and mass rallies

(b) Mystical religious preachings

(d) Classified government communications

21. What was the significant outcome of the Enabling Act of 1933 for Hitler’s regime in Germany?

(a) It dissolved the Nazi Party and reinstated the Weimar Republic.

(b) It started World War II immediately after its enactment.

(d) It solely focused on improving Germany’s environmental policies.

22. Why was propaganda crucial for Hitler’s rise to power during the early 1930s?

(a) It helped normalize Nazi ideology among the German populace.

(b) It completely eliminated the presence of other political parties.

(d) It solely relied on presenting satirical content to mock opponents.

23. Which event allowed the Nazi Party to consolidate power and led to the final establishment of Hitler’s dictatorship?

(a) The signing of the Treaty of Versailles in 1919

(b) The passing of the Enabling Act in March 1933

(d) The Wall Street Crash of 1929

24. How did the Nazi regime utilize education to promote its ideology among the youth?

(a) By introducing racial science in the curriculum

(b) By dismissing teachers seen as ‘ideologically unreliable’ and rewriting textbooks to include Nazi beliefs

(d) By promoting democracy and freedom of thought

25. What was the primary purpose of the Hitler Youth and the League of German Girls during the Nazi regime?

(a) To provide a balanced education focused on literature and arts

(b) To create opportunities for cultural exchanges with other countries

(d) To promote universal healthcare among German youth

26. Which form of media was predominantly used in Nazi Germany to influence and indoctrinate youth?

(a) Movies promoting liberal and progressive ideas

(b) Textbooks filled with Nazi ideologies and racial science

(d) Radio broadcasts outlining Nazi policies

27. Match the following columns regarding the events and ideologies under Nazi Germany.

Column I

Column II

A. Nuremberg Laws i. Formal plan for the Holocaust

B. Kristallnacht ii. ‘Living Space’ expansion

C. Wannsee Conference iii. Ghettoisation of Jews

D. Lebensraum iv. Anti-Jewish legal measures

(a) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii

(b) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii

(d) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii

28. Match the following columns related to the Nazi regime and Hitler’s policies:

Column I Column II

A. Formation of the Nazi Party i. Economic recovery initiative

B. Volkswagen Project ii. 1933 event used to suppress dissent

C. Reichstag Fire iii. Initially a small group of nationalists

D. The Enabling Act iv. Gave legislative powers to Hitler

(a) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i

(b) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv

(d) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii

29. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: The Hitler Youth sought to train young boys in military exercises and foster loyalty to Nazi ideals.

Statement II: The League of German Girls trained young women exclusively in military combat skills.

Statement III: Nazi education focused on fostering critical thinking and questioning authority.

Statement IV: Nazi propaganda used films and books to shape the ideological views of German youth.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and III are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

30. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: The Reichstag Fire was used by Hitler to suppress communist opponents.

Statement II: The Enabling Act allowed Hitler to bypass the German Parliament and legislate by decree.

Statement III: Nazi propaganda was key to Hitler’s ability to rally large-scale public support.

Statement IV: The Nazi Party initially gained power through a violent coup.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and III are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

Assertion-Reason Based

Questions

In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion (A): The silence of ordinary Germans during the Nazi regime contributed to the scale of atrocities committed.

Reason (R): Most Germans fully supported the ideologies of the Nazi Party.

2. Assertion (A): The Nuremberg Trials were conducted to prosecute Nazi leaders for crimes against humanity.

Reason (R): These trials emphasized the responsibility of individuals in positions of power for their actions, setting a precedent for future international laws.

3. Assertion (A): The Treaty of Versailles was advantageous for Germany’s political stability.

Reason (R): The Treaty imposed strict reparations and territorial losses on Germany, which led to significant economic burdens.

4. Assertion (A): The Nazis pursued the concept of Lebensraum to strengthen Germany’s position in Europe.

Reason (R): Lebensraum was aimed at acquiring ‘living space’ to ensure Aryan racial superiority.

5. Assertion (A): Hitler’s appointment as Chancellor was made possible by the unity of right-wing parties.

Reason (R): Right-wing parties sought to stabilize Germany after the turmoil of the Great Depression, seeing Hitler as a unifying figure.

6. Assertion (A): The Hitler Youth was critical in promoting Nazi ideology among young Germans.

Reason (R): Children trained in Hitler Youth were indoctrinated with the belief that loyalty to the Nazi state was paramount.

Picture Based Questions

1. The image shows Adolf Hitler addressing the SA and SS columns at a Nazi rally. What was the primary purpose of such mass rallies in Nazi Germany?

(a) To promote democratic ideals and encourage public debate

(b) To display the power and unity of the Nazi regime and instil loyalty among the masses

(d) To celebrate Germany’s colonial expansion in Africa

2. The Nazi propaganda poster with the slogan “Your Volkswagen” aimed to convey which of the following messages?

(a) The government would provide free automobiles to all citizens.

(b) Automobiles were now accessible to the common worker, reflecting prosperity under Nazi rule.

(d) Germany would begin exporting luxury cars worldwide.

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30-40

words)

1. Define what is meant by ‘Crimes Against Humanity’.

2. Identify one psychological effect of the Holocaust on survivors.

3. What was one significant post-war international legal development resulting from Nazi activities?

4. What was the main goal of the Nuremberg Trials held after World War II?

5. Explain how the social fabric of Germany was impacted by the defeat in World War II.

6. Identify one significant impact of the Treaty of Versailles on Germany’s territorial integrity.

7. What was the War Guilt Clause in the Treaty of Versailles?

8. Refer to a major cause of hyperinflation in Germany in 1923.

9. State one reason why the Weimar Republic faced political challenges during its early years.

10. What does the term ‘Lebensraum’ signify in the context of Nazi ideology?

11. Define Aryan supremacy as per Nazi worldview.

12. Explain the role of propaganda in Nazi mass psychology.

13. What year was the Enabling Act passed in Germany?

14. Who was the propaganda minister in Nazi Germany?

15. Define ‘Nazi Party’.

16. What was the significant political consequence of the Reichstag Fire?

17. What was the primary goal of indoctrination in Nazi schools?

18. Identify one major impact of the Nazi education system on German children.

Short Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. How did the Nuremberg Trials address the issue of Crimes Against Humanity, and what impact did this have on post-war international law?

2. Explain the psychological impact of the Nazi regime on the German populace. How did this affect post-war reconstruction efforts in Germany?

3. Discuss the role of resistance movements in Nazi Germany. How effective were they in altering the course of World War II?

4. Outline the key impacts of the Treaty of Versailles on Germany after World War I.

5. How did economic crises, such as hyperinflation and the Great Depression, contribute to the instability of the Weimar Republic?

6. Evaluate the challenges in establishing a stable government in the Weimar Republic during the post-World War I period.

7. Discuss how the ideology of Aryan supremacy shaped Nazi policies towards minority communities during the regime.

8. To what extent did Nazi propaganda shape civilian perceptions of World War II in Germany? Analyse how state-controlled messaging influenced public opinion, morale, and attitudes towards the war effort.

9. Explain the role of propaganda in Nazi Germany in increasing Hitler’s popularity. Include its impact on different segments of society.

10. Discuss the impact of the Enabling Act of 1933 on the Weimar Republic’s parliamentary democracy.

11. Describe the circumstances and tactics Hitler used to rise to the position of Chancellor in 1933.

12. Explain how the indoctrination of children through Nazi books and films influenced their worldview.

13. Discuss the methods used by the Nazi regime to control education and its impact on youth.

14. Describe the purpose and activities of the Hitler Youth organisation.

Long Answer Questions (100-120 words)

1. Discuss the economic and social impacts of the Great Depression on Germany. How did this crisis affect the political landscape in the country?

2. Explain the political and social conditions that led to destabilization in the Weimar Republic following World War I. What roles did external treaties and internal strife play in this context?

3. Critically examine the role of anti-Semitic propaganda in supporting Nazi racial policies. Consider the elements and mechanisms that were used in the propaganda to influence public perception.

4. Examine how Hitler utilized his early life experiences and the socio-economic conditions of Germany to consolidate his political entry and ascendancy. Include examples of his strategies and popular appeal.

5. How far did Hitler’s post-1933 reconstruction strategies transform Germany economically and socially? Critically assess the effectiveness and consequences of these policies on various segments of German society.

6. Examine the role of the Hitler Youth and the League of German Girls in promoting the Nazi agenda. How did these organisations influence the youth of that era?

7. What were the key features of Nazi economic recovery plans in the 1930s?

8. How were art, culture, and science controlled and shaped under Nazi rule?

9. Explain how Nazi Germany used fear as a tool of governance.

10. Discuss the role of women in Nazi Germany. Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow. We have found in non-violence a force which, if organised, can without doubt match itself against a combination of all the most violent forces in the world. In non-violent technique, as I have said, there is no such thing as defeat. It is all ‘do or die’ without killing or hurting. It can be used practically without money and obviously without the aid of science of destruction which you have brought to such perfection. It is a marvel to me that you do not see that it is nobody’s monopoly. If not the British, some other power will certainly improve upon your method and beat you with

your own weapon. You are leaving no legacy to your people of which they would feel proud. They cannot take pride in a recital of cruel deed, however skilfully planned. I, therefore, appeal to you in the name of humanity to stop the war…. I am, Your sincere friend, M. K. GANDHI .

(a) According to Gandhiji, what is the core strength of non-violence?

(b) Why does Gandhiji say that non-violence can be used without money or destructive science?

Map Based Questions

1. On the given outline political map of the world, mark and label the following:

(a) Two countries that were part of the Axis Powers

(b) Two countries that were part of the Allied Powers

Answers

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. (a) They were passive onlookers and silent.

2. (b) Widespread fear of Gestapo and repercussions.

3. (d) It led to international laws against crimes against humanity.

4. (b) Passive complicity

5. (c) Enduring trauma and mistrust

6. (c) Overwhelming guilt and fear of retribution

7. (a) Widespread unemployment and economic instability

8. (c) They were the first trials to prosecute crimes against humanity and set precedents for international criminal law.

9. (c) Many experienced long-lasting trauma and fear, manifesting in their refusal to trust authorities or institutions.

10. (b) War Guilt Clause

11. (a) Hyperinflation

12. (c) It restructured Germany’s reparations payments to make them more manageable.

13. (b) The Great Depression

14. (d) November Criminals

15. (b) By promoting Aryan supremacy and racial purity ideals through films and radio.

16. (c) It justified aggressive expansion to secure resources and space for the Aryan race.

17. (a) Implementing a widespread propaganda campaign portraying Jews as enemies of the state.

18. (a) To justify territorial expansion and depict it as rightful reclamation.

19. (b) It increased the popularity of alternative political parties, including the Nazis.

20. (a) Radio broadcasts and mass rallies

21. (c) It established a dictatorship under Hitler by allowing him to rule without Parliament.

22. (a) It helped normalise Nazi ideology among the German populace.

23. (b) The passing of the Enabling Act in March 1933

24. (a) By introducing racial science in the curriculum

25. (c) To prepare children for loyal service to the Nazi state

26. (b) Textbooks filled with Nazi ideologies and racial science

27. (c) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

28. (d) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii

29. (d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

30. (b) Statements I, II and III are appropriate.

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

1. (c) A is true, but R is false.

2. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

3. (d) A is false but R is true.

4. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

5. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

6. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Picture Based Questions

1. (b) To display the power and unity of the Nazi regime and instil loyalty among the masses

2. (b) Automobiles were now accessible to the common worker, reflecting prosperity under Nazi rule.

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30-40 words)

1. • These are violations committed against civilians on a large scale, including genocide, enslavement, extermination, and torture.

• They occur as part of a widespread or systematic attack directed against a specific population, often in times of war or political unrest.

2. • Holocaust survivors commonly experienced severe psychological trauma, depression, and anxiety.

• Many struggled with lasting effects like survivor’s guilt, nightmares, flashbacks, and a sense of emotional numbness due to the horrors and losses they endured during the genocide.

3. • One significant development was the establishment of international tribunals like the Nuremberg Trials, which prosecuted Nazi leaders for war crimes, crimes against humanity, and genocide.

• These trials set precedents for international criminal law and human rights enforcement.

4. • The primary goal was to bring Nazi war criminals to justice for their roles in the Holocaust and other atrocities.

• The trials aimed to ensure accountability for crimes against humanity, war crimes, and violations of international law.

5. • Germany’s defeat in World War II caused widespread economic devastation, loss of national pride, and a collapse of the social order.

• The population faced significant hardship, contributing to political extremism and the eventual rise of Nazi ideologies in later years.

6. • The Treaty of Versailles severely impacted Germany’s territorial integrity by forcing the country to cede significant territories, including the Saar Basin and all overseas colonies.

• This loss weakened Germany economically and politically, creating resentment among the population.

7. • Article 231 of the Treaty of Versailles, also known as the War Guilt Clause, placed full responsibility for World War I on Germany and its allies.

• It humiliated Germany and justified the imposition of reparations, contributing to longterm economic and political instability.

8. • Hyperinflation in Germany occurred largely due to the government printing excessive amounts of currency to pay reparations imposed by the Treaty of Versailles.

• This caused the value of the German mark to plummet, leading to sky-high prices and economic instability.

9. • The Weimar Republic faced early political challenges, including hyperinflation, a lack of broad public support, and political extremism from both the left and right.

• These problems made the republic vulnerable to collapse, eventually contributing to the rise of Hitler and the Nazi Party.

10. • Lebensraum, or “living space,” was a key component of Nazi ideology.

• It referred to the belief that the German people, especially the “Aryan” race, needed to expand eastward to acquire territory for settlement and resources, often at the expense of other nations.

11. • Aryan supremacy was a core belief in Nazi ideology, asserting that the “Aryan” race, particularly Germans, was superior to all other races, including Jews, Slavs, and other ethnic groups.

• It justified discriminatory policies, racial purity laws, and ultimately genocide during the Holocaust.

12. • Nazi propaganda, led by Joseph Goebbels, was crucial in shaping public opinion and consolidating Adolf Hitler’s power.

• It was used to promote Nazi ideals, demonize enemies (especially Jews), and manipulate emotions to achieve compliance with the regime’s goals.

13. • The Enabling Act was passed in 1933, giving Adolf Hitler dictatorial powers.

• It allowed him to enact laws without the Reichstag’s approval, effectively ending democracy in Germany and allowing Hitler to consolidate absolute control over the government.

14. • Joseph Goebbels was the Minister of Propaganda in Nazi Germany.

• He played a central role in spreading Nazi ideology, manipulating public opinion through media, speeches, and film, and promoting the regime’s messages of anti-Semitism, nationalism, and militarism.

15. Nazi Party: The National Socialist German Workers’ Party (NSDAP), or Nazi Party, was a far-right political party led by Adolf Hitler. It promoted extreme nationalism, militarism, antiSemitism, and the belief in the superiority of the “Aryan” race, ultimately leading to World War II and the Holocaust.

16. Political Consequence of Reichstag Fire: The Reichstag Fire in 1933 allowed Hitler to convince President Hindenburg to issue the Reichstag Fire Decree, suspending civil liberties. This paved the way for the Nazi Party to arrest political opponents, weaken democratic institutions, and consolidate Hitler’s totalitarian control.

17. • The main goal of indoctrination in Nazi schools was to teach children to be loyal to Hitler and embrace Nazi ideals.

• This included racial purity, anti-Semitism, militarism, and obedience, shaping future generations to support the regime’s goals.

18. • The Nazi education system had a profound impact on German children, teaching them to idolize Hitler, reject democracy, and accept antiSemitic beliefs.

• Children were also taught the importance of physical fitness and military readiness, aligning them with Nazi ideological and political goals.

Short Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. Nuremberg Trials and Crimes Against Humanity:

• The Nuremberg Trials prosecuted Nazi leaders for crimes against humanity, including genocide, enslavement, and extermination.

• They established the principle that individuals could be held accountable for such crimes.

• The trials contributed to the development of international law, paving the way for future human rights conventions and global justice mechanisms.

2. Psychological Impact of Nazi Regime on Germans:

• The Nazi regime caused deep psychological trauma, including widespread fear, guilt, and nationalism.

• Survivors, including civilians and soldiers, faced PTSD, anxiety, and post-war disillusionment.

• This psychological toll delayed Germany’s post-war reconstruction, as many struggled with reconciling the horrors of the war and rebuilding a stable, peaceful society.

3. Role of Resistance Movements in Nazi Germany:

• Resistance movements, such as the White Rose and the July 20 Plot, opposed Nazi rule through acts of protest, sabotage, and assassination attempts.

• They were largely ineffective in altering the course of WWII due to Nazi repression and lack of widespread support.

• However, they symbolized moral opposition to tyranny and provided hope for post-war Germany.

4. Impacts of the Treaty of Versailles on Germany:

• The Treaty of Versailles imposed heavy reparations, territorial losses, and military restrictions on Germany.

• It humiliated the country, leading to widespread resentment.

• The treaty’s harsh terms contributed to political instability, economic crises, and the eventual rise of Adolf Hitler and the Nazi Party.

5. Economic Crises and Instability in the Weimar Republic:

• Hyperinflation in 1923 and the Great Depression in 1929 severely weakened the Weimar Republic’s economy.

• Unemployment soared, public trust in the government dwindled, and extremist parties gained popularity.

• These crises destabilized the political system, paving the way for Hitler’s rise to power.

6. Challenges in Establishing Stable Government in Weimar Republic:

• The Weimar Republic faced political fragmentation, with extremist factions from both left and right challenging its legitimacy.

• Economic instability, such as hyperinflation and the Great Depression, exacerbated the government’s inability to function effectively.

• The lack of strong leadership and public support made it difficult to maintain a stable democratic system.

7. Aryan Supremacy and Nazi Policies Towards Minorities:

• Aryan supremacy underpinned Nazi policies of racial purity and exclusion.

• Jews, Roma, Slavs, and other minorities were persecuted, subjected to discriminatory laws, and eventually deported or killed in the Holocaust.

• This ideology justified Nazi actions in exterminating or enslaving non-“Aryan” populations across occupied Europe.

8. Impact of Nazi Propaganda on WWII Perceptions:

• Nazi propaganda, led by Joseph Goebbels, portrayed WWII as a battle for survival of the “Aryan” race.

• It demonized enemies, particularly Jews, and rallied civilians to support the war effort.

• Propaganda shaped public opinion, creating a sense of unity but also fostering hatred and fear.

9. Role of Propaganda in Increasing Hitler’s Popularity:

• Propaganda played a central role in elevating Hitler’s image, portraying him as a savior of Germany.

• It used mass media, rallies, and speeches to spread Nazi ideals and foster nationalistic fervor.

• The impact was particularly strong among the working class, youth, and those disillusioned by economic hardship.

10. Impact of the Enabling Act of 1933:

• The Enabling Act granted Hitler dictatorial powers, allowing him to bypass the Reichstag and make laws without parliamentary approval.

• It marked the end of parliamentary democracy in Germany, giving Hitler absolute control and enabling the establishment of a totalitarian regime.

11. Hitler’s Rise to Chancellor in 1933:

• Hitler used the economic crisis, widespread discontent, and Nazi political maneuvering to gain support.

• With backing from conservative elites and the business community, he was appointed Chancellor by President Hindenburg.

• He quickly consolidated power, exploiting the Reichstag Fire to further restrict civil liberties and suppress opposition.

12. Indoctrination Through Nazi Books and Films:

• Nazi propaganda used books and films to indoctrinate children with nationalist, militaristic, and anti-Semitic ideals.

• These materials glorified the “Aryan” race and portrayed Jews and other minorities as enemies.

• Children were taught loyalty to Hitler and were conditioned to accept Nazi ideology as truth.

13. Nazi Control of Education and Its Impact:

• The Nazi regime controlled education to instill loyalty to the state and Nazi ideals.

• School curriculums were restructured to emphasize racial theory, militarism, and antiSemitism.

• The regime sought to produce obedient and ideologically aligned citizens, preparing youth for future roles in the Nazi state.

14. Purpose and Activities of the Hitler Youth:

• The Hitler Youth was a paramilitary organization designed to indoctrinate German youth into Nazi ideology.

• It provided physical training, military drills, and ideological education focused on loyalty to Hitler and racial purity.

• Members were groomed to become future soldiers, officers, and supporters of the Nazi regime.

Long

Answer

Questions

(100-120 words)

1. Economic and Social Impacts of the Great Depression on Germany:

• Severe Unemployment: By 1932, Germany faced an unemployment rate of over 6 million, creating widespread poverty and social distress.

• Social Instability: With many people unable to find work, social unrest grew, and disillusionment with the Weimar Republic increased.

• Rise of Extremism: As economic hardship worsened, extremist political groups, including the Nazis, gained support by offering radical solutions.

• Nazi Promises: Hitler’s promises of jobs, economic recovery, and national pride appealed to those suffering from the crisis.

• Political Shift: The Great Depression created a ripe environment for Hitler’s rise, as many saw the Nazi Party as a solution to Germany’s instability.

2. Political and Social Conditions Leading to Weimar Republic’s Destabilization:

• Treaty of Versailles: The Treaty placed heavy blame on Germany for World War I, imposing harsh reparations and territorial losses, which left Germans humiliated and resentful.

• Hyperinflation: The 1923 hyperinflation crisis caused the value of the German mark to plummet, eroding savings and trust in the government.

• Political Extremism: Both the far-left (communists) and far-right (Nazis) grew in power, challenging the legitimacy of the Weimar government.

• Economic Challenges: The Great Depression exacerbated the unemployment crisis, weakening the social and political fabric of Germany.

• Lack of Strong Institutions: The failure of the government to effectively address these crises contributed to the Republic’s eventual collapse and Hitler’s rise.

3. Role of Anti-Semitic Propaganda in Nazi Racial Policies:

• Dehumanizing Jews: Nazi propaganda portrayed Jews as subhuman and blamed them for economic, social, and political problems, contributing to public acceptance of antiSemitic laws.

• Use of Media: The Nazis used newspapers, films, posters, and rallies to spread their anti-Semitic views, embedding these ideas in German culture.

• Targeting: Jews were scapegoated for Germany’s defeat in WWI and the subsequent economic crises, with propaganda portraying them as enemies of the state.

• Legitimising Discrimination: Propaganda normalized discriminatory laws like the Nuremberg Laws, which excluded Jews from public life and stripped them of citizenship.

• Facilitating the Holocaust: By creating a climate of hatred and fear, Nazi propaganda helped to justify the systematic persecution and extermination of Jews.

4. Hitler’s Early Life and Socio-Economic Conditions in His Political Rise:

• Early Struggles: Hitler’s poverty-stricken childhood in Austria shaped his deep resentment of Jews and his ambition to rise to power.

• WWI Experience: Hitler’s service in World War I helped to shape his nationalistic and antiSemitic views, which would become central to Nazi ideology.

• Treaty of Versailles: Hitler’s anger at the Treaty of Versailles and its consequences for Germany made him a strong proponent of revisionist nationalism.

• The Great Depression: The economic devastation of the Great Depression created an opportunity for Hitler to exploit the public’s frustrations and present the Nazis as a solution.

• Rhetorical Skills: Hitler’s oratory and ability to tap into the public’s grievances allowed him to build widespread support, eventually leading to his appointment as Chancellor in 1933.

5. Hitler’s Economic and Social Strategies Post-1933:

• Public Works Projects: Hitler initiated large infrastructure projects, including the Autobahn, which provided jobs and stimulated the economy.

• Rearmament: Germany began rearming in defiance of the Treaty of Versailles, which provided jobs and prepared the nation for future war.

• Social Policies: The regime encouraged large families, especially among Aryans, offering marriage loans to support procreation and national growth.

• Youth Indoctrination: The Hitler Youth and the League of German Girls were formed to

indoctrinate young people with Nazi ideals, preparing them to be loyal to the regime.

• Impact on Society: These economic policies reduced unemployment, strengthened Nazi control, and set the stage for militarism and war, reshaping German society along Nazi lines.

6. Role of Hitler Youth and League of German Girls:

• Hitler Youth: Focused on preparing boys for military service and instilling values of loyalty, obedience, and nationalism, in line with Nazi ideology.

• League of German Girls: The girls’ group aimed to prepare girls for their roles as mothers and homemakers in the Nazi state, emphasizing traditional gender roles.

• Ideological Indoctrination: Both organizations helped inculcate the next generation with Nazi beliefs about race, loyalty, and militarism.

• Militaristic and Racial Teachings: The education promoted by these groups taught young people the ideals of Aryan superiority and Nazi racial purity.

• Long-Term Influence: These organizations played a significant role in ensuring that Nazi ideology would be passed on to future generations, creating a society loyal to Hitler’s vision.

7. Nazi Economic Recovery Plans in the 1930s:

• Public Works Projects: Large-scale infrastructure projects, such as the Autobahn, provided immediate employment and boosted the economy.

• Rearmament: The rearmament program violated the Treaty of Versailles and created jobs, stimulating the economy through military production.

• Economic policies: Nazi economic policies aimed for self-sufficiency, promoting local industries and reducing dependence on foreign trade.

• Labor Force Mobilization: As men went to war, women were brought into the workforce to support the war effort, contributing to the economy.

• Impact: These policies led to rapid economic recovery, but the rearmament focus contributed to the militarization of Germany and the eventual outbreak of WWII.

8. Control of Art, Culture, and Science under Nazi Rule:

• State-Controlled Art: The Nazis promoted traditional, “Aryan” art that reflected their ideals of racial purity and militarism, while banning modernist and “degenerate” art.

• Cultural Propaganda: Films, books, and music were used to promote Nazi ideology, including racial purity, nationalism, and anti-Semitism.

• Scientific Racism: Nazi scientists promoted pseudo-scientific theories like eugenics and racial hierarchy to justify discriminatory policies and the Holocaust.

• Suppression of Dissent: Artists, intellectuals, and scientists who opposed Nazi ideology were silenced or forced into exile.

• Impact: The Nazis stifled intellectual freedom and used art, culture, and science as tools of state propaganda to maintain control and promote their vision.

9. Use of Fear as a Tool of Governance:

• Gestapo and SS: The Gestapo (secret police) and SS (Schutzstaffel) were responsible for spying on citizens, arresting opponents, and using violence to suppress dissent.

• Surveillance: Citizens were constantly monitored by both the state and their neighbors, creating an atmosphere of fear and mistrust.

• Violent Repression: The regime used arrests, torture, and executions to eliminate perceived enemies, ensuring the population’s obedience through fear.

• Propaganda of Fear: The Nazis promoted fear of Jews, communists, and other “enemies” to justify their actions and rally the public behind the regime.

• Control of Public Opinion: The use of fear kept the population from rebelling, making it easier for the Nazis to maintain totalitarian control over Germany.

10. Role of Women in Nazi Germany:

• Traditional Gender Roles: Women were expected to focus on motherhood, family, and supporting the Nazi regime’s policies on racial purity.

• Marriage and Family Policies: The regime offered financial incentives, such as marriage loans, to encourage women to marry and have children, especially Aryan children.

• Labor During War: During WWII, women were mobilized to work in factories and other labor sectors to support the war effort.

• Education and Indoctrination: Women were educated to be loyal to the state and adhere to traditional gender roles as mothers and caregivers.

• Impact: Despite traditional expectations, the war expanded women’s roles in the workforce. However, the regime’s policies continued to promote motherhood and the traditional family structure.

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1

(a) The core strength of non-violence, according to Gandhiji, is that it is a powerful force capable of standing against the most violent forces in the world.

(b) • Gandhiji asserts that non-violence requires no financial investment or reliance on destructive technologies.

• It is based on moral strength and personal conviction, not on weapons or scientific advancements used for harm.

(c) • Gandhiji warns that if the British continue using violence, other powers may adopt and enhance their methods and eventually defeat them using those same violent tactics.

• He implies that violent achievements leave behind no honourable legacy for future generations.

Map Based Questions

1. (a) Axis Powers: Germany, Italy and Japan (b) Allied Powers: Former USSR, UK, France and USA

Axis Powers: Germany, Italy and Japan Allied Powers: Former USSR,

ARCTIC OCEAN

SELF-ASSESSMENT

Time: 1 Hour

Section A

Scan me for all answers.

Max. Marks: 40

6. What was the Nazi ideology based on?

(a) Peace and cooperation

(b) Equality of all races

(1 × 8 = 8 Marks)

Choose and write the correct answer for each of the following.

1. What was the main impact of the Treaty of Versailles on Germany?

(a) Germany was rewarded with new colonies

(b) Germany gained territories in Europe

(d) Germany was allowed to join the League of Nations

2. Which event is referred to as the start of Hitler’s rise to power?

(a) Treaty of Versailles

(b) The Great Depression

(d) Munich Agreement

3. The Enabling Act passed in 1933 gave Hitler:

(a) The right to dissolve the German army

(b) Power to imprison political opponents

(d) The authority to become President

4. What was the purpose of the Nuremberg Laws of 1935?

(a) To provide equal rights to Jews

(b) To increase trade with other nations

(d) To give voting rights to women

5. Which group was considered the ‘undesirables’ by the Nazis?

(a) Aryans

(b) Jews, Gypsies, and the disabled

(d) Nazis who disagreed with Hitler

(d) Democratic socialism

7. What role did propaganda play in Nazi Germany?

(a) It promoted foreign culture

(b) It discouraged the use of radios and films

(d) It encouraged criticism of the government

8. In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Hitler promised full employment and revival of the German economy during his rise to power.

Reason (R): He aimed to gain mass support by addressing the economic hardships caused by the Great Depression.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Section B

Answer the following questions.

9. What were the key features of Hitler’s foreign policy? (2 Marks)

10. How did the Treaty of Versailles contribute to the rise of Nazism in Germany? (3 Marks)

11. Explain the impact of the Great Economic Depression on Germany (3 Marks)

12. What role did propaganda play in promoting Nazi ideology? (3 Marks)

13. Describe the youth organisations under the Nazi regime. (3 Marks)

14. How were women treated under the Nazi regime? (3 Marks)

15. Describe the political and economic conditions in Germany after World War I. How did these conditions help in the growth of Nazism?

(5 Marks)

16. Discuss the steps taken by Hitler to establish a totalitarian regime in Germany. (5 Marks)

17. Explain how the Nazis sought to create a racially pure and harmonious society. What measures did they adopt to achieve this?

(5 Marks)

4 Forest Society and Colonialism

The chapter explores how British colonial rule transformed forest use in India, impacting both the environment and forest-dependent communities. Forests were exploited for timber to support shipbuilding and railway expansion, leading to deforestation. To control resources, the British introduced strict forest laws and scientific forestry, prioritizing commercial interests over traditional practices. Indigenous methods like shifting cultivation, grazing, and forest gathering were banned, severely affecting tribal livelihoods. Forests were declared state property, restricting access for local communities who had long depended on them. These oppressive policies triggered resistance movements, such as the Bastar Rebellion, where tribes protested the loss of their rights. The chapter also draws comparisons with Dutch colonial rule in Java, where similar forest control measures were imposed. Overall, colonialism disrupted the balance between people and forests, causing deep social and ecological consequences, and illustrating how imperial interests reshaped natural resource management in ways that marginalized local communities.

Forest Society and Colonialism

Colonial Impact on Forests

Timber demand (railways, ships)

Commercial exploitation

Scientific forestry

Global Comparison Resistance Movements Forest Laws

Indian Forest Act (1865, 1878, 1927)

Reserved and protected forests

Bans on shifting cultivation and grazing

Effect on Forest Communities

Displacement and loss of livelihoods

Criminalisation of traditional practices

Forced labour (begar)

Bastar Rebellion (India)

Kalangs Revolt (Java, Indonesia)

Dutch colonial forestry in Java

Similarities in policies and resistance

Monoculture plantations Decreased biodiversity

Environmental Consequences

Key Terms and Definitions

Livelihoods: Livelihoods refer to the means by which individuals or communities secure the necessities of life, encompassing a complex interplay of resources and activities related to economic survival.

Forest Dwellers: They are communities that live within or adjacent to forest areas, relying on a diverse set of resource uses for their livelihoods and cultural practices.

Pastoralists: Pastoralists are communities who rely predominantly on livestock herding and movement across different terrains for their economic survival and cultural identity.

Colonial Regulation: It refers to the imposition of control over local resources and communities by colonial powers, altering traditional practices and governance structures.

Modernisation: It constitutes a wide-ranging transformation that affects economies, societies, and environments, often bringing both opportunities and challenges to traditional ways of life.

Deforestation: Deforestation is the process of clearing forests and converting the land to non-forest uses, leading to significant ecological and environmental challenges.

Biodiversity: It encompasses the variety of life forms in a habitat, crucial for maintaining ecosystem functions and providing resources for human survival.

Colonialism: Colonialism involves the establishment of rule over foreign territories by a dominating power, leading to exploitation of resources and suppression of local cultures.

Ecosystem: An ecosystem is a community of living organisms interacting with their physical environment, important for sustaining life processes and ecological balance.

Conservation: It refers to the responsible management and preservation of natural resources and habitats to maintain biodiversity and ensure sustainable use.

Commercial Forestry: Commercial forestry is the systematic management of forest resources, focused on timber production and regulated usage introduced during the British colonial rule in India.

Scientific Forestry: Scientific forestry refers to a regulated method of managing forests where species are planted in uniform rows for optimal timber yield, often criticized for its disregard towards natural biodiversity.

Kalangs: A skilled community of forest workers in Java, instrumental in teak harvesting and central to the resistance against Dutch colonial rule.

Sacred Groves: Sacred groves are patches of forest that are protected due to their cultural or religious significance in local traditions, providing ecological benefits and biodiversity.

Timeline

First Indian Forest Act passed

1600s

Expansion of British East India Company control 1878

Scientific forestry introduced in India

Widespread resistance in Bastar region

Rebellion by Kalangs against Dutch in Java 1865

Revised Forest Act divides forests into reserved, protected and village forests

Dutch introduce forest policies in Java

1927

Forest Act further strengthens British control over Indian forests

NCERT Zone

Intext Questions

1. Read the following source and answer the question.

Source B

‘The new line to be constructed was the Indus Valley Railway between Multan and Sukkur, a distance of nearly 300 miles. At the rate of 2000 sleepers per mile this would require 600,000 sleepers 10 feet by 10 inches by 5 inches (or 3.5 cubic feet apiece), being upwards of 2,000,000 cubic feet. The locomotives would use wood fuel. At the rate of one train daily either way and at one maund per train-mile an annual supply of 219,000 maunds would be demanded. In addition a large supply of fuel for brick-burning would be required. The sleepers would have to come mainly from the Sind Forests. The fuel from the tamarisk and Jhand forests of Sind and the Punjab. The other new line was the Northern State Railway from Lahore to Multan. It was estimated that 2,200,000 sleepers would be required for its construction.’

Each mile of railway track required between 1,760 and 2,000 sleepers. If one average sized tree yields 3 to 5 sleepers for a 3 metre wide broad gauge track, calculate approximately how many trees would have to be cut to lay one mile of track.

Ans. To calculate the approximate number of trees required to lay one mile of railway track, we are given:

• Sleepers needed per mile: Between 1,760 and 2,000

• Sleepers per tree: 3 to 5

Step 1: Calculate average number of sleepers per mile

1,760 + 2000 2 = 1,880 sleepers

Step 2: Calculate average number of sleepers produced per tree

3 + 5 2 = 4 sleepers per tree

Step 3: Calculate number of trees needed 1,880 sleepers/4 sleepers/tree = 470 trees

Approximately 470 trees would need to be cut to lay one mile of railway track.

NCERT Exercises

1. Discuss how the changes in forest management in the colonial period affected the following groups of people:

Ans. • Shifting cultivators: Shifting cultivation, also known as swidden agriculture, was a traditional farming method where forests were cleared and burnt for temporary agriculture. The British considered it wasteful and harmful to forest conservation. As a result, it was banned in many regions. This severely affected forest communities, who lost access to ancestral land, faced displacement, and were forced to adopt unfamiliar livelihoods, leading to insecurity and poverty.

• Nomadic and Pastoralist Communities: Nomadic and pastoralist groups relied on seasonal movement and grazing in forests and pastures. Colonial forest laws restricted free access to forests and labelled their activities as illegal. Grazing was allowed only in selected areas, often with heavy fees or permits. Many communities lost their livelihood and were forced to settle or find wage labour, weakening their traditional lifestyle and autonomy.

• Firms Trading in Timber/Forest Produce: Before colonial rule, local communities and traders freely collected and sold forest produce. Under British policies, large European trading companies were given exclusive rights to forest products like timber, gum, ivory, and spices. Local firms and communities lost their trading rights and income sources. Trade became monopolised and heavily taxed, and access was tightly controlled by the forest department.

• Plantation Owners: Plantation owners, mostly European, were among the main beneficiaries of colonial forest management. Vast areas of natural forest were cleared and handed over at cheap rates to set up tea, coffee, and rubber plantations. These plantations were highly profitable due to the export demand in Europe. Indigenous people were often recruited as cheap labour under harsh conditions, further exploiting local populations.

• Kings/British Officials Engaged in Shikar (Hunting): While local people were banned from hunting under forest laws, British officials and Indian royals were allowed to hunt freely. Hunting large animals became a sign of power and prestige. Tigers, leopards, and wolves were killed in large numbers for

sport, with rewards given for each kill. This led to a drastic decline in wildlife populations and disrupted ecological balance.

2. What are the similarities between colonial management of the forests in Bastar and in Java?

Ans. • Colonial Forest Laws: Both British authorities in Bastar and Dutch officials in Java introduced strict forest laws to control access to forests. These laws prioritised the needs of the empire, especially timber supply for railways and ships, over the rights of forest dwellers.

• Restriction on Traditional Practices: In both places, traditional practices such as shifting cultivation, grazing, hunting, and collecting forest produce were seen as harmful and were either restricted or completely banned. This disrupted the livelihoods of tribal and forest-dependent communities.

• Scientific Forestry: Natural, diverse forests were cleared and replaced with single-species plantations (like teak or sal), to maximise commercial timber output. This reduced biodiversity and changed the forest landscape

• Forced Labour and Exploitation: Forest communities were exploited through systems like begar (unpaid labour) in Bastar and the blandongdiensten system in Java, where locals had to provide free labour in exchange for access to land or minor wages.

• Rebellions and Resistance: The oppressive forest policies led to uprisings. In Bastar, the people revolted in 1910 against forced labour and displacement. Similarly, in Java, the Kalangs resisted Dutch control in the 18th century and Saminists later protested against unjust laws.

3. Between 1880 and 1920, forest cover in the Indian subcontinent declined by 9.7 million hectares, from 108.6 million hectares to 98.9 million hectares. Discuss the role of the following factors in this decline:

Ans. Railways:

• The expansion of the railway network between 1850 and 1900 increased the demand for timber.

• Timber was required for laying tracks, building stations, and constructing bridges.

• Railways also required large amounts of fuel (firewood) for steam engines.

• Forests in regions like the Western Ghats, Bengal, and Assam were heavily exploited for timber.

• Expansion of railways led to the conversion of forested areas into infrastructure.

Shipbuilding:

• The British navy and merchant fleet needed vast quantities of timber for constructing warships and commercial ships.

• Timber from Indian forests, especially hardwoods like teak and sal, was used extensively.

• Coastal regions like Bengal, Kerala, and Orissa were heavily affected by timber demand for shipbuilding.

• British policies prioritized sourcing timber from colonies, leading to over-exploitation of forests.

Agricultural Expansion:

• Growing demand for food and raw materials led to the clearing of forests for cultivation.

• Population growth increased the need for agricultural land, putting pressure on forest resources.

• British policies encouraged agricultural expansion for both local consumption and export.

• New areas were opened up for cultivation, contributing to deforestation in frontier areas.

Commercial Farming:

• The British promoted the cultivation of cash crops (such as indigo, cotton, and jute) for export.

• These crops required vast amounts of land, often leading to the clearing of forests.

• The economic incentive for cash crop production encouraged deforestation, particularly in agricultural frontiers.

• Forests were converted into farmland to meet the demands of global markets.

Tea/Coffee Plantations:

• The establishment of tea and coffee plantations in regions like Assam, Darjeeling, and Kerala required large areas of land, leading to deforestation.

• Plantations were set up by the British, who sought to produce tea and coffee for export.

• This led to the clearing of forests for monoculture crops, replacing natural ecosystems with cash crop plantations.

• The demand for tea and coffee in international markets drove plantation expansion, contributing to forest loss.

Adivasis and Other Peasant Users:

• Adivasis and rural communities relied on forests for fuel, fodder, timber, and other resources.

• Traditional forest use by Adivasis was sustainable and non-destructive.

• Colonial policies, such as the Forest Act (1865) and Forest Conservation Act (1878), restricted local access to forest resources.

• These restrictions disrupted traditional practices, and as a result, communities were forced to clear land for agriculture.

• The growing population also led to more forest areas being cleared for farming and grazing.

4. Why are forests affected by wars?

Ans. Destruction for Military Use:

• Forests are cleared for building military camps, roads, and other infrastructure.

• Timber is used for constructing bunkers, shelters, and for firewood.

Intentional Forest Fires:

• During wars, forests may be set on fire deliberately to damage enemy resources or stop their movement.

Overuse of Resources:

• Soldiers and displaced people often cut trees for firewood, shelter, and food, leading to excessive exploitation.

Disruption of Forest Management:

• War disrupts conservation efforts and prevents proper forest management, making forests vulnerable to over-exploitation.

Loss of Biodiversity:

• Destruction of forests during wars harms wildlife habitats, leading to a loss of biodiversity.

Practice Questions

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. What was one of the primary reasons the Dutch introduced forest laws in Java?

(a) To restrict villagers’ access and regulate timber use

(b) To convert forests into urban areas

(d) To enhance agricultural production

2. How did the Japanese occupation during World War II impact the forests of Java?

(a) They implemented conservation efforts to protect forests.

(b) They ceased all forest operations to focus on agriculture.

(d) They established numerous forest reserves.

3. Which system did the Dutch employ to gain free labour for timber extraction in Java?

(a) Blandongdiensten system

(b) Vernacular Labor system

(d) Kalang Labor system

4. What was the main argument Surontiko Samin presented against the state ownership of forests?

(a) Forests should be conserved for religious purposes.

(b) The state should tax the use of forest resources.

(d) Forests should be used for commercial agriculture.

5. Which development has been significant in forestry across Asia and Africa since the 1980s?

(a) Expansion of industrial plantation systems

(b) Continued reliance on colonial forestry practices

(d) Increased focus on community involvement and conservation

6. What was a significant impact of the expansion of railways on India’s forests during the colonial period?

(a) Preservation of local flora

(b) Massive deforestation due to demand for timber

(d) Increased biodiversity

7. Which factor was most significant in the forest dwellers’ resistance against British colonial rule in Bastar?

(a) Establishment of local education centres

(b) Restriction of traditional rights and practices

(d) Introduction of new forest species

8. What was a primary strategy employed by the tribes in the Bastar rebellion against the British?

(a) Establishing diplomatic negotiations

(b) Constructing fortified villages

(d) Using local symbols to communicate and mobilize

9. Why did the British consider shifting cultivation a problem for forest management in India?

(a) It disrupted the local wildlife habitat.

(b) It posed a fire hazard and didn’t align with timber production goals.

(d) It was economically lucrative.

10. How did the colonial government’s policies exacerbate tensions leading to the Bastar Rebellion?

(a) By reducing taxes on local populations

(b) By establishing educational facilities

(d) By imposing severe restrictions on forest use and high land rents

11. Which statement best reflects the impact of forest laws introduced by the British on the indigenous communities in Bastar?

(a) They boosted local trade and commerce in forest products.

(b) They led to severe disruption of traditional livelihoods and practices.

(d) They were embraced as they introduced new agricultural techniques.

12. What was a significant reason for the colonial government in India to encourage the expansion of cultivation by clearing forests?

(a) To conserve indigenous plant species

(b) To generate revenue by promoting commercial crops

(d) To ensure a steady supply of timber for the Navy

13. Why did the demand for sleepers for railway tracks lead to deforestation in India?

(a) Railway tracks were constructed through deserts.

(b) Each mile of railway required thousands of sleepers, leading to massive tree felling.

(d) Sleepers served as fuel for railway engines.

14. Which factor was primarily responsible for the clearance of natural forests in colonial India for plantations?

(a) Need for creating urban housing

(b) Traditional medicinal plant conservation

(d) Efforts to maintain biodiversity

15. How did the expansion of railways contribute to deforestation in India during colonial times?

(a) The public was encouraged to use railway tracks for agriculture.

(b) Railway lines diverted rivers, affecting growth in nearby forests.

(d) Railway workers used forest wood for building stations.

16. What was one direct impact of plantations on indigenous communities in India during the colonial period?

(a) Integration into forestry management roles

(b) Increase in biodiversity and preservation of local species

(d) Better employment opportunities in plantations

17. Which of the following practices was introduced to manage forests scientifically during colonial India, often resulting in monocultures?

(a) Shifting cultivation

(b) Agroforestry

(d) Mixed forest management

18. What was the primary reason behind the British colonial government’s establishment of the Indian Forest Service in 1864?

(a) To create employment opportunities for local communities

(b) To expand the railway network in India

(d) To promote the cultivation of cash crops

19. Why did the implementation of ‘scientific forestry’ prove controversial among local communities living in forests?

(a) It required local communities to plant non-native species exclusively for timber production.

(b) It improved the biodiversity of forest areas by introducing mixed-species plantations.

(d) It reduced the regulatory burden on local cultivators.

20. How did the British forest policies impact traditional hunting practices in the colonially controlled forests of India?

(a) Hunting rights were restricted, and hunting was often criminalized for local inhabitants.

(b) Local hunters were given licenses to hunt endangered species.

(d) The British implemented hunting incentives for local communities.

21. Which of the following was a direct consequence of the British introduction of forest rules on shifting cultivation?

(a) European settlers were invited to practice shifting cultivation instead.

(b) Forest-dwelling communities were often displaced and faced restrictions.

(d) It led to the complete ban of all forest-based activities.

22. How did the new trades initiated by the British, such as the timber trade, affect the lives of the forest-dependent communities?

(a) They secured ancestral lands for enhanced community development.

(b) They created abundant employment opportunities improving the living conditions of these communities.

(d) They introduced stable market prices for all forest goods.

23. What role did the establishment of tea, coffee, and rubber plantations play in the employment landscape during the colonial period?

(a) They generated prosperous economic conditions for all workers.

(b) They provided low-wage employment and were marked by harsh working conditions.

(d) They eliminated the demand for British goods in the colony.

24. Match the forest communities with their regions or characteristics:

Column I

Column II

A. Baiga i. Central India; practised hunting and gathering

B. Santhal ii. Eastern India; displaced by colonial settlements

C. Korava iii. Tamil Nadu; skilled in forest produce collection

D. Jhum Cultivators

iv. North-East India; expert in shifting cultivation

(a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

(b) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

(d) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

25. Match the colonial forest policies/events with their impacts or features:

Column I

A. Forest Act of 1865

Column II

i. Gave British control over forests without classification

B. Forest Act of 1878 ii. Divided forests into Reserved, Protected, and Village forests

C. Scientific Forestry iii. Promoted single-species plantations like teak

D. Bastar Rebellion (1910)

iv. Protest by Adivasis against forest restrictions

(a) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv

(b) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

(d) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

26. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: Cultivation expanded rapidly under colonial rule to increase agricultural revenue.

Statement II: Railways used wooden sleepers extensively, creating a demand for timber.

Statement III: Plantations were established to supply Europe with commodities like tea and coffee.

Statement IV: Colonial policies focused on regrowing native forests to replace cleared areas.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and III are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

27. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: Commercial forestry replaced diverse forests with monoculture.

Statement II: The British government allowed shifting cultivation without restrictions.

Statement III: Railways increased the demand for timber during colonial times.

Statement IV: Villagers had access to all forest areas under colonial rule.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and III are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion (A): The Dutch introduced the blandongdiensten system to control timber production.

Reason (R): This system exempted local villages from paying rent if they provided free labor and buffaloes for timber extraction.

2. Assertion (A): The colonial period witnessed the rapid expansion of agricultural land in India.

Reason (R): Forests were considered unproductive by the colonial state.

3. Assertion (A): The Bastar Rebellion resulted in a temporary halt in forest reservation plans by the British.

Reason (R): The British used harsh punitive measures, including military action, to regain control.

4. Assertion (A): Sleepers were necessary for the expansion of railways in colonial India.

Reason (R): Each mile of railway track required a substantial number of sleepers made from cutting trees, contributing to large-scale deforestation.

5. Assertion (A): The British classified some Indian tribal communities as ‘criminal tribes’.

Reason (R): The British needed a regular supply of skilled hunters for the global fur trade.

Picture Based Questions

1. Observe the advertisement of Pleasure Brand Tea given below. What does this image reveal about British colonial trade during the 19th century?

(a) The British promoted Indian tea mainly for local Indian consumption.

(b) Tea was a luxury product only for the aristocracy in Britain.

(d) Tea was cultivated and consumed only in the colonies, not in Britain.

2. The following image shows the Imperial Forest School established by the British in Dehra Dun. What was the primary objective of this institution?

(a) To train Indian forest communities in traditional agricultural techniques

(b) To educate colonial officials in modern language

(d) To train forest officials in ‘scientific forestry’ for managing forest resources

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30-40 words)

1. Which forest management practice was introduced by the Dutch in Java to control forest use?

2. Name the community renowned for their expertise in forest cutting in Java.

3. What was the main goal of new forestry developments in Asia and Africa post-1980s?

4. Identify one impact of the forest policies during the World Wars on the forests of Java.

5. List two contributions of forests to human life during the colonial period.

6. How did the British colonialists justify deforestation during their rule?

7. Why was there a demand for Indian timber during the British colonial period?

8. Identify one key leader involved in the Santhal Rebellion and their contribution.

9. What was the ‘devsari’ practice observed in tribal communities like those in Bastar?

10. State the primary grievance of the Bastar tribes against the British forest policies.

11. Mention a strategy used by tribal leaders to resist British forest laws in Bastar.

12. What was a major reason for clearing forests in India during British rule?

13. What are sleepers in the context of railway construction?

14. Name a commercial crop that led to deforestation in India during the colonial period.

15. How did the expansion of plantations affect the forest cover in India?

16. What was one ecological consequence of the large-scale timber extraction during the colonial period in India?

17. Name the system introduced to ensure sustainable timber production in British India.

18. What was the primary use of the Indian oak timber exported by the British during the colonial period?

19. Identify one major restriction imposed by the British forest laws on local communities.

20. State one reason why the British encouraged the establishment of plantations in India.

21. Which tribal community first initiated the rebellion in the Kanger forest area in 1910?

Short Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. What role did the Kalangs of Java play in the forest economy of the region, and how did they resist Dutch control?

2. Explain how the blandongdiensten system operated and its impacts on local communities in Java.

3. Discuss the significance of the Saminist movement in resisting colonial forestry laws.

4. Explain how the Bastar Rebellion of 1910 can be regarded as a significant event in the context of tribal revolts in India.

5. Discuss the role of indigenous symbols and rituals in mobilizing support during the Bastar Rebellion.

6. Explain how the colonial perception of forests as unproductive led to their conversion into agricultural land. What were the consequences of this transition for the Indian environment and economy?

7. Describe the role of timber from Indian forests in supporting British naval and railway infrastructure. How did this contribute to deforestation during the colonial period?

8. Discuss the impact of commercial plantations on indigenous economies and cultures in colonial India. In what ways did these plantations alter traditional ways of living for tribal communities?

9. Critically evaluate the statement: “The introduction of railways in India, while a means of economic development, had irreversible effects on the country’s forests.” Provide supporting arguments.

10. Explain the idea of Scientific Forestry. How did it impact the traditional uses of forests by indigenous communities?

11. Discuss how the new British forest regulations affected the settled cultivation practices in forest areas.

12. How did the new trades introduced by the British, such as timber and plantation crops, impact the economic structure and livelihoods of traditional forest communities in India? Analyse both the immediate and long-term effects on their access to forest resources and socio-economic status.

Long Answer Questions (100-120 words)

1. Compare the forest management policies of the British in India and the Dutch in Java. How did both colonial powers justify their control over forests, and what was the impact on local communities?

2. Explain how forest laws during the colonial period affected different sections of Indian society, including shifting cultivators, hunters, pastoralists, and women. Give suitable examples.

3. Describe the causes, course, and consequences of the Bastar Rebellion of 1910. In what ways did this rebellion reflect the anger of tribal communities towards British forest policies?

4. How did the introduction of plantations transform forest landscapes in India? What were the consequences for the environment and tribal livelihoods?

5. Discuss the economic and ecological impact of railway expansion on Indian forests during British rule. Why did railways become a major cause of deforestation?

6. What was the concept of ‘Scientific Forestry’? How did it differ from traditional forest usage, and what were its long-term effects on forest biodiversity and local economies?

7. “Colonial forest policies were driven more by economic gain than ecological concern.” Do you agree with this statement? Justify your answer with historical evidence.

8. Evaluate how wars in the 20th century (World War I and II) affected forest conservation and management in both India and Java. How did local people respond to these changes?

9. What role did forest produce and local knowledge play in the lives of forest-dwelling communities? How did colonial control alter their relationship with the forest?

10. Examine the consequences of the criminalisation of forest-based practices such as shifting cultivation and hunting under British rule. What alternatives did the local communities seek or create in response?

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

The absence of cultivation in a place does not mean the land was uninhabited. In Australia, when the white settlers landed, they claimed that the continent was empty or terra nullius. In fact, they were guided through the landscape by aboriginal tracks, and led by aboriginal guides. The different aboriginal communities in Australia had clearly demarcated territories. The Ngarrindjeri people of Australia plotted their land along the symbolic body of the first ancestor, Ngurunderi. This land included five different environments: salt water, riverine tracts, lakes, bush and desert plains, which satisfied different socio-economic needs.

(a) What did white settlers in Australia claim when they first landed on the continent?

(b) What did the Ngarrindjeri people of Australia use as a reference to plot their land?

(c) How did the different Aboriginal communities in Australia utilize their land, and what socio-economic needs did the five environments of the Ngarrindjeri people’s land fulfill?

2. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

Dirk van Hogendorp, an official of the United East India Company in colonial Java said: ‘Batavians! Be amazed! Hear with wonder what I have to communicate. Our fleets are destroyed, our trade languishes, our navigation is going to ruin – we purchase with immense treasures, timber and other materials for ship-building from the northern powers, and on Java we leave warlike and mercantile squadrons with their roots in the ground. Yes, the forests of Java have timber enough to build a respectable navy in a short time, besides as many merchant ships as we require … In spite of all (the cutting) the forests of Java grow as fast as they are cut, and would be inexhaustible under good care and management.’

(a) What does Dirk van Hogendorp suggest about the forests of Java in his statement?

(b) According to Dirk van Hogendorp, what materials were being purchased for ship-building?

(c) How does Dirk van Hogendorp describe the state of Java’s fleet, trade, and navigation, and what solution does he propose regarding the island’s forests?

Answers

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. (a) To restrict villagers’ access and regulate timber use

2. (c) They recklessly exploited forest resources for war needs.

3. (a) Blandongdiensten system

4. (c) The state could not own natural elements like wind, water, and wood.

5. (d) Increased focus on community involvement and conservation

6. (b) Massive deforestation due to demand for timber

7. (b) Restriction of traditional rights and practices

8. (d) Using local symbols to communicate and mobilize

9. (b) It posed a fire hazard and didn’t align with timber production goals.

10. (d) By imposing severe restrictions on forest use and high land rents

11. (b) They led to severe disruption of traditional livelihoods and practices.

12. (b) To generate revenue by promoting commercial crops

13. (b) Each mile of railway required thousands of sleepers, leading to massive tree felling.

14. (c) Europe’s growing demand for tea, coffee, and rubber

15. (c) It was used as a transportation method for exporting timber.

16. (c) Displacement and loss of access to forest resources

17. (c) Commercial plantations

18. (c) To ensure sustainable forestry practices and regulate timber production

19. (a) It required local communities to plant non-native species exclusively for timber production.

20. (a) Hunting rights were restricted, and hunting was often criminalized for local inhabitants.

21. (b) Forest-dwelling communities were often displaced and faced restrictions.

22. (c) They disrupted traditional economies and led to the marginalization of these communities.

23. (b) They provided low-wage employment and were marked by harsh working conditions.

24. (a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

25. (a) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv

26. (b) Statements I, II, and III are appropriate.

27. (d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

1. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

2. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

3. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

4. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

5. (c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

Picture Based Questions

1. (c) The image highlights how British companies marketed tea as a daily necessity and a symbol of joy.

2. (d) To train forest officials in ‘scientific forestry’ for managing forest resources

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30-40 words)

1. Dutch forest management practice:

• The Dutch implemented the Blandongdiensten system in Java to control timber production.

• This system allowed villages to provide free labor and buffaloes in exchange for exemption from land rent, ensuring a steady supply of timber for colonial needs.

2. Community renowned for forest cutting:

• The Korava community in Java was well-known for their expertise in timber cutting.

• They played a vital role in the timber industry, cutting and processing large quantities of wood for colonial exploitation.

3. Goal of forestry developments post-1980s:

• Post-1980s, the primary focus shifted towards conservation and involving local communities in sustainable forest management.

• Efforts aimed to replace colonial-era practices with more environmentally conscious approaches to forest preservation.

4. Impact of forest policies during World Wars on Java:

• During the World Wars, forest resources in Java were recklessly exploited to support the military.

• Timber was in high demand for building ships, weapons, and infrastructure, leading to accelerated deforestation during this period.

5. Two contributions of forests during the colonial period:

• Forests provided timber for infrastructure, including railways and shipbuilding.

• Forests also supplied fuelwood, essential for energy production and daily life during colonial times.

6. British justification for deforestation:

• The British justified deforestation for economic progress—clearing land for agriculture, expanding railway networks, and constructing other colonial infrastructure.

• They believed these activities were essential for the colonial economy and maintaining control over the region.

7. Demand for Indian timber during British colonial period:

• The British demanded Indian timber for railway construction and shipbuilding to maintain their colonial infrastructure and military power.

• Timber was crucial for building transport networks and naval fleets.

8. Key leader in the Santhal Rebellion:

• Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu were the main leaders of the Santhal Rebellion.

• They led the Santhal tribe in a struggle against British exploitation, particularly opposing unfair forest policies and economic oppression.

9. Devsari’ practice in Bastar:

• The ‘devsari’ practice refers to a sacred approach to forest management among tribal communities in Bastar.

• It involves preserving specific forest areas for spiritual and subsistence purposes, ensuring that forests are treated with respect and care.

10. Grievance of Bastar tribes against British forest policies:

• The primary grievance was the restriction of traditional rights of access to forests.

• The British imposed regulations that limited the tribes’ ability to use forest resources for sustenance, such as firewood and medicinal plants.

11. Tribal leaders’ strategy against British forest laws in Bastar:

• Tribal leaders used local symbols and rituals to communicate resistance and unite communities against the British.

• They mobilized the population to oppose the imposition of forest laws and reclaim their traditional rights.

12. Reason for clearing forests in India during British rule:

• Forests were cleared primarily to expand agricultural land, especially for commercial crops like tea, coffee, and indigo.

• This was driven by the need to generate revenue and supply goods for the British market.

13. Sleepers in railway construction:

• Sleepers are wooden beams placed beneath railway tracks.

• The demand for sleepers, which were made from trees, contributed to large-scale deforestation in India during the construction of railways.

14. Commercial crop leading to deforestation:

• Tea and coffee plantations were major contributors to deforestation in colonial India.

• These crops required large tracts of land, leading to the clearance of forests to make room for plantations.

15. Effect of plantation expansion on forest cover in India:

• The expansion of plantations for crops like tea, coffee, and rubber led to widespread deforestation.

• Forests were cleared to create space for monoculture crops, reducing biodiversity and disrupting local ecosystems.

16. Ecological consequence of large-scale timber extraction in colonial India:

• The large-scale extraction of timber for colonial purposes led to soil erosion and the loss of biodiversity.

• The destruction of forests disturbed natural habitats and made the land more vulnerable to environmental degradation.

17. System for sustainable timber production in British India:

• The Indian Forest Act of 1865 was introduced to regulate timber production and ensure sustainable extraction.

• It aimed to manage forests scientifically, but often prioritized colonial economic interests over environmental conservation.

18. Primary use of Indian oak timber exported by the British:

• Indian oak timber was primarily used for constructing railway tracks and ships.

• Its strength and durability made it ideal for building crucial infrastructure for the British colonial economy.

19. Major restriction imposed by British forest laws on local communities:

• One of the major restrictions was the denial of access to forests for local communities.

• Forest-dwelling people could no longer collect firewood, timber, or forest products for personal or communal use.

20. Reason for British encouragement of plantations in India:

• The British encouraged plantations to generate revenue from valuable commercial crops like tea, coffee, and rubber.

• These crops were in high demand in Europe, and their cultivation became a major economic activity.

21. Tribal community that initiated the Kanger forest rebellion:

• The Gond tribal community in the Kanger forest area initiated the rebellion in 1910.

• They rose up against British forest restrictions and fought to reclaim their traditional rights and lands.

Short Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. Role of the Kalangs of Java in Forest Economy and Resistance to Dutch Control:

• Kalangs were expert forest workers, skilled in clearing and managing forests for timber production.

• They resisted Dutch control by demanding better working conditions and higher wages.

• They employed sabotage, such as cutting trees or disrupting supply lines, to challenge Dutch exploitation of forest resources.

2. Blandongdiensten system and its impact:

• The system required local communities to supply free labor, buffaloes, and timber for the Dutch without compensation.

• It exploited indigenous labor and forest resources, undermining local economies and autonomy.

• Local people faced harsh conditions and were forced into labor for colonial interests, eroding traditional social structures.

3. Significance of the Saminist Movement in Resisting Colonial Forestry Laws:

• The Saminist movement, led by Samin Surosentiko, rejected Dutch forest laws, particularly the state’s control over forest resources.

• It emphasized spiritual beliefs, arguing that forests and natural resources were gifts from God, not for state ownership.

• The movement mobilized rural Javanese communities, challenging colonial policies through passive resistance and civil disobedience.

4. Significance of the Bastar Rebellion of 1910:

• The Bastar Rebellion was a tribal revolt against the British forest policies and the loss of traditional forest rights.

• It was significant because it marked one of the first large-scale tribal uprisings against colonial forest laws.

• The rebellion highlighted the exploitation of indigenous communities and their resistance to British economic interests.

5. Role of Indigenous Symbols and Rituals in Mobilizing Support during the Bastar Rebellion:

• Indigenous symbols, such as the worship of local deities and use of traditional tribal rituals, united the tribal communities against the British.

• These rituals were used to build solidarity and strengthen resolve.

• Tribal leaders invoked cultural heritage to legitimize resistance and unite the people against forest laws and external control.

6. Colonial Perception of Forests and Agricultural Land Conversion:

• The British viewed forests as “unproductive” and suitable for conversion into agricultural land to increase revenue.

• The shift to agriculture led to large-scale deforestation, disrupting ecosystems and traditional livelihoods.

• It also caused the loss of biodiversity and soil degradation, impacting the environment and local economies long-term.

7. Role of Timber in British Naval and Railway Infrastructure and Deforestation:

• Timber from Indian forests was critical for constructing British naval ships and railway tracks.

• The demand for timber, especially for railway sleepers and shipbuilding, led to massive deforestation.

• It depleted valuable forest resources, making forests unsustainable and causing long-term ecological damage to India’s environment.

8. Impact of Commercial Plantations on Indigenous Economies and Cultures:

• Commercial plantations of crops like tea, coffee, and rubber disrupted local tribal economies.

• Tribes lost access to traditional forest resources, such as timber, medicinal plants, and wild food sources.

• These plantations imposed new labor systems, marginalized indigenous practices, and led to economic exploitation and displacement.

9. Impact of Railways on Forests in Colonial India:

• Railways were crucial for economic development but had a detrimental effect on forests due to timber demand for tracks and stations.

• Large-scale deforestation occurred to supply wood for sleepers, disrupting ecosystems.

• The environmental damage was irreversible, with significant loss of forest cover and biodiversity, which had long-term ecological consequences.

10. Scientific Forestry and Its Impact on Indigenous Forest Use:

• Scientific forestry introduced by the British focused on managing forests for commercial timber production, primarily monoculture.

• Indigenous practices of community-based, sustainable use of forests were disregarded.

• It led to the displacement of tribal communities and the loss of traditional rights to access forest resources, altering their way of life.

11. Impact of British Forest Regulations on Settled Cultivation:

• British regulations restricted forest-dwelling communities’ access to land and forest resources.

• Settled cultivation, which involved the use of forest areas for subsistence farming, was severely impacted.

• Local farmers and communities lost their traditional right to cultivate forest land, which led to economic hardship and social unrest.

12. Impact of British Timber and Plantation Crops on Forest Communities:

• The introduction of timber extraction and plantation crops like tea and rubber significantly altered the local economy.

• Immediate impacts included the loss of access to forest resources, forced labor, and economic marginalization.

• Long-term effects involved displacement, loss of traditional livelihoods, and increased poverty among forest-dependent communities.

Long Answer Questions (100-120

words)

1. Forest Management Policies of the British in India vs. Dutch in Java:

• The British implemented scientific forestry, focusing on timber extraction, especially for railway construction, shipbuilding, and other industries.

• Forests were categorized as reserved or protected, limiting local access to resources like fuelwood, fodder, and medicinal plants.

• Justification: They argued that scientific forestry was necessary for sustainable management of forests for economic gain.

• Impact on Locals: This policy displaced indigenous communities and restricted their access to essential resources, forcing many into poverty and dependence on colonial industries.

• The Dutch transformed forests into plantations for cash crops like coffee, sugar, and rubber, following a similar economic strategy.

• Justification: They claimed that their control was based on the need to increase agricultural productivity for European markets.

• Impact on Locals: The indigenous people were forced into labor on plantations, losing control over their lands and livelihoods, similar to the situation in India.

2. Forest Laws and Indian Society:

• Shifting cultivation, practiced by many tribal groups, involved clearing forest land for agriculture.

• Forest laws prohibited this practice, forcing these communities into poverty as they lost their land.

• The Forest Act of 1878 criminalized their traditional practices, leading to economic instability and displacement.

• Hunting, a vital source of food and trade for many tribes, was criminalized under colonial forest policies.

• This caused the disruption of tribal economies and the loss of food security, pushing many tribes into debt or migration.

• Forest laws restricted grazing rights, affecting pastoralists who depended on forests for their livestock.

• This led to conflicts and increased pressure on pastoral communities to find alternative grazing grounds.

• Women, responsible for gathering firewood, medicinal plants, and water, faced hardships as access to forests became restricted.

• These restrictions made their daily tasks more difficult, reducing their role in community well-being.

3. Bastar Rebellion (1910):

• The Bastar Rebellion was a response to the imposition of colonial forest laws that restricted the tribal people’s access to forests.

• The British Forest Act (1878) prohibited traditional practices like shifting cultivation and gathering forest produce, which were vital to tribal survival.

• The rebellion was led by tribal leaders and supported by common villagers who resisted the oppressive forest policies.

• Tribals refused to comply with restrictions on grazing, collection of firewood, and agricultural practices.

• The British crushed the rebellion with military force, leading to several arrests, killings, and increased repression in tribal areas.

• Despite the suppression, the rebellion highlighted the deep resentment towards colonial forest policies.

• The Bastar Rebellion exemplified tribal resistance against colonial policies that denied them their traditional rights over forest resources.

• The uprising symbolized the broader struggle of indigenous communities against colonial exploitation.

4. Introduction of Plantations and Forest Landscapes in India:

• The establishment of plantations (e.g., tea, coffee, rubber) led to large-scale deforestation as vast areas of forests were cleared.

• Monoculture plantations replaced rich, biodiverse forests with single-crop ecosystems, reducing ecological balance.

• The clearing of forests for plantations caused soil erosion, loss of habitat for wildlife, and disturbance of natural water cycles.

• The loss of forest cover led to environmental degradation, particularly in hilly areas.

• Tribes dependent on forests for hunting, gathering, and agriculture were displaced by plantation activities.

• Many tribal people were forced to work in plantations under poor conditions, stripping them of their traditional sources of income and autonomy.

5. Economic and Ecological Impact of Railways on Indian Forests:

• The expansion of the railway network required massive quantities of timber for building tracks, bridges, and stations.

• This led to widespread deforestation, as forests were cleared to meet the needs of the railway industry.

• Railways were a crucial part of the colonial economy, facilitating resource extraction, agricultural export, and military mobility.

• Timber extraction contributed to the growth of the colonial economy, but at the expense of India’s natural resources.

• Railways became a major cause of deforestation as vast stretches of forests were cleared to facilitate construction.

• The environmental consequences included soil degradation, loss of biodiversity, and disruption of local ecosystems.

• The British prioritization of railway expansion led to severe depletion of forest resources across India, harming both the environment and local communities.

6. Scientific Forestry and Its Effects:

• Scientific forestry was introduced by the British to manage forests for commercial profit, primarily timber production.

• Focused on planting fast-growing, valuable species like sal and teak in large, uniform plantations.

• Traditional forest use was community-oriented, sustainable, and based on local needs for food, fuel, and materials.

• Scientific forestry prioritized maximizing timber production over ecological balance, disregarding the needs of local populations.

• The push for monoculture led to loss of biodiversity, as diverse ecosystems were replaced by single-species plantations.

• The ecological balance of forests was disrupted, leading to soil erosion, water scarcity, and greater vulnerability to pests.

• Traditional forest knowledge was devalued, and communities lost access to essential forest resources.

7. Colonial Forest Policies: Economic Gain vs. Ecological Concern

• Colonial forest policies were designed to exploit forests for economic profit, especially for industries like railways, shipbuilding, and plantations.

• British policies prioritized timber extraction and resource export over forest sustainability.

• There was little concern for the long-term ecological health of forests.

• The introduction of scientific forestry ignored traditional knowledge and focused solely on maximizing economic returns, leading to deforestation and habitat loss.

• The Forest Act of 1878 and the emphasis on commercial timber production demonstrate the prioritization of economic gain.

• Local resistance, such as the Bastar Rebellion, highlights the negative impact on indigenous populations and their traditional forest-based livelihoods.

8. Impact of World Wars on Forest Management:

• World War I and II led to a higher demand for timber, rubber, and other forest products to support military efforts.

• Both India and Java saw intensified forest exploitation to meet wartime needs.

• Communities in both regions faced further restrictions on forest access as the British and Dutch prioritized the war effort over local needs.

• Deforestation increased, and local people suffered as their traditional forest-based livelihoods were disrupted.

• In both regions, communities protested against these increased controls, but colonial authorities continued to exploit the forests for economic gain.

• The increased demand for forest resources exacerbated environmental degradation, contributing to deforestation and the depletion of forest resources.

9. Role of Forest Produce and Local Knowledge:

• Forest produce like fuelwood, medicinal plants, and food resources was essential for local communities’ survival.

• Indigenous knowledge of sustainable forest management allowed for balanced resource usage and preservation of ecosystems.

• British forest laws severely limited access to these resources, criminalizing practices like shifting cultivation and hunting.

• Local knowledge of the forest was disregarded in favor of economic exploitation by colonial powers.

• Colonial control turned forests into resources to be exploited for profit, rather than shared spaces managed sustainably by local communities.

• This shift led to loss of autonomy for indigenous populations, as their traditional forest-based economies were suppressed.

10. Criminalisation of Forest Practices and Community Responses:

• The British criminalised traditional forest practices like shifting cultivation and hunting through forest laws.

• This disrupted local economies, as many tribes relied on these practices for food, fuel, and income.

• Tribes sought alternatives by migrating to urban areas for work or adapting to wage labor in colonial industries.

• Some tribes, like those in Bastar, actively resisted through uprisings, fighting for the restoration of their rights.

• The Bastar Rebellion of 1910 was a direct response to these forest laws, showcasing the anger and resilience of tribal communities.

• Alternative practices, like subsistence farming and protests, became common forms of resistance against colonial forest exploitation.

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1

(a) The white settlers claimed that the continent was terra nullius, meaning land that was empty and uninhabited. They believed it was vacant and not being utilized by any recognized civilization or people.

(b) The Ngarrindjeri people of Australia used the symbolic body of their first ancestor, Ngurunderi, as a reference to plot their land. This cultural mapping connected the land with spiritual and ancestral significance.

(c) • The different Aboriginal communities in Australia, including the Ngarrindjeri, had clearly demarcated territories based on environmental diversity.

• The five environments of the Ngarrindjeri people’s land: salt water, riverine tracts, lakes, bush, and desert plains fulfilled various socio-economic needs such as food, water, shelter, and materials for tools and cultural practices, supporting a balanced, sustainable lifestyle.

Passage 2

(a) Dirk van Hogendorp suggests that the forests of Java are rich in timber, capable of supporting large-scale ship-building and naval construction. He indicates that the forests are inexhaustible and can sustain such uses if managed properly.

(b) According to Dirk van Hogendorp, the materials being purchased for ship-building include timber and other materials necessary for constructing ships. These materials were being acquired from northern powers at great expense.

(c) • Dirk van Hogendorp describes the state of Java’s fleet, trade, and navigation as deteriorating, with fleets destroyed, trade languishing, and navigation in decline.

• He proposes that Java’s forests could serve as a solution by providing ample timber for building ships, suggesting that the forests could be carefully managed for sustainable use to support the island’s naval and mercantile needs.

SELF-ASSESSMENT

Time: 1 Hour

Section A

Scan me for all answers.

Max. Marks: 40

6. What did the Kalangs of Java use as a symbolic act of resistance?

(a) Refused taxes

(1 × 8 = 8 Marks)

Choose and write the correct answer for each of the following.

1. What was the primary reason for the British to establish Reserved Forests in India?

(a) To protect tribal rights

(b) To conserve the environment

(d) To promote biodiversity

2. Which community in Java was known for their protest against Dutch colonisers by performing ‘sami sadranan’?

(a) Kalangs

(b) Bugis

(d) Sundanese

3. The system where the forest was cut, burnt and cultivated for a few years is known as:

(a) Terrace farming

(b) Plantation farming

(d) Intensive farming

4. Dietrich Brandis was associated with:

(a) Dutch forestry in Java

(b) British forest management in India

(d) Tribal revolts

5. Which Act restricted the movement of villagers in forest areas?

(a) Forest Act, 1865

(b) Forest Act, 1878

(d) Indian Forest Act, 1927

(b) Performed shadow puppet plays

(d) Migrated to mountains

7. Which of the following was not a category of forest under the Indian Forest Act of 1878?

(a) Reserved forests

(b) Protected forests

(d) Village forests

8. In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Colonial authorities imposed bans on shifting cultivation.

Reason (R): They believed shifting cultivation destroyed valuable timber.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Section B

Answer the following questions.

9. Name the German expert who was appointed as the first Inspector General of Forests in India. What was his significant contribution? (2 Marks)

10. Explain the main features of ‘scientific forestry’ introduced by the British in India. (3 Marks)

11. Why was shifting cultivation considered harmful by the British? Give any three reasons. (3 Marks)

12. How did the Kalangs of Java resist Dutch colonisation? (3 Marks)

13. Describe the impact of forest laws on tribal communities in India. (3 Marks)

14. What role did the forest play in the lives of forest dwellers? (3 Marks)

15. Discuss the various ways in which colonial rule affected the lives of forest dwellers in India and Java. (5 Marks)

16. Explain the changes in forest management in India under British colonial rule. What were the consequences of these changes? (5 Marks)

17. Compare the forest management strategies of the British in India with those of the Dutch in Java. Highlight two similarities and three differences. (5 Marks)

5 Pastoralists in the Modern World

This chapter explores the lives of pastoralist communities in India and Africa who depended on livestock rearing and seasonal migration to sustain themselves. These groups, such as the Gujjar-Bakarwals of Jammu and Kashmir, the Gaddis of Himachal Pradesh, the Dhangars of Maharashtra, and the Maasai of Africa, moved from place to place in search of grazing pastures and water. They lived in harmony with nature, following traditional routes shaped by seasons. However, colonial rule brought immense disruption to their way of life. The British in India and the Dutch and British in Africa introduced forest laws, waste land rules, grazing taxes, and administrative boundaries that severely restricted the movement and access of pastoralists to natural resources. Many were displaced, criminalised under unjust laws, or forced to change occupations. Despite these challenges, pastoral communities showed resilience by adapting their livelihoods, reducing herd sizes, and finding new routes or professions to survive in the modern world.

Pastoralists in the Modern World

Pastoral Communities and Their Movement

Nomadic Pastoralists: Move seasonally for pasture and water

India:

• Mountains: GujjarBakarwals (J&K), Gaddis (Himachal), Bhotiyas, Sherpas, Kinnauris

• Plateaus/Deserts: Dhangars (Maharashtra), Raikas (Rajasthan), Gollas, Kurumas, Kurubas (South India), Banjaras (UP, Punjab, MP)

Africa:

• Maasai (Kenya, Tanzania), Bedouins, Berbers, Somali, Turkana, Kaokoland herders

Colonial Impact on Pastoralists

Loss of Grazing Lands:

• Waste Land Rules: Converted pasture into agriculture

• Forest Acts: Reserved/ Protected forests, restricted access

Control and Regulation:

• Permits needed for movement

• Criminal Tribes Act,1871

° labelled many pastoralists as criminals

Grazing Tax: Tax per head of cattle

Boundaries: Political borders limited traditional movement (e.g., Raikas post-1947)

Coping with Change

Reduced herd sizes

Sought alternative pastures and occupations

Some settled and became cultivators or traders

Others migrated seasonally (e.g., Raikasto Haryana)

Poorer groups became labourers

Case Study: Maasai of Africa

Movement restricted by colonial boundaries

Confined to reserves, impacted by drought and overgrazing

Social divisions changed: elders, warriors vs. colonial-appointed chiefs

Wealth gap widened: rich chiefs adapted; poor Maasai suffered

Key Terms and Definitions

Nomadic Pastoralists: They are groups who migrate with their livestock, following seasonal patterns to find pasture and water, reflecting a lifestyle dependent on livestock management and environmental cues.

Pastoralism: It is a form of agriculture focused on raising livestock, typically involving seasonal movement to access resources like grazing lands and water, essential for the survival of herding communities.

Shearing: Shearing is a practice of cutting the wool from sheep, integral to the economic stability of pastoral communities such as the Gaddis who depend on wool for income.

Bugyal: Bugyals are vast meadows found in high mountainous areas, serving as vital grazing grounds for numerous pastoral communities during the summer months.

Bahar: It refers to a dry forested area found below the foothills, common in certain regions of Northern India, offering limited grazing during dry seasons.

Grazing Tax: A type of tax instituted by colonial authorities that required pastoralists to pay for the number of livestock they owned. This tax burdened the pastoral community and was enforced to maximize state revenue from pastoral areas.

Royal Commission on Agriculture: This commission reported on the agricultural practices during the colonial period, revealing how increased cultivation had severely restricted grazing lands, which adversely affected the livelihoods of pastoral communities and their cattle.

Pastoral Movements: Pastoral movements refer to the traditional practices of migration among pastoralists for finding suitable grazing lands for their herds. This mobility is crucial for maintaining animal health and sustainable grazing practices.

Migration: It refers to the seasonal or opportunistic movement of pastoralist communities to find grazing pastures for their livestock, often influenced by environmental conditions and availability of resources. It is a key survival strategy enhancing their adaptability to changing landscapes.

Grazing Lands: Grazing lands refer to the extensive areas of land used by pastoralists such as the Maasai for the grazing of livestock. These lands are crucial for their way of life as they provide sustenance for their herds.

Game Reserves: They are designated protected areas established to conserve wildlife, where activities like hunting and grazing are restricted to preserve animal populations and habitats.

Drought: Drought is an extended period of deficient rainfall relative to the statistical multi-year average for a given region. In pastoral systems, drought can lead to severe food shortages and collapse of livestock populations.

Timeline

Start of British control; Waste Land Rules enacted 1865–1880 Forest Acts passed; movement in forests restricted

Mid-1800s

1885

Maasailand split by British-German boundary (Kenya-Tanzania) 1920s

Royal Commission highlights decline in grazing land in India 1947

Partition of India – Raikas lose access to Sindh grazing lands

Pre-1800s Traditional nomadic lifestyle; free access to grazing lands

1850s–1880s Grazing Tax introduced; rights auctioned to contractors 1871 Criminal Tribes Act – pastoral groups declared criminal

EARLY 1900s

Game reserves created (e.g., Serengeti), banning Maasai from grazing

1930–1934 Severe droughts; half the Maasai cattle die

Post-1947

Pastoralists adapt by reducing herds, changing routes, combining herding with farming/trading

NCERT Zone

Intext Questions

1. Read the following source and answer the question.

Source A

Writing in the 1850s, G.C. Barnes gave the following description of the Gujjars of Kangra: ‘In the hills the Gujjars are exclusively a pastoral tribe – they cultivate scarcely at all. The Gaddis keep flocks of sheep and goats and the Gujjars, wealth consists of buffaloes. These people live in the skirts of the forests, and maintain their existence exclusively by the sale of the milk, ghee, and other produce of their herds. The men graze the cattle, and frequently lie out for weeks in the woods tending their herds. The women repair to the markets every morning with baskets on their heads, with little earthen pots filled with milk, butter-milk and ghee, each of these pots containing the proportion required for a day’s meal. During the hot weather the Gujjars usually drive their herds to the upper range, where the buffaloes rejoice in the rich grass which the rains bring forth and at the same time attain condition from the temperate climate and the immunity from venomous flies that torment their existence in the plains.’

Source B

The accounts of many travellers tell us about the life of pastoral groups. In the early nineteenth century, Buchanan visited the Gollas during his travel through Mysore. He wrote: ‘Their families live in small villages near the skirt of the woods, where they cultivate a little ground, and keep some of their cattle, selling in the towns the produce of the dairy. Their families are very numerous, seven to eight young men in each being common. Two or three of these attend the flocks in the woods, while the remainder cultivate their fields, and supply the towns with firewood, and with straw for thatch.’

(a) Write briefly about what they tell you about the nature of the work undertaken by men and women in pastoral households.

Ans. Sources A and B highlight the division of labour and economic roles in pastoral households.

• In Source A, among the Gujjars of Kangra, men were primarily responsible for grazing cattle, often spending weeks in forests tending to the herds. Women played an equally crucial role by transporting and selling dairy products like milk, buttermilk, and ghee in local markets, using earthen pots for daily sales.

• In Source B, the Gollas of Mysore show a more mixed livelihood. While some men grazed flocks, others remained in the village to cultivate small plots and engage in trade of firewood and thatch. The work was distributed among young men in large families, indicating cooperative labour.

• Together, both sources show that pastoral households were economically active and gender-divided, with both men and women contributing significantly men to herding and cultivation, and women to marketing and household sustenance.

(b) Why do you think pastoral groups often live on the edges of forests?

Ans. Pastoral groups often live on the edges of forests because these areas offer a balanced environment that supports their livelihood and movement:

• Access to grazing land: Forest edges provide open scrublands and grasslands where animals like goats, sheep, and buffaloes can graze easily.

• Availability of forest resources: These zones offer firewood, leaves, medicinal herbs, and other materials needed for daily life.

• Shelter and shade: Forest fringes offer natural protection from harsh weather, especially in hot summers or monsoons.

• Mobility and flexibility: Living near the forest allows easy seasonal movement of herds between forest and open pastures.

• Fewer land ownership conflicts: Edges are often less cultivated, so pastoralists face less resistance from settled farmers.

2. Write a comment on the closure of the forests to grazing from the standpoint of: a forester a pastoralist

Ans. From the Standpoint of a Forester:

As a forester under colonial rule, I view the closure of forests to grazing as a necessary step to protect forest regeneration. Grazing animals trample saplings and eat young shoots, damaging the natural growth of valuable trees like sal and deodar. To maintain forests for timber production, which is a key resource for

revenue and industrial needs, it is essential to restrict access and implement scientific management. Forests must serve the larger economic interests of the state.

From the Standpoint of a Pastoralist:

As a pastoralist, the closure of forests is a grave injustice. These forests have always been part of our traditional grazing grounds. By banning entry and imposing permits and fines, the government is taking away our livelihood. Our cattle now suffer due to lack of fodder, and we are forced to migrate farther or reduce our herds. These restrictions disrespect our customs and threaten our very survival.

NCERT Exercises

1. Explain why nomadic tribes need to move from one place to another. What are the advantages to the environment of this continuous movement?

Ans. They move because of:

• Seasonal Changes: Pastoralists depend on natural pastures that change with seasons. In winters, high-altitude pastures are snowcovered and unusable, while in summers, lowland pastures may dry up. So, they move seasonally to find fresh grazing areas.

• Availability of Water and Grass: Movement helps find areas with better water supply and greener pastures, essential for the survival of their animals.

• Avoid Overgrazing: Staying in one place too long can lead to overgrazing and soil depletion. Movement prevents this by giving pastures time to regenerate.

Environmental Advantages:

• Prevents Land Degradation: By rotating grazing areas, soil erosion and desertification are reduced.

• Maintains Ecological Balance: Moving herds helps in the natural fertilisation of land through manure and allows plant life to recover.

• Promotes Biodiversity: Periodic movement avoids damage to flora and supports varied plant growth.

2. Discuss why the colonial government in India brought in the following laws. In each case, explain how the law changed the lives of pastoralists.

(a) Waste Land rules

(b) Forest Acts

(d) Grazing Tax

Ans. (a) Waste Land rules

• Purpose: The British considered uncultivated grazing lands as ‘waste’ and aimed to convert them into farms to increase land revenue.

• Impact: Lands used by pastoralists for generations were taken over and given to individuals for farming, reducing grazing space and forcing pastoralists to move or reduce their herds.

(b) Forest Acts

• Purpose: These acts aimed to preserve commercially valuable trees like sal and deodar, assuming grazing damaged forest growth.

• Impact: Forests were divided into Reserved (no access) and Protected (limited access) categories. Pastoralists had to take permits to graze, with restrictions on timing and number of animals, disrupting their traditional routes and reducing available pastures.

• Purpose: Nomadic communities were seen as a threat to law and order. The Act aimed to control their mobility and classify them as potential criminals.

• Impact: Entire communities like pastoralists and traders were labelled ‘criminal by birth’. They were forced to settle in notified villages, watched by police, and needed permits to travel— robbing them of freedom and dignity.

(d) Grazing Tax

• Purpose: To earn revenue from livestock rearing, the colonial state imposed tax per animal grazing on pastures.

• Impact: This increased the economic burden on pastoralists. The system was often corrupt, and tax collectors exploited herders. Many were forced to reduce their herds or take loans, increasing poverty.

3. Give reasons to explain why the Maasai community lost their grazing lands.

Ans.

• Colonial Division of Land (1885): Maasailand was split between British Kenya and German Tanganyika, reducing the land under their control.

• White Settler Expansion: Large tracts of fertile Maasai grazing land were taken for white farms and plantations.

• Game Reserves Creation: Areas like Serengeti National Park were declared wildlife reserves. Maasai were banned from grazing or hunting there, even though they traditionally used those lands.

• Encouragement of Farming: Colonisers promoted settled agriculture by African peasants, further shrinking grazing areas.

• Drought Impact: Restricted movement meant that during droughts, Maasai could not reach alternate pastures. This led to massive cattle deaths and severe economic losses.

4. There are many similarities in the way in which the modern world forced changes in the lives of pastoral communities in India and East Africa. Write about any two examples of changes which were similar for Indian pastoralists and the Maasai herders.

Ans. Floss of Grazing Lands

• In both India and East Africa, colonial governments viewed grazing land as ‘waste’ and converted it into cultivated farms, plantations, or game parks.

• In India, pastoralists lost land under the Waste Land Rules. In Maasailand, 60% of traditional grazing grounds were lost to settlers and reserves.

Restricted Mobility

• Indian pastoralists had to take permits to enter forests, and their movement was strictly controlled by the Forest Department.

• Maasai herders were confined to reserves. They couldn’t move beyond these zones without special passes, and violations led to punishment.

• In both regions, colonial boundaries and laws severely curtailed the nomadic lifestyle, making pastoral life difficult and unsustainable.

Practice Questions

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following mechanisms was put in place by the British to regulate the movement of pastoralists during colonial rule?

(a) Exclusive trading posts designated for barter only

(b) Grazing permits that allowed entry based on payment of a tax

(d) Military escorts to guide them through dangerous territories

2. How did the Forest Acts impact pastoralist communities in colonial India?

(a) Restricted access to forests, limiting grazing areas

(b) Allowed unrestricted grazing in all forests

(d) Granted additional forest lands for exclusive pastoral use

3. What was a common response by pastoralists to the increasing taxes and regulations imposed by colonial authorities?

(a) Many pastoralists reduced their herd sizes or changed livelihoods.

(b) They increased their herd sizes to cope with economic losses.

(d) Most moved to urban areas to engage in trade instead.

4. After the introduction of the Criminal Tribes Act, how did the colonial government enforce movement restrictions on nomadic communities?

(a) Through mandatory village councils that oversaw pastoral activities

(b) By building railways that facilitated easier settlement

(d) By issuing travel permits that severely restricted movement

5. What rationale did British officials use to justify the conversion of pastoral lands into agricultural lands?

(a) There was a cultural shift towards settled agriculture among nomads.

(b) Pastoral lands were rich in minerals and coveted by mining companies.

(d) The climate was unsuitable for pastoral activities but ideal for crops.

6. What was a long-term consequence of colonial forest laws on the pastoral economy?

(a) Development of high-tech pastures using colonial funding

(b) Further marginalization and impoverishment of pastoral communities

(d) Establishment of state-run monopolies on pastoral goods

7. Which of the following statements correctly describes the summer movements of the Gujjar Bakarwals in the mountains?

(a) They cultivate crops in the Bugyals.

(b) They stay in the low hills of the Siwalik range all year round.

(d) They move to higher pastures in the Kashmir valley for grazing.

8. How do the Dhangars of Maharashtra adapt to the changing seasons on the plateau?

(a) They move to the Northern Mountains during the monsoon season.

(b) They search for pastures in Rajasthan during winter.

(d) They migrate to Konkan for better pastures during the dry season.

9. What is the primary reason for the movement of pastoral groups from one grazing ground to another?

(a) To explore new territories without any environmental constraints

(b) To settle permanently in urban areas for economic prosperity

(d) To avoid seasonal climatic challenges and access fresh pastures

10. In what way did the forest laws impact the movement of pastoral groups in India?

(a) Improved trade relations with settled communities

(b) Increased government subsidies for pastoral activities

(d) Imposed severe restrictions, requiring permits for forest grazing

11. How did the colonial government in Africa affect the grazing lands of the Maasai community?

(a) They cut Maasailand in half, limiting grazing territories.

(b) They allowed unlimited grazing in national parks.

(d) They expanded the grazing lands available to the Maasai.

12. What were the consequences for the Maasai as the borders were closed and grazing lands reduced?

(a) Development of new technological farming methods

(b) Increased likelihood of famine among cattle

(d) Expansion of trade routes and markets

13. Which of the following describes a major impact of drying pastures on African pastoralists?

(a) Pastoralists could move freely without any environmental concerns.

(b) Pastoralists turned to other forms of income like trade.

(d) Pastoralists transitioned to full-time agriculture.

14. Which statement is true regarding the impact of unequal effects of colonial policies on Maasai society?

(a) All Maasai were equally affected by colonial changes.

(b) Only the male members of the Maasai were affected.

(d) Colonial policies benefited all pastoralists equally.

15. Match the following:

Column I –

Pastoral Community

Column II –Region

A. Gujjar Bakarwals i. Maharashtra

B. Dhangars ii. Jammu & Kashmir

C. Raikas iii. Rajasthan

D. Gaddis iv. Himachal Pradesh

(a) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv

(b) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii

(d) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

16. Match the colonial forest policies/events with their impacts or features:

Column I –

Colonial Law

Column II –Impact on Pastoralists

A. Waste Land Rules i. Declared them as criminal by birth

B. Forest Acts ii. Took over grazing land for agriculture

C. Criminal Tribes Act iii. Restricted access to forests and required permits

D. Grazing Tax iv. Increased economic burden for keeping animals

(a) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv

(b) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii

(d) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

17. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: Pastoralists faced new territorial boundaries under colonial rule.

Statement II: Grazing lands were converted to game reserves.

Statement III: Maasai society continued their pre-colonial lifestyle without interruptions.

Statement IV: Movement of pastoralists was restricted through permits.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and III are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

18. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: Bugyals are high-altitude meadows in the Himalayas.

Statement II: Gujjar Bakarwals move to low hills during the summer season.

Statement III: Raikas are pastoralists primarily located in Eastern India.

Statement IV: Pastoral nomads contribute to soil fertility in agricultural lands.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and III are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion (A): The Criminal Tribes Act led to the sedentarization of many nomadic communities.

Reason (R): This Act classified them as criminal by nature, compelling them to remain restricted to certain areas by law.

2. Assertion (A): The Gujjar Bakarwals have a seasonal lifestyle involving movement.

Reason (R): Their movement relies on finding the best pastures for their cattle and sheep.

3. Assertion (A): The Maasai faced a decline in their cattle stock due to the drying of pastures.

Reason (R): The colonial policies limited Maasai access to grazing lands, forcing them to rely on less nutritious and overcrowded pastures.

Picture Based Questions

1. Where is the settlement of the camel hrder in the image located?

(a) Punjab

(b) Rajasthan, near Jaisalmer

(d) Uttar Pradesh

2. Looking at the image of the Maasai land with open fields and sparse cultivation, what belief might the local people traditionally hold about using the land for farming?

(a) Farming improves the land for cattle grazing.

(b) Cultivation helps increase natural grass growth.

(d) The land must be fully used for crop production.

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30-40 words)

1. Define ‘Bugyal’.

2. What is the significance of ‘kafila’ in the lives of nomadic pastoralists?

3. Identify a key challenge faced by the Gaddi shepherds in Himachal Pradesh due to colonial restrictions.

4. List one reason why Gujjar Bakarwals migrated annually between different parts of Jammu and Kashmir.

5. State one method used by colonial authorities to enforce grazing taxes on pastoralists.

6. Why are Bugyals important for the Gujjar Bakarwals in the Himalayas?

7. Define ‘Kafila’ in the context of nomadic pastoralism.

8. What triggers the movement of Dhangar shepherds from Maharashtra’s plateau?

9. Mention one reason why Raikas in Rajasthan combine pastoralism with cultivation.

10. What were the Maasai prohibited from entering after colonial changes in Africa?

11. Identify one major colonial policy that restricted Maasai movement.

12. State one consequence of the reduced grazing lands for Maasai during the colonial era.

13. Name an alternative income source for the Maasai apart from cattle rearing.

Short Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. Describe the main reasons why the colonial government restricted the movement of pastoralists in the mid-19th century.

2. What strategies did pastoralists adopt to adapt to restrictions and declining pastures imposed during colonial rule? Provide examples.

3. Explain how the Wasteland Rules contributed to the decline of pastoral economies in colonial India.

4. Critically assess the impact of grazing taxes imposed by the British on Indian pastoralists’ livelihoods.

5. Discuss the role of seasonal changes in the movements of the Gaddi shepherds of Himachal Pradesh. What challenges might they face during these migrations?

6. Explain how the Banjaras’ lifestyle depicts adaptability within nomadic pastoralism. What economic activities do they engage in besides pastoralism?

7. Analyze the impact of Forest Acts on the pastoral communities of India. How did these laws affect their traditional grazing lands?

8. Explain the impact of the lost grazing lands on the pastoral communities of Africa.

9. Discuss how the Maasai adapted when pastures dried, often leading to periods of intense droughts.

10. Analyse the statement: “Not all Maasai were equally affected by colonial changes” with examples.

11. How did the Criminal Tribes Act of 1871 affect the lives of Indian pastoralists?

12. Why were pastoral communities often viewed with suspicion by the British colonial administration?

13. Describe the lifestyle and migration pattern of the Raikas of Rajasthan. How did they combine cultivation with pastoralism?

14. In what ways did the division of Maasailand by international boundaries affect the Maasai community’s traditional practices?

15. What role did permits and passes play in controlling the movement of pastoralists under colonial forest laws?

Long Answer Questions (100-120 words)

1. Describe the annual cycle of movement followed by the Gujjar Bakarwals and explain how it helps sustain their livelihood.

2. Evaluate the similarities and differences in the practices and challenges faced by mountain pastoralists, like the Gaddis, and those in plateau or desert regions, such as the Dhangars or Raikas. How do environmental factors, colonial policies, and socio-economic conditions shape their livelihoods and adaptive strategies? Discuss the role of seasonal migrations, resource availability, and external regulations in shaping their traditional practices.

3. Explain the colonial perception of ‘wastelands’ and discuss how this idea impacted the rights and resources of Indian pastoralists.

4. Discuss the impact of game reserves and national parks on the traditional grazing grounds of the Maasai.

5. How did pastoralists in Africa cope with the restrictions imposed by colonial governments? Provide examples from the Maasai and Kaokoland herders.

6. What changes did the British introduce in the social and political structure of the Maasai society? How did these affect traditional leadership and livelihood patterns?

7. Examine the ecological and economic reasons why nomadic pastoralism is still considered a viable way of life in dry and mountainous regions.

8. How did the Raikas and Dhangars balance their economic activities through a combination of pastoralism, trade, and cultivation?

9. Describe the role of oral traditions, such as those of Raika genealogists, in preserving the identity and history of pastoral communities.

10. “Pastoralists are not relics of the past.” Justify this statement in the context of modern challenges and adaptations made by pastoral communities.

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

In the 1920s, a Royal Commission on Agriculture reported: ‘The extent of the area available for grazing has gone down tremendously with the extension of area under cultivation because of increasing population, extension of irrigation facilities, acquiring the pastures for Government purposes, for example, defence, industries and agricultural experimental farms. [Now] breeders find it difficult to raise large herds. Thus their earnings have gone down. The quality of their livestock has deteriorated, dietary standards have fallen and indebtedness has increased.’

(a) According to the Royal Commission on Agriculture, what led to the reduction of grazing areas in the 1920s?

(b) What was one impact of reduced grazing lands on livestock quality?

(c) Mention any two economic consequences faced by breeders due to the decline in grazing areas, as reported by the Royal Commission on Agriculture.

2. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

Pastoral communities elsewhere in Africa faced similar problems. In Namibia, in south-west Africa, the Kaokoland herders traditionally moved between Kaokoland and nearby Ovamboland, and they sold skin, meat and other trade products in neighbouring markets. All this was stopped with the new system of territorial boundaries that restricted movements between regions. The nomadic cattle herders of Kaokoland in Namibia complained: ‘We have difficulty. We cry. We are imprisoned. We do not know why we are locked up. We are in jail. We have no place to live … We cannot get meat from the south … Our sleeping skins cannot be sent out … Ovamboland is closed for us. We lived in Ovamboland for a long time. We want to take our cattle there, also our sheep and goats. The borders are closed. The borders press us heavily. We cannot live.’

(a) What restricted the movement of Kaokoland herders between Kaokoland and Ovamboland?

(b) Name any two trade products sold by Kaokoland herders before the borders were closed.

(c) What hardships did the Kaokoland herders face due to the closure of borders, as reflected in their complaint? Mention any two.

Answers

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. (b) Grazing permits that allowed entry based on payment of a tax

2. (a) Restricted access to forests, limiting grazing areas

3. (a) Many pastoralists reduced their herd sizes or changed livelihoods

4. (d) By issuing travel permits that severely restricted movement

5. (c) Pastoral lands were considered unproductive as they generated no direct revenue

6. (b) Further marginalization and impoverishment of pastoral communities

7. (d) They move to higher pastures in the Kashmir valley for grazing

8. (d) They migrate to Konkan for better pastures during the dry season

9. (d) To avoid seasonal climatic challenges and access fresh pastures

10. (d) Imposed severe restrictions, requiring permits for forest grazing

11. (a) They cut Maasailand in half, limiting grazing territories

12. (b) Increased likelihood of famine among cattle

13. (b) Pastoralists turned to other forms of income like trade

14. (c) The wealthier Maasai benefited more compared to poorer groups

15. (a) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv

16. (a) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv

17. (a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

18. (a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

1. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

2. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

3. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Picture Based Questions

1. (b) Rajasthan, near Jaisalmer

2. (c) Farming makes the land unsuitable for grazing animals

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30-40 words)

1. Bugyal:

• High-altitude meadows in the Himalayas.

• Used by pastoral communities, particularly Gujjar Bakarwals, for grazing livestock in summer.

• Vital for maintaining livestock health in harsh climates.

2. Kafila significance:

• A group of nomadic pastoralists traveling together.

• Provides safety, shared resources, and collective support.

• Helps in overcoming challenges like difficult terrain and predators

3. Challenge for Gaddi shepherds:

• Colonial restrictions reduced access to grazing areas.

• Limited movement affected the Gaddi shepherds’ traditional seasonal migrations.

• Resulted in difficulties managing livestock health and pasture availability in Himachal Pradesh.

4. Gujjar Bakarwals migration reason:

• They migrate between lowlands and highaltitude pastures of Kashmir Valley.

• Ensures adequate grazing for cattle and sheep, especially during summer.

• Provides access to better, nutrient-rich pastures for livestock.

5. Method to enforce grazing taxes:

• Colonial authorities required pastoralists to obtain grazing permits.

• These permits came with a tax, ensuring control over grazing land access.

• Non-compliance led to fines or restrictions.

6. Importance of Bugyals for Gujjar Bakarwals:

• Bugyals offer fresh grazing grounds during summer.

• Essential for livestock health due to higher altitude, cooler climate, and better vegetation.

• Support the seasonal migrations for grazing needs.

7. Kafila definition:

• A term used for a caravan of nomadic pastoralists traveling together.

• Provides collective safety, resources, and support.

• Helps navigate long migrations with multiple herders and their flocks.

8. Dhangar shepherds’ migration trigger:

• They migrate from Maharashtra’s plateau to the Konkan region.

• Movement happens during the dry season to access better pastures.

• Ensures sufficient grazing land during the less fertile months.

9. Raikas combining pastoralism and cultivation:

• Raikas practice both pastoralism and cultivation in Rajasthan.

• Cultivation ensures food security and supplemental income.

• Helps adapt to arid conditions and uncertain rainfall patterns.

10. Maasai restricted area:

• Maasai were prohibited from accessing certain grazing lands.

• These lands were converted into game reserves or agricultural zones.

• Colonial policies significantly reduced the Maasai’s traditional territory.

11. Colonial policy restricting Maasai movement:

• British colonial policies reduced Maasai grazing lands.

• Maasai were confined to smaller reserves, limiting their mobility.

• This restriction impacted their traditional pastoral practices.

12. Consequence of reduced Maasai grazing lands:

• Decline in Maasai cattle stock due to overcrowded, less nutritious pastures.

• Led to increased mortality rates in cattle.

• Severely affected their pastoral economy and traditional lifestyle.

13. Alternative Maasai income source:

• Apart from cattle, the Maasai turned to trade.

• Livestock products like milk, meat, and skins became key trade items.

• Trade helped diversify income after losing grazing lands.

Short Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. Reasons for restricting pastoralists’ movement:

• Taxation and Control: Colonial authorities aimed to regulate pasture use for revenue collection.

• Agricultural Expansion: Pastoral lands were converted to agricultural use, limiting grazing space.

• Security Concerns: Pastoralists’ movements were seen as a threat to British authority, with nomadic groups often perceived as rebellious.

• Economic Exploitation: The British sought to maximize land productivity, ignoring pastoralist needs, which disrupted traditional practices.

2. Strategies to adapt to colonial restrictions:

• Seasonal Migrations: Many pastoralists adjusted by migrating to alternate grazing lands during different seasons.

• Combination of Activities: Some took up agricultural practices or worked as laborers to supplement their income.

• Moving to New Regions: Pastoralists relocated to areas less controlled by colonial authorities, seeking better pastures.

• Alliance Formation: Groups often collaborated with others to overcome challenges posed by restricted areas and taxation.

3. Impact of Wasteland Rules on pastoral economies:

• Land Seizure: The Wasteland Rules allowed the British to take control of uncultivated land, which had previously been used for grazing.

• Decline in Grazing Areas: As land was converted to agriculture or plantations, pastoralists lost access to critical grazing lands.

• Economic Strain: Loss of pasture land led to decreased productivity in livestock farming, resulting in economic hardship for many pastoral communities.

4. Impact of grazing taxes on livelihoods:

• Economic Burden: The imposition of grazing taxes made pastoralism increasingly unaffordable for many, leading to herd reductions.

• Movement Restrictions: Taxes often required permits, restricting movement to grazing grounds and resulting in overcrowding.

• Decline in Pastoral Wealth: Many pastoralists faced financial strain, forcing them to sell livestock or abandon traditional practices.

• Impoverishment: These taxes contributed to the marginalization and impoverishment of pastoralist communities across India.

5. Role of seasonal changes for Gaddi shepherds:

• Summer Movements: Gaddi shepherds migrate to high-altitude meadows (Bugyals) in the summer for fresh grazing.

• Winter Return: In winter, they descend to lower hills, where pastures are more accessible.

• Challenges: The harsh climate, limited grazing during off-seasons, and colonial restrictions often disrupt their migrations.

• Herd Health: Fluctuating pasture quality and scarcity of resources due to colonial policies complicate their seasonal cycles.

6. Banjaras’ adaptability within pastoralism:

• Flexible Lifestyle: The Banjaras combined pastoralism with trade, acting as key suppliers of cattle, grain, and other goods.

• Migration: They maintained seasonal movements across regions, adapting to economic changes.

• Trade and Transport: Apart from rearing livestock, the Banjaras engaged in transporting goods, enabling them to survive despite colonial restrictions.

7. Impact of Forest Acts on pastoral communities:

• Restricted Grazing: The Forest Acts introduced severe restrictions on forest access, essential for grazing and collecting fodder.

• Permit System: Pastoralists were forced to obtain permits for grazing in forests, limiting their freedom of movement.

• Land Loss: The expansion of protected forest areas displaced pastoral communities, reducing grazing grounds and leading to conflicts.

8. Impact of lost grazing lands in Africa:

• Livestock Decline: Restricted access to grazing lands led to overgrazing in smaller areas, resulting in malnourished livestock.

• Economic Impact: Livestock was the primary source of income, so the loss of grazing land severely impacted the pastoralist economy.

• Cultural Disruption: The loss of traditional grazing areas also disrupted social and cultural practices tied to pastoralism.

9. Maasai adaptation to dried pastures:

• Migration to New Areas: The Maasai moved to new regions in search of water and grazing.

• Livestock Management: They adapted by diversifying livestock breeds suited for dry conditions.

• Alternative Resources: The Maasai began engaging in trade and selling livestock products, such as milk and hides, to supplement income during droughts.

10. Impact of colonial changes on different Maasai groups:

• Wealthier Maasai: Wealthier Maasai were able to adapt by acquiring better land or engaging in trade, maintaining their pastoral lifestyle.

• Poorer Maasai: The poorer Maasai suffered due to reduced access to grazing areas and were more vulnerable to economic instability.

• Colonial Policies: Colonial land expropriation and forced relocation disproportionately impacted poorer Maasai, increasing inequality within the community.

11. Criminal Tribes Act’s effect on pastoralists:

• Criminalization: The Act labeled many nomadic pastoralist communities as “criminal,” severely limiting their freedom.

• Sedentarization: Forced sedentary lifestyles restricted their mobility and access to grazing areas, leading to economic strain.

• Surveillance: Communities were placed under surveillance, curtailing their traditional migratory practices and affecting their livelihoods.

12. Suspicion of pastoral communities by British:

• Nomadic Movement: Pastoralists’ constant movement made them hard to control and regulate.

• Rebellious Perception: Many colonial authorities viewed pastoralists as resistant to British authority and capable of rebellion.

• Economic Threat: Pastoralism was seen as an economic system that did not align with British goals of agriculture and taxation.

13. Raikas’ lifestyle and migration:

• Seasonal Migration: Raikas of Rajasthan move with their livestock in search of pastures, particularly in the dry season.

• Cultivation: They combine pastoralism with dryland farming, growing crops like millet and barley to supplement their income.

• Adaptation: The combination of agriculture and livestock enables them to better cope with climatic variations and colonial restrictions.

14. Division of Maasailand by international boundaries:

• Restricted Movement: The creation of borders divided Maasai land, restricting their ability to move freely across regions.

• Cultural Disruption: Traditional grazing and seasonal migration routes were disrupted, affecting social and economic practices.

• Economic Impact: The division led to restricted access to crucial pastures and water sources, weakening the Maasai economy.

15. Role of permits and passes under colonial laws:

• Control of Movement: Colonial authorities required pastoralists to obtain permits or passes for grazing in restricted areas, limiting freedom.

• Regulation of Resources: The permits regulated access to grazing lands, ensuring British control over resources.

• Economic Impact: These passes were often costly, further burdening pastoralists and restricting their traditional practices of free movement.

Long Answer Questions (100-120

words)

1. Annual cycle of movement of the Gujjar Bakarwals:

• Summer Migration: They migrate to higher altitude meadows (Bugyals) in the Kashmir region during summer, providing abundant grazing for livestock.

• Winter Migration: During winter, they move to the lower valleys where temperatures are milder, ensuring the survival of livestock.

• Fresh Pastures: Seasonal migration ensures access to fresh grazing grounds, preventing overgrazing in one area and maintaining pasture health.

• Livelihood Sustainability: Movement supports the Gujjar Bakarwals’ primary livelihood of livestock rearing, ensuring sufficient milk, meat, and wool production.

• Ecological Balance: Seasonal migration plays a critical role in maintaining ecological balance by rotating grazing grounds and reducing land degradation.

2. Comparison of Gaddis and Dhangars/Raikas:

• Gaddis (Mountain Pastoralists): Gaddis follow seasonal migrations between higher and lower altitudes for grazing, adapting to climate and pasture availability in Himachal Pradesh.

• Dhangars and Raikas (Plateau/Desert Pastoralists): Dhangars and Raikas practice mixed farming, integrating pastoralism with crop cultivation in arid and semi-arid regions like Maharashtra and Rajasthan.

• Challenges of Both: Both groups face colonial restrictions on grazing lands and must adapt by diversifying their livelihoods and exploring new grazing areas.

• Colonial Impact: Colonial policies forced the Gaddis, Dhangars, and Raikas into rigid regulations, disrupting their traditional migration and access to resources.

• Environmental Adaptation: All three groups rely on adaptive strategies like migration, diversification, and trade to cope with environmental challenges like droughts and overgrazing.

3. Colonial perception of ‘wastelands’ and its impact:

• Wasteland Definition: The British labeled unused or uncultivated lands as ‘wastelands,’ believing they were underproductive and could be better utilized for agriculture or resource extraction.

• Seizure of Grazing Land: Large portions of land used for grazing by pastoralists were redesignated as wastelands and converted into agricultural or plantation areas, limiting access to grazing resources.

• Economic Consequences: Pastoralists lost vital grazing grounds, which affected their livestock health and productivity. This led to economic hardship and loss of livelihood for many.

• Forced Displacement: Colonially enforced land policies displaced pastoralists, pushing them to less fertile areas with poor resources, exacerbating poverty and marginalization.

• Loss of Cultural Practices: As pastoralists lost their traditional grazing lands, they were forced to alter their cultural practices and livelihoods, threatening their identity and sustainability.

4. Impact of game reserves on Maasai grazing grounds:

• Creation of Reserves: The British established game reserves and national parks in East Africa, which restricted the Maasai’s access to their traditional grazing lands.

• Loss of Grazing Land: These parks and reserves, intended for wildlife conservation, severely limited the areas where the Maasai could graze their livestock.

• Economic Disruption: The loss of grazing areas negatively affected livestock health and production, as the Maasai depended on livestock for their livelihood.

• Social Impact: The Maasai were displaced to less fertile regions, causing competition for resources and social tension within the community.

• Cultural Impact: The disruption of grazing practices also affected Maasai cultural traditions, as livestock is central to their identity and social structures.

5. Pastoralist adaptation in Africa under colonial restrictions:

• Maasai Adaptation: The Maasai adapted by shifting migration routes, trading livestock, and establishing new grazing areas to cope with colonial land restrictions.

• Kaokoland Herders: Similarly, Kaokoland herders in Namibia maintained their traditional migratory routes despite colonial border restrictions, relying on indigenous knowledge of the land.

• Diversification: Both Maasai and Kaokoland herders diversified their economic activities by engaging in trade and agriculture to ensure their survival amid colonial restrictions.

• Cultural Resilience: Despite challenges, both communities maintained their cultural practices and preserved their pastoral identity through oral traditions and community cohesion.

• Economic Strategies: Pastoralists engaged in barter systems and livestock sales to adapt to the economic challenges imposed by colonial policies and land restrictions.

6. Changes in Maasai society under British rule:

• Loss of Land: The British took control of large portions of Maasai land, especially prime grazing areas, reducing their access to natural resources.

• Disruption of Traditional Leadership: The British undermined traditional Maasai leadership, replacing elders with colonial officials, which disrupted the social structure and governance.

• Economic Decline: The forced reorganization of land and the establishment of game reserves severely impacted the Maasai’s pastoral economy, leading to food insecurity and economic hardship.

• Social Fragmentation: The loss of land and the breakdown of traditional leadership led to social fragmentation, with some Maasai adopting farming or wage labor to survive.

• Cultural Erosion: The colonization of Maasailand led to the erosion of cultural practices as Maasai were forced to adapt to new economic and political systems imposed by the British.

7. Ecological and economic viability of nomadic pastoralism:

• Adaptability to Harsh Environments: Nomadic pastoralism is well-suited to dry and mountainous regions, as it allows herders to move with their livestock to areas with better resources, avoiding overgrazing.

• Livestock Health: Mobility ensures livestock have access to fresh forage, improving their health and productivity, which is central to pastoralists’ livelihoods.

• Economic Sustainability: In regions where agriculture is not feasible, pastoralism provides a reliable source of food, income, and cultural practices, which sustains the community’s economy.

• Climate Resilience: Nomadic pastoralism allows communities to adapt to climate change by following migration routes that provide seasonal access to pasture and water resources.

• Ecological Balance: Pastoralists’ mobility helps maintain ecological balance by preventing overuse of specific grazing grounds, supporting both livestock health and biodiversity.

8. Balancing economic activities by Raikas and Dhangars:

• Raikas: The Raikas practice a mixed economy, engaging in both pastoralism and crop cultivation. They grow crops like barley and millet, which are suited to arid conditions, alongside raising livestock such as camels and sheep.

• Dhangars: Similarly, the Dhangars combine pastoralism with agriculture. They cultivate

crops like cotton and millet while raising livestock, ensuring a stable livelihood.

• Trade and Diversification: Both communities engage in trade, selling livestock products and crops to sustain their families and mitigate risks like drought and poor pasture availability.

• Adaptation to Drought: The combination of livestock rearing and agriculture helps both groups cope with environmental challenges like droughts and fluctuating pasture conditions.

• Economic Resilience: By diversifying their economic activities, the Raikas and Dhangars create economic resilience, reducing dependence on a single source of income and ensuring food security.

9. Role of oral traditions in preserving identity:

• Genealogical Records: Oral traditions, particularly those maintained by Raika genealogists, preserve the community’s historical and cultural heritage, passing down knowledge of land use and migration routes.

• Cultural Continuity: These traditions help maintain cultural identity by transmitting stories about the community’s values, customs, and historical events.

• Knowledge Preservation: Oral traditions serve as an important repository for ecological knowledge, guiding generations on sustainable grazing practices and land management techniques.

• Social Cohesion: The sharing of oral histories fosters a sense of unity and belonging within the community, strengthening social bonds and cultural resilience.

• Adaptability: Oral traditions also allow communities to adapt by incorporating new challenges and solutions into their historical narratives, ensuring survival in changing environments.

10. Modern Adaptation: Today, pastoralists have integrated modern technologies such as GPS tracking for livestock, mobile phones for market access, and improved veterinary care to maintain their herds.

• Economic Diversification: Many pastoralists have diversified their livelihoods by engaging in farming, trade, or tourism, adapting to modern economic systems while maintaining their traditional practices.

• Cultural Persistence: Despite external pressures, pastoral communities continue to uphold their cultural practices, rituals, and community-based governance, demonstrating resilience.

• Environmental Adaptation: Pastoralists remain crucial in managing fragile ecosystems, especially in arid and mountainous regions, through sustainable grazing practices.

• Global Recognition: Pastoralism is increasingly recognised as a viable and sustainable livelihood, contributing to food security and biodiversity conservation worldwide, challenging the notion that it is outdated or unsustainable.

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1

(a) Extension of cultivation due to increasing population and government land acquisition.

(b) The quality of livestock deteriorated.

• Their indebtedness increased.

Passage 2

(a) The introduction of new territorial boundaries.

(b) Skin and meat.

• They were unable to move their cattle, sheep, and goats to Ovamboland for grazing.

SELF-ASSESSMENT

Time: 1 Hour

Section A

Scan me for all answers.

Max. Marks: 40

6. Which of the following is true about the Raikas of Rajasthan?

Choose and write the correct answer for each of the following.

(1 × 8 = 8 Marks)

1. Which pastoral community was primarily found in Maharashtra?

(a) Gujjar Bakarwals

(b) Gaddi Shepherds

(d) Raikas

2. The Criminal Tribes Act, passed by the colonial government, aimed to:

(a) Promote trade among pastoralists

(b) Settle pastoralists in designated areas

(d) Protect forests from grazing activities

3. Which statement accurately describes the Gujjar Bakarwals?

(a) They herded camels in Rajasthan.

(b) They migrated to Jammu and Kashmir in the 19th century.

(d) They were unaffected by colonial Forest Acts.

4. What are the vast meadows in the high mountains called?

(a) Bhabar

(b) Bugyal

(d) Siwalik

5. What was a significant consequence of the Forest Acts for pastoralists?

(a) Increased access to all forest areas

(b) Regulation of their movements

(d) Direct control over forest management

(a) They are cattle herders from the Deccan Plateau.

(b) They were primarily buffalo herders.

(d) They migrated seasonally to the Konkan coast.

7. What was a common challenge faced by pastoralists due to colonial policies?

(a) Increased availability of pasture lands

(b) Greater autonomy in their movements

(d) Expansion of their traditional trading activities

8. In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Colonial governments in India enacted Waste Land Rules.

Reason (R): They aimed to convert grazing lands into cultivated farms to increase revenue.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Section B

Answer the following questions.

9. Define ‘nomadic pastoralist’. (2 Marks)

10. Outline the seasonal movement pattern of the Gaddi shepherds. (3 Marks)

11. Describe how Dhangar pastoralists interacted with agriculturalists in the Konkan region. (3 Marks)

12. Explain the colonial government’s rationale behind implementing the Waste Land Rules. (3 Marks)

13. Identify three ways in which colonial rule impacted the lives of pastoral communities. (3 Marks)

14. Explain how the partition of India affected the movement of the Raikas. (3 Marks)

15. Analyse the effects of the Forest Acts on the socio-economic conditions of pastoralists in India. (5 Marks)

16. Evaluate the strategies employed by pastoral communities to adapt to the challenges posed by colonial rule. (5 Marks)

17. Discuss the consequences of the reduction of grazing lands on the Maasai community’s way of life and economy. (5 Marks)

Geography

1 India—Size and Location

India is one of the oldest civilisations in the world� It is the seventh largest country in the world� It lies in the Northern Hemisphere� It introduces India’s geographic extent, including its size, boundaries, and location on the globe and world map� Its strategic location and trans Indian Ocean routes have enabled it to establish important trade and communication links with the countries of Europe in the West and the countries of East Asia India has emerged culturally, socially, economically and politically as one of the oldest civilisations in the world� It has made a mark for itself in the last five decades and has progressed in various fields, such as agriculture, industry, technology, trade and commerce, etc�

India—Size and Location

Location

• Located entirely in the Northern Hemisphere�

• Extends between latitudes 8°4’N and 37°6’N, and longitudes 68°7’E and 97°25’E�

• The Tropic of Cancer passes through the centre of India, dividing it roughly into two equal parts

Neighbours

• India shares land boundaries with five countries: Pakistan, Afghanistan, China, Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar, and Bangladesh�

• India has two neighbouring countries located in the Indian Ocean: Sri Lanka and Maldives�

Size and Extent

• India is the seventh-largest country in the world�

• It has an area of 3�28 million square km, i�e�, 2�4% of the world’s total landmass�

• Its land boundary measures approx 15,200 km

• The total length of the coastline, including the Andaman and Nicobar, and Lakshadweep Islands, is 7,516�6 km�

India and the World

• India’s position between East and West Asia makes it a vital link in the Indian Ocean trade routes

• The Trans-Indian Ocean Routes connect the European countries in the west to countries of East Asia�

• The southern extension of the Deccan Peninsula connects India with West Asia, Africa and Europe from the Western Coast, and with the South-East and east Asia from the Eastern Coast�

India’s Contact with the World

• India’s land routes through the northern mountains were used by ancient travellers, facilitating the exchange of goods, ideas, and culture

• Indian epics like the Ramayana and Mahabharata, stories like Panchatantra, and the decimal system spread to other parts of the world through land and sea trade routes, along with items like muslin and spices�

Key Terms and Definitions

Civilisation: A civilisation is an advanced state of human society, in which a high level of culture, science, industry, and government has been reached

Socio-economic Progress: It is the process of development which is measured with various indicators, such as GDP, employment level, literacy level, net attendance ratio, infant mortality rate, life expectancy, etc�

Latitudes: These are imaginary lines that circle the Earth from east to west, parallel to the equator and are used to determine the location of any place on the Earth�

Longitudes: They are imaginary lines that run from the North Pole to the South Pole, and are used to measure distances east or west from the Greenwich Meridian�

Strait: It is a narrow channel of water that joins two large water bodies

Bay: It is a body of water connected to a sea or a lake and surrounded by land� It is smaller and less enclosed than a gulf�

Gulf: It is a large inlet of sea or ocean into a landmass The opening is narrower and more indented than a bay

Archipelago: An archipelago is a group of islands found in a large water body such as a sea or ocean�

Subcontinent: It is a large landmass that forms part of a continent� For example, the Indian subcontinent�

Union Territory: It is an administrative division of India that is directly governed by the central government and has less autonomy than the states

Geographical Boundaries: Geographic boundaries are defined lines that separate different political or territorial entities, such as countries, states, or regions� These boundaries can be physical, like rivers or mountains, or artificial, created through legal agreements and treaties

NCERT Zone

Intext Questions

1. Why 82°30’E has been selected as the Standard Meridian of India?

Ans. • There is a time lag of 2 hours from the extreme east in Arunachal Pradesh to the extreme west in Gujarat� If we follow different times for different regions of India, it will create confusion�

• Therefore, the 82°30’E longitude, which passes through the centre of the country through Mirzapur (near Prayagraj) in India, has been selected as the Standard Meridian of the country� The time along this meridian has been selected as the Standard Time for the entire country

2. Why is the difference between the durations of day and night hardly felt in Kanniyakumari but not in Kashmir?

Ans. • Kanniyakumari is located near the equator and Kashmir is located far away from the equator Duration of day and night is almost equal near the equator�

• Therefore, places located near the equator do not feel the difference between the duration of day and night while places located far away from the equator feel it

3. The number of Union Territories along the western and eastern coasts.

• Area-wise which is the smallest and which is the largest state?

• The states which do not have an international border or lie on the coast.

• Classify the states into four groups each having common frontiers with (i) Pakistan

(ii) China

(iii) Myanmar

(iv) Bangladesh

Ans.

• Union Territories along the Coasts:

° Along the Western Coast: Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu, Lakshadweep, and Puducherry (Mahe)�

° Along the Eastern Coast: Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Puducherry

• Area-wise largest state: Rajasthan (area: 342,239 sq� km)�

Area-wise smallest state: Goa (area: 3,702 sq� km)�

• States with no international border or coast: Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Haryana, Telangana, Delhi

• States having common frontiers with:

(i) Pakistan: Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Rajasthan

(ii) China: Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh

(iii) Myanmar: Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Mizoram, and Nagaland

(iv) Bangladesh: West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram

NCERT Exercises

1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

(i) The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through

(a) Rajasthan (b) Odisha

Ans. (b) Odisha

(ii) The easternmost longitude of India is

(a) 97°25’E (b) 68°7’E

Ans. (a) 97°25’E

(iii) Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim have common frontiers with

(a) China

(b) Bhutan

Ans. (c) Nepal

(iv) If you intend to visit Kavaratti during your summer vacation, which of the following Union Territories of India will you be going to?

(a) Puducherry

(b) Lakshadweep

(d) Daman and Diu

Ans. (b) Lakshadweep

(v) My friend hails from a country which does not share land boundary with India. Identify the country.

(a) Bhutan (b) Tajikistan

Ans. (b) Tajikistan

2. Answer the following questions briefly.

(i) Name the group of islands lying in the Arabian Sea.

(ii) Name the countries which are larger than India.

(iii) Which island group of India lies to its south-east?

(iv) Which island countries are our southern neighbours?

Ans. (i) Lakshadweep Islands lie in the Arabian Sea�

(ii) Russia, Canada, USA, China, Brazil and Australia are larger than India�

(iii) Andaman and Nicobar Islands lie to the south-east of the mainland of India�

(iv) Sri Lanka and Maldives are two island countries that are southern neighbours of India

3. The sun rises two hours earlier in Arunachal Pradesh as compared to Gujarat in the west but the watches show the same time. How does this happen?

Ans. Watches show the same time across India because of the following reasons:

• The latitudinal extent of India is 30° The Earth takes 4 minutes to rotate through 1° of longitude� Therefore, in 1 hour, the Earth rotates through 15° of longitude

• To rotate through 30° of longitude, the Earth takes 2 hours Therefore, there is a time difference of two hours between Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat�

• As Arunachal Pradesh lies in the extreme east, the sun rises two hours earlier than Gujarat, which lies in the extreme west

• To avoid any confusion of time difference within the country, the entire country follows the time along the Standard Meridian (82°30’E)

4. The central location of India at the head of the Indian Ocean is considered of great significance. Why?

Ans. Reasons for the significance of the central location at the head of the Indian Ocean:

• The Indian landmass is centrally located between the East and West Asia The country is a southward extension of the Asian continent�

• The Peninsular region juts out into the Indian Ocean that helps the nation to foster close contact with West Asia, Africa and Europe from the western coast and with the south-east and East Asia from the eastern coast�

• The trans Indian Ocean routes connect the countries of Europe in the West to the countries of East Asia and give a strategic central position to India�

Map Skills

1. Identify the following with the help of map reading.

(i) The Island groups of India lying in the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal

(ii) The countries constituting Indian subcontinent

(iii) The States through which the Tropic of Cancer passes

(iv) The northernmost latitude in degrees

(v) The southernmost latitude of the Indian mainland in degrees

(vi) The eastern and westernmost longitude in degrees

(vii) The place situated on the three seas

(viii) The strait separating Sri Lanka from India

(ix) The Union Territories of India

Ans. Map Reading Guidance:

(Note: Refer to your school atlas or wall maps for this exercise.)

(i) Lakshadweep Islands lie in the Arabian Sea and Andaman and Nicobar Islands lie in the Bay of Bengal

(ii) India, Pakistan, Afghanistan, China (Tibet), Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka and Maldives�

(iii) Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram

(iv) 37°6’N

(v) 8°4’N

(vi) 97°25’E and 68°7’E

(vii) Kanniyakumari

(viii) Palk Strait

(ix) India has 8 Union Territories: Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh, NCT of Delhi, Chandigarh, Dadra & Nagar

Haveli and Daman and Diu, Puducherry, Lakshadweep, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Project/Activity

(i) Find out the longitudinal and latitudinal extent of your state.

Ans. (Note: The answer will vary for the learners, from state to state.) Sample answer for the state of Haryana:

The latitudinal extent of Haryana is: 27°39’N to 30°35’N

The longitudinal extent of Haryana is: 74°28’E to 77°36’E

(ii) Collect information about the ‘Silk Route’. Also find out the new developments, which are improving communication routes in the regions of high altitude.

Ans. Information on Silk Route:

• The Silk route was an important international trade route linking Asia with Europe and northern Africa in pre-modern world�

• Trade was carried out by both land and sea�

• This route was known for Chinese silk cargoes and Chinese pottery�

• Textiles and spices from India, Chinese silk and Chinese pottery reached Europe via this route In exchange, precious metals, such as gold and silver reached from Europe to Asia�

• Along with goods, cultural exchange also took place� Islam, Christianity, and Buddhism also spread along these routes�

• During those days, merchants and travellers travelled on camels and horses Journey through the rough, rugged terrain was difficult, dangerous and time consuming� There was also no developed communication system

• To promote trade and encourage cultural exchange, several developments have taken place in these routes� Roads have

become motorable� Railway lines are being laid through caves, tunnels and bridges

Communication systems have been developed in these regions� People can now communicate through telephones, satellite phones, mobile phones, etc�

Practice Questions

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which imaginary line will help to determine the hemisphere a country lies in?

(a) Prime Meridian

(b) Latitude

(d) International Date Line

2. What is the length of the land boundary of India?

(a) 2,933 km

(b) 3,214 km

3. When a landmass is surrounded by water on its three sides, what is the landmass known as?

(a) Island (b) Gulf

4. How many States does India have at present?

(a) 27 (b) 29

5. Which factor influences the duration of day and night?

(a) Latitudinal extent

(b) Longitudinal extent

(d) International Date Line

6. Which of these is NOT a valid reason for strategic central location of India?

(a) The trans Indian Ocean routes connect the countries of Europe in the West and the countries of East Asia

(b) Deccan Peninsula protrudes into the Indian Ocean, thus helping India to establish close contact with West Asia, Africa and Europe from the western coast and with south-east and East Asia from the eastern coast

(d) India shares land boundaries with Pakistan, Afghanistan, China, Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar and Bangladesh�

7. How has the opening of the Suez Canal helped India?

(a) It has reduced the distance between India and Europe by 5,000 km�

(b) It has reduced the distance between India and Europe by 7,000 km�

(d) It has reduced the distance between India and Malaysia by 5,000 km�

8. Which of these longitudes denotes the easternmost point of India?

(a) 97°25’E (b) 37°6’N

9. Which is the largest country in the world?

(a) Canada (b) USA

10. Which country does NOT share land boundary with India?

(a) Afghanistan (b) Pakistan

11. I want to visit my best friend in Aizawl. Which State do I need to travel to?

(a) Tripura (b) Nagaland (c) Mizoram (d) Manipur

12. Through which State does Tropic of Cancer pass?

(a) Manipur (b) Bihar

Map showing the Silk Route by Land and Sea

13. In which direction does the Deccan Peninsula extend?

(a) Eastward

(b) Westward

(d) Southward

14. What is the north-south extent of India?

(a) 7516�6 km (b) 3214 km

15. Which is the smallest state of India with respect to size?

(a) Tripura (b) Nagaland

16. Ravi wants to visit Port Blair. He is unable to remember which Union Territory it is in. Help him with the name of the UT.

(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

(b) Daman and Diu

(d) Chandigarh

17. Which of these is a northern neighbour of India?

(a) Afghanistan

(b) Myanmar

(d) Sri Lanka

18. Where is Maldives located?

(a) South of Andaman and Nicobar Islands

(b) South of Ganga Delta

(d) South of Lakshadweep Islands

19. How many Union Territories does India have at present (2025)?

(a) 10 (b) 9

20. What is the capital of Gujarat?

(a) Gandhinagar

(b) Ahmedabad

(d) Dwarka

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A�

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A�

(d) A is false but R is true�

1. Assertion (A): The Tropic of Cancer divides India into almost two equal parts

Reason (R): This latitude determines the difference in time across the world�

2. Assertion (A): The Indian landmass is more towards the East than the West�

Reason (R): As India has a long coastline along the Indian Ocean which no other country has, it has an eminent position in the Indian Ocean

3. Assertion (A): The various passes in the mountain ranges in the north have provided passages to the ancient travellers�

Reason (R): These routes have encouraged exchange of ideas and commodities�

4. Assertion (A): The influence of Greek sculpture and the architectural styles of domes and minarets from West Asia can be seen in different parts of the country

Reason (R): India lies entirely in the Northern Hemisphere�

Picture Based Questions

1. Study the graph given here and answer the questions that follow.

How large is the USA in comparison to India?

(a) Almost 2 times larger

(b) Almost 3 times larger

(d) Seven times larger

2. Study the given map and answer the question.

What is the difference between the east-west and north-south extent of India?

(a) 291 km

(b) 290 km

(d) 280 km

3. On the outline map of India (Political) provided below:

(a) Locate and label the states of Maharashtra, Karnataka, Himachal Pradesh, and Jharkhand.

(b) Mark the location and label the cities of Jaipur, Lucknow, and Thiruvananthapuram.

4. On the outline map of India (Political) provided below:

(a) Label the neighbouring countries of Pakistan, Bhutan, Bangladesh and Sri Lanka.

(b) Label the water bodies which surround peninsular India.

Part B (Subjective Question Section) Very Short Answer Questions

(30-40 words)

1. Name the two archipelagos of India.

2. Distinguish between a bay and a gulf.

3. What do you understand by geographical boundaries?

4. In which year did the Suez Canal open? How did the canal help India in relation to Europe?

5. What is the Standard Meridian of India? Which part of India does it pass through?

6. How many states and union territories of India share international boundary with Pakistan? Name the states.

7. Why is the Indian Ocean named after India?

8. How many states and union territories of India share land boundary with Bangladesh? Name them.

9. What were the two types of states in India before 1947?

10. Though the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of the country is the same, the north-south extent appears greater than the east-west extent. Why?

11. According to area, name the smallest and largest states of India. What is the difference between their areas?

12. Which southern point of India got submerged in 2004 and how did it happen?

Short Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. ‘India is a vast country’. Support your answer with facts.

2. What are the implications of the large north-south extent of the country?

3. Why is India called a subcontinent?

4. Why is Indian Ocean named after our country? Give three reasons.

5. Describe the natural boundaries of India, in the north and the south.

6. Explain the size of India.

7. “India has an important position on the globe.” Justify by giving three arguments.

8. With reference to India, name the major Islands, seas, oceans, and bays surrounding India, along with their location.

9. Describe the location of the two island countries who are our neighbours.

Long Answer Questions (100-120 words)

1. Explain the political divisions of India.

2. Describe the geographical location of India.

3. How has India contributed to the making of world history?

4. Elaborate the significance of the location of India.

5. What is the significance of trade routes in the culture and heritage of India?

6. Saurabh lives in Arunachal Pradesh and his cousin Ajay lives in Gujarat. Saurabh called his cousin at 4 am to ask if he saw the sunrise today. Ajay told him that the sun had still not risen. Explain when will Ajit be able to see the sunrise and why?

7. Why is 82° 30′ E longitude selected as the Standard Meridian of India?

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

India is a vast country� Lying entirely in the northern hemisphere the mainland extends between latitudes 8°4’N and 37°6’N, and longitudes 68°7’E and 97°25’E� The Tropic of Cancer (23°30’N) divides the country into almost two equal parts� To the south-east and south-west of the mainland, lie the Andaman and Nicobar Islands and the Lakshadweep Islands in Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea, respectively The landmass of India has an area of 3�28 million sq� km� India’s total area accounts for about 2�4 per cent of the total geographical area of the world India is the seventh largest country in the world� India has a land boundary of about 15,200 km and the total length of the coastline of the mainland including Andaman and Nicobar and Lakshadweep, is 7,516�6 km�

(a) What is the land area of India?

(b) Which is the next country bigger in size in terms of area than India?

2. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

India’s contacts with the World have continued through ages but her relationships through the land routes are much older than her maritime contacts� The various passes across the mountains in the north have provided passages to the ancient travellers, while the oceans restricted such interaction for a long time� These routes have contributed in the exchange of ideas and commodities since ancient times The ideas of the Upanishads and the Ramayana, the stories of Panchtantra, the Indian numerals and the decimal system thus could reach many parts of the world� The spices, muslin and other merchandise were taken from India to different countries On the other hand, the influence of Greek sculpture, and the architectural styles of dome and minarets from West Asia can be seen in different parts of our country

(a) Which routes did the travellers take to visit India, in the ancient times?

(b) What architectural influence can be seen in India?

Answers

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. (b) Latitude

2. (d) 15,200 km

3. (c) Peninsula

4. (d) 28

5. (a) Latitudinal extent

6. (d) India shares land boundaries with Pakistan, Afghanistan, China, Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar and Bangladesh�

7. (b) It has reduced the distance between India and Europe by 7,000 km�

8. (a) 97°25’E

9. (c) Russia

10. (d) Sri Lanka

11. (c) Mizoram

12. (d) Gujarat

13. (d) Southward

14. (b) 3214 km

15. (c) Goa

16. (a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

17. (c) Bhutan

18. (d) South of Lakshadweep Islands

19. (c) 8

20. (a) Gandhinagar

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

1. (c) A is true but R is false�

2. (d) A is false but R is true�

3. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A�

4. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

Picture Based Questions

1. (b) Almost 3 times larger

2. (c) 281 km

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30-40 words)

1. • The two archipelagos of India are Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and the Lakshadweep Islands�

• The Andaman and Nicobar Islands and the Lakshadweep Islands are located in the southern part of the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea, respectively�

2. • Bay is a body of water connected to sea or lake and surrounded by land� It is smaller and less enclosed than a gulf, for example, the Bay of Bengal

• Gulf is a large inlet of sea or ocean into a landmass� The opening is narrower and more indented than a bay, for example, the Gulf of Mannar�

3. • Geographical boundaries are defined lines that separate different political or territorial entities, such as countries, states, or regions�

• These boundaries can be physical, like rivers or mountains, or artificial, created through legal agreements and treaties

4. • The Suez Canal opened in 1869� The canal reduced the distance between Europe and India by 7,000 km�

• This helped in faster and more efficient trade between the two continents by eliminating the sea journey via southern tip of Africa�

5. • The 82°30’E longitude is considered as the Standard Meridian of India It passes through the town of Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh

• The time at this longitude is taken as the standard time for entire India�

6. • Three states share international boundary with Pakistan: Gujarat, Rajasthan and Punjab�

• Two union territories: Ladakh and Jammu & Kashmir share international boundary with Pakistan

7. India has the longest coastline among the countries bordering the Indian Ocean�

The Peninsular part of India, extending into the ocean occupies an important position in the vast ocean� Therefore, the ocean has been named after India�

8. • Five states share land boundary with Bangladesh� They are Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram, and West Bengal

• There is no union territory which shares land boundary with Bangladesh�

9. There were two types of states in India before 1947� These were the Provinces and the Princely States

• The British officials who were appointed by the Viceroy directly ruled the Provinces

• The local hereditary rulers accepted sovereignty in return for local autonomy and governed the Princely States�

10. The distance between two latitudes is 111 km and this distance remains the same between all the latitudes

• However, the distance between two longitudes is maximum at the equator and gradually decreases towards the poles�

• Therefore, the east-west extent of India is less than the north-south extent of the country�

11.

• Goa is the smallest state with an area of 3,702 sq� km� Rajasthan is the largest state with an area of 342,239 sq km

• The difference in area between the largest and smallest state is 3,38,537 sq km

12.

• Indira Point, which is the southernmost point of the Indian Union is located in the Great Nicobar Island in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands�

• It got submerged under the sea during the Tsunami in 2004�

Short Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. India is categorised as a vast country because:

• The latitudinal extent is between 8°4’N and 37°6’N and longitudinal extent is between 68°7’E and 97°25’E, which is about 30° of the mainland�

• It is the seventh largest country in the world�

• It has a landmass of 3�28 million sq�km� that accounts for 2�4 per cent of the total geographical area of the world

2. Implications of the large north-south extent of the country:

• Latitudinal extent influences the duration of day and night, as one moves from south to north� India has a large north-south extent� The northern part of the country is far away from the equator Therefore, the difference in the length of day and night is felt much�

• The days are longer and nights shorter during summer, and the reverse is felt in winter This is due to the angle at which the sunrays strike the earth�

• The southern part of the country is close to the equator� Therefore, difference between length of days and nights is not much felt as it is negligible�

3. India is called a subcontinent because:

• It is a large landmass that is part of a continent (Asia)�

• The Great Himalayas form a formidable barrier in the north, northwest and northeast of India, and give the characteristics of a subcontinent to India

• It has a landmass of 3�28 million square km, which accounts for 2 4 per cent of the total geographical area of the world�

4. The Indian Ocean is named after India because (i) India has the longest coastline on the Indian Ocean�

(ii) India has a central location between East and West Asia�

(iii) India’s Southernmost extension of the Deccan Peninsula protrudes into the Indian Ocean that makes it significant to international trade done through Indian Ocean�

5. • India is bound by the young fold Himalaya mountains in the northwest, north and northeast�

• South of about 22° north latitude, the landmass of India begins to taper, and extends into the ocean waters

• The Peninsula extends into the Indian Ocean, dividing it into two seas, the Arabian Sea on the west and the Bay of Bengal on its east�

6. • The area of the landmass of India is 3�28 million sq� kms�

• India’s total area is approx� 2�4 per cent of the total geographical area of the world�

• India is the seventh largest country in the world�

• India has a land boundary of about 15,200 km�

• The total length of the coastline of India including Andaman and Nicobar and Lakshadweep is 7,576�6 kms�

7. • India has a central location between the East and West Asia�

• The Trans Indian Ocean routes connect the countries of Europe in the West and the countries of East Asia�

• The Deccan Peninsula protrudes into the Indian Ocean and helps to have contact with West Asia, Africa and Europe from West Coast and with South East and East Asia from Eastern Coast�

8. • The Lakshadweep Islands lie in the southwest of India and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands in the southeast�

• The Arabian Sea is located to the west of the peninsular extension and the Bay of Bengal lies to the east of the extension�

• The Indian Ocean lies to the south of the Indian landmass�

9. • Our southern neighbours across the sea consist of the two island countries—Sri Lanka and Maldives�

• Sri Lanka is separated from India by a narrow channel of sea formed by the Palk Strait and the Gulf of Mannar

• Maldives Islands are situated to the south of the Lakshadweep Islands, in the Arabian Sea�

Long Answer Questions (100-120 words)

1. India is a large country� In order to govern the country properly, it has been divided into smaller areas or political divisions which are called states and union territories�

• India is divided into 28 States and 8 Union Territories�

• Goa is the smallest state with an area of 3,702 sq�km and Rajasthan is the largest state with an area of 342,239 sq km

• The coastal states of India are Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, and West Bengal�

• The states that do not share any international border and sea are Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, and Telangana�

• Chandigarh is the union territory that serves as the capital of both Punjab and Haryana�

2. Geographical location of India:

• India is located entirely in the Northern Hemisphere� The Tropic of Cancer passes through the centre of the country at 23½°N, roughly dividing the country into two halves�

• India is a peninsula with the Arabian Sea in the west, the Indian Ocean in the south, and Bay of Bengal in the east� It has a long coastline along the Indian Ocean and the ocean has been named after India�

• India covers a landmass of 3 28 million sq km It accounts for 2�4 per cent of the total geographical area of the world� It is the seventh largest country in the world

• India has a land boundary of 15,200 km and a coastline of 7516�6 km�

3. India has kept contact with other parts of the world through ages through land and sea routes� Land routes are much older than sea routes�

• Mountain passes in the north provided passages for travellers and merchants to trade ideas and commodities

• The stories, morals and values of the Upanishads and the Ramayana, the stories of Panchatantra, the Indian numerals and decimal system reached many parts of the world through these mountain passes

• Spices, muslin and other merchandise were carried by merchants from India via the Silk Route to various parts of the world�

• Indians were influenced by many Greek architectural styles, the domes and minarets of West Asia from their journeys to these regions and adopted the style back home�

In this way, India has contributed significantly to the making of world history�

4. Significance of the location of India:

• The Indian landmass occupies a central location between the East and West Asia� It lies in the Asian continent and extends south of the continent

• The Deccan Peninsula tapers into the Indian Ocean, enabling contact with the distant nations through sea routes�

• The trans Indian Ocean routes connect the countries of Europe in the West to countries in East Asia�

• India has been able to establish strong relationships with West Asia, Africa and Europe from the western coast and with south-east and East Asia from its eastern coast�

• The country has a long coastline along the Indian Ocean, which no other country has� Thus, the ocean has been named after India

• India has had contacts with the world through ages; her relationships through the land routes are much older than sea contacts�

• The various mountain passes in the northern mountains have provided passages to the ancient travellers, while the oceans restricted such interaction for a long time

• These routes have contributed in the exchange of ideas and commodities since ancient times� The ideas of the Upanishads and the Ramayana, the stories of Panchtantra, the Indian numerals and the decimal system thus could reach many parts of the world�

• Spices, muslin and other merchandise were taken from India to different countries�

• The influence of Greek sculpture and architecture of domes and minarets from West Asia can be seen in different parts of India

6. • Ajay will be able to see the sunrise in Gujarat at 6 am because Gujarat is located in the western part of India, so it has a different time zone from Arunachal Pradesh which is located in the eastern part of India

• As the Earth rotates from east to west, there is a natural progression of time� Gradually, as the Earth rotates, Gujarat will experience sunrise a little later�

• There is a longitudinal gap of 30° between Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat because of which there is a time lag of about 2 hours between the two states�

Explanation: 1° = 4 minutes, so 30° = 120 minutes (2 hours)� Hence, Ajay will see sunrise at 6 am, 2 hours later than Saurabh�

7. The 82°30′ E Meridian has been selected as the Standard Meridian of India for the following reasons:

(i) This is a general understanding among the countries of the world to select a Standard Meridian in multiples of 7°30′ east and west of Prime Meridian� It is equal to half an hour�

(ii) A country’s standard time is derived from such a central meridian� The minimum difference of time between two consecutive standard meridians should be half an hour

(iii) From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh there is a time lag of two hours� Hence, time along the standard meridian of India (82°30’E) passing through Mirzapur (U P ) is taken as the standard time for the whole country�

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1

(a) The land area of India is 3�28 million sq�km�

(b) Australia is the next bigger country than India in terms of area�

The length of the land boundary of India is 15,200 km

Passage 2

(a) Land routes through various passes across the mountains in the north have provided passages to the travellers in the ancient times

(b) The influence of Greek sculpture, and the architectural styles of dome and minarets from West Asia can be seen in different parts of India�

(c) These routes have contributed in the exchange of ideas and commodities since ancient times� The ideas of the Upanishads and the Ramayana, the stories of Panchtantra, the Indian numerals and the decimal system reached many parts of the world� The spices, muslin and other merchandise were taken from India to different countries and these gained immense popularity outside India�

SELF-ASSESSMENT

Time: 1 Hour

Section A

Scan me for all answers.

Max. Marks: 40

Which two countries are quite similar in size?

(a) Russia and Canada

(b) Canada and USA

(1 × 8 = 8 Marks)

Choose and write the correct answer for each of the following.

1. Which of these parallels of latitude divides India into two equal halves?

(a) Equator

(b) Tropic of Capricorn

(d) Arctic Circle

2. Which one of these States shares an international boundary?

(a) Uttarakhand

(b) Chhattisgarh

(d) Madhya Pradesh

3. What is the latitudinal extent of India?

(a) 8°4’N and 73°6’N

(b) 4°8’N and 37°6’N

(d) 8°4’N and 37°6’N

4. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Young fold mountains bound India to the northwest, north and northeast�

(b) The Thar desert bounds India to the northwest, north and northeast

(d) The Ganga Plains bound India to the northwest, north and northeast�

5. Study the image and answer the following question.

(d) Australia and India

6. What led to the submergence of Indira Point, under seawater?

(a) 1999 Odisha super cyclone

(b) 2013 North India floods

(d) 2004 Tsunami

7. Which of these islands is located to the west of the Indian mainland?

(a) Mauritius

(b) Lakshadweep

(d) Maldives

8. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): India is centrally located that promoted trade and commerce with the west and the east�

Reason (R): The Deccan Peninsula protrudes into the Indian Ocean that allows India close maritime contact with various nations�

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A�

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

(d) A is false but R is true�

Section B

Answer the following questions.

9. In which continent is India located? What is the rank of India in terms of its size? Write the names of the countries larger than India, in ascending order. (2 Marks)

10. Name the states and Union Territories of India that do not share any international boundary and do not have a coast. (2 Marks)

11. Write a short note on the neighbouring countries of India relating to their location. (3 Marks)

12. Give reasons as to why the Indian Ocean has been named after India. (3 Marks)

13. Mark the following on the outline map of India given below. (3 Marks)

(a) Identify and label the Tropic of Cancer.

(b) Identify and label the Standard Meridian.

14. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow. (1 + 1 + 2 = 4 Marks)

The land mass of India has an area of 3�28 million square km India’s total area accounts for about 2�4 per cent of the total geographical area in the world� India is the seventh largest country of the world India has a land boundary of about 15,200 km and the total length of the coastline of the mainland, including Andaman and Nicobar and Lakshadweep, is 7,516�6 km� India is bounded by the young fold mountains in the northwest, north and northeast� South of about 22° north latitude, it begins to taper, and extends towards the Indian Ocean, dividing it into two seas, the Arabian Sea on the west and the Bay of Bengal on its east�

(a) Which physical feature bounds India in the northwest, north and northeast?

(b) Name the water body in which Lakshadweep Islands are situated.

(c) What is the difference between the length of the land boundary of the mainland of India and the total length including the coastlines of the island groups of India?

15. �India occupies an important strategic position in South Asia.� Justify the statement. (5 Marks)

16. How has India contributed to the making of world history? (5 Marks)

17. Why is the difference in the duration of day and night very little in Kanyakumari while it is not so in the northern part of the country? Give specific reasons for your answer. (5 Marks)

2 Physical Features of India

This chapter summarises the diverse landscape of India, consisting of mountains, plains, plateaus, desert, and islands. It discusses the characteristics of six major physiographic divisions: the Himalayas, the Northern Plains, the Peninsular Plateau, the Indian Desert, the Coastal Plains, and the Islands. The chapter explains how these features were formed through geological processes like plate tectonics and their impact on the climate, resources, and influence on human life.

Physical Features of India

The Himalayan Mountains

• Geologically young

• Structurally fold mountains

• Strech across the northern borders of India

• Run in east-west direction, from the Indus to the Brahmaputra rivers

• Regional Divisions: Punjab, Kumaon, Nepal and Assam Himalayas

• Longitudinal Divisions: Great Himalayas, Lesser Himalayas, Shiwalik

• Great Himalayas, lesser Himalayas

The Indian Desert

• Located to the West of Aravalli hills

• Annual Rainfall: less than 150 mm

• Arid climate and sparse vegetation

• Covered with sand dunes: crescentshaped barchans and longitudinal dunes

The Northern Plains

• Formed by three river systems: Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra and their tributaries

• Majuli: Largest inhabited riverine island

• Divisions of the Plains: Punjab, Ganga and Brahmaputra Plains

• Regional Divisions: Bhabar, Terai, Bhangar, Khadar

The Coastal Plains

• Eastern Coastal Plains: Running along the Bay of Bengal Coast; two partsNorthern Circars and Coromandel Coast

• Western Coastal Plains: Running along the Arabian Sea coast; three parts –Konkan, Kannad and Malabar

The Peninsular Plateau

• Composed of old crystalline, metamorphic and igneous rocks

• Formed due to breaking up and drifting of Gondwana land

• Its eastward extension is known as Bundelkhand and Baghelkhand

• Peninsular plateau comprises:

o Central Highlands: Surrounded by Vindhya, Satpura and Aravalli ranges

o Deccan Plateau: Hills and plateaus of the northeast, Chotanagpur plateau, plateau to the south of Narmada River

• Western Ghats: Average elevation 900–1600 metres; highest peaks: Anai Mudi, Doda Betta

• Eastern Ghats: Average elevation 600 metres; highest peak Mahendragiri

The Islands

• Andaman and Nicobar Islands: divided into north and south Islands, close to the equator, equatorial climate, thick forest cover, has an active volcano

• Lakshadweep Islands: group of Coral Islands close to Malabar Coast

Key Terms and Definitions

Terrain: It is the physical characteristics of a surface, including its elevation, gradient of slope, and various types of landforms.

Physiographic Division: It is a term used to describe the natural features on the surface of the Earth.

Dun: These are longitudinal valleys found between the Lesser Himalayas and the Shiwaliks, also known as the Outer Himalayas.

Doab: It is a term used to describe the land between two rivers, derived from two words— ‘do’ meaning ‘two’ and ‘ab’ meaning ‘water’.

Alluvial Soil: It is a type of soil formed by the deposition by rivers in its lower course, which is very fertile and suitable for agriculture.

Tributary: It is a stream or a river that joins a larger river.

Distributary: It is a term used for a river or stream that flows away from the main channel.

Plateau: A plateau is a flat, elevated area of land that’s much higher than the surrounding area. It’s also known as a high plain or tableland.

Barchan: It is a crescent-shaped shifting sand dune. These sand dunes are found in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan.

Delta: Delta is a triangular-shaped low flat land formed at the mouth of the river when the river splits into several branches before entering the sea.

Atoll: It is a ring-shaped coral reef, island or a group of islets surrounding a lagoon.

Lagoon: It is a body of water separated from a larger body of water by a sand bar or reef.

Alluvium: Alluvium refers to loose sediment and soil, primarily composed of materials like silt, clay, sand, and gravel, that has been deposited by flowing water.

Riverine Island: A riverine island is defined as a landmass formed by river deposition in its lower course, where the river's speed and slope decrease, leading to the accumulation of sediments.

Bhabar: ‘Bhabar’ refers to a narrow belt located at the foot of the Shivalik Himalayas, characterised by its pebbly terrain.

Terai: ‘Terai’ refers to a wet, swampy, and marshy region located south of the Bhabar belt, where streams and rivers re-emerge.

Khadar: ‘Khadar’ refers to the newer, younger alluvial deposits found in the floodplains of the Northern Plains.

Bhangar: ‘Bhangar’ refers to the older alluvium found above the floodplains of the river, making up the largest part of the northern plains.

Kankar: ‘Kankar’ refers to the soil found in the Bhangar region, which is a part of the Northern Plains composed of older alluvium. It's characterised by calcareous deposits.

Coral Polyps: Coral polyps are microscopic, short-lived organisms that live in colonies. They secrete calcium carbonate, and their skeletons contribute to the formation of coral reefs.

Coral Polyps

NCERT Zone

Intext Questions

1. Find out the names of glaciers and passes that lie in the Great Himalayas.

Ans. Several glaciers are found in the Great Himalayas. Some important glaciers are given in the table.

State/UT Glaciers

Arunachal Pradesh Bichom Glacier, Kangto Glacier, Mazgol Glacier

Himachal Pradesh

Bada Shigri Glacier, Chhota Shigri Glacier, Parvati and Dudhon Glacier, Sutri Dhaka Glacier

Sikkim Zemu Glacier, Rathong Glacier, Lonak Glacier

Ladakh (UT) Siachen Glacier, Drang-Drung Glacier, Machoi Glacier, Nun Kun Glacier

Uttarakhand Gangotri Glacier, Yamunotri Glacier, Chorabari Galcier, Dakshini Nanda Devi Glacier, Bandarpunch Glacier, Pindari Glacier

2. Find out the names of the states where the highest peaks are located.

Ans. There are many passes through the mountain ranges in India. Some examples are given in the table.

State Passes

Ladakh

Aghil Pass, Khardung La Pass, Zoji La Pass, Lungalacha La Pass

Jammu and Kashmir Banihal Pass, Pir Panjal Pass

Himachal Pradesh Bara Lacha La Pass, Jalori Pass, Rohtang Pass, Shipki La Pass, Kunzum Pass

Uttarakhand Lipulekh Pass, Mana Pass, Mangsha Dhura Pass, Muling La Pass

Arunachal Pradesh Bom Di La Pass, Dihang Pass, Lekhapani Pass, Diphu Pass

Sikkim Nathu La Pass, Jelep La Pass

3. Find out the names of the states where highest peaks are located.

Ans. Some examples of the highest peaks along with the state in which they are located are given in the table.

State Peak Height (in metres)

Sikkim Kanchenjunga 8596

Uttarakhand Nanda Devi 7817

Uttarakhand Kamet 7756

Uttarakhand Trishul Peak 7120

Arunachal Pradesh Gorichen Peak 6858

Kerala Anai Mudi 2695

Tamil Nadu Doda Betta 2637

Odisha Mahendragiri 1501

4. Find out the location of Mussoorie, Nainital, Ranikhet from your atlas and also name the state where they are located.

Ans. The cities Mussoorie, Nainital and Ranikhet are located in the state of Uttarakhand.

NCERT Exercises

1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below.

(i) A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as (a) Coast (b) Island (c) Peninsula (d) None of the above

Ans. (c) Peninsula

(ii) Mountain ranges in the eastern part of India forming its boundary with Myanmar are collectively called (a) Himachal (b) Uttarakhand (c) Purvachal (d) None of the above Ans. (c) Purvachal

(iii) The western coastal strip, south of Goa is referred to as (a) Coromandel (b) Konkan (c) Kannad (d) Northern Circar

Ans. (c) Kannad

(iv) The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats is (a) Anai Mudi (b) Kanchenjunga (c) Mahendragiri (d) Khasi

Ans. (c) Mahendragiri

2. Answer the following questions briefly.

(i) What is bhabar?

(ii) Name the three major divisions of the Himalayas from north to south.

(iii) Which plateau lies between the Aravali and the Vindhyan ranges?

(iv) Name the island group of India having coral origin.

Ans. (i) Bhabar is the deposit of pebbles brought down by rivers descending from the mountains. It is found in a narrow belt of 8 to 16 km in width. This belt lies parallel to the slopes of the Shiwaliks. All the streams disappear in this bhabar belt.

(ii) The three major ranges of the Himalayas from north to south:

• The Great or Inner Himalayas: The average height of this range is 6,000 metres above sea level. Prominent peaks are found in this range.

• The Himachal or Lesser Himalayas: This range lies to the south of the Great Himalayas. The altitude ranges between 3,700 and 4,500 metres above sea level, and width is around 50 km. Some important ranges are the Pir Panjal range, the Mahabharat range, and Dhaula Dhar range. The valleys of Kashmir, Kullu and Kangra valleys of Himachal Pradesh are in the Himachal.

• The Shiwaliks: This is the outermost range of the Himalayas. The altitude varies between 900 and 100 metres, and the width is 10–50 km.

(iii) The Malwa Plateau lies between the Aravali and the Vindhyan ranges. It lies in the region of the Central Highlands.

(iv) Lakshadweep Islands are of coral origin.

3. Distinguish between

(i) Bhangar and Khadar

(ii) Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats

Ans. (i) Differences between bhangar and khadar:

Bhangar Khadar

Largest part of the Northern Plain is formed of older alluvium known as bhangar.

Floodplains with newer, younger deposits are called khadar.

Bhangar Khadar

This soil is found on the floodplains of the rivers and have a terrace-like feature.

This soil is infertile and not suitable for agriculture.

This old alluvial soil contains calcareous deposits known as kankar.

The floodplains are renewed almost every year.

The soil is very fertile and suitable for agriculture.

This soil is composed of sand, silt and clay, and has adequate proportion of potash, phosphoric acid and lime.

(ii) Differences between Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats:

Western Ghats Eastern Ghats

The Western Ghats form the Western boundary of the Deccan Plateau.

Western Ghats are continuous and can be crossed through passes only.

The average elevation is 900–1600 metres.

They lie parallel to the Arabian Sea.

The highest peak in Western Ghats are Anai Mudi (2,695 metres) and Doda Betta (2,637 metres).

The Eastern Ghats form the Eastern boundary of the Deccan Plateau.

Eastern Ghats are discontinuous and irregular.

Average elevation is 600 metres.

They lie parallel to the Bay of Bengal.

The highest peak in Eastern Ghats is Mahendragiri (1,501 metres). Other prominent hills are Shevroy Hills and the Javadi Hills located to the southeast of the Eastern Ghats.

The highest peak in Western Ghats are Anai Mudi (2,695 metres) and Doda Betta (2,637 metres).

The highest peak in Eastern Ghats is Mahendragiri (1,501 metres).

4. Which are the major physiographic divisions of India? Contrast the relief of the Himalayan region with that of the Peninsular Plateau.

Ans. The major physiographic divisions of India are:

• The Himalayan Mountains

• The Northern Plains

• The Peninsular Plateau

• The Indian Desert

• The Coastal Plains

• The Islands

Contrast the relief of the Himalayan region with that of the Peninsular Plateau:

Himalayan Region

Himalayas are recent landforms.

The Himalayan Mountain region is unstable and prone to earthquakes.

The core of the Great Himalayas is composed of granite. The lesser Himalayas are composed of highly compressed and altered rocks.

The Eastern Hills are composed of sedimentary rocks.

The topography of the Himalayas is rugged.

It has lofty peaks, deep valleys and fast-flowing rivers.

Peninsular Plateau

Peninsular plateau is one of the ancient landmasses on the Earth’s surface.

The Peninsular plateau is one of the most stable landmasses.

It is composed of old crystalline, igneous and metamorphic rocks.

They have broad, shallow valleys and low rounded hills.

The Himalayan region forms an arc, and runs in west-east direction from Indus to Brahmaputra. It is a triangular landmass and lies to the south of river Narmada.

The average height ranges between 6000–900 metres.

The Himalayan rivers are perennial.

The average height varies between 1600–600 metres.

The Peninsular rivers are non-perennial. (seasonal)

5. Give an account of the Northern Plains of India.

Ans.

• The Northern Plains have been formed over millions of years at the foothills of the Himalayas by the alluvial deposits of three main rivers—the Indus, the Ganga, and the Brahmaputra—and their tributaries.

• The plains cover an area of 7 lakh sq.km., stretching over 2400 km in length and 240–320 km in width.

• The fertile alluvial soil, availability of water, and favourable climate make the region suitable for agriculture. Therefore, the region is densely populated.

• The Northern Plains is divided into three parts:

o The Punjab Plains have been formed by river Indus and its tributaries. The plains are dominated by doabs.

o The Ganga Plains stretch from Ghaggar to Teesta rivers. It covers Haryana, Delhi, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, parts of Jharkhand, and West Bengal.

The Brahmaputra Plain lies to the east of the Ganga Plains and covers Assam.

6. Write short notes on the following.

(i) The Indian desert (ii) The Central Highlands (iii) The Island groups of India Ans. (i) The Indian Desert:

• The Indian Desert, also called the Great Indian Desert is located to the west of the Aravali ranges.

• The topography of the region is undulating.

• It is covered with sand dunes.

• Crescent-shaped dunes, known as barchans dominate the landscape. Longitudinal dunes are seen near the Indo-Pakistan border.

• This region has dry or arid climate.

• It receives scanty rainfall, of about 150 mm annually.

• Streams that appear during the rainy season soon disappear into the sand as they do not carry much water to reach the sea.

• It supports vegetation such as cacti and acacia.

• Luni is the only big river in this desert region.

(ii) The Central Highlands:

• The Peninsular Plateau is divided into the Central Highlands and the Deccan Plateau.

• The Central Highlands is located north of the Narmada River. It covers a large part of the Malwa Plateau.

• They are bound by Vindhya range on the south and the Aravali range on the northwest.

• They merge with the sandy and rocky desert of Rajasthan in the west.

• Major rivers flowing through the Highland region are Chambal, Sind, Betwa, and Ken. They flow from southwest to northeast, indicating the gradient of the slope.

• They are wider in the west and narrower in the east.

(iii) The Island Groups of India:

The Lakshadweep, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands are the two island groups of India.

Lakshadweep Islands:

• Lakshadweep Islands are located in the Arabian Sea, close to the Malabar Coast of Kerala.

• They are composed of small coral islands.

• Laccadive, Minicoy, and Amindive Islands were renamed as Lakshadweep in 1973.

• Kavaratti is the administrative headquarters of the island.

• The area of the island is 32 sq. km.

• The island has diverse flora and fauna. The Pitti Island has a bird sanctuary. This island is uninhabited.

Andaman and Nicobar Islands:

• Andaman and Nicobar Islands is an archipelago in the Bay of Bengal.

• The Andaman Islands is in the north and the Nicobar Islands is in the south.

• Port Blair is the administrative headquarter of this island group.

• These islands are bigger in size, more numerous and scattered than the Lakshadweep Islands.

• These islands are elevated portions of submarine mountains.

• They have a variety of flora and fauna.

• These islands are located close to the equator. Hence, they experience equatorial climate.

• They have thick forest cover.

Map Skills

1. On an outline map of India show the following.

• Mountain and hill ranges—the Karakoram, the Zaskar, the Patkai Bum, the Jaintia, the Vindhya range, the Aravali, and the Cardamom hills.

• Peaks—K2, Kanchenjunga, Nanga Parbat and Anai Mudi

• Plateaus, Chotanagpur and Malwa

• The Indian Desert, Western Ghats, Lakshadweep Islands

Ans. Map Skills

Karakoram Range

Zaskar Range

Practice Questions

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. What is the northernmost range of the Himalayas known as?

(a) Dhaula Dhar (b) Himadri (c) Purvachal (c) Himachal

2. Which is the longest and the most important range in the Lesser Himalayas?

(a) Karakoram range (b) Kunlun Mountains (c) Ladakh range (c) Pir Panjal range

3. In which division of the Himalayas, are the Kashmir valley, the Kangra and Kullu valleys located?

(a) Shiwaliks (b) Inner Himalayas

4. What is the average height of the Himalayas in the Shiwaliks?

(a) 1600–900 metres

(b) 1100–900 metres

(d) More than 6000 metres

5. Choose the correct pair about the division of Himalayas based on regions from west to east from the following options:

(a) Assam Himalayas—between Teesta and Dihang

(b) Punjab Himalayas—between Satluj and Kali

(d) Kumaon Himalayas—between Indus and Satluj

6. Which one of these hills do NOT belong to the Purvachal?

(a) Mizo hills (b) Manipur hills

7. Choose the correctly matched pair about the deposition in the Ganga Plains from the following options:

(a) Deposit of pebbles in a narrow belt of about 8–16 km lying parallel to the slopes of Shiwalik: bhangar

(b) A wet, swampy and marshy region: bhabar

(d) Newer, younger deposits of the floodplain, and fertile for agriculture: khadar

8. In which plains are doabs found?

(a) Ganga plains

(b) Brahmaputra plains

(d) Punjab plains

9. How have the Punjab Plains formed?

(a) By deposition of silt by river Indus and its tributaries

(b) By deposition of silt by river Brahmaputra and its tributaries

(d) By deposition of silt by river Satluj and its tributaries

10. Dudhwa National Park is located in which region of the Northern Plains?

(a) Doab (b) Terai

11. What is the name of the largest inhabited riverine island in the world?

(a) Sunderban

(b) Peacock Island

(d) Molai Island

12. How have the Peninsular plateaus formed?

(a) Collision of the Gondwanaland

(b) Breaking and drifting of the Gondwanaland

(d) By coastal sand deposition and consolidation

13. Identify the part of the Peninsular Plateau with the help of following clues.

(i) The rivers Chambal, Sind, Betwa, and Ken drain this region.

(ii) The plateau is wider in the west and narrower in the east.

(iii) The eastward extension of this plateau is locally known as the Bundelkhand and Baghelkhand.

(a) Deccan Plateau

(b) Chotanagpur Plateau

(d) Karbi-Anglong Plateau

14. Which range marks the northern border of the Deccan Plateau?

(a) Vindhya range (b) Mahabharat ranges

15. What is the gradient of the slope of the Deccan Plateau?

(a) Higher in the east and gently sloping westwards

(b) Higher in the west and gently sloping eastwards

(d) Higher in the north and gently sloping southwards

16. Where is the Indian Desert located?

(a) On the western margins of the Aravali range

(b) On the western margins of the Satpura range

(d) On the eastern margins of the Karakoram range

17. What type of dunes are found in Jaisalmer?

(a) Longitudinal dunes

(b) Parabolic dunes

(d) Barchans

18. What is the northern part of the Eastern Coastal Plain called?

(a) Kannad Plain (b) Northern Circar

19. Which island is uninhabited and has a bird sanctuary?

(a) Pitti (b) Minicoy

20. Where are the Nicobar Islands situated?

(a) To the west of Andaman, in the Bay of Bengal

(b) To the south of Andaman, in the Bay of Bengal

(d) To the north of Andaman, in the Arabian Sea

21. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: The Himalayas are the highest and the most rugged mountain ranges of the world.

Statement II: The Himalayas consist of three parallel ranges in its longitudinal section.

(a) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.

(b) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.

(d) Both statements I and II are correct.

22. Consider the following statements describing the features of the Terai belt and choose the correct option.

(i) The Terai region is a wet, swampy and marshy region.

(ii) The Terai region is created by streams and rivers.

(iii) Terai lies to the south of the of the Bhangar region of the Northern Plains.

(a) Only I is correct.

(b) Only II is correct.

(d) All are correct.

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion (A): The Indian Desert has arid climate with very limited vegetation.

Reason (R): The Indian Desert receives adequate rainfall throughout the year.

2. Assertion (A): The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are believed to be elevated portion of submarine mountains.

Reason (R): The Andaman and Nicobar Islands part of a chain of underwater volcanic mountains.

3. Assertion (A): The Eastern Ghats have higher elevation than the Western Ghats.

Reason (R): The average elevation of Eastern Ghats is 600 metres.

4. Assertion (A): There are variations in relief in the Northern Plains.

Reason (R): The western part of the Northern Plains is known as the Punjab Plains.

5. Assertion (A): The Deccan Plateau is a highly rugged and uneven area.

Reason (R): It is characterised by volcanic activity and a variety of rock formations.

Picture Based Questions

1. Study the picture given below. It shows vast stretches of agricultural lands at the foothills of the mighty range of young fold mountains.

What is the name of this vast stretch of land?

(a) Western Coastal plains

(b) Northern Plains

(d) Eastern Coastal plains

2. Sand dunes have various formations. This picture is of the sand dunes in the Indian desert, in Rajasthan.

What type of sand dunes do you see in this picture?

(a) Longitudinal dunes

(b) Parabolic dunes

(d) Crescent-shaped dunes

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30-40 words)

1. Name the most important mountain range that stretches across the northern borders of India.

2. What are the three parallel ranges (in longitudinal extent) of the Himalayas?

3. What are Duns? Name a few prominent Duns.

4. Where is the Purvachal range located? Name the hills of the Purvachal.

5. What is the Peninsular Plateau composed of? What is its origin?

6. What is the importance of the Peninsular Plateau?

7. Explain the extension of the Deccan Plateau in the northeast.

8. What do you understand by the term doab?

9. Define bhabar. State one characteristic of it.

10. Name two hill stations of the southern part of the Western Ghats along with the state in which they are located.

11. Which range lies on the western and northwestern margins of the Peninsular Plateau? Where do they extend up to?

12. What are the three sections of the Western Coastal Plains.

13. Why are the Northern Plains known as the ‘granaries of the country’?

14. What are coral reefs and atolls?

15. Where is Barren Island located? What is it known for?

Short Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. Differentiate between the Inner Himalayas and the Outer Himalayas.

2. Write a short note on the Purvachal mountains.

3. Differentiate between the Western and Eastern Coastal Plains.

4. Describe the features of the Indian Desert.

5. ‘The Andaman and Nicobar Island is of strategic importance to India.’ Comment on the statement.

6. Describe the extent and terrain of India’s Northern Plains.

7. Compare the relief of the Himalayas with that of the Peninsular Plateau.

8. The Northern Mountains of India are the major sources of water and forest wealth. What negative effects can result from uncontrolled exploitation of water and forest resources of the mountains?

9. What are the two divisions of the Peninsular Plateau?

10. Why is the southern part of India, called a peninsula?

11. What are the different sections of the Western Coastal Plain?

Long Answer Questions (100-120 words)

1. Explain the characteristics of the Himalayas.

2. Explain the divisions of the Himalayas from west to east.

3. Discuss the features of the Northern Plains.

4. Give an account of the Deccan Plateau of India.

5. Evaluate the significance of the physiographic divisions of India.

6. Write a short note describing the Island Groups of India.

7. Describe the Barchans.

8. Explain the three parallel ranges of the Himalayas from north to south.

9. Explain the location and features of the Coastal Plains of India.

10. Write a comparison between Khadar and Bhangar.

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

The northernmost range is known as the Great or Inner Himalayas or the Himadri. It is the most continuous range consisting of the loftiest peaks with an average height of 6,000 metres. It contains all prominent Himalayan peaks. The folds of the Great Himalayas are asymmetrical in nature. The core of this part of Himalayas is composed of granite. It is perennially snow bound, and a number of glaciers descend from this range.

(a) What is the average height of the Inner Himalayas?

(b) What are the Inner Himalayas composed of?

2. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

The Brahmaputra marks the eastern-most boundary of the Himalayas. Beyond the Dihang gorge, the Himalayas bend sharply to the south and spread along the eastern boundary of India. They are known as the Purvachal or the Eastern hills and mountains. These hills running through the north-eastern states are mostly composed of strong sandstones, which are sedimentary rocks. Covered with dense forests, they mostly run as parallel ranges and valleys. The Purvachal comprises the Patkai hills, the Naga hills, the Manipur hills and the Mizo hills.

(a) What are these hills composed of?

(b) Name a few hills of this region?

Map Based Questions

1. On the given map of India, mark the following:

(a) Anai Mudi

(b) Kanchenjunga

(d) Zanskar

(e) Aravalli

Arabian Sea

Bay of Bengal

INDIAN OCEAN

2. On the given map of India, mark the following:

(a) Deccan Plateau

(b) Malwa Plateau

(d) Konkan Coast

(e) Northern Circar

Answers

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. (b) Himadri

2. (d) Pir Panjal range

3. (c) Himachal

4. (b) 1100–900 metres

5. (a) Assam Himalayas—between Teesta and Dihang

6. (c) Shevroy hills

7. (d) Newer, younger deposits of the floodplain, and fertile for agriculture: khadar

8. (a) Punjab plains

9. (a) By deposition of silt by river Indus and its tributaries

10. (b) Terai

11. (c) Majuli Island

12. (b) Breaking and drifting of the Gondwanaland

13. (c) Central Highlands

14. (c) Satpura range

15. (b) Higher in the west and gently sloping eastwards

16. (a) On the western margins of the Aravali range

17. (d) Barchans

18. (b) Northern Circar

19. (a) Pitti

20. (b) To the south of Andaman, in the Bay of Bengal

21. (d) Both statements I and II are correct.

22. (d) All are correct.

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

1. (c) A is true but R is false.

2. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

3. (d) A is false and R is true.

4. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

5. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Picture Based Questions

1. (b) Northern Plains

2. (d) Crescent-shaped dunes

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30-40 words)

• The most important mountain range that stretches across the northern borders of India is the Himalayas.

• They are young fold mountains that run in a west-east direction from the river Indus up to the river Brahmaputra.

2. The three parallel ranges (in longitudinal extent) of the Himalayas are:

(i) The Great or Inner Himalayas or the Himadri

(ii) Himachal or Lesser Himalayas

(iii) Outer Himalayas or Shiwaliks

3. • Longitudinal valleys found between the Lesser Himalayas and the Shiwaliks are called Duns.

• Some of the prominent Duns are Dehra Dun, Kotli Dun, and Patli Dun.

4. • The Purvachal is located in the far northeast of India. Therefore, it is also known as the Eastern hills and mountains.

• The hills of Purvachal are the Patkai hills, the Naga hills, the Manipur hills, and the Mizo hills.

5. • The Peninsular Plateau is of volcanic origin. It is composed of old crystalline, igneous and metamorphic rocks.

• It was formed due to the breaking and drifting of Gondwana land and thus, making it a part of the oldest landmass.

• The Peninsular Plateau is a storehouse of minerals. This has led to industrial development in India.

• The plateau is of volcanic origin; therefore, it has black soil, which is very suitable for the growth of cotton.

7. • The Deccan Plateau extends to the northeast as the Meghalaya, Karbi-Anglong Plateau, and North Cachar Hills.

• It is separated from the Chotanagpur Plateau by a fault.

• Hill ranges from west to east are the Garo, the Khasi, and the Jaintia hills.

8. • The term ‘doab’ is made up of two words— ‘do’ meaning ‘two’ and ‘ab’ meaning ‘water’.

• ‘Doabs’ are found in the Punjab Plains.

• It refers to the land between two river systems in Punjab.

• When the rivers descend from the mountains, they deposit pebbles in a narrow belt of 8–16 km in width.

• This belt lies parallel to the slopes of the Shiwaliks.

• This belt is known as bhabar. The streams disappear in this belt and re-emerge in the terai region.

12.

• The Western Coastal Plains have three sections.

• The northern part of the coast is along Mumbai-Goa and is known as the Konkan Coast.

• The central stretch is known as the Kannad Plain.

• The southern stretch is called the Malabar Coast.

13.

• The Northern Plains are known as the ‘granaries of India’ because the fertile alluvial soil makes the region suitable for agriculture.

• A variety of crops are grown in this region. The early civilisations had also developed in these plains.

14.

• Coral polyps are short-lived microscopic organisms that help in the formation of coral reefs by secreting calcium carbonate.

• This secretion and their skeletons form coral deposits in the form of reefs.

• Atolls are circular or horse-shoe shaped coral reefs.

15. • Barren Island is an island in the Andaman and Nicobar group of Islands.

• It is known for its active volcano which is the only active volcano of India.

Short

Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. Differences between the Inner Himalayas and the Outer Himalayas:

Inner Himalayas Outer Himalayas

It is the northernmost range of Himalayas. It is the outermost range of the Himalayas. The average altitude of this range is 6000 metres. The average altitude of this range is 900–1100 metres.

10.

• Two popular hill stations in the southern part of the Western Ghats are Ooty and Kodaikanal.

• They are located in Tamil Nadu, India.

• Ooty is in the Nilgiri hills, while Kodaikanal is in the Palani hills.

11.

• The Aravali hills lie on the western and northwestern margins of the Peninsular Plateau.

• These hills extend from Gujarat to Delhi in a southwest-northeast direction.

The core of this Himalayan range is composed of granite. This range is composed of unconsolidated sediments brought down by rivers from the mountains. It is covered by thick gravel and alluvium.

2. • Purvachal refers to the Eastern Himalayas.

• The Brahmaputra marks the eastern boundary of the Himalayas.

• Beyond the Dihang gorge, the Himalayas make a sharp bend to the south and spread along the eastern boundary of the country.

• Purvachal comprises parallel ranges and valleys, primarily composed of strong sandstones, which are sedimentary rocks.

• It includes hill ranges such as the Patkai, the Naga, Manipur, and the Mizo hills.

3. Difference between the Western and Eastern Coastal Plains:

Western Coastal Plain Eastern Coastal Plain

It is located between the Arabian Sea and the Western Ghats.

It is located between the Bay of Bengal and the Eastern Ghats.

They are narrower and more rugged than the Eastern Coastal Plains. They are broader and have more leveled topography.

Rivers, such as Narmada and Tapi flow swiftly and do not form deltas.

Rivers such as Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna form extensive deltas.

Western Coastal Plain Eastern Coastal Plain

It is divided into three parts: the Northern part is called the Konkan, the central part is called the Kannad Plain, and the southern part is called the Malabar Coast.

It is divided into two parts: the Northern part is called Northern Circar and the southern part is called Coromandel Coast.

4. Features of the Indian Desert:

• The Indian Desert lies on the western margin of the Aravali hills.

• It has undulating sandy terrain covered with sand dunes.

o Crescent-shaped dunes called barchans dominate the landscape, especially in Jaisalmer.

o Towards the Indo-Pakistan border, longitudinal dunes are seen.

• It receives scanty rainfall, below 150 mm annually. It experiences arid climate.

• Streams that appear during the rainy season, are quickly absorbed in the sand. Luni is the only large river flowing through this desert.

• It is sparsely vegetated.

5. The statement “The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are of strategic importance to India” is accurate because:

• Their geographical location allows India to monitor and protect its maritime boundary and trade interests in the Indo-Pacific region.

• It acts as a crucial gateway to Southeast Asia, and provides a vital defence outpost against potential threats, particularly considering China’s growing influence in the area.

• The Northern Plains of India, extend from the Punjab region in the northwest to the Brahmaputra Valley in the east.

• They are a vast flat fertile expanse formed by the deposition of alluvial soil from major rivers like the Ganga, Yamuna, and Brahmaputra.

• It is one of the most productive agricultural areas in India, with crops such as wheat, rice, and sugarcane.

Himalayas Peninsular Plateau

The region features some of the world’s highest peaks, including Mount Everest.

The region is characterised by flat-topped hills, plateau regions, and gently sloping terrain.

It comprises a long chain of rugged, young mountains with sharp peaks, deep valleys, and extensive glaciers. It comprises many smaller mountain ranges and includes several highlands and major plateaus, such as the Deccan Plateau.

• If there is uncontrolled exploitation of water and forest resources, the biodiversity of the region will be affected on a large scale.

• There will be loss of natural habitat for the wildlife, followed by climatic changes.

• So, the natural resources in the mountains should be used judiciously, without harming its ecology. Deforestation should be controlled with reforestation.

9. (i) The Central Highlands: It is the part of the Peninsular Plateau to the north of the Narmada River, covering a major part of the Malwa plateau. The eastward extensions of this plateau are known as Bundelkhand and Baghelkhand.

(ii) The Deccan Plateau: It is a triangular landmass located to the south of river Narmada. An extension of the Plateau is the Meghalaya, Karbi-Anglong Plateau and North Cachar Hills.

10. • A peninsula is a protruding piece of land that is surrounded by water on three sides.

• The southern part of India is surrounded by water on three sides—the Arabian Sea in the South West, the Indian Ocean to the South, and the Bay of Bengal in the South East. Hence, it is called a peninsula.

11. • The Western Coastal Plain is located between the Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea.

• It is a narrow plain which consists of three sections, as mentioned below:

(i) The northern part of the coast is called the Konkan (between Mumbai – Goa).

(ii) The central stretch is called the Kannad Plain.

(iii) The southern stretch is referred to as the Malabar coast.

Long Answer Questions (100-120 words)

1. The features of the Himalayas are as follows:

• The Himalayas are young fold mountains.

• They stretch over the northern borders of India, like a huge arc.

• The mountain ranges run in a west-east direction in the form of an arc from the Indus to the Brahmaputra.

• They cover a distance of 2,400 km and width varies from 400 km in Kashmir to 150 km in Arunachal Pradesh.

• They have lofty peaks, passes, glaciers, ranges, valleys, and Duns. There are three parallel ranges of the Himalayas—the Himadri, the Himachal, and the Shiwaliks. Mt Everest (8,848 m) and Kanchenjunga (8,598 m) are located in the Himadri ranges.

• The folds of the Great Himalayas are asymmetrical in nature. The core of this part of Himalayas is composed of granite. It is perennially snow bound and has a number of glaciers.

• The variations in altitude are more in the eastern half than in the western half.

2. The regional divisions of the Himalayas from west to east have been marked by river valleys. There are four divisions which are as follows:

• Kashmir and Himachal Himalayas: The Himalayas between the rivers Indus and

Satluj are known as Punjab Himalayas and locally known as Kashmir and Himachal Himalayas.

• Kumaon Himalayas: The Himalayas located between the rivers Satluj and Kali are known as Kumaon Himalayas.

• Nepal Himalayas: The Himalayas located between the rivers Kali and Teesta are called the Nepal Himalayas.

• The Assam Himalayas lie between the rivers Teesta and Dihang. The Himalayas beyond the Dihang river, bend sharply to the south, and are known as the Purvachal or the Eastern hills and mountains. The Brahmaputra marks the eastern boundary of the Himalayas.

3. Features of the Northern Plains:

• The Northern Plains stretch about 2,400 kilometres in length and 240 to 320 kilometres in width.

• It is formed by the sediment deposited by major rivers like the Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra.

• The plains are characterised by fertile alluvial soil, making it one of the most agriculturally productive regions in India.

• The Northern Plains are divided into three sections—the Punjab Plains in the west, the Ganga Plain in the centre, and the Brahmaputra Plain in the east.

• It is traversed by multiple rivers and their tributaries, which lead to the formation of doabs in Punjab, as well as riverine islands like Majuli in Brahmaputra.

• South of the Shiwaliks is a swampy area known as the terai region. It is well-known for its rich biodiversity and is a crucial habitat for wildlife.

4. An account of the Deccan Plateau:

• The Deccan Plateau is a triangular landmass, south of the Narmada River. It lies in the Peninsular part of the Indian sub-continent.

• It is bordered by the Satpura range in the north. The Mahadev, the Kaimur hills, and the Maikal range form its eastward extensions.

• The elevation of the plateau is higher in the west and it slopes gently eastwards. The rivers of the Deccan originate in the hills of the Western Ghats and flow westwards.

• The plateau extends eastwards into the northeast as the Meghalaya, the KarbiAnglong Plateau, and North Cachar hills.

• It is separated from the Chotanagpur Plateau by a fault. The prominent hill ranges from west to east of the plateau are the Garo, the Khasi, and the Jaintia Hills.

5. Each physiographic division of India has distinct features that makes it unique and contributes to the development and economy of the country.

• The Northern Mountains form a natural boundary in the north.

• The northern rivers bring down silt from the mountains and deposit them in the plains, forming fertile plains.

• The rivers originating in the Himalayas are perennial, hence they are important source for irrigation in the Northern Plains.

• The mountains are a rich source of forest resources.

• The fertile alluvial soil of the Northern Plains makes it the most agriculturally productive region of India. It is known as the ‘granary of the country’. This region supports the largest population of the country because of agriculture and industry.

• Fast-flowing rivers of the Northern Plains and also the Deccan are tapped for generating hydroelectricity.

• The plateau is a storehouse of minerals. This has helped in industrial growth. The plateau has rich black soil of volcanic origin which is ideal for growing cotton.

• The islands and coastal areas provide ideal sites for ports, sea trade, and fishing.

6. (i) Andaman and Nicobar Islands:

• Located in the Bay of Bengal.

• They comprise about 572 islands, with the Nicobar Islands located to the south of the Andaman group.

• They have diverse ecosystems, including tropical rainforests, coral reefs, and mangroves.

• They are strategically important due to their location and are renowned for their unique indigenous tribes, such as the Great Andamanese and the Jarawas.

(ii) Lakshadweep Islands:

• Located in the Arabian Sea.

• It is an archipelago of 36 coral islands, located off the southwestern coast of India.

• It is famous for its clear blue waters, vibrant coral reefs, and marine life.

• It is a popular destination for tourism and water sports, offering stunning beaches and a serene environment.

7. Barchans are crescent-shaped dunes that form in the sandy deserts with a predominant wind direction. They have the following characteristics:

Shape and Formation: Barchans have a curved or crescent shape, with the open side facing the direction of the prevailing wind. They form when the wind blows consistently from one direction, causing sand to accumulate on the leeward side of an obstacle or in a region where the wind’s speed decreases.

Movement: Barchans shift slowly across the desert as the wind continually moves sand from the windward side to the leeward side. The movement is gradual.

Size and Scale: Barchans can vary in size from small hills to large dunes. Their size and shape are influenced by the availability of sand and the intensity of the wind.

8. The three parallel ranges of the Himalayas: (i) The Great or Inner Himalayas or Himadri:

• It is the northernmost range.

• It is the most continuous range with the loftiest peaks having an average height of 6,000 metres.

• The folds are asymmetrical in nature.

• The core of this part of the Himalayas is composed of granite.

(ii) The Lesser Himalaya or Himachal:

• It lies to the south of the Himadri.

• It is the most rugged mountain system.

• Pir Panjal range forms the longest and the most important range.

(iii) The Outer Himalayas or Shiwaliks:

• It is the outermost range of the Himalayas.

• It is composed of unconsolidated sediments.

• The longitudinal valleys lying between the lesser Himalayas and the Shiwaliks are known as ‘duns’. Some well-known ‘duns’ are Dehradun, Kotli Dun and Patli Dun.

9. Eastern and Western Coastal Plains:

(i) Eastern Coastal Plain

• The Eastern Coastal Plains is a wide stretch of landmass lying between the Eastern Ghats and the Bay of Bengal.

• Its northern part is known as Northern Circar and the southern part as Coromandel Coast.

• Large rivers, such as the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri, have formed extensive delta on this coast.

• Lake Chilika is an important feature along this coast.

(ii) Western Coastal Plain

• The western coast lies between the Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea.

• It is a narrow plain and consists of three sections, as mentioned below:

o The northern part of the plain is called the Konkan (Mumbai – Goa).

o The central part is called the Kannad Plain.

o The southern part is called the Malabar coast.

10. Bhangar Khadar

It is found in the older alluvial deposits of the river plains, typically situated on the higher and older terraces.

Composed of clayey soil and is often less fertile compared to Khadar.

Has a coarser texture with more clay and less silt.

Generally, appears as a reddish or brownish soil due to the presence of iron oxides.

Lower fertility due to leaching and older deposits.

It is found in the newer alluvial deposits, typically in the lower, flood-prone areas near riverbeds.

Consists of finer, more recent deposits and is usually more fertile.

Has a finer texture with more silt and sand, making it more suitable for agriculture

Often lighter in colour, such as grey or yellowish, due to its relatively recent formation.

Higher fertility because it is enriched with nutrients deposited by river floods.

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1

(a) The average height of the Inner Himalayas is 6,000 metres above sea level.

(b) The core of the Inner Himalayas is composed of granite.

(c) The rivers originating from the Himalayas are perennial in nature because the Great Himalayas are perennially snow bound, and a number of glaciers descend from this range. This becomes a permanent source of water for the northern rivers.

Passage 2

(a) The Purvachal are composed of strong sandstones, which are sedimentary rocks.

(b) The Patkai hills, the Naga hills, the Manipur hills, and the Mizo hills are part of Eastern hills.

(c) The Brahmaputra River marks the eastern boundary of the Himalayas. After crossing the Dihang gorge, the Himalayas take a sharp bend to the south and spread along the eastern boundary of the country. Therefore, they are known as the Eastern hills.

Map Based Questions

(e) Aravalli

(d) Zanskar

(b) Kanchenjunga

(a) Anai Mudi

Arabian Sea

Bay of Bengal

INDIAN OCEAN

(e) Northern Circar

(a) Deccan Plateau

(d) Konkan Coas t

(c) Lake Chilika

(b) Malwa Plateau

SELF-ASSESSMENT

Time: 1 Hour

Section A

Choose and write the correct answer for each of the following. (1 × 8 = 8 Marks)

1. Which of the following features best describes the Himalayas?

A. The Himalayas are lofty mountains with one of the most rugged mountain barriers of the world.

B. The altitudinal variations are greater in the eastern half than the western half.

C. The Himalayas run in a west-east direction from the Indus to the Brahmaputra.

D. The Himalayas are young fold mountains.

(a) Only A (b) Both A and B

2. Between which two rivers are the Nepal Himalayas situated?

(a) Kali and Teesta

(b) Teesta and Dihang

(d) Indus and Satluj

3. Which soil is of volcanic origin?

(a) Alluvial soil

(b) Red and yellow soil

(d) Arid soil

4. Which is the only river that flows through the Indian desert?

(a) Luni

(b) Teesta

(d) Ken

5. In which State of India is the largest salt water lake located?

(a) Rajasthan

(b) Odisha

(d) Gujarat

Scan me for all answers.

Max. Marks: 40

6. Where is the active volcano of India located?

(a) Lakshadweep Island

(b) Daman and Diu

(d) Dadar and Nager Haveli

7. What are riverine islands?

(a) Horse-shoe shaped islands formed by rivers in their middle course

(b) Islands formed by underwater volcanic activity

(d) An island formed within a river, usually in its lower course, due to depositional processes

8. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Coral polyps secrete calcium carbonate.

Reason (R): Atolls are horse shoe-shaped coral reefs and usually surround a lagoon.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Section B

Answer the following questions.

9. Name the hills that are a part of the eastern extent of the Deccan Plateau. (2 Marks)

10. How do the Himalayas affect the climate of India? (2 Marks)

11. What are the terms terai, bhangar, and kankar associated with? (3 Marks)

12. Critically analyse the climate and vegetation of the Indian desert. (3 Marks)

13. What are the main features of the Western Coastal Plains? (3 Marks)

14. Mark and label the following on the map of India: (4 Marks)

(a) Shiwalik Range

(b) Deccan Region

(d) Northern Circar

15. Describe the unique features of the Himachal range of the Himalayas. (5 Marks)

16. Describe the Central Highlands of the Peninsular Plateau. (5 Marks)

17. Discuss in detail the features of the Eastern Ghats. (5 Marks)

3 Drainage

The chapter on drainage provides a comprehensive overview of India’s river systems, focusing on the Himalayan and Peninsular rivers, their tributaries, and drainage patterns. It also covers river basins, water divides, and the importance of rivers and lakes for India’s economy and ecology. The chapter highlights the role of rivers in agriculture, transportation, and water sources. Furthermore, it explores the major river valley projects for agriculture and hydroelectricity, as well as the conservation efforts for maintaining these vital water resources that support human livelihoods in India.

Drainage

Drainage: The system of rivers and streams draining an area

Drainage Basin: Area drained by a river and its tributaries

Water Divide: Elevated area separating two drainage basins

Major Drainage Systems

Himalayan Rivers

• Perennial (flow year-round)

• Snow-fed + Rain-fed

Peninsular Rivers

Godavari: Longest

Peninsular River (“Dakshin Ganga”)

Krishna, Mahanadi, Cauvery: Flow eastward into Bay of Bengal

Narmada, Tapi: Flow westward into Arabian Sea

Peninsular Rivers

• Seasonal (rain-fed)

• Flow over hard, rocky terrain

Indus River System

• Origin: Tibet

• Tributaries: Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Sutlej

• Flows through Punjab (India and Pakistan)

Lakes in India

Freshwater Lakes

Formed by glaciers, tectonic activity E.g., Wular Lake (Jammu & Kashmir), Bhimtal (Uttarakhand)

Irrigation Navigation & Transport Drinking Water

Hydropower Generation Cultural/Religious Importance

Major River Systems

Ganga River System

• Origin: Gangotri Glacier (Bhagirathi)

• Tributaries: Yamuna, Ghaghara, Gandak, Kosi, Son

Brahmaputra River System

• Origin: Tibet

• Enters India through Arunachal Pradesh

• Prone to floods and erosion

Importance of Rivers

Saltwater Lakes E.g., Chilika Lake (Odisha): largest coastal lake in India, Sambhar Lake (Rajasthan)

Namami Gange Programme

Conservation Efforts

River Pollution

Causes: Industrial waste, sewage, religious rituals, plastic

Effects: Loss of biodiversity, waterborne diseases, unfit for use

Key Terms and Definitions

Drainage System: The drainage system comprises rivers and streams that drain specific areas into larger water bodies.

Perennial: ‘Perennial’ refers to rivers (or streams) that flow continuously throughout the year, regardless of the season.

Himalayan Rivers: Himalayan rivers are the rivers that originate from the Himalayan ranges. They are perennial, and provide crucial water sources from the melting snow.

Peninsular Rivers: Peninsular Rivers are the rivers that originate in the Peninsular Plateau region of India. These rivers are mostly seasonal, which means they have water mainly during the rainy season because they are fed by rainfall.

Drainage Basin: A drainage basin is an area drained by a single river system. It includes the main river and all its tributaries.

Water Divide: A water divide is a highland or ridge that separates two drainage basins.

Headwaters: Headwaters refer to the smaller streams or springs that form the source of a larger river. These streams combine to create the main river as it flows downstream.

Estuary: An estuary is a partially enclosed coastal body of water where freshwater from rivers mixes with saltwater from the ocean.

Riverine Island: A riverine island is an island formed within a river or river system, meaning it’s a landmass surrounded by river water. These islands are often created by the deposition of sediment in the riverbed, resulting in changes to the river’s course.

NCERT Zone

Intext Questions

1. Which river has the largest basin in India?

Ans. The Ganga River has the largest basin in India, covering a significant region across northern India and supporting a major portion of the country’s population.

2. Find out the name of the biggest waterfall in India.

Ans. The biggest waterfall in India is Kunchikal Falls, located in the Shimoga district of Karnataka. It stands at a height of 455 meters (1,493 feet). The Varahi River is the source of this massive waterfall.

Activity

1. Make a list of natural and artificial lakes with the help of the atlas.

Ans. Natural Lakes in India

(i) Wular Lake – Jammu and Kashmir

(ii) Dal Lake – Jammu and Kashmir

(iii) Chilika Lake – Odisha

(iv) Sambhar Lake – Rajasthan

(v) Vembanad Lake – Kerala

Artificial Lakes in India

(i) Govind Sagar Lake – Himachal Pradesh (on Bhakra Dam)

(ii) Hussain Sagar Lake – Telangana

(iii) Nagarjuna Sagar Lake – Telangana/Andhra Pradesh

(iv) Rana Pratap Sagar Lake – Rajasthan

(v) Mettur Lake – Tamil Nadu

NCERT Exercises

1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below.

(i) In which of the following states is the Wular lake located?

(a) Rajasthan (b) Uttar Pradesh

Ans. (d) Jammu and Kashmir

(ii) The river Narmada has its source at (a) Satpura (b) Brahmagiri

Ans. (c) Amarkantak

(iii) Which one of the following lakes is a salt water lake?

(a) Sambhar (b) Dal

Ans. (a) Sambhar

(iv) Which one of the following is the longest river of the Peninsular India?

(a) Narmada (b) Krishna

Ans. (c) Godavari

(v) Which one amongst the following rivers flows through a rift valley?

(a) Mahanadi (b) Tungabhadra

Ans. (d) Tapi

2. Answer the following questions briefly.

(i) What is meant by a water divide? Give an example.

Ans. A water divide, also known as a drainage divide, is an elevated area such as a mountain or an upland that separates two drainage basins. An example of a water divide in India is the Western Ghats, which separates the westflowing rivers that drain into the Arabian Sea from the east-flowing rivers that drain into the Bay of Bengal.

(ii) Which is the largest river basin in India?

Ans. The Ganga River has the largest river basin in India. It covers over 2500 km in length and forms a vast drainage network in northern India.

(iii) Where do the rivers Indus and Ganga have their origin?

Ans. • The Indus River originates near Lake Mansarowar in Tibet, while the Ganga River originates from the Gangotri Glacier in Uttarakhand.

• Both rivers are part of the Himalayan drainage system and are fed by glaciers.

(iv) Name the two headstreams of the Ganga. Where do they meet to form the Ganga?

Ans. The two headstreams of the Ganga are the Bhagirathi and the Alaknanda. These rivers meet at Devaprayag in Uttarakhand, India, to form the main Ganga River, which then flows through the northern plains of India and eventually into the Bay of Bengal.

(v) Why does the Brahmaputra in its Tibetan part have less silt, despite a longer course?

Ans. • In Tibet, the Brahmaputra flows through a region with a cold and dry climate, which results in a lower volume of water and less silt.

• The geological conditions in this part lack substantial sediment input from tributaries or additional erosion, results in silt-less flow despite its lengthy course.

(vi) Which two Peninsular rivers flow through trough?

Ans. The two Peninsular rivers that flow through troughs are:

(a) The Narmada (b) The Tapi (vii) State some economic benefits of rivers and lakes.

Ans. Rivers and lakes offer numerous economic benefits:

• Irrigation for agriculture, which supports food security.

• They facilitate transportation and trade routes, enhancing connectivity and commerce.

• Hydropower production from rivers provides renewable energy.

• Lakes beautify their surroundings, boosting tourism and providing recreational opportunities.

• They also sustain fisheries, promoting employment and contributing to local economies.

3. Below are given names of a few lakes of India. Group them under two categories—natural and created by human beings.

(a) Wular (b) Dal

(e) Gobind Sagar (f) Loktak

(g) Barapani Sambhar (h) Chilika

(i) Sambhar (j) Rana Pratap Sagar

(k) Nizam Sagar (l) Pulicat

(m) Nagarjuna Sagar (n) Hirakund

Ans. Categorisation of lakes:

Natural Lakes Human-Made Lakes

(a) Wular (a) Gobind Sagar

(b) Dal (b) Rana Pratap Sagar

(d) Bhimtal (d) Nagarjuna Sagar

(e) Loktak (e) Hirakund

(f) Barapani

(g) Chilika

(h) Sambhar

(i) Pulicat

4. Discuss the significant difference between the Himalayan and the Peninsular rivers.

Ans. Significant difference between the Himalayan and the Peninsular rivers:

Himalayan Rivers Peninsular Rivers

Source: Originate in the Himalayan region and are fed by glacial meltwater and monsoon rains.

Water Flow: Perennial, meaning they have a consistent flow of water throughout the year.

River Course: They have long courses, from mountainous regions to the sea. They show significant erosional activity, creating valleys and gorges in their upper courses.

Drainage Basin: Have larger drainage basins.

They are characterised by extensive floodplains and deltas due to their high silt and sediment deposits.

Source: Primarily originate in the Peninsular Plateau and depend on rainfall for their water supply.

Water Flow: Seasonal, meaning they experience higher water levels during the monsoon season and lower levels during the dry season.

River Course: They display shorter courses and less erosional activity. They generally flow through more stable geological regions, leading to the formation of narrower valleys.

Drainage Basin: Have smaller drainage basins.

The Godavari and Krishna rivers, the major eastwardflowing rivers form deltas, while the Narmada and Tapi flow westward through unique rift valleys, forming estuaries instead of deltas.

5. Compare the east flowing and the west flowing rivers of the Peninsular plateau.

Ans. Comparison of east-flowing and west-flowing rivers of the Peninsular Plateau.

East-Flowing Rivers West-Flowing Rivers

Origin and Flow: Most major rivers in the Peninsular Plateau, like the Godavari, Krishna, Mahanadi, and Kaveri originate from the western Ghats and flow eastward into the Bay of Bengal.

Tributary System: They have well-developed and large tributary systems and basins contributing to their length and volume.

Delta Formation:

These rivers carry more sediments and form deltas on the eastern coast, where they deposit sediments as they flow into the Bay of Bengal.

Plateau Region: These rivers primarily traverse the Peninsular Plateau.

Origin and Flow: The Narmada and Tapi rivers are the two major west-flowing rivers. The Narmada originates in the Amarkantak Hills, while the Tapi rises in the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh, within the Satpura ranges.

Tributary System: Westflowing rivers generally have fewer and smaller tributaries and smaller basins compared to the east-flowing rivers.

Estuary Formation: Instead of forming deltas, west-flowing rivers like the Narmada and Tapi form estuaries due to their rapid flow and less sediment accumulation, when they meet the sea.

Rift Valley: The Narmada and Tapi rivers flow through a rift valley.

6. Why are rivers important for the country’s economy?

Ans. Rivers hold immense economic importance for India, supporting agriculture, industry, and domestic needs.

• They provide essential water for irrigation, helping sustain agricultural activities that form the backbone of India’s economy.

• Major river systems support fertile plains, crucial for crop production and food security.

• Rivers serve as vital water sources for drinking and sanitation, supporting urban and rural communities.

• Rivers also enable hydropower generation, contributing to the country’s energy needs and supporting industrial growth.

Example: Ganga, Brahmaputra, Indus

Example: Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri

• River banks have historically supported trade and transportation, fostering economic development.

• Tourist attractions like river cruises, water sports, and scenic spots enhance tourism, boosting local economies.

Map Skills

(i) On an outline map of India mark and label the following rivers: Ganga, Satluj, Damodar, Krishna, Narmada, Tapi, Mahanadi, and Brahmaputra.

Ans.

(ii) On an outline map of India mark and label the following lakes: Chilika, Sambhar, Wular, Pulicat, Kolleru.

Project/Activity

Solve this crossword puzzle with the help of given clues.

Across

1. Nagarjuna Sagar is a river valley project. Name the river.

2. The longest river of India.

3. The river which originates from a place known as Beas Kund.

4. The river which rises in the Betul district of MP and flows westwards.

5. The river which was known as the “Sorrow” of West Bengal.

6. The river on which the reservoir for Indira Gandhi Canal has been built.

7. The river whose source lies near Rohtang Pass.

8. The longest river of Peninsular India?

Down

9. A tributary of Indus originating from Himachal Pradesh.

10. The river flowing through fault, drains into the Arabian Sea.

11. A river of south India, which receives rainwater both in summer and winter.

12. A river which flows through Ladakh, Gilgit and Pakistan.

13. An important river of the Indian desert.

14. The river which joins Chenab in Pakistan.

15. A river which rises at Yamunotri glacier.

Ans. Answers to the Crossword Puzzle provided below in tabular form.

Across Down

1. Krishna 9. Chenab

2. Ganga 10. Narmada

3. Beas 11. Kaveri

4. Tapti 12. Indus

5. Damodar 13. Luni

6. Sutlej 14. Sutlej

7. Beas 15. Yamuna

8. Godavari

Practice Questions

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. What feature characterises a dendritic drainage pattern in river systems?

(a) Each stream drains into a separate basin.

(b) Streams converge from different directions into the main river, forming a tree-like pattern.

(d) A network of rivers that cross each other at right angles.

2. Why do Peninsular rivers in India have shorter and more shallow courses compared to Himalayan rivers?

(a) They experience greater erosional activity.

(b) They originate from higher altitudes.

(d) They have more tributaries.

3. What is the primary purpose of human-made lakes in urban areas?

(a) To serve as a source of drinking water

(b) To provide a habitat for aquatic life

(d) To offer space for recreational activities and store water

4. Which statement is NOT true about saltwater lakes?

(a) Saltwater lakes are primarily used for producing salt.

(b) They can form as a result of river action and wind deposits.

(d) Some are permanent, while others fill seasonally with water.

5. Which river conservation measure involves preventing chemicals and pollutants from entering water bodies?

(a) Large-scale fishing programmes

(b) Construction of dams

(d) Wastewater treatment

6. Which of the following is a primary benefit of rivers in hydroelectric power generation in India?

(a) Reducing the need for solar panels nationwide

(b) Enabling extensive coal mining operations.

(d) Providing a constant supply of geothermal energy.

7. In what way do rivers contribute to the socioeconomic development in India?

(a) By largely serving as religious symbols.

(b) By providing water for various human activities.

(d) By supporting industrial activities.

8. What is the impact of rivers on the cultural aspects of Indian society?

(a) They are the centre of cultural festivals.

(b) They help in controlling water pollution.

(d) They are the main source of water for agriculture.

9. Which tributary greatly influences Brahmaputra’s volume and silt content within India?

(a) The Yamuna (b) The Lohit

10. Which river system primarily influences the development of the Sunderban Delta?

(a) Ganga and Brahmaputra River System

(b) Narmada River System

(d) Indus River System

11. Which river forms the second biggest waterfall in India, known as Shivasamudram Falls?

(a) Godavari

(b) Kaveri

(d) Narmada

12. What is the primary reason that the Narmada and Tapi rivers flow westwards?

(a) They are seasonal rivers.

(b) They originate in the Western Ghats.

(d) They flow in rift valleys.

13. Which of the following rivers is known for having a braided channel throughout its length in Assam?

(a) Brahmaputra (b) Ganga

14. Consider a region divided by a mountain range. Which aspect primarily influences the drainage patterns on either side of this mountain range?

(a) The types of soil found in the region

(b) The altitude of the mountain range

(d) The slope and direction of the mountain

15. What is a significant feature of the Ganga River as it emerges from the Himalayas?

(a) It becomes steep and narrow as it joins the Yamuna.

(b) It transitions into the plains, forming significant meanders.

(d) It loses most of its water as it reaches the plains.

16. Match the two columns.

Column I

Column II

A. Meander i. Upland separating two drainage basins

B. Water Divide ii. Loop-like bends in a river’s course

C. Himalayan Rivers iii. Seasonal and flow towards Bay of Bengal

D. Peninsular Rivers iv. Perennial and cut through mountains

(a) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv

(b) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

(d) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

17. Match the two columns.

Column I Column II

A. River Brahmaputra i. Irrigation and Agriculture

B. River Godavari ii. Forms the Sunderban Delta

C. River Indus iii. Largest River Basin in South

D. River Ganga iv. Hydroelectric Power Generation

(a) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

(b) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii

(d) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii

18. Match the lakes to their types and uses.

Column I Column II

A. Chilika Lake i. Largest saltwater lagoon in India

B. Wular Lake ii. Artificial lake for irrigation

C. Periyar Lake iii. Reservoir for irrigation and electricity

D. Gobind Sagar iv. Freshwater source from tectonic activity

(a) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv

(b) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii

(d) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

19. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: Rivers are crucial for the generation of hydroelectric power.

Statement II: Irrigation is not dependent on river systems in India.

Statement III: Rivers help in navigation and transportation.

Statement IV: Rivers have very limited impact on soil fertility.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and III are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

20. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: Rivers support biodiversity by providing habitats.

Statement II: Agriculture relies on river water for sustenance.

Statement III: Rivers do not contribute to tourism.

Statement IV: Floodplains formed by rivers are not agriculturally significant.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and III are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

21. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: A water divide can be an upland region separating two drainage basins.

Statement II: Drainage basins are the areas that drain to a particular river.

Statement III: Western Ghats form the main water divide in South India.

Statement IV: The Brahmaputra is longer than the Indus within India.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and III are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

22. Which of the following is a major effect of river pollution on aquatic life?

(a) Increased biodiversity

(b) Increased fish breeding

(d) Decline in fish populations

23. What is the key ecological consequence of damming rivers to create artificial lakes?

(a) Improved water quality due to filter systems

(b) Enhanced silt deposition in upstream regions

(d) Increased biodiversity in the surrounding area

24. What is a direct method to reduce pollution in rivers due to urban runoff?

(a) Installing water turbines

(b) Reducing use of detergents

(d) Increasing urban afforestation

25. What natural feature do spits and bars form in the coastal areas?

(a) Waterfalls (b) Tributaries

26. Consider the scenario where river conservation measures are strictly implemented. Which consequence is the most likely?

(a) Increased volume of water

(b) Decline in aquatic life

(d) Improvement in water quality

27. Why are freshwater lakes in the Himalayan region primarily considered valuable ecosystems?

(a) They regulate the flow of rivers, maintaining the ecosystem.

(b) They support agricultural activities with irrigation water.

(d) They prevent soil erosion on the mountain slopes.

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion (A): River conservation helps in improving biodiversity.

Reason (R): Clean rivers are an important water resource.

2. Assertion (A): Ambala serves as a significant water divide in India.

Reason (R): Ambala is where the Indus and Ganga River systems originate.

3. Assertion (A): Constructing dams helps in controlling river pollution.

Reason (R): Dams trap water and sediment but do not directly address pollution.

4. Assertion (A): The Indus River forms a gorge in the region of Ladakh.

Reason (R): A gorge is formed when river flow is impeded by a large body of land.

5. Assertion (A): The Narmada River creates picturesque falls as it flows through a rift valley.

Reason (R): The ‘Dhuadhar falls’ are formed by the Narmada River plunging over steep rocks.

Picture Based Questions

1. Identify the waterfall with the help of the given clue:

The waterfall is formed by river Narmada while flowing through a deep gorge.

(a) Shivasamudram Falls

(b) Dhuadhar Falls

(d) Dudhsagar Falls

2. Identify and label the marked geographical features.

Map Based Questions

On the map of India, locate and label the following:

(a) Chilika lake (b) Pulicat lake (c) Wular lake (i) Ganga river (ii) Tapti river (iii) Kaveri river (iv) A river that flows through three countries

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very

Short Answer Questions (30-40 words)

1. What is a riverine island? Name the world’s largest riverine and the river associated with it.

2. What are oxbow lakes?

3. State one advantage and one disadvantage of creating artificial lakes.

4. Explain one method of river conservation.

5. What is the role of river water in generating power?

6. What is a significant economic impact of river-based irrigation? OR

Identify one critical role of rivers in the agricultural economy of India.

7. Define a drainage basin.

8. What is the primary source of water for the Ganga’s headwaters?

9. Why is Kaveri River called the lifeline of Tamil Nadu?

10. Where does the Tapi river originate, and in which direction does it flow?

11. Why is Godavari known as Dakshin Ganga?

12. State two key characteristics of the Mahanadi River.

Short Answer Questions (50-60

words)

1. If what ways do lakes impact the attraction and beauty and attraction of places such as Srinagar and Nainital?

2. Discuss the role of rivers in supporting India’s agriculture and the subsequent economic impact. Include two specific ways they contribute to farming activities.

3. Explain how the generation of hydroelectric power from rivers contributes to India’s energy sector. Support with an example of a major river project.

4. Analyse the main features of the Ganga System’s tributaries and their impact on agriculture.

5. How does the Brahmaputra River System differ in terms of sediment deposition compared to other Himalayan Rivers?

6. Discuss the importance of the Mahanadi River basin for the states it covers. How does it contribute to both the economy and ecology?

7. Explain the geographical significance of the Godavari River with respect to its tributaries and delta formation.

8. Evaluate how the Kaveri River supports the regions through which it flows. Include its utilisation in agriculture and hydropower.

9. Differentiate between a delta and an estuary.

10. Why are rivers considered a critical natural resource in India? Discuss their socio-economic contributions.

11. Explain the significance of the Indus Water Treaty for India and Pakistan.

12. What are the key factors leading to the success of river conservation programmes?

13. Discuss how untreated sewage contributes to river pollution and suggest solutions.

14. Discuss the economic importance of lakes, distinguishing between freshwater and saltwater lakes.

Long Answer Questions (100-120

words)

1. Critically evaluate the role of drainage systems in supporting agricultural and economic activities in India, specifically focusing on the contributions from major river basins.

2. Describe how water divides impact the socio-economic development of regions with examples from the Indian river systems.

3. Discuss the importance of rivers in generating hydroelectric power in India. Elaborate on their potential energy and how it is harnessed, including any environmental safeguards necessary.

4. Analyse the role of the Indus River System in the agricultural landscape of Punjab and Haryana.

5. Examine the ecological significance of the Ganga and its tributaries in sustaining biodiversity and supporting human populations.

6. Critically evaluate the effects of river pollution on aquatic ecosystems over time. Discuss the role of government and non-government organisations in combating river pollution.

7. Discuss the cultural and societal values attached to lakes in India, considering both historical and modern perspectives.

8. Critically evaluate how the Godavari River has influenced the agricultural patterns in its basin. Discuss the role of its tributaries in water availability.

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

The Brahmaputra rises in Tibet east of Mansarowar lake very close to the sources of the Indus and the Satluj. It is slightly longer than the Indus, and most of its course lies outside India. It flows eastwards parallel to the

Himalayas. On reaching the Namcha Barwa (7757 m), it takes a ‘U’ turn and enters India in Arunachal Pradesh through a gorge. Here, it is called the Dihang and it is joined by the Dibang, the Lohit, and many other tributaries to form the Brahmaputra in Assam. The Brahmaputra rises in Tibet east of the Mansarowar lake, flows through India in Arunachal Pradesh through a gorge, and travels through Assam forming various islands. In India, it passes through a region of high rainfall.

(a) What is a gorge?

(b) Which are the two primary tributaries of the Brahmaputra River in Assam?

2. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

A meandering river across a floodplain forms cut-offs that later develops into ox-bow lakes. Spits and bars form lagoons in the coastal areas, e.g. the Chilika lake, the Pulicat lake and the Kolleru lake. Lakes in the region of inland drainage are sometimes seasonal; for example, the Sambhar lake in Rajasthan, which is a salt water lake. Its water is used for producing salt. Most of the freshwater lakes are in the Himalayan region. They are of glacial origin. In other words, they formed when glaciers dug out a basin, which was later filled with snowmelt. The Wular lake in Jammu and Kashmir, in contrast, is the result of tectonic activity. It is the largest freshwater lake in India. The Dal lake, Bhimtal, Nainital, Loktak and Barapani are some other important freshwater lakes.

(a) Where and how is the Chilika Lake formed?

(b) What is the importance of Lake Sambhar?

Answers

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. (b) Streams converge from different directions into the main river, forming a tree-like pattern

2. (c) Due to their dependence on rainwater

3. (d) To offer space for recreational activities and store water

4. (c) They are often formed in coastal regions.

5. (d) Wastewater treatment

6. (c) Facilitating the generation of renewable electricity.

7. (b) By providing water for various human activities.

8. (c) They hold significant historical and religious importance.

9. (b) The Lohit

10. (a) Ganga and Brahmaputra River System

11. (b) Kaveri

12. (d) They flow in rift valleys

13. (a) Brahmaputra

14. (d) The slope and direction of the mountain

15. (b) It transitions into the plains, forming significant meanders.

16. (c) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

17. (a) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

18. (b) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii

19. (d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

20. (a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

21. (b) Statements I, II and III are appropriate.

22. (d) Decline in fish populations.

23. (c) Altered river flow impacts downstream habitats.

24. (c) Construction of stormwater management systems

25. (d) Lakes

26. (d) Improvement in water quality

27. (a) They regulate the flow of rivers, maintaining the ecosystem.

Assertion-Reason Based Answers

1. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

2. (c) A is true but R is false.

3. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

4. (c) A is true but R is false.

5. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Picture Based Questions

1. (b) Dhuadhar Falls

2. • Oxbow lakes are U-shaped water bodies formed from meandering rivers.

• They emerge when a river’s meander is cut off due to erosion and sealed off by deposition, leaving a free-standing lake.

• They are commonly found in the floodplains.

• An advantage of artificial lakes is that they can provide a reliable water supply for agriculture and other consumption.

• A disadvantage is that they may disrupt local ecosystems, displacing plants, and animals.

2. (a) Water Divide (b) Confluence (c) Meander (d) Delta

Map Based Questions

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30–40 words)

1. • A riverine island is an island formed within a river or river system, meaning it’s a landmass surrounded by river water.

• Majuli is the world’s largest riverine island located on the Brahmaputra River in Assam, India.

4. • One method of river conservation is the setting up of wastewater treatment plants.

• These plants treat waste before it reaches the river.

• This reduces pollutants, maintains water quality and sustains aquatic ecosystems.

5. • River water provides kinetic energy to turn turbines. This movement generates electricity at hydroelectric facilities.

• The consistent flow ensures a stable power supply. Hydropower reduces dependence on fossil fuels, making it renewable.

• River-based irrigation boosts agricultural productivity.

• It provides irrigation and sustains crop growth even during dry seasons.

• Rivers transport nutrient-rich sediments and enhance soil fertility.

• Enhanced crop yields lead to economic growth and creates job opportunities in the agricultural sector.

• A drainage basin is an area drained by a single river system. It includes the main river and all its tributaries.

• Water from this area collects and flows into a primary water body.

8. • The primary source of water for the Ganga’s headwaters is the Gangotri Glacier.

• The glacier feeds the Bhagirathi River in Uttarakhand.

• Glacial melt is a crucial component, especially during summer months.

9. Kaveri—the lifeline:

• The river is essential for Tamil Nadu’s agriculture, irrigating vast areas of farmland and supporting local fisheries.

• It ensures stable water supply for crops like rice and sugarcane.

• The river supports hydroelectric power, crucial for energy needs.

10. • The Tapi river originates in the Satpura ranges, in the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh.

• It also flows in a rift valley parallel to the Narmada.

• It flows in a westward direction, and drains into the Arabian Sea.

11. • Godavari is also known as Dakshin Ganga because of its length, numerous tributaries and the extensive area it covers.

• It has the largest basin among the peninsular rivers, covering multiple states— Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.

12. • The Mahanadi originates in the highlands of Chhattisgarh, and flows eastwards.

• It has a significant delta that supports dense agriculture. The river is critical for hydroelectric power generation in Odisha.

• Its fertile floodplains enhance agricultural productivity.

Short Answer Questions (50-60

words)

1. • Lakes play a crucial role in enhancing the appeal of tourist places such as Srinagar and Nainital.

• They offer opportunities for recreational activities such as boating and fishing, contribute to the scenic beauty, and provide a habitat for diverse flora and fauna.

• Lakes also create a peaceful and serene environment that appeals to those seeking relaxation and enjoyment of nature.

2. • Rivers are the lifelines of agriculture in India, providing critical support to farming activities.

• The river systems in India offer a consistent water supply essential for irrigation.

• This ensures that crops can be grown even during dry seasons, stabilising productivity.

• Rivers deposit nutrient-rich sediments in the fields, boosting soil fertility.

• They also aid in cultivating multiple crop cycles in a year, increasing turnover.

3. • Hydroelectric power generation is a key component of India’s energy sector.

• Rivers, with their strong currents, drive turbines at hydroelectric power stations.

• This renewable energy source reduces reliance on fossil fuels.

• Bhakra Nangal Project on the Sutlej River is a significant hydroelectric scheme. It supplies power to multiple states, ensuring energy security.

• The Ganga River System is enriched by numerous tributaries from the Himalayas and the Peninsular region.

• Major tributaries from the north are Yamuna, Ghaghara, and Kosi contribute to the river’s extensive drainage and fertile plains.

• Peninsular tributaries such as Chambal and Betwa help in irrigation.

• The northern and Peninsular tributaries facilitate agricultural productivity in northern India.

• The Brahmaputra River System is notable for its unique sediment deposition characteristics.

• It carries a higher sediment load compared to other rivers. This is due to its long course and multiple tributaries.

• Its braided channels lead to large sediment deposits.

• The river often shifts its channels, which affects floodplains.

6. The Mahanadi River basin is significant for its wide extent and multipurpose benefits.

• It provides water for irrigation, in Chhattisgarh and Odisha.

• The river is crucial for generating hydroelectric power for energy supply in these regions.

• Ecologically, it supports various aquatic species and biodiversity in its delta.

• During the rainy season, it aids in replenishing groundwater levels.

7. The Godavari River is the second longest river in India.

• Its tributaries like the Pranhita, Manjra, and Penganga, enhance water availability.

• These tributaries increase the river’s capacity, supporting irrigation projects.

• The Godavari delta, is fertile, aiding rice and other crop cultivation.

• The river facilitates navigation and transportation, important for trade in the basin area.

8. The Kaveri River is indispensable for Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.

• It irrigates a vast area of farmland, supporting crops like rice, sugarcane, and tea.

• In drought-prone regions, it provides a consistent water supply.

• It promotes hydroelectric power generation, important for energy in southern India.

• The river supports fisheries, contributing to local economies.

• Its flow regulates the climate of adjoining regions.

9. Deltas and estuaries are landforms found where rivers meet larger bodies of water.

Delta Estuary

A delta is formed from sediment deposition. Sediment accumulation is negligible due to the abrupt end and impact of tides and currents.

It is a fan shape landform at river mouths. Often funnel-shaped or elongated river end at the sea

Deltas support rich biodiversity and agriculture due to nutrient-rich soils.

Estuaries serve as buffer zones protecting inland areas from storms.

10. Rivers are very important to India’s socioeconomic framework.

• They provide water for drinking, sanitation, and industrial use.

• Rivers support agriculture by offering necessary irrigation even in dry season.

• They promote trade through facilitating waterways, enhancing commerce.

• Culturally, rivers enrich traditions, festivals, and tourism.

11. The Indus Water Treaty, signed in 1960, is a pivotal agreement between India and Pakistan.

• It allocates the use of six rivers in the Indus River System.

• India receives control of the eastern rivers while Pakistan controls the western rivers.

• The treaty aims to manage water sharing and reduce conflicts.

• It provides for cooperation and peaceful conflict resolution.

12. Successful river conservation requires key factors and strategic actions.

• Public awareness and community participation are essential for support.

• Adequate funding ensures comprehensive plan execution.

• Scientific research provides data for targeted solutions.

• Regular monitoring and evaluation help to track the progress.

• Cooperation among stakeholders boosts resource sharing and decision-making.

13. Untreated sewage is a major contributor to river pollution in India.

• Sewage carries pathogens, leading to waterborne diseases.

• It introduces excess nutrients, causing eutrophication and algal blooms.

• The decomposition process reduces oxygen, harming aquatic life.

• Solutions include modern sewage treatment plants to filter waste. Regular monitoring and maintenance of sewage systems are crucial.

14. Lakes, both freshwater and saltwater, offer significant economic benefits.

• Freshwater lakes provide drinking water and facilitate irrigation for agriculture, supporting food security.

• They are vital for hydropower generation, contributing to renewable energy production.

• Saltwater lakes, like Sambhar Lake, are essential for salt production, a key economic activity.

• Both types of lakes boost local economies by supporting fisheries and tourism.

Long Answer Questions (100–120

words)

1. Drainage systems play a vital role in supporting agriculture and the economy in India.

• Major river basins like the Ganga, Brahmaputra, and Indus provide fertile soil through silt deposits, making the land ideal for farming.

• The Ganga-Brahmaputra basin is vital for irrigation, supporting large-scale agriculture.

• Rivers like the Indus aid in water supply management for states like Punjab and Haryana.

• The southern Peninsular rivers contribute to regional agriculture, supply water for irrigation, especially during dry seasons, helping grow crops like rice, wheat, and sugarcane.

• Rivers support fishing, generate hydroelectric power and promote trade through inland waterways boosting economic activities.

2. • Water divides, also known as watershed boundaries, separate two drainage basins.

• Water divides significantly affect the socioeconomic landscape of regions by influencing water distribution.

• A prominent example is the Ambala divide, affecting the Indus and Ganga basins benefits with fertile soil, abundant water, and prosperous agriculture, leading to better living standards and economic growth.

• Water availability impacts regional development by supporting various industries.

• Areas on the drier side, like the Deccan Plateau, often face water scarcity, limiting agriculture and industrial growth.

• For example, the Western Ghats act as a water divide, providing heavy rainfall to the west coast while leaving regions on the eastern side comparatively dry.

• Proper management of water resources across these divides can help balance regional development and reduce disparities.

3. Rivers play a key role in generating hydroelectric power in India.

• Fast-flowing rivers, especially in hilly regions like the Himalayas, have great potential energy due to their speed and height. This energy is harnessed by building dams that store water. When released, the force of water spins turbines to produce electricity.

• Rivers like the Ganga, Brahmaputra, and their tributaries are important for generating hydroelectric power.

• Hydroelectric power is clean and renewable energy source; it reduces dependence on fossil fuels.

• However, building dams can affect local wildlife, forests, and people.

• Environmental safeguards like proper planning, forest conservation, and resettlement for displaced communities are important to balance energy needs and environmental protection.

4. The Indus River System plays a vital role in the agricultural sectors of Punjab and Haryana.

• The Indus Water Treaty which was signed in 1960 between India and Pakistan, allows India to use the eastern rivers—Sutlej, Beas, and Ravi. On the other hand Pakistan uses the western rivers—Indus, Jhelum, Chenab.

• Punjab and Haryana significantly depend on these waters for wheat and rice cultivation.

• Canals and extensive irrigation systems have been developed harnessing these rivers.

• Jhelum and Chenab, though primarily in Pakistan, influence water availability in India through tributaries.

• The Indus Water Treaty ensures a structured water-sharing model, preventing major conflicts.

5. The Ganga River and its tributaries are crucial for ecological harmony

• These rivers provide habitat for diverse aquatic species, including the Ganges River dolphin, fish, turtles, and many aquatic plants.

• The wetlands formed by the Ganga offer breeding grounds for many birds and animals.

• Its waters support agriculture, crucial for food security in India.

• Holy cities like Varanasi and Haridwar are located along the Ganga, adding cultural value.

• Tributaries help in flood control and recharge groundwater.

• The Ganga’s water is very important for hydroelectric power generation, supporting regional energy needs.

6. River pollution has serious effects on aquatic ecosystems over time.

• Waste from industries, households, and agriculture enters rivers, reducing water quality harm fish and other aquatic life, leading to reduced biodiversity. Oxygen levels in water drop, cause death of sensitive species and disrupt the food chain.

• Algae blooms from excess nutrients block sunlight and reduces oxygen, causing the death of sensitive species and disrupting the food chain.

Both governments and NGOs play critical roles in addressing river pollution.

• Governments establish regulations and infrastructures for pollution control.

• NGOs raise awareness and provide community education.

Examples:

• The Ganga Action Plan was initiated for cleaning rivers.

• The Yamuna Action Plan has targeted wastewater treatment and pollution reduction.

7. Lakes in India have historically and culturally significant roles impacting society.

• Lakes like Pushkar lake and Dal Lake hold religious significance, attracts pilgrims for rituals.

• Historically, lakes have been pivotal for agricultural prosperity and settlement. Many ancient cities grew around them.

• Lakes were also essential for water supply, agriculture, and livelihoods.

• Modern societies view lakes as sources for recreation and nature conservation.

• In modern times, lakes like Vembanad and Chilika continue to support fishing, tourism, and recreation.

• They are important for biodiversity and maintaining ecological balance.

• Cultural events often include lakeside festivals, promoting community engagement.

• Lakes inspire literature and arts, fostering cultural heritage and creativity.

8. The Godavari River, significant for agriculture in its basin, plays a vital role in regional development.

• Its extensive reach helps in large-scale irrigation, transforming arid regions into fertile fields.

• The river supports varied crop patterns, including rice, cotton, and pulses.

• Water from the river’s tributaries enhances availability, ensuring consistent crop yields.

• The river’s flow and seasonal floods deposit rich alluvial soil, making farming productive.

• Tributaries like Pranhita and Manjra deposit nutrients, enriching soil quality.

• Major irrigation projects like the Jayakwadi and Polavaram help farmers grow multiple crops a year.

• The delta, rich in alluvial deposits, sustains intensive agriculture.

• The river’s presence allows agricultural diversification, impacting local economies.

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1

(a) A gorge is defined as a deep, narrow river valley with very steep sides, often found in mountainous regions.

(b) The Dibang and Lohit are primary tributaries of the Brahmaputra. These tributaries merge with the river in Assam.

• High rainfall increases the river’s volume and speed. This often leads to severe floods during the monsoon, causing damage to crops, homes, and infrastructure.

• It results in the deposition of fertile silt across the floodplains.

Passage 2

(a) Spits and bars form lagoons in the coastal areas, for example, Chilika Lake.

(b) Sambhar lake in Rajasthan is a salt water lake. Its water is used for producing salt.

• These lakes are of glacial origin, formed when glaciers dug out a basin, which was later filled with snowmelt.

• Snow is the source of freshwater in these lakes.

SELF-ASSESSMENT

Time: 1 Hour

Section A

Choose and write the correct answer for each of the following.

(1 × 8 = 8 Marks)

1. Why are freshwater lakes in the Himalayan region primarily considered valuable ecosystems?

(a) They regulate the flow of rivers, maintaining the ecosystem.

(b) They support agricultural activities with irrigation water.

(d) They prevent soil erosion on the mountain slopes.

2. What is a key ecological consequence of damming rivers to create artificial lakes?

(a) Improved water quality due to filter systems

(b) Enhanced silt deposition in upstream regions

(d) Increased biodiversity in the surrounding area

3. How do rivers play a crucial role in the irrigation and agriculture sector of India?

(a) By eliminating the need for monsoon rains entirely.

(b) By supplying water for crop cultivation, especially during dry seasons.

(d) By preventing all forms of pests from infesting crops

4. Which of the following statements accurately describes the Indus River System?

(a) The Indus flows into the Bay of Bengal.

(b) The Indus originates in India and has a very steep slope.

(d) The Indus system does not have any tributaries from the Kashmir region.

Scan me for all answers.

Max. Marks: 40

5. Consider the scenario where river conservation measures are strictly implemented. Which consequence is the most likely?

(a) Increase in industrial effluents

(b) Decline in wildlife diversity

(d) Improvement in water quality

6. Match the following types of lakes with their characteristics.

Column I Column II

A. Human-Made Lakes i. Contain dissolved salt

B. Glacial Lakes ii. Used for hydropower generation

C. Saltwater Lakes iii. Support drinking water needs

D. Freshwater Lakes iv. Formed by glacial activity

(a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

(b) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv

(d) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

7. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: A water divide is an elevated area that separates two drainage basins.

Statement II: Drainage patterns are influenced by the topology of the land.

Statement III: The more tributaries join a river, the larger the river basin becomes.

Statement IV: Drainage patterns are solely determined by the number of tributaries.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and III are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

8. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Hydroelectric power is a significant source of renewable energy in India.

Reason (R): Rivers have minimal potential energy due to their flat terrain.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Section B

Answer the following questions.

9. What is an oxbow lake, and how does it form?

(2 Marks)

10. Discuss the type of drainage pattern formed by the Ganga River system? (3 Marks)

11. Evaluate the environmental implications of using river water for hydroelectric projects. Consider both positive and negative aspects. (3 Marks)

12. What are the main features of the Peninsular River system? (3 Marks)

13. What are the main features of the Indus River System? (3 Marks)

14. What are the main features of the Brahmaputra River System? (3 Marks)

15. Examine the differences in seasonal flow patterns and resultant geographical formations between Himalayan and Peninsular rivers in India. (5 Marks)

16. Examine how India’s river systems support the agriculture sector. Discuss the challenges they face due to pollution and overuse. Additionally, suggest sustainable practices to maintain these resources. (5 Marks)

17. Discuss the cultural and societal values attached to lakes in India, considering both historical and modern perspectives. (5 Marks)

4 Climate

India has a diverse climate, depending upon various geographical and seasonal factors which influence weather patterns across the country. In this chapter we will explore the differences between climate and weather, and the significant climatic regions of India. The chapter also discusses the key factors like altitude, latitude, geographical location of the Himalayas and proximity to oceans, affecting climatic conditions. The chapter discusses seasonal variations, including the winter (cold), hot (warm), and rainy (monsoon) seasons. It further highlights the critical role of the monsoon in shaping India’s climate, discussing its impact on agriculture, local ecology, and daily life across different regions.

Climate

Climate Factors Affecting Climate (Climatic Controls) Elements of Climate

• Average weather conditions of a place over a long period (30+ years)

• Temperature

• Rainfall

• Humidity

• Wind

• Air Pressure

Seasons in India

• Winter (Dec–Feb): Cold & dry

• Summer (Mar–May): Hot & dry

• Southwest Monsoon (Jun–Sept): Heavy rainfall

• Retreating Monsoon (Oct–Nov): Decreasing rainfall, cyclones

• Latitude: Distance from the equator affects temperature

• Altitude: Higher places are cooler

• Pressure & Winds: Air pressure and wind systems influence climate

• Distance from the Sea: Coastal areas have moderate climate, interior areas have extreme climate

• Ocean Currents: Warm/cold currents affect coastal climates

• Relief Features: Mountains can block winds and affect rainfall

• Seasonal reversal of winds

• Important for agriculture

• Uneven and uncertain

• Tropical

• Subtropical

• Temperate (in some parts)

• Influences agriculture, clothing, housing, and lifestyle

• Affects biodiversity and natural vegetation

Key Terms and Definitions

Climate: Climate refers to the sum total of weather conditions and variations over a large area for a long period of time (more than thirty years). It includes patterns of temperature, rainfall, humidity, wind, and seasons in a particular region.

Weather: Weather is the condition of the atmosphere at a particular place and time. Weather conditions fluctuate very often even within a day. It includes short-term changes in temperature, rainfall, humidity, wind speed, cloudiness, and sunshine.

Monsoon: The word ‘monsoon’ refers to seasonal reversal in the wind direction during a year, bringing substantial rainfall during specific months. The word monsoon is derived from the Arabic word ‘mausim’ which literally means season.

Precipitation: Precipitation refers to moisture falling from the atmosphere to the Earth’s surface, in either liquid or solid form. This includes rain, snow, hail, and sleet. It’s essentially the process where condensed water vapour, due to cooling and condensation, falls back to the Earth.

Season: Season refers to distinct periods of the year characterised by specific weather conditions and temperature patterns. These seasons, such as winter, summer, and monsoon, are defined by the changes in atmospheric conditions over time. In India, for instance, the monsoon type of climate is characterised by a distinct seasonal pattern, with four main seasons: cold weather, hot weather, advancing monsoon (rainy), and retreating monsoon (transition).

Coriolis Force: The Coriolis force is an apparent force caused by the Earth’s rotation. The Coriolis force is responsible for deflecting winds towards the right in the northern hemisphere and towards the left in the southern hemisphere. This is also known as ‘Ferrel’s Law’. It affects global winds and ocean currents, and consequently, weather patterns across the Earth.

Equable Climate: An equable climate is defined as a climate with a moderate temperature range, neither excessively hot nor cold. This means the difference between daily and annual temperatures is relatively small. Coastal regions experience equable climate, due to the moderating influence of the ocean/sea.

Arid Climate: An arid climate is characterised by very low rainfall, leading to dry conditions and limited vegetation, often found in deserts.

Continentality: It refers to the extreme temperature variations experienced in regions far from the sea. These regions, often in the interior of continents, tend to have very hot summers and very cold winters, due to the lack of the sea’s moderating influence on climate.

Latitude: Latitude is the angular distance of a place north or south of the equator, influencing the amount of solar energy received and consequently the climate, with warmer temperatures found at lower latitudes.

Altitude: Altitude refers to the height above sea level, which affects temperature and weather conditions; as altitude increases, atmospheric pressure decreases, resulting in cooler temperatures and different climatic experiences.

Cyclonic Depression: Cyclonic depressions are meteorological phenomena that create low-pressure areas, often leading to the formation of storms that can lead to heavy rainfall and destructive weather patterns impacting life and property. Cyclonic disturbances are areas of low pressure in the atmosphere where air descends and circulates inwards. When these disturbances intensify, they can form cyclonic depressions, which are characterized by strong winds and heavy rainfall.

Stalactite and Stalagmite: Stalactite and stalagmite are elongated forms of various minerals deposited from solution by slowly dripping water. A stalactite hangs like an icicle from the ceiling of a cavern. A stalagmite rises from the floor of a cavern.

NCERT Zone

Intext Questions

1. Why most of the world’s deserts are in the western margins of continents in the subtropics?

Ans. Most of the world’s deserts are found on the western margins of continents in the subtropics for the following reasons:

• The western coasts of continents usually have cold ocean currents. These currents cool the air above them, so it cannot hold much moisture. As a result, very little evaporation and almost no rainfall happens in these regions.

• Subtropical regions have high-pressure systems (descending air). This air is dry and prevents cloud formation, leading to clear skies and dry weather. Winds blow from land to sea (offshore), carrying dry air from inland areas. This also prevents moisture from the ocean from reaching the land.

2. Why the houses in Rajasthan have thick walls and flat roofs? Why is it that the houses in the Tarai region and in Goa and Mangalore have sloping roofs? Why houses in Assam are built on stilts?

Ans. (a) Houses in Rajasthan:

• The houses in Rajasthan have thick walls and flat roofs to keep the house cool in summer and warm in winter.

• These two features reduce the effect of extreme heat outside and flat roofs so that people can also sleep on the roof during hot nights.

(b) Houses in the Tarai region, Goa and Mangalore:

• In these places houses have sloping roofs so that rainwater easily flows off as these areas receive heavy rainfall.

• Assam receives heavy rain, and many areas get flooded.

• Houses are built on stilts (raised platforms) to protect them from flooding and keep the living area dry.

NCERT Exercises

1. Choose the correct answer from the four alternatives given below.

(i) Which one of the following places receives the highest rainfall in the world?

(a) Silchar (b) Mawsynram

Ans. (b) Mawsynram

(ii) The wind blowing in the northern plains in summers is known as:

(a) Kaal Baisakhi (b) Loo

Ans. (b) Loo

(iii) Monsoon arrives in India approximately in:

(a) Early May (b) Early July

Ans. (b) Early June

(iv) Which one of the following characterises the cold weather season in India?

(a) Warm days and warm nights

(b) Warm days and cold nights

(d) Cold days and warm nights

Ans. (b) Warm days and cold nights

2. Answer the following questions briefly.

(i) What are the controls affecting the climate of India?

Ans. The following are the controls affecting the climate of India:

(i) Latitude affects temperature.

(ii) Altitude influences temperature and air density.

(iii) Pressure and wind systems are shaped by latitude and altitude.

(iv) Distance from the sea (Continentality) impacts the climate as regions farther from the sea experience extreme weather.

(v) Ocean currents can warm or cool coastal regions.

(vi) Relief features modify local climate.

(ii) Why does India have a monsoon type of climate?

Ans. India has a monsoon type of climate for the following reasons:

• The Indian subcontinent is situated between the Tropic of Cancer and the Equator, experiencing tropical and subtropical climates.

• The Himalayas act as a barrier to cold Central Asian winds, while the Indian Ocean provides moisture-laden winds.

• These factors, combined with differential heating of land and sea, lead to seasonal monsoon winds, resulting in significant rainfall variations.

(iii) Which part of India does experience the highest diurnal range of temperature and why?

Ans.

• The Thar Desert in Rajasthan experiences the highest diurnal range of temperature in India.

• This region has extremely arid conditions, leading to high daytime temperatures that can reach up to 50°C, while at night, temperatures can drop sharply to around 15°C.

• The clear skies and dry conditions contribute to intense heating during the day and rapid cooling at night, resulting in a significant temperature difference.

(iv) Which winds account for rainfall along the Malabar coast?

Ans. • The southwest monsoon winds account for rainfall along the Malabar Coast.

• Originating from the Indian Ocean, these winds bring moisture-laden air to the western coast of India, resulting in heavy precipitation.

• The Western Ghats further enhance this effect through orographic lift, causing the air to rise, cool, and precipitate, leading to significant rainfall in the region.

(v) Define monsoons. What do you understand by “break” in monsoon?

⸰ These breaks occur due to the movement of the monsoon trough and are characterised by dry conditions in some regions while others may still receive rain.

⸰ This causes variability in rainfall pattern and distribution.

(vi) Why is the monsoon considered a unifying bond?

Ans. • The monsoon is a unifying bond for India as it provides a rhythmic cycle of seasons, influencing agriculture, festivals, and lifestyles across the subcontinent.

• Despite regional climate differences, the monsoons bring widespread rainfall essential for crops, linking the livelihoods of people from diverse areas.

• This common climatic phenomenon shapes the cultural, economic, and agricultural patterns, fostering a sense of unity among India’s varied regions.

3. Why does the rainfall decrease from the east to the west in Northern India?

Ans. Rainfall decreases from east to west in Northern India due to the movement and moisture distribution of the southwest monsoon winds.

• As these winds flow over the Indian subcontinent, they lose moisture as they travel westward.

• The Bay of Bengal branch of the monsoon first strikes the eastern regions such as West Bengal and Bihar, where it is laden with ample moisture, leading to heavy rainfall.

• However, as it progresses towards western areas like Rajasthan and Punjab, the mountains and distance cause the winds to lose much of their moisture content, resulting in decreased precipitation.

• The northern plains’ geography and the surrounding topographical features also play a role by influencing weather systems, creating variations in rainfall amounts across these regions.

4. Give reasons as to why.

Ans.

• Monsoons refer to the seasonal reversal of wind direction, bringing significant rainfall.

• “Break” in monsoon denotes the periods of reduced rainfall during the monsoon season, alternating with wet spells.

(i) Seasonal reversal of wind direction takes place over the Indian subcontinent?

Ans. Seasonal reversal of wind direction occurs due to differential heating of land and sea, causing monsoon winds.

(ii) The bulk of rainfall in India is concentrated over a few months.

Ans. Most rainfall is concentrated in a few months due to the monsoon season, influenced by southwest winds.

(iii) The Tamil Nadu coast receives winter rainfall.

Ans. Tamil Nadu coast receives winter rainfall from northeast monsoon winds during retreat of southwest monsoon.

(iv) The delta region of the eastern coast is frequently struck by cyclones.

Ans. The eastern coast deltas are cyclone-prone due to low-pressure systems from the Bay of Bengal.

(v) Parts of Rajasthan, Gujarat and the leeward side of the Western Ghats are drought-prone.

Ans. Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Western Ghats’ leeward side are drought-prone due to minimal rainfall as they lie in the rain shadow side of the mountain ranges.

5. Describe the regional variations in the climatic conditions of India with the help of suitable examples.

Ans. India exhibits significant regional climatic variations.

(i) In summer, Rajasthan can reach temperatures up to 50°C, while Pahalgam in Jammu and Kashmir remains around 20°C. Winter nights in Drass dip to –45°C, contrasting with Thiruvananthapuram’s milder 22°C.

(ii) The Thar Desert experiences vast diurnal temperature differences, unlike Kerala or the Andaman Islands.

(iii) For precipitation, Meghalaya receives over 400 cm annually, but Ladakh and western Rajasthan get less than 10 cm.

(iv) Most of India gets rainfall between June and September, though Tamil Nadu has October-November rains.

(v) Coastal areas have less temperature variation than inland, leading to diverse lifestyles, diets, and architecture across the country.

6. Give an account of weather conditions and characteristics of the cold season.

Ans.

• The cold weather season in India spans from mid-November to February, with December and January being the coldest months.

• Northern India experiences significant drops in temperature, ranging from 10°C to 15°C, with frost being common and snow in the Himalayas.

• The northeast trade winds prevail, leading to dry conditions across most of the country, though Tamil Nadu receives some rain as these winds blow from sea to land there.

• The region has cool days and cold nights, often featuring clear skies and low humidity. Cyclonic disturbances from the west bring valuable rainfall, crucial for Rabi crops.

• However, the peninsular region remains relatively unaffected by significant temperature drops due to maritime influences.

7. Give the characteristics and effects of the monsoon rainfall in India.

Ans.

• Monsoon rainfall in India is characterised by its onset, intensification, and withdrawal.

• It begins with the southwest monsoon in early June, bringing heavy rainfall to the western coast and north-eastern regions.

• Places like Mawsynram receive the highest rainfall, whereas Rajasthan experiences scanty rain.

• The monsoon displays ‘breaks’ or dry periods, affecting its reliability.

• It significantly influences agriculture, as it contributes around 75% of India’s annual rainfall, essential for Kharif crops.

• However, variations in timing and intensity can lead to floods in some areas and droughts in others, impacting agriculture, socio-economic conditions, and posing challenges for water resource management.

Map Skills

On an outline map of India, show the following.

(i) Areas receiving rainfall over 400 cm.

(ii) Areas receiving less than 20 cm of rainfall.

(iii) The direction of the south-west monsoon over India.

For Doing It Yourself

1. In the table given on the next page, the average mean monthly temperatures and amounts of rainfall of 10 representative stations have been given. It is for you to study on your own and convert them into ‘temperature and rainfall’ graphs. A glance at these visual representations will help you to grasp instantly the similarities and differences between them. One such graph is already prepared for you in the following figure. See if you can arrive at some broad generalisations about our diverse climatic conditions. We hope you are in for a great joy of learning. Do the following activities.

and Rainfall of Delhi

2. Re-arrange the 10 stations in two different sequences:

(i) According to their distance from the equator.

Ans. Thiruvananthapuram (closest), Bengaluru, Chennai, Mumbai, Nagpur, Kolkata, Shillong, Jodhpur, Delhi, Leh (farthest)

(ii) According to their altitude above mean sea level.

Ans. Kolkata (lowest), Chennai, Mumbai, Thiruvananthapuram, Delhi, Jodhpur, Nagpur, Bengaluru, Shillong, Leh (highest)

3. (i) Name two rainiest stations.

Ans. Shillong and Mumbai

(ii) Name two driest stations.

Ans. Leh and Jodhpur

(iii) Two stations with most equable climate.

Ans. Mumbai and Thiruvananthapuram (iv) Two stations with most extreme climate.

Ans. Jodhpur and Leh

(v) Two stations influenced by retreating monsoons.

Ans. Chennai and Thiruvananthapuram

(vi) The two hottest stations in the months of (a) February

Ans. Thiruvananthapuram and Chennai (b) April

Ans. Nagpur and Chennai

Ans. Nagpur and Delhi/Jodhpur (d) June

Ans. Jodhpur and Delhi

4. Now find out

(i) Why are Thiruvananthapuram and Shillong rainier in June than in July?

Ans. • Thiruvananthapuram and Shillong receive more rainfall in June as the southwest monsoon first hits India, bringing heavy rains due to the initial monsoon surge. Thiruvananthapuram, located in the southern tip, first witnesses these winds.

• Shillong benefits from being on the windward side of the Khasi hills, where orographic lift enhances rainfall intensity during early monsoon.

(ii) Why is July rainier in Mumbai than in Thiruvananthapuram?

Ans. • July is rainier in Mumbai because it lies on the windward side of the Western Ghats, receiving orographic rainfall as the monsoon winds intensify.

• The monsoon system reaches its peak, delivering abundant moisture, leading to consistent heavy rainfall in July, unlike Thiruvananthapuram, where rainfall diminishes slightly post the initial monsoon surge.

(iii) Why are southwest monsoons less rainy in Chennai?

Ans. • The southwest monsoons are less rainy in Chennai as it lies on the rain-shadow side of the Western Ghats.

• These mountains block the moist winds, causing Chennai to receive limited rainfall from the southwest monsoon. Instead, Chennai gets most of its rainfall during the northeast monsoon from October to November, when winds reverse direction.

(iv) Why is Shillong rainier than Kolkata?

Ans. • Shillong is rainier than Kolkata due to its topographical location in the Khasi hills, receiving enhanced orographic rainfall.

• The height and orientation of the Khasi hills make them an effective barrier, causing moist monsoon winds to ascend and release heavy rains.

• Kolkata, being at a lower elevation and further from these hills, receives less rainfall comparatively.

(v) Why is Kolkata rainier in July than in June unlike Shillong which is rainier in June than in July?

Ans. • Kolkata is rainier in July as the monsoon currents intensify across the plains, bringing more moisture and leading to heavier rainfall.

• Conversely, Shillong, located in the hills, experiences stronger orographic lift when the monsoon first arrives in June, resulting in higher rainfall earlier in the season.

(vi) Why does Delhi receive more rain than Jodhpur?

Ans. • Delhi receives more rain than Jodhpur because it is positioned closer to the Himalayan ranges, where the southwest monsoon winds are stronger, bringing more moisture.

• Additionally, Delhi benefits from occasional western disturbances that add to its rainfall. In contrast, Jodhpur lies in the rain-shadow region of the Aravalli ranges, limiting its rainfall.

1. Now think why

—Thiruvananthapuram has equable climate?

Ans. Thiruvananthapuram has an equable climate due to its coastal location.

—Chennai has more rains only after the fury of monsoon is over in most parts of the country?

Ans. Chennai receives more rains post-monsoon due to northeast monsoon, prevailing during October-November.

—Jodhpur has a hot desert type of climate?

Ans. Jodhpur experiences a hot desert climate, attributed to its location in the Thar Desert, with minimal rain.

—Leh has moderate precipitation almost throughout the year?

Ans. Leh gets moderate precipitation primarily due to its high altitude and occasional western disturbances.

—while in Delhi and Jodhpur most of the rain is confined to nearly three months, in Thiruvananthapuram and Shillong it is almost nine months of the year?

Ans. Delhi and Jodhpur receive rain mainly in the monsoon months, whereas Thiruvananthapuram and Shillong get extended rains due to prevailing winds and geographical features.

Practice Questions

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which climatic control is exemplified by the difference in temperature between Thiruvananthapuram and Delhi?

(a) Pressure and wind systems

(b) Distance from the sea

(d) Altitude

2. Which of the following correctly describes the term ‘continentality’?

(a) The reduction of temperature difference between day and night in coastal regions.

(b) The effect of ocean currents that causes changes in climate of nearby land.

(c) The condition in which landmasses far from oceans have extreme temperatures due to lack of moderating oceanic influence.

(d) The phenomenon where coastal areas experience milder temperatures due to the influence of the sea.

3. Which element of climate is responsible for the seasonal change of winds in India leading to monsoonal climate?

(a) Temperature

(b) Pressure and wind systems

(d) Precipitation

4. Which is the most significant characteristic of the monsoon type of climate experienced in India?

(a) Presence of snowfall in higher altitudes

(b) High humidity throughout the year

(d) Consistent high temperatures

5. Which region in India is least affected by monsoon rainfall due to its geographical location?

(a) Western Ghats

(b) Kerala Coast

(d) Northeastern Hills

6. How does the phenomenon of ‘monsoon breaks’ impact agriculture in India?

(a) It results in dry spells that may affect crop yields.

(b) It promotes the growth of drought-resistant crops.

(d) It causes flooding beneficial for rice cultivation.

7. What impact do the Himalayas have on the climate of Northern India?

(a) They bring more rainy weather.

(b) They increase the coastal temperatures.

(d) They prevent cold winds from Central Asia affecting the climate.

8. In summer, the plains of North India experience higher temperatures than the coastal regions due to

(a) Latitude

(b) Ocean currents

(d) Altitude

9. What role do the monsoon rains play in the agricultural economy of India?

(a) They only affect the coastal areas.

(b) They are only important for industrial activities.

(d) They provide essential water for crop growth, greatly impacting agricultural yields.

10. How does the monsoon season affect cultural activities in different regions of India?

(a) Cultural activities come to a halt during the monsoons.

(b) Monsoons cause all cultural activities to stop due to flooding.

(d) Cultural activities are only celebrated in urban areas during this season.

11. During the Cold Weather Season in India, which region experiences the highest diurnal temperature variation?

(a) Assam

(b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

(d) Kerala

12. Which of the following states is most likely to experience ‘Loo’ during the Hot Weather Season in India?

(a) Kerala

(b) Rajasthan

(d) Tamil Nadu

13. In the season of Advancing Monsoon, which Indian region receives the maximum rainfall?

(a) Thar Desert

(b) Mawsynram

(d) Kerala

14. Which of the following phenomena are typically associated with the Retreating Monsoon season in India?

(a) Heavy snowfall in northern states

(b) Moderate rainfall across the western ghats

(d) Intense cyclones frequently affecting the eastern coast of India

15. Match the climatic terms with their correct descriptions.

Column I

Column II

A. Continentality i. Change in climate with height

B. Latitude ii. Seasonal wind reversal pattern

C. Altitude iii. Influence of sea/ocean proximity on climate

D. Monsoon iv. Effect of distance from equator on climate

(a) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

(b) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

(d) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

16. Match the following geographic features with their influence on rainfall.

Column I Column II

A. Himalayas i. Barrier for the monsoon winds

B. Andaman & Nicobar Islands ii. No orographic rainfall from the Aravallis

C. Thar Desert iii. Moderate climate with balanced rainfall

D. Western Ghats iv. Heavy rainfall due to orographic lift

(a) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv

(b) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

(d) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i

17. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: Weather refers to atmospheric conditions at a specific time.

Statement II: Climate encompasses long-term weather patterns over large areas.

Statement III: Seasonal variations are part of weather definitions.

Statement IV: Temperature and humidity are not part of climatic studies.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and IV are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

18. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: Monsoons play a vital role in unifying India’s diverse cultures through agriculture-based festivals.

Statement II: The unpredictability of monsoon leads to enhanced investment in irrigation infrastructure.

Statement III: Monsoon rains always lead to uniform agriculture productivity across India.

Statement IV: Both advancing and retreating monsoons significantly impact India’s economic activities.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and IV are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

19. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: India’s economic activities are heavily reliant on monsoon timeliness and distribution.

Statement II: Monsoon failures in India have negligible impact on global food markets.

Statement III: Cultural festivals across India largely coincide with monsoon periods.

Statement IV: Adequate monsoon rains reduce the financial burden on irrigation systems.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and IV are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and IV are appropriate.

20. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: India’s climate is influenced by factors such as latitude, altitude, and pressure systems.

Statement II: The Himalayas play a crucial role in preventing cold winds from Central Asia, thus protecting India from severe winters.

Statement III: The Thar Desert has no impact on the monsoon winds.

Statement IV: The Indian monsoon is a result of the differential heating of land and sea.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and IV are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion (A): The Tropic of Cancer plays a crucial role in India’s climate diversity.

Reason (R): It divides the country into tropical and subtropical zones.

2. Assertion (A): India’s climate varies significantly from north to south due to varying altitudes.

Reason (R): Altitude affects humidity and precipitation patterns.

Map Based Questions

Mark the following on the given map:

(a) Identify and mark the region which gets between 200–400 cm of annual rainfall.

(b) Identify and mark the region which gets 60–100 cm of annual rainfall.

(d) Complete the map key.

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30-40 words)

1. Define ‘weather’ along with its elements.

2. What is ‘continentality’ in climatic terms?

3. What major climatic type does India have and why?

4. Define ‘rain shadow area’ and give one example from India.

5. Define ‘monsoon.’

6. Why do coastal regions of India experience moderate temperatures? Given an example to support your answer.

7. Give one major effect of altitude on climate.

8. What is the significance of monsoons for agriculture?

OR How does monsoon impact agriculture?

9. What is ‘loo’? Which region in India is predominantly affected this wind? Specify the states.

10. Identify one characteristic feature of the Cold Weather Season in northern India.

11. State a major weather phenomenon associated with the Retreating Monsoon season.

12. What do you mean by Coriolis force?

Short Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. Distinguish between climate and weather with examples relevant to Indian conditions.

2. Describe the role of ocean currents in shaping the climatic conditions of India.

3. In what ways does the climate of coastal areas differ from that of inland areas in India? Illustrate your answer with specific examples.

4. Highlight three regions in India with distinct rainfall patterns and discuss the underlying factors contributing to these patterns.

5. Explain the term ‘continentality’ in the context of India’s climate. Provide an example of its effects.

6. Compare and contrast how the distance from the sea affects the climate of Mumbai and Delhi.

7. Examine the significance of monsoons on the Indian economy.

8. Differentiate between southwest and northeast monsoon winds in India.

9. What are the main features of the Retreating Monsoon?

10. Why is the distribution of rainfall uneven in India?

11. How do the Himalayas affect the climate of India?

12. How can lack of monsoon be harmful for the economy?

13. How is rainfall caused along the Malabar Coast?

14. Why are the showers that precede the monsoon in Kerala and Karnataka referred to as “mango showers”?

15. Write a short note on the trade winds.

16. Why do the Western Ghats receive more rainfall than the Eastern Ghats?

Long Answer Questions (100-120 words)

1. Compare and contrast the effects of altitude and latitude on climate. Use Indian examples for clarity.

OR

Analyse the impact of latitude and altitude on the seasonal variations experienced across different regions of India.

2. How does the interplay of relief and monsoon winds contribute to the heterogeneous distribution of rainfall in India? Provide examples to support your analysis.

3. Critically evaluate the role of monsoons in the cultural and economic framework of India. Discuss its impact on agriculture and livelihoods with examples.

4. Evaluate the changes in temperature and environmental conditions experienced across different parts of India during the Hot Weather Season.

5. Explain the Western Cyclonic Disturbances (WCDs) in the West with reference to India.

6. What factors influence the climate of India?

7. What are the four primary characteristics of the retreating monsoon?

8. The western part of Rajasthan remains almost dry during southwest monsoon season. Give three reasons in support of this statement.

9. Distinguish between southwest monsoon and northeast monsoon.

10. Winter rains occur along the Tamil Nadu coast. Why? Provide justifications.

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

The months of October-November form a period of transition from hot rainy season to dry winter conditions. The retreat of the monsoon is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature. While day temperatures are high, nights are cool and pleasant. The land is still moist. Owing to the conditions of high temperature and humidity, the weather becomes rather oppressive during the day. This is commonly known as ‘October heat’. In the second half of October, the mercury begins to fall rapidly in northern India.

The low-pressure conditions, over northwestern India, get transferred to the Bay of Bengal by early November. This shift is associated with the occurrence of cyclonic depressions, which originate over the Andaman Sea. These cyclones generally cross the eastern coasts of India cause heavy and widespread rain. These tropical cyclones are often very destructive. The thickly populated deltas of the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri are frequently struck by cyclones, which cause great damage to life and property. Sometimes, these cyclones arrive at the coasts of Odisha, West Bengal and Bangladesh. The bulk of the rainfall of the Coromandel Coast is derived from depressions and cyclones.

(i) What weather phenomenon is commonly associated with the Retreating Monsoon?

(ii) Name one eastern state frequently impacted by cyclonic storms during the Retreating Monsoon.

(iii) Suggest strategies to reduce the damage caused by cyclonic storms along the eastern coast of India.

2. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

By early June, the low-pressure condition over the northern plains intensifies. It attracts, the trade winds of the southern hemisphere. These south-east trade winds originate over the warm subtropical areas of the southern oceans. They cross the equator and blow in a southwesterly direction entering the Indian peninsula as the south-west monsoon. As these winds blow over warm oceans, they bring abundant moisture to the subcontinent. These winds are strong and blow at an average velocity of 30 km per hour. With the exception of the extreme north-west, the monsoon winds cover the country in about a month.

The inflow of the south-west monsoon into India brings about a total change in the weather. Early in the season, the windward side of the Western Ghats receives very heavy rainfall, more than 250 cm. The Deccan Plateau and parts of Madhya Pradesh also receive some amount of rain in spite of lying in the rain shadow area. The maximum rainfall of this season is received in the northeastern part of the country. Mawsynram in the southern ranges of the Khasi Hills receives the highest average rainfall in the world. Rainfall in the Ganga valley decreases from the east to the west. Rajasthan and parts of Gujarat get scanty rainfall.

(i) What condition attracts the trade winds of the southern hemisphere, to the Indian sub-continent?

(ii) Which part of India receives heavy rainfall from the south-west monsoon, early in the season?

(iii) (a) Which season is referred here: The maximum rainfall of this season of the country?

(b) What is the special feature about the north-eastern part of India with reference to the south-west monsoon?

Answers

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. (b) Distance from the sea

2. (c) The condition in which landmasses far from oceans have extreme temperatures due to lack of moderating oceanic influence.

3. (b) Pressure and wind systems

4. (c) Seasonal reversal of winds

5. (c) Western Rajasthan

6. (a) It results in dry spells that may affect crop yields.

7. (d) They prevent cold winds from Central Asia affecting the climate

8. (c) Pressure and Wind Systems

9. (d) They provide essential water for crop growth, greatly impacting agricultural yields.

10. (c) Monsoons bring people together to celebrate unique regional festivals and agricultural fairs.

11. (c) Thar Desert

12. (b) Rajasthan

13. (b) Mawsynram

14. (d) Intense cyclones frequently affecting the eastern coast of India.

15. (a) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

16. (a) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv

17. (b) Statements I, II and III are appropriate.

18. (b) Statements I, II and IV are appropriate.

19. (d) Statements I and IV are appropriate.

20. (b) Statements I, II and IV are appropriate.

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

2. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Map Based Questions

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30–40 words)

• Weather is the condition of the atmosphere at a particular place and time. Weather conditions fluctuate very often even within a day.

• The elements of weather are temperature, atmospheric pressure, wind, humidity, and precipitation.

• Continentality in climatic terms means how the climate of a place is affected by its distance from the sea.

• Places far from the sea have more extreme temperatures. Places near the sea have milder temperatures.

• India experiences a monsoon type of climate.

• The monsoon type of climate is characterised by a distinct seasonal pattern. The weather conditions greatly change from one season to the other.

4. • A rain shadow area lies in the lee of a mountain range. It receives reduced rainfall as mountains block moisture-laden winds.

• Western Rajasthan is an example, lying in the rain shadow of the Aravallis.

5. • The word ‘monsoon’ refers to seasonal reversal in the wind direction during a year, bringing substantial rainfall during specific months.

• The word monsoon is derived from the Arabic word ‘mausim’ which literally means season.

6. • Coastal regions experience the moderating influence of the sea.

• The sea acts as a heat reservoir, preventing extreme temperature fluctuations. This leads to mild temperatures year-round in coastal areas, for example, Mumbai has less temperature variation than Bhopal.

7. Altitude is a key factor in regional climatic variations because:

• Altitude impacts climate by decreasing temperature as elevation increases.

• Higher altitudes often have more precipitation in the form of rain or snow. In India, hill stations like Shimla are cooler than surrounding plains.

8. • Monsoons provide vital water needed for the cultivation of rain-fed crops.

• They provide the primary source of irrigation in agricultural fields.

• Timely and adequate rainfall enhances crop yields and supports food security.

• Monsoons determine the agricultural calendar for sowing and harvesting in India.

• Loo are strong, hot, dry winds blow during the peak summer months.

• The north and northwestern regions of India are most affected by ‘Loo’ winds. Haryana, Punjab, Uttar Pradesh, and Delhi experience ‘loo’.

10. • One characteristic feature of the cold weather season in northern India are clear skies, drop in temperatures especially at night, causing cold conditions.

• The weather remains dry due to the prevailing northeast winds.

11. • Cyclones are a major weather phenomenon during the retreating monsoon season.

• Cyclones originate in the Bay of Bengal.

• Cyclones cause heavy rains and strong winds in the region.

• The eastern coast frequently experiences cyclonic disturbances.

12. • The Coriolis force is an apparent force caused by the Earth’s rotation. It is responsible for deflecting winds towards the right in the northern hemisphere and towards the left in the southern hemisphere.

• It affects weather patterns across the Earth.

Short Answer Questions

(50-60 words)

1. Weather Climate

(i) The day-to-day condition of the atmosphere at a place (i) The average weather condition of a place over a long period (3040 years)

(ii) Short-term (changes daily or even hourly).

(iii) A rainy day in Mumbai in July is an example of weather.

(ii) Long-term (remains more or less constant for many years)

(iii) The hot and dry climate of Rajasthan is an example of climate.

2. • Ocean currents significantly influence India’s climate, primarily impacting coastal areas.

• Warm currents can increase temperatures and bring rainfall, while cold currents may cool coastal regions and reduce rainfall.

• The prevailing winds, often influenced by these currents, also play a role in shaping the monsoon patterns, which are central to India’s climate.

3. Coastal and inland areas have distinct climatic differences:

(i) Coastal areas experience moderate temperatures due to the influence of sea, e.g., Mumbai.

(ii) Inland areas, such as Delhi, experience extreme temperatures due to continentality.

(iii) Humidity levels are higher in coastal areas, due to the presence of waterbodies.

(iv) Rainfall patterns also differ—coastal regions often receiving more rainfall than places inland.

4. India exhibits diverse rainfall patterns across different regions.

(i) The Western Coast receives heavy rainfall due to the Western Ghats intercepting the monsoon winds.

(ii) Northeast India, especially Meghalaya, experiences intense rainfall because of the Bay of Bengal monsoon branch striking the hill ranges.

(iii) Rajasthan, experiences low rainfall, as it lies in a rain shadow area of the Aravalli range.

5. • Continentality refers to the extreme temperature variations experienced in regions far from the sea.

• These regions, lie far inland and tend to have very hot summers and very cold winters, due to the lack of the sea’s moderating effect on climate.

• In India, continentality is evident in regions like Northern Plains of India, such as Delhi, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

6. Distance from the sea plays a critical role in determining climate variability.

(a) Mumbai, located along the coast, experiences moderate temperatures due to the sea’s moderating effect. Delhi, being inland, experiences more extreme temperatures, due to continentality’s influence.

(b) Mumbai enjoys relatively stable climates year-round, while Delhi sees high summer temperatures and cold winters

7. Monsoons are significant for India’s economy:

• Monsoon rains the key source for water resources such as rivers, lakes, and groundwater.

• They ensure high productivity of staple crops like rice and wheat, crucial for food security.

• Monsoon-dependent agriculture sustains the livelihood of two-thirds of the Indian population.

• Water-intensive industries use rainwater, reducing dependency on artificial sources.

8. The Southwest and Northeast monsoons in India are characterised by opposite wind directions and timing.

• Southwest monsoons, which are the summer monsoon, bring rainfall to most of the country during June to September.

• Northeast monsoons, or the retreating monsoon, primarily affect the eastern coast of India, bringing rain to Tamil Nadu and surrounding areas in October and November.

• The Retreating Monsoon, or Post-Monsoon season, in India is characterised by the weakening and withdrawal of the southwest monsoon winds.

• This period, typically from October to November, is marked by a transition from the rainy season to the dry winter conditions.

• The characteristic features during this time are clear skies, rising temperatures, and cyclonic depressions.

10. • The uneven distribution of rainfall in India is due to a combination of factors, primarily related to monsoon winds, topography, and proximity to the sea.

• The Southwest Monsoon, for example, brings rain to India, but the distribution of this rain is affected by mountain ranges, the distance from the ocean, and the direction of the wind

11. The Himalayas significantly influence India’s climate:

• The Himalayas primarily act as a barrier to the cold winds from Central Asia, leading to milder winters in India.

• They also play a crucial role in the Indian monsoon, influencing its direction and intensity by forcing moist air to rise and release moisture, causing heavy rainfall in the Northern Plains.

12.

• A lack of monsoon, or a weak monsoon leads to crop failure and reduced farmer income, and potentially higher food prices, disrupting rural and national economic activity.

• Reduced agricultural production can affect India’s export performance, leading to a trade imbalance.

• Beyond agriculture, poor monsoon affects businesses and services that rely on rural income, slowing down economic activity in rural areas.

13.

• When the South-West Monsoon blows from the southwest to the northeast during the monsoon season, it is influenced by the differential heating between the Indian subcontinent and the surrounding oceans.

• When it encounters the Western Ghats, they are forced to rise, cool, and condense, causing heavy orographic rainfall along the Malabar Coast, which is the southwestern coast of India.

14. • The pre-monsoon showers in Kerala and Karnataka are known as ‘mango showers’ because they happen between April and May.

• They provide crucial moisture to the soil, aiding in the development and ripening of mangoes.

• The timing of these showers is closely associated with the mango harvest, hence they are popularly referred to as ‘mango showers’.

15. • The winds blowing from the subtropical highpressure belt to the equatorial low-pressure belt is called Trade Winds.

• They blow southwards, get deflected to the right due to the Coriolis force, and move towards the equatorial low-pressure area.

• They carry little moisture as they originate and blow over land.

• They are the most permanent and regular planetary winds.

16.

• The Western Ghats receive more rainfall than the Eastern Ghats due to their geographical position and the process of orographic rainfall.

• Western Ghats, located closer to the Arabian Sea, are on the windward side of the monsoon winds, leading to heavier rainfall.

• Eastern Ghats, further inland, are on the leeward side, receive less precipitation due to the descending, drier air.

Long Answer Questions

(100–120 words)

1. Latitude and altitude play critical roles in the seasonal variations experienced across different regions of India.

Latitude:

(a) Latitude causes variations in solar heating, affecting seasonal temperatures and daylight.

(b) The Tropic of Cancer brings tropical and subtropical climates within Indian borders.

Altitude:

(a) Altitude influences climate with higher areas like the Himalayas experiencing

cooler conditions. For instance, Ladakh, at high altitude, is cooler than plains despite its latitude.

(b) Hill stations in India showcase mild and favorable climates due to their elevation. Like Simla and Manali.

Concluding note: Latitude and altitude together create a wide range of climates, from desert to alpine regions.

2. The interaction between relief (landforms) and monsoon winds causes uneven rainfall in India.

(a) When the southwest monsoon winds strike the Western Ghats, the windward side (like Kerala and Goa) gets heavy rainfall, while the leeward side (Karnataka Plateau) gets less rain.

(b) Similarly, Mawsynram in Meghalaya receives the highest rainfall due to the funnel-shaped hills which trap the monsoon winds while the Thar Desert gets very little rain due to any obstruction from any relief feature.

Conclusion: Thus, relief features and the direction of winds play a key role in rainfall patterns across the country. Presence of relief features and direction of winds impact weather conditions.

3. Monsoons play a vital role in shaping India’s economy and culture.

• Over 60% of agriculture in India depends on monsoon rains, especially for crops like rice, sugarcane, and cotton.

• A good monsoon means a good harvest, boosting the income of farmers and rural employment. Regions like Punjab benefit from monsoon rains that support wheat production, vital for food security.

• Poor or delayed monsoons can lead to droughts, crop failure, and price rises, affecting livelihoods.

• Cultural events such as Onam, marking the harvest season, show the deep interlink between festivals and agriculture.

• Rainfall also influences art, music, and literature.

Thus, monsoons deeply affect both the daily life and economic stability of millions of Indians, especially in rural areas.

4. The Hot Weather Season sees marked temperature and environmental changes across India.

(i) Northern India faces extreme heat with temperatures rising above 40°C accompanied by dry ‘Loo’ winds and conditions of heat wave. They continue to blow even till evening.

(ii) Central regions experience heat waves and increased incidence of dust storms.

(iii) Peninsular regions remain relatively cooler due to surrounding seas, but humidity levels rise.

(iv) Areas like the Thar Desert witness significant diurnal variation with scorching daytime and cooler nights. Sandstorms are common.

(v) West Bengal and northeast regions experience pre-monsoon showers termed as ‘Kaal Baisakhi’. Pre-monsoon thunderstorms are common. They cause thunderstorms, associated with violent winds, torrential downpours, often accompanied by hail.

• The Western Cyclonic Disturbances are a unique weather system that originates in the Mediterranean Sea and move eastwards towards the Indian subcontinent, impacting northwestern India, mostly Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan.

• Occurring mainly between October and March, these disturbances bring significant weather changes—winter rains over the plains and snowfall in the mountains.

• It is locally known as ‘mahawat’ and very good for the cultivation of ‘rabi’ crops.

• These cyclonic disturbances are crucial for agriculture in northern India, as they provide essential moisture for winter crops like wheat and barley.

• The cyclonic circulation of WCDs also leads to cooler temperatures in the region.

• Understanding Western Cyclonic Disturbances (WCDs) is very important for weather prediction and agricultural planning.

6. (i) Latitude: India’s vast north-south extent results in a diverse climate, with the northern regions experiencing temperate conditions and the southern parts having a tropical climate.

(ii) Altitude: Higher altitudes, like those in the Himalayas, experience cooler temperatures compared to the plains and coastal regions. The Himalayas also impact monsoon patterns.

(iii) Pressure and Wind Systems: The seasonal shifting of pressure belts and affects wind patterns and temperature.

(iv) Distance from the Sea: Coastal areas, influenced by the sea, have moderate temperatures with less seasonal variation, while inland areas experience more extreme temperature variations.

(v) Ocean Currents: The presence of warm and cold ocean currents around India affects the regional climate.

(vi) Topography: Mountains, plains, and plateaus, affect local weather conditions and precipitation patterns.

7. (i) Gradual Reduction in Rainfall: As the monsoon retreats, there is a gradual decrease in the intensity and frequency of rain, leading to drier conditions compared to the peak monsoon months.

(ii) Unpredictable Weather Patterns: The retreating monsoon is often marked by erratic weather patterns with intermittent rain showers, dry spells, and temperature fluctuations.

(iii) Temperature Increase: During the retreating phase, temperatures typically rise. The cooling effect of the monsoon winds diminishes, leading to warmer temperatures and higher humidity levels in many parts of the country.

(iv) Formation of Cyclones: This period is conducive to the formation of tropical cyclones in the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea, often bringing heavy rains and strong winds in the coastal areas.

8. The western part of Rajasthan remains almost dry during the southwest monsoon season because of the following factors:

(i) Firstly, the Aravalli Hills, are in the same direction as the southwest monsoon. They run parallel to the monsoon winds, so they do not obstruct the moisture laden winds, preventing them from releasing moisture in the form of rain.

(ii) Secondly, the winds, by the time they reach western Rajasthan, have already lost much of their moisture, having travelled from the Arabian Sea and crossed over land.

(iii) Thirdly, the heat of the hot and dry desert climate of the region inhibits the condensation of moisture, further hindering any potential rainfall in the desert region.

9. Southwest Monsoon Northeast Monsoon

(i) The summer period is marked by the southwest monsoons.

(ii) The southwest monsoon blows in a southwest direction towards the mainland of India, from June to September.

(iii) It blows in India into two branches namely the Arabian Sea Branch and Bay of Bengal Branch.

(iv) These are warm winds.

(i) The winter period is marked by northeast monsoon.

(ii) The northwest monsoon blows in a north easterly direction across India from mid-November to February.

(iii) It does not possess any branches.

(iv) These are cold winds.

10. • The Tamil Nadu coast receives winter rainfall primarily by to the northeast monsoon winds.

• During the winter months, the Indian subcontinent experiences a high-pressure system over northern India as the land cools rapidly.

• This creates a pressure gradient that drives the northeast monsoon winds from the land towards the sea.

• As these winds pass over the relatively warmer waters of the Bay of Bengal, they pick up moisture and bring it to the eastern coast of India, including Tamil Nadu.

• This phenomenon is known as the northeast monsoon or the retreating monsoon.

• The coastal areas of Tamil Nadu are influenced by weather systems such as tropical cyclones, which can also contribute to winter rainfall in the region.

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1

(i) Cyclonic storms over the Bay of Bengal are commonly associated with the Retreating Monsoon season.

(ii) Odisha is one eastern state that is frequently impacted by cyclonic storms during the Retreating Monsoon season

(iii) Build strong cyclone shelters, improve early warning systems, conduct awareness programmes, plant coastal trees, enforce building codes, and ensure quick evacuation plans to protect lives and property during cyclonic storms.

Passage 2

(i) By early June, the low-pressure condition over the northern plains intensifies. This situation attracts the trade winds of the southern hemisphere towards the Indian sub-continent.

(ii) Early in the season, the windward side of the Western Ghats receives very heavy rainfall, more than 250 cm.

(iii) (a) The season referred over here is the Advancing Monsoon (The Rainy Season).

(b) The maximum rainfall of this season is received in the north-eastern part of India. Mawsynram located in the southern ranges of the Khasi Hills receives the highest average rainfall in the world.

SELF-ASSESSMENT

Time: 1 Hour

Section A

Choose and write the correct answer for each of the following. (1 × 8 = 8 Marks)

1. Consider the scenario: A region in India receives significantly more rainfall than its neighbouring areas, leading to frequent floods. Which factor is probably influencing this phenomenon?

(a) Orographic effect

(b) Presence of desert nearby

(d) Proximity to the ocean

2. Which factor specifically contributes to the cooler climate experienced in hill stations like Shimla when compared to Delhi?

(a) Latitude

(b) Proximity to the Equator

(d) Distance from the Sea

3. How does the latitude influence the climate of India?

(a) India experiences both temperate and polar climates.

(b) Latitude affects only rainfall in India.

(d) Climate remains the same throughout the year due to latitude.

4. Which of the following explains why the Thar Desert experiences significant temperature changes between day and night?

(a) Continentality

(b) High altitude

(d) Proximity to the sea

Scan me for all answers.

Max. Marks: 40

5. Why do cities located farther from the sea experience more extreme temperatures than those near the coast?

(a) Because of continentality, the moderating influence of the sea is absent.

(b) Due to the lack of humidity inland.

(d) Because they receive more solar radiation.

6. Considering the monsoon season in India, what is one major economic impact related to agriculture and water resources?

(a) Sufficient rains ensure high agricultural productivity and water resource replenishment.

(b) Flooding leads to decreased agricultural productivity.

(d) The impact of the monsoons on the economy is minimal.

7. Match the following seasons with their characteristics or features.

Column I

Column II

A. Advancing Monsoon i. Cool days and cold nights

B. Hot Weather Season ii. Characterised by ‘October Heat’

C. Retreating Monsoon iii. Widespread rainfall, heavy in some areas

D. Cold Weather Season iv. Influenced by Loo, a hot, dry wind

(a) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii

(b) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii

(d) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

8. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): The economy of India relies significantly on the monsoon rains.

Reason (R): Monsoon rains reduce the need for irrigation, supporting water conservation.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Section B

Answer the following questions.

9. What is ‘continentality’ in climatic terms? (2 marks)

10. Discuss the impact of ‘breaks’ in the monsoon and how they affect inland areas. How can these breaks create challenges for agriculture? (3 marks)

11. What are the major factors affecting India’s climatic conditions, and how do they interrelate? (3 marks)

12. Describe the effects of an irregular monsoon season on the agricultural sector. (3 marks)

13. How do the climatic conditions during the Cold Weather Season affect the agriculture in northern India? Provide examples to support your answer. (3 marks)

14. Discuss the climatic factors leading to the onset of the Advancing Monsoon in India. (3 marks)

15. In what ways do orographic features influence rainfall patterns across different regions of India? Provide examples. (5 marks)

16. Explore how distance from the sea influences temperature and precipitation patterns in Indian cities like Chennai and Delhi. Compare their climates to illustrate your points. (5 marks)

17. Discuss the socio-economic implications of the Cold and Hot Weather Seasons on rural and urban areas in India. (5 marks)

5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

The chapter on Natural Vegetation and Wildlife highlights India’s vast biodiversity, including a rich variety of plant and animal species. India is one of the world’s mega-diversity hotspots, possessing a diverse range of flora and fauna. The chapter discusses how geographical factors like climate, soil, and relief influence the distribution of different vegetation types and wildlife in various regions of India. The chapter shows the diverse ecosystems and the vital role they play. The chapter emphasises the protection of these ecosystems from threats such as habitat destruction and pollution, and the importance of preserving biodiversity for the future.

Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Importance of Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

• Maintain ecological balance

• Provide oxygen, medicines, wood, fodder

• Wildlife supports food chain, pollination, tourism

Tropical Evergreen Forests

• Dense, multi-layered

• Heavy rainfall areas

• Trees: rosewood, ebony, mahogany

Tropical Deciduous Forests

• Most widespread

• Trees shed leaves in dry season

• Trees: sal, teak, neem

Types of Vegetation in India

Includes all living animals in forests, rivers, grasslands, deserts, etc. Wildlife

Thorn Forests and Scrubs

• Dry regions

• Scattered trees, shrubs

• Trees: cactus, babul, acacia

Types of Wildlife

• Mammals: tiger, elephant, lion

• Birds: peacock, parrot, crane

• Reptiles: crocodile, snake

• Amphibians: frog

• Aquatic animals: fish, dolphin

Montane Forests

• Found in mountains

• Vary with altitude

• Trees: pine, fir, deodar

Mangrove Forests

• Found in coastal and delta areas

• Salt-tolerant trees

• Trees: Sundari (in Sunderbans)

Conservation Measures

• Setting up Wildlife Sanctuaries, National Parks, Biosphere Reserves

• Project Tiger, Project Elephant

• Afforestation

• Laws and Acts to protect wildlife

Key Terms and Definitions

Natural Vegetation: Natural vegetation refers to a plant community, which has grown naturally without human aid and has been left undisturbed by humans for a long time. Natural vegetation is also called ‘virgin vegetation’.

Virgin Vegetation: Virgin vegetation refers to natural vegetation that has grown undisturbed by human activity for a long time. It essentially describes plant life that has developed without any human interference or cultivation.

Exotic Plants: Virgin vegetation, which are purely Indian are known as endemic or indigenous species but those which have come from outside India are termed as exotic plants.

Flora and Fauna: Flora represents all plant species while fauna represents all animal species within an ecosystem.

Tropical Evergreen Forests: These are forests that grow in regions with high rainfall (more than 200 cm), characterised by lush foliage, perennially green trees, and a diverse array of plant and animal life.

Tropical Deciduous Forests: These are forests comprising trees that shed their leaves in the dry seasons, allowing them to conserve water during periods of inadequate rainfall. These forests are widespread across India.

Thorn Forests and Scrubs: Thorn forests consist of scrubby vegetation adapted to arid and semi-arid climates, have thorny trees and deep-rooted plants that survive with minimal water.

Montane Forests: Montane forests grow in mountainous regions with varying climates, supporting an array of vegetation that evolves according to altitude and temperature changes.

Mangrove Forests: Mangrove forests are specialised coastal vegetation found in intertidal zones, characterised by trees that thrive in saline conditions and play a critical role in coastal ecosystems.

Biodiversity: Biodiversity refers to the variety of life forms in each area, encompassing genetic, species, and ecosystem diversity, crucial for ecological stability and resilience.

Succulent: Succulent refers to plants adapted to arid or semi-arid environments by storing water in their fleshy tissues. These plants, like cacti and aloe, possess thick, fleshy leaves, stems, or roots that act as reservoirs to survive water scarcity.

Nomadic: A nomad is someone who lives by travelling from place to place. Nomadic thus means anything that involves moving around rather than living in one place all of the time, for example, herdsmen and tribals.

Silt: It is the term used for sand or soil that is carried along by flowing water and then deposited, especially at a bend of a river or at a river’s mouth/delta.

Milch Animal: Milch animals refer to domesticated animals raised primarily for their ability to produce milk. These animals are a crucial source of milk and dairy products for human consumption, providing essential nutrients. Examples of milch animals include cows, buffaloes, goats, and camels.

Draught Power: Draught power refers to the ability of an animal to pull or draw a load, often used in the context of agricultural work. It’s the power generated by animals used for tasks like plowing, transportation, and powering machinery. In essence, it’s the muscle power exerted by draught animals to perform tasks.

Ecosystem: An ecosystem is a geographic area where plants, animals and other organisms, as well as weather and landscape, work together to form a bubble of life. Ecosystems contain biotic (living) factors, as well as abiotic (nonliving) factors.

Migratory: These are birds that regularly travel long distances, usually following seasonal changes or in search of food or breeding grounds. They are driven by factors like seasonal changes, food availability, and suitable breeding environment.

NCERT Zone

Intext Questions

1. What will happen if plants and animals disappear from the earth’s surface? Can the human beings survive under such a situation? Why is biodiversity necessary and why should it be conserved?

Ans. If plants and animals disappear from the Earth’s surface, it would be very dangerous for all living things, including humans.

• Plants give us oxygen to breathe, food to eat, and help keep the environment clean. Animals are also important because they help in many ways, like fertilising plants, spreading seeds, and maintaining the natural balance on the Earth. If there were no plants and animals, humans would not get enough food, oxygen, or clean air.

• Biodiversity means having many kinds of plants, animals, and other living things. It is necessary because it keeps nature balanced and healthy. Each living thing has a role to play in the environment. They are dependent on each other.

• We should conserve biodiversity to protect our Earth, keep our natural environment healthy, and make sure that future generations also enjoy the benefits of nature.

Activity

(i) Find out from the newspaper cuttings (Refer NCERT Book, page 44), the main concern highlighted in the given news items.

(ii) Collect more information about various endangered species from newspapers and magazines.

(iii) Find out various steps taken by the Indian government to protect them.

(iv) Describe how you can contribute to the protection of endangered animals and birds.

Ans. (i) The main concern highlighted in the given news items is the killing of animals and measures to protect them.

(ii) The endangered species are: Asiatic Lion, Bengal Tiger, Snow Leopard, Nilgiri Tahr, Kashmiri Red Stag, Blackbuck, One-horned rhinoceros.

(iii) In the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972, the Government of India created Protected Areas like National Parks, Sanctuaries, Conservation Reserves and Community Reserves for the wildlife and imposed punishments on those indulged in illegal act of hunting.

• One of the most successful wildlife conservation programmes across the world, is ‘Project Tiger’ which was initiated in 1972. It has not only contributed to the conservation of tigers but also of the entire ecosystem.

• The Government of India initiated Project Elephant in 1992. It aims at conserving elephants and their habitat and of migratory routes by developing scientific and planned management measures.

• Another successful programme by the Government of India is to conserve the Indian Crocodiles, whose species were on the verge of extinction once. The project also contributes towards conservation in a plethora of related fields. The main objectives of the crocodile project are to protect the remaining population of crocodiles and their natural habitat by establishing sanctuaries; to promote captive breeding; to improve management; and to involve the local people in the project.

• The UNDP Sea Turtle Project was initiated by Wildlife Institute of India, Dehradun, to conserve the Olive Ridley Turtles, in November 1999. The project is for 10 coastal states in India especially Odisha where it has prepared a map of breeding sites for Sea Turtles; identification of breeding places and habitats along the coastline, and migratory routes taken by Sea Turtles.

(iv)

• Talk to our friends and family about the amazing world of wildlife, birds, fish and plants in your vicinity.

• Learn about the endangered species in your area.

• Visit a national wildlife sanctuary, park or any other such place to know more about wildlife. These protected lands provide habitat to many native wildlife, birds, fish and plants.

• Do not purchase products made from the body parts of animals such as fur and leather products.

• The best way to protect endangered species is to protect the special places where they live. Wildlife must have safe places for their food, shelter and to raise their young. Logging, oil and gas drilling, over-grazing and urban development cause habitat destruction.

NCERT Exercises

1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

(i) To which one of the following types of vegetation does rubber belong to?

(a) Tundra

(b) Tidal

(d) Tropical Evergreen

Ans. (d) Tropical Evergreen

(ii) Cinchona trees are found in the areas of rainfall more than

(a) 100 cm (b) 50 cm

Ans. (a) 100 cm

(iii) In which of the following state is the Simlipal bio-reserve located?

(a) Punjab (b) Delhi

Ans. (c) Odisha

(iv) Which one of the following bio-reserves of India is not included in the world network of bioreserve?

(a) Manas (b) Nilgiri

Ans. (a) Manas

2. Answer the following questions briefly.

(i) What is a bio-reserve? Give two examples. Ans. A bio-reserve is a designated area meant to conserve biodiversity, promote research, and foster sustainable development. They aim to protect ecosystems and genetic resources while allowing economic growth.

Two examples of bio-reserves in India:

(i) The Sunderbans, known for its unique mangrove forest vegetation and rich wildlife.

(ii) The Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve, which hosts a diverse range of flora and fauna along with indigenous communities.

(ii) Name two animals having habitat in tropical and montane type of vegetation.

Ans. Examples of animals:

(i) Two animals found in tropical type of vegetation: tiger and monkey.

(ii) Two animals found in montane type of vegetation: snow leopard and yak.

3. Distinguish between (i) Flora and Fauna

Ans. Flora and fauna refer to the plant and animal life of a particular region, respectively. Both terms collectively describe biodiversity.

Flora Fauna

It includes all plant species, such as trees, shrubs, and grasses, and it indicates the vegetation typical to a region.

It includes all animal species like mammals, birds, insects, and fish that inhabit a region.

(ii) Tropical Evergreen and Deciduous Forests

Ans. Tropical Evergreen Forests Tropical Deciduous Forests

They are also called Rain Forest.

There is no definite time for the trees to shed their leaves so these forests appear green throughout the year.

Examples: ebony, mahogany, rubber, rosewood

Common animals found in these forests are elephants and monkeys.

These forests are found in areas receiving more than 200 cm of rainfall.

These are also called Monsoon Forest.

The trees shed their leaves for about six to eight weeks in dry summer, to conserve moisture.

Examples: teak, bamboo, sandalwood, peepal, neem

Common animals found in these forests are lions and tigers.

These forests are found in areas receiving rainfall between 200 cm and 70 cm.

4. Name different types of Vegetation found in India and describe the vegetation of high altitudes.

Ans. India has a variety of vegetation types, namely Tropical Evergreen Forests, Tropical Deciduous Forests, Tropical Thorn Forests and Scrubs, Montane Forests, and Mangrove Forests. Vegetation in high altitude:

• In high altitudes, particularly in mountainous regions, vegetation changes with elevation.

• Below 1000 meters, wet temperate forests are found with trees like oak and chestnut.

• Between 1500 and 3000 meters, temperate forests containing coniferous trees like pine, deodar, and fir predominate.

• Above 3600 meters, Alpine vegetation consists primarily of shrubs, scrubs, and grasslands used for grazing by nomadic tribes.

• These regions exhibit decreasing plant height approaching snowlines, transitioning finally to mosses and lichens in the tundra zone.

5. Quite a few species of plants and animals are endangered in India. Why?

Ans. In India, many plant and animal species face threat due to several factors.

• Excessive exploitation of natural resources by humans has led to severe habitat destruction.

• Forests are recklessly cut down for agriculture and habitation, leading to loss of biodiversity.

• Pollution from industrial wastes damages ecosystems.

• Hunting for commercial purposes has also contributed significantly to declining wildlife populations.

• Additionally, the introduction of non-native species has resulted in ecological imbalances, endangering native species’ survival.

6. Why has India a rich heritage of flora and fauna?

Ans. India’s rich heritage of flora and fauna can be attributed to the following reasons:

• India has diverse climatic conditions, varying topography, and a large geographical area that supports ecosystems ranging from tropical rainforests to alpine vegetation.

• The country’s unique locales, such as the Himalayan mountains, extensive coastal areas, and varied elevations provide habitats for an extensive range of species.

• India’s long history of agricultural practices and traditional medicinal use of plants have also helped conserve biodiversity, further enriched by a variety of government conservation efforts.

Map Skills

1. On an outline map of India, label the following.

(i) Areas of Evergreen Forests

(ii) Areas of Dry Deciduous Forests

(iii) Two national parks each in Northern, Southern, Eastern and Western parts of the Country

ARABIAN

Project/Activity

(Note: For Questions (i), (iii), (iv) and (v), answers will vary from region to region.)

(i) Find some trees in your neighbourhood having medicinal values.

(ii) Find ten occupations getting raw material from forests and wildlife.

Ans. Ten occupations that depend on forests and wildlife for raw materials are carpentry, rubber industry, leather production, medicinal herbs, paper manufacturing industry, glue/gum industry, honey collection, resin extraction, and perfume industry.

(iii) Write a poem or paragraph showing the importance of wildlife.

(iv) Write the script of a street play giving the importance of tree plantation and try to enact it in your locality.

(v) Plant a tree either on your birthday or one of your family member’s birthday. Note the growth of the tree and notice in which season it grows faster.

Practice Questions

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. What is the primary objective of wildlife sanctuaries?

(a) To restrict all human activities including tourism.

(b) To promote a tourist attraction and generate revenue for local populations.

(d) To allow scientific research with minimal restriction on resource exploitation.

2. Which of the following conservation projects is specifically aimed at protecting a species of birds?

(a) Project Great Indian Bustard

(b) Project Tiger

(d) Project Rhino

3. Why are biosphere reserves significant for conservation efforts in India?

(a) They are the only places where tourism is not allowed.

(b) They are smaller in size than wildlife sanctuaries.

(d) They integrate conservation with sustainable resource management and human settlements.

4. Which of the following types of forests is commonly called the “monsoon forest,” found in regions with 70 to 200 cm of rainfall?

(a) Tropical Evergreen Forests

(b) Tropical Deciduous Forests

(d) Mangrove Forests

5. What is a key characteristic of trees in Montane forests that enable them to thrive at higher altitudes?

(a) Coniferous trees with needle-like leaves

(b) Long roots that penetrate deep into the soil

(d) Dense, low-growing underbrush

6. In which region are Thorn Forests primarily found?

(a) Himalayan foothills

(b) Western Ghats

(d) Coastal regions of Tamil Nadu

7. Which forest type is characterised by a wide variety of wildlife including the Royal Bengal Tiger, known for its dense mangrove ecosystem?

(a) Mangrove Forests

(b) Deciduous Forests

(d) Tropical Evergreen Forests

8. The characteristic feature of which forest is the presence of aerial roots, often found in coastal regions?

(a) Tropical Deciduous Forests

(b) Montane Forests

(d) Mangrove Forests

9. What adaptation helps the deciduous forest trees survive the dry season effectively?

(a) Losing leaves to conserve water

(b) Thick bark for protection from the sun

(d) Deep roots to find underground water

10. Which type of vegetation primarily have trees that provide commercially valuable woods like teak and sal?

(a) Montane Forests

(b) Tropical Evergreen Forests

(d) Deciduous Forests

11. Which region in India is known has remaining habitat of the Asiatic lion?

(a) Ranthambore National Park

(b) Kaziranga National Park

(d) Gir Forest in Gujarat

12. Which of the following animals is a critically endangered species found in India?

(a) Elephant

(b) Lion

(d) Peacock

13. What is a major reason for the decline in the population of migratory birds in India?

(a) Deforestation

(b) Loss of wetlands

(d) Air Pollution

14. In which set of Indian states are one-horned rhinoceroses primarily found?

(a) West Bengal and Assam

(b) Rajasthan and Gujarat

(d) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar

15. Which Indian governmental project is specifically aimed at conserving the tiger population?

(a) Biosphere Reserve Programme

(b) Project Elephant

(d) Project Tiger

16. Why is the Himalayan region critical for biodiversity preservation?

(a) It relies heavily on monoculture plantations.

(b) It experiences uniform climatic conditions.

(d) It is a major industrial hub.

17. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: Project Tiger was launched to protect the Royal Bengal Tigers.

Statement II: Conservation efforts often restrict local people’s access to resources.

Statement III: Wildlife Sanctuaries encompass only big mammals.

Statement IV: All National Parks in India are designated strictly for the preservation of wildlife.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and IV are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

18. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: Tropical Evergreen Forests are found in regions with heavy rainfall.

Statement II: Mangrove Forests are generally located in arid regions.

Statement III: Thorn Forests are adapted to areas with less than 70 cm of rainfall.

Statement IV: Montane Forests are characterised by a lack of vegetation diversity.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and IV are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

19. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: Biosphere reserves focus on both the conservation of biodiversity and socioeconomic development of the people.

Statement II: Project Elephant aims to protect elephant corridors from human encroachments.

Statement III: Wildlife sanctuaries only focus on the protection of animals and not plants.

Statement IV: All biosphere reserves in India are included in the world network of biosphere reserves.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and IV are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

20. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: The natural habitat of the Indian lion is the Gir forest in Gujarat.

Statement II: Tigers inhabit the dry desert regions of Rajasthan.

Statement III: Snow leopards are typically found in the snow-covered regions of the Himalayas.

Statement IV: Royal Bengal Tigers are found in the dense mangrove forests of the Sundarbans.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, III and IV are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true

1. Assertion (A): The Bengal Tiger, found in the Sundarbans, is threatened due to habitat loss.

Reason (R): The rapid expansion of agriculture and settlements in historical tiger habitats has reduced their living space.

2. Assertion (A): Conservation projects have controlled poaching of endangered species in India.

Reason (R): Strict laws and government backing have controlled hunting activities.

3. Assertion (A): Thorn Forests predominantly exist in areas with low rainfall.

Reason (R): The trees of these forests have special survival mechanisms.

Picture Based Questions

1. Identify the type of forest shown in the image below.

(a) Mountain Forest

(b) Tropical Evergreen Forest

(d) Mangrove Forest

2. The picture given below is of mangrove forests which are found in the delta region. They are also called tidal forests.

What is the unique feature of the trees of these forests?

(a) Trees shed their leaves in autumn.

(b) The trees of these forests are multi-layered.

(d) The trees have thick barks.

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very

Short Answer

Questions (30-40 words)

1. Define biosphere reserve.

2. List one primary objective of the ‘Project Tiger’.

3. What is biodiversity conservation?

4. Define virgin vegetation. Why is it important in understanding a region’s natural ecosystem?

5. What are endemic species, and how do they differ from exotic species?

6. Which animal is specifically adapted to survive in the swampy lands of Tropical Evergreen Forests?

7. What types of environmental conditions do Montane Forests typically experience?

8. Identify the primary vegetation found in Thorn Forests.

9. List two examples of endangered species in India.

10. Identify one major factor leading to the extinction of wildlife in India.

11. Name different types of vegetation found in India and describe the vegetation of high altitudes.

12. Distinguish between tropical evergreen and deciduous forests.

Short Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. List and describe major threats that wildlife sanctuaries face today.

2. Critically evaluate the challenges faced by conservation projects focused on endangered species.

3. Discuss the primary environmental factors that contribute to the lush greenery of Tropical Evergreen Forests. Include how these factors promote the growth of various plant species.

4. How do Mangrove Forests protect coastal areas from environmental threats? Provide specific examples of these natural barriers and explain their significance.

5. Describe how Thorn Forests are adapted to their typical climate conditions. Include unique plant-features that support survival.

6. Compare the types of animals typically found in Tropical Evergreen and Deciduous Forests. Discuss the influence of forest characteristics on animal life.

7. Discuss how habitat loss affects major animal species in India with examples.

8. Identify the reasons for the decline of migratory bird populations in India. What conservation steps are being considered?

9. Describe the role of sanctuaries and national parks in conserving India’s endangered species.

10. Define the following terms: (i) Virgin vegetation (ii) Flora (iii) Fauna.

11. Explain any three characteristics of Tropical evergreen forests.

12. In which region are the thorny forests and scrubs found in India? Mention any two characteristics of such type of vegetation.

Long Answer Questions (100-120 words)

1. Evaluate the ecological and social benefits of integrating local communities into the management of biosphere reserves.

2. Evaluate the role of Deciduous Forests in the ecosystem. How do these forests contribute to biodiversity and resource availability for both humans and wildlife?

3. Explain the relationship between forest ecosystems and their geographical locations. How do factors such as climate, altitude, and biodiversity shape the types of forests found in India?

4. Discuss the significance of biodiversity hotspots in India. Explain why certain regions are prioritised for conservation efforts, including species that are under threat.

5. Which relief factors such as land and soil affect the flora and fauna of India?

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

The mangrove tidal forests are found in the areas of coasts influenced by tides. Mud and silt get accumulated on such coasts. Dense mangroves are the common varieties with roots of the plants submerged under water. The deltas of the Ganga, the Mahanadi, the Krishna, the Godavari, and the Kaveri are covered by such vegetation. In the GangaBrahmaputra delta, Sundari trees are found, which provide durable hard timber Palm, coconut, keora, agar, etc., also grow in some parts of the delta.

(a) What is the Sundari tree known for?

(b) Name the river deltas where mangrove forests are commonly found.

(c) What are the main features of mangrove trees? Explain why mangrove forests grow in coastal areas influenced by tides.

2. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

Due to excessive exploitation of plant and animal resources by human beings, the ecosystem has been disturbed. About 1,300 plant species are endangered and 20 species are extinct. Quite a few animal species are also endangered and some have become extinct. The main causes for this major threat to nature are hunting by greedy hunters for commercial purposes. Pollution due to chemical and industrial waste, acid deposits, introduction of alien species and reckless cutting of the forests to bring land under cultivation and habitation, are also responsible for the imbalance.

(a) What is the main reason for hunting animals?

(b) How many plant species are extinct?

Answers

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. (c) To protect specific endangered animal species by prohibiting hunting and poaching

2. (a) Project Great Indian Bustard

3. (d) They integrate conservation with sustainable resource management and human settlements.

4. (b) Tropical Deciduous Forests

5. (a) Coniferous trees with needle-like leaves.

6. (c) Semi-arid areas of Gujarat and Rajasthan

7. (a) Mangrove Forests

8. (d) Mangrove Forests

9. (a) Losing leaves to conserve

10. (d) Deciduous Forests

11. (d) Gir Forest in Gujarat

12. (c) Great Indian Bustard

13. (b) Loss of wetlands

14. (a) West Bengal and Assam

15. (d) Project Tiger

16. (c) It has a high number of endemic species.

17. (b) Statements I, II and IV are appropriate.

18. (d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

19. (a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

20. (b) Statements I, III and IV are appropriate.

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

2. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

3. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Picture Based Questions

1. (b) Tropical Evergreen Forest

2. (c) The trees have special aerial roots for breathing.

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30-40 words)

1. • Biosphere reserves are regions formed to conserve biological diversity of plants, animals, and microorganisms.

• These reserves promote sustainable development for local communities, scientific research, and education.

2. • The primary objective of ‘Project Tiger’ is the protection and stability of their natural habitats. It also strives to maintain the ecological balance within tiger reserves.

• It aims to stop poaching and illegal trade of tigers.

3. Conservation helps to sustain resources for future generations and ecological health.

• Biodiversity conservation aims to protect and preserve the variety of species on earth to maintain the balance of ecosystem.

• It focuses on protecting natural habitats and implementing laws against poaching.

4. • Virgin vegetation refers to plant communities that have grown naturally without human interference and has been left undisturbed by humans for a long time.

• Understanding virgin vegetation helps in conservation and restoration efforts. It serves as a baseline for studying environmental changes and human impacts.

5. • Endemic species are plants and animals native to a specific region or habitat. They have evolved and adapted to local environmental conditions over time.

• Exotic species are non-native and introduced from other regions or country. It can affect the balance of ecosystem.

6. The one-horned rhinoceros is adapted to live in the swampy lands of Tropical Evergreen Forests. This animal is found in the jungles of Assam and West Bengal. These areas provide the necessary habitat and food resources.

7. Montane Forests are in mountainous regions with varying altitudes. They experience a decrease in temperature with increasing altitude. These forests have wet temperate conditions at lower elevations. Snow line and alpine conditions prevail at higher altitudes, affecting vegetation diversity.

8. Thorn Forests vegetation consists of thorny trees and bushes adapted to arid and semi-arid climates. Common vegetation includes acacias, cacti, and euphorbias. The plants often have long roots for reaching deep water sources.

9. Two examples of endangered species in India

(i) The Bengal Tiger is an endangered species facing habitat loss.

(ii) The Asiatic Lion, found only in Gujarat, is also endangered. These species highlight the rich biodiversity of India.

12. Tropical Evergreen Forests Tropical Deciduous

Trees of these forests have no specific time to shed their leaves.

10.

• Habitat destruction is a major factor leading to wildlife extinction.

• Deforestation for agriculture and urban development leads to the decline in the population of wildlife in India.

11.

• Different types of vegetation in India include Tropical evergreen forests, Tropical deciduous forests, Tropical thorn forests and scrubs, Montane forests, and Mangrove forests.

• High-altitude vegetation or Alpine vegetation, is found above 3600 m and includes trees like junipers, birches, and pines.

Forests

Trees of these forests shed their leaves during the dry summer.

Rainfall is more than 200 cm. Rainfall ranges between 200 cm to 70 cm.

Short Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. Wildlife sanctuaries face several challenges that threaten their effectiveness as safe havens for biodiversity.

• Poaching still continues despite of conservation laws, endangering species.

• The expansion of human settlements is reducing space for wildlife.

• Pollution contaminates habitats, affecting flora and fauna health.

• Climate change affects ecosystems, results in survival challenges for species.

2. Conservation projects for endangered species faces several significant challenges.

• Funding limitations can restrict the scope and impact of projects.

• Human-wildlife conflict arising from overlapping habitats poses risks to species.

• Climate change alters habitats, complicating conservation efforts.

• Lack of public awareness can undermine support for conservation initiatives.

3. Environmental factors that contribute to the lush greenery of Tropical Forests are:

• These forests are in areas receiving rainfall exceeding 200 cm annually, ensuring continuous water supply.

• The warm and humid climate promotes vigorous plant growth and minimal leaf shedding.

• Multilayered vegetation captures ample sunlight.

• The absence of a distinct dry season keeps the forests green year-round.

4. Mangrove Forests play a crucial role in protecting coastal regions from natural calamities.

• Mangrove stabilise coastlines by reducing erosion and absorbing wave energy.

• Their dense root networks trap sediments, protecting against storms and tidal surges. Mangroves act as natural filters, by cleansing the water.

• They provide critical habitats for fish, birds, and other wildlife, enhancing biodiversity. For example, mangroves in the Sundarbans mitigate cyclone impacts effectively.

5. Thorn Forests are well-suited to arid regions with sparse rainfall due to their unique plant features.

• These forests consist of thorny trees and shrubs with long roots to reach deep water sources.

• Their leaves are small, thick, and waxy to minimise water loss and prevent evaporation.

• Thick stems store water, enabling plants to survive prolonged in hot and dry periods.

6. Comparison of the types of animals found in Tropical Evergreen and Deciduous Forests:

• Tropical Evergreen Forests support diverse animals like elephants, monkeys, and deer due to dense vegetation and consistent greenery which provides constant food supply.

• Deciduous Forests are home to lions, tigers, and elephants, with open stretches offering habitats for a variety of fauna. Deciduous forests offer seasonal resources, influencing species migration and adaptation.

7. Habitat loss is a significant threat to wildlife populations in India.

• Animals like tigers and elephants are impacted by deforestation.

• Urban expansion reduces the natural living space of species such as leopards and deer.

• Agricultural expansion displaces many wildlife species. For example, the decline of the tiger population is partly due to habitat loss.

8. The main reasons for the decline of migratory bird populations in India are as follows:

• There is loss of wetlands due to urbanisation.

• Different types of pollution affect food availability for these migratory birds.

• Unregulated hunting also poses a threat to their survival. Conservation steps include creating and protecting bird sanctuaries.

9. Sanctuaries and national parks are crucial for wildlife conservation.

• Wildlife parks and sanctuaries provide safe habitats for many endangered species, for example, the Kaziranga National Park are vital for one-horned rhinoceroses.

• They provide a protected natural breeding place for wildlife.

• They prevent poaching and human interference.

• Through tourism, they raise awareness and funds for conservation.

10. (i) Virgin vegetation: Virgin vegetation refers to natural vegetation that has grown undisturbed by human activity for a long time. It describes plant life that has developed without any human interference or cultivation.

(ii) Flora: The term flora is used to denote plants of a particular region or period.

(iii) Fauna: The term fauna refers to species of animals of a particular region or period.

11. Three characteristics:

(i) Trees reach heights up to 60 metres or more. They are tall, thick and have vigorous growth.

(ii) The region is warm and wet throughout the year, so the forests have luxuriant multilayered structure comprising a variety of trees, shrubs and creepers.

(iii) There is no definite time for trees to shed their leaves, hence forests appear green throughout the year.

12. This vegetation is found in the North-Western part of India including semi-arid areas of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh and Haryana.

Characteristics of thorn forests and scrubs: (i) Trees are scattered and have long roots penetrating deep into the soil to get moisture.

(ii) The stems are succulent to conserve water. (iii) Leaves are mostly small and thick to minimise evaporation.

Long Answer Questions (100-120

words)

1. Integrating local communities into biosphere reserve management has multiple benefits.

• Promoting sustainable resource use helps in aligning local practices with conservation.

• This integration enhances biodiversity protection through community-driven initiative.

• By empowering local communities to actively participate in decision making processes, ensuring that conservation efforts are relevant and sustainable and local needs are addressed.

• It also facilitates knowledge exchange between traditional and scientific understanding.

• Local communities generally have invaluable knowledge about their ecosystem which is very important for effective conservation planning and protection of indigenous plant species.

• It also generates economic benefits through ecotourism and sustainable practices. Community support for conservation should be increased to ensure long term success.

2. Deciduous Forests, known for their seasonal changes, play a significant role in ecosystems.

• The trees of these forests shed their leaves in the dry seasons, to avoid water loss and reduce evaporation.

• They contribute to soil fertility, as fallen leaves decompose and enrich the soil, adding to soil fertility and productivity in the surrounding areas.

• These forests act as carbon sinks, absorbing and storing atmospheric carbon dioxide which helps to regulate local climate and air quality.

• These forests support diverse wildlife, including tigers, elephants, and various birds. Deciduous trees like teak and sal are economically important for timber and other resources.

3. Forest ecosystems in India are directly linked to their geographical characteristics.

• Climate influences forest types, with tropical forests in humid regions and Thorn Forests in dry areas.

• Altitude affects vegetation, with Montane Forests varying from broad-leafed to coniferous forest with needle-like leaves.

• Biodiversity thrives in Tropical Evergreen Forests due to high rainfall and stable temperatures.

• Mangrove Forests form in tidal zones, adapting to saline conditions with aerial roots.

• Deciduous Forests dominate areas with seasonal rainfall, shedding leaves for water conservation.

4. Biodiversity hotspots in India:

• Biodiversity hotspots are regions with significant levels of endemic species, crucial for global ecological balance.

• India is home to two major hotspots: the Western Ghats and the Eastern Himalayas.

• These areas have rich biodiversity but face threats from human activities.

• Hotspots support various ecosystems and are key to conservation priorities as their loss would have a devastating impact on the planet’s ecosystem and species.

• They harbour endangered species like the Lion-tailed Macaque and the Red Panda. Conservation efforts here help protect not just species, but entire ecosystems.

• These regions provide ecological services essential for human survival.

5. Relief factors such as land and soil greatly affect the flora and fauna of India:

(i) Land

• The nature of land influences the type of vegetation, e.g. plains, wet lands, mountain, etc.

• The undulating and rough terrains are areas where grassland and woodlands develop and give shelter to a variety of wildlife.

• The fertile land is generally used for agriculture.

(ii) Soil

• Different types of soils provide a basis for different types of vegetation.

• The sandy soils of the desert support cactus and thorny bushes; while wet, marshy deltaic soils support mangroves and deltaic vegetation.

• The hill slopes with some depth of soil have forest vegetation comprising a variety of conical trees.

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1

(a) The Sundari tree is known for providing durable and hard timber, which is useful for making furniture and building materials.

(b) • Mangrove forests are commonly found in the deltas of the Ganga, Mahanadi, Krishna, Godavari, and Kaveri rivers.

• The main features of mangrove trees are that they grow in coastal areas influenced by tides, and their roots are submerged under water.

(c) Mangrove forests grow influenced by tides because these areas have a mix of saltwater and freshwater, and soft, muddy soil where mud and silt get deposited. These conditions are ideal for the growth of mangrove trees.

Passage 2

(a) The main reason for hunting animals is for commercial purposes, by greedy hunters.

(b) About 20 plant species are extinct.

(i) Hunting by greedy hunters, for commercial purposes

(ii) Pollution due to chemical and industrial waste

(iii) Introduction of alien species

(iv) Reckless cutting of forests for cultivation and habitation.

SELF-ASSESSMENT

Time: 1 Hour

Section A

Choose and write the correct answer for each of the following. (1 × 8 = 8 Marks)

1. Which of the following best describes a biosphere reserve?

(a) A zone where hunting and logging are promoted to balance ecosystems.

(b) A protected area for conserving a wide range of flora and fauna, which also includes human settlements where sustainable practices are encouraged.

(d) An area reserved exclusively for scientific research and not open to public.

2. The characteristic feature of which forest is the presence of aerial roots, often evident in coastal delta regions?

(a) Tropical Deciduous Forests

(b) Montane Forests

(d) Mangrove Forests

3. What adaptation helps the deciduous forest trees survive the dry season effectively?

(a) Losing leaves to conserve water

(b) Thick bark for protection from the sun

(d) Deep roots to find underground water

4. Which type of vegetation primarily consists of trees that yield commercially valuable wood like teak and sal?

(a) Montane Forests

(b) Tropical Evergreen Forests

(d) Deciduous Forests

5. Which region in India is known for being the last remaining habitat of the Asiatic lion?

(a) Ranthambore National Park

(b) Kaziranga National Park

Scan me for all answers.

Max. Marks: 40

(d) Gir Forest in Gujarat

6. In which set of Indian states are one-horned rhinoceroses primarily found?

(a) West Bengal and Assam

(b) Rajasthan and Gujarat

(d) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar

7. Why is the Himalayan region critical for biodiversity preservation?

(a) It relies heavily on monoculture plantations.

(b) It experiences uniform climatic conditions.

(d) It is a major industrial hub.

8. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Forests help in controlling the climate and rainfall patterns.

Reason (R): Forests absorb carbon dioxide and release oxygen.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false, but R is true.

Section B

Answer the following questions.

9. Define ‘endemic species’ within the context of Indian wildlife. (2 Marks)

10. Differentiate between tropical evergreen and deciduous forests. (3 Marks)

11. What are the main characteristics that define an animal as an endangered species? Explain why the Great Indian Bustard is considered endangered? (3 Marks)

12. What steps have been taken by the government to protect the flora and fauna of the country? (3 Marks)

13. Compare the types of animals typically found in Tropical Evergreen and Deciduous Forests. Discuss the influence of forest characteristics on animal life. (3 Marks)

14. Mark the following on the outline map of India. (3 Marks)

(a) Kanha National Park

(b) Shade and label the area where Montane Vegetation is found.

15. Examine the impact of climate change on India’s wildlife ecosystems, particularly focusing on endangered species. Illustrate how these changes threaten both flora and fauna. (5 Marks)

16. Evaluate the role of Deciduous Forests in the ecosystem. How do these forests contribute to biodiversity and resource availability for both humans and wildlife? (5 Marks)

17. Analyse how India’s cultural and religious beliefs have influenced wildlife conservation approaches and methodologies. (5 Marks)

ARABIAN SEA

BAY OF BENGAL

INDIAN OCEAN

LAKSHADWEEP (INDIA)

6 Population

Population refers to the number of people living in a country at a particular time. It includes growth, distribution, and density, along with migration trends. It shows how factors like birth rate, death rate, and socio-economic elements impact demographic changes over time. The characteristics of population is determined by its geographical and cultural factors. By understanding these dynamics, we will get to know about resource management and policy-making strategies in India, considering future implications for economic and social development.

Population

Definition Key Features

Total number of people living in a country or area

Population Size

• Total count from the latest Census

Factors Affecting

Population

Birth Rate

• Birth rate means the number of live births in a year for every 1,000 people in a population.

Death Rate

• Death rate measured as the number of deaths per 1,000 people in the population.

Migration

• Migration means the movement of people from one place to another to live, work, or settle can be within a country or between countries.

Population Distribution

• How people are spread across regions (dense/ sparse)

Population Density

• Number of people per square km

Population Growth

• Increase or decrease in population over time

Impact of Population

Pressure on resources (food, water, housing) Employment and education challenges Health care demand Urbanization

Uses of Population Data

Key Terms and Definitions

Population: Population refers to the total number of people living in a given area at a specific time, influencing social structures, economic activities, and resource consumption. Its characteristics are density, distribution, growth trends, and the demographics.

Census: A census is an official process of counting the population of a country, providing comprehensive data on demographic variables including age, sex, occupation, and residence.

Population Density: Population density represents the number of individuals per unit area in a given region, showing how populated an area is. It is calculated by dividing the total population by the total land area.

Population Growth: Population growth is an increase or decrease of population as compared to the base population at a given area. It can be measured annually or over a decade.

Migration: Migration involves the movement of people from one location to another, either within a country or across borders, significantly affecting the structure and distribution of populations, influenced by economic, social, and environmental factors.

Adolescents: Adolescents are defined as individuals aged 10 to 19 years. They are important for future societal development, health planning, and educational resource allocation.

Death Rate: Death rate refers to the number of deaths per thousand persons in a year.

Birth Rate: Birth rate refers to the number of births per thousand persons in a year.

NCERT Zone

Intext Questions

1. What could be the reason of uneven distribution of population in India?

Ans. Uneven distribution of population in India is primarily due to varying factors like physical geography, climate, and availability of resources.

• Regions like the Northern plains have flat lands, fertile soil, and abundant water, leading to high population density.

• On the contrary, areas like Rajasthan and the Himalayas, with harsh climate and rugged terrain, have scarce populations.

• Economic opportunities, social conditions, and urbanisation also contribute to uneven population distribution across the country.

Activity

Study the data in the given table. What does it reveal?

Ans. Analysis of the data shows the following:

• Increased Population Size: The table shows a substantial increase in India’s population, from 361 million in 1951 to 683 million in 1981.

• Rising Growth Rate: The annual population growth rate was steadily increasing from 1951 to 1981, contributing to the rapid increase in population.

• Declining Growth Rate, Increasing Addition: While the population growth rate has slowed down since 1981, the absolute number of people added to the population each decade continues to increase. This highlights that even with slower growth rates, the sheer size of the existing population means that more people are being added each decade.

NCERT Exercises

1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below.

(i) Migrations change the number, distribution, and composition of the population in

(a) the area of departure

(b) the area of arrival

(d) none of the above

Ans. (c) both the area of departure and arrival

(ii) A large proportion of children in a population is a result of

(a) high birth rates

(b) high life expectancies

(d) more married couples

Ans. (a) high birth rates

(iii) The magnitude of population growth refers to

(a) the total population of an area

(b) the number of persons added each year

(d) the number of females per thousand males

Ans. (b) the number of persons added each year

(iv) According to the Census, a “literate” person is one who

(a) can read and write his/her name (b) can read and write any language (c) is 7 years old and can read and write any language with understanding (d) knows the 3 ‘R’s (reading, writing, arithmetic)

Ans. (c) is 7 years old and can read and write any language with understanding

2. Answer the following questions briefly.

(i) Why is the rate of population growth in India declining since 1981?

Ans. • The rate of population growth in India has been declining since 1981 due to a significant reduction in birth rates.

• Increased efforts in family planning, enhancement in healthcare facilities, and improved educational standards, especially for women, have contributed to this trend.

• Awareness of family welfare, along with socio-economic development, has reduced the fertility rates, leading to a gradual decrease in population growth rates.

(ii) Discuss the major components of population growth.

Ans. The major components of population growth include:

(a) Birth rates: number of live births per thousand people in a year, primarily contributing to natural population growth

(b) Death rates: number of deaths per thousand people per year, influencing the population size.

(c) Migration: Migration refers to the movement of people across regions or countries, affecting the distribution and composition of population.

(iii) Define age structure, death rate and birth rate.

Ans. • Age structure refers to the distribution of the population across different age groups, indicating the proportion of children, working-age adults, and elderly.

• Death rate is defined as the number of deaths per thousand people in a year, influencing population decrease.

Ans.

• Birth rate is the number of live births per thousand people in a year, contributing to population growth.

(iv) How is migration a determinant factor of population change?

• Migration is a determinant factor of population change as it affects the size, distribution, and structure of populations.

• While internal migration redistributes population within a country, international migration can alter the population size of the originating and destination countries.

• Migration influences age and sex composition, particularly in urban areas, and impacts socio-economic development, resource allocation, and cultural dynamics within regions.

3. Distinguish between population growth and population change.

Ans. Population Growth Population Change

It refers to the increase in the number of individuals in a population, measured in terms of annual growth rates or absolute numbers.

Focuses on the numerical change in the number of people in a region.

It primarily results from the difference between birth rates and death rates.

It includes not only growth but also the alteration in distribution, density, composition, and size of a population.

Considers not only the number of people but also their characteristics, such as age, gender, and education.

Migration plays a crucial role in population change.

4. What is the relation between occupational structure and development?

Ans. Relation between occupational structure and development:

• The occupational structure of a population is directly related to its level of development.

• A higher proportion of the workforce in secondary and tertiary sectors, such as industry and services, indicates economic advancement and modernisation.

• In contrast, a large population engaged in primary activities like agriculture suggests limited development.

• Enhanced infrastructure, education, and technology facilitate shifts in occupational structure towards more productive and developed economic sectors

5. What are the advantages of having a healthy population?

Ans. A healthy population brings numerous advantages:

(i) It increases productivity and economic development, as healthy individuals contribute effectively to the workforce.

(ii) It reduces the burden on healthcare systems and conserves resources for other development needs.

(iii) A healthy population leads to improved quality of life, reduced mortality rates, and fosters longevity.

(iv) It supports the ways society and the economy are organised, making sure there is a long-term good future for everyone.

6. What are the significant features of the National Population Policy 2000?

Ans. The National Population Policy 2000 of India focuses on achieving a stable population by 2045. It aims for the following:

(i) Provide free and compulsory education up to the of age 14 years.

(ii) Reduce infant mortality rates below 30 per 1000 live births.

(iii) Ensure universal immunisation against preventable diseases.

(iv) Promoting delayed marriage for girls, responsibly planned parenthood, and making family welfare people-centred are key features.

(v) Emphasise on education and empowerment of women.

Practice Questions

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. How does rural-urban migration impact the demographic structure of cities?

(a) Decreases economic opportunities

(b) Improves rural agricultural output

(d) Reduces population density

2. What is a significant challenge faced by adolescents in India, as identified by the National Population Policy?

(a) Overpopulation

(b) Chronic malnutrition

(d) Access to higher education

3. What are the potential consequences of an imbalanced sex ratio in a population?

(a) Decreased economic output and balanced population growth.

(b) Higher rates of literacy and gender equality.

(d) Stable employment rates and economic equilibrium.

4. Why might a high dependency ratio be problematic for economic productivity?

(a) Fewer people in the workforce increase the economic burden on the working population.

(b) It typically results in a larger youth population, boosting innovation.

(d) There is increased international trade to offset economic imbalances.

5. Which of the following regions in India is most likely to experience significant population growth due to high birth rates?

(a) Western Desert

(b) Eastern Ghats

(d) Arid Regions of Rajasthan

6. How did the adoption of family planning programs in India influence birth rates post-1980?

(a) No significant effect

(b) Increased birth rates

(d) Decreased birth rates

7. Which factor significantly contributes to a region having a high birth rate?

(a) High literacy rates among women

(b) Lack of healthcare facilities

(d) Urbanisation

8. Which among the following best describes the reason for uneven distribution of population in India?

(a) Uniform economic opportunities

(b) Differences in climate and topography

(d) Consistent political stability across regions

9. The district of Bihar is highly populated compared to Arunachal Pradesh. This is mainly because:

(a) Both have identical climate patterns.

(b) Bihar has more favourable agricultural conditions.

(d) Arunachal Pradesh has more educational institutions.

10. What aspect of population density is crucial for planning urban infrastructure?

(a) Concentration of people per unit area

(b) Total agricultural output

(d) Total land area available

11. Comparing two regions’ population densities helps in understanding:

(a) Cultural heritage

(b) Difference in literacy levels

(d) Political ideologies

12. What makes the population census a crucial tool for economic planning in India?

(a) It highlights current political trends.

(b) It ignores regional disparities.

(d) It focuses solely on cultural activities.

13. Which of the following best explains why migration does not directly affect India’s total population size?

(a) Migration occurs equally in all directions.

(b) Internal migration is sporadic.

(d) Most migration is internal, redistributing the population.

14. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: Population increases with a rise in birth rate and a decrease in death rate.

Statement II: Every 10 years, a census is conducted in India.

Statement III: Rajasthan has the highest population density in India.

Statement IV: Population size gives insight into cultural diversity.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and III are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

15. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: The National Population Policy 2000 aimed to achieve universal immunisation of children.

Statement II: Family Welfare Programme promotes voluntary family planning.

Statement III: Adolescent education is not part of the National Population Policy 2000.

Statement IV: The National Population Policy makes family welfare a people-centred programme.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and IV are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

A. Reducing Infant Mortality Rate i. Prevent vaccinepreventable diseases

B. Universal Immunisation ii. After 18 years of age

C. Promoting Delayed Marriage for Girls iii. Below 30 per 1000 live births

(a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii (b) A-iii, B-ii, C-i

16. Match the following objectives of the National Population Policy with their respective areas of achievement: Column I Column II

17. What are the primary push factors from rural areas that lead to migration towards urban regions in India?

(a) Access to healthcare

(b) Better educational facilities

(d) Poverty and unemployment

18. In the context of the National Population Policy, which population group is particularly targeted for better reproductive health education and services?

(a) Newborns (b) Senior citizens

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true

1. Assertion (A): The National Population Policy 2000 aims to integrate education with health interventions.

Reason (R): Linking education with health awareness leads to better health outcomes and supports population stabilisation efforts.

2. Assertion (A): After 1981, the annual growth rate of Indian population began to decline. Reason (R): The introduction of population control policies played a vital role in this decline.

3. Assertion (A): Regions with high population density have the greatest access to resources. Reason (R): These regions are in the most fertile agricultural zones.

Picture Based Questions

Look at the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

(a) Identify two push factors that might force people to leave Place A.

(b) Identify two pull factors that might attract people to Place B.

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30-40 words)

1. Define rural-urban migration.

2. Define the term ‘age dependency ratio’.

3. Why is universal immunisation significant in the context of the National Population Policy 2000?

4. What do you understand by the term ‘sex ratio’?

5. Define birth rate and its significance in population studies.

6. Mention two factors that can lead to a decline in death rates in a country.

7. How does population growth affect resource distribution in a country?

8. Define ‘population density’ in the context of demographic studies.

9. What is population Census? How often is population census conducted in India?

10. What is the primary characteristic of an area with high population density?

11. Which factor directly contributes to population growth in India?

12. How does the National Population Policy 2000 propose to handle population growth concerns?

13. What is one significant consequence if objectives of the National Population Policy 2000 are not met?

Short Answer Questions (50–60 words)

1. How does international migration affect the cultural dynamics of both the originating and receiving countries? Support your answer with examples.

2. Discuss the significance of the objectives set by the National Population Policy 2000. Why are they crucial for India’s socio-economic development?

3. Analyse the achievements of the National Population Policy 2000. What milestones have been reached since its implementation?

4. Describe how variations in the age structure of a population can impact economic development.

5. How has the declining death rate after 1980 influenced India’s social and economic landscape? Discuss.

6. How can the uneven distribution of population impact resource allocation in India? Write a brief analysis.

7. What role does the National Population Policy play in controlling India’s population size? Discuss its primary strategies.

8. How do geographic features like mountains and rivers influence the population density of a region? Support your answer with examples.

Place B

9. Analyse the impact of high population density on urban infrastructure, citing specific examples from Indian cities.

10. What are the two main difference between Total Population and Average Density of Population.

Long Answer Questions

(100–120 words)

1. Critically evaluate how the National Population Policy 2000 addresses the challenges faced by the adolescent population in India. Consider health, education, and societal norms.

2. Discuss the key challenges faced by countries with an imbalanced sex ratio. How can these challenges impact future population growth and stability?

3. Explain with examples, the concept of brain drain in the context of international migration. What are its implications for the home country?

4. Discuss the major outcomes of the 2011 Indian Census and how it impacts socioeconomic planning at both national and state levels.

5. Explain the major components of population growth and discuss their impact on the population.

6. What are the advantages of having a healthy population for a country?

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

The most significant feature of the Indian population is the size of its adolescent population. It constitutes one-fifth of the total population of India. Adolescents are, generally, grouped in the age group of 10 to 19 years. They are the most important resource for the future. Nutrition requirements of adolescents

are higher than those of a normal child or adult. Poor nutrition can lead to deficiency and stunted growth. But in India, the diet available to adolescents is inadequate in all nutrients. A large number of adolescent girls suffer from anaemia. Their problems have so far not received adequate attention in the process of development. The adolescent girls have to be sensitised to the problems they confront. Awareness among them can be improved through the spread of literacy and education.

(a) Which section of the population constitutes one-fifth of the total population of India

(b) What is the nutrition and diet scenario in India

2. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

Migration is an important determinant of population change. It changes not only the population size but also the population composition of urban and rural populations in terms of age and sex composition. In India, the rural-urban migration has resulted in a steady increase in the percentage of population in cities and towns. The urban population has increased from 17.29 per cent of the total population in 1951 to 31.80 per cent in 2011. There has been a significant increase in the number of ‘million plus cities’ from 35 to 53 in just one decade, i.e., 2001 to 2011. In 2023 there were 59 million plus cities in India.

(a) What is migration?

(b) What changes are brought about by migration?

Map Based Questions

On the political outline map of India, identify and label the following:

(i) State with the highest population density

(ii) State with the lowest population density.

Answers

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. (c) Increases youth population

2. (b) Chronic malnutrition

3. (c) Increased social tensions and potential demographic challenges.

4. (a) Fewer people in the workforce increase the economic burden on the working population.

5. (c) Northern Plains

6. (d) Decreased birth rates

7. (c) Low levels of contraception use

8. (b) Differences in climate and topography

9. (b) Bihar has more favourable agricultural conditions.

10. (a) Concentration of people per unit area

11. (c) Resource allocation needs

12. (c) It offers data on population distribution and characteristics.

13. (d) Most migration is internal, redistributing the population.

14. (d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

15. (b) Statements I, II and IV are appropriate.

16. (c) A-iii, B-i, C-ii

17. (d) Poverty and unemployment

18. (c) Adolescents

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

2. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

3. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Picture Based Questions

(a) Push Factors (from Place A):

(i) Lack of job opportunities

(ii) Poor healthcare or education facilities

(b) Pull Factors (to Place B):

(i) Better employment options

(ii) Good schools and hospitals

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30–40 words)

1. • Rural-urban migration involves the movement of people from rural areas to cities.

• This migration is often motivated by economic opportunities and better living standards.

• It results in demographic shifts within urban areas, increasing urban density.

2. • The ‘age dependency ratio’ is the ratio of dependents.

• Dependents are those not in the labour force; typically, aged 0–14 and 65+.

• It is expressed as a percentage of the working-age population (15–64 years).

• This ratio helps in analysing economic pressures on productive individuals.

3. • Universal immunisation is significant in the context of the National Population Policy 2000 because it helps reduce infant and child mortality.

• By protecting children from deadly diseases through vaccines, it supports the policy’s goal of improving health.

4. • Sex ratio is defined as the number of females per 1,000 males in a population.

• It’s a crucial indicator reflecting the balance between genders in a society.

• A healthy sex ratio is close to 1:1.

5. • Birth rate is the number of live births per 1,000 people annually.

• It indicates population growth potential of a region or country.

• A high birth rate typically signifies low economic and social development and a lower birth rate, lower development.

6. Two factors that can lead to a decline in death rates in a country:

(i) Improved medical facilities: Better medical facilities—hospitals, doctors, and medicines, help in treating diseases and saving lives.

(ii) Better sanitation and clean drinking water: These prevent the spread of diseases and improve overall health.

7. • Population growth increases demand for resources like food and water.

• It can lead to scarcity and unequal resource distribution.

• Strains infrastructure and public services due to higher demand.

• Planning becomes critical to ensure sustainable resource access.

8. • Population density measures the number of people living per unit area.

• It is calculated by dividing the total population by the land area.

• It is crucial for planning infrastructure and services.

• It began in 1872 and became decadal from 1881.

• It provides demographic, social, and economic data.

10.

• High population density indicates many people living in a small area.

• It often results in crowded living conditions and stressed resources.

• It may impact quality of life and environmental sustainability.

11. • India’s population grows mainly due to a high birth rate.

• Many families have more children, and with better healthcare, more babies survive, leading to a fast increase in population.

12. The National Population Policy 2000 aims to control population growth by promoting family planning, improving healthcare, reducing infant mortality, delaying marriages, and increasing awareness about the benefits of small families.

13. Failing to meet the objectives of the National Population Policy 2000 could lead to problems such as unchecked population growth which could result in greater strain on limited resources and services.

Short Answer Questions (50-60

words)

1. International migration affects the cultural dynamics of both the originating and receiving countries.

• Migrants bring diverse cultural practices to the host country.

• Food, music, and festivals from the home country become part of the local culture, like Mexican cuisine in the USA.

• Originating countries may adopt customs or languages from returned emigrants.

• Cultural transmission fosters better international relations and understanding.

2. The National Population Policy 2000 was made to guide India’s socio-economic development:

(i) It aims to stabilise the population, facilitating better resource management.

• A census is an official enumeration of population done periodically.

• The population census in India is conducted every 10 years.

(ii) Improves quality of life by promoting health care and education.

(iii) Emphasises women and child welfare, crucial for uplifting marginalised sections.

(iv) Promotes gender equality, reducing societal disparities.

(v) Contributes to economic growth by creating a healthier and educated workforce.

3. Since its launch, the National Population Policy 2000 has achieved significant milestones in population management.

(i) Birth and death rates have been declining.

(ii) Improved infant and maternal health through targeted programs.

(iii) Increased awareness of reproductive health in adolescents.

(iv) Literacy rates are increasing.

(v) Steady improvement in gender equality and women’s health care.

4. The age structure of a population greatly influences its economic development.

• A larger working-age population can contribute more to economic activities, increasing productivity.

• Conversely, a higher proportion of dependents, like children and the elderly, can strain resources.

• A youthful population may mean future growth potential but needs investment in education and jobs.

• An aging population increases healthcare and pension costs.

5. Post-1980, India’s declining death rate led to social and economic changes.

• Lower death rates improved life expectancy, enhancing human capital.

• Economic growth is there as healthier workforce is contributing to productivity.

• Social structures shifted, with increased focus on elderly care.

• Urbanisation accelerated as more people lived longer needs, affecting housing.

6. Population distribution significantly affects resource allocation in India.

(i) Areas with high population density like cities may face resource shortages, leading to infrastructure strain.

(ii) Rural areas with sparse populations might struggle with insufficient services, affecting living standards.

(iii) Uneven distribution requires differential planning.

(iv) Urban migration trends increase pressure on city resources.

7. (i) National Population Policy aims to stabilise India’s population through various measures.

(ii) Emphasises free and compulsory education up to 14 years for reducing fertility rates.

(iii) Delaying marriage age and promoting family welfare for informed family planning.

(iv) Universal immunisation and reducing infant mortality aid by enhancing public health.

(v) NPP encourages voluntary family planning services, empowering informed reproductive choices.

8. Geographic features significantly influence where people settle.

• Mountains often lead to lower population densities due to harsh living conditions.

• Rivers and river valleys attract settlements by providing water and fertile land, enhancing agricultural prospects. For instance, the Ganges in India supports dense populations due to its irrigation benefits.

• On the contrary, the Himalayas have sparse populations due to challenging terrain and climate.

9. High population density profoundly impacts urban infrastructure in Indian cities.

• Compromises infrastructure quality, evident in Mumbai’s crowded trains and roads.

• Increases demand for housing, driving prices and overloading utilities in cities like Delhi.

• Public services like healthcare and sanitation face strain, affecting quality of life.

• High population density necessitates innovative urban planning for sustainable growth.

10.

Total Population Average Density of Population

(i) It is the number of people actually existing in the area.

(ii) Its unit of measurement is number of people.

(i) It is the number of people in a unit area after the distribution of the total population uniformly.

(ii) Its unit of measurement is the number of people per unit area.

Long Answer Questions (100–120

words)

1. The NPP 2000 identifies adolescents as crucial for India’s future, addressing their diverse challenges.

• Health initiatives focus on nutritional needs, which is very important for growing adolescents.

• Educational interventions aim to lower dropout rates and increase literacy rate.

• It promotes awareness of reproductive health which helps in reducing early marriage and pregnancies.

• It challenges societal norms by advocating for gender equality and female education.

• It involves community and parents so as to support adolescent needs and ambitions.

• It strives to create informed, healthy adults by addressing root social issues.

2. Countries with an imbalanced sex ratio face several challenges:

• An uneven sex ratio may lead to difficulties in marriages and tensions.

• It can also create mental health issues due to loneliness and frustration among men

• Gender imbalances could result in societal unrest and increased crime.

• Over time, fewer marriages and families may reduce birth rates, leading to an aging population and slower population growth. It can impact labor force participation, hindering economic stability.

• Such issues affect long-term population dynamics and growth. Countries need to promote gender equality, stop sex-selective practices, and raise awareness about the importance of balancing the sex ratio.

• The term ‘brain drain’ refers to the substantial migration or emigration of highly skilled professionals from one country to another.

• Developing countries like India often face brain drain as professionals seek better pay abroad. It can result from turmoil, favorable professional opportunities, or a desire to seek a higher standard of living.

• Brain drain can hamper technological and scientific advancements in originating nations. It results in workforce shortages, affecting healthcare and education sectors.

• Emigration benefits host countries but causes a talent shortage in the home country.

• China faces brain drain, yet later benefits from returned emigrants with global experience. Government incentives such as scholarships aim to prevent brain drain effects.

4. • The 2011 Census provided crucial insights into India’s demographic and socio-economic landscape.

• The 2011 Indian Census showed that India’s population was over 1.21 billion.

• It revealed a decline in the child sex ratio (from 927 in 2001 to 919 in 2011), showing a gender imbalance. Literacy rates improved, with 74% of people able to read and write, but female literacy was still lower than male literacy.

• Urban population increased, showing rapid urbanisation.

• These findings help the government plan better for health, education, housing, and job creation.

• States use this data to make local policies and allocate resources. The census also helps in identifying backward areas that need more development and support programmes.

5. The components of birth rate, death rate and migration not only affect the size of a population but also its composition and distribution.

(i) Impact on Population:

• Population Size: The overall balance between birth rate, death rate, and migration determines whether a population is growing, shrinking, or remaining relatively stable.

• Population Composition: Migration significantly influences the age, sex, and ethnic makeup of a population. For example, if a region experiences significant in-migration of young adults, its age structure will shift toward a younger average age.

(ii) Regional Distribution:

Migration patterns affect how population is distributed across different regions within a country or between countries. Areas with higher in-migration tend to have denser populations, while areas with higher outmigration experience population decline.

6. Advantages of a healthy population for a country:

(i) Stronger Workforce: A healthy population means more people are able to work, contributing to economic productivity and development.

(ii) Economic Growth: Healthy individuals are less likely to be sick and need medical care, freeing up resources for other important sectors of the economy.

(iii) Improved Quality of Life: A healthy population enjoys better physical and mental well-being, leading to a higher quality of life for all.

(iv) Reduced Healthcare Costs: Focusing on preventative measures and promoting healthy lifestyles can significantly reduce healthcare expenses in the long run.

(v) Increased Productivity: Healthy individuals are more focused and energetic, leading to higher levels of productivity and innovation.

(vi) Longer Life Expectancy: A healthy population lives longer, contributing to a more experienced and knowledgeable workforce.

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1

(a) The adolescent population constitutes one-fifth of the total population of India.

(b) In India, the diet available to adolescents is inadequate in all nutrients. A large number of adolescent girls suffer from anaemia. The adolescent girls have to be sensitised to the problems they confront.

(c) Adolescents who are, generally, grouped in the age group of 10 to 19 years are the most important resource for the future. They are considered a crucial resource because they represent the future workforce and can shape society’s development.

Passage 2

(a) Migration is the movement of people across regions and territories. Migration can be internal or international.

(b) Migration changes not only the population size but also the population composition of urban and rural populations in terms of age and sex composition.

(c) When people move out to foreign countries there is a population change in size and composition. Educated people move out from the urban areas. Also, from rural areas labour class people or people with some education move out for better earning opportunities.

Map-Based Questions

Arabian Sea

Bay of Bengal

INDIAN OCEAN

(i) Bihar

(ii) Arunachal Pradesh

SELF-ASSESSMENT

Time: 1 Hour

Section A

Choose and write the correct answer for each of the following.

(1 × 8 = 8 Marks)

1. Which of the following best describes the impact of international migration on the originating country?

(a) Improved healthcare services

(b) Higher literacy rates

(d) Reduction in unemployment

2. Which of the following objectives is NOT part of the National Population Policy (NPP) 2000?

(a) Provide free and compulsory education for children up to 14 years

(b) Promote responsible and planned parenthood

(d) Encourage large family size for economic growth

3. What could be a likely consequence of a declining death rate in a densely populated country like India?

(a) Higher birth rates

(b) Reduction in migration

(d) Increased strain on resources

4. If the birth rate is consistently higher than the death rate in a region, what is the likely population growth trend?

(a) Oscillating population

(b) Decreasing population

(d) Stable population

5. Which statement accurately reflects an outcome of high population density?

(a) Strain on infrastructure and resources

(b) Reduction in social services demand

(d) Efficient use of land and resources

Scan me for all answers.

Max. Marks: 40

6. Why is population census repeated every ten years in India?

(a) To track cultural changes

(b) To redesign political boundaries

(d) To evaluate historical events

7. What does the census data primarily contribute to with respect to governmental planning?

(a) National sports events

(b) Cultural exchange programs

(d) Road and transport infrastructure

8. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): The policy framework of NPP 2000 promotes delayed marriage for girls.

Reason (R): Delaying marriage improves educational outcomes and reduces health risks.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Section B

Answer the following questions.

9. What is a pull factor in migration? (2 marks)

10. Explain the role of the National Population Policy 2000 in addressing adolescent health concerns in India. What strategies does it implement?

How does the National Population Policy 2000 aim to empower adolescents in India? Provide examples of the policies or programmes involved. (3 marks)

11. In what ways can understanding the age and sex ratio of a population assist in policy formulation? (3 marks)

12. Discuss the role of birth rate and death rate in shaping the population growth of a region. How do government policies influence these rates? (3 marks)

13. Describe two major differences between population density and population size. How does each contribute to societal planning? (3 marks)

14. What is the significance of conducting a census every ten years in India, considering technological advancements and urban growth?

(3 marks)

15. Analyse the interrelationship between birth rate, death rate, and migration in shaping India’s current demographic scenario. (5 marks)

16. Describe the relationship between population growth and economic development. Use India as a case study to illustrate your points. (5 marks)

17. Describe how the National Population Policy (NPP) 2000 integrates health and education in its framework to improve the quality of life for adolescents. How does it propose to tackle challenges arising from poverty and lack of resources?

(5 marks)

Political Science

1 What is Democracy? Why Democracy?

Democracy is a form of government where rulers are elected by the people, and decision-making power rests with those elected It is based on free and fair elections, political equality (one person, one vote), and respect for constitutional rights� Critics argue that frequent leadership changes, delays in decision-making, and the lack of political knowledge among citizens can make democracy inefficient� Despite its flaws, democracy remains a system where people have a voice in governance The chapter explores its key features and distinguishes democratic and non-democratic governments� It also examines why democracy is considered the best form of government worldwide, despite its challenges� The chapter explains the meaning of democracy and its broader significance in society

What is Democracy? Why Democracy?

Meaning of Democracy

Origin of the word:

Greek ‘Demokratia’

→ ‘Demos’ (people) + ‘Kratia’ (rule)

Simple Definition: Government by the people

Evolving Definition: Meaning changes with time and usage

Need for thinking and defining democracy ourselves

Why Define Democracy?

• Different governments call themselves democratic

• Need to distinguish real democracy from false claims

• Understanding features is important

Features of Democracy

Rule by Elected Leaders

Final decision-making power rests with elected representatives

Free and Fair Electoral Competition

• Genuine choice between political alternatives

• Real chance of ruling party losing

One Person, One Vote, One Value

Political equality among all adult citizens

Rule of Law and Respect for Rights

• Government operates within constitutional limits

• Protection of citizens’ rights (freedom, equality, justice)

Why Democracy? (Arguments)

Arguments Against Democracy

• Instability due to frequent leadership change

• Political competition leads to power play, corruption

• Slow decisionmaking

• People might make wrong decisions

Arguments for Democracy

• More accountable form of government

• Improves decision-making quality through consultation

• Peaceful solution to social differences

• Enhances dignity of citizens

• Provides the ability to correct mistakes

Broader Meaning of Democracy

Democracy Beyond Government

• Democratic family

• Democratic classrooms and organizations

Ideal Democracy

• Striving for equality, education, fair resources

• Democracy as a continuous process

• Distinction between “minimal democracy” and “good democracy”

Important Observations

• Democracy requires active citizen participation

• No perfect democracy exists; continuous improvement is needed

• Democracy’s strength lies in citizen awareness and activism

Key Terms and Definitions

Democracy: Democracy is a form of government in which rulers are elected by the people�

Election: Election is a process where people vote to choose their representatives

Universal Adult Franchise: It is the right of all adult citizens to vote without discrimination�

Rule of Law: Rule of Law is the principle that all individuals, including government officials, are subject to the law�

Political Equality: It refers to the idea that every citizen has an equal say in governance, usually through voting�

Constitution: It is a set of fundamental principles or rules that govern a country

Dictatorship: It is a form of government where absolute power is concentrated in one leader or a small group�

Monarchy: It is a government ruled by a king or queen, often based on hereditary succession�

Representative Democracy: It is a system where people elect representatives to make decisions on their behalf

Majority Rule: Majority rule is the principle that the decision of the majority should be accepted by all Free and Fair Elections: They refer to elections that offer real choices to people without fraud or manipulation�

Citizen’s Rights: These are rights such as freedom of speech, expression, and equality before the law�

Opposition Party: It is a political party that is not in power and keeps a check on the ruling party

Military Rule: It is a government controlled by the armed forces instead of elected representatives�

Political Participation: Political participation refers to the involvement of citizens in political activities like voting, protests, and discussions�

NCERT Zone

Intext Questions

1. I have heard a different version. Democracy is off the people, far (from) the people and (where they) buy the people. Why don’t we accept that?

Ans. Sometimes people say democracy is “off the people, far from the people, and where they buy the people” to criticize its flaws

• This means democracy is not truly run by the people, but is distant from them and influenced by money and corruption�

• In some places, leaders use money to buy votes, and the voices of ordinary citizens are ignored

• These are signs of imperfect or flawed democracies, not what true democracy should be�

• However, we should not lose hope or reject democracy entirely because of these issues�

• These problems can be improved over time through reforms, public awareness, and strong institutions

• The use of electronic and social media can also promote transparency and help fix these challenges�

2. Ribiang went back home and collected some more famous quotations on democracy. This time she did not mention the names of the people who said or wrote these. She wants you to read these and comment on how good or useful these thoughts are:

• Democracy gives every man the right to be his own oppressor.

• Democracy consists of choosing your dictators after they’ve told you what you think it is you want to hear.

• Man’s capacity for justice makes democracy possible, but man’s inclination to injustice makes democracy necessary

• Democracy is a device that insures we shall be governed no better than we deserve.

• All the ills of democracy can be cured by more democracy.

Ans. • The first and second quotes highlight the weakness of flawed democracies, where people may vote but have no real choice�

Sometimes leaders make false promises to gain power, and citizens end up choosing rulers who don’t truly represent them�

• The third quote points to a deeper truth: democracy is possible because humans value justice, but it is necessary because people can be unjust� Democracy provides a system to check power and correct injustice�

• The fourth quote means that the quality of democracy reflects the awareness and responsibility of the people� Good governance depends on how wisely citizens choose their leaders

• The fifth quote is very hopeful—it suggests that even if democracy has problems, the solution lies in strengthening it, not abandoning it� More participation, awareness, and reforms can improve democracy

Together, these thoughts show that democracy is not perfect, but it is flexible, correctable, and people-centred—which makes it valuable and necessary�

3. Why talk about Zimbabwe? I read similar reports from many parts of our own country. Why don’t we discuss that?

Ans. • Zimbabwe is discussed as an example of how elections alone do not make a country truly democratic� In 1987, Robert Mugabe became the President and changed the Constitution to gain more power Though he remained popular, he used unfair means to stay in control—harassing opposition leaders, banning protests, and controlling the media Even the judiciary was pressured to support government decisions This shows that just winning elections is not enough—true democracy also means respecting people’s rights, laws, and freedoms�

• In India, we have a democratic system where elections are mostly free and fair However, there are still some problems like the use of money power, violence, and criminal influence by a few candidates These issues should not be ignored, but we are also seeing efforts to reduce them� By discussing Zimbabwe, we learn how to protect and improve our own democracy by avoiding similar problems�

4. Read these five examples of working or denial of democracy. Match each of these with the relevant feature of democracy discussed earlier.

Example

King of Bhutan has declared that in future he will be guided by the advice given to him by elected representatives�

Many Tamil workers who migrated from India were not given a right to vote in Sri Lanka�

The king imposed a ban on political gatherings, demonstrations and rallies

Relevant Feature of Democracy

Rule of law

Respect for Rights

One person one vote one value

The Indian Supreme Court held that the dissolution of Bihar assembly was unconstitutional Free and fair electoral competition

Political parties in Bangladesh have agreed that a neutral government should rule the country at the time of elections

Ans.

Example

King of Bhutan has declared that in future he will be guided by the advice given to him by elected representatives�

Many Tamil workers who migrated from India were not given a right to vote in Sri Lanka�

The king imposed a ban on political gatherings, demonstrations and rallies�

The Indian Supreme Court held that the dissolution of Bihar assembly was unconstitutional�

Political parties in Bangladesh have agreed that a neutral government should rule the country at the time of elections�

Major decisions by elected leaders

Relevant Feature of Democracy

Major decision by elected leaders (working democracy)

One person one vote one value (denial democracy)

Respect for Rights (denial democracy)

Rule of law working (working democracy)

Free and fair electoral competition (working democracy)

5. What would have happened if India was not a democracy? Could we have stayed together as a single nation?

Ans. • If India were not a democracy, maintaining unity as a single nation would have been difficult�

• With its diverse religions, cultures, and languages, a non-democratic system would have created fear and insecurity among minorities�

• Democracy allows people to follow their customs freely and provides peaceful ways to handle differences�

• It is the best method to manage conflicts in a diverse country like India�

6. Rajesh and Muzaffar read an article. It showed that no democracy has ever gone to war with another democracy. Wars take place only when one of the two governments is non-democratic. The article said that this was a great merit of democracy. After reading the essay, Rajesh and Muzaffar had different reactions. Rajesh said that this was not a good argument for democracy. It was just a matter of chance. It is possible that in future democracies may have wars. Muzaffar said that it could not be a matter of chance. Democracies take decisions in such a way that it reduces the chances of war. Which of the two positions do you agree with and why?

Ans. I mostly agree with Muzaffar’s view� In a democracy, decisions are taken through discussion and public opinion, which reduces the chances of war� However, it is not fully impossible� For example, the Kargil War between India and Pakistan happened when both were democracies� So, while democracy reduces war chances, it does not completely prevent them

7. In my village the Gram Sabha never meets. Is that democratic?

Ans. • No, it is not democratic

• The Gram Sabha is essential for local governance, allowing people to participate in decision-making�

• If it never meets, villagers are denied their right to voice concerns and influence development, weakening democracy and reducing accountability in governance�

NCERT Exercises

1. Here is some information about four countries. Based on this information, how would you classify each of these countries?

Write ‘democratic’, ‘undemocratic’ or ‘not sure’ against each of these.

(a) Country A: People who do not accept the country’s official religion do not have a right to vote.

Ans. Undemocratic (Democracy ensures equal voting rights for all citizens regardless of religion�)

(b) Country B: The same party has been winning elections for the last twenty years.

Ans. Not sure (If elections are free and fair, it can still be democratic However, if opposition is suppressed, it is undemocratic�)

Ans. Democratic (Regular changes in leadership indicate a functioning democracy�)

(d) Country D: There is no independent election commission.

Ans. Undemocratic (Free and fair elections require an independent election body�)

2. Here is some information about four countries. Based on this information, how would you classify each of these countries?

Write ‘democratic’, ‘undemocratic’ or ‘not sure’ against each of these.

(a) Country P: The parliament cannot pass a law about the army without the consent of the Chief of the Army.

Ans. Undemocratic

(b) Country Q: The parliament cannot pass a law reducing the powers of the judiciary.

Ans. Democratic

(c) Country R: The country’s leaders cannot sign any treaty with another country without obtaining permission from its neighbouring country.

Ans. Undemocratic

(d) Country S: All the major economic decisions about the country are taken by officials of the central bank which the ministers cannot change.

Ans. Undemocratic

3. Which of these is not a good argument in favour of democracy? Why?

(a) People feel free and equal in a democracy.

(b) Democracies resolve conflict in a better way than others.

(d) Democracies are more prosperous than others.

Ans. (d) Is not a good argument because democracy does not automatically guarantee economic prosperity While many democratic countries are prosperous, there are also democratic nations that struggle economically Prosperity depends on various factors like resources, policies, and global conditions�

4. Each of these statements contains a democratic and an undemocratic element. Write out the two separately for each statement.

(a) A minister said that some laws have to be passed by the parliament in order to conform to the regulations decided by the World Trade Organisation (WTO).

Ans. Democratic: Laws are passed by the elected parliament�

Undemocratic: External organisations such as WTO influencing law-making limits national sovereignty�

(b) The Election Commission ordered re-polling in a constituency where large-scale rigging was reported.

Ans. Democratic: Re-polling ensures free and fair elections

Undemocratic: The presence of rigging indicates election malpractices�

(c) Women’s representation in the parliament has barely reached 10%. This led women’s organisations to demand one-third of seats for women.

Ans. Democratic: Citizens and organisations are free to demand equal representation�

Undemocratic: Low representation of women shows a lack of gender equality in politics

5. Which of these is not a valid reason for arguing that there is a lesser possibility of famine in a democratic country?

(a) Opposition parties can draw attention to hunger and starvation.

(b) Free press can report suffering from famine in different parts of the country.

(d) People are free to believe in and practise any religion.

Ans. (d) It is not a valid reason because religious freedom is not directly related to preventing famines However, options (a), (b), and (c) ensure that governments take action to address hunger due to political accountability

6. There are 40 villages in a district where the government has made no provision for drinking water. These villagers met and considered many methods of forcing the government to respond to their needs. Which of these is not a democratic method?

(a) Filing a case in the courts claiming that water is part of the right to life.

(b) Boycotting the next elections to give a message to all parties.

(d) Paying money to government officials to get water.

Ans. (d) It is not democratic as bribery is illegal and corrupts the democratic process The other options involve lawful means of protest�

7. Write a response to the following arguments against democracy:

(a) The Army is the most disciplined and corruption-free organisation in the country. Therefore, the army should rule the country.

Ans. This statement is wrong The army may be disciplined, but democracy ensures people’s participation and accountability� Military rule often lacks transparency and fundamental rights�

(b) The rule of the majority means the rule of ignorant people. What we need is the rule of the wise, even if they are in small numbers.

Ans. This statement is wrong� Democracy is based on equality� No one is born wise or ignorant, and participation in decision-making helps improve awareness over time�

(c) If we want religious leaders to guide us in spiritual matters, why not invite them to guide us in politics as well? The country should be ruled by religious leaders.

Ans. This statement is wrong� Politics should be inclusive of all religions A secular democracy ensures that governance is based on laws and equality, not religious beliefs

8. Are the following statements in keeping with democracy as a value? Why?

(a) Father to daughter: ‘I don’t want to hear your opinion about your marriage. In our family, children marry where the parents tell them to.’

Ans. This statement is undemocratic because every individual should have the right to make personal choices, including marriage�

(b) Teacher to student: ‘Don’t disturb my concentration by asking me questions in the classroom.’

Ans. This statement is undemocratic because education should encourage questioning and discussion�

Ans. This statement is undemocratic because employees have the right to demand lawful work conditions�

9. Consider the following facts about a country and decide if you would call it a democracy. Give reasons to support your decision.

(a) All citizens have the right to vote. Elections are held regularly.

Ans. Democratic�

Reason: Two important features of democracy are regular elections and universal adult franchise�

(b) The government reduced expenses on education and health due to international loan conditions.

Ans. Undemocratic

Reason: It is undemocratic action to reduce expenses at the cost of the people

Ans. Undemocratic

Reason: The national language can be a single language because such a concept will bring about national integrity but other languages also should be encouraged to cultivate in their respective regions

(d) The government arrested leaders protesting against policies.

Ans. Undemocratic

Reason: People should have the right to protest peacefully

(e) The government owns the radio and television; newspapers need permission to publish news.

Ans. Undemocratic

Reason: A free press is essential in a democracy�

10. Write an essay on ‘Democracy and Poverty’ using the information given in this report but using examples from India.

Ans. Democracy and Poverty

Introduction

Democracy and poverty are two interconnected aspects of governance and social development� Democracy, as a system of government, aims to ensure equality, participation, and justice for all citizens However, despite being the world’s largest democracy, India still faces significant challenges related to poverty� This raises an important question: Does democracy help in reducing poverty, or does it fail to address economic inequalities? While democracy provides a framework for addressing poverty through policies and welfare programmes, its effectiveness depends on how well it functions in practice

Democracy and Economic Inequality

One of the criticisms of democracy is that while it provides political equality (one person, one vote), it does not necessarily ensure economic equality� In India, a large section of the population still struggles with unemployment, malnutrition, lack of education, and poor healthcare� The economic gap between the rich and the poor has widened despite democratic governance

For example, as highlighted in the report on the USA, economic disparities influence political participation� Similarly, in India, wealthier individuals and businesses have a stronger influence on political decisions through campaign funding and lobbying� This often leads to policies favouring the elite, while the needs of the poor may be ignored

How Democracy Helps in Addressing Poverty

Despite its shortcomings, democracy provides a mechanism for the people, especially the poor, to demand their rights and seek justice

Some key ways in which democracy helps in addressing poverty are:

(a) Right to Vote and Political Representation

• In a democracy, every citizen has the right to vote, allowing the poor to elect leaders who promise to work for their welfare

• Government schemes like the MNREGA (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act) were introduced due to political pressure from voters demanding employment opportunities�

(b) Welfare Programs and Social Security

• Various government initiatives, such as Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana, Public Distribution System (PDS) for subsidised food grains, and Ayushman Bharat for healthcare, have been introduced to reduce poverty�

• The Right to Education (RTE) Act ensures that children from poor families receive free education, which is a long-term solution to breaking the cycle of poverty�

(c) Freedom of Expression and Role of Media

• A democratic system allows media and civil society organisations to highlight issues related to poverty, corruption, and inequality�

• For example, investigative journalism has exposed corruption in food distribution schemes, leading to reforms�

(d) Judicial Intervention

• The judiciary plays a crucial role in ensuring that the government remains accountable The Supreme Court of India has often intervened to ensure the implementation of welfare programmes, such as ordering free midday meals in schools to tackle malnutrition�

Challenges in a Democratic System

While democracy offers solutions, some challenges prevent it from effectively addressing poverty:

• Corruption: Many welfare schemes suffer from corruption, with funds meant for the poor being misused

• Inequality in Participation: Poor and illiterate citizens may not always make informed choices due to a lack of awareness�

• Political Influence of the Rich: Large businesses fund political campaigns, leading to policies that may favour corporate interests over poverty alleviation

Conclusion

Democracy alone does not automatically eliminate poverty, but it provides a system where people can demand rights and hold the government accountable� While India has made progress in poverty reduction through democratic policies, there is still a long way to go� Strengthening institutions, ensuring fair elections, and increasing awareness among the poor can make democracy more effective in reducing poverty� Ultimately, democracy remains the best available system to address poverty, provided it is implemented with transparency and inclusivity�

Practice Questions

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following is the best definition of democracy?

(a) A form of government where rulers are chosen by the army

(b) A system where the king or queen makes all decisions

(d) A system where religious leaders control the government

2. The word ‘democracy’ originates from which language?

(a) Latin

(b) Greek

(d) Persian

3. What does the term ‘demos’ mean in its root language?

(a) Power

(b) Rule

(d) King

4. Which of the following is NOT a feature of democracy?

(a) Free and fair elections

(b) Rule by elected representatives

(d) Equal voting rights for all adult citizens

5. Which of the following statements is TRUE for democracy?

(a) Democracy must always have a monarch as its head�

(b) Democracy ensures that rulers are elected and can be removed�

(d) In democracy, people cannot question the government�

6. Why is democracy considered a better form of government than dictatorship?

(a) It allows rulers to make decisions without consulting the people�

(b) It ensures that rulers are accountable to the people�

(d) It guarantees that no mistakes are ever made in governance

7. Which of the following is an argument against democracy?

(a) It promotes equality among citizens�

(b) It allows citizens to participate in decision-making�

(d) It provides a system for peaceful conflict resolution�

8. How does democracy help in improving decision-making?

(a) Decisions are made after consultation and discussion�

(b) Only one person makes all the decisions without interference�

(d) The government ignores public opinion while making laws

9. In a democracy, what ensures that the government remains accountable to the people?

(a) Elections and the right to vote

(b) The presence of a powerful military

(d) Restricting public protests and discussions

10. Why is political competition necessary in a democracy?

(a) It creates conflicts among political parties

(b) It ensures that only one party remains in power

(d) It makes elections unnecessary

11. Which of the following is NOT a feature of a democratic government?

(a) Rule of law

(b) Universal adult franchise

(d) Respect for minority rights

12. What is the significance of the right to freedom of speech in a democracy?

(a) It limits the power of the judiciary�

(b) It grants unlimited power to the media�

(d) It allows citizens to criticize the government without consequences�

13. What is the importance of democratic decision-making?

(a) It promotes citizen participation and accountability�

(b) It guarantees that all decisions are made by the majority�

(d) It concentrates power in the hands of a few individuals�

14. In a democracy the final decision-making power must rest with those elected by the

(a) business houses

(b) people

(d) VIPs

15. In a representative democracy, who makes the laws?

(a) Prime Minister

(b) Chief Justice of India

(d) Elected representatives

16. Which document is considered the supreme law in a democracy?

(a) Constitution

(b) Government orders

(d) Code of Conduct

17. What does “universal adult franchise” mean?

(a) Only men can vote

(b) Only rich people can vote

(d) Only educated people can vote

18. In a democracy, citizens have the right to:

(a) Encroach land for construction

(b) Participate in decision-making

(d) Change election dates

19. Who protects the rights of citizens in a democracy?

(a) The army (b) The police

20. Which one of these is not a democratic country?

(a) India (b) USA

21. Which body conducts elections in India?

(a) Prime Minister’s Office

(b) Parliament

(d) Election Commission

22. Which country is known as the largest democracy in the world?

(a) USA (b) India

23. What is a referendum?

(a) Appointment of judges

(b) Election of representatives

(d) Selection of military leaders

24. Why can the Chinese government not be called a democratic government even though elections are held there?

(a) Army participates in election�

(b) Government is not accountable to the people�

(d) Government is always formed by the Communist Party

25. A country holds elections, but the ruling party does not allow opposition parties to campaign freely. Media is also controlled. Which statement best describes this situation?

(a) The country is a true democracy�

(b) The country is a monarchy

(d) The country supports equal participation�

26. Why were elections in Mexico considered unfair until 2000?

(a) Voting was not allowed�

(b) The military chose the leaders�

(d) The PRI used unfair means to win elections every time�

27. Which of the following statements correctly explains why Zimbabwe under Robert Mugabe was not a democratic country?

(a) He was removed from power through elections�

(b) Free press and opposition parties were allowed to operate freely�

(d) Mugabe promoted political equality and free debate�

28. Why was General Pervez Musharraf’s rule in Pakistan considered undemocratic?

(a) He was elected through indirect elections�

(b) He amended the constitution to give himself more power�

(d) Political parties were allowed to govern without interference�

29. Which of the following combinations correctly describes a democratic election?

Statement I: Elections must be held regularly at fixed intervals

Statement II: Elections must be free and fair, giving a fair chance to all candidates�

Statement III: Only a few privileged citizens should be allowed to vote

Statement IV: Elections should be conducted under military supervision to ensure control�

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate�

(b) Statements II and III are appropriate�

(d) All the statements are appropriate

30. Which of the following combinations correctly describes the relationship between democracy and the rule of law?

Statement I: A democratic government must function within the limits of constitutional law�

Statement II: The rights of citizens must be protected in a democracy

Statement III: The government can make any decision it wants, even if it violates basic rights�

Statement IV: In a democracy, courts should ensure that laws follow constitutional principles�

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate

(b) Statements III and IV are appropriate�

(d) All the statements are appropriate

31. Which of the following statements about democracy and decision-making is correct?

Statement I: Democracy improves decisionmaking by allowing discussion and consultation�

Statement II: Decision-making in a democracy is slower because it involves debates and discussions�

Statement III: In democracy, only one leader makes all the decisions without consulting others�

Statement IV: Democratic decision-making helps avoid rash and irresponsible policies�

(a) Statements I and III are appropriate�

(b) Statements I, II and IV are appropriate�

(d) Statements III and IV are appropriate�

32. Which of the following combinations of statements correctly explains how democracy enhances the dignity of citizens?

Statement I: Democracy is based on political equality, ensuring that all individuals have equal rights

Statement II: People in a democracy are treated as subjects under the rule of a monarch�

Statement III: Democracy allows citizens to express their views and participate in governance

Statement IV: Only the wealthy and educated have a say in democratic governance�

(a) Statements I and III are appropriate

(b) Statements II and IV are appropriate�

(d) Statements III and IV are appropriate

33. Which of the following combinations of statements correctly describe democracy’s ability to correct its mistakes?

Statement I: Democracies allow people to express their dissatisfaction with government policies

Statement II: In a democracy, governments can be changed through elections�

Statement III: Mistakes in a democracy can never be corrected

Statement IV: Democracy provides space for discussions and improvements in governance�

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate

(b) Statements I, II and IV are appropriate�

(d) Statements III and IV are appropriate

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A�

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A�

(d) A is false but R is true�

1. Assertion (A): Democracy allows citizens to choose their leaders through free and fair elections

Reason (R): Elections in a democracy provide people with the power to remove ineffective rulers�

2. Assertion (A): In a democracy, elections must be free and fair, allowing people a real choice in selecting their leaders�

Reason (R): In a democratic system, the government is not accountable to the people after elections are conducted�

3. Assertion (A): Democracy ensures that power is exercised by the people and for the people

Reason (R): In a democratic system, decisions are made based on the will of the people�

4. Assertion (A): Democracy is only about the political system and does not affect other aspects of society like social or economic equality�

Reason (R): The broader meaning of democracy includes not only political rights but also the establishment of social and economic equality

5. Assertion (A): Democracy is a form of government where leaders are chosen by the citizens through elections�

Reason (R): In a democracy, elected leaders are responsible for making the final decisions in all matters�

Picture Based Questions

Observe the cartoons below and answer the questions that follow:

1. What does the stylisation of the word ‘Democracy’ in the cartoon, suggest?

(a) Democracy is a universal concept, just like global brands

(b) Democracy is being marketed or imposed like a commercial product�

(d) Democracy naturally develops in all societies without external influence�

2. What does the cartoon suggest about democracy in Syria?

(a) Syria fully supports democracy and political freedom�

(b) Anyone can freely participate in elections in Syria�

(d) Syria allows multiple parties to contest elections without restrictions�

3. What does the skeleton inside the military uniform symbolise?

(a) Strength and stability of military rule

(b) A symbol of peace and justice under military rule

(d) The hidden oppressive and violent nature of military regimes�

4. This cartoon was drawn in the context of Latin America. Which other country do you think it can also apply to?

(a) India

(b) Pakistan

(d) England

5. This cartoon was titled ‘Building Democracy’ and was first published in a Latin American publication. What do moneybags signify here?

(a) People’s votes and opinions

(b) The power of ordinary citizens in a democracy

(d) Government funding for public services

6. This famous cartoon by R K Laxman comments on the celebrations of the fifty years of independence. What aspect of democracy does this cartoon show?

(a) Adoption of democracy hinders growth�

(b) Democracy has led to immense development�

(d) Democracy and regular elections do not always mean development�

7. This cartoon shows Saddam Hussein behind bars during the Iraqi elections. What is the cartoonist most likely suggesting through this image?

8. The cartoon on page 8 highlights how the Chinese government restricted access to websites like Google and Yahoo. The image of tanks facing an unarmed student reminds us of which major event in Chinese history?

(a) Saddam Hussein is preparing to contest elections from jail�

(b) Iraq has achieved complete democracy under Saddam Hussein�

(d) Elections in Iraq were free and fair during Saddam Hussein’s rule�

(a) The Cultural Revolution

(b) The Tiananmen Square protest of 1989

(d) The One-Child Policy movement

9. The cartoon published in Canada before the 2004 parliamentary elections showed that everyone expected the Liberal Party to win, but the party eventually lost. What does this cartoon illustrate about democracy?

(a) Democracy always ensures victory for popular parties

(b) Predictions in democracy are always accurate

(d) Democracy prevents political change even through elections�

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30-40 words)

1. What is democracy?

2. Why is democracy considered better than other forms of government?

3. What are the two key features of a democratic government?

4. How does democracy ensure accountability of the government?

5. What is the significance of free and fair elections in a democracy?

6. What is the role of the media in a democracy?

7. Why is China not considered a democratic country despite holding elections?

8. Why is monarchy an undemocratic form of government?

9. What is meant by ‘one person, one vote, one value’, in democracy?

10. What made Zimbabwe an undemocratic country despite holding elections under Robert Mugabe?

Short Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. Why is it important to define democracy?

2. Briefly explain the tenets of democracy.

3. Why should major decisions be taken by elected leaders in a democracy?

4. What is meant by free and fair electoral competition?

5. Explain the principle of ‘One person, one vote, one value.’

6 Why is the rule of law and respect for rights essential in democracy?

7. Give three major arguments against democracy.

8. How does democracy promote economic development?

9. What is a direct democracy? Explain.

10. Why is military rule not considered a democratic form of government?

11. How does democracy ensure the dignity and freedom of individuals?

12. Why is the rule of law important in a democracy?

Long Answer Questions (100-120

words)

1. What is democracy? Explain its key features.

2. Democracy is considered a better form of government than any other forms of government? Why?

3. What are the major arguments against democracy?

4. Explain the different forms of democracy.

5. Using a few instances from your current understanding of democracy, list the characteristics of:

(a) Democratic administrations

(b) Undemocratic administrations

6. Give arguments against the notion that ‘Pakistan under General Musharraf was a democracy’.

7. “Democracy provides a method to deal with differences and conflicts”. Discuss.

8. Why didn’t India experience a famine as severe as that of China in 1958-61? Analyse the reasons.

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

In Pakistan, General Pervez Musharraf led a military coup in October 1999� He overthrew a democratically elected government and declared himself the ‘Chief Executive’ of the country� Later he changed his designation to President and in 2002 held a referendum in the country that granted him a five-year extension Pakistani media, human rights organisations and democracy activists said that the referendum was based on malpractices and fraud In August 2002 he issued a ‘Legal Framework Order’ that amended the Constitution of Pakistan� According to this Order, the President can dismiss the national and provincial assemblies� The work of the civilian cabinet is supervised by a National Security Council which is dominated by military officers After passing this law, elections were held in the national and provincial assemblies� So, Pakistan has had elections, and elected representatives have some powers But the final power rested with military officers and General Musharraf himself�

(a) How did General Pervez Musharraf come to power in Pakistan?

(b) What was the impact of the ‘Legal Framework Order’ issued by General Musharraf in 2002?

(c) What was the significance of the 2002 referendum held by General Musharraf? Why was the 2002 referendum criticised by Pakistani media and democracy activists?

2. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

Broader Meanings of Democracy

In the countries we call democracy, all the people do not rule A majority is allowed to make decisions on behalf of all the people� Even the majority does not rule directly� The majority of people rule through their elected representatives This becomes necessary because: Modern democracies involve such a large number of people that it is physically impossible for them to sit together and make a collective decision� Even if they could, the citizens do not have the time, the desire or the skills to take part in all the decisions This gives us a clear but minimal understanding of democracy� This clarity helps us to distinguish democracies from non-democracies� But it does not allow us to distinguish between a democracy and a good democracy� It does not allow us to see the operation of democracy beyond government� For this, we need to turn to broader meanings of democracy�

(a) Who makes decisions on behalf of the people in a democracy?

(b) Why is it not possible for all citizens to participate directly in decision-making in modern democracies?

3. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

Zimbabwe attained independence from White minority rule in 1980� Since then, the country has been ruled by ZANU-PF, the party that led the freedom struggle� Its leader, Robert Mugabe, ruled the country since independence� Elections were held regularly and always won by ZANU-PF President Mugabe was popular but also used unfair practices in elections� Over the years his

government changed the constitution several times to increase the powers of the President and make him less accountable Opposition party workers were harassed and their meeting disrupted� Public protests and demonstrations against the government were declared illegal There was a law that limited the right to criticise the President� Television and radio were controlled by the government and gave only the ruling party’s version� There were independent newspapers but the government harassed those journalists who went against it The government ignored some court judgments that went against it and pressurised judges� He was forced out of office in 2017

(a) Who did Zimbabwe attain independence from in 1980?

(b) What unfair practices were used by Robert Mugabe’s government during elections?

Answers

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. (c) A government in which rulers are elected by the people�

2. (b) Greek

3. (c) People

4. (c) Censorship of media by the government

5. (b) Democracy ensures that rulers are elected and can be removed

6. (b) It ensures that rulers are accountable to the people

7. (c) It can lead to delays in decision-making due to discussions

8. (a) Decisions are made after consultation and discussion�

9. (a) Elections and the right to vote

10. (c) It allows people to choose among different policies and leaders

11. (c) Centralised decision-making

12. (d) It allows citizens to criticize the government without consequences

13. (a) It promotes citizen participation and accountability�

14. (b) people

15. (d) Elected Representatives

16. (a) Constitution

17. (c) All adults can vote�

18. (b) Participate in decision-making

19. (c) The judiciary

20. (c) North Korea

21. (d) Election Commission

22. (b) India

23. (c) Voting on a specific issue

24. (d) Government is always formed by the Communist Party

25. (c) The country lacks key elements of democracy�

26. (d) The PRI used unfair means to win elections every time�

27. (c) Elections were held, but unfair practices and suppression of opposition were common�

28. (b) He amended the constitution to give himself more power�

29. (a) Statements I and II are appropriate�

30. (c) Statements I, II and IV are appropriate�

31. (b) Statements I, II and IV are appropriate�

32. (a) Statements I and III are appropriate

33. (b) Statements I, II and IV are appropriate�

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

2. (c) A is true but R is false�

3. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A�

4. (d) A is false but R is true

5. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A�

Picture Based Questions

1. (b) Democracy is being marketed or imposed like a commercial product�

2. (c) Democracy in Syria is restricted and controlled by the ruling party�

3. (d) The hidden oppressive and violent nature of military regimes�

4. (b) Pakistan

5. (c) Influence of the wealthy and economic power in politics

6. (b) Democracy has led to immense development

7. (c) A non-democratic ruler has been removed, and a democratic process has begun

8. (b) The Tiananmen Square protest of 1989

9. (c) Democracy allows unexpected outcomes based on people’s free choice�

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30-40 words)

1. • Democracy is a form of government in which rulers are elected by the people�

• It ensures participation, equality, and accountability in governance, allowing citizens to choose their representatives through free and fair elections

2. Democracy is better form of government because it promotes equality, protects individual rights, ensures transparency, allows for peaceful conflict resolution and provides opportunities for all citizens to participate in decision-making processes

3. Two key features of a democratic government are:

(i) Elected Leaders: The government is elected by the people through free and fair elections

(ii) Accountability: The government is accountable to the people and must work in their interest�

4. • The government is accountable to the people through elections, debates, media scrutiny, and public protests�

• If leaders fail to meet public expectations, they can be removed in the next elections because the people have the power and right to vote�

5. • Free and fair elections ensure that people can choose their representatives without any kind of coercion�

• This upholds political equality, and legitimacy of the government, and prevents the concentration of power in the hands of a few�

6. • The media of a country plays a crucial role in a democracy by spreading awareness, providing unbiased information, exposing government failures, and enabling citizens to make informed decisions�

• A free press helps to hold the government accountable

7. • In China, only members of the Communist Party or its approved allies can contest elections�

• There is no real competition, and people do not have the freedom to elect leaders of their choice, making it an undemocratic system�

8. • Monarchy is an undemocratic form of government because the ruler is not elected by the people but inherits power by birth

• Citizens have no role in choosing their leader, and there is no accountability to the people�

9. In democracy, the principle of ‘one person, one vote, one value’, means that every individual has the right to vote, and each vote carries the same weight, regardless of a person’s caste, religion, gender, or economic status� It ensures political equality among all citizens�

10. • The ruling party, led by Robert Mugabe for decades, manipulated elections—neither free nor fair

• The opposition was suppressed and controlled the media, making it a dictatorship rather than a true democracy�

Short Answer Questions (50-60

words)

1. Importance of defining democracy:

• Helps differentiate it from other forms of government and ensures clarity about its principles, such as political equality, participation, and accountability�

• Allows us to evaluate whether a country truly follows democratic ideals or merely claims to be democratic

• Helps citizens recognise their rights, responsibilities, and the significance of an inclusive and transparent government that prioritises public welfare�

2. • Democracy is a form of government where the people elect their leaders and actively participate in decision-making�

• It ensures equal participation, protects individual rights, and promotes the rule of law�

• The key principle is that power rests with the people, who can choose and change their representatives through free and fair elections, ensuring accountability and transparency

3. In a democracy, elected leaders should take major decisions because:

• They represent the will of the people and work for their welfare�

• Chosen through elections, they are accountable to the public and must justify their decisions

• This prevents dictatorship or rule by an unelected authority and ensures that government policies reflect the needs, interests, and aspirations of the people while upholding justice, equality, and transparency

4. • Free and fair electoral competition means that elections should be conducted without fraud, coercion, or unfair advantages�

• All candidates must have an equal chance to contest, voters should have the freedom to choose without fear or pressure, and the process should be transparent, impartial, and unbiased to ensure true representation�

• This strengthens democracy and ensures that leaders are chosen in a just way�

5. This principle means that:

• Every citizen, regardless of caste, gender, religion, or economic status, has an equal right to vote It is also called ‘universal adult franchise’�

• Each vote carries the same weight in elections

• It ensures political equality, fosters inclusivity, and prevents discrimination in the democratic process, creating a fair and just electoral system for all individuals�

6. The rule of law and respect for rights are essential in a democracy because:

• They ensure that everyone is treated equally and fairly

• No one is above the law, not even elected leaders

• Citizens’ rights, such as freedom of speech and equality, protect individuals and allow them to participate fully in the democratic process�

• This keeps the government accountable and just�

7. Three major arguments against democracy:

(i) Inefficiency: Democratic decision-making is slow as it involves debate and discussion�

(ii) Lack of expertise: Leaders are elected based on popularity rather than merit, leading to poor governance

(iii) Instability: Frequent changes in leadership can lead to political instability and policy inconsistency�

However, democracy remains the best system as it ensures people’s participation, accountability, and protects individual freedoms

8. Democracy promotes economic development for the following reasons:

• Democracy ensures stable governance and long-term planning, which supports economic development�

• It promotes transparency and accountability, reducing chances of misuse of resources�

• People can participate in decision-making, helping the government focus on real public needs�

• Democratic governments aim to reduce inequality and support inclusive growth for all�

9. Explanation of direct democracy:

• Direct democracy is a form of government where people directly participate in decisionmaking without electing representatives�

• Citizens vote on laws, policies, and major issues themselves�

• It works best in small countries or local governments�

• Examples of direct democracy tools include referendums, initiatives, and recall votes to express public opinion directly�

10. Military rule is undemocratic because:

• This type of rule comes to power by using force, not through elections chosen by the people�

• It denies citizens the right to vote and select their leaders�

• Freedom of expression and civil rights are often limited�

• The government is not accountable to the people�

• Public opinion is ignored, making it undemocratic and against the basic values of democracy�

11. Democracy ensures the dignity and freedom of individuals because:

• Democracy is based on political equality, giving every individual equal rights�

• It allows freedom of speech, expression, and religion, ensuring personal liberty�

• People can freely choose their leaders and participate in decision-making�

• It respects the dignity of all individuals, regardless of caste, gender, or status

• Citizens can raise their voices against injustice�

12. The importance of rule of law in a democracy:

• The rule of law ensures that all citizens are equal before the law, including leaders�

• It protects individual rights and freedoms from misuse of power�

• Laws apply fairly and consistently, maintaining justice

• It prevents arbitrary actions by the government�

• The rule of law strengthens accountability and trust in democratic institutions�

Long Answer Questions (100-120

words)

1. Democracy is a form of government where people elect their leaders through free and fair elections� It ensures equal participation, accountability, and the rule of law The key features of democracy include:

• Elected Representatives: Leaders are chosen through periodic elections�

• Free and Fair Elections: Citizens have the right to vote without pressure or discrimination�

• Fundamental Rights: People have rights such as freedom of speech, equality, and justice�

• Rule of Law: Everyone, including government officials, must follow the law�

• Majority Rule with Minority Rights: The government is formed by the majority, but minority rights are protected�

Democracy, however, remains the best system as it ensures people’s participation, accountability, and protects individual freedoms while promoting equality, and justice

2. Democracy is considered better than other forms of certain reasons:

• Ensures political equality: Every citizen has an equal right to vote and participate�

• Prevents dictatorship: Unlike autocracies, democracy allows power to change hands peacefully�

• Protects fundamental rights: It guarantees freedom of speech, religion, and expression�

• Promotes accountability: Elected leaders are answerable to the public and can be removed through elections�

• Encourages debate and discussion: Policies are made through discussions, reducing the risk of hasty decisions

• Fosters inclusivity: Democracy ensures that all groups, including minorities, have a voice in decision-making�

• Promotes transparency: Decision-making processes are open, which helps reduce corruption and encourages public trust

Despite flaws, democracy remains the best system because it ensures participation, justice, and freedom to all its citizens�

3. While democracy is widely accepted, critics argue that it has the following drawbacks:

• Inefficiency: Decision-making is slow due to discussions and debates, often causing delays in implementation�

• Leaders lack expertise: Popularity often wins over competence, leading to poor governance and ineffective policies�

• Majority domination: The majority may impose decisions that ignore minority interests, marginalising smaller groups�

• Corruption and manipulation: Politicians may use unethical means, such as bribery and misinformation, to win elections

• Frequent elections create instability: Governments may focus on short-term gains rather than long-term development, leading to policy inconsistency

• Voter apathy: Low voter turnout can undermine the legitimacy of elections, weakening democratic processes�

Despite these challenges, democracy is still the most preferred form of government�

4. The major forms of democracy are as follows:

• Direct Democracy: In this system, citizens participate directly in decision-making, without electing representatives� It is commonly practiced through referendums, public meetings, or assemblies, and works well in small communities or countries like Switzerland�

• Representative Democracy: Here, people elect representatives who make laws and decisions on their behalf� It is the most common form of democracy practiced in large nations like India and the USA�

• Parliamentary Democracy: The executive is part of the legislature� The Prime Minister and Council of Ministers are accountable to the Parliament� Countries like India and the UK follow this system�

• Presidential Democracy: The president is elected separately from the legislature and holds independent executive powers, as seen in the USA and Brazil

5. (a) Common features of democratic administration:

• Leaders are chosen through free and fair elections�

• All eligible citizens can vote, like in the US�

• The rule of law applies equally to everyone�

• The judiciary is independent, such as India’s Supreme Court

• Freedom of speech and press is protected�

• People can criticize the government, as in the UK

• Power is shared among branches by checks and balances�

• Citizens participate beyond voting, using protests or referendums, like in Switzerland�

(b) Common features of undemocratic administration:

• Power is centralized in one leader or a small group, e�g�, North Korea�

• Political freedoms are limited, such as media censorship in China�

• Elections are manipulated, like in Russia�

• Rule of law is weak, allowing impunity�

• Dissent is suppressed, seen in Myanmar

6. Pakistan under Pervez Musharraf was not a democracy for the following reasons:

• Lack of Genuine Political Freedom: Under Musharraf, political opponents were harassed, and media was censored, curbing free expression

• Military Rule: He came to power through a 1999 coup Military dominance over political institutions violated democratic norms�

• Suspension of Democratic Institutions: Musharraf suspended the constitution and dissolved parliament� Later elections were controlled to retain power

• Manipulation of Elections: Elections lacked fairness, with reports of rigging and suppression of opposition�

• Concentration of Power: He held both President and Army Chief roles, weakening the separation of powers

• Lack of Independent Judiciary: Musharraf dismissed critical judges Judicial interference damaged checks on executive power essential in democracy�

7. Let’s look at a diverse society, for example, India�

• In any society with numerous diversities, people are bound to have differences of opinions and interests

• These differences are particularly sharp in a country like ours which has an amazing social diversity�

• People belong to different regions, and have different languages, practise different religions and have different castes

• They look at the world very differently and have different preferences

• The preferences of one group can clash with those of other groups

Democracy provides the only peaceful solution to this problem because:

• In a democracy, no one is a permanent winner

• No one is a permanent loser�

• Different groups can live with one another peacefully

• In a diverse country like India, democracy keeps our country together

8. Analysis of the 1958–61 famine�

In India:

• India did not experience a famine as severe as that of China, in the1958–61 famine due to its democratic system of governance

• In India, there is a free press that reports food shortages, helping draw attention to crises early�

• The Indian government responds to public needs due to accountability in a democratic system

• Elected leaders are pressured to act promptly to avoid loss of support in elections

• Opposition parties and civil society actively raise concerns and hold the government accountable�

In China:

• In contrast, China’s one-party rule suppressed information about the famine�

• The lack of press freedom and political opposition delayed action, which worsened the situation

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1

(a) General Musharraf came to power by leading a military coup�

(b) It allowed the President to dismiss national and provincial assemblies

Passage 2

(a) Elected representatives make decisions on behalf of the people in a democracy�

(b) It is not possible because of the large population, and most citizens lack the time, desire, or skills to take part in all decisions�

(c) The minimal definition of democracy not enough to judge the quality of a democracy because it only helps us identify a democracy, not evaluate how well it functions or whether it ensures broader participation, rights, and accountability�

Passage 3

(a) In 1980, Zimbabwe attained independence from the White minority rule�

(b) The government harassed opposition party workers, disrupted their meetings, and controlled media coverage to favour the ruling party�

(c) Regular elections alone don’t ensure democracy� In Zimbabwe, elections lacked fairness, opposition was suppressed, media was controlled, and the judiciary was undermined—violating key democratic principles like accountability, freedom of expression, and rule of law

SELF-ASSESSMENT

Time: 1 Hour

Section A

Scan me for all answers.

Max. Marks: 40

6. The principle of ‘One Person, One Vote, One Value’ means:

(a) Every citizen gets multiple votes�

(1 × 8 = 8 Marks)

Choose and write the correct answer for each of the following.

1. Which of the following best defines democracy?

(a) Rule by a monarch

(b) Rule by an army general

(d) Government by the wealthy

2. What is the most common form of democracy in today’s world?

(a) Direct democracy

(b) Representative democracy

(d) Autocracy

3. Which of the following is NOT a key feature of democracy?

(a) Free and fair elections

(b) Rule of law

(d) Universal adult franchise

4. Which of the following statements about democracy is true?

(a) A democratic government can do whatever it wants

(b) Democracy ensures equal rights for all citizens�

(d) Democracy is ruled by religious leaders�

5. Which of these countries is an example of a democratic government?

(a) North Korea

(b) Saudi Arabia

(d) China

(b) Some people have more voting rights than others�

(d) Every adult citizen has one vote with equal value

7. Which of these is an argument against democracy?

(a) It ensures decision-making based on consultation and discussion�

(b) It allows peaceful resolution of conflicts�

(d) It may lead to instability due to frequent leadership changes�

8. In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Democracy allows people to express their opinions freely�

Reason (R): A democratic government does not allow opposition parties to function

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A�

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A�

(d) A is false but R is true

Section B

Answer the following questions.

9. What is meant by free and fair elections in a democracy? (2 Marks)

10. Explain the three essential features of democracy. (3 Marks)

11. Why is democracy considered the best form of government? (3 Marks)

12. How does democracy ensure the dignity and freedom of individuals? (3 Marks)

13. Explain what is undemocratic in China. (3 Marks)

14. What are the characteristics of a dictator according to your understanding, based on the chapter? (3 Marks)

15. Why Pakistan under General Musharraf cannot be called a democracy? (5 Marks)

16. Explain the major arguments in favour of democracy. (5 Marks)

17. Why are some people dissatisfied with democracy? Discuss its limitations. (5 Marks)

2 Constitutional Design

This chapter on Constitutional Design helps us understand why a constitution is necessary in a democracy. We learn how it is framed, and the fundamental values that guide its formation. The chapter also takes us through the inspiring struggle of South Africa against apartheid. We see how the country, once deeply divided by racial discrimination, transitioned to democracy under the leadership of Nelson Mandela. It then focuses on the making of the Indian Constitution, explaining the role of the Constituent Assembly and the guiding principles embedded in it. The chapter emphasises the importance of justice, equality, liberty, and fraternity in shaping a democratic country like India.

Constitutional Design

Democratic Constitution in South Africa

Apartheid System

• Racial separation by law

• White minority held power

• Black majority denied rights

Fight Against Apartheid

• Led by African National Congress (ANC)

• Nelson Mandela’s leadership

• Protests, strikes, global support

New Constitution

• Peaceful talks between groups

• Equal rights for all

• First free election in 1994

Why Do We Need a Constitution?

Purpose

• Sets rules for government

• Defines powers and duties

• Protects citizen rights

Importance

• Prevents misuse of power

• Promotes justice and unity

• Solves social conflicts

Making of the Indian Constitution

Background

• British colonial rule

• Freedom movement influence

Constituent Assembly

• Formed in 1946

• Members from all regions

• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar led drafting

Features of Drafting

• Long debates and discussions

• Broad agreement (consensus-based)

• Adopted on 26 November 1949

Guiding Values of the Constitution

The Preamble

• Introduction to key values

• Reflects national vision

Key Terms

• Sovereign –Independent country

• Socialist – Equal opportunities for all

• Secular – No state religion

• Democratic – Rule by elected leaders

• Republic – Head of state is elected

Institutional Design

Government Framework

• Three organs: Legislature, Executive, Judiciary

• Division of powers (Union & States)

Rights and Justice

• Fundamental Rights and Duties

• Courts protect legal rights

Key Terms and Definitions

Constitution: The constitution of a country is the supreme law that sets the fundamental rules governing its politics and society.

Constituent Assembly: The body of elected representatives that was responsible for drafting a country’s constitution.

Preamble: Preamble is the introductory statement of the Constitution that outlines its guiding values and principles.

Democracy: It is a form of government where people elect their representatives and have equal political rights.

Sovereignty: Sovereignty is the supreme power of a state to govern itself without external interference.

Secularism: Secularism is the principle that ensures freedom of religion and the state’s neutrality towards all religions.

Republic: Republic is a system of government where the head of the state is elected rather than inheriting the position.

Justice: Justice is the principle of fairness in society, ensuring equal rights and opportunities for all.

Liberty: Liberty is the freedom of individuals to think, express, and act without unreasonable restrictions.

Equality: Equality is the principle that all individuals are treated equally before the law, without discrimination.

Fraternity: Fraternity is the sense of brotherhood and unity among citizens, promoting national integrity and social harmony.

Apartheid: Apartheid is the system of racial segregation and discrimination, particularly practised in South Africa. Fundamental Rights: They are the basic rights guaranteed to all citizens by the Constitution of a country.

Directive Principles of State Policy: They are the guidelines for the government to ensure social and economic justice.

Draft: It is a preliminary version of a legal document.

Philosophy: Philosophy is the most fundamental principles underlying one’s thoughts and actions.

Amendment: An amendment is a formal change or addition made to the constitution to adapt to evolving societal needs.

Treason: It is the offence of attempting to overthrow the government of the state to which the offender owes allegiance.

Tryst: It is a meeting or meeting place that has been agreed upon.

Consensus: It is a generally accepted opinion or decision among a group of people.

NCERT Zone

Intext Questions

1. What would have happened in South Africa if the black majority had decided to take revenge on the whites for all their oppression and exploitation?

Ans. If the black majority in South Africa had chosen revenge against the white minority for years of oppression and exploitation:

• There would have been violent conflicts and bloodshed everywhere.

• It could have led to political instability, economic collapse, and a division of the country. We would not have seen a united and peaceful South Africa that exists now.

• Fortunately, the black community followed the policy of non-violence in their freedom struggle.

• Nelson Mandela and other leaders promoted peace, reconciliation, and democracy, preventing a civil war and ensuring a stable transition to a more just and inclusive society.

2. Does the story of the South African struggle for freedom remind you of the Indian national movement? Make a list of similarities and dissimilarities between the two on the following points:

Similarities and dissimilarities between the South African and Indian National Movements are as follows:

(i) Nature of colonialism

(ii) Relationship between different communities

(iii) Leadership: Gandhi/Mandela

(iv) Party that led the struggle: African National Congress/ Indian National Congress

(v) Method of struggle

Ans. Comparative table presented below.

(i) Nature of colonialism

Similarities Dissimilarities

South Africa was forcefully occupied by trading companies from Europe in the way as India was occupied.

Unlike India, a large number of whites settled in South Africa and became the local rulers.

(ii) Relationship between different communities

Similarities Dissimilarities

Both in South Africa and India, White rulers treated non-whites as inferiors and uncivilised.

Unlike South Africa, there was a cordial relationship between different religious and regional communities in India.

(iii) Leadership: Gandhi/Mandela

Similarities Dissimilarities

Both the leaders advocated non-violence and truth.

Mandela was given life imprisonment. Gandhi ji was imprisoned several times but was never given life imprisonment.

(iv) Party that led the struggle: African National Congress/Indian National Congress

Similarities Dissimilarities

Both, African National Congress and Indian National Congress were the major parties working at the national level.

(v) Method of struggle

Both parties had different purposes. ANC fought against apartheid and the racial segregation policies of the European government, while INC fought against the British rule in India.

Similarities Dissimilarities

Both movements followed the policy of non-violence.

In South Africa, there was only one group, moderates who took the peaceful way against the racial government. But in India, besides moderates, there were extremists also who adopted the path of violence to attain freedom.

3. This is not fair! What was the point in having a Constituent Assembly in India if all the basics were already decided?

Ans. We cannot say that there was no point in having a Constituent Assembly to discuss and frame a Constitution if the basics had already been decided.

• The Constituent Assembly was essential because it provided a democratic platform to discuss, refine, and shape India’s Constitution.

• While some basic ideas were influenced by existing governance models, the Assembly debated key issues, resolved differences, and ensured that the Constitution reflected India’s unique history, culture, and needs, making it a truly representative and inclusive document.

• The basics were relating right to freedom, universal adult franchise, rights of minorities, which are the basis of any democratic society.

• These basics were the guiding principles which were further developed and expanded to establish a welfare state.

• In a democracy, it is the Constituent Assembly which makes the Constitutions with the help of the basics.

• So, the Constituent Assembly in India was established, even if all the basics were already decided.

4. Read the information about all the makers of the Indian Constitution given in the side columns in the chapter (NCERT Book Class 9).

You don’t need to memorise this information. Just give examples from these to support the following statements

(i) The Assembly had many members who were not with the Congress.

Ans. Members who were not with the Congress:

• Dr Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar

• Vallabhbhai Jhaverbhai Patel

• Jaipal Singh

• Shyama Prasad Mukherjee

(ii) The Assembly represented members from different social groups.

Ans. Members from different social groups:

• Abul Kalam Azad: He was a theologian, scholar of Arabic.

• Vallabhbhai Jhaverbhai Patel: He was leader of Peasants Satyagraha.

• Jaipal Singh: He was the President of the Adivasi Mahasabha.

• Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar: He was a social thinker and revolutionary against caste divisions and caste-based inequalities.

(iii) Members of the Assembly believed in different ideologies.

Ans. Members believed in different ideologies:

• HC Mukherjee

• Rajendra Prasad

• Somnath Lahiri

• Jawaharlal Nehru

• Baldev Singh

• Sarojini Naidu

5. Read the three quotations carefully.

(i) I shall strive for a constitution which will release India from all thralldom and patronage … I shall work for an India in which the poorest shall feel that it is their country in whose making they have an

effective voice; an India in which there shall be no high class and low class of people; an India in which all communities shall live in perfect harmony. There can be no room in such an India for the curse of untouchability or the curse of the intoxicating drinks and drugs. Women will enjoy the same rights as men … I shall be satisfied with nothing else.

(ii) On the 26th of January 1950 we are going to enter a life of contradictions. In politics we will have equality and in social and economic life we will have inequality. In politics we will be recognising the principle of one man one vote and one vote one value. In our social and economic life, we shall, by reason of our social and economic structure, continue to deny the principle of one man one value. How long shall we continue to live this life of contradictions? How long shall we continue to deny equality in our social and economic life? If we continue to deny it for long, we will do so only by putting our political democracy in peril.

(iii) Long years ago, we made a tryst with destiny, and now the time comes when we shall redeem our pledge, not wholly or in full measure, but very substantially. At the stroke of the midnight hour, when the world sleeps, India will awake to life and freedom. A moment comes, which comes but rarely in history, when we step out from the old to the new, when an age ends, and when the soul of a nation, long suppressed, finds utterance. It is fitting that at this solemn moment we take the pledge of dedication to the service of India and her people and to the still larger cause of humanity …

Freedom and power bring responsibility. The responsibility rests upon this Assembly, a sovereign body representing the sovereign people of India. Before the birth of freedom, we have endured all the pains of labour and our hearts are heavy with the memory of this sorrow. Some of those pains continue even now. Nevertheless, the past is over and it is the future that beckons to us now. That future is not one of ease or resting but of incessant striving so that we may fulfil the pledges we have so often taken and the one we shall take today. The service of India means the service of the millions who suffer.

It means the ending of poverty and ignorance and disease and inequality of opportunity. The ambition of the greatest man of our generation has been to wipe every tear from every eye. That may be beyond us, but as long as there are tears and suffering, so long our work will not be over.

(a) Can you identify one idea that is common to all these three?

Ans. The one idea that is common to all these three quotations is to end inequality in Indian society.

(b) What are the differences in their ways of expressing that common idea?

Ans. Differences in their ways of expressing the common idea:

(i) In the first quotation, Gandhiji strived for an India in which there should be no higher or lower class of people and all communities should live in perfect harmony.

(ii) In the second quotation, BR Ambedkar said, “We are going to enter a life of contradictions. In politics, we will have equality but in social and economic life, we will have inequality.”

(iii) In the third quotation, Jawaharlal Nehru said the following about the ending of inequality: “The service of India means the ending of poverty, ignorance, disease and inequality of opportunity.”

6. Compare the Preambles to the constitutions of the United States of America, India and South Africa.

(a) Make a list of ideas that are common to all these three.

Ans. The ideas that are common to all these three are:

• Each of these preambles starts with ‘We the people who show the unity and authority of the citizens in governing the country.,

• In these preambles, the idea of justice is embodied.

(b) Note down at least one of the major differences among these.

Ans. In the preambles to the Constitution of the US, there is an idea of a more perfect union which is not there in the other two preambles.

Ans. The Preambles to the constitutions of South Africa refer to the past.

(d) Which of these does not invoke God?

Ans. The Preamble to the constitutions of the United States of America and India does not invoke God because both constitutions believe in the freedom to follow any religion. There is no official religion to be followed.

NCERT Exercises

1. Here are some false statements. Identify the mistakes in each case and rewrite these correctly based on what you have read in this chapter.

(a) False Statement: Leaders of the freedom movement had an open mind about whether the country should be democratic or not after independence.

Ans. Correct Statement: Leaders of the freedom movement were committed to making India a democratic country after independence.

(b) False Statement: Members of the Constituent Assembly of India held the same views on all provisions of the Constitution.

Ans. Correct Statement: Members of the Constituent Assembly had different opinions on various provisions, but they worked together to reach a consensus.

Ans. Correct Statement: Not all countries with a constitution are democracies; some may have an authoritarian or monarchical rule.

(d) False Statement: The Constitution cannot be amended because it is the supreme law of a country.

Ans. Correct Statement: The Constitution can be amended through a formal process to adapt to the changing needs and circumstances.

2. Which of these was the most salient underlying conflict in the making of a democratic constitution in South Africa?

(a) Between South Africa and its neighbours

(b) Between men and women

(d) Between the coloured minority and the black majority

Ans. (c) The main conflict was between the white minority, which had ruled with apartheid policies, and the black majority, which had been oppressed for years.

3. Which of these is a provision that a democratic constitution does not have?

(a) Powers of the head of the state

(b) Name of the head of the state

(d) Name of the country

Ans. (b) Name of the head of the state: A constitution does not specify the name of the person in power, as leadership changes over time.

4. Match the following leaders with their roles in the making of the Constitution:

Leaders Role in the Making of the Constitution

A. Motilal Nehru i. President of the Constituent Assembly

B. B.R. Ambedkar ii. Member of the Constituent Assembly

C. Rajendra Prasad iii. Chairman of the Drafting Committee

D. Sarojini Naidu iv. Prepared a Constitution for India in 1928

5. Read again the extracts from Nehru’s speech ‘Tryst with Destiny’ and answer the following:

(a) Why did Nehru use the expression ‘not wholly or in full measure’ in the first sentence?

Ans. By using the expression ‘not wholly or in full measure’, Nehru meant that while India had achieved independence, the challenges of building a strong, just, and democratic nation were yet to be fully addressed.

(b) What pledge did he want the makers of the Indian Constitution to take?

Ans. Nehru urged the makers of the Indian Constitution to dedicate themselves to the service of India and work to end poverty, inequality, and suffering.

(c) ‘The ambition of the greatest man of our generation has been to wipe every tear from every eye.’ Who was he referring to?

Ans. Through this line, Nehru was referring to Mahatma Gandhi, who worked tirelessly for India’s freedom and upliftment of the poor.

6. Here are some of the guiding values of the Constitution and their meaning. Rewrite them by matching them correctly.

Guiding Value Meaning

A. Sovereign i. Government will not favour any religion.

B. Republic ii. People have the supreme right to make decisions.

C. Fraternity iii. Head of the state is an elected person.

D. Secular iv. People should live like brothers and sisters.

Ans. The correct matching of the Constitutional values and their meaning:

Ans.

Leaders Role in the Making of the Constitution

A. Motilal Nehru iv. Prepared a Constitution for India in 1928

B. B.R. Ambedkar iii. Chairman of the Drafting Committee

C. Rajendra Prasad i. President of the Constituent Assembly

D. Sarojini Naidu ii. Member of the Constituent Assembly

Guiding Value Meaning

A. Sovereign ii. People have the supreme right to make decisions.

B. Republic iii. The head of the state is an elected person.

C. Fraternity iv. People should live like brothers and sisters.

D. Secular i. The government will not favour any religion.

7. How did your school celebrate Constitution Day on November 26th? Prepare a brief report.

Ans. (Example of brief report on Constitution Day celebration at school)

On 26 November, our school celebrated the Constitution Day. Various activities were organised. The programme started with the principal’s speech on the importance of the Indian Constitution. It was followed by a quiz competition on constitutional values. Students participated in a debate on democracy and fundamental rights. They also performed a skit to highlight the role of Dr BR Ambedkar in drafting the Constitution of India. At the end of the programme, the students recited the Preamble together, reaffirming our commitment to justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity. (Note: Students can modify this answer based on their school’s actual celebrations.)

8. Here are different opinions about what made India a democracy. How much importance would you give to each of these factors?

(a) Democracy in India is a gift of the British rulers.

Ans. This statement is partially true as British rule introduced legislative institutions, but democracy was mainly shaped by Indian freedom fighters.

(b) Freedom Struggle challenged colonial exploitation and denial of freedoms.

Ans. This opinion played a major role since the struggle for independence was deeply connected to democratic ideals.

Ans. This opinion is highly important because leaders like Nehru, Ambedkar, and Patel ensured that democracy was embedded in the Constitution.

Conclusion: While British rule introduced governance structures, the freedom struggle and democratic leadership were the key factors in making India a democracy.

9. Read the following extract from a conduct book for ‘married women’, published in 1912. Do you think the values expressed in this para reflected the values underlying our Constitution? Or does this go against constitutional values?

Extract:

‘God has made the female species delicate and fragile… They are destined to remain in male protection – of father, husband and son–all their lives.’

Ans. The values in this extract go against the principles of the Indian Constitution.

• The Constitution guarantees gender equality and women’s rights, ensuring equal status, opportunities, and independence for women.

• It does not support discrimination or restrictions based on gender.

10. Read the following statements about a constitution. Give reasons why each of these is true or not true.

(a) The authority of the rules of the constitution is the same as that of any other law.

Ans. Not true. The Constitution is the supreme law, and all other laws must conform to it.

(b) The Constitution lays down how different organs of the government will be formed.

Ans. True. It defines the structure of the executive, the legislature, and the judiciary.

Ans. True. The Constitution guarantees Fundamental Rights and limits government powers to protect democracy.

(d) A constitution is about institutions, not about values.

Ans. Not true. The Constitution is based on values like justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity, which guide governance.

Practice Questions

Part A (Objective Question Section) Multiple Choice Questions

1. What was the system of racial discrimination practised in South Africa called?

(a) Segregation

(b) Apartheid

(d) Nationalism

2. Which organisation led the struggle against apartheid in South Africa?

(a) African National Congress (ANC)

(b) United Nations (UN)

(d) South African Freedom Party

3. Who was the first black president of South Africa after the end of apartheid?

(a) Desmond Tutu

(b) Jacob Zuma

(d) Nelson Mandela

4. When did South Africa become a democracy with a new Constitution?

(a) 1947 (b) 1994

5. What was the primary goal of the new South African Constitution?

(a) Establish a monarchy

(b) Promote racial superiority

(d) Strengthen the white rule

6. Who was the President of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Dr BR Ambedkar

(d) Dr Rajendra Prasad

7. Which of the following was NOT a challenge in the making of the Indian Constitution?

(a) The partition of India and its consequences

(b) The integration of princely states

(d) The establishment of a democratic government

8. The Constituent Assembly adopted the Indian Constitution on:

(a) 26 January 1950

(b) 26 November 1949

(d) 2 October 1947

9. Which of the following was a source of influence on the Indian Constitution?

(a) The Government of India Act, 1935

(b) The French Revolution

(d) All of the above

10. Which body was responsible for drafting the Indian Constitution?

(a) Parliament of India

(b) Indian National Congress

(d) Supreme Court of India

11. The Indian Constitution came into effect on:

(a) 26 January 1950

(b) 15 August 1947

(d) 2 October 1947

12. Which of the following leaders gave the speech ‘Tryst with Destiny’ in the Constituent Assembly?

(a) Dr BR Ambedkar

(b) Jawaharlal Nehru

(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

13. Which part of the Indian Constitution contains its guiding values and philosophy?

(a) Fundamental Rights

(b) Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) Preamble

14. Which of the following statements about secularism in the Indian Constitution is correct?

(a) The government can promote one religion over others.

(b) The citizens are free to follow any religion or none at all.

(d) Only religious leaders can make laws related to religion.

15. The term ‘Socialist’ in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution means:

(a) The government will promote economic and social equality.

(b) The government will follow only capitalist policies.

(d) Private businesses are not allowed in India.

16. A Constitution is necessary because:

(i) It lays down rules that the government and citizens must follow.

(ii) It helps build trust and coordination among people.

(iii) It allows the government to function without any restrictions.

(iv) It ensures that the majority can take away the rights of the minority.

(a) I and II (b) II and III

(d) All of these

17. Which of the following are the functions of a constitution?

(i) It defines the rights of citizens.

(ii) It specifies how the government will be formed.

(iii) It grants unlimited power to the ruling party.

(iv) It limits the power of the government.

(a) II and III

(b) I, II, and IV

18. What was a major challenge in forming South Africa’s Constitution?

(i) To ensure majority rule while protecting minority rights.

(ii) To create a monarchy system for stability.

(iii) To guarantee the racial superiority of the whites.

(iv) To restrict voting rights to elite groups.

(a) I and IV (b) II and III

19. A democratic Constitution should ensure:

(i) That elections are free and fair

(ii) That only the majority group’s interests are protected

(iii) That all citizens, regardless of race or class, have equal rights

(iv) That the ruling party cannot be challenged

(a) I and II (b) II and IV

20. Why did South Africa need a new Constitution?

(i) To end apartheid and racial discrimination.

(ii) To establish a system based on equality and justice.

(iii) To give full control to the white minority.

(iv) To eliminate democracy and create an authoritarian rule.

(a) I and II (b) II and III

Assertion-Reason

Based Questions

In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion (A): A constitution is necessary for a country to function smoothly and ensure stability.

Reason (R): A constitution allows the supreme legislative body to make amendments if necessary.

2. Assertion (A): The new Constitution of South Africa is considered one of the finest in the world.

Reason (R): The new Constitution guarantees equal rights to all citizens, regardless of race, and was formed through consensus between the oppressors and the oppressed.

3. Assertion (A): The Indian Constitution was drafted after intense discussions and debates.

Reason (R): The Constituent Assembly consisted of only a few selected leaders who imposed their ideas without considering public opinions.

4. Assertion (A): The Preamble provides detailed procedures for the functioning of the government and the election process.

Reason (R): The Preamble of the Indian Constitution reflects the fundamental values and philosophy of the nation.

Picture Based Questions

1. Identify the person in the picture.

(a) Durgabai Deshmukh

(b) Sarojini Naidu

(d) Kasturba Gandhi

2. Which was the highest position held by Dr Rajendra Prasad?

(a) President of the Constituent Assembly

(b) President of the Congress

(d) Prime Minister of the interim government

3. Identify the person in the picture with the help of his role in Indian politics.

(a) Abdul Ghaffar Khan: Indian independence activist from the North-West Frontier Province

(b) Sir Sayyid Ahmad Khan: eminent Muslim reformist and philosopher

(d) Abul Kalam Azad: educationist, author and theologian

4. This image is of a signboard from South Africa. What message does it convey?

(a) Dangers of living in South Africa

(b) The tense relations of the apartheid era

(d) Political instability in South Africa

5. This image captures the spirit of South Africa today. South Africans call themselves a ‘rainbow nation’. Why?

(a) To reflect the country’s unity in diversity after the end of apartheid

(b) To reflect the economic development in the country

(d) To signify the emergence of a new country

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30-40 words)

1. What is a constitution?

2. Why do we need a constitution?

3. Write a brief note on the offence and imprisonment of Nelson Mandela.

4. Who led the struggle against apartheid in South Africa?

5. How was the new constitution of South Africa formed?

6. What was the main challenge in drafting the Indian constitution?

7. How was the new Constituent Assembly of India formed? Was it directly elected by the people?

8. What processes were adopted by the Constituent Assembly for framing the Constitution of India?

9. What is the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?

10. What does the term ‘Sovereign’ in the Preamble mean?

11. What does the term ‘Secular’ in the Preamble mean?

12. How can we say that India is a Republic?

13. What are Fundamental Rights?

14. What does ‘Democratic’ mean in the Indian Constitution?

15. How did the Indian freedom struggle influence the Constitution?

16. What did the white minority in South Africa, want to protect through their new constitution?

Short Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. What was apartheid? How did the people struggle against it?

2. How did South Africa move towards a new Constitution?

3. What agreements were arrived at by both ethnic groups of South Africa, for their Constitution?

4. Why do we accept and follow even today, a constitution made by the Constituent Assembly, 75 years ago?

5. What was Mahatma Gandhi’s vision for India’s Constitution?

6. Which feature of our Constitution was taken from the Irish Constitution? Explain briefly.

7. How does the Preamble reflect the philosophy of the Indian Constitution?

8. What is meant by ‘institutional design’ in the constitution?

9. What were the main sources of influence on the Indian Constitution?

10. Why is the Indian Constitution considered a ‘living document’? Write a critical evaluation.

Long Answer Questions (100-120

words)

1. What was apartheid in South Africa? How did the people of South Africa fight against it?

2. Discuss the challenges that India faced while making its Constitution.

3. How was the Indian Constituent Assembly formed? What was its role in shaping India’s democracy?

4. What were Mahatma Gandhi’s views on the Indian Constitution? How were they different from Ambedkar’s views?

5. What is the significance of the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?

6. How does the Constitution of India limit the power of the government?

7. How does the Constitution of India promote national unity and social justice?

8. What is meant by ‘sovereign, socialist and secular’ as the key words of our Constitution?

9. Who led the struggle against apartheid? State any four practices that were followed in the system of apartheid in South Africa.

10. The Indian Constitution is both rigid and flexible. Evaluate the statement.

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

Struggle Against Apartheid

Apartheid was the name of a system of racial discrimination unique to South Africa. The white Europeans imposed this system on

South Africa. During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, the trading companies from Europe occupied it with arms and force, in the way they occupied India. But unlike India, a large number of ‘whites’ had settled in South Africa and became the local rulers. The system of apartheid divided the people and labelled them based on their skin colour. The native people of South Africa are black. They made up about three-fourths of the population and were called ‘blacks’. Besides these two groups, there were people of mixed races who were called ‘coloured’ and people who migrated from India. The white rulers treated all non-whites as inferiors. The non-whites did not have voting rights. The apartheid system was particularly oppressive for the blacks. They were forbidden from living in white areas. They could work in white areas only if they had a permit. Trains, buses, taxis, hotels, hospitals, schools and colleges, libraries, cinema halls, theatres, beaches, swimming pools, and public toilets, were all separate for the whites and blacks. This was called segregation. They could not even visit the churches where the whites worshipped. Blacks could not form associations or protest against the terrible treatment.

(a) What was apartheid in South Africa?

(b) Where can you see ‘segregation’ under apartheid?

2. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

A constitution is not merely a statement of values and philosophy. As we noted above, a constitution is mainly about embodying these values into institutional arrangements.

Much of the document called the Constitution of India is about these arrangements. It is a very long and detailed document. Therefore, it needs to be amended quite regularly to keep it updated. Those who crafted the Indian Constitution felt that it had to be in accordance with people’s aspirations and changes in society. They did not see it as a sacred, static and unalterable law. So, they made provisions to incorporate changes from time to time. These changes are called constitutional amendments. The Constitution describes the institutional

arrangements in a very legal language. If you read the Constitution for the first time, it can be quite difficult to understand. Yet the basic institutional design is not very difficult to understand. Like any Constitution, the Indian Constitution lays down a procedure for choosing persons to govern the country. It defines who will have how much power to make which decisions. And it puts limits to what the government can do by providing some rights to the citizen that cannot be violated.

(a) Why does the Indian Constitution need to be amended regularly?

(b) What does ‘institutional design’ mean in the context of the Constitution?

Answers

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. (b) Apartheid

2. (a) African National Congress (ANC)

3. (d) Nelson Mandela

4. (b) 1994

5. (c) Ensure equality, democracy, and human rights

6. (b) Dr BR Ambedkar

7. (c) The need to create a new language for legal documents.

8. (b) 26 November 1949

9. (d) All the above

10. (c) Constituent Assembly

11. (a) 26 January 1950

12. (b) Jawaharlal Nehru

13. (d) Preamble

14. (b) Citizens are free to follow any religion or none at all.

15. (a) The government will promote economic and social equality.

16. (a) I and II

17. (b) I, II, and IV

18. (c) I only

19. (d) I and III

20. (a) I and II

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

1. (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

2. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

3. (c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

4. (d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

Picture Based Questions

1. (b) Sarojini Naidu

2. (c) President of India

3. (d) Abul Kalam Azad: educationist, author and theologian

4. (b) The tense relations of the apartheid era

5. (a) To reflect the country’s unity in diversity after the end of apartheid

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30-40 words)

1. • A constitution is the supreme law of a country that lays down the fundamental rules governing the government, the rights of citizens, and the legal framework of the nation.

• It ensures justice, equality, and democracy.

2. • A constitution provides a set of fundamental rules and principles that help in governing a country.

• It protects the rights of citizens and upholds democracy. It also limits the powers of the government, preventing any misuse of authority while safeguarding individual freedoms.

3. Nelson Mandela was tried for treason and sentenced to life imprisonment for daring to oppose the apartheid regime in his country. He spent the next 27 years in South Africa’s most dreaded prison, Robben Island.

4. • Nelson Mandela and the African National Congress (ANC) played a crucial role in leading the struggle against apartheid.

• They fought for equality, justice, and democracy, demanding an end to racial segregation and the establishment of a fair inclusive government.

5. • The new constitution of South Africa was formed after long negotiations between the white minority and the black majority.

• It aimed to ensure justice, equality, and democracy for all citizens, eliminating racial discrimination and granting fundamental rights and freedoms to everyone.

6. • The main challenges faced while forming India’s constitution included partition, the integration of over 500 princely states, and ensuring national unity in a highly diverse country.

• The leaders had to frame a strong democratic foundation to protect the rights of all citizens.

7. • The new Constituent Assembly was not directly elected by the people but formed through elections in the Provincial Legislatures.

• It was a representative body that included leaders from different regions, communities, and ideologies to ensure inclusivity in framing the Constitution.

8. • The Constituent Assembly framed the Indian Constitution through intense debates and discussions, considering diverse viewpoints.

• For over three years, the members examined various structures, values, and provisions to ensure that the final document reflected the aspirations of the Indian people.

9. • The Preamble to the Constitution serves as the introductory statement of the Indian Constitution.

• It outlines the guiding principles of the nation, including sovereignty, socialism, secularism, democracy, and justice, emphasising the core values upon which the country’s governance is based.

10. • The term Sovereign in the Indian Constitution means that India is an independent nation with complete authority over its internal and external affairs.

• No foreign power can interfere in its governance, and the country has full control over its policies and decisions.

11. • Secularism in the Indian Constitution means that the government does not promote any particular religion and treats all religions equally.

• It ensures religious freedom for all citizens, allowing them to practice, profess, and propagate any faith without discrimination or state interference.

12. India is a Republic because:

• The head of the state, the President of India, is elected rather than being a hereditary ruler.

• The leadership is based on democratic elections, held at regular intervals, giving people the power to choose their representatives.

13. • Fundamental Rights are the basic rights guaranteed by the Indian Constitution to all citizens.

• They ensure freedom, equality, and justice, and protect individuals against any unfair actions by the government or others.

14. • Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines for the government to promote social and economic justice.

• They aim to establish a fair society by ensuring equal opportunities in education, employment, healthcare, and welfare policies to improve the lives of all citizens.

15. • The Indian freedom movement was based on the principles of equality, justice, and democracy.

• These ideals influenced the framing of the Constitution, ensuring that rights and aspirations of the people were protected while laying the foundation for a just and democratic society.

16. The white minority in South Africa wanted the new Constitution to protect their rights and privileges, even after the end of apartheid, and ensure that democracy would not lead to revenge or discrimination against them.

Short Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. • Apartheid was a policy of racial discrimination in South Africa where the white minority controlled the government and denied rights to the black majority.

• People struggled against it through protests, strikes, and international support.

• Leaders like Nelson Mandela played a key role in the peaceful movement that finally ended apartheid in 1994.

2. • As protests against apartheid increased, the government realised it could no longer oppress the black majority.

• Discriminatory laws were repealed, bans on political parties were lifted, and Nelson Mandela was released after 27 years in prison.

• The white minority and black majority negotiated to draft a new democratic constitution that ensured equality for all.

3. • Both ethnic groups in South Africa agreed to build a democratic government that would treat all citizens equally, regardless of race.

• The white minority agreed to accept majority rule, and the black majority promised that the rights of minorities would be protected.

• They also agreed that the Constitution would guarantee equal rights and freedoms for all.

4. We accept and follow the 75 years old Constitution even today because:

• It was created through extensive debates and discussions by representatives from diverse backgrounds.

• It reflects the aspirations, values, and unity of the people.

• The Constitution is a living document, flexible enough to adapt to changing needs through amendments, while ensuring justice and equality.

5. Mahatma Gandhi wanted a constitution that ensured the following:

• Equal rights for all, removing caste and class divisions.

• Harmony among all communities, without religious discrimination.

• No untouchability and social evils.

• Equal rights for women.

Mahatma Gandhi’s vision inspired many leaders, but Dr BR Ambedkar had a different approach, focusing on legal and constitutional guarantees.

6. The feature of Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution was inspired by the Irish Constitution.

• These principles serve as guidelines for the government to create policies that promote social and economic justice.

• They aim to reduce inequalities, improve living standards, and ensure the welfare of all citizens by focusing on education, health, fair wages, and social security.

7. • The Preamble reflects the philosophy of the Indian Constitution by stating its key values— justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity.

• It declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic.

• It expresses the commitment to secure dignity and rights for all citizens, guiding the nation towards unity and inclusive development.

8. Institutional design refers to the way the government is structured in the constitution to ensure effective governance and accountability. It includes:

• Division of power among the Legislature, Executive, and Judiciary.

• Process for elections and governance, allowing democratic representation.

• Rights of citizens and limits on government power, protecting individual freedoms.

• Provisions for constitutional amendments to adapt to changing times.

9. The main sources of influence:

• It adopted the British parliamentary system.

• The American Bill of Rights served as the basis for India’s Fundamental Rights.

• The ideals of Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity were inspired by the French Revolution.

• The Government of India Act, 1935 played a significant role in influencing India’s administrative framework.

• The Russian Revolution inspired social and economic equality.

10. • The Indian Constitution is called a living document because it has the flexibility to adapt to changing social, economic, and political conditions through amendments.

• The Parliament has the authority to introduce changes whenever necessary to address new challenges and requirements.

• This ability to incorporate modifications ensures that the Constitution remains relevant and continues to uphold the values of democracy, justice, and equality in a dynamic society.

Long Answer Questions

1. Apartheid in

South Africa

(100-120 words)

• Apartheid was a system of racial discrimination in South Africa where the white minority oppressed the black majority.

• Black and coloured people were denied voting rights, quality education, and access to public facilities, and were forced to live separately.

• Mahatma Gandhi also faced racial discrimination there and raised his voice against it.

Fight Against Apartheid

• The African National Congress, led by Nelson Mandela, organised protests and strikes against apartheid.

• Mandela was imprisoned for 27 years. Due to international pressure, boycotts, and constant resistance, apartheid finally ended.

• In the early 1990s, bans on parties like the ANC were lifted, and Mandela was released.

• In 1994, the first democratic elections were held and Mandela became the first black President. A new constitution ensured equality and justice for all.

2. The making of the Indian Constitution was a highly challenging and complex task due to several significant reasons.

• The Partition of India led to communal riots, killings, and the displacement of millions, creating instability and insecurity.

• Another challenge was integrating over 500 princely states, each with its own ruler, into the newly independent nation through negotiations and diplomacy.

• Additionally, India’s vast diversity in languages, religions, and cultures made it difficult to draft a constitution that ensured equal rights and representation for all. Establishing a democratic system was also crucial, as India had never experienced full democracy before.

Despite these challenges, the Constituent Assembly successfully framed a constitution that established India as a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic.

3. The Constituent Assembly played a crucial role in shaping India’s democracy.

• The Constituent Assembly was formed in 1946, with members indirectly elected by the Provincial Legislatures.

• Soon after, the country was divided into India and Pakistan. The Constituent Assembly was also divided into the Constituent Assembly of India and that of Pakistan.

• The Constituent Assembly of India had 299 members representing different regions, religions, and communities of India. The Assembly was responsible for debating, drafting, and finalising the Indian Constitution.

• The Drafting Committee, led by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, prepared a draft constitution after thorough discussions.

• The Assembly debated for three years (1946–1949), making over 2,000 amendments.

• The constitution was finally adopted on 26 November 1949 and came into effect on 26 January 1950.

4. Although Mahatma Gandhi was not a member of the Constituent Assembly, he believed that it should aspire to remove inequality and injustices and that the constitution should focus on rural self-governance, social harmony, and economic justice.

Mahatma Gandhi wanted:

• A society free from caste discrimination and untouchability.

• Equal rights for men and women.

• A simple, village-based democracy instead of a centralised government.

Dr BR Ambedkar had a different approach:

• He believed that laws and legal safeguards were necessary to protect the rights of oppressed sections, including Dalits.

• He emphasised the need for a strong central government, fundamental rights, and legal equality.

Conclusion: Both leaders wanted justice and equality, but Mahatma Gandhi focused on social reforms, while Ambedkar emphasised on legal protections.

5. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution

• It serves as an introductory statement that outlines the core values and guiding principles of the nation.

• It reflects the vision and aspirations of the framers of the constitution and highlights fundamental ideals such as justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity.

• It declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic, ensuring that power rests with the people and that governance is based on equality and social welfare.

• The Preamble also establishes the commitment to securing justice—social, economic, and political—for all citizens.

• It serves as a guiding light for interpreting the constitution and framing policies.

• It plays a crucial role in maintaining the spirit of democracy and the inclusivity in India.

6. The Indian Constitution ensures that the government does not misuse its power through various mechanisms that uphold democracy and accountability.

• Separation of Powers: Dividing the powers of the government into legislative, executive, and judiciary prevents any one branch from misusing its authority.

• Fundamental Rights: These protect citizens from government overreach and ensure personal freedoms.

• Judicial Review: The Supreme Court can strike down unconstitutional laws and prevent misuse of power.

• Elections and Democracy: Regular elections, an independent Election Commission, and a free press hold leaders accountable.

• Amendments: The constitution can be amended, but the process ensures that changes are deliberate and just. This ensures that no leader or party can rule without accountability, safeguarding democratic values.

7. The Constitution of India promotes national unity and social justice by establishing a framework that ensures equality, liberty, and inclusion for all citizens.

• It guarantees Fundamental Rights that prohibit discrimination based on caste, religion, gender, or race, thus fostering a sense of unity and belonging.

• The Directive Principles of State Policy guide the government to work towards social and economic welfare, such as free education, fair wages, and employment for all.

• India’s secular character ensures equal respect for all religions, promoting religious harmony.

• Through reservation policies, the Constitution supports the upliftment of weaker sections like SCs, STs, and OBCs.

• Federalism allows power-sharing between the Centre and States, maintaining regional diversity while strengthening national integration and democracy.

8. • The words ‘sovereign, socialist, and secular’ in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution reflect the core values of our democracy.

• ‘Sovereign’ means that India is free to make its own decisions without interference from any foreign country. India is an independent nation, both in internal and external matters.

• ‘Socialist’ means the Constitution aims to reduce economic inequality by ensuring equal opportunities for all. It promotes social and economic justice through welfare policies, fair wages, and support for the poor and marginalised.

• ‘Secular’ means that the state has no official religion and treats all religions equally. It guarantees religious freedom and promotes tolerance and harmony among different communities, helping build a unified and inclusive society.

9. The African National Congress (ANC) led the struggle against apartheid—the name of discrimination policy unique to South Africa. Many sensitive whites also joined the ANC to oppose apartheid and played a leading role in the struggle movement.

The white Europeans imposed restrictions on non-white people of South Africa.

(i) The blacks were forbidden from living in white areas. They could work in these areas only if they had a permit.

(ii) The blacks could not go to public places.

(iii) There were separate schools, colleges, hotels, hospitals, trains, buses, cinema halls, theatres, shopping areas and public toilets, swimming pools and beaches, etc. for the whites and blacks.

(iv) The non-whites were denied voting rights and even basic human rights.

10. The Indian Constitution is considered both rigid and flexible.

Rigid aspect:

• It is rigid because certain parts, like changes to Fundamental Rights or the federal structure, require a special majority in Parliament and approval from half of the state legislatures.

• This ensures that core values are not changed easily or casually.

Flexible aspect:

• It is flexible because other provisions can be amended by a simple majority, allowing the Constitution to adapt to changing needs of society.

• This balanced approach helps the Constitution remain stable yet responsive.

• It protects the democratic framework, while allowing reforms and necessary updates. Therefore, the Indian Constitution is strong and dynamic, not fragile, and supports national unity, justice, equality, and progress over time.

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1

(a) Apartheid was a system of racial discrimination, unique to South Africa, where the whites exploited the blacks.

(b) Segregation can be seen in keeping white and non-white people separate in all public places.

• The native people of South Africa are black who made up about three-fourths of the population and were called ‘blacks’.

• People of mixed races were called ‘coloured’; it included people who migrated from India.

Passage 2

(a) The Constitution needs to be amended regularly to ensure it meets the changing needs and aspirations of the society. Provisions were made for constitutional amendments to allow the Constitution to remain relevant and adaptable over time.

(b) Institutional design refers to the framework and structure set by the Constitution for governance. It defines how leaders are elected, how much power they have, and what decisions they can take while ensuring that citizens’ rights and freedoms are protected.

• Defining who can govern and how.

• Setting boundaries on government authority.

• Providing Fundamental Rights that cannot be violated.

• Allowing judicial review to prevent misuse of power.

SELF-ASSESSMENT

Time: 1 Hour

Section A

Scan me for all answers.

Max. Marks: 40

7. Which of the following statements correctly describes ‘Fraternity’ as mentioned in the Preamble?

(1 × 8 = 8 Marks)

Choose and write the correct answer for each of the following.

1. Who was the first President of independent South Africa?

(a) Nelson Mandela

(b) F.W. de Klerk

(d) Oliver Tambo

2. When did the Indian Constitution come into effect?

(a) 15 August 1947

(b) 26 November 1949

(d) 2 October 1950

3. Which of the following is NOT a guiding value of the Indian Constitution?

(a) Secularism

(b) Federalism

(d) Dictatorship

4. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?

(a) Dr Rajendra Prasad

(b) Dr BR Ambedkar

(d) Sardar Patel

5. The Apartheid system in South Africa was based on:

(a) Religion

(b) Gender

(d) Wealth

6. What does the term ‘Republic’ in the Indian Constitution signify?

(a) The head of state is a monarch.

(b) The head of the State is elected and not hereditary ruler.

(d) Elections are held only for the legislature.

(a) It gives special rights to certain sections of society only.

(b) It ensures that only people of the same religion live together.

(d) It promotes feelings of brotherhood and unity among citizens.

8. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Indian Constitution?

(a) Bill of Rights

(b) Fundamental Rights

(d) Preamble

Section B

Answer the following questions.

9. Why was apartheid considered a harsh system? (2 Marks)

10. Why do we need a constitution? (3 Marks)

11. What do you mean by the ‘Philosophy of the Indian Constitution’? (3 Marks)

12. Explain the importance of Fundamental Rights in a democracy. (3 Marks)

13. What are the key features of the Indian Constitution? (3 Marks)

14. How does the Constitution protect citizens’ rights? (3 Marks)

15. Write an account on Nelson Mandela’s struggle against Apartheid. (5 Marks)

16. How did the makers of the Indian Constitution ensure that it remains relevant over time? (5 Marks)

17. What is meant by the term “socialist”. Is India a socialist State? Analyse. (5 Marks)

3 Electoral Politics

This chapter explores how elections are held in a democratic country like India and why they are essential. It begins with a real-life case study from Haryana to help students understand the election process in a simple way. The chapter explains how people elect their representatives and how these elections ensure that the government remains accountable to the public. It describes the role of the Election Commission in organizing free and fair elections. Important topics such as the formation of constituencies, voter registration, nomination of candidates, and election campaigns are discussed in detail. The chapter also covers the use of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs), the secret ballot system, and the voting process. It highlights the need to prevent unfair practices and ensure transparency. By understanding these concepts, students learn how elections are the foundation of a strong and functioning democracy.

Electoral Politics

Why Elections?

• Choice of leaders

• Peaceful transfer of power

• Mechanism for accountability

Election Process What Makes an Election Democratic?

• One person, one vote, one value

• Free and fair elections

• Real choice among candidates

• Regular intervals

• Popularly elected government

Role of Election Commission

• Conducts elections

• Issues Model Code of Conduct

• Monitors campaign expenses

• Declares results

• Ensures free & fair process

• For SCs & STs

Election System in India

• Universal Adult Franchise (18+)

• Parliamentary democracy

• Lok Sabha & Vidhan Sabha elections

• Constituencies (Reserved & General)

• Ensures equal representation

Competition

• Encourages responsiveness

• Ensures accountability

• Sometimes leads to:

⸰ Use of unfair means

⸰ Focus on winning rather than good governance

• Use of money and muscle power

• Fake voting, booth capturing

• Lack of level playing field

• Limited opportunity for common citizens

• Announcement of election

• Filing of nominations

• Scrutiny & withdrawal

• Campaigning

• Voting (EVMs & Secret Ballot)

• Counting & Result Declaration

& Improvements

• Use of EVMs

• Voter ID cards

• NOTA

• Awareness campaigns

Key Terms and Definitions

Code of Conduct: It consists of established norms and regulations that govern the actions of political parties and candidates during elections, aimed at promoting fair practices and transparency.

Constituency: It is a specific spatial division within a country where eligible voters elect a representative to the legislature, reflecting the principle of local governance and accountability.

Elections: Elections are official events where people vote to choose leaders or representatives, helping form a government that represents the wishes of the citizens.

Democratic Elections: Elections that meet certain key criteria such as fairness, regularity, equal representation, and freedom of choice, ensuring that the will of the people is truly reflected through their votes.

Voter: A voter is a qualified citizen who has the right to vote in elections, choosing candidates for public office and playing an important role in a democracy.

Election Campaign: An election campaign is a planned effort by candidates and political parties to inform and convince voters about their ideas and promises through speeches, advertisements, and other activities before the election takes place.

Electoral Process: It includes all stages of elections, from the drawing of constituencies, candidate nominations, polling, to the declaration of results, which collectively ensure the democratic selection of representatives.

Fair Elections: The principle that elections should be conducted impartially and without bias.

First-Past-the-Post: An electoral system where the candidate with the most votes wins, regardless of whether they achieve a majority.

Incumbent: This term refers to the existing holder of a political office who is most often contesting elections for reelection, operating within a competitive political framework.

Influence of Public Issues: The effect of key social and economic issues on election campaigns.

Informed Voting: Voting based on accurate information about candidates and their agendas.

Level Playing Field: It implies a fair electoral environment where candidates and political parties compete on equal terms, without undue advantage to any participant.

Malpractice in Elections: It encompasses various unethical practices that may influence the outcome of an election, including intimidation, financial misconduct, and misuse of government resources.

Model Code of Conduct: Guidelines parties agree to follow during election campaigns.

Money Politics: It signifies the role of financial resources in electoral success, which can overshadow the merit of candidates, leading to unequal competition and undermining democratic principles.

Rigging: It denotes illegal and unethical practices aimed at manipulating election results, including voter fraud, counting discrepancies, and coercion of election officials.

Voter Turnout: It is the percentage of eligible voters who cast a ballot in an election, serving as a fundamental indicator of public participation in democratic processes.

NCERT Zone

Intext Questions

1. Jagdeep and Navpreet read this story and drew the following conclusions. Can you say which of these are right or wrong (or if the information given in the story is inadequate to call them right or wrong):

(i) Elections can lead to changes in the policy of the government.

Ans. True. Elections can lead to changes in the policy of the government, as evidenced by the Haryana assembly election in 1987.

• The people were dissatisfied with the existing government and were attracted by Devi Lal’s promise to waive farmers’ loans.

• As a result, they voted for Lok Dal, leading to a policy change when Devi Lal implemented his promise after becoming Chief Minister.

(ii) The Governor invited Devi Lal to become the Chief Minister because he was impressed with his speeches.

Ans. False.

• The Governor invited Devi Lal to become the Chief Minister not because of his speeches but because his party, Lok Dal, which won a majority in the assembly elections with 60 seats.

• In a parliamentary democracy, the leader of the majority party in the legislature is typically invited to form the government.

(iii) People are unhappy with every ruling party and vote against it in the next election.

Ans. False. The statement is not universally true.

• While public dissatisfaction can lead to a change in government, as seen in Haryana in 1991 when the Congress won after Devi Lal’s term, it is not always the case that people vote against the ruling party in subsequent elections.

• Various factors, such as party performance and public perception, influence voter behavior.

(iv) The party that wins the election forms the government.

Ans. True. The party that wins the majority of seats in the election forms the government. This is a fundamental principle of representative democracy, as demonstrated in Haryana where the Lok Dal formed the government after winning 60 out of 90 seats in the state assembly election.

(v) This election led to a lot of economic development in Haryana.

Ans. Information is inadequate.

• While Devi Lal’s government waived loans for small farmers and businessmen, which was a significant economic measure, the statement about 'a lot of economic development' in Haryana requires specific data and broader context.

• Waiving loans alone does not encompass the full spectrum of economic development.

(vi) The Congress Chief Minister need not have resigned after his party lost elections.

Ans. False.

• In a parliamentary system, the sitting chief minister resigns if their party loses the elections, as they no longer have the confidence of the assembly.

• The new majority party leader then forms the government, as seen when Devi Lal became the Chief Minister after the Congress lost in Haryana.

2. See the map below and answer the following questions.

Ans. States like Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Bihar typically have more than 30 Lok Sabha constituencies due to their large populations.

(ii) Why do some states have such a large number of constituencies?

Ans. Some states have a large number of constituencies due to their large population sizes.

The Indian electoral system ensures each Member of Parliament represents roughly an equal number of people, so states with higher populations are apportioned more constituencies to ensure adequate and proportional representation in the Lok Sabha.

(iii) Why are some constituencies small in area while others are very big?

Ans. Constituency sizes vary based on population density.

• Densely populated areas, often urban, result in smaller geographical constituencies.

• In contrast, sparsely populated rural areas cover larger geographical areas to encompass a comparable population size, ensuring each MP represents roughly the same number of people, maintaining the principle of one person-one vote.

(iv) Are the constituencies reserved for the SCs and STs evenly spread all over the entire country or are there more in some areas?

Ans.

• Reserved constituencies for Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST) are distributed based on population proportion within states and constituencies.

• Areas with higher SC or ST populations have more reserved constituencies, ensuring fair representation in legislative bodies.

• Thus, their distribution is not evenly spread nationally but aligned with demographic concentrations.

3. Why is there no educational qualification for holding such an important position?

Ans. No educational qualification is prescribed for contesting elections to uphold democratic principles.

• It ensures inclusivity, allowing every citizen the right to represent others regardless of their formal education.

• The primary qualification is the trust and mandate of the voters, who decide a candidate’s capability to address issues and represent their interests.

4. Why are the candidates required to give a detailed statement of their property?

Ans. Candidates must provide a detailed statement of their property for the following reasons:

• To promote transparency and accountability in elections.

• It enables voters to make informed decisions, mitigate corruption, and curb the influence of money in politics.

• This requirement, overseen by the Election Commission, helps ensure that candidates adhere to ethical governance standards.

5. Are the elections too expensive for our country?

Ans. • While conducting elections involves significant costs, it is part of the democratic process ensuring fair representation.

• In 2014, Lok Sabha elections cost about ₹3,500 crores, equating to around ₹40 per voter.

• Despite the expenses, elections underpin democratic governance and empowerment, outweighing the financial burden when compared to the benefits of maintaining a functioning democracy.

Election result in Gulbarga

Let us go back to our example of Gulbarga. In 2014, a total of 8 candidates contested elections in that constituency. The total eligible voters were 17.21 lakhs. Of these 9.98 lakh voters had cast their votes. The candidate of the Congress party, Mallikarjun Kharge secured about 5.07 lakh votes. This was 50.82 percent of the total votes polled. But since he had secured more votes than anyone else, he was declared elected a Member of Parliament from Gulbarga Lok Sabha constituency.

Election Result of Gulbarga constituency, GENERAL ELECTION TO LOK SABHA, 2014

6. What is the percentage of voters (in the above table) who had actually cast their votes?

Ans.

• In the example of the 2014 general election in the Gulbarga constituency, 9.98 lakh out of 17.21 lakh eligible voters cast their votes, resulting in a voter turnout of approximately 58%.

• Voter turnout reflects the percentage of eligible voters who participated, which is crucial in evaluating democratic engagement and representation.

7. To win an election is it necessary for a person to secure more than half the votes polled?

Ans. No, it is not necessary to secure more than half the votes polled to win an election.

• In India, the first-past-the-post system is used, where the candidate with the most votes wins.

• Thus, the winning candidate must receive the highest number of votes, not necessarily a majority (more than 50%).

8. Why are party agents present in the polling booth and the counting centre?

Ans. Party agents are present in the polling booth and the counting centre to ensure that elections are free, fair, and transparent.

9. Identify the fair and unfair electoral practices among the following:

• A minister flags off a new train in his constituency a week before polling day.

• A candidate promises that she will get a new train for her constituency if she is elected.

• Supporters of a candidate take the voters to a temple and make them take an oath that they will vote for him.

• The supporters of a candidate distribute blankets in slums in return for a promise to vote.

Ans. Fair Practice:

• A candidate promises to get a new train for her constituency if elected (offers a policy-related promise without undue influence).

Unfair Practices:

• A minister flags off a new train a week before polling (misuse of position and resources);

• Supporters take voters to a temple for an oath (religious influence);

• Distributing blankets for votes (bribery).

Ans. The Election Commission exercises its following powers to ensure free and fair elections:

• By ensuring adherence to the Model Code of Conduct (e.g., notifying Lok Sabha constitution),

• Overseeing electoral expenses,

• Managing timing and conduct during polls (e.g., advising against policies mid-election), and

• Intervening for unbiased processes (e.g., ordering repolls, reviewing arrangements). These actions highlight its capability to maintain electoral integrity.

11. Why does the Election Commission have so much powers? Is this good for democracy?

Ans. The Election Commission is an independent body—not controlled by the government. It has got the power to supervise elections from start to finish and punish candidates or parties if they break election rules.

Election Commission have so much powers because of the following reasons:

• To ensure free and fair elections in the country.

• To prevent cheating, unfair practices, and misuse of power by political parties.

Yes, it is very good and important to protect democracy. Without it, elections could become unfair and undemocratic.

12. The leader is coming out of a press conference: What was the need to say that we have distributed tickets only amongst suitable and winnable family relations?" Do you think that family politics is confined to only a few states or parties?

Ans. • The statement underscores nepotism in political ticket distribution, where candidates are chosen not on merit but based on family ties, perceived suitability, and winnability.

• Family politics is not restricted to a few states or parties; it is a widespread issue across various regions and political parties, potentially limiting fair representation and merit-based leadership.

13. Does this apply to India and to other democracies in the world?

Ans. Yes, family politics and nepotism in ticket distribution are prevalent issues not just in India but in several democracies worldwide, where political dynasties often influence candidate selection and governance.

14. Is this an accurate picture of what happens to the voter before and after elections? Must this always happen in a democracy? Can you think of examples when this did not happen?

Ans. The depiction of voter neglect after elections can be accurate, as politicians often reduce engagement post-campaign.

Yet, it shouldn’t always happen in a democracy. When parties maintain consistent interaction with constituents and address their needs, as seen in cases like New Zealand, meaningful political relationships persist beyond elections, emphasising responsibility and accountability.

15. Here are some facts on Indian elections. Comment on each of these to say whether they reflect the strength or the weakness of our electoral system:

• The 16th Lok Sabha has 12 per cent women members.

• The Election Commission often refuses to accept the government’s advice about when the elections should be held.

• The 16th Lok Sabha has more than 440 members whose assets are more than ₹1 crore.

• After losing an election the Chief Minister said: “I respect the people’s verdict.”

Ans. • The 12% women in the 16th Lok Sabha reflects a weakness in gender representation.

• The Election Commission’s independence is a strength, ensuring fair elections.

• Wealthy members highlight concerns over money’s influence, a potential weakness.

• The Chief Minister’s acceptance of defeat indicates respect for democratic norms, a positive aspect of the system’s resilience.

NCERT Exercises

1. Which of the following statements about the reasons for conducting elections are false?

(a) Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government.

(b) People select the representative of their choice in an election.

(d) People can indicate which policies they prefer.

Ans. (c) Elections are intended for evaluating the performance of the government and choosing representatives, not for assessing the judiciary’s performance.

2. Which of these is not a good reason to say that Indian elections are democratic?

(a) India has the largest number of voters in the world.

(b) India’s Election Commission is very powerful.

(d) In India, the losing parties accept the electoral verdict.

Ans. (a) India has the largest number of voters in the world. While it indicates a vibrant democracy, it doesn’t directly confirm the democratic nature like other aspects such as a powerful Election Commission or universal adult suffrage.

3. Match the following:

Column A

A. It is necessary to keep the voters list up to date because

B. Some constituencies are reserved for SCs and STs so that

C. Everyone has one and only one vote so that

D. Party in power is not allowed to use government vehicles because

Ans. A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

4. List all the different election related activities mentioned in the chapter and arrange them in a time sequence, beginning with the first activity and ending with the last. Some of these activities that are given below:

1. releasing election manifestos;

2. counting of votes;

3. making of voters’ list;

4. election campaign;

5. declaration of election results;

6. casting of votes;

7. ordering of re-poll;

8. announcing election schedule;

9. filing nomination.

Ans. The sequence of election-related activities is as follows:

1. Making of voters’ list,

2. Announcing election schedule,

3. Releasing election manifestos,

4. Filing nominations,

5. Election campaign,

6. Casting of votes,

7. Ordering of re-poll (if necessary),

8. Counting of votes, and

9. Declaration of election results.

5. Surekha is an officer in-charge of ensuring free and fair elections in an assembly constituency in a state. Describe what she should focus on for each of the following stages of election: (a) Election campaign (b) Polling day (c) Counting day.

Ans. (a) Election Campaign:

Column B

i. there is a fair representation of all sections of our society

ii. everyone has equal opportunity to elect their representative

iii. all candidates must have a fair chance of competing in elections

iv. some people may have moved away from the area where they voted last

• Ensure adherence to the Model Code of Conduct

• Prevent misuse of government resources

• Monitor election expenditures.

(b) Polling Day:

• She should oversee polling booths to prevent malpractices

• Ensure voter access and neutrality,

• Manage personnel efficiently,

• Ensuring freedom and fairness in vote casting.

• Ensure transparency and security in vote counting,

• Allow fair representation of candidates’ agents to oversee the process.

6. The table below gives the proportion of different communities among the candidates who won elections to the US Congress. Compare these to the proportion of these communities in the population of the US. Based on this, would you suggest a system of reservations in the US Congress? If yes, why and for which communities? If no, why not?

the Community

Ans. To suggest reservations,

• One must consider representation disparities between elected candidates and the population.

• If minority communities like Hispanics or African Americans are significantly underrepresented compared to their population share, reservations could be suggested to ensure diverse and inclusive representation.

However, reservations could conflict with the US’s principles of equal opportunity.

• It’s crucial to weigh inclusivity against merit-based selection.

• Encouraging diverse candidates through support systems or reforms fostering equal opportunity areas could balance principle and representation.

7. Can we draw the following conclusions from the information given in this chapter? Give two facts to support your position for each of these.

(a) Election Commission of India does not have enough powers to conduct free and fair elections in the country.

(b) There is a high level of popular participation in the elections in our country.

(d) Many reforms are needed to make our elections completely free and fair.

Ans. (a) False: The Election Commission of India is independent and powerful, capable of enforcing the Model Code of Conduct and holding repolls.

(b) True: Voter turnout is consistently high in India, indicating active participation compared to declining figures elsewhere.

(d) True: Reforms are needed to address issues like the misuse of money, criminalisation of politics, and limited choices for voters in order to strengthen democratic integrity.

8. Chinappa was convicted for torturing his wife for dowry. Satbir was held guilty of practicing untouchability. The court did not allow either of them to contest elections. Does this decision go against the principles of democratic elections?

Ans. No, this decision does not go against democratic principles.

• Democracy not only involves the right to contest elections but also establishes ethical standards for candidates.

• Excluding individuals guilty of serious crimes like dowry torture or practicing untouchability upholds democratic integrity by ensuring that representatives maintain moral and legal standards, fostering trust and accountability in governance.

9. Here are some reports of electoral malpractices from different parts of the world. Is there anything that these countries can learn from India to improve their elections? What would you suggest in each case?

(a) During an election in Nigeria, the officer in charge of counting votes deliberately increased the votes of one candidate and declared.

Ans. Nigeria can learn from India’s independent Election Commission’s rigorous processes in ensuring vote-count integrity, perhaps by establishing similar bodies insulated from government pressures.

(b) Just before elections in Fiji, a pamphlet was distributed warning voters that a vote for former Prime Minister, Mahendra Chaudhry will lead to bloodshed. This was a threat to voters of Indian origin.

Ans. In Fiji, India’s model code prohibiting the exploitation of communal sentiments can offer a solution against threats intimidating ethnic communities.

(c) In the US, each state has its own method of voting, its own procedure of counting and its own authority for conducting elections. Authorities in the state of Florida took many controversial decisions that favoured Mr. Bush in the presidential elections in 2000. But no one could change those decisions.

Ans. The US could streamline voting methods, adopting a standardised national process like India’s EVM system, to ensure consistency and fairness across states, reducing cases of biased decision-making impacting election outcomes.

10. Here are some reports of malpractices in Indian elections. Identify what the problem in each case is. What should be done to correct the situation?

(a) Following the announcement of elections, the minister promised to provide financial aid to reopen the closed sugar mill.

Ans. Violation of Model Code of Conduct; corrective actions include EC warnings and possible election disqualification.

(b) Opposition parties alleged that their statements and campaign was not given due attention in Doordarshan and All India Radio.

Ans. Lack of media impartiality; mandates equal airtime for all parties during elections.

Ans. Inaccurate voter lists; urgent revision of electoral rolls through field verifications, removing fake entries.

(d) The hoodlums of a political party were moving with guns, physically preventing supporters of other political parties to meet the voters and attacking meetings of other parties.

Ans. Use of intimidation; strict enforcement of law and election guidelines, involvement of local police to ensure free access during campaigns, and deterrent legal actions against parties employing violence.

11. Ramesh was not in class when this chapter was being taught. He read the next day and repeated what he had heard from his father.

Can you tell Ramesh what is wrong with these statements?

(a) Women always vote the way men tell them to. So what is the point of giving them the right to vote?

Ans. Women possess independent voting rights expressing their own choices, essential to democratic inclusion and equality.

(b) Party politics creates tension in society. Elections should be decided by consensus not by competition.

Ans. Political competition, though divisive at times, is fundamental in presenting choices and ensuring accountability; consensus without electoral competition could stifle representation.

Ans. Educational qualifications for candidacy in elections limit opportunities unnecessarily. Competency in addressing public concerns is gauged by voters, as seen in successful leaders globally without formal education, supporting broader participation in democracy.

Practice Questions

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following explains why elections are a cornerstone of democratic governance?

(a) They make governments trustworthy instantly.

(b) They eliminate the need for laws.

(d) They allow citizens to choose their representatives.

2. In a democratic election, why is it vital for every vote to have equal value?

(a) To ensure everyone’s decision is equally weighted

(b) To make governances richer

(d) To reduce the number of voters

3. What role does the Election Commission play in ensuring free and fair elections in India?

(a) It declares a national holiday on Election Day.

(b) It provides free transport to all voters.

(d) It supervises the conduct of elections and monitors electoral processes.

4. What would happen if a democratic country does not conduct regular elections?

(a) All laws become obsolete.

(b) The citizens automatically appoint representatives.

(d) Nothing changes in the government.

5. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of free and fair elections?

(a) Equal opportunity is given to all candidates.

(b) There is transparency in the electoral process.

(d) Voters can express their choice freely without fear.

6. How does the ‘first-past-the-post’ electoral system work?

(a) Votes are reallocated until one candidate has a majority.

(b) The candidate with the least votes wins.

(d) All candidates win a position proportionately.

7. What is a primary reason for setting a voting age in democratic elections?

(a) To ensure voters have cognitive maturity to make informed choices

(b) To minimise election costs

(d) To reduce the number of voters

8. In a democratic setup, why is it vital for the Electoral Commission to be independent?

(a) To withstand political pressure and ensure fair elections

(b) To assist the government in controlling elections

(d) To decrease the number of elections

9. Why are electoral rolls essential for free and fair elections?

(a) They list candidates running for office.

(b) They allow for random allocation of voting rights.

(d) They eliminate the need for voting IDs.

10. What does ‘reservation of constituencies’ aim to achieve in Indian elections?

(a) Enhance voter turnout regardless of diversity

(b) Ensure fair representation of socially marginalised groups

(d) Make elections more competitive overall

11. Why is the secret ballot system important in elections?

(a) It increases the cost of elections.

(b) It ensures the government can track voting patterns.

(d) It speeds up the counting process.

12. How does a high voter turnout impact election results?

(a) Ensures only wealthy voters participate

(b) Leads to a guaranteed win for incumbents

(d) Indicates robust engagement from all socio-economic segments

13. Why is the role of election observers crucial in elections?

(a) They announce election results.

(b) They manage political campaigns.

(d) They help ensure transparency and detect potential fraud.

14. What are the consequences if political parties violate the model code of conduct during elections?

(a) They are immediately banned from all future elections.

(b) Their election results can be challenged and nullified.

(d) Their candidates automatically lose all votes.

15. What major advancement has India made to enhance the transparency of its electoral process?

(a) Enforcing a strict dress code for voters

(b) Implementation of mobile voting apps

(d) Appointment of foreign electoral observers

16. How does political funding transparency affect elections?

(a) It ensures only the wealthiest can participate.

(b) It deters citizens from voting.

(d) It reduces corruption by making funding sources public.

17. In the Indian electoral system, what is the primary purpose of a ‘REPOLL’?

(a) To count votes manually instead of using machines.

(b) To celebrate a public holiday.

(d) To allow citizens to cast additional votes.

18. Why is delimitation important in the context of elections?

(a) It decreases the number of voters per constituency evenly.

(b) It increases the number of candidates.

(d) It allows only urban areas to vote.

19. Which body is responsible for allocating symbols to political parties in India?

(a) Election Commission

(b) Governor of each state

(d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs

20. Match the following features of Indian elections with their principles.

Column I

Column II

A. Universal adult franchise i. Encourages political diversity

B. Reserved constituencies ii. Every citizen above 18 can vote

C. Free and fair elections iii. Prevent misuse of power

D. Multi-party system iv. Ensures fair representation of all sections

(a) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i (b) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

21. Match the tools with their role in Indian electoral process.

Column I Column II

A. Election Commission i. Ensures identification and prevents fraud

B. Electronic Voting Machines (EVM) ii. Independent body for conducting elections

C. Voter ID cards iii. Facilitates quick and accurate vote counting

D. Model Code of Conduct iv. Ensures ethical campaign practices

(a) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv (b) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii

22. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: Elections are essential for a democratic government to function.

Statement II: India ensures free and fair elections through a robust Election Commission.

Statement III: The Election Commission in India is under the control of the ruling party.

Statement IV: All Indian citizens aged 18 and above have the right to vote regardless of religion, caste, or gender.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and III are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

23. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: Free and fair elections are a hallmark of Indian democracy.

Statement II: The right to vote in India is restricted to literate citizens only.

Statement III: Multiple political parties in India ensure diverse representation.

Statement IV: The Election Commission can nullify elections in case of malpractice.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, III and IV are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

24. What does the term ‘universal adult franchise’ refer to in the context of Indian elections?

(a) Only educated individuals have the right to vote.

(b) Military personnel vote on behalf of civilians.

(d) Every citizen above the age of 18 has the right to vote irrespective of caste, religion, or gender.

25. Observe the graph and answer the question that follow:

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion (A): Elections lead to policy changes in the government.

Reason (R): Changing government policies require elected representatives to cater to citizens’ demands.

2. Assertion (A): Having elections means a nation is always fully democratic.

Reason (R): Elections alone are not sufficient to guarantee a democracy.

3. Assertion (A): India follows the first-past-thepost system for its elections.

Reason (R): In this system, a candidate who secures the majority of votes in their constituency wins the seat.

4. Assertion (A): A large voter turnout is not the only indicator of free and fair elections.

Reason (R): A higher number of voters ensures accurate election results.

5. Assertion (A): Regular electoral competition motivates political parties to work for the people.

Reason (R): Political parties know they must perform well to win the next election.

Picture-Based Questions

1. Observe the image and answer the question that follows:

Which social group had the highest voter turnout in India in 2004?

(a) OBC (b) SC

What does the cartoon suggest about the politician's attitude after making promises?

(a) The politician is eager to help voters.

(b) The politician is carefully distributing promises.

(d) The politician is ensuring every voter gets help.

2. Observe the image and answer the question that follows:

Which electoral issue is best represented by this image?

(a) Criminalisation of politics

(b) Money power in elections

(d) Voter awareness campaigns

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30-40 words)

1. Why are elections necessary in a democracy?

2. What is the role of the Election Commission of India?

3. Why is it important to have regular elections?

4. State one condition for a democratic election.

5. How are constituencies formed in India?

6. What mechanism is used in India to allow people to voice their opinions through elections?

7. Define ‘universal adult franchise’.

8. What is the minimum age required to vote in India?

9. Mention a key principle of political competition used in elections.

10. Why is voter ID essential during elections?

11. Highlight one major contribution of technology to the Indian electoral process.

12. What is meant by the term ‘‘political ’mandate’?

13. How does the secret ballot system work?

14. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner in India?

15. What is the need for reserving constituencies?

16. Explain the term ‘model code of conduct’.

Short

Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. Explain the role of the Election Commission in ensuring free and fair elections in India. Why is its independence crucial?

2. Why is it important to distinguish between democratic and non-democratic elections? Discuss the key differences.

3. Outline the various choices that voters have in a democracy. How do these choices empower citizens?

4. Critically evaluate the minimum conditions required for a democratic election and their importance.

5. Describe how regular elections contribute to democratic accountability and governance.

6. What challenges do underrepresented groups face in electoral processes, and how can these be addressed?

7. How does electoral competition benefit or harm a democracy?

8. Evaluate how electronic voting machines have transformed elections in India.

9. Identify the key institutions responsible for conducting elections in India and describe their roles.

10. In what ways do political campaigns influence voter decision-making? Provide examples.

11. Discuss the role of electoral rolls and the measures to maintain their accuracy.

12. Explain any two challenges to ensuring free and fair elections in India.

13. Analyse the significance of key political reforms in improving electoral processes.

14. Discuss how voter education campaigns can enhance electoral participation in India.

15. Evaluate the impact of social media on today’s electoral campaigns.

16. How do election results reflect public opinion, and why is this important?

17. If a powerful leader wins repeatedly using unfair means, can we still call it a democracy? Why or why not?

18. Imagine a country holds elections but only one party is allowed to contest. Can this be called a democracy? Explain.

Long Answer Questions (100-120 words)

1. Discuss the electoral process in India from voter registration to the declaration of results, highlighting each step.

2. Examine the role and importance of the Election Commission of India in conducting free and fair elections.

3. Analyse the significance of holding elections regularly in a democratic country, with reference to India.

4. Critically evaluate the challenges faced by the Indian electoral system and suggest improvements.

5. Describe how electronic voting machines (EVMs) have impacted the Indian electoral process, analyzing both advantages and challenges.

6. In what ways does the electoral process in India ensure inclusivity and representation? Evaluate.

7. Describe the major differences between a general election and a by-election in India, and discuss the circumstances under which each is held.

8. How do political parties and candidates prepare for elections in India? Describe the process of campaigning and how it is regulated.

9. Discuss why elections are held even in countries that are not democratic. What does this indicate about the global perception of elections?

10. Compare the voter turnout trends in India with other democratic countries, and discuss what these trends reveal about the strength of Indian democracy.

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

1. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

Once the election results were announced, the sitting Chief Minister resigned. The newly elected Members of Legislative Assembly (MLAs) of Lok Dal chose Devi Lal as their leader. The Governor invited Devi Lal to be the new Chief Minister. Three days after the election results were declared, he became the Chief Minister. As soon as he became the Chief Minister, his Government issued a Government Order waiving the outstanding loans of small farmers, agricultural labourers and small businessmen. His party ruled the State for our years. The next elections were held in 1991. But this time his party did not win popular support. The Congress won the election and formed the government.

(a) Who became the Chief Minister after the election results were declared?

(b) What action did Devi Lal’s government take immediately after he became Chief Minister?

2. Read the Case study and answer the questions that follow:

Rampur is a constituency in the state of Uttar Pradesh. During the last state assembly elections, three major candidates contested from the Rampur constituency – Mr. Sharma (Party A), Ms. Khan (Party B), and Mr. Verma (Independent). The Election Commission announced the dates, and the Model Code of Conduct came into effect. All candidates filed their nominations, submitted affidavits with details of their criminal cases, assets, and

educational qualifications. Campaigning started with door-to-door visits, rallies, speeches, and debates. On the polling day, voters used Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) to cast their votes. The voter turnout was 68%. After the counting, Ms. Khan won the election with a clear majority.

a. Why is the use of EVMs important in modern elections?

b. Why do candidates need to submit an affidavit with their nomination papers?

c. What is the Model Code of Conduct mentioned in the case? Why is it important during elections?

Answers

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. (d) They allow citizens to choose their representatives.

2. (a) To ensure everyone’s decision is equally weighted.

3. (d) It supervises the conduct of elections and monitors electoral processes.

4. (c) The government remains unchanged indefinitely.

5. (c) Voter suppression tactics are employed.

6. (c) The candidate with the majority of votes in a constituency wins.

7. (a) To ensure voters have cognitive maturity to make informed choices.

8. (a) To withstand political pressure and ensure fair elections.

9. (c) They prevent voter duplication and ensure legitimate voting.

10. (b) Ensure fair representation of socially marginalised groups.

11. (c) It helps prevent influence or intimidation on voters.

12. (d) Indicates robust engagement from all socio-economic segments.

13. (d) They help ensure transparency and detect potential fraud.

14. (b) Their election results can be challenged and nullified.

15. (c) Introduction of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs).

16. (d) It reduces corruption by making funding sources public.

17. (c) To rectify voting anomalies detected in previous polling.

18. (c) It ensures balanced representation by adjusting constituency boundaries.

19. (a) Election Commission

20. (c) A–ii, B–iv, C–iii, D–i

21. (a) A–ii, B–iii, C–i, D–iv

22. (c) All the statements except the statement III are appropriate.

23. (b) Statements I, III and IV are appropriate.

24. (d) Every citizen above the age of 18 has the right to vote irrespective of caste, religion, or gender.

25. (c) ST

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

2. (d) A is false but R is true.

3. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

4. (c) A is true but R is false.

5. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Picture Based Questions

1. (c) The politician is ignoring the voters after using them.

2. (b) Money power in elections

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30–40 words)

1. Elections are important because of the following reasons:

• Elections are crucial for choosing leaders.

• They ensure accountability and transparency.

• They provide a mechanism for citizens to voice preferences.

• Elections empower people, uphold democratic values, and prevent misuse of power.

2. Election Commission plays an important role

• It Ensures free and fair elections.

• Oversees the election procedure and implementation.

• Handles disputes regarding elections.

• Monitors campaign conduct and adherence to rules.

• Supervises vote counting and result declaration.

3. Reasons to have regular elections are:

• It allow citizens to express their will.

• They ensure periodic accountability of leaders and prevent misuse of power.

• Promote political competition, keeping governance dynamic and responsive.

• Provide an opportunity for democratic change and peaceful power transition.

4. One essential condition for a democratic election is universal adult suffrage.

• This ensures all citizens can participate equally, regardless of caste, gender, religion, or economic status.

• It reflects democracy’s commitment to inclusion and equality.

• It empowers marginalised groups and strengthens representative governance.

5. Constituencies are areas with a roughly equal population.

• They ensure equal representation in elections across the country.

• Boundaries are determined based on the population census.

• Delimitation Commissions oversee this process to maintain fairness.

• Each constituency elects one representative to the legislature.

6. India uses the mechanism of voting to allow people to voice their opinions.

• It is done through the method of secret ballot.

• This ensures free and fair voting without fear or pressure.

• Voting facilitates public participation in democracy and enables citizens to choose their representatives.

7. Universal adult franchise is the right to vote for all adults. It is based on age, not caste, gender, or religion. It ensures equal participation in the democratic process. It is adopted by India to ensure inclusivity and equality.

8. The minimum voting age required in India is 18 years.

• This age ensures cognitive maturity and informed decisions.

• It aligns with international democratic standards.

• Universal suffrage is a cornerstone of democracy.

9. A key principle is fair competition among parties.

• It ensures different policies are offered to voters.

• Voters have choices based on interests and preferences.

• Maintains democratic dynamism through accountability.

• Encourages political parties to stay connected with the needs of the people.

10. Voter ID is essential because:

• It ensures only eligible voters participate.

• It prevents identity fraud during elections.

• It maintains the integrity of the electoral process.

• It helps manage and verify voter lists accurately.

• It also speeds up the voting process and reduces confusion at polling booths.

11. Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) have revolutionised voting in India.

• They ensure faster, more accurate vote counting and reduce human error.

• Reduce the chances of electoral fraud significantly.

• Enhance transparency and trust in elections among citizens.

• EVMs also help in quick declaration of results, improving efficiency.

12. A political mandate is the authority granted by voters. It is provided through elections to govern or implement policies. It Reflects ’citizens’ trust in a party or leader and indicates the ’public’s approval of election manifestos.

13. The secret ballot ensures confidential voting.

• Voters select candidates without peer pressure, coercion, or intimidation.

• Ballots or EVMs keep choices anonymous and secure.

• Promotes free and fair elections by preserving voter privacy and independence.

• Strengthens democratic values by allowing honest expression of choice.

14. The President of India appoints the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC).

• This position ensures the free and fair conduct of elections across the country.

• The CEC is independent of executive influence and functions autonomously.

• Ensures India’s democratic processes remain intact and impartial.

2. It is important to distinguish between democratic and non-democratic elections:

• To ensure that citizens have genuine participation, real choices, and government accountability.

• This distinction helps identify whether elections uphold democratic values or merely serve as a tool for authoritarian control and false legitimacy.

Differences between the two are:

Democratic Elections Non-Democratic Elections

Free, fair, competitive Controlled, manipulated

Real voter choice Limited or no choice

Accountable leaders Unaccountable rulers

3. In a democracy, voters are empowered by the choices they can make during elections.

15.

• Reservation ensures marginalised communities’ representation in legislatures.

• Helps in addressing historical social injustices and discrimination.

• Enhances inclusivity in decision-making processes at various levels of government.

• Ensures the diversity of opinions and interests in governance.

• Empowers Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes.

16. It is a set of guidelines during elections for parties and candidates.

• It ensures fair campaigning and equitable play among all contestants.

• It prohibits the use of government machinery for election purposes.

• Prevents hate speech, bribing voters, and personal attacks during campaigns.

Short Answer Questions

(50-60 words)

1. The Election Commission of India (ECI) plays a pivotal role in overseeing the conduct of elections.

• The ECI sets up guidelines and codes of conduct for political parties and candidates.

• It ensures that any misuse of government power or resources for electoral advantages is curbed.

• The police and government officials on election duty work under the ECI during election time.

• Voters decide on lawmakers who will enact policies and laws.

• They choose the political party whose agenda and values align with their own.

• These choices shape the government and its decision-making process.

• Such empowerment ensures accountability as elected representatives are answerable to the electorate.

4. The minimum conditions for a democratic election include:

• Free and fair voting, universal adult franchise, multiple political parties, and an independent election authority.

• These ensure genuine public choice, equal voting rights, transparency, and accountability.

• Without these, elections lose credibility and fail to reflect the people’s will, weakening democracy and allowing manipulation by those in power.

5. Regular elections are central to ensuring democratic accountability.

• They serve as a mechanism for citizens to express their satisfaction or dissatisfaction with governance.

• Regular intervals for elections prevent the concentration of power and encourage policymaker responsibility.

• They compel elected representatives to remain attentive to public needs and preferences.

• Elections foster a culture of political participation, ensuring that the government remains connected to the electorate.

6. Underrepresented groups face significant hurdles in elections.

• They often lack financial resources to contest elections effectively.

• They may face social discrimination and lack of institutional support.

• Reservations of constituencies can enhance their representation.

Following are the ways to address these problems:

• Awareness and support campaigns can empower these groups.

• Providing financial and educational assistance can also help.

• Political parties should give more tickets to candidates from marginalised communities.

7. Electoral competition is inherent in democratic systems.

• Policies and governance improve as parties compete for votes.

• It ensures that different ideologies and solutions surface in the public domain. However, excessive competition can harm democracy

• It may lead to divisive politics.

• It can influence parties to focus on short-term gains over long-term benefits.

Healthy competition fosters innovation while excessive can create friction.

8. Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) have transformed elections in India in following ways:

• It has made the voting process faster, more secure, and efficient.

• They reduce manual errors, prevent bogus voting, and speed up vote counting.

• The use of EVMs has streamlined election management.

• EVMs enhance transparency and reliability, especially in large-scale elections, strengthening public

• Trust in the democratic process and enabling smoother, timely declaration of results.

9. Conducting elections in India is a collective effort. The Election Commission of India is the key institution responsible for conducting elections.

• It ensures free and fair polls, prepares electoral rolls, monitors model code of conduct, and supervises nomination, campaigning, voting, and counting.

• State Election Commissions handle local body elections.

• These institutions safeguard the integrity and transparency of the electoral process in India.

10. Political campaigns play a pivotal role in shaping voter views.

• Campaigns highlight party manifestos and promises, influencing voter choices.

• Effective campaigns employ media and modes of communication extensively.

• For instance, the ‘Garibi Hatao’ slogan resonated deeply in 1971 elections.

• Social media campaigns have further personalised voter engagement.

• Strategic appeals to socio-economic groups also sway opinions.

11. Accurate electoral rolls are vital for fair elections.

• Electoral rolls ensure that only eligible citizens vote, maintaining integrity.

• They prevent double voting and other fraudulent practices.

• Regular updates and verifications are essential to maintain accuracy.

• The Election Commission uses various technologies and methods to ensure this.

• Errors or omissions can undermine democratic processes.

12. India faces specific challenges in maintaining electoral fairness.

• First, money power can disproportionately influence election outcomes.

• Second, attempts at vote rigging or booth capturing pose threats.

• Stringent monitoring and surveillance can mitigate these issues.

• Transparency initiatives help counter these challenges.

• Ensuring public awareness and participation further supports fairness.

• Strict enforcement of the Model Code of Conduct is essential.

13. Political reforms enhance the integrity of elections.

• Reforms such as introducing NOTA ensure voter expression.

• Disclosure of candidate assets increases transparency.

• Reservation for underrepresented communities improves inclusivity.

• Stricter laws against electoral malpractices enhance fairness.

• Reforms streamline the electoral process to better reflect public will.

• Curbing the use of black money improves electoral ethics.

• Promoting inner-party democracy strengthens accountability within political parties.

14. Voter education campaigns play a vital role in enhancing participation.

• These campaigns ensure that voters are informed of their rights and responsibilities.

• By raising awareness, they increase voter turnout and engagement.

• They help demystify voting processes and address misinformation.

• Campaigns can target specific groups to encourage participation.

• Collaborations with NGOs and media amplify their reach.

15. Social media has transformed electoral campaigns globally.

• It offers direct communication channels between candidates and voters.

• Platforms like Twitter and Facebook influence public opinion and discourse.

• Campaigns leverage social media for rapid information dissemination.

• Social media data guides campaign strategies based on real-time feedback.

• However, the spread of fake news poses significant challenges.

16. Election results are a barometer of public sentiment.

• They indicate the public’s approval or disapproval of policies and leaders.

• Results can mandate continued policies or call for change.

• Reflecting public opinion, they hold leaders accountable.

• These ensure that governance aligns with citizens’ needs and desires.

• Frequent changes suggest political dynamics and shifts in public mood.

17. No, we cannot call it a democracy if a powerful leader wins repeatedly using unfair means.

• Democracy requires free and fair elections, equal opportunity for all candidates, and genuine voter choice.

• Manipulating results or using force undermines the people's will and violates democratic principles, turning the system into an authoritarian or Mock democracy in practice.

18. No, such a country cannot be called a true democracy.

• In a democracy, people must have the freedom to choose among multiple political parties and candidates.

• If only one party is allowed to contest, there is no real choice for voters, and elections become a mere formality.

• True democracy requires political competition, freedom of expression, and fair representation to reflect the people's will.

Long Answer Questions (100–120

words)

1. The electoral process in India is a comprehensive and systematic mechanism that ensures democratic governance.

• It starts with voter registration, where all eligible citizens are enrolled to vote.

• Once the Election Commission announces the election schedule, the Model Code of Conduct comes into effect, regulating campaign activities.

• Then comes the nomination of candidates, where interested individuals file their candidature.

• This is followed by campaigning, during which political parties and candidates present their policies and promises to the public.

• On polling day, citizens cast their votes using Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) at designated polling stations.

• After voting, the EVMs are sealed and secured, and votes are carefully counted.

• Finally, results are declared, and the winning candidates officially assume office.

2. The Election Commission of India (ECI) is the custodian of free and fair elections in the nation.

• ECI is tasked with the supervision and progression of the entire electoral process, ensuring that elections are conducted impartially.

• It enforces the Model Code of Conduct, prohibiting misuse of power by ruling parties during election campaigns.

• The commission is empowered to disqualify candidates engaging in corrupt practices, ensuring decorum in the electoral race.

• ECI manages the voter registration process, ensuring all eligible citizens are equitably enrolled to vote.

• It oversees the implementation of innovative technologies such as EVMs and VVPATs to enhance transparency and accuracy.

• It can postpone or cancel elections in cases of electoral malpractice or violence.

3. Regular elections are fundamental to a functioning democracy as they allow citizens to express their preferences and choose their representatives.

• They ensure periodic accountability of elected officials, compelling them to address public needs and concerns.

• By keeping the political environment active, elections prevent stagnation and encourage continuous governance improvements.

• They also offer a peaceful and legitimate method for the transfer of power, reducing the risk of autocratic rule.

• Regular elections promote diverse political ideologies, fostering healthy competition among parties.

• They uphold the principle that sovereignty lies with the people, reinforcing the legitimacy of governance.

• In India, the consistent election cycle builds public confidence in democratic institutions and plays a key role in strengthening the democratic foundation of the country.

4. The Indian electoral system, while robust, faces several challenges that hinder its effectiveness.

• Money power allows affluent candidates and parties to exert undue influence on election results, undermining the principle of equal opportunities.

• Criminalisation of politics, where candidates with criminal backgrounds participate in elections, harms the sanctity of democratic processes.

• Misuse of governmental machinery can provide undue advantage to ruling parties, making the electoral process imbalanced.

• Ensuring inclusivity, especially for marginalised communities, remains a significant hurdle despite existing reservation policies.

• Threats such as vote rigging and booth capturing challenge the credibility of election results.

• Technological advancements should continue to be integrated (e.g., blockchain for secure voting), and stringent laws against illicit activities should be enforced more rigorously.

5. Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) have become integral to the Indian electoral process, transforming the way elections are conducted and perceived.

Advantages

• EVMs have significantly expedited the voting process, allowing for quicker and more accurate counting of votes.

• They have reduced the need for extensive physical infrastructure and resources required for creating paper ballots, making the electoral process more efficient.

• Transparency of the process is enhanced as votes are electronically recorded, reducing human error associated with manual counting.

Challenges

• EVMs have faced scrutiny and skepticism, with allegations about their vulnerability to tampering and hacking.

To address this, additional measures like Voter-Verified Paper Audit Trails (VVPATs) have been introduced to provide a paper trail for confirming electronic votes.

6. The Indian electoral system is designed to foster inclusivity and representation, catering to its diverse population.

• Reserved constituencies for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) ensure that historically marginalised communities have a voice in the government.

• The model of universal adult franchise allows every citizen above the age of 18 to vote, emphasising inclusivity.

• Women’s representation is promoted through reserved seats in local government bodies, enhancing gender equality.

• Efforts to ensure fair representation are evidenced by the delimitation of constituencies based on population, ensuring equal value for each vote cast.

• Multiple election symbols and party affiliations offer diverse platforms and choices for the electorate.

• Despite these frameworks, challenges remain, such as achieving balanced representation across all socio-economic strata.

7. General Election By-Election

• Election held to elect members of the Lok Sabha or State Assemblies.

• Conducted after the expiry of the full term (usually 5 years).

• Conducted across the entire country or a whole state.

• To form a new government at the central or state level.

• Happens once every 5 years unless early elections are called.

8. Candidates file nomination papers after fulfilling eligibility criteria laid down by the Election Commission.

• Political parties announce their candidates and release manifestos outlining policies and promises.

• Campaigning involves public rallies, door-todoor visits, posters, roadshows, and media advertisements.

• Parties highlight their achievements or make promises to attract voter support.

• The Election Commission enforces a Model Code of Conduct to ensure fair and ethical campaigning.

• Campaign spending is regulated, with legal limits on expenses to ensure a level playing field.

• No campaigning is allowed 48 hours before voting, known as the "silent period."

• The use of religious sentiments, bribery, caste-based appeals, or hate speech is strictly prohibited.

• Social media usage is also monitored to prevent misinformation and hate campaigns.

9. Elections are held even in non-democratic countries to create an illusion of legitimacy and public support for the ruling government.

• These elections often lack fairness, transparency, and real competition, with results frequently manipulated to favour those in power.

• Election held to fill a vacant seat in the legislature.

• Held anytime a seat becomes vacant before the next general election.

• Held in only one constituency where the seat is vacant.

• To fill a vacancy due to resignation, death, or disqualification of a member.

• Happens as needed, not on a regular schedule.

• The ruling authorities use elections to gain international acceptance, suppress dissent, and show that they have a popular mandate.

• However, such elections do not offer real choice to citizens and fail to ensure accountability.

• This trend indicates that elections are globally seen as a symbol of legitimacy and democratic values.

• Even authoritarian regimes feel the need to hold elections, reflecting the universal importance of electoral processes as a standard for good governance and public representation, even if only in form, not substance.

10. Voter turnout in India is relatively high compared to many established democracies like the USA and UK, which often report lower turnout rates.

• In India, turnout has been increasing steadily, especially among rural populations, marginalised communities, and first-time voters.

• High participation indicates strong faith in the democratic process and belief in the power of the vote.

• Women’s turnout has also improved significantly in recent years, closing the historical gender gap.

• This enthusiasm shows that people believe elections can bring real change to their lives and communities.

• Despite challenges like poverty, illiteracy, and logistical difficulties, Indian voters actively engage in elections.

• Increased voter education, awareness campaigns, and accessibility measures have also contributed to higher participation.

• Overall, India’s voter turnout reflects a politically conscious, healthy, and vibrant democracy.

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1

(a) Devi Lal became the Chief Minister after the election results were declared.

(b) His government issued a Government Order waiving the outstanding loans of small farmers, agricultural labourers, and small businessmen.

(c) The change in leadership shows that in a democracy like India, power is not permanent and depends on the will of the people. When the people supported Devi Lal’s party, he became Chief Minister. But in the next election, when his party lost public support, the Congress came to power.

Passage 2

(a) EVMs speed up voting, ensure accuracy and security, prevent bogus voting and tampering, and enable quick and reliable vote counting.

(b) Candidates submit affidavits declaring criminal records, assets, liabilities, and education, promoting transparency, informed voting, and democratic accountability.

(c) The Model Code of Conduct is a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission to regulate political parties and candidates during elections. It ensures free and fair elections by preventing activities like bribing voters, hate speeches, or using government resources for campaigning.

SELF-ASSESSMENT

Time: 1 Hour

Section A

Choose and write the correct answer for each of the following.

(1 × 8 = 8 Marks)

1. Which factor most significantly highlights the importance of elections in a democracy like India?

(a) Minimises economic disparity within the nation

(b) Maintains the cultural heritage of the country

(d) Facilitates the periodic selection of government representatives

2. How does the reservation of constituencies help in India’s electoral process?

(a) By promoting one political party over another

(b) By reducing the number of candidates that contest elections

(d) By ensuring the representation of historically marginalised groups

3. What was a major reform taken by the Election Commission of India to improve the transparency of elections?

(a) Banning public rallies during election campaigns

(b) Providing monetary incentives for voters

(d) Restricting the number of candidates in elections

4. What ensures that elections in India are conducted in a free and fair manner?

(a) Role of the President of India in conducting elections

(b) The independence and powers of the Election Commission of India

(d) Political parties appointing their election officers

Scan me for all answers.

Max. Marks: 40

5. What is one effect of electoral competition in democratic politics?

(a) Encouragement of leaders to advance public welfare

(b) Reduction in governmental stability

(d) Concentration of power in fewer hands

6. Match the elements of an electoral system with their respective purposes.

Column I Column II

A. Universal Adult Franchise i. Ensures fair opportunities for all candidates

B. Model Code of Conduct ii. Empowers marginalised communities

C. Reserved Constituencies iii. Encourages voting by protecting voter privacy

D. Secret Ballot iv. Gives voting rights to every adult

(a) A–i, B–iv, C–iii, D–ii

(b) A–ii, B–iii, C–i, D–iv

(d) A–iv, B–i, C–ii, D–iii

7. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: The Election Commission of India ensures that elections are conducted fairly.

Statement II: The use of electronic voting machines has increased transparency in voting.

Statement III: Campaign funds are equally distributed by the Election Commission.

Statement IV: Political parties in India can nominate anyone as their candidate regardless of their criminal background.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and III are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

8. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): The Election Commission of India ensures that elections are free and fair.

Reason (R): This is achieved by allowing government officials to influence the election process.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Section B

Answer the following questions.

9. Define ‘universal adult franchise’ in the context of Indian elections. (2 Marks)

10. Why elections are considered essential in a representative democracy? Discuss with reference to accountability. (3 Marks)

11. Compare and contrast free and fair elections with non-democratic elections, focusing on voter representation and choice. (3 Marks)

12. Explain how the Indian electoral process ensures equality among voters. (3 Marks)

13. Discuss the role of the Election Commission of India in maintaining the integrity of the electoral process. (3 Marks)

14. Outline the steps involved in the electoral process in India from the preparation of the voters’ list to the announcement of results. (3 Marks)

15. Discuss the significance of free and fair elections in a democratic set-up. How does the Indian electoral process ensure this? (5 Marks)

16. Examine the need for elections in a democracy by considering the alternative of direct governance by the people. What challenges arise in large-scale democracies? (5 Marks)

17. Discuss why elections are held even in countries that are not democratic. What does this indicate about the global perception of elections? (5 Marks)

4 Working of Institutions

In a democracy, decisions are not taken by just one person. They are taken through a system that involves many people and follows certain rules. These systems are called institutions. Institutions guide how decisions are made and implemented. The key institutions are the Parliament, the Legislature, the Executive, and the Judiciary. They ensure democratic processes are followed in governance. This chapter explains how different institutions work together in India. The chapter also highlights the need for political institutions to ensure a fair and just society. Real examples have been used, for example, the decision on the Mandal Commission, to show how major decisions are arrived at, how they are implemented, and how disputes are resolved. As we read through the chapter, we learn why these institutions are important and how they help keep our democracy strong and fair. Understanding the working of institutions in a democratic form of government helps us know how our government functions.

Working of Institutions

Need for Political Institutions

• Ensure decision-making, implementation, and dispute resolution

• Maintain order and provide public services

• Ensure continuity and accountability in governance

Executive

Key Political Institutions

• Legislature – Makes laws (Parliament)

• Executive – Implements decisions (PM, Ministers, Civil Servants)

• Judiciary – Resolves disputes, ensures justice (Supreme & other Courts)

• Political Executive – PM, Council of Ministers (decision-makers)

• Permanent Executive – Civil servants (policy implementation)

• President – Ceremonial head, acts on Cabinet advice, some discretionary powers

Mandal Commission Case Study

• Mandal Commission (1979) – Recommended 27% reservation for SEBCs

• Office Memorandum (1990) – Issued after Cabinet and PM approval

• Supreme Court (1992) – Upheld decision, excluded 'creamy layer'

• Finalised in 1993 –Modified order implemented

• Structure:

⸰ Supreme Court

Parliament

• Components: Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, President

Functions:

• Makes laws

• Controls Executive

• Approves Budget

• Debates policies

• Lok Sabha has more powers in money matters and confidence votes

Judiciary

• Independent and Integrated Powers:

⸰ High Courts

⸰ District Courts

• Judicial review

• Guardian of Constitution and Rights

• Handles PILs

• Judges: Appointed by President, removed only by impeachment

Key Terms and Definitions

Civil Services: It is the administrative body that implements policies nationally. It assists the executive in policy execution and administrative continuity.

Council of Ministers: It is the collective body of ministers led by the Prime Minister, making policy decisions and overseeing government functioning.

Democracy: Democracy is a system of government where the common citizens of a country elect representatives to make decisions and laws, ensuring citizen participation through voting.

Executive: It is the branch that implements laws and manages state affairs, headed by the Prime Minister and cabinet ministers.

Judicial Independence: It is the hallmark allowing the judiciary to administer justice without interference, ensuring unbiased rulings.

Judicial Review: Judicial review is the power to evaluate and invalidate legislative or executive actions deemed unconstitutional.

Judiciary: Judiciary is the system of courts that interprets and upholds the law, ensuring justice by resolving disputes impartially.

Legislature: Legislature is the branch responsible for creating and enacting laws. It comprises the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, and the President of India.

Lok Sabha: Lok Sabha is the House of the Parliament representing the populace. Its members are elected by citizens; with significant influence over financial matters.

Parliament: Parliament is the supreme legislative body consisting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, responsible for forming laws and reflecting public will.

Political Institutions: Political institutions are structures governing social behaviour and enforcing democratic processes through distinct roles and responsibilities.

Rajya Sabha: It is the Upper House representing states in Parliament. It reviews and suggests legislation representing state interests.

Supreme Court: It is the highest judicial authority ensuring the supremacy of the Constitution and protecting citizens’ rights.

NCERT Zone

Intext Questions

1. Is every Office Memorandum a major political decision? If not, what made this one different (Office Memorandum O.M. No. 36012/31/90EST (SCT), dated 13th August 1990)?

Ans. • Not every Office Memorandum carries significant political weight, as most are routine administrative matters. However, the Office Memorandum O.M. No. 36012/31/90EST (SCT), dated 13th August 1990, stood out. It dealt with reservations in government jobs for the Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs), impacting a wide crosssection of society.

• Until then, job reservation benefits were extended only to the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs). This memorandum introduced a third category SEBCs. The introduction of this policy sparked widespread debate and controversy, resulting in years of protests and numerous court cases.

2. Reservation debate was such an important issue during 1990-91 that advertisers used this theme to sell their products. Can you spot some references to political events and debates in these Amul Butter hoardings?

Ans. • The upper hoarding says, "No reservation for this quota... Amul – the riot taste." This refers to

• They help highlight both the positive and negative aspects of any issue.

• The ruling party can adopt useful suggestions and avoid potential drawbacks, even if the entire bill is not changed.

• This process ensures that laws are made with broader perspectives in mind and serve the welfare of the people.

5. The race to become minister is not new. Here is a cartoon depicting ministerial aspirants waiting to get a berth in Nehru’s Cabinet after the 1962 elections. Why do you think political leaders are so keen to become ministers?

Ans. Supreme Court �� Upheld reservations as valid Cabinet �� Took the decision to give 27% job reservations

President �� Made formal announcement about this decision

Government officials �� Implemented the decision by issuing an order

4. What is the point in having so much debate and discussion in the Parliament when we know that the view of the ruling party is going to prevail?

Ans. • Even though the ruling party’s view usually prevails in Parliament, debates and discussions are still important.

Ans.

• Being a minister gives power and authority to make important decisions.

• Ministers get to influence government policies and laws.

• They can allocate resources and funds to their own constituencies.

• Holding a ministerial post brings status, recognition, and respect.

• It helps in gaining public support and popularity for future elections.

• Ministers enjoy special privileges and access to government facilities.

6. What is better for a democracy: A Prime Minister who can do whatever he wishes or a Prime Minister who needs to consult other leaders and parties?

Ans. In a democracy, power must be shared and decisions made through discussion and agreement, not by one person alone. A Prime Minister who needs to consult other leaders and parties is better for a democracy. It is because:

• It ensures collective decision-making and avoids misuse of power.

• Different views and opinions are considered, making policies more balanced and inclusive.

• It promotes transparency, accountability, and respect for democratic values.

• It prevents one-person dominance and keeps the government more responsive to the people. It is quite common in the US for judges to be nominated on the basis of well-known political opinions and affiliations. This fictitious advertisement appeared in the US in 2005 when President Bush was considering various candidates for nomination to the US supreme court.

7. Parliament: In the example of the Office Memorandum, do you remember the role of Parliament?

• The Report of the Mandal Commission was discussed ...

Ans. The Report of the Mandal Commission was discussed in Parliament, where it was reviewed by members and influenced the government’s decision-making process.

• The President of India mentioned this in his ...

Ans. The President of India mentioned this in his address to the Parliament, indicating the government’s agenda to implement the recommendations of the Mandal Commission.

• The Prime Minister made a ...

Ans. The Prime Minister made a statement in both Houses of Parliament informing them about the decision to implement the Mandal Commission report.

• What is the total number of members?

Ans. The Lok Sabha consists of 545 members, whereas the Rajya Sabha has 250 members.

• Who elects the members?

Ans. Members of the Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people. Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by the state legislative assemblies.

• What is the length of the term (in years)?

Ans. The term of the Lok Sabha members is 5 years, whereas the Rajya Sabha members serve for 6 years with one-third retiring every two years.

• Can the House be dissolved or is it permanent?

Ans. The Lok Sabha can be dissolved, whereas the Rajya Sabha is a permanent body.

8. A day in the life of the Lok Sabha 7 December 2004 was an ordinary day in the life of the Fourteenth Lok Sabha. Let us take a look at what happened in the course of that day. Identify the role and powers of the parliament on the basis of the proceedings for the day as given below. You can also enact this day in your classroom.

(a) What is the government’s policy on talking to militant groups in Kashmir?

Ans. • The government’s policy on engaging with militant groups in Kashmir typically involves dialogue and negotiations aimed at addressing grievances and reducing violence.

• This policy also focuses on integrating these groups into mainstream society by facilitating peaceful discussions and offering incentives for those who renounce violence.

• The government works through intermediaries and special envoys to initiate such dialogue while ensuring national security and stability are not compromised.

(b) What are the figures of atrocities against Scheduled Tribes, including those inflicted by the police?

Ans. • The figures of atrocities against Scheduled Tribes often include data on incidents like discrimination, violence, and wrongful imprisonment.

• These figures are collected by various governmental and non-governmental organisations to track violations and promote justice.

• Measures to redress such grievances typically include legal actions, policy reforms, and awareness campaigns to protect the rights of Scheduled Tribes and improve their socio-economic conditions.

Ans. • The government takes several steps to address the over-pricing of medicines, including imposing price caps on essential drugs under the National List of Essential Medicines. Regulatory bodies like the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority monitor drug prices to ensure affordability.

• The government encourages the production of generic medicines to provide cheaper alternatives.

• Various awareness campaigns also promote the use of cost-effective medicines.

9. Why does this book refer to the President as ‘she’? Have we ever had a woman President in our country?

Ans.

• The President is referred to as “she” in the book to highlight that women are fully capable of holding the highest constitutional position in India.

• In fact, our country has had women serve as President. Pratibha Patil became India’s first woman President in 2007. Later, on 25th July 2022, Droupadi Murmu took office as the second woman President and the first tribal person to hold this esteemed position.

10. Did you notice that the book referred to the Prime Minister as ‘he’? Have we not had a woman Prime Minister? Why should we assume that all the important positions are held by men?

Ans. • Using ‘he’ as a general pronoun often reflects traditional language usage but does not imply exclusion.

• India has had a woman Prime Minister, Indira Gandhi. Assumptions that important positions are held by men limit gender representation and equality.

• Language should reflect and promote inclusivity, acknowledging the contributions of all genders in leadership roles.

• Modern discourse increasingly adopts neutral terms to avoid gender bias.

11. Check Your Progress.

What happens if the President and the Prime Minister disagree about some policy? Does the view of the Prime Minister always prevail?

Ans.

• In case of disagreements on policy, the Prime Minister’s view usually prevails because the Council of Ministers, led by the Prime Minister, exercises executive authority.

• The President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers and does not formulate policy decisions.

• Although the President can ask for reevaluation, they are ultimately bound to adhere to the Council’s final advice, ensuring a cohesive execution of executive functions. What is the point in making the President the Commander if all real powers are with the Prime Minister?

Ans.

• The President as Commander-in-Chief symbolises the unity and democratic control of military forces.

• While real powers rest with the Prime Minister and the elected government, the President’s role emphasises civilian oversight and the constitutional framework within which military decisions are made.

• This arrangement ensures that military power is exercised responsibly and remains subordinate to the elected representatives of the people.

12. What does this cartoon say about the independence of the judiciary? Why do such cartoons not appear in our country? Does this demonstrate the independence of our judiciary?

Ans. • This cartoon comments on the lack of independence of the judiciary in the United States, suggesting that judges may be

selected based on loyalty to the President or their political views, rather than merit or impartiality. The satirical ad mocks the idea that a Supreme Court Justice should just support the President rather than uphold justice independently.

• In India, judges are not openly nominated based on political affiliations. The process of appointment, especially in the higher judiciary, involves the council system, which gives senior judges a key role. The judiciary in India is largely seen as independent, though debates around judicial appointments do exist.

• Yes, to a large extent. The absence of such cartoons in India suggests that:

(i) The judiciary is not widely perceived as politically biased.

(ii) There is public confidence in judicial independence, especially in comparison to the overt political appointments seen elsewhere.

13. Give one reason each to argue that Indian judiciary is independent with respect to:

(a) Appointment of judges: …

(b) Removal of judges: …

Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed by the President, based on the Prime Minister’s recommendation and in consultation with the Chief Justice of India. In practice, however, senior judges of the Supreme Court play a key role in selecting new judges. The selection is mainly based on seniority and merit, leaving very little room for political interference.

(b) Removal of Judges: Removing judges from the Supreme Court or High Courts is a complex and stringent process. It requires an impeachment motion passed separately by a two-thirds majority in both Houses of Parliament. This ensures that judges cannot be removed arbitrarily.

Parliament or the President. Politicians cannot interfere with these powers. The Supreme Court also has the authority to strike down any law passed by Parliament if it is found to violate the Constitution.

NCERT Exercises

1. If you are elected as the President of India which of the following decisions, can you take on your own?

(a) Select the person you like as Prime Minister.

(b) Dismiss a Prime Minister who has a majority in Lok Sabha.

(d) Nominate the leaders of your choice to the Council of Ministers.

Ans. (c) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses.

2. Who among the following is a part of the political executive?

(a) District Collector

(b) Secretary of the Ministry of Home Affairs

(d) Director General of Police

Ans. (c) Home Minister

3. Which of the following statements about the judiciary is false?

(a) Every law passed by the Parliament needs approval of the Supreme Court.

(b) Judiciary can strike down a law if it goes against the spirit of the Constitution.

(d) Any citizen can approach the courts if her rights are violated.

Ans. (a) Every law passed by the Parliament needs approval of the Supreme Court.

4. Which of the following institutions can make changes to an existing law of the country?

(a) The Supreme (b) The President

Ans. (d) The Parliament

5. Match the ministry with the news that the ministry may have released:

A. A new policy is being made to increase the jute exports from the country.

B. Telephone services will be made more accessible to rural areas.

C. The price of rice and wheat sold under the Public Distribution System will go down.

D. A pulse polio campaign will be launched.

E. The allowances of the soldiers posted on high altitudes will be increased.

Ans. A-iv, B-v, C-ii, D-iii, E-i

i. Ministry of Defence

ii. Ministry of Agriculture, Food and Public Distribution

iii. Ministry of Health

iv. Ministry of Commerce and Industry

v. Ministry of Communications and Information Technology

6. Of all the institutions that we have studied in this chapter, name the one that exercises the powers on each of the following matters.

(a) Decision on allocation of money for developing infrastructure like roads, irrigation, etc. and different welfare activities for the citizens

(b) Considers the recommendation of a Committee on a law to regulate the stock exchange

(d) Implements the decision to provide relief for the victims of an earthquake

Ans. (a) Parliament exercises power on allocation of money.

(b) Parliament considers committee recommendations on stock exchange laws.

(d) Executive branch implements decisions for earthquake relief.

7. Why is the Prime Minister in India not directly elected by the people? Choose the most appropriate answer and give reasons for your choice.

(a) In a Parliamentary democracy only the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha can become the Prime Minister.

(b) Lok Sabha can remove the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers even before the expiry of their term.

(d) Direct election of the Prime Minister will involve lot of expenditure on election.

Ans. (a) In a Parliamentary democracy only the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha can become the Prime Minister.

8. Three friends went to watch a film that showed the hero becoming Chief Minister for a day and making big changes in the state. Imran said this is what the country needs. Rizwan said this kind of a personal rule without institutions is dangerous. Shankar said all this is a fantasy. No minister can do anything in one day. What would be your reaction to such a film?

Ans. My reaction to the film would reflect Rizwan’s view that:

• A personal rule can be dangerous without institutional checks and balances.

• Institutions exist to ensure stable, democratic decision-making processes.

• Decision-making involves consultation and cooperation, which prevents autocracy and protects citizens’ interests.

• Additionally, such rapid changes depicted might undermine democratic norms, and it’s unrealistic to expect substantial governance changes in a single day without planning and legal processes.

9. A teacher was making preparations for a mock parliament. She called two students to act as leaders of two political parties. She gave them an option: Each one could choose to have a majority either in the mock Lok Sabha or in the mock Rajya Sabha. If this choice was given to you, which one would you choose and why?

Ans. • I would choose to have a majority in the mock Lok Sabha because it is the House of the People and exercises more power in parliamentary matters.

• The Lok Sabha holds supremacy in creating and passing legislation, particularly money bills which the Rajya Sabha cannot completely reject.

• Additionally, the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers must always have the confidence of the Lok Sabha, making it more influential in determining government policy and leadership.

10. After reading the example of the reservation order, three students had different reactions about the role of the judiciary. Which view, according to you, is a correct reading of the role of judiciary?

(a) Srinivas argues that since the Supreme Court agreed with the government, it is not independent.

(b) Anjaiah says that judiciary is independent because it could have given a verdict against the government order. The Supreme Court did direct the government to modify it.

(c) Vijaya thinks that the judiciary is neither independent nor conformist, but acts as a mediator between opposing parties. The court struck a good balance between those who supported and those who opposed the order.

Ans. (b) Anjaiah says that judiciary is independent because it could have given a verdict against the government order. The Supreme Court did direct the government to modify it.

Practice Questions

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following best describes the role of the judiciary in India?

(a) Managing public finances

(b) Interpretation of laws and ensuring justice

(d) Enacting and implementing laws

2. What is the primary function of the Executive in the Indian government?

(a) Overseeing elections

(b) Formulating laws

(d) Implementing policies and decisions

3. Which institution has the highest authority in making laws in India?

(a) The Parliament

(b) The Lok Sabha

(d) The President of India

4. How does the concept of ‘collective responsibility’ manifest in the functioning of the Cabinet?

(a) Ministers can freely criticise each other’s decisions.

(b) All ministers share equal blame or praise for actions/decisions of the Cabinet.

(d) Ministers function independently of each other.

5. How does the Lok Sabha exercise control over the Executive?

(a) By appointing judges

(b) By passing annual financial statements

(d) Through public debates and legislative scrutiny

6. What would likely happen in the absence of procedural rules in decision-making within governmental institutions?

(a) Increased clarity and transparency

(b) Enhanced checks on authority

(d) Faster implementation of decisions

7. In what way is the Lok Sabha more powerful than the Rajya Sabha in the Indian parliamentary system?

(a) Only Lok Sabha can elect the President.

(b) Lok Sabha can introduce Money Bills, which Rajya Sabha cannot amend.

(d) Rajya Sabha alone can confirm treaties and appointments.

8. Which of the following is a primary function of the Legislature?

(a) To enact laws

(b) To interpret laws

(d) To implement laws

9. Which statement best reflects the significance of a ‘Government Order’?

(a) It outlines the procedures for legislative approval of new laws.

(b) It signifies legal autonomy to the acting officer.

(d) It is an official directive for policy implementation issued by the Executive.

10. What is a primary distinction between permanent and political executive positions?

(a) Political executives remain unaffected during changes in government.

(b) Permanent executives work exclusively on policy formulation.

(d) Permanent executives have less authority over policymaking.

11. How is the independence of the judiciary in India maintained?

(a) Judges are immune to impeachment.

(b) Judges are part of legislative procedures.

(d) Judges are elected by public ballot.

12. What is the main difference between the political executive and permanent executive?

(a) Political executive is elected but permanent executive is appointed.

(b) Political executive is appointed but permanent executive is elected.

(d) No difference, both are appointed.

13. What role does the council of ministers play in assisting the Prime Minister?

(a) Imposing taxes

(b) Legislating on social issues

(d) Interpretation of law

14. What happens when the Indian Parliament passes a law deemed unconstitutional?

(a) The Executive can veto the law.

(b) The Supreme Court can nullify the law through judicial review.

(d) The Lok Sabha alone can disregard the law.

15. What role does the judiciary play in safeguarding democratic processes?

(a) It enforces economic policies.

(b) It creates laws for the country.

(d) It ensures that laws are in accordance with the constitution and protects individual rights.

16. In the appointment of government officials, which branch of government holds the authority to make final decisions?

(a) Judiciary (b) Executive

17. Match the following two columns: Column A Column B

A. Judiciary i. Frames laws

B. Legislature ii. Interprets laws

C. Policy Implementation iii. Implements laws

D. Executive iv. Enforces policies

(a) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii (b) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv

18. Match the following two columns: Column A Column B

A. Council of Ministers i. Permanent body, cannot be dissolved

B. Supreme Court ii. Advises the President on various matters

C. Lok Sabha iii. Elected directly by the people

D. Rajya Sabha iv. Final court of appeal

(a) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv (b) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i

19. Match the two columns:

Column A

Column B

A. Prime Minister i. Conduct of free and fair elections

B. Chief Justice of India ii. Ceremonial duties

C. Election Commission iii. Judicial review

D. President iv. Head of the government

(a) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii (b) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv

20. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

I. The Supreme Court of India is the highest judicial authority.

II. The Executive is responsible for drafting of new laws.

III. Judiciary interprets and applies laws.

IV. The Legislature enforces the judgments given by the Judiciary.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and III are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

21. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

I. The President of India is the ceremonial head of the country.

II. Parliament consists of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha and the President of India.

III. The Prime Minister functions independently without consulting the Cabinet.

IV. Judiciary plays a role in policy formulation.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and III are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

22. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

I. The President can dismiss any minister without consulting the Prime Minister.

II. The Prime Minister is answerable to the Lok Sabha.

III. The Rajya Sabha holds more power in financial matters than the Lok Sabha.

IV. The judicial system in India can review laws passed by the Parliament.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and III are appropriate.

(d) Statements II and IV are appropriate.

23. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

I. The Rajya Sabha represents the states of India.

II. The Rajya Sabha can initiate and make amendments to money bills.

III. The Lok Sabha has greater legislative power than the Rajya Sabha.

IV. The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha but not the Rajya Sabha.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and III are appropriate.

(d) Statements I, III and IV are appropriate.

24. Match the following government offices with their primary function.

Column A Column B

A. Cabinet Minister i. Forms policies and executes governance

B. Chief Justice ii. Oversees the judiciary and adjudicates disputes

C. Prime Minister iii. Head of state with nominal powers

D. President iv. Head of executive branch responsible for policy direction

(a) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii (b) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii (c) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv (d) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion (A): The executive branch of government carries out laws made by the legislature.

Reason (R): The judiciary is responsible for interpreting these laws and ensuring justice.

2. Assertion (A): In India, the President is the supreme commander of armed forces.

Reason (R): The Indian Prime Minister is directly responsible for executing military decisions.

3. Assertion (A): Judicial review allows the judiciary to declare laws unconstitutional.

Reason (R): In India, the judiciary is subordinate to the legislature.

4. Assertion (A): The Lok Sabha is considered more powerful than the Rajya Sabha.

Reason (R): The Rajya Sabha cannot introduce money bills, whereas the Lok Sabha can.

5. Assertion (A): Legislature in India has a significant role in policy formulation.

Reason (R): Judiciary’s main task is to draft and debate policy proposals.

Picture Based Questions

1. The cartoon shows a woman and a man holding up the Parliament building together. What does this image symbolically represent?

(a) Politicians run a democracy.

(b) The government keeps out common citizens in a democracy.

(d) Parliament controls the lives of common people.

2. The cartoon shows a leader (Jawaharlal Nehru) sitting with an ‘Addition and Subtraction’ sheet titled ‘List of Candidates’, while behind the curtain, many people are pushing and jostling to see in. What does this cartoon represent?

(a) The closed-door easy process of choosing election candidates

(b) The lack of interest in political participation

(d) The intense competition among party workers to get election tickets

3. The cartoon uses the slogan “No reservation for this quota” along with a crowd holding up cards. What social or political issue is this Amul advertisement referring to?

(a) It cleverly highlights a socio-political issue to show the popularity of Amul butter.

(b) It depicts a protest against rising food prices.

(d) It shows that people love Amul butter and its high demand.

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30-40 words)

1. Define ‘Legislature’.

2. What is the role of the Prime Minister in the policy-making process?

3. What is meant by judicial review?

4. How does the separation of powers contribute to a functional democracy?

5. Explain the term ‘cabinet government’.

6. What distinguishes the Lok Sabha from the Rajya Sabha?

7. Why is judicial independence crucial in a democracy?

8. Define ‘Government Order’.

9. Describe ‘collective responsibility’ in a political context.

10. What are the two key responsibilities of the Council of Ministers?

11. What is the principle of ‘separation of powers’?

12. List two main functions of the Executive.

Short Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. Explain the role of Parliament in a democracy. Why is it considered the cornerstone of democratic governance in India?

2. What are the key functions of the Executive in implementing government policies? What three major roles do they play in governance?

3. Discuss the significance of judicial review in the context of Indian democracy. How does it safeguard the Constitution?

4. Identify and briefly explain three major challenges faced by the legislative institutions in India.

5. How do permanent executives ensure continuity in the functioning of the government? Discuss their roles in policymaking and administration.

6. Critically evaluate the process of policy implementation in India. What are the usual challenges faced, and how can these be overcome?

7. Discuss the interplay between the legislature and the judiciary in a democracy. How do they collaborate yet maintain independence?

8. Examine the balance of power between the Prime Minister and the President in the Indian parliamentary system. How is this balance crucial for the functioning of democracy?

9. How does the Council of Ministers influence the legislative process in India? Provide examples of their legislative roles and responsibilities.

10. Describe the impact of judicial independence on the quality of democracy in India. Why is an impartial judiciary vital for upholding rights?

Long Answer Questions (100-120

words)

1. Discuss the relationship between the Legislature, Executive, and Judiciary in the context of checks and balances in the Indian government. Provide examples to illustrate their roles in maintaining democracy.

2. Explain the process and significance of policy implementation in the government. How does effective policy implementation benefit society, and what challenges are typically encountered in this process?

3. How does the Indian Constitution ensure the independence of the judiciary? Discuss the mechanisms in place to protect the judiciary from external pressures and maintain its impartiality.

4. Evaluate the role of the Prime Minister in the governance structure of India. How does the Prime Minister’s position influence policy decisions and administration?

5. Analyse the role of the Parliament in India in shaping national policies. What are the various legislative processes involved, and how do they ensure democratic governance?

6. Critically assess the role of the Indian Judiciary in defending the Constitution. Include how judicial review acts as a guardian of constitutional rights, with examples of landmark cases.

7. Describe the functions of the Executive branch of the government and its significance in enforcing laws and policies. How does it interact with other branches to maintain a balance of power?

8. Examine the impact of coalition politics on the effectiveness of the Indian Parliamentary system. How do coalition dynamics affect legislative decisions and policy implementation?

9. Assess the importance of policy implementation in achieving governmental objectives. What role does the bureaucracy play in this process, and how can policies be adapted to meet changing needs?

10. Critically evaluate the legislature’s role in shaping government policy and ensuring executive accountability. Include examples where legislative action directly influenced executive policy.

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

1. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

The policy decision to implement reservations for the ‘Socially and Educationally Backward Classes’ (SEBC) was a significant move by the Indian government. It involved various stages starting from the Mandal Commission’s recommendations to the Office Memorandum issued by the Ministry. This decision sparked widespread debate and led to a landmark case in the Supreme Court of India, highlighting the intricate workings of legislative, executive, and judicial processes in India.

(a) What recommendation by the Mandal Commission was implemented through the Office Memorandum?

(b) Why was the Supreme Court involved in the reservation issue?

2. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

The Indian Parliament plays a crucial role in the democratic framework, acting as a forum for debate, discussion, and decision-making. Its structure comprises two houses, the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, each with distinct roles. This bicameral system is designed to provide representation at both the national and state levels, ensuring checks and balances within the legislative process.

(a) What does bicameralism in the Indian Parliament entail?

(b) How does the Rajya Sabha differ from the Lok Sabha in terms of its composition and role?

(c) Discuss the importance of debates and discussions in the functioning of the Indian Parliament. How do they contribute to democratic governance?

3. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

The judicial system in India is integral to maintaining the rule of law and protecting citizens’ rights. The Supreme Court’s power of judicial review allows it to uphold constitutional values, acting as a check on the legislative and executive branches. Landmark cases often demonstrate the judiciary’s role in shaping law and governance.

(a) What is judicial review, and what powers does it grant to the Supreme Court?

(b) Identify a landmark case that underscores the power of judicial review in India.

4. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

The Prime Minister’s role in the Indian Executive is pivotal to decision-making and administration. As the head of the government, the Prime Minister coordinates between various ministries and sets the overall policy direction. This case highlights the complex

nature of leadership within a coalition government, where the Prime Minister must balance party interests with national governance.

(a) What is the primary role of the Prime Minister in managing the Executive?

(b) How does coalition politics influence the Prime Minister’s decisions?

(c) Evaluate the challenges a Prime Minister faces while leading a coalition government. How do these challenges affect governance?

Answers

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. (b) Interpretation of laws and ensuring justice

2. (d) Implementing policies and decisions

3. (a) The Parliament

4. (b) All ministers share equal blame or praise for actions of the Cabinet.

5. (d) Through public debates and legislative scrutiny

6. (c) Rushed and possibly harmful decisions

7. (b) Lok Sabha can introduce Money Bills, which Rajya Sabha cannot amend.

8. (a) To enact laws

9. (d) It is an official directive for policy implementation issued by the Executive.

10. (d) Permanent executives have less authority over policymaking.

11. (c) Judges cannot be removed and their salaries be reduced easily.

12. (a) Political executive is elected but permanent executive is appointed.

13. (c) Executing policies set by the cabinet

14. (b) The Supreme Court can nullify the law through judicial review.

15. (d) It ensures that laws are in accordance with the constitution and protects individual rights.

16. (b) Executive

17. (c) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv

18. (b) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i

19. (a) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

20. (d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

21. (a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

22. (d) Statements II and IV are appropriate.

23. (d) Statements I, III and IV are appropriate.

24. (a) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

1. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

3. (c) A is true but R is false.

4. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

5. (c) A is true but R is false.

Picture Based Questions

1. (c) The power of democracy comes from the people.

2. (d) The intense competition among party workers to get election tickets

3. (a) It clearly highlights a socio-political issue to show the popularity of Amul butter.

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30–40 words)

1. • The Legislature is a government body responsible for making, amending, and repealing laws.

• It debates policies, passes laws, and ensures that the executive implements them.

• In India, it consists of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

2. • The Prime Minister is the head of the government, leading the nation’s policy-making process.

• He/she coordinates between various ministries and ensures cohesive policy direction.

• Sets overarching governmental priorities and strategies.

• Interacts with international leaders, influencing global policy considerations.

• Judicial review is the power of the judiciary to interpret the Constitution ensuring that legislative and executive actions comply with it.

• It involves examining the constitutionality of laws and government actions.

• It acts as a constitutional safeguard, preventing any misuse of power.

4. • Separation of powers divides government responsibilities into different branches— executive, legislative, and judiciary.

• It prevents the concentration of power, promoting checks and balances.

• Each branch functions independently, ensuring no single entity dominates governance.

• This division ensures accountability, transparency, and democratic governance.

5. • Cabinet government is a system where the executive power is vested in a cabinet composed of members of the legislature.

• The Prime Minister leads this group, making major policy decisions collectively.

• Cabinet ministers are responsible for specific departments and report to the legislature.

6. • Lok Sabha members are directly elected, Rajya Sabha members are indirectly elected.

• Lok Sabha controls the budget and passes Money Bills.

• In a conflict, Lok Sabha has more power.

• Council of Ministers is responsible only to the Lok Sabha.

• Judicial independence ensures that judiciary operates without undue influence from the other branches of the government.

• It upholds the rule of law, safeguarding citizens’ rights and freedoms.

• This independence allows impartial and fair judgement, crucial for trust in the legal system.

8. • A Government Order is an official directive issued by the executive to implement government policies.

• It provides detailed instructions for carrying out decisions or procedures within the framework of the law.

10. • The Council of Ministers is responsible for formulating and implementing government policies.

• It also advises the Prime Minister and ensures smooth administration by managing different ministries and departments under the central government.

11. • Separation of powers divides the government into three branches: executive, legislative, and judiciary.

• Each branch has distinct powers and responsibilities to avoid concentration of power.

• This principle ensures a system of checks and balances within governance.

12. • The Executive is responsible for implementing the laws passed by the Legislature and ensuring they are followed.

• It also manages the day-to-day administration of the country through various ministries and government departments.

Short Answer Questions (50-60

• ‘Collective responsibility’ means that all ministers in the Council of Ministers are jointly responsible to the Lok Sabha.

• If the Lok Sabha loses confidence in the Council, all ministers must resign together.

words)

• The Parliament is central to democracy, acting as the primary legislative body.

• It represents the electorate, making decisions on their behalf.

• It ensures accountability of the Executive through debates, questions, and discussions.

• It acts as a check on the Executive, ensuring there is no misuse of power.

• Legislation, budget formation, and policy evaluation are key functions of Parliament.

• The Executive plays a crucial role in implementing government policies and ensuring effective governance.

• Implementation refers to putting laws into action once they’re enacted.

• The Executive manages administration, overseeing the day-to-day operations of the government.

• Policy execution involves coordinating between various ministries and agencies.

• Planning and managing resources efficiently are also part of their responsibilities.

• Judicial review ensures that laws align with the Constitution.

• It allows the judiciary to review the constitutionality of legislative and executive actions.

• It exercises checks on any law or action that may violate the Constitution.

• It preserves the separation of powers among the three branches of the government.

• By safeguarding constitutional values, it reinforces the rule of law in society.

4. The legislative institutions in India face some significant challenges.

• Disruptions in Parliament, like walkouts and boycotts, hinder legislative processes.

• Coalition politics often leads to compromises and delays in decision-making.

• Underrepresentation of marginalised communities affects inclusive policymaking.

• Limited sitting days and inadequate debate time impact thorough policy evaluation.

• Legislative inefficiency is compounded by frequent disruptions and adjournments.

• Permanent executives are career civil servants who ensure seamless functioning of administrative operations.

• They provide continuity and stability in government functions.

• They implement policies by following directives from political executives.

• They provide expert advice in policy formulation.

• They help maintain institutional memory, aiding transitions between different governments.

• They oversee the implementation of government programmes and monitor their progress.

6. Policy implementation in India is complex and multifaceted, facing various challenges.

• Bureaucratic red tape often delays policy execution, causing inefficiency.

• Inadequate coordination between different government bodies leads to fragmented implementation.

• Scarcity of resources sometimes hampers proper delivery of services.

• Political interference can result in deviation from original policy goals.

• Training and capacity building of personnel is crucial for effective execution.

7. In a democracy, the legislature and judiciary have distinct yet complementary roles.

• The legislature creates laws, while the judiciary interprets them.

• Judicial review allows the judiciary to scrutinise legislative actions.

• Both branches aim to uphold constitutional values and citizens’ rights.

• Regular dialogues in the form of engagement in constitutional amendments foster collaboration.

• The judiciary resolves disputes arising from legislative interpretation.

8. There is a unique balance of powers between the Prime Minister and the President.

• The Prime Minister leads the government, while the President is the ceremonial head of the state.

• The President appoints the Prime Minister, ensuring democratic leadership.

• The Prime Minister is accountable to the parliament, maintaining checks on power.

• The President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers, chosen by the Prime Minister.

9. The Council of Ministers plays a significant role in India’s legislative process.

• They propose bills in the Parliament, influencing legislative direction.

• They defend government policies during parliamentary debates.

• They issue regulations and policies that complement existing legislation.

• The Council helps ensure the implementation of laws passed by the Parliament.

• Examples include the introduction of crucial bills like the Budget, which requires ministerial defense.

10. Judicial independence is pivotal to enhancing the quality of democracy in India.

• An impartial judiciary ensures that justice is served without external pressures.

• It upholds the rule of law, protecting individual rights from government overreach.

• Judicial independence prevents the misuse of power by the executive and legislature.

• The judiciary can check and nullify unconstitutional laws and acts.

Long Answer Questions (100–120 words)

1. In India, the democratic framework is structured around the separation of powers among the Legislature, Executive, and Judiciary.

• This structure ensures a system of checks and balances to prevent the concentration or misuse of power.

• The Legislature is responsible for making laws that provide a structure for governance. The Executive, led by the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers, enforces these laws and manages administration.

• The Judiciary interprets laws and ensures they align with the Constitution. It also has the power of judicial review, allowing it to nullify unconstitutional actions or laws. For instance, the Supreme Court’s role in the Kesavananda Bharati case established the basic structure doctrine, demonstrating its authority to check the Legislature and Executive, thus upholding democratic values.

2. Policy implementation is the process by which government decisions and laws are transformed into practical programs and actions.

• It involves several administrative and executive agencies working together to deliver outcomes aligned with policy objectives.

• Effective policy implementation is vital as it ensures welfare schemes, development programmes, and laws reach the intended beneficiaries.

• It promotes accountability, transparency, and better governance.

• However, challenges such as bureaucratic inefficiency, corruption, lack of inter-agency coordination, and resource limitations often hinder the process. Additionally, poor planning or resistance from stakeholders can delay execution.

• Overcoming these issues requires robust monitoring systems, proper resource allocation, and stakeholder engagement to ensure policies are adaptable, responsive, and beneficial to society.

3. The Indian Constitution provides several safeguards to ensure the independence and impartiality of the judiciary.

• Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed through a collegium system that limits political interference.

• They enjoy fixed tenures, and their salaries, allowances, and pensions are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, preventing arbitrary alterations.

• Judges cannot be removed easily; the impeachment process is rigorous, requiring a special majority in both Houses of Parliament.

• The judiciary exercises the power of judicial review, allowing it to check executive and legislative actions that violate constitutional principles. These mechanisms collectively ensure that the judiciary remains free from external pressures and functions as an impartial guardian of the Constitution.

4. The Prime Minister holds a central position in the Indian governance system as the head of the government.

• As the leader of the majority party or coalition in the Lok Sabha, the Prime Minister shapes national policy and coordinates the activities of various ministries.

• He/ she chairs Cabinet meetings, guides decision-making, and acts as the chief spokesperson of the government.

• The Prime Minister also plays a vital role in foreign affairs, representing India on global platforms. Furthermore, the Prime Minister is responsible for maintaining national security, managing economic strategies, and addressing public concerns.

• Through leadership and coordination, the Prime Minister significantly influences the formulation and implementation of policies, thereby steering the administrative machinery of the nation.

5. The Parliament in India plays a crucial role in shaping national policies and ensuring democratic governance.

• It comprises the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, where elected representatives deliberate on proposed laws.

• Parliament debates bills extensively, allowing multiple viewpoints and ensuring laws reflect public interest.

• The legislative process includes drafting, multiple readings, committee reviews, and voting, ensuring thorough scrutiny.

• Parliament also exercises control over the Executive through tools like question hour, zero hour, and parliamentary committees.

• The annual budget passed by Parliament allocates financial resources, directly impacting policy implementation.

Through these mechanisms, Parliament ensures transparency, accountability, and citizen representation in policymaking, reinforcing the democratic ethos of the Indian political system.

6. The Indian Judiciary plays a vital role in upholding the Constitution and safeguarding citizens' rights.

• Through the power of judicial review, the judiciary can strike down laws or actions by the Legislature and Executive that violate constitutional provisions.

⸰ One of the most significant examples is the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), where the Supreme Court laid down the 'basic structure doctrine', limiting Parliament's power to amend core constitutional features.

⸰ In the Maneka Gandhi case (1978), the Court expanded the interpretation of Article 21, emphasising personal liberty and due process.

• These landmark rulings illustrate how judicial review preserves constitutional integrity, protects fundamental rights, and ensures the rule of law, making the Judiciary a guardian of democracy.

7. The Executive branch of the Indian government is responsible for enforcing laws and implementing public policies.

• It includes the President, Prime Minister, Council of Ministers, and civil services.

• The Executive administers various government functions, including national security, foreign policy, public welfare programs, and daily administration.

• It proposes laws and budgetary allocations, and executes decisions made by the Legislature.

• It interacts with the Judiciary by complying with legal interpretations and judgments.

• The Legislature monitors the Executive through debates, question hours, and committees. This interaction ensures that power is balanced and exercised responsibly.

• The Executive’s effective functioning is essential for translating legislative intent into concrete action, thus playing a key role in governance.

8. Coalition politics has become a defining feature of the Indian Parliamentary system, especially since the 1990s.

• In a coalition government, multiple parties come together to share power, often requiring compromises in policymaking. While this fosters inclusivity and representation of diverse viewpoints, it can also lead to instability and policy paralysis.

• Coalition partners may have conflicting interests, delaying decisions and diluting policy goals.

• Frequent negotiations and shifts in alliances can disrupt the legislative process, resulting in gridlock.

• However, coalition politics can also enrich democracy by accommodating regional aspirations and encouraging debate.

• The effectiveness of such a system depends on consensus-building, leadership strength, and the ability to align diverse party agendas toward national objectives.

9. Policy implementation is critical to achieving the goals set by the government. Once policies are formulated, their success depends on how effectively they are put into practice.

• The bureaucracy plays a key role in this process by planning, coordinating, and monitoring implementation.

• Civil servants bring expertise, ensure continuity, and adapt policies to suit regional and local needs.

• Through administrative mechanisms, they help bridge the gap between policy design and real-world impact.

• Feedback on the lacuna and performance evaluations help in policies to be adjusted, based on effectiveness and changing socioeconomic conditions.

• Training, resource management, and public participation further enhance implementation.

• Without effective execution, even welldesigned policies fail to deliver results.

10. The Legislature plays a pivotal role in shaping government policy and holding the Executive accountable.

• It debates proposed laws, reviews policy impacts, and authorises government spending through budget approval.

• Parliamentary committees conduct detailed examinations of issues, influencing executive actions.

• The question hour and motions allow legislators to question ministers, ensuring transparency.

• A notable example is when legislative debates led to changes in the Right to Information Act, strengthening transparency mechanisms.

• Similarly, in response to parliamentary pressure, the government has amended labour laws and taxation policies.

These instances illustrate how legislative scrutiny compels the Executive to align policies with public interest, thereby reinforcing the checks and balances vital to a functioning democracy.

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1

(a) The Mandal Commission recommended reserving 27% government jobs for ‘Socially and Educationally Backward Classes. The implementation was formalised through an Office Memorandum.

(b) The Supreme Court was involved to resolve the constitutional validity of the reservation policy. The Supreme Court’s verdict was pivotal in legitimising and shaping the policy.

• After the Commission’s report, the Executive formulated an Office Memorandum.

• The Prime Minister, leading the Council of Ministers, endorsed the recommendations.

• Ministry officials executed administrative steps to enforce reservations.

Passage 2

(a) Bicameralism refers to having two separate chambers in Parliament: the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. It allows diverse representation, integrating state and national interests.

(b) Rajya Sabha members are elected by state legislatures, while Lok Sabha members are directly elected by the people. Lok Sabha holds more power, particularly in financial matters such as Money Bills. Rajya Sabha reviews, suggests, and influences legislation rather than originating it.

• They ensure thorough examination and scrutiny of proposed bills.

• Enable members to express diverse opinions, reflecting public sentiments.

• Parliamentary debates hold the Executive accountable for their actions.

Passage 3

(a) Judicial review is the ability of the Supreme Court to evaluate the constitutionality of legislative and executive actions. It empowers the court to nullify laws and actions found unconstitutional.

(b) The Kesavananda Bharati case is a landmark in India’s judicial history. It established the basic structure doctrine, shaping constitutional amendments.

• It ensures unbiased evaluation of laws against the Constitution.

• Prevents external pressures from influencing judicial decisions.

• Facilitates an impartial examination of cases upholding citizens’ rights.

Passage 4

(a) The Prime Minister leads the national government, directing executive functions. They coordinate work among different ministries for cohesive governance. The Prime Minister sets and guides overall policy priorities.

(b) Coalition politics requires the Prime Minister to negotiate and accommodate multiple party interests. It necessitates consensus-building among diverse political allies. Delicate balancing acts are crucial to avoid conflicts within the coalition.

• The Prime Minister must navigate differing party agendas and priorities.

• Maintaining coalition unity requires continuous negotiation and compromise.

• Frequent consultation is needed to keep alliance partners aligned.

SELF-ASSESSMENT

Time: 1 Hour

Section A

Choose and write the correct answer for each of the following.

(1 × 8 = 8 Marks)

1. How does the Parliament influence the decision-making process in a democracy?

(a) By directly executing government orders

(b) By conducting judiciary proceedings

(d) By discussing and approving policies and budgets proposed by the executive

2. What is the primary role of the executive branch in the functioning of government institutions?

(a) To interpret laws and provide justice

(b) To resolve disputes between institutions

(d) To execute and enforce laws and policies

3. In the instance of a legal dispute regarding the implementation of a government policy, which institution is responsible for resolving the dispute?

(a) The Cabinet

(b) Judiciary

(d) Parliament

4. Which of the following best illustrates the process of policy implementation?

(a) A government department applies new environmental regulations across the country.

(b) A new law is debated across party lines in the legislature.

(d) A bill is introduced in Parliament.

Scan me for all answers.

Max. Marks: 40

5. Why is the separation of powers important in a democratic setup?

(a) It allows one institution to control all decisions.

(b) It allows for faster decision-making processes.

(d) It ensures the concentration of powers in a single branch.

6. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to:

(a) President

(b) Prime Minister

(d) Chief Minister

7. Which institution is responsible for maintaining law and order at the state level in India?

(a) President of India

(b) Parliament

(d) State Government

8. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

I. The Lok Sabha is more powerful than the Rajya Sabha in money matters.

II. The Rajya Sabha cannot reject money bills.

III. The Lok Sabha can override the decisions made by the Rajya Sabha in joint sittings.

IV. The Rajya Sabha is responsible for the fiscal policies of the government.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and III are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

Section B

Answer the following questions.

9. What is the main function of the legislative branch in a government? (2 marks)

10. Discuss how the separation of powers between the legislature, executive, and judiciary maintains balance in a democracy. Provide examples of how each branch can influence the other. (3 marks)

11. Explain the process by which a major policy is implemented by the executive branch. Include the role of different government departments. (3 marks)

12. In what ways does the judiciary ensure the protection of fundamental rights within a democratic system? Provide specific examples to illustrate your answer. (3 marks)

13. Describe the checks and balances system. How do these ensure fair governance in a democracy? (3 marks)

14. Evaluate the impact of policy implementation on public welfare. Use the example of a specific government policy to illustrate your point. (3 marks)

15. Examine the role of the Executive in policy implementation and its influence on everyday governance. How do the political and permanent executives work together to ensure effective governance? (5 marks)

16. Discuss how the judiciary functions independently to uphold the rule of law. What measures are in place to protect judicial independence, and why is it essential for a functioning democracy? (5 marks)

17. Which three ministerial types are there in the Council? Write their responsibilities. (5 marks)

5 Democratic Rights

In a democracy, rights are the cornerstone that protect individual freedom and dignity. This chapter explores the importance of democratic rights in making a government truly accountable and just. While elections and institutions are essential, they are not sufficient without the guarantee of rights. Through real-life stories and examples, the chapter explains what happens when rights are denied and why they must be safeguarded. It then introduces the Fundamental Rights given by the Indian Constitution—such as the right to equality, freedom, and constitutional remedies—and shows how they empower citizens. The chapter also highlights the growing scope of rights in a changing society.

Democratic Rights

Importance of Rights in a Democracy

• Ensure dignity, equality, and freedom

• Limit power of government

• Protect minorities and individuals

Right to Equality

• Equal before law, no discrimination

• Abolition of untouchability

Life without Rights Rights in a Democracy

• Guantanamo Bay case (US prisoners)

• Saudi Arabia (no political or religious freedom)

• Kosovo (ethnic cleansing of Albanians)

Right to Freedom

• Speech, movement, occupation

• Protection from arbitrary arrest

What Are Rights?

• Reasonable claims recognised by society

• Backed by law and the Constitution

• Linked to duties and responsibilities

Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution

Right Against Exploitation

• Ban on child labour, human trafficking, forced labour

Right to Freedom of Religion

• Practice, profess, propagate religion

• India as a secular state

• Essential for free and fair elections

• Necessary for citizen participation

• Protects against misuse of power

Expanding Scope of Rights

• Right to Education, Right to Information, Right to Food

• Role of judiciary and NHRC

• Human Rights (national and international)

Cultural and Educational Rights

• Rights of minorities to preserve language and culture

Right to Constitutional Remedies

• Approach courts to protect rights

• PIL (Public Interest Litigation)

Key Terms and Definitions

Amnesty International: An international human rights organisation that investigates and reports on human rights violations.

Bonded Labour: A form of forced labour where a person is made to work to repay a debt, often lifelong.

Cultural and Educational Rights: Protects the rights of minorities to conserve their culture and establish educational institutions.

Democracy: A form of government where the people elect their representatives and have guaranteed rights.

Ethnic Cleansing: Forcible removal or killing of people belonging to a particular ethnic group (e.g., Kosovo).

Freedom of Expression: The right to express one’s opinions freely through speech, writing, art, or other means.

Fundamental Rights: Essential rights granted by the Constitution of India that are guaranteed and enforceable by law.

Guantanamo Bay: A U.S. military prison known for detaining people without trial and violating human rights.

Human Rights: Universal moral rights that belong to all humans, often protected under international law.

Minority Rights: Special protections provided to cultural, linguistic, or religious groups to maintain their identity.

National Human Rights Commission (NHRC): An independent body in India that investigates human rights violations and promotes awareness.

Public Interest Litigation (PIL): Legal action initiated to protect public interest, even by someone not personally affected.

Reasonable Restrictions: Limitations placed on rights to ensure they don’t harm others or the public interest.

Right Against Exploitation: Prohibits human trafficking, forced labour, and employment of children below 14 in hazardous jobs.

Right to Constitutional Remedies: Allows citizens to approach courts if their Fundamental Rights are violated.

Right to Equality: Guarantees equal treatment before law, prohibits discrimination, and abolishes untouchability.

Right to Freedom of Religion: Ensures every citizen’s freedom to practice, profess, and propagate any religion.

Right to Freedom: Includes freedom of speech, movement, occupation, and protection from arbitrary arrest.

Rights: Reasonable claims of individuals that are recognised and protected by law in a society.

Rule of Law: The principle that law applies equally to all citizens, including those in positions of power.

Secularism: The principle of separation between the government and religious institutions; no official religion.

Untouchability: A social practice of discrimination against certain castes, banned under the Right to Equality.

Intext Questions

1. If you were a Serb, would you support what Milosevic did in Kosovo? Do you think his project of establishing Serb dominance was good for the Serbs?

Ans. If I were a Serb, I would not support what Milosevic did in Kosovo.

• He treated the Albanians unfairly.

• His actions were wrong and cruel.

• He wanted to make Serbs more powerful than others.

This was not good for the Serbs.

• It caused fighting and hatred between Serbs and Albanians.

• Many Albanians were killed by their own army. This made the situation worse.

In the end, Milosevic lost his power. He was taken to the International Court of Justice for his crimes. So, his plan failed and hurt everyone.

2. For each of the three cases of life without rights, mention an example from India. These could include the following:

(a) Newspaper reports on custodial violence.

(b) Newspaper reports on force-feeding of prisoners who go on hunger strike.

List the similarities and differences between the earlier case and the Indian example. It is not necessary that for each of these cases you must find an exact Indian parallel.

(a) Indian Example vs Guantanamo Bay Case (Custodial Violence)

Indian Example:

In 2004, a man named S. Annakodi was beaten by the police in Tamil Nadu after being called for questioning. He was released on bail but later died from his injuries.

Similarity:

Both cases show custodial violence.

Difference:

• In India, the violence happened at a police station.

• In Guantanamo Bay, it happened in prison after illegal detention.

(b) Indian Example vs Saudi Arabia (Rights of Women)

Indian Example:

In 2012, women in Madhya Pradesh were denied interview calls despite scoring higher marks than men. The cut-off marks were higher for women, which they called unfair.

Similarity:

Both cases involve discrimination against women.

Difference:

• In Saudi Arabia, women face legal and social restrictions.

• In India, women were unfairly treated in job selection.

Indian Example:

In 2002, during the Gujarat riots, around 2,500 people—mostly Muslims—were killed. A politician was later found guilty.

Similarity:

In both cases, minorities were targeted and killed.

Difference:

• In Kosovo, it was done directly by the government’s army.

• In Gujarat, it was done by mobs, though some leaders were blamed for inciting them.

3. What are the examples of elected governments not protecting or even attacking the rights of their own citizens? Why do they do that?

Ans. There are many cases where elected governments did not protect people’s rights or even attacked them. Some examples are:

• The killing of Albanians in Kosovo.

• The apartheid policy in South Africa.

• The rule of the PRI party in Mexico.

• The government of Robert Mugabe in Zimbabwe.

They do it for the following reasons:

• These leaders wanted to stay in power.

• They tried to control the people and stop them from raising their voice.

• By doing this, they made sure no one could question or remove them from power.

4. Everyone knows that the rich can have better lawyers in the courts. What is the point in talking about equality before law?

Ans. Yes, it is true that rich people can hire better lawyers. But the law is the same for everyone.

• Being rich does not change the rules of the law. Whether a person is rich or poor, the law treats all equally.

• Courts and judges must follow the same law for all.

• This is called equality before law, and it is a part of our Constitution.

5. Should the freedom of expression be extended to those who are spreading wrong and narrow minded ideas? Should they be allowed to confuse the public?

Ans. No, freedom of expression should not be given to those who spread wrong and narrow-minded ideas.

• Such ideas can harm society and mislead people.

• They can also hurt the peace and unity of the country.

People must not use freedom to confuse others or spread lies for personal benefit. Freedom comes with responsibility. It should not be used to do harm.

6. Are these cases instances of violation of right to freedom? If yes, which constitutional provision does each of these violate?

(i) The government of India banned Salman Rushdie’s book Satanic Verses on the ground that it was disrespectful to Prophet Mohammed and was likely to hurt the feelings of Muslim community.

Ans. Yes, this goes against the right to freedom of speech and expression. Banning the book limits a writer’s freedom to express ideas.

(ii) Every film has to be approved by the Censor Board of the government before it can be shown to the public. But there is no such restriction if the same story is published in a book or a magazine.

Ans. Yes, this also affects the freedom of expression. Films need approval, but books with the same story do not. This is not equal treatment.

(iii) The government is considering a proposal that there will be industrial zones or sectors of economy where workers will not be allowed to form unions or go on strike.

Ans. Yes, this would violate the right to form associations and unions. Workers have the right to join together and raise their voice.

(iv) City administration has imposed a ban on use of public microphones after 10 p.m. in view of the approaching secondary school examinations.

Ans. No, this is not a violation of freedom. The ban is only for a short time and helps students during exams. The Constitution allows such limits in public interest.

7. The Constitution does not give people their religion. Then how can it give people the right to practice their religion?

Ans. It is true that the Constitution does not give people their religion. But it can still give them the right to follow their religion. The Constitution is made to protect the rights of all citizens. That is why it allows every person to freely follow and practice any religion of their choice.

8. Read these news reports and identify the right that is being debated in each of these cases:

• An emergency session of the Shiromani Gurdwara Parbandhak Committee (SGPC) rejected the proposal to form a separate body to manage the affairs of Sikh shrines in Haryana. It warned the government that the Sikh community would not tolerate any interference in their religious affairs. (June 2005)

Ans. This case is related to the Right to Freedom of Religion, guaranteed by the Indian Constitution.

• The Allahabad High Court quashed the Central law, which gave Aligarh Muslim University its minority status, and held illegal the reservation of seats for Muslims in its postgraduate medical courses. (January 2006)

Ans. This case is about the Right to Equality under the Indian Constitution.

• The Rajasthan Government has decided to enact an anti-conversion law. Christian leaders have said that the Bill would aggravate the sense of insecurity and fear in the minds of minorities. (March 2005)

Ans. This case is related to the Right to Freedom of Religion, as guaranteed by the Indian Constitution.

9. Can the President of India stop you from approaching the Supreme Court to secure your fundamental rights?

Ans. No, the President of India cannot stop me from going to the Supreme Court to protect my Fundamental Rights.

• These rights are given by the Constitution and are protected by it.

• No person, law, or authority—including the President—can take them away.

• The Right to Constitutional Remedies is one such right. It allows every citizen to go to court if their rights are denied or violated. So, anyone can approach the Supreme Court to get justice.

10. Are these rights (fundamental rights) only for adults? Which of these rights are available for children?

Ans. No, these Fundamental Rights are not only for adults. They are for all citizens, including children. There is no discrimination based on age.

The Right Against Exploitation is specially important for children. It helps protect them from being misused or forced to work.

• This right bans child labour.

• Children below the age of 14 cannot be employed in factories, mines, or other dangerous jobs like railways and ports.

• Based on this right, many laws have been made to stop children from working in harmful industries like beedi making, firecrackers, match factories, printing, and dyeing.

NCERT Exercises

1. Which of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right?

(a) Workers from Bihar go to the Punjab to work on the farms.

(b) Christian missions set up a chain of missionary schools.

(d) Parents’ property is inherited by their children.

Ans. (d) Parents’ property is inherited by their children.

2. Which of the following freedoms is not available to an Indian citizen?

(a) Freedom to criticise the government

(b) Freedom to participate in armed revolution

(d) Freedom to oppose the central values of the Constitution

Ans. (b) Freedom to participate in armed revolution.

3. Which of the following rights is available under the Indian Constitution?

(a) Right to work

(b) Right to adequate livelihood

(d) Right to privacy

Ans. (c) Right to protect one’s culture.

4. Name the Fundamental Right under which each of the following rights falls:

(a) Freedom to propagate one’s religion

(b) Right to life – Right to Freedom

(d) Ban on bonded labour

Ans. (a) Right to Freedom of Religion

(b) Article 21: Protection of life and personal liberty

(d) Right Against Exploitation

5. Which of these statements about democracy and rights is more valid? Give reasons.

(a) Every country that is a democracy gives rights to its citizens.

(b) Every country that gives rights to its citizens is a democracy.

Ans. (a) Every country that is a democracy gives rights to its citizens.

6. Are these restrictions on the right to freedom justified? Give reasons for your answer.

(a) Indian citizens need permission to visit some border areas of the country for reasons of security.

(b) Outsiders are not allowed to buy property in some areas to protect the interest of the local population.

Ans. (a) Yes – To protect national security in sensitive border areas.

(b) Yes – To protect cultural identity and economic interests of local populations (e.g., in tribal areas or hill states).

7. Manoj went to a college to apply for admission into an MBA course. The clerk refused to take his application and said “You, the son of a sweeper, wish to be a manager! Has anyone done this job in your community? Go to the municipality office and apply for a sweeper’s position”. Which of Manoj’s fundamental rights are being violated in this instance? Spell these out in a letter from Manoj to the district collector.

Ans. This is a violation of Right to Equality (Article 15 –no discrimination based on caste or background) and Right to Freedom (Article 19 – to choose any profession).

The District Collector, Mhow, M.P.

Subject: Violation of Fundamental Rights

Respected Sir/Madam,

I am writing to bring to your attention an incident of discrimination I faced while applying for admission to an MBA course. The college clerk refused to accept my application, saying

that as the son of a sweeper, I should not aspire to become a manager. This is a clear violation of my Right to Equality (Article 15 – no discrimination based on caste or background) and Right to Freedom (Article 19 – to choose any profession).

I request you to take strict action against such caste-based discrimination and ensure equal opportunity for all, as guaranteed by the Constitution of India.

Sincerely,

Manoj

8. When Madhurima went to the property registration office, the Registrar told her, “You can’t write your name as Madhurima Banerjee d/o A. K. Banerjee. You are married, so you must give your husband’s name. Your husband’s surname is Rao. So your name should be changed to Madhurima Rao.” She did not agree. She said “If my husband’s name has not changed after marriage, why should mine?”

In your opinion who is right in this dispute? And why? Case of Madhurima – Who is right and why?

Ans. In this situation, Madhurima is absolutely right.

• Every citizen has the Right to Equality and Right to Freedom as guaranteed by the Indian Constitution.

• Forcing a woman to change her name after marriage violates her personal liberty and identity.

• There is no legal rule in India that requires a woman to adopt her husband’s name after marriage. Just as a man retains his name and identity, a woman has the full right to do the same.

• The registrar’s demand is based on outdated social norms, not legal requirements. Every individual has the freedom to be recognised by the name of their choice.

• Therefore, Madhurima’s stand defends her constitutional rights and promotes gender equality.

9. Thousands of tribals and other forest dwellers gathered at Piparia in Hoshangabad district in Madhya Pradesh to protest against their proposed displacement from the Satpura

National Park, Bori Wildlife Sanctuary and Panchmarhi Wildlife Sanctuary. They argue that such a displacement is an attack on their livelihood and beliefs. Government claims that their displacement is essential for the development of the area and for protection of wildlife. Write a petition on behalf of the forest dwellers to the NHRC, a response from the government and a report of the NHRC on this matter.

A. Petition to the NHRC (National Human Rights Commission):

The Chairperson, National Human Rights Commission, New Delhi

Subject: Petition Against Displacement of Forest Dwellers in Madhya Pradesh Respected Sir/Madam,

We, the tribal communities and forest dwellers of Piparia, Hoshangabad district, are facing forced displacement from Satpura National Park, Bori and Panchmarhi Wildlife Sanctuaries. This eviction threatens our right to livelihood, shelter, and cultural identity. Our ancestors have lived in these forests for generations. We depend on the forest for food, medicine, and spiritual practices. Displacing us without fair compensation or proper rehabilitation is a violation of our Fundamental Rights under Article 21 (Right to Life). We request your urgent intervention to stop this eviction and protect our human rights.

Sincerely,

The Forest Dwellers of Piparia

B. Government’s Response:

The Government of Madhya Pradesh acknowledges the concerns of the forest dwellers. However, the displacement is part of an eco-development project aimed

at protecting endangered wildlife and biodiversity. The government promises to rehabilitate affected families with adequate compensation, housing, and livelihood alternatives. We remain committed to balancing conservation efforts with social responsibility and will ensure that the rights of affected people are respected through a proper rehabilitation process.

C. NHRC Report (Summary):

After reviewing the petition and conducting an on-ground inquiry, the NHRC found that the rights of the tribal communities had not been fully considered during the planning of the displacement. The Commission recommended that:

• Displacement must be the last resort, only after exploring all other options.

• The process must include free, prior, and informed consent of the people.

• A comprehensive rehabilitation package must be implemented before eviction.

• Steps should be taken to preserve the cultural rights of the affected communities.

The NHRC urged the government to delay eviction until these conditions are met and directed continued monitoring of the situation.

10. Draw a web interconnecting different rights discussed in this chapter. For example right to freedom of movement is connected to the freedom of occupation. One reason for this is that freedom of movement enables a person to go to place of work within one’s village or city or to another village, city or state. Similarly this right can be used for pilgrimage, connected with freedom to follow one’s religion. Draw a circle for each right and mark arrows that show connection between or among different rights. For each arrow, give an example that shows the linkage.

i. In case, somebody is not allowed to work in a specific job even though selected, he can approach die court for restoring this right.

ii. If somebody is not allowed access to a public place because of his caste, he can approach the court for restoring this right.

iii. If a person is a respondent for a crime, he can engage a lawyer to defend him.

iv. Freedom to work anywhere in India.

v. Establishing an educational institution for a minority community.

vi. Somebody going for a journey.

vii. We can conduct a peaceful demonstration in a group against some government policies and it will affect us adversely.

Practice Questions

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. What was the main issue faced by prisoners in Guantanamo Bay?

(a) They were allowed to contact their families.

(b) They had a fair trial.

(d) They were released immediately.

2. Which country denied rights to its own citizens by not allowing them to form political parties?

(a) India

(b) Saudi Arabia

(d) Canada

3. What happened to ethnic Albanians in Kosovo under Milosevic’s rule?

(a) They were given special privileges

(b) They were protected by the army

(d) They faced ethnic violence and killings

4. What is the basic requirement for the existence of democracy?

(a) Enjoyment of rights

(b) Army rule

(d) King’s rule

5. Which of the following is NOT a feature of rights in a democracy?

(a) Protecting majority rule only

(b) Protecting individual freedom

(d) Enabling participation in government

6. Rights are important because they:

(a) Give more power to the government

(b) Allow government to punish citizens

(d) Allow the police to rule without court

7. Which Fundamental Right ensures that no person is discriminated on the basis of caste, religion, or sex?

(a) Right to Freedom

(b) Right to Equality

(d) Right to Education

8. What is included in the Right to Freedom?

(a) Freedom of torture

(b) Freedom to violate others’ rights

(d) Freedom of speech and movement

9. Which Fundamental Right allows people to follow the religion of their choice?

(a) Right to Freedom

(b) Right to Equality

(d) Right Against Exploitation

10. Which of the following is a newly added legal right in India?

(a) Right to Information

(b) Right to Vote

(d) Right to Pay Taxes

11. What role does the National Human Rights Commission play regarding human rights in India?

(a) Providing legal counsel to criminals.

(b) Directly punishing law offenders.

(d) Voting on new laws to improve human rights.

12. Which scenario best illustrates the Right to Equality in the Indian Constitution?

(a) An individual receiving punishment without a fair trial.

(b) A top bureaucrat being exempted from court trials.

(d) A farmer having the same right to contest elections as a wealthy businessman.

13. How does the Right to Constitutional Remedies empower Indian citizens?

(a) By allowing citizens to move freely across states.

(b) By mandating compulsory military service for all citizens

(d) By enabling citizens to approach the courts if their fundamental rights are violated

14. What is the most likely outcome if the Right to Constitutional Remedies is weakened?

(a) Citizens will have greater access to educational institutions.

(b) Media outlets will receive more freedom to express dissenting views.

(d) Fundamental rights violations will be harder to address in court.

15. Which of the following are part of the Right to Equality in the Indian Constitution?

Statement I: Equal access to public places for all.

Statement II: Special treatment of political leaders before law.

Statement III: Discrimination allowed based on gender.

Statement IV: Abolition of untouchability.

(a) Statements I and III are appropriate.

(b) Statements I and IV are appropriate.

(d) Statements II and IV are appropriate.

16. Which of the following freedoms are guaranteed under the Right to Freedom in the Indian Constitution?

Statement I: Freedom of speech and expression.

Statement II: Freedom to assemble peacefully.

Statement III: Freedom to harm others in the name of protest.

Statement IV: Freedom to form associations and unions.

(a) Statements I, II and IV are appropriate.

(b) Statements I and III are appropriate.

(d) All of these.

17. Match the following:

Column I

Column II

A. Right to Equality i. Express views freely

B. Right to Freedom ii. Approach court if rights are denied

C. Right to Constitutional Remedies iii. Equal treatment for all

D. Right to Religion iv. Follow any faith

(a) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv

(b) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

(d) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

18. Match the following:

Column I Column II

A. Right to Information i. Free and compulsory education

B. Right to Education ii. Access to food under public system

C. Right to Food iii. Get information from government

D. Human Rights iv. Rights under UN Declaration

(a) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv (b) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion (A): Fundamental Rights are essential for the success of democracy.

Reason (R): They allow people to express their opinions, form associations, and take part in political activities.

2. Assertion (A): The Right Against Exploitation allows children below 14 to work in mines.

Reason (R): Working in such jobs helps children support their families.

3. Assertion (A): Right to Constitutional Remedies is known as the heart and soul of the Constitution.

Reason (R): It allows citizens to move to the Supreme Court if their rights are violated.

4. Assertion (A): The government can take away some Fundamental Rights during normal times.

Reason (R): The Constitution gives power to citizens to fight for their rights.

5. Assertion (A): Freedom of expression includes the right to criticise the government.

Reason (R): In a democracy, people have the right to express their views freely.

6. Assertion (A): The Constitution allows the government to impose reasonable restrictions on rights.

Reason (R): Rights cannot be used to harm public order or the freedom of others.

7. Assertion (A): Every citizen of India can move freely in any part of the country.

Reason (R): The Right to Equality ensures freedom of movement across the country.

8. Assertion (A): Rights are important to protect individuals from unfair treatment.

Reason (R): Rights are written in the Constitution to allow people to express opinions freely.

Picture Based Questions

1. Observe the image and answer the questions that follows:

Which Fundamental Right allows people to hold such protests in a democratic country like India?

(a) Right against exploitation

(b) Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression

(d) Right to freedom of religion

2. Observe the image and answer the question that follows:

Which Fundamental Right is being violated in this image?

(a) Right to Education

(b) Right to Freedom of Speech

(d) Right to Life and Personal Liberty

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30-40 words)

1. What are rights?

2. Why are rights important in a democracy?

3. What is meant by 'life without rights'?

4. Name two examples of denial of rights from the chapter.

5. What are Fundamental Rights?

6. Mention any two Fundamental Rights given in the Indian Constitution.

7. What is meant by the 'Right to Equality'?

8. What does the 'Right to Freedom' include?

9. What is the 'Right against Exploitation'?

10. How does the Constitution protect religious freedom?

11. What are Cultural and Educational Rights?

12. What is the Right to Constitutional Remedies?

13. What is a PIL (Public Interest Litigation)?

14. Mention two rights that have been added recently as legal rights in India.

15. What does the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) do?

Short Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. What happened to the prisoners at Guantanamo Bay?

2. Why is the situation in Saudi Arabia seen as a denial of rights?

3. Describe the situation of ethnic Albanians in Kosovo.

4. What is meant by violation of human rights?

5. How did the US justify the detention of people in Guantanamo Bay?

6. What role did Amnesty International play in the Guantanamo Bay case?

7. Why are rights important during a conflict?

8. How was the Kosovo crisis an example of state misuse of power?

9. What is the danger of a powerful government without rights?

10. What is meant by 'life with dignity'?

Long Answer Questions (100-120 words)

1. What are the six Fundamental Rights provided by the Indian Constitution? Briefly explain each.

2. Explain the significance of Fundamental Rights in a democracy.

3. What do you understand by the Right to Equality? Explain its key features.

4. What is the Right to Constitutional Remedies and why is it called the "heart and soul" of the Constitution?

5. During a protest against a government policy, police officers take action to control the crowd. Can the protestors claim that their Right to Freedom of Expression is being violated?

6. How has the scope of rights expanded in India? Give examples.

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

1. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

Amnesty International, an international human rights organisation, collected information on the condition of the prisoners in Guantanamo Bay and reported that the prisoners were being tortured in ways that violated the US laws. They were being denied the treatment that even prisoners of war must get as per international treaties. Many prisoners had tried protesting against these conditions by going on a hunger strike. Prisoners were not released even after they were officially declared not guilty. An independent inquiry by the UN supported these findings. The UN Secretary General said the prison in Guantanamo Bay should be closed down. The US government refused to accept these pleas.

(a) Which organisation reported human rights violations in Guantanamo Bay?

(b) What method did some prisoners use to protest their treatment in Guantanamo Bay?

2. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

No person can legally claim any special treatment or privilege just because he or she happens to be an important person. For example, a few years ago a former Prime Minister of the country faced a court case on charges of cheating. The court finally declared that he was not guilty. But as long as the case continued, he had to go to the court, give evidence and file papers, just like any other citizen.

This basic position is further clarified in the Constitution by spelling out some implications of the Right to Equality. The government shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. Every citizen shall have access to public places like shops, restaurants, hotels, and cinema halls.

(a) Can any person claim special treatment because of their high position?

(b) Name any two grounds on which the government cannot discriminate against citizens.

Answers

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. (c) They were tortured and denied basic rights

2. (b) Saudi Arabia

3. (d) They faced ethnic violence and killings

4. (a) Enjoyment of rights

5. (a) Protecting majority rule only

6. (c) Help citizens to express themselves freely

7. (b) Right to Equality

8. (d) Freedom of speech and movement

9. (c) Right to Freedom of Religion

10. (a) Right to Information

11. (c) Conducting independent inquiries into human rights violations.

12. (d) A farmer having the same right to contest elections as a wealthy businessman.

13. (d) By enabling citizens to approach the courts if their fundamental rights are violated

14. (d) Fundamental rights violations will be harder to address in court.

15. (b) Statements I and IV are appropriate

16. (a) Statements I, II and IV are appropriate

17. (a) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv

18. (a) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

2. (d) A is false but R is true.

3. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

4. (d) A is false but R is true.

5. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

6. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

7. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

8. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Picture Based Questions

1. (b) Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression

2. (c) Right Against Exploitation

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30–40 words)

1. • Rights are essential conditions or guarantees that allow individuals to live with dignity, freedom, and equality.

• They are protected by the law and help people express themselves, participate in governance, and seek justice when wronged, ensuring fair treatment for all.

2. Rights are essential in a democracy because of the following reasons:

• They allow people to express their views freely, participate in governance, and challenge injustice.

• Without rights, democracy becomes meaningless because citizens cannot enjoy freedom or hold the government accountable.

3. • Life without rights means living in fear, silence, and oppression.

• People cannot speak, protest, or defend themselves.

• They are vulnerable to injustice and government misuse of power, as seen under military rule or dictatorships where rights are denied.

4. Two examples are:

• In Chile, under General Pinochet, people were arrested and tortured for opposing the government.

• In the USA, African-Americans were denied voting rights until the Civil Rights Movement fought against discrimination.

5. • Fundamental Rights are basic freedoms guaranteed by the Indian Constitution to ensure dignity, equality, and justice.

• These rights protect individuals from exploitation and unfair treatment, enabling them to live freely and participate actively in a democratic society.

6. Two Fundamental Rights given in the Indian Constitution are:

• Right to Equality ensures equal treatment of all citizens and prohibits discrimination.

• Right to Freedom includes the freedom of speech, expression, movement, and profession, allowing individuals to live with dignity and participate in democracy.

7. • The Right to Equality means every citizen is equal before the law and protected from discrimination based on religion, caste, gender, or place of birth.

• It ensures equal access to public places, jobs, and opportunities for all.

8. The Right to Freedom includes:

• Freedom of speech, expression, movement, assembly, and to practice any profession.

• It ensures personal liberty and allows citizens to live with dignity while participating in the political and social life of the country.

9. • This right protects individuals from exploitation by banning human trafficking, forced labour, and child labour in hazardous jobs.

• It ensures that no person is treated like a slave or forced to work under unfair and cruel conditions.

10.

• The Constitution provides the Right to Freedom of Religion, allowing individuals to follow, practice, and propagate any religion.

• It ensures that the government does not favour any religion and promotes secularism and religious tolerance in society.

11.

• These rights protect the cultural identity of minorities.

• They allow them to preserve their language and culture and establish educational institutions of their choice.

• This helps maintain diversity and ensures equal educational opportunities for all communities.

12.

• This right enables citizens to approach the courts if their Fundamental Rights are violated.

• The courts can issue orders or writs to protect these rights.

• It makes all other rights effective and enforceable by law.

13.

• Public Interest Litigation (PIL) allows individuals or groups to file cases in court on behalf of others whose rights are violated.

• It helps protect public interest, especially for the poor or disadvantaged, even if they can't afford legal help.

14. Two recently added legal rights are:

• Right to Information – gives citizens access to government information.

• Right to Education – ensures free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14.

15. • The NHRC investigates human rights violations, monitors government actions, and promotes awareness.

• It helps protect individuals from abuse, ensures justice, and recommends steps to improve the condition of victims and prevent further violations of rights.

Short Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. Prisoners at Guantanamo Bay were detained by the U.S. without trial or legal rights.

• They were tortured, denied access to lawyers, and held in secret.

• Most were not charged or proven guilty.

• These actions violated international human rights laws and denied prisoners basic legal protections like a fair trial or humane treatment.

2. In Saudi Arabia, citizens do not enjoy basic democratic rights.

• Political parties and media are banned, and criticism of the government is punishable.

• Women have limited freedom, and there is no freedom of religion.

• These restrictions prevent people from participating freely in governance and expressing themselves, which is a clear denial of rights.

3. Ethnic Albanians in Kosovo faced severe discrimination under the Serbian government.

• They were denied education in their language, lost jobs, and were attacked by security forces.

• Many were forced to leave their homes.

• This ethnic targeting violated their cultural, political, and social rights, leading to a humanitarian crisis and international criticism of Serbia’s actions.

4. Violation of human rights means denying individuals the fundamental freedoms and protections they deserve.

• This includes acts like torture, discrimination, censorship, and illegal imprisonment.

• Such violations can occur under dictatorships, during conflicts, or through misuse of power by governments or authorities.

• They harm individual dignity and go against national and international human rights laws.

5. The US justify the detention of people in Guantanamo Bay by giving following reasons:

• The U.S. claimed detainees were “enemy combatants” in the war on terror.

• Said they didn’t deserve regular legal rights or trials.

• Justified secret detentions for national security reasons.

• Argued it was necessary to prevent future attacks.

• These justifications were criticized globally.

• The practice violated international laws and denied basic rights like fair trial and legal representation.

6. Amnesty International investigated and reported human rights violations in Guantanamo Bay.

• They exposed torture, secret detentions, and denial of legal rights.

• The organization raised awareness globally through campaigns and urged the U.S. government to close the prison.

• They demanded justice for the prisoners and fought to protect their rights under international law.

• Their work helped bring attention to abuses and pushed for accountability and reforms.

7. Rights are especially important during conflicts because of the following reasons:

• They protect people from abuse by authorities.

• In times of war or emergency, governments might misuse power by arresting or harming citizens unfairly.

• Rights ensure legal protection, fair treatment, and dignity even during crises.

• They act as a safeguard against injustice, preventing torture, discrimination, and unlawful killings.

• Without rights, people suffer silently, and justice is lost during difficult times.

8. In Kosovo, the Serbian government misused its power by targeting ethnic Albanians.

• They were denied education, jobs, and political rights.

• Security forces harassed and attacked them, forcing thousands to flee.

• The state used violence instead of protecting its citizens.

• This was a clear case where the government used its authority to discriminate and suppress a community, violating their basic rights and showing the dangers of unchecked power.

9. A powerful government without rights can become a dictatorship.

• It can silence critics, imprison people unfairly, and rule without limits.

• Citizens lose legal protection and live in fear.

• There is no check on government actions, and justice disappears.

• Without rights, democracy cannot survive, and people's freedom, equality, and dignity are lost.

• It leads to oppression and human rights violations, harming society and individual well-being.

10. Life with dignity means living with respect, freedom, and fairness.

• It includes having basic needs like food, education, and shelter, and being treated equally in society.

• People should be free to express themselves, practice their religion, and live without fear or discrimination.

• Dignity is central to human rights and democracy.

• A dignified life protects personal identity and ensures every person is valued and respected by the law and society.

Long Answer Questions (100–120

words)

1. Six Fundamental Rights are:

• Right to Equality: Ensures equal treatment before the law and bans discrimination based on religion, caste, gender, or birthplace.

• Right to Freedom: Provides freedom of speech, movement, assembly, and the right to choose any profession.

• Right Against Exploitation: Prohibits child labour, human trafficking, bonded labour, or forcing children below 14 to work in factories, mines, or other hazardous places.

• Right to Freedom of Religion: Allows all citizens to freely practice, profess, and propagate any religion. The state treats all religions equally and maintains secularism.

• Cultural and Educational Rights: Protects the rights of minorities to preserve their culture and establish educational institutions.

• Right to Constitutional Remedies: Enables citizens to approach the courts if their Fundamental Rights are violated. It is called the “heart and soul” of the Constitution by Dr. Ambedkar.

2. Significance of Fundamental Rights in a democracy:

• Protect Individual Freedom: Fundamental Rights allow people to speak, move, and live freely, which is essential in a democracy.

• Safeguard Equality: They ensure no one is treated unfairly due to caste, religion, gender, or background.

• Promote Justice: These rights protect individuals from unjust actions by the state or powerful groups.

• Strengthen Democracy: Citizens can express views, form groups, and protest peacefully— key elements of a democratic society.

• Empower Citizens: The Right to Constitutional Remedies allows people to go to court if their rights are violated.

• Protect Minority Interests: Cultural and educational rights help minorities preserve their language, culture, and education systems. These rights ensure freedom, justice, and equality, which are the core values of democracy.

3. The Right to Equality is a Fundamental Right guaranteed by the Indian Constitution (Articles 14 to 18). It ensures that all citizens are treated equally before the law and protects them from discrimination.

Key features include:

• Equality before law: Every person is equal in the eyes of the law.

• No discrimination: The State cannot discriminate based on religion, caste, gender, race, or birthplace.

• Equal job opportunities: All citizens can apply for public jobs; reservations are allowed for the underprivileged.

• Abolition of untouchability: Untouchability is banned and punishable.

• Abolition of titles: Hereditary or honorific titles are not allowed, except academic/military ones. This right upholds justice and promotes unity in a diverse democracy like India.

4. The Right to Constitutional Remedies is a Fundamental Right under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution. It allows citizens to approach the Supreme Court if they believe their Fundamental Rights have been violated. This right is called the "heart and soul" of the Constitution by Dr. B.R Ambedkar because of the following reasons:

• It provides a mechanism to protect and enforce other Fundamental Rights.

• Without this right, the Constitution's guarantees would be ineffective, as there would be no way to seek justice for violations.

• It empowers citizens to challenge unlawful actions by the government, ensuring the protection of their rights.

• It ensures the judiciary’s role in upholding justice and safeguarding individual freedoms.

5. No, protestors cannot claim their rights are violated because of the following reasons:

• The Right to Freedom of Expression (Article 19) allows citizens to express their opinions, including through peaceful protests.

• But this right is not absolute and can be reasonably restricted by the government to maintain public order and national security.

• If the protest turns violent or disrupts public peace, the authorities are justified in taking action to control the crowd.

• The police can impose restrictions on the manner and place of protests if it threatens public safety.

• Therefore, the protestors cannot claim their rights are violated unless their protest remains peaceful, and no harm is caused to public order or others’ rights. Protection is given to peaceful protests, but unlawful conduct can lead to intervention.

6. The scope of rights in India has expanded over time through constitutional amendments and Supreme Court judgments. Initially, only Fundamental Rights were guaranteed, but now many new rights have been added. For example:

• The Right to Education was made a Fundamental Right under Article 21A through the 86th Amendment, giving all children (6–14 years) the right to free and compulsory education.

• The Right to Information (RTI) was introduced to ensure transparency and accountability in governance.

• The Supreme Court has also interpreted the Right to Life (Article 21) to include the right to clean environment, healthcare, and livelihood.

These developments show that rights are not fixed; they grow with time to meet new needs and challenges in a democracy.

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

1. (a) Amnesty International, an international human rights organisation, reported the violations.

(b) Many prisoners protested by going on a hunger strike.

(c) • Prisoners were tortured, denied rights given to war prisoners under international law, and were not released even after being found not guilty.

• An independent UN inquiry supported these findings, but the US government refused to shut down the prison or accept the UN’s recommendations.

2. (a) No, no person can legally claim special treatment or privilege just because they are important or hold a high position.

(b) The government cannot discriminate on the grounds of religion and caste (also includes race, sex, and place of birth).

• There should be no discrimination based on religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.

• Everyone has equal access to public places like shops, restaurants, hotels, and cinemas.

SELF-ASSESSMENT

Time: 1 Hour

Section A

Choose and write the correct answer for each of the following.

(1 × 8 = 8 Marks)

1. Which organisation reported human rights violations at Guantanamo Bay?

(a) UNESCO

(b) Amnesty International

(d) UNICEF

2. What is meant by ‘Rule of Law’?

(a) Law changes for each person

(b) Law applies equally to all

(d) Law protects only the rich

3. Which Fundamental Right allows citizens to go to court if their rights are violated?

(a) Right to Vote

(b) Right to Information

(d) Right to Religion

4. What is the aim of expanding the scope of rights?

(a) To reduce democracy

(b) To take away people’s power

(d) To support only the majority community

5. Which Right protects minorities' language and culture in India?

(a) Right to Education

(b) Cultural and Educational Rights

(d) Right to Vote

Scan me for all answers.

Max. Marks: 40

6. Which of the following are examples of newly expanded rights in India?

I. Right to Information

II. Right to Education

III. Right to Vote in Elections

IV. Right to Property as a Fundamental Right

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements II and IV are appropriate.

(d) Statements III and IV are appropriate.

7. Match the following:

Event Country

A. Guantanamo Bay i. Saudi Arabia

B. Ethnic massacre ii. United States

C. Custodial torture iii. Kosovo

D. No religious freedom iv. India

(a) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

(b) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

(d) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii

8. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): The Right to Information is a part of Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution.

Reason (R): Citizens have the right to know how the government works.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Section B

Answer the following questions.

9. What is meant by secularism? (2 marks)

10. Why are some rights restricted during emergencies? (3 marks)

11. What is the difference between Fundamental Rights and ordinary legal rights? (3 marks)

12. How did the Serbian government violate democratic principles? (3 marks)

13. What happens when citizens can’t go to court? (3 marks)

14. What does the Kosovo example teach us about rights? (3 marks)

15. Can the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression be limited in India? Why or why not? (5 marks)

16. How do Fundamental Rights strengthen Indian democracy? Explain with examples. (5 marks)

17. Ravi, a 12-year-old boy, works at a roadside tea stall to support his family. Which fundamental right is being violated here? Explain. (5 marks)

1 The Story of Village Palampur

The Story of Village Palampur, presents a fictional village to explain basic economic concepts It focuses on how different resources are used to produce goods and services� The main activity in Palampur is farming, where land is the primary resource, but it is limited and already in use� To increase production, farmers adopt modern methods such as High-Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilisers, and machinery Although these methods boost output, they can damage soil fertility and deplete groundwater� The chapter also discusses the disparity between small and large farmers, with small farmers often borrowing money at high interest to meet their needs� Besides agriculture, the village has non-farming activities like dairy, shopkeeping, and transport services These offer alternative sources of income but are limited due to lack of capital and training� The chapter highlights that economic development depends on the effective use of land, labour, physical capital, and human capital� It also illustrates the importance of creating more employment opportunities Overall, Palampur serves as a model to understand rural economy and production�

The Story of Village Palampur

Factors of Production

Land (Fixed) Labour

• Mainly provided by landless labour

• Low Wages (cash or kind)

Distribution of Land – unequal

• No fixed employment

Capital (physical and Human capital)

Entrepreneur

Large Farmers

• Own land

• Hire labour

Small Farmers

• Borrow money

• Work on their land

Problems faced by small farmers

• Debt burden

• Lack of Resources

Sources of Capital Savings

• Large farmers usually have their savings to invest

Farming – main occupation

• Multiple Cropping

• Modern Farming Methods

Green Revolution

• Use of HYV Seeds

• Irrigation

• Fertilizers

• Increase in production through combined use of all the inputs

Non-Farming Activities

• Dairy

• Shopkeeping

• Transport

• Small manufacturing

Loans

• Small farmers borrow money to buy inputs

Key Terms and Definitions

Land: The upper surface of the earth which is valuable for agriculture and other activities�

Labour: Labour is used for carrying out the production activities� It may be manual workers or highly skilled or educated persons

Fixed Assets: Fixed Capital Assets or capital investment that are needed to start production of goods or services are called fixed capital, e�g�, buildings, machines and tools, ranging from ploughs to generators, turbines, computers, etc

Working Capital: Raw materials and money in hand is called working capital� These are used at the time of production activities, to purchase raw materials and services, and to sell finished goods�

Human Capital: It is the most important resource All resources depend on human capital for their use It is the knowledge and enterprise or the human effort required to put together all the inputs to produce the output�

Multiple Cropping: It is the process of growing more than one crop on a piece of land during the year�

Kharif Crops: Crops which are sown in summer or rainy season and harvested in winter are known as kharif crops Rice, jowar and bajra are the main kharif crops

Rabi Crops: Crops which are sown in winter and harvested in summer are called rabi crops� Wheat is the main rabi crop�

Green Revolution: Green Revolution refers to a period when new methods of agriculture like High-Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds, Chemical fertilizers and pesticides, Irrigation facilities and Modern farm machinery like tractors and threshers were introduced to increase food grain production, especially wheat and rice�

HYV Seeds: HYV or high yielding varieties of seeds are more productive and produce a greater amount of grain on a single plant

Dairy Farming: It is the rearing of animals like cows and buffaloes on farms for milk and milk products�

Small-scale Manufacturing: It is a type of manufacturing which is carried out at home with the help of family members Very small capital is required for small-scale manufacturing

Trade: It is the transfer of goods and services from one person to another or an entity in exchange for money�

Transport: Transport is the movement of men, goods and animals from one location to another� It may be domestic or international

Intext Questions

1. What is the difference between multiple cropping and modern farming method?

Multiple Cropping Modern Farming Method

Growing more than one crop on the same piece of land in a year is called Multiple cropping�

It is done to increase production from the same land�

Example: A farmer might grow wheat in winter, rice in the rainy season, and pulses in summer season on the same field

Using advanced techniques and inputs like HYV (HighYielding Variety) seeds, chemical fertilizers, pesticides, irrigation, and machinery to increase yield is modern farming method

It is done to boost production with better technology�

Example: A farmer uses HYV seeds, tractors, tube wells, and chemical fertilizers to grow more wheat than traditional methods would allow

2. What is the working capital required by the farmer using modern farming methods?

Ans. Working capital refers to the money needed for day-to-day expenses in farming Modern farming depends on more expensive inputs like HYV seeds, Chemical fertilizers, Pesticides, Electricity (for irrigation pumps/tube wells)

3. Modern farming methods require the farmer to start with more cash than before. Why?

Ans. Modern farming methods require more initial cash because

• They involve expensive inputs like high-yield variety seeds, chemical fertilizers, pesticides, and advanced irrigation and farming equipment

• These inputs are essential for increasing productivity but come at a higher cost compared to traditional farming practices�

4. Would you agree that the distribution of cultivated land is unequal in Palampur? Do you find a similar situation for India? Explain.

Ans. Yes, I would agree that the distribution of cultivated land is unequal in Palampur�

• A small number of families (upper caste, large farmers) own most of the land in the village�

• On the other hand, many small farmers (with little or no land of their own) have to work as farm labourers on others’ fields to earn a living

• This shows a clear case of inequality in land ownership, where resources are not evenly distributed�

Yes, a similar situation exists in many parts of India, not just in Palampur�

• According to various agricultural surveys and studies, a major portion of agricultural land in India is owned by a minority of large landowners�

• Many landless rural families still work as agricultural labourers, because they do not own any land�

5. Identify the work being done on the field in the following picture and arrange them in a proper sequence.

Ans. (1) Ploughing by bullocks

(2) Sowing

(3) Spraying of insecticides

(4) Cultivation by traditional methods

(5) Cultivation by modern methods

(6) Cutting of crops

6. Why are farm laborers like the Dala and Ramkali poor?

Ans. Farm laborers like the Dala and Ramkali are poor because of the following reasons:

• Dala and Ramkali are landless farm labourers in Palampur who earn daily wages�

• Although the government has fixed the minimum wage at ₹300 per day, they receive only ₹160�

• Due to intense competition for work among farm labourers, many are forced to accept low wages�

• They do not get work throughout the year and often borrow money from moneylenders to meet their basic needs�

• The absence of stable employment keeps them poor and trapped in a cycle of debt�

7. Gosaipur and Majauli are two villages in North Bihar. Out of a total of 850 households in the two villages, there are more than 250 men who are employed in rural Punjab and Haryana or in Delhi, Mumbai, Surat, Hyderabad or Nagpur. Such migration is common in most villages across India. Why do people migrate? Can you describe (based on your imagination) the work that the migrants of Gosaipur and Majauli might do at the place of destination?

Ans. People migrate from villages like Gosaipur and Majauli mainly due to lack of employment opportunities in their own villages� Most villagers depend on agriculture for their livelihood, but:

• There is not enough land for everyone to earn a decent income

• Farming is seasonal, so it doesn’t provide jobs throughout the year

• There are very few non-farming activities in the village to provide additional income

At their place of migration, the people from Gosaipur and Majauli may be engaged in different kinds of work:

• In rural Punjab or Haryana, they might work as farm labourers

• In cities like Delhi, Mumbai, Surat, Hyderabad, or Nagpur, they may work as:

⸰ Construction workers (like building houses, roads, metros)

⸰ Helpers (as salesmen, cleaners) in shops, restaurants, or hotels,

⸰ Rickshaw pullers, Auto drivers or delivery boys,

⸰ Or even as factory workers in textile, plastic, or food processing units�

8. Let us take three farmers. Each has grown wheat on his field though the production is different (see Column 2). The consumption of wheat by each farmer family is the same

(Column 3). The whole of surplus wheat this year is used as capital for next year’s production. Also suppose, production is twice the capital used in production. Complete the tables.

Farmer 1

(a) Compare the production of wheat by the three farmers over the years.

Ans. The production of wheat by the first farmer increased from 100 to 160

• The production of wheat by the second farmer was constant at 80

• The production of wheat by the third farmer declined from 60 to 0

(b) What happens to Farmer 3 in Year 3? Can he continue production? What will he have to do to continue production?

Ans. In the third year, third farmer did not produce any wheat and had to buy it from the market for consumption�

He cannot continue production any longer because he has no surplus to invest as capital� To continue production, he has to arrange capital from outside sources like borrowing�

9. What capital did Mishri Lal need to set up his jaggery manufacturing unit?

Ans. To set up his manufacturing unit Mishrilal needed the following capital:

• Fixed Capital- sugarcane crushing machine

• Working Capital

⸰ Money for buying sugarcane from other farmers (raw material)

⸰ For paying the electricity bill for running the machine

10. Who provides the labour in this case?

Ans. The labour is provided by him and his family Otherwise, he will employ landless labourers

11. Can you guess why Mishri Lal is unable to increase his profits?

Ans. • Since, more area is under wheat production, production of sugarcane is low which is a raw material for making Jaggery

• He has to pay electricity bill for running crushing machine�

• Since production is low, he is unable to increase his profits�

12. Could you think of any reason when he might face a loss?

Ans. Loss occurs when expenditure is more than income� Conditions under which he may face loss are:

• If the demand for Jaggery decreases, then his earnings wouldn’t be enough to cover the cost of making jaggery In that case income from selling Jaggery would be less than the cost of producing it

• If any other costs like electricity, transportation, cost for cost of raw material increase, he might face loss�

• If his crushing machine becomes defective, his production will be reduced�

• Natural calamities like floods, droughts will automatically reduce the production of sugarcane and hence, jaggery thereby reducing profits

13. Why does Mishree Lal sells his jaggery to traders in Shahpur and not in his village?

Ans. Mishree Lal sells his jaggery to traders in Shahpur and not in his village because

• Demand for Jaggery is not enough in his village because his village is small, so he has to sell outside�

• Shahpur is a town where demand for Jaggery is more so he’s able to sell more in Shahpur�

14. In what ways are Kareem’s capital and labour different from Mishri Lal’s?

Ans. Kareem Mishri Lal

Capital He has fixed capital in the form of computers He has fixed capital in the form of crushing machine

Labour He has employed educated and qualified computer teachers� He has employed unskilled labour

15. Why did not someone start a computer centre earlier? Discuss the possible reasons

Ans. Following are the possible reasons:

• Demand for computer course was not there in the village because very few educated people were there in the village�

• The villagers were unaware of the job opportunities computer courses could offer, so no one believed such a business would succeed�

• Qualified teachers for computer courses were not available�

16. What is Kishore’s fixed capital?

Ans. Kishore’s fixed capital includes a buffalo and a cart�

17. What do you think would be his working capital?

Ans. His working capital includes:

• The cost of rearing the buffalo, such as fodder, which he purchases from the market

• His working capital can be calculated by money that he earns from selling the milk and transporting goods on his bullock-cart minus his own living expenses�

18. In how many production activities is Kishore involved?

Ans. Kishora is involved in the following production activities�

(a) Selling buffalo’s milk

(b) Transporting of various items�

(d) Transporting jaggery, etc, to Shahpur�

19. Would you say that Kishore has benefited from better roads in Palampur?

Ans. Yes, Kishora has benefitted from better roads in Palampur because

• He is engaged in the transport business.

• Good roads make it easier for him to move goods from one place to another.

• The smooth transportation helps him run his business efficiently and earn profits, which would have been challenging without proper roads.

NCERT Exercises

1. Every village in India is surveyed once in ten years during the Census and some of the details are presented in the following format. Fill up the following based on information on Palampur.

(a) LOCATION:

(b) TOTAL AREA OF THE VILLAGE:

(d) FACILITIES:

Ans. (a) Palmapur is located 3 km away from Raiganj which is a big village.

(b) The total area of Palampur village is 246 hectares.

Cultivated Land Land not available for cultivation (Area covering dwelling, roads, ponds, grazing ground) Irrigated Unirrigated

200 hectares 20 hectares 26 hectares

(d) Facilities:

Educational Two primary schools, one high school

Medical

• One primary health care centre, run by the government

• one private dispensary

Market The market has some general stores and shops selling eatables.

Electricity Supply Most of the houses have electricity supply. Electricity runs the tube wells and is used in running various small businesses.

Communication An all-weather road connects Palampur to Raiganj and further on to the nearest small town of Shahpur.

Nearest Town Shahpur

2. Modern farming methods require more inputs which are manufactured in industry. Do you agree?

Ans. Yes, it is true that modern farming methods require more inputs which are manufactured in industries.

• For increasing the production of crops, insecticides, pesticides and chemical fertilisers are used. These are all manufactured in industries.

• Tractors, threshers and harvesters are a few machines which are used by farmers for agricultural purposes. All these machines are built in industries.

• Tubewells and water pumps used for irrigation are also manufactured in industries.

3. How did the spread of electricity help farmers in Palampur?

Ans. The spread of electricity helped farmers in the following ways:

• It helped the farmers in irrigating fields through electricity-run tube wells.

• This reduced the farmers’ dependency on rain for irrigating the fields.

• Electricity-backed irrigation helped farmers to grow three crops in a year, increasing farm production.

4. Is it important to increase the area under irrigation? Why?

Ans. Yes, it is very important to increase the area under irrigation because:

• Irrigation is the main factor for increasing yields.

• Irrigation facilities are available only to about 40% of the cultivated land area in the country whereas 60% of the cultivated area is still dependent on rainfall for irrigation.

• The modern HYV seeds need regular irrigation.

• Farmers use many types of pesticides and insecticides to increase production. These inputs also need irrigation in order to be effective.

• Irrigation is very helpful for crops especially in the dry season.

• It reduces the effects of delayed monsoon or no monsoon.

5. Construct a table on the distribution of land among the 450 families of Palampur.

Ans. Table on the distribution of land among the 450 families of Palampur:

of Land No.

6. Why are the wages for farm labourers in Palampur less than minimum wages?

Ans. In Palampur, the labourers face competition in finding work�

• This means there is less work and the number of labourers are more than required�

• This situation forces the labourers to work on low wages�

• The minimum wage for a farm labourer set by the government is ₹300 per day, but wages of farm labourers in Palampur are less than the minimum wage i�e�, ₹160�

7. In your region, talk to two labourers. Choose either farm labourers or labourers working at construction sites. What wages do they get? Are they paid in cash or kind? Do they get work regularly? Are they in debt?

Ans. (To be done by students. Answers will vary.)

8. What are the different ways of increasing production on the same piece of land? Use examples to explain.

Ans. Following are some ways of increasing production on the same piece of land:

(a) Multiple Cropping:

• It is the process of growing more than one crop on a piece of land during the year�

• It is the most common way of increasing production on the same piece of land�

• Farmers in Palampur grow at least two main crops and many have been growing potato as the third crop for the past 15 to 20 years

(b) Use of Modern Farming Methods:

• Today methods of farming have undergone tremendous change The use of machines has replaced human labour�

• There is a machine for harvesting and also for winnowing

• The use of modern machines along with HYV seeds can help a lot in increasing production�

• Farmers of Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh were the first to try modern farming methods in India, and increased agricultural production to a considerable extent�

9. Describe the work of a farmer with 1 hectare of land.

Ans. A farmer who owns 1 hectare of land for farming can be described as a subsistence farmer 1 hectare of land is too small even for the sustenance of a small family�

• In this condition, the farmer is forced to work hard to produce the maximum�

• He is also forced to use traditional seeds in place of HYV seeds because of lack of capital�

• He will also use ordinary agricultural equipment or machines like bullocks to plough He will depend on manual labour for most of his work�

10. How do the medium and large farmers obtain capital for farming? How is it different from the small farmers?

Ans. The medium and large farmers have their own savings from farming�

• This happens due to surplus crops from their large farms� They sell this surplus crop in the market and earn profits�

• They deposit this amount in a bank for the next season’s crop� When needed, these farmers withdraw money from the bank and manage their work�

• They also lend money to small farmers Generally, this money is lent at a higher rate of interest� This interest also generates extra money for medium and larger farmers

On the other hand, small farmers do not have surplus money to meet their requirements�

• They borrow money to arrange for the capital�

• They borrow from large farmers, village moneylenders or traders who supply various inputs for cultivation�

11. On what terms did Savita get a loan from Tejpal Singh? Would Savita’s condition be different if she could get a loan from the bank at a low rate of interest?

Ans. Savita got a loan from Tejpal on the following terms:

• Savita agreed to give an interest rate of 24% for 4 months, which is a very high interest rate

• Savita also promised to work in his field as a farm labourer during the harvest season at ₹100 per day�

Yes, Savita’s condition would be different if she had taken a loan from the bank�

• Interest would have been much lower�

• She could have easily repaid the loan�

12. Talk to some old residents in your region and write a short report on the changes in irrigation and changes in production methods during the last 30 years.

Ans. (To be done by students. Answers will vary.)

13. What are the non-farming production activities taking place in your region? Make a short list.

Ans. (To be done by students. Answers will vary.)

14. What can be done so that more non-farm production activities can be started in villages?

Ans. The following ways can be helpful in increasing non-farm production activities in the village:

• The government should start employment generation programmes in villages�

• The villagers should be trained in various skills to generate employment for them�

• Banks should provide loans at low interest rates to facilitate villagers to start some businesses�

• Transportation facilities should be improved for smooth transportation of local produce to nearby cities�

• The government should set up small-scale industries in rural areas for employment of villagers�

Practice Questions

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following is the main activity of Palampur?

(a) Business

(b) Farming

(d) Manufacturing

2. Which of the following is NOT true about Palampur?

(a) It is an imaginary village�

(b) It has an all-weather road�

(d) Palampur has a fairly well-developed system of electricity�

3. Look at the following statements associated with Palampur village and choose the correct option.

(a) In Palampur, approximately one-third of the 450 families are landless�

(b) Mining is the main production activity in Palampur�

(d) In Palampur, there are no medical facilities�

4. Mr Sachdeva is planning to set up a factory. Which of these is the correct chronology of requirements?

I� Land II� Physical capital

III� Labour IV� Human capital

(a) II, I, IV, III (b) I, III, II, IV

5. Which of the following is NOT an example of fixed capital?

(a) Raw material (b) Building

6. Guintha is a unit for measuring:

(a) Produce (b) Loan

7. Kavita wants to increase the produce of her field. What is the most simple and common way to achieve it?

(a) Taking a loan

(b) Increasing irrigation

(d) Using HYV seeds

8. Read the statements and choose the correct answer.

Statement I: Labour being the most important factor in production, it would be ideal if new ways of farming are used instead of employing more labour�

Statement II: Labourers migrate to cities and towns in search of opportunities�

(a) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect�

(b) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct�

(d) Both statements I and II are correct�

9. Land is a natural resource. Scientific reports indicate that modern farming methods have overused this natural resource. Which problem is referred in this report?

(a) Land sustenance

(b) Crop rotation

(d) Land cultivation

10. Which of the following options is true regarding the use of chemical fertilisers?

I� They provide minerals which dissolve in water

II� The chemical fertilisers escape from the soil

III Chemical fertilisers pollute groundwater

IV� The consumption of chemical fertilisers is the highest in the state of Punjab, in India

(a) I, II and IV only

(b) I, III and IV only

(d) I, II, III and IV

11. Match the following.

Group I Group II

A� HYV seeds, tractor, fertilisers i� Non-farm activities

B Dairy, rice mill, shops ii Method of irrigation

C� Borrow money iii� Features of modern farming

D� Persian wheel iv� Small farmers

(a) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii (b) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv

12. Match the columns and choose the best option:

A Cow dung i Natural resource

B� Big farmers ii� Natural manure

C� Dairy iii� Surplus crop

D Land iv Non-farming activity

(a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

(b) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

(d) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i

13. Which of the following is NOT a non-farming activity?

(a) Dairy

(b) Fishery

(d) Transportation of goods

14. Which of the following is the main animal fodder in Palampur?

(a) Ragi and bajra (b) Rice and wheat

15. Which Indian state was the first to use modern farming methods?

(a) Punjab

(b) Haryana

(d) All of the above

16. Which of the following is a man-made resource?

(a) Land (b) Power (energy)

17. Which of the following is NOT true about the Green Revolution?

(a) The Green Revolution was associated with wheat and rice�

(b) Indian farmers were introduced to the Green Revolution in 1960s�

(d) HYV seeds increased the yields considerably�

18. Why does a farmer nowadays need more money than before?

(a) The size of his family has grown�

(b) The land has become infertile�

(d) He needs more capital for adopting modern farming methods�

Assertion–Reason Based Questions

In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A�

(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A

(d) A is false but R is true�

1. Assertion (A): Mr Gupta managed working capital for establishing a factory�

Reason (R): Money is required to make payments and for buying other necessary items�

2. Assertion (A): Palampur has a well-developed system of irrigation�

Reason (R): Multiple cropping is a way to grow more than one crop on the same piece of land in a year�

3. Assertion (A): The moneylenders of Palampur charge higher rate of interest on loan�

Reason (R): Farmers of Palampur never borrow money from moneylenders

4. Assertion (A): Majority of the villagers of India are engaged in services�

Reason (R): Transportation is a service�

Picture-Based Question

1. From the picture given above, identify the Kharif crop

(a) Wheat (b) Sugarcane

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30-40 words)

1. What is the objective of the chapter ‘The Story of Village Palampur”?

2. What activities are the people of Palampur engaged in?

3. What are the characteristics of Palampur?

4. What are the characteristics of the people living in Palampur?

5. How can we say that Palampur has a well-developed infrastructure?

6. What are the four requirements for the production of goods and services?

7. What is ‘physical capital’?

8. Explain ‘fixed capital’ with examples.

9. Explain ‘working capital’ with examples.

10. Which means of transport is used on the all-weather road of Palampur?

11. What are kharif crops?

12. What are rabi crops?

13. What is meant by multiple cropping?

14. What was the Green Revolution about?

15. Explain non-farming activities with examples.

16. How do small farmers of Palampur arrange for capital?

Wheat Bajra Sugarcane

Potato

Short Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. How does Palampur represent a true picture of a developed village in India?

2. Which capital is regarded as the most important among land, labour, physical capital, and human capital? Give reason(s) for your answer.

3. How is the land area in Palampur a constraint for farmers?

4. Why is it important to grow more than one crop in a year on the same piece of land?

5. Describe the dairy activity of Palampur.

6. Can we say that Palampur has a well-developed transport system? Give reasons for your answer.

7. How are the farmers of Palampur able to grow three crops in a year?

8. How did electricity change the irrigation situation of Palampur?

9. Which is the main production activity in the village? Mention one important change in way farming is practised? What is its side effect?

10. How was farming done till the mid-1960s?

11. How do the large farmers utilise surplus farm products to arrange for the capital needed for farming?

12. What are the harmful effects of the green revolution?

13. What is the difference between Fixed Capital and Physical Capital?

14. Describe the major economic activities of the rural people.

Long Answer Questions

(100-120 words)

1. What is the aim of production? Explain the four requirements for the production of goods and services.

2. Analyse the condition of farm labourers in the case study of Palampur village?

3. Describe the land distribution pattern in Palampur.

4. How do farmers manage capital for farming?

5. Analyse the non-farming activities of Palampur.

6. What do you mean by surplus? Also calculate the surplus in this case. Based on the calculation what do you think how farmers A and B will arrange for their capital?

Farmer Production Consumption Surplus

7. Why is it always the medium and large farmers who supply wheat and other farm products to the markets?

8. What is land? Mention some of the ways to sustain it.

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

Farm labourers come either from landless families or families cultivating small plots of land� Unlike farmers, farm labourers do not have a right over the crops grown on the land� Instead, they are paid wages by the farmer for whom they work Wages can be in cash or kind e�g� crop� Sometimes labourers get meals also� Wages vary widely from region to region, from crop to crop, from one farm activity to another (like sowing and harvesting)� There is also a wide variation in the duration of employment�

A farm labourer might be employed daily or for one particular farm activity like harvesting�

(a) From where do most farm labourers come?

(b) How are farm labourers paid for their work?

2. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

Farmers of Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh were the first to try out the modern farming methods in India� The farmers in these regions set up tube wells for irrigation and made use of HYV seeds, chemical fertilisers and pesticides in farming� Some of them bought farm machinery, like tractors and threshers, which made ploughing and harvesting faster� They were rewarded with a high yield of wheat� In Palampur, the yield of wheat grown from the traditional varieties was 1300 kg per hectare�

With HYV seeds, the yield went up to 3200 kg per hectare There was a large increase in the production of wheat� Farmers now had greater amounts of surplus wheat to sell in the markets�

(a) Which regions in India first adopted modern farming methods?

(b) What modern farming methods were used by farmers in these regions?

Answers

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. (b) Farming

2. (c) The upper caste families do not possess large lands�

3. (a) In Palampur, approximately one-third of the 450 families are landless�

4. (b) I, III, II, IV

5. (a) Raw material

6. (c) Land

7. (c) Multiple cropping

8. (b) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct�

9. (a) Land sustenance

10. (d) I, II, III and IV

11. (a) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii

12. (b) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

13. (c) Crop cultivation

14. (d) Jowar and bajra

15. (d) All of the above

16. (b) Power (energy)

17. (c) The Green Revolution was not associated with loss of soil fertility�

18. (d) He needs more capital for adopting modern farming methods�

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

1. (d) A is false but R is true�

2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A�

3. (c) A is true but R is false�

4. (d) A is false but R is true�

Picture-Based Question

1. (d) Bajra

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30–40 words)

1. The objective of ‘The Story of Village Palampur’ is to introduce basic economic concepts like production, land use, labour, capital, and non-farm activities through a fictional village setting, and understand these concepts through real-life examples of an Indian village

2. The people of Palampur are engaged in following activities:

• They are mainly engaged in farming

• Quite a sizable number of people are also engaged in some non-agricultural activities such as dairy, small-scale manufacturing, shop keeping and transportation�

3. Following are the characteristics:

• Palampur is a well-developed village with modern infrastructure like electricity, roads, and schools

• Agriculture is the primary occupation, with crops like wheat and rice

• It has a mix of large and small farms, and uses modern farming techniques and machinery

4. Characteristics of the people living in Palampur:

• Out of 450 families in Palampur, 80 are upper-caste families, own most of the land in the village�

• The Scheduled Castes comprise one-third of the population� They live in one corner of the village in small houses�

5. Palampur has a well-developed infrastructure:

• An all-weather road connects Palampur to Raiganj, a big village�

• Most of the houses in the village have electricity�

• There are two primary schools and one high school

• There is one government-run primary health centre

6. Four requirements for the production of goods and services:

• Land: It is a natural resource

• Labour: Labour are the people who do the work

• Physical Capital: It is the variety of inputs required at every stage during production�

• Human Capital: It puts together all factors�

7. • ‘Physical capital’ refers to tangible, man-made goods like machinery, buildings, tools, and equipment used in the production process to create other goods and services�

• Essentially, it is the physical assets a company owns that help produce something, like a farmer’s plough or a factory’s machines�

8. Fixed capital refers to the business capital invested in durable, long-lasting physical assets like machinery, buildings, and vehicles�

• They are used repeatedly in the production process over a long period of time

• Essentially, it’s an infrastructural need to run a business continuously�

9. • Working capital refers to the funds a business readily has available to cover its day-to-day operations�

• Money to purchase raw materials, pay wages, and other short-term expenses come under this category�

10. Different kinds of transport can be seen on the all-weather road in Palampur:

• bullock carts,

• tongas, bogeys (wooden carts drawn by buffalos),

• motor vehicles like motorcycles, jeeps, tractors and trucks�

11. • Crops which are sown in the rainy season and harvested in winter season are known as kharif crops�

• These crops are sown between June and September in India

• These crops need more water�

• Rice, maize, jowar, and bajra are the main kharif crops�

12. • Crops which are sown in winter season and harvested in summer season are called rabi crops�

• These crops need cold weather and less water than kharif crops�

• Rabi crops are sown between October and December�

• Wheat, barley, and mustard are rabi crops�

13. • To grow more than one crop on a piece of land during one year is known as multiple cropping

• It is the most common way of increasing production on a given piece of land

• It can help farmers increase their income and improve food security

14. The Green Revolution was a period of significant agricultural transformation in the 1960s� It includes:

• Introduction of high-yielding variety seeds (HYVs)�

• Increased use of fertilizers, pesticides, and irrigation�

• Improved crop production, especially wheat and rice

• Enhanced food security but also widened regional inequalities

15. Activities which are not associated with growing crops or raising animals are called non-farming activities�

• Dairy, small-scale manufacturing, construction, transportation, shopkeeping and community service come under nonfarming activities�

• Breeding of cows and buffalos for their milk comes under dairy activity�

16. To arrange capital

• Most of the small farmers of Palampur borrow money from large farmers, money lenders or the traders

• The farmers borrow money at a high rate of interest and are in great distress to repay the loan

Short Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. Palampur represents a true picture of a developed village:

• It has an all-weather road which connects it to a nearby big village�

• Many kinds of transport are visible on the allweather road�

• Most of the houses have electric connections�

• All the tube wells of the village are powered with electricity�

• It has two primary schools and one high school�

• It has a primary health centre run by the government

2. All the four factors are important for production� Each of them has their own value

• Human capital is considered to be the most important because it is the main asset for the success of any economic activity�

• It is the human capital which puts all the factors of production into use�

• If there is no human capital, then all the other factors will remain idle or unused�

3. The land area in Palampur a constraint for farmers for the following reasons:

• Land under cultivation is fixed�

• Since 1960 there has been no expansion in land area under cultivation, in Palampur�

• Some of the wastelands in the village have already been converted into cultivable land� Now, there is no scope to increase land for cultivation�

• There is no increase in production

4. It is important to grow more than one crop in a year on the same piece of land, for the following reasons:

• lt increases the fertility and productivity of the soil (land)�

• It is an efficient use of land resources�

• It allows farmers to produce a larger quantity of food from the same land

• It boosts farmers’ income�

• It helps generate employment opportunities almost throughout the year�

5. Dairy activity of Palampur:

• Dairy is a common and also a major nonfarming activity in Palampur�

• People feed their buffaloes on various kinds of grass and the jowar and bajra�

• The milk is sold in Raiganj, the nearby large village�

• Two traders from Sultanpur town have set up collection cum chilling centres at Raiganj from where the milk is transported to far away towns and cities�

6. We can say that Palampur has a well-developed transport system�

• There are different kinds of vehicles on the road connecting Palampur to Raiganj�

• Rickshaws, tongas, jeeps, tractors, trucks, and bullock carts are plying on the all-weather road

• These vehicles ferry people and goods from one place to another�

• Transport system has grown over the last several years and more people are getting involved in transport sector�

7. Farmers in Palampur grow three crops a year due to the following reasons:

• Use of irrigation systems like wells and tube wells, allowing them to access water throughout the year�

• They practice multiple cropping, planting different crops in different seasons

• The region’s favourable climate, high-yielding variety seeds, and modern farming techniques also contribute to year-round cultivation�

8. Electricity has changed the irrigation situation of Palampur in following ways:

• Palampur has a well-developed system of irrigation

• Farmers of Palampur are able to grow three crops in a year because of electrical facility; they don’t have to depend on rains�

• Electric-run tube wells could irrigate much larger areas of land more effectively�

• Seeing the benefits, farmers also started setting up private tube wells�

9. Farming is the main production activity in the village�

• An important change in the way farming is practised is the use of modern techniques like high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilizers, and pesticides�

• While this increases production, a major side effect is soil degradation and the overuse of groundwater, leading to environmental problems

10.

• Till the mid-1960s, farming in India was done using traditional methods�

• Farmers used simple tools, bullocks for ploughing, and seeds from previous harvests�

• Natural fertilizers like cow dung were used instead of chemical fertilizers�

• Irrigation was limited, and crop production was low and dependent mostly on rainfall, making agriculture less reliable and less productive�

11. • Large farmers sell the surplus farm products in the market after keeping a part for their own use

• The income earned from selling the surplus is then used to buy capital for the next season, such as seeds, fertilizers, and machinery�

• This helps them continue farming efficiently and invest in better techniques to increase future production

12. Harmful effects of the Green Revolution are:

• Since modern technology requires lot of water for irrigation, water table has started depleting

• loss of soil fertility due to the increased use of fertilizers

• Decrease in employment opportunities because while using modern technology most of the work is done by machine

• More cash is required for buying modern inputs

13. Fixed Capital Physical Capital

It includes long-term assets like tools, machines, and buildings used in production It includes both fixed capital and working capital (like raw materials and money)

These are not consumed in one use and can be used for many years

A part of physical capital (working capital) can be used in one use, Example Cash, raw materials

14. Main economic activities are:

• Farming is the main economic activity of the rural people�

• Along with farming, people are engaged in some other economic activities like dairy, small manufacturing, transport, shop-keeping, etc

• Besides, there are many farm labourers who work on the fields of medium and large farmers and are paid wages�

Long Answer Questions (100–120 words)

1. The aim of production is to produce goods and services� Following are the four requirements for the production of goods and services�

(a) Land: It is the first requirement� Other natural resources like water, minerals, forests, etc , are also used

(b) Labour: It is used for carrying out the production activities� Some work may be done through manual labour while others require skilled labour or educated people�

(c) Physical Capital: Items like machinery, buildings, tools, raw materials and money are physical capital� There are two types of physical capital: fixed capital and working capital�

(d) Human Capital: It is the knowledge and enterprise required to put together all the above inputs to produce output

2. Analysis of farm labourers in the case study of Palampur village:

• In Palampur village, the farm labourers form a large population, leading to intense competition for work� This resulted in wages often below the minimum wage set by the government

• They are paid wages by the farmer for whom they work� Wages can be in the form of cash or kind� Sometimes labourers get meals also�

• Most farm labourers are landless, belonging to marginalised communities like dalits, and their employment is highly seasonal, depending on agricultural activities, with limited job security and benefits�

• Farm labourers do not have a right over the crops grown on the land on which they work� Thus, farm labourers are in a difficult situation in this village�

3. Analysis of the land distribution pattern in Palampur:

• The distribution of land in Palampur is highly unequal

• A small number of large farmers own more than a majority of the land These large landowners often have more than 10 hectares of land and live comfortably�

• Most of the farmers are small or marginal farmers who own less than 2 hectares of land These small farmers struggle to meet their needs and often borrow money for farming�

• Around one-third of the families in Palampur are landless and do not own any land for cultivation Landless farmers work on others’ farms for daily wages or sharecropping�

• This unequal distribution limits opportunities for small and landless farmers and increases the gap between rich and poor

4. Farmers manage capital for farming in the following ways:

Small farmers:

• Most small farmers have to borrow money to arrange for the capital

• They borrow from large farmers, the village moneylenders or the traders who supply various inputs for cultivation�

• The farmers borrow loans at a very high rate of interest, causing great distress to repay the loan

Medium and large farmers:

• In contrast to the small farmers, it is easier for the medium and large farmers to arrange for the capital because they don’t have to borrow or take loan from anyone�

• The medium and large farmers have their own savings from surplus production� When they need money, they sell some part of their crops in the market and get capital for farming�

5. Besides farming there are some non-farming activities in which people of Palampur are engaged

• Dairy: Dairy is a common activity in many families Milk obtained from buffaloes is sold in Raiganj, a large village, nearby�

• Small-scale manufacturing: A small number of people are engaged in small-scale manufacturing, using simple production methods�

• Shopkeeping: A few people are also engaged in shopkeeping� Shops in the village sell rice, wheat, sugar, tea and items of daily needs� A few families whose houses are close to the bus stand have used a part of the space to open small shops to sell eatables�

• Transport: Some people run their own vehicles such as rickshaws, tongas, bullock carts, trucks, and jeeps

6. Surplus is the difference between the quantity of total production of the crop produced by the farmer and the quantity that he keeps for self-consumption� Farmer Production Consumption

Based on the calculations

Farmer A:

• His surplus production is 120� He earns money by selling this surplus crop in the market�

• He reinvests the money in buying inputs required for production�

• Hence, he has his own savings from farming which becomes his capital for further production�

Farmer B

• His surplus production is 0� Whatever he is producing is used for self-consumption�

• He is not left with any money to reinvest�

• Hence, he has to borrow from large farmers or village money lender to carry out further production The interest charged on these loans is very high�

7. Medium and large farmers in Palampur supply wheat and other farm products to the market because

• They own larger plots of land and can produce more crops than needed for their family consumption

• They also use modern methods of farming like high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilizers, irrigation, and machines which increase their production� This results in a surplus of crops after meeting their own needs�

• The surplus is then sold in the market, giving them income to reinvest in farming�

• In contrast, small farmers have limited land and resources� They grow crops mainly for their family’s needs, and rarely have anything left to sell�

• Hence, market supply mostly comes from medium and large farmers who can afford and manage higher production

8. Land refers to the natural resource used for agricultural and non-agricultural activities� It is a basic yet limited factor of production and cannot be increased� Proper care and management are needed to maintain its fertility and usefulness�

Ways to sustain land include:

• Using organic fertilizers like compost and manure instead of chemical ones�

• Practising crop rotation to maintain soil nutrients�

• Avoiding over-irrigation that can lead to waterlogging and soil salinity�

• Planting trees to prevent soil erosion and improve soil quality�

• Minimising the use of pesticides to reduce soil pollution�

• Promoting mixed cropping and sustainable farming methods

• Multiple cropping or growing more than one crop on a piece of land during the year should be practised� It is the most common way of increasing production on a given piece of land

• Modern farming methods should be used but in a judicious manner, in order to make land sustainable�

Sustainable practices ensure long-term productivity and protect the environment�

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1

(a) Most farm labourers come from landless families or families that own very small plots of land�

(b) Farm labourers are paid wages, which can be in cash, kind (such as crops), or even meals

Farm labourers do not own land� He works on another person's land for wages�

A farmer owns or rents land�

He does not have rights over the crops Farmer has rights over the crops grown

Farm labourers suffer a lot as they are not paid fairly� They are usually exploited by the employers or farmers�

Passage 2

Farmers have always a scope of earning more because they work hard on their land�

(a) Farmers of Punjab, Haryana, and Western Uttar Pradesh were the first to try out modern farming methods in India�

(b) They used tube wells for irrigation, HYV seeds, chemical fertilizers, pesticides, and farm machinery like tractors and threshers�

• The use of modern farming methods led to a significant increase in wheat production

• Farmers produced surplus crops, which they could sell in the market, improving their income and standard of living

SELF-ASSESSMENT

Time: 1 Hour

Section A

Choose and write the correct answer for each of the following. (1 × 8 = 8 Marks)

1. Which of the following is NOT a primary activity?

(a) Forestry (b) Fishery (c) Shopkeeping (d) Mining

2. Guintha is the standard unit for measuring:

(a) Produce (b) Loan (c) Land (d) Tax

3. Which of the following is the most economically feasible and common way of increasing production?

(a) Taking a loan

(b) Increasing irrigation

(d) Multiple cropping

4. The aim of production is to produce:

(a) Goods (b) Services

5. Which of these statements is true regarding the use of chemical fertilisers?

I. They provide minerals which are soluble in water.

II. The chemical fertilisers escape from the soil.

III. Chemical fertilisers pollute groundwater.

IV. The consumption of chemical fertilisers is highest in Punjab, in India.

(a) I, II, III and IV

(b) I, III and IV only

(d) II and IV only

6. Which of the following is NOT needed in modern methods of farming?

(a) Less land

(b) More capital

(d) A lot of cheap labour

Scan me for all answers.

Max. Marks: 40

7. Match the following

Column I

Column II

A. Land i. Abundant

B. Labour ii. Fixed and scarce

C. Capital iii. Who puts together all the factors of production

D. Human resource/ enterprise iv. Physical capital and working capital

(a) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

(b) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

(d) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i

8. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Most of the upper caste families in Palampur live in large houses.

Reason (R): Upper caste families in Palampur own the majority of land.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Section B

Answer the following questions.

9. What are the different types of production activities in Palampur? In which activity are more people engaged? (2 marks)

10. Tejpal Singh agrees to give Savita the loan at an interest rate of 24% for four months which is a very high interest rate. Savita also agreed to work on his field as a farm labourer during the harvest season for ₹35 per day. Why did Savita agree to such tough conditions despite the challenges she anticipates? (3 marks)

11. What are the ways of increasing the production with the same fixed land? (3 marks)

12. How did electricity impact agriculture in Palampur? (3 marks)

13. What is meant by multiple cropping? Explain with an example. (3 marks)

14. What is the difference between multiple cropping and modern farming methods? (3 marks)

15. How did Kishora, a farm labourer bring about a change in his living condition? (5 marks)

16. ‘The Green Revolution was a boon, but at the same time it had some negative aspects also.’ Comment on the statement. (5 marks)

17. Land is a natural resource and we need to be careful in its utilisation. Explain the ways for the sustenance of land. (5 marks)

2 People as a Resource

The chapter People as Resource explains how the population of a country can be considered an asset rather than a burden. When people are educated, skilled, and healthy, they form what is known as human capital, which plays a vital role in the economic development of a nation. Investment in education, training, and healthcare improves the productivity of individuals, enabling them to contribute effectively to the economy. The chapter shows how access to education and health facilities can lead to a better future. It also categorises economic activities into primary, secondary, and tertiary sectors, while highlighting the role and challenges faced by women in the workforce. Furthermore, it addresses the problem of unemployment and its impact on individuals and society. By viewing people as a valuable resource, the chapter emphasises the importance of investing in human development to achieve long-term growth and prosperity.

People as a Resource

Population as an Asset

Human Capital Formation

Education: Improves knowledge and opens better job opportunities.

Health: Increases a person’s ability to work and be productive.

Types of Activities

Economic Activities: Paid work

Non-Economic Activities: For self-consumption Cooking for family

Primary Activities Agriculture, Fishing, Forestry

Secondary Activities Manufacturing, Construction Skills: Help people do work efficiently and earn better income

Tertiary Activities Banking, Transport

Problems

Inequality Low paid work for women

Can’t find jobs matching their qualifications

Disguised Unemployment More people work than needed Seasonal Unemployment People have work only during certain seasons

• Better Education and Health Facilities

• Skill Development

Key Terms and Definitions

Human Resource: Human resources refer to individuals who contribute to economic productivity through their skills, knowledge, and abilities, serving as key assets for economic development.

Human Capital: Human capital is defined as the knowledge, skills, and experience possessed by individuals, viewed in terms of their value or cost to an organization or country.

Investment in Human Capital: Investment in human capital encompasses expenditures made for education and training aimed at enhancing individuals’ skills and productivity over time.

Economic Activities: Economic activities involve actions that generate income through the production and consumption of goods and services, categorized into primary, secondary, and tertiary sectors.

Educational Growth: The term refers to the expansion and improvement of educational institutions and their capacity to cater to increasing student populations in India.

Disguised Unemployment: Disguised unemployment describes a situation where individuals appear to be employed but are not contributing adequately to the work, masking true labor market conditions.

Market Activities: Market activities refer to economic actions that generate profit through the sale of goods and services, characterized by remuneration for production efforts.

Non-Market Activities: Non-market activities include household chores and caregiving roles that do not result in direct income generation but have significant social value.

Primary Sector: The primary sector encompasses industries involved in the extraction of natural resources, such as agriculture, forestry, and fishing.

Secondary Sector: The secondary sector includes manufacturing and industrial processes that transform raw materials from the primary sector into finished goods.

Tertiary Sector: The tertiary sector provides various services such as trade, healthcare, and education, playing crucial roles in the economy by supporting productivity and quality of life.

Economic Survey: An Economic Survey is an annual document that reviews the state of the economy and outlines the government’s policy priorities and frameworks.

Five-Year Plans: Five-Year Plans are comprehensive directives launched every five years, outlining national development objectives and strategies for economic improvement.

Health and Productivity: Health and productivity encompass the overall wellness of individuals, which significantly impacts their efficiency and effectiveness in the workplace and societal roles.

Literacy Rates: Literacy rates represent the percentage of individuals who can read and write, serving as a critical indicator of educational attainment and societal progress.

NCERT Zone

Intext Questions

1. Can you explain how a doctor, teacher, engineer and a tailor are an asset to the economy?

Ans. • A doctor contributes to the economy by ensuring a healthy workforce, reducing healthcare costs, and increasing productivity.

• A teacher imparts knowledge and skills, enhancing human capital formation.

• An engineer drives innovation and infrastructure development, crucial for economic growth.

• A tailor provides clothing, an essential need, adding to the manufacturing sector and generating employment.

Together, these professions contribute diversely to economic prosperity and development

2. Has the literacy rates of the population increased since 1951?

Ans. Yes, the literacy rates of the population have increased significantly since 1951.

• In 1951, the literacy rate was only 18%, but it had risen to 85% by 2018.

• This increase reflects the efforts made in expanding educational opportunities and emphasizing the importance of literacy in contributing to the nation’s development.

3. Why literacy rate is high among the males of India?

Ans. The literacy rate is higher among males in India because:

• Historical and societal norms prioritized male education over female education.

• Traditional roles often limited women’s access to education, resulting in lower literacy rates.

• Over time, these societal biases have gradually diminished, leading to increased educational opportunities for females, though disparities still exist.

4. Why are women less educated than men?

Ans. Women are less educated than men because of the following reasons:

• Historical socio-cultural practices favoured male education

• Limited access to schools, early marriages, and financial constraints on families prioritizing either male education or immediate economic needs.

• These factors resulted in lower female literacy rates, although efforts continue to bridge this educational gap.

5. How would you calculate literacy rate in India?

Ans. • The literacy rate in India is calculated by the proportion of the literate population aged seven years and above to the total population of the same age group.

• It is expressed as a percentage and reflects the number of people who can read and write with understanding among every hundred individuals.

6. What is your projection about India’s literacy rate in 2025?

Ans. • Based on the ongoing educational initiatives, efforts to reduce dropout rates, and policies like Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, India’s literacy rate is expected to continue rising.

• While exact projections are subject to various socio-economic factors, it is reasonable to expect a further increase from the 85% literacy rate recorded in 2018 towards a higher level by 2025.

7. Is the increase in the number of colleges adequate to admit the increasing number of students?

Ans. • The increase in the number of colleges is significant, but whether it is adequate depends on the growing demand for higher education, regional disparities, and the quality of education provided.

• While capacity has expanded, challenges remain in ensuring equitable access, improving infrastructure, and maintaining teaching standards to meet the needs of all aspiring students.

8. Do you think we should have more number of universities?

Ans. • Yes, increasing the number of universities can help cater to the growing demand for higher education, enhance access in underrepresented regions, and offer diverse academic programs.

• This expansion should be balanced with a focus on quality, faculty development, and infrastructure to ensure that new universities meet global educational standards and contribute effectively to human capital formation.

9. Do you think the increase in the number of doctors and nurses is adequate for India? If not, why?

Ans. The increase in doctors and nurses appears significant, yet it may still be inadequate given India’s large and diverse population.

• There are regional disparities and a need for more healthcare professionals in rural and underserved areas.

• To achieve comprehensive healthcare access, further investments in training and equitable distribution are necessary.

10. What other facilities would you like to provide in a hospital?

Ans. In addition to basic medical services, hospitals should provide facilities like

• Advanced diagnostic labs

• Emergency care

• Specialized departments (e.g., cardiology, neurology)

• Telemedicine

• Rehabilitation centers, mental health services

• Patient education programs

Having a robust infrastructure for these services ensures comprehensive patient care and improved health outcomes.

NCERT Exercises

1. What do you understand by ‘people as a resource’?

Ans. ’People as a resource’ refers to viewing a country’s population in terms of their skills, abilities, and contributions to economic production. When individuals are educated and healthy, they form human capital, which can greatly enhance national income and drive overall economic growth.

2. How is human resource different from other resources like land and physical capital?

Ans. Human resources are unique because:

• They possess the ability to utilize and enhance other resources, like land and physical capital.

• Humans bring creativity, innovation, and efficiency, turning resources into valuable goods and services.

• Unlike static natural and physical assets, human skills can improve and adapt over time with investment in education and health.

3. What is the role of education in human capital formation?

Ans. Education plays a critical role in human capital formation

• It equips individuals with knowledge, skills, and values.

• It opens up opportunities for better job prospects and higher earnings, leading to increased productivity.

• Education also contributes to societal growth, enhancing national income and cultural richness, and improving governance through an informed citizen.

4. What is the role of health in human capital formation?

Ans. Health is crucial in human capital formation

• It enhances a person’s productivity and capacity to work efficiently.

• Healthy individuals contribute more meaningfully to the economy by maximizing their output.

• A focus on healthcare improves life expectancy and quality of life, making individuals more valuable as a resource in both personal and economic spheres.

5. What part does health play in the individual’s working life?

Ans. Health significantly impacts an individual’s working life

• It affects energy, efficiency, and productivity levels.

• A healthy person can perform tasks more effectively, leading to higher income potential and job satisfaction.

• Poor health may result in absenteeism, decreased work capacity, and increased medical costs, adversely affecting both individual and organizational outputs.

6. What are the various activities undertaken in the primary sector, secondary sector and tertiary sector?

Ans. • The primary sector involves activities like agriculture, forestry, fishing, mining, and quarrying.

• The secondary sector includes manufacturing and construction.

• The tertiary sector encompasses services such as trade, transport, communication, banking, education, health, tourism, and insurance.

These sectors collectively contribute to the production of goods and services and national income.

7. What is the difference between economic activities and non-economic activities?

Ans.

Economic Activities

It includes any work done for monetary compensation. It involves production of goods and services

Example: Doctor, Teacher, Farming

They contribute to national income.

Non-Economic Activities

These are performed for personal satisfaction or self-consumption and do not involve any monetary compensation.

Example: household chores, helping kids in their homework

These activities do not add directly to the national economy.

8. Why are women employed in low paid work?

Ans. Women often receive lower pay due to the following reasons:

• Limited access to education and skills, societal norms, and bias in opportunities favoring men.

• Many women work in unregulated sectors with job insecurity and lack of legal protection.

• This economic disadvantage reflects gender inequalities persistent in many parts of society.

9. How will you explain the term unemployment?

Ans.

• Unemployment occurs when individuals capable and willing to work cannot find suitable jobs at prevailing wage rates.

• It indicates underutilization of human resources, often causing economic stress.

• Types of unemployment in India include seasonal, disguised, and educated unemployment, affecting both rural and urban areas differently.

10. What is the difference between disguised unemployment and seasonal unemployment?

Ans. Disguised Unemployment Seasonal Unemployment

It occurs when too many people are engaged in an activity

Seasonal unemployment refers to a temporary time period where the number of available employment opportunities are less.

They appear to be employed but their contribution is zero, if they are removed the productivity will not fall. People appear to be unemployed or jobless. It is due to lack of work.

Example: In agricultural field more than required workers are working.

Example: In agriculture, tourism (hotels and resorts), production activities take place only in some season.

11. Why is educated unemployed, a peculiar problem of India?

Ans. Educated unemployment is peculiar in India due to

• A mismatch between education outcomes and job market requirements.

• Many graduates lack practical skills demanded by employers, causing educated individuals to be jobless or employed in unskilled jobs.

• This situation reflects issues in vocational and higher education system alignment with industry needs.

12. In which field do you think India can build the maximum employment opportunity?

Ans. • India can maximize employment opportunities in the service sector, especially in IT, biotechnology, and other emerging technologies, which are rapidly growing.

• Rural development through skill enhancement and infrastructure can also create jobs in agriculture allied sectors.

• Manufacturing with a focus on ‘Make in India’ could further bolster employment.

13. Can you suggest some measures in the education system to mitigate the problem of the educated unemployed?

Ans. To mitigate educated unemployment:

• The education system should align curricula with industry needs, enhance vocational training, and emphasize practical skills and entrepreneurship.

• Encouraging industry-academia partnerships and improving career counseling services can better prepare students for the job market and reduce the mismatch between skills and employment opportunities.

14. Can you imagine some village which initially had no job opportunities but later came up with many?

Ans. • A village that initially lacked jobs transformed by investing in education and skill development, can create diverse employment opportunities.

• As the human capital improves, activities like agro-based industries, handicrafts, and technology-driven services can evolve, providing jobs and promoting economic prosperity.

15. Which capital would you consider the best — land, labour, physical capital and human capital? Why?

Ans. Human capital is considered the best because

• It drives innovation, utilizes physical resources efficiently, and adapts to changing economic needs.

• Unlike land or physical capital, human resources continually improve through education and healthcare, contributing directly to productivity and economic advancements, thereby fostering enduring growth and development.

Practice Questions

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. What is the main cause of frictional unemployment?

(a) Technological changes in industries

(b) People transitioning between jobs

(d) Lack of skills matching job requirements

2. A factory manufacturing cars belongs to which sector of the economy?

(a) Tertiary Sector (b) Quaternary Sector

3. Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the role of the tertiary sector in the economy?

(a) A factory worker assembling electronics

(b) A teacher providing online classes

(d) A farmer harvesting wheat

4. Which sector is most affected by the rapid advancement of information technology?

(a) Secondary Sector (b) Quaternary Sector

5. A fisherman using modern techniques to improve his catch is primarily engaged in which sector?

(a) Tertiary Sector

(b) Informal Sector

(d) Primary Sector

6. Why is the tertiary sector known as the service sector?

(a) It is primarily involved in construction activities.

(b) It produces raw materials.

(d) It provides support like banking, education, and communication.

7. In what way does skill development contribute to a country’s economy?

(a) By importing skilled workers

(b) By enhancing productivity and innovation

(d) By providing theoretical knowledge

8. Which of the following sectors benefits most from investment in education and skill development?

(a) Quaternary sector

(b) Secondary sector

(d) Tertiary sector

9. What might be a reason for governments to invest heavily in healthcare?

(a) To improve the overall productivity of the workforce

(b) To decrease the dependency ratio

(d) To increase tax revenue

10. How does the investment in human capital positively affect economic growth?

(a) By discouraging international cooperation

(b) By enhancing the quality and efficiency of the workforce

(d) By merely expanding the labour force

11. Which statement is true about the impact of skill development on unemployment?

(a) Skill development has no effect on the economy.

(b) Skill development increases the demand for foreign labour.

(d) Skill development reduces unemployment by creating more employable individuals.

12. In what way can population be considered an asset rather than a liability?

(a) Reduction of educational facilities

(b) Migration to cities

(d) Increase in population size

13. Which factor is essential for transforming human resources into human capital?

(a) Urbanization

(b) Availability of natural resources.

(d) Reduction in population

14. How does education impact the quality of a population?

(a) It increases only age.

(b) It has no effect on health.

(d) It increases unemployment rates.

15. Why are higher education and skill training often emphasized for economic growth?

(a) They reduce employment opportunities.

(b) They increase personal leisure time.

(d) They increase population size.

16. Which type of unemployment is most prevalent when agricultural workers find themselves without work during certain months, particularly in rural areas?

(a) Structural unemployment

(b) Disguised unemployment

(d) Seasonal unemployment

17. What type of unemployment can lead to a high number of people working less effectively than if the same task were done by fewer workers?

(a) Cyclical unemployment

(b) Disguised unemployment

(d) Seasonal unemployment

18. Which type of unemployment primarily affects those with higher education in urban areas?

(a) Educated unemployment

(b) Underemployment

(d) Structural unemployment

19. Which government measure is primarily aimed at reducing unemployment by increasing selfemployment opportunities in rural areas?

(a) Public Distribution System (PDS)

(b) Midday Meal Scheme

(d) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)

20. Match the following based on economic activities and influenced sectors.

Column I

Column II

A. Unemployment Cause i. Agriculture, fishing

B. Secondary Activity ii. Overpopulation

C. Tertiary Activity iii. Manufacturing processes

D. Primary Activity iv. Basic healthcare access

(a) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

(b) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii

(d) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

21. Match the following.

Column I

Column II

A. Seasonal Unemployment i. Occurs due to changes in the industry

B. Frictional Unemployment ii. Occurs due to changing economic cycles

C. Cyclical Unemployment iii. Occurs during off-peak seasons

D. Structural Unemployment iv. Occurs during a transition between jobs

(a) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

(b) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii

(d) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii

22. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: Investment in education results in higher productivity and innovation.

Statement II: Skills development is essential solely for manual jobs.

Statement III: Health investment leads to reduction in absenteeism.

Statement IV: Education has no effect on a person’s economic choices.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and III are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion (A): The tertiary sector is crucial for a nation’s development.

Reason (R): It involves activities that are essential for the functioning of the economy, such as banking and education.

2. Assertion (A): The primary sector has limited influence on modern economies.

Reason (R): Primary sector activities are least affected by technological advances compared to other sectors.

3. Assertion (A): Skill development is less crucial in today’s technological world.

Reason (R): Skill development is fundamental to adapting to and utilizing new technologies, which are central to modern economies.

4. Assertion (A): Population control is essential for economic stability in developing countries.

Reason (R): Literacy and health advancements do not affect population management.

5. Assertion (A): Unemployment leads to a wastage of manpower resources.

Reason (R): Economic growth is unaffected by the level of unemployment in a country.

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30-40 words)

1. What distinguishes the tertiary sector from the primary sector?

2. Why is the manufacturing industry crucial for economic growth?

3. Define human capital formation.

4. What is the primary benefit of investing in education?

5. List one key factor of economic prosperity associated with health investment.

6. Why is skill development essential in today’s workforce?

7. What is the primary aim of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan?

8. Explain the term ‘life expectancy’.

9. State one consequence of unemployment on national productivity.

10. Define the term ‘cyclical unemployment’.

11. What distinguishes seasonal unemployment from disguised unemployment?

12. State one measure the government has employed to combat urban unemployment.

13. What is the effect of long-term unemployment on individuals?

14. Why is educated unemployment considered a peculiar problem in India?

Short Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. Explain the role of the tertiary sector in enhancing the quality of life in modern society.

2. How does the primary sector form the foundation for the other economic sectors? Provide examples.

3. Identify the main challenges faced by the tertiary sector in a developing country.

4. How can investing in human capital lead to economic prosperity for a nation? Give examples to support your answer.

5. Discuss the significance of health investment in enhancing a nation’s human capital and economic growth.

6. Explain how skill development transforms the workforce and contributes to economic growth.

7. Evaluate the role of education and training in reducing unemployment.

8. Explain the concept of disguised unemployment and its impact on the economy. Why is it more prevalent in developing countries?

9. Evaluate the statement: “Higher education is the key to a healthier and more productive population.” Support your answer with examples.

10. What is disguised unemployment, and how does it affect the economy? Provide one example.

11. Discuss the impact of seasonal unemployment on agricultural workers and their families.

12. Explain the concept of cyclical unemployment and its primary cause.

13. Evaluate the effectiveness of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) in addressing rural unemployment.

14. Identify and discuss two major causes of educated unemployment in urban areas.

15. How does unemployment affect the socio-economic status of families in India? Discuss two impacts.

Long Answer Questions (100-120 words)

1. Describe the impact of human resource development on national economy with emphasis on investment in education and health.

2. Critically evaluate the importance of vocational training in bridging the skill gap in the workforce.

3. Examine the link between health and productivity, emphasizing nations with notable health investments.

4. Discuss how education contributes to human capital formation and facilitates societal growth.

5. Critically evaluate the role of government policies in reducing unemployment in rural areas. Discuss the challenges and suggest improvements.

6. “Unemployment leads to a depressed economy.” Justify the statement with arguments. OR

What are the socio-economic consequences of unemployment in a developing country like India? Discuss with a focus on personal, community, and national levels.

7. Discuss the causes and effects of urban unemployment in India. How do the educated unemployed cope with this situation? Provide examples where applicable.

8. Why are people considered the most valuable resource a country possesses?

9. How can an educated woman improve her family’s condition?

10. Mention any five steps which have been taken by the government to promote education.

11. How can population be converted into human capital?

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

Vilas was an eleven-year-old boy residing in the same village as Sakal. Vilas’s father Mahesh was a fisherman. His father passed away when he was only two years old. His mother Geeta sold fish to earn money to feed the family. Vilas became a patient of arthritis. His mother could not afford to take him to the doctor. He could not go to school either. He was not interested in studies. He helped his mother in cooking and also looked after his younger brother Mohan. After some time his mother fell sick and there was no one to look after her. There was no one in the family to support them. Vilas, too, was forced to sell fish in the same village. He, like his mother earned only a meagre income.

(a) What economic challenges did Vilas face in his early life?

(b) Discuss the social and economic factors that influenced Vilas’s education and health.

(c) Compare and contrast the lives of Vilas and Sakal. How did their circumstances differ, and what impact did this have on their economic and health outcomes?

2. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

In a small village named Rampur, most of the people are engaged in farming. However, due to lack of education and proper training, the productivity of farms is low. Some young people from the village moved to the nearby town, where they received skill training in modern

farming techniques and small industries. After a few years, they returned to Rampur and started training other villagers. Slowly, farm productivity improved, and new small businesses started. As a result, the income levels of the villagers rose, and many children were now attending school regularly.

(a) What problem was Rampur village facing initially?

(b) How did education and skill training help the villagers?

Answers

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. (b) People transitioning between jobs

2. (c) Secondary Sector

3. (b) A teacher providing online classes

4. (c) Tertiary Sector

5. (d) Primary Sector

6. (d) It provides support like banking, education, and communication.

7. (b) By enhancing productivity and innovation

8. (d) Tertiary sector

9. (a) To improve the overall productivity of the workforce

10. (b) By enhancing the quality and efficiency of the workforce

11. (d) Skill development reduces unemployment by creating more employable individuals

12. (c) Investment in human capital

13. (c) Investment in education and health

14. (c) It increases literacy and skill formation.

15. (c) They lead to higher productivity and incomes.

16. (d) Seasonal unemployment

17. (b) Disguised unemployment

18. (a) Educated unemployment

19. (d) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)

20. (a) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

21. (a) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

22. (d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

1. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

2. (c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

3. (d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

4. (c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

5. (c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30-40 words)

1. • The tertiary sector is predominantly serviceoriented, offering intangible products like healthcare and education whereas the primary sector focuses on extracting natural resources, like agriculture and mining.

• Tertiary sector enhances quality of life, while output of primary sector forms the economic base.

2. • Manufacturing adds value to raw materials, fostering economic development.

• It drives innovation and technological advancement, creating new products and processes.

• The industry provides significant employment opportunities, supporting livelihoods.

• It is essential for export growth, contributing to national income and stability.

3. • Human capital formation is the process of increasing the knowledge, skills, and capacities of individuals.

• It involves education, training, and health enhancements.

• This development transforms individuals into valuable economic contributors.

• Such investments lead to national productivity and economic growth.

4. • The primary benefit of investing in education is enhancing an individual’s knowledge and skills.

• This leads to increased productivity and higher earning potential.

• Education fosters innovation and economic growth.

• It transforms individuals into more valuable contributors to the economy.

5. • A key factor of economic prosperity from health investment is increased workforce productivity.

• Healthy individuals contribute more effectively and efficiently.

• Such investments reduce healthcare costs and absenteeism.

• They lead to sustainable economic growth and national prosperity.

6. Skill development is essential because

• It equips individuals with necessary competencies for modern job demands.

• It supports adaptability to technological advancements.

• Skill development enhances employability and reduces unemployment.

• It contributes to higher productivity and national economic growth.

7. The primary aim of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan is • To achieve universalization of elementary education.

• It seeks to ensure that all children aged 6 to 14 years have access to free and compulsory education.

8. Life expectancy is the statistical measure of the average time an individual is expected to live. Higher life expectancy indicates better health and living conditions. It reflects the quality of healthcare and societal welfare present.

9. • Unemployment leads to a waste of human resources, decreasing national productivity.

• It causes economic stagnation as fewer people are employed in productive roles.

• Unemployment also results in reduced consumer spending, impacting economic growth.

10. Cyclical unemployment is linked to the economic cycles of growth and recession. As businesses reduce output, they lay off workers, leading to unemployment. This type of unemployment rises during a recession and falls when the economy recovers.

11. • Seasonal unemployment occurs during specific seasons or months when there is no demand for workers whereas Disguised unemployment involves workers who are employed but in excess of what is necessary.

• Seasonal unemployment is due to a lack of work, while disguised unemployment is a lack of productivity.

12. To combat urban unemployment:

• The government has implemented skill development programs.

• These programs aim to enhance the employability of urban youth by providing vocational training.

• They are designed to bridge the skill gap and increase job opportunities for the urban unemployed.

13. • Long-term unemployment can lead to a decline in skills and employability.

• It may cause psychological stress, leading to reduced mental health

• Individuals may face social isolation

• Economic hardships may increase, affecting their families and living standards.

14. Educated unemployment is peculiar in India due to the following reasons:

• It shows the mismatch between the education system and job market requirements.

• Many graduates lack necessary skills demanded by industries, leading to joblessness.

• A rapidly growing population contributes to increased competition for limited jobs.

Short Answer Questions (50-60

words)

1. The tertiary sector significantly influences the quality of life in society.

• It provides essential services such as healthcare, education, and banking, which are crucial for lifestyle improvement.

• Communication and transportation services support connectivity and accessibility.

• Entertainment and leisure services add to personal well-being and social satisfaction.

• Advanced IT and telecommunication services facilitate innovative solutions enhancing productivity and convenience.

2. The primary sector is the cornerstone of any economy.

• It provides raw materials necessary for the secondary sector, such as crops for food industry and minerals for manufacturing.

• Forestry contributes timber to construction and paper industries.

• Fishing and agriculture feed both the population and industries, ensuring food security and input supply.

• As a base for economic activities, it supports employment, especially in rural areas.

3. The tertiary sector in developing nations faces several challenges.

• Inadequate infrastructure limits service delivery, affecting growth.

• Limited access to advanced technology results in inefficiencies and higher costs.

• Skilled labor shortages can lead to poor service quality and unmet demand.

• Fragmented regulatory frameworks can create barriers for sectoral expansion.

• Political instability and economic fluctuations can also impact service sector stability.

4. Investing in human capital is a catalyst for economic prosperity.

• It enhances workforce productivity through improved skills and innovation.

• Countries like Japan prove this by investing in education and health, leading to significant economic growth.

• Such investments foster technological advancements and efficient use of resources.

• A healthier, educated population contributes positively to national output and GDP.

• Human capital attracts investments, boosts economic services, and fosters global competitiveness.

5. Health investment is crucial for enhancing human capital and economic growth.

• A healthy workforce is more productive and efficient, reducing absenteeism and increasing output.

• Countries prioritizing health investments, like Singapore, enjoy higher economic performance.

• Health improvements lead to increased life expectancy, impacting workforce longevity and capability.

• Healthcare access promotes social well-being and stability in the workforce.

• Ultimately, robust health infrastructure supports sustainable economic growth and prosperity.

6. Skill development plays a pivotal role in transforming the workforce.

• It equips individuals with necessary skills, increasing employability and productivity.

• Countries focusing on skill development, like Germany, witness robust industrial growth and innovation.

• Skilled workers adapt better to technological advancements, keeping the economy competitive.

• Such development reduces unemployment rates by creating more job-ready personnel.

• Ultimately, a skilled workforce enhances economic output and national prosperity.

7. Education and training play vital roles in reducing unemployment.

• They enhance skill sets, tailoring individuals for specific job markets.

• Education increases adaptability, allowing shifts from declining to growing sectors.

• Training programs target gaps in the workforce, ensuring a ready supply of skilled labour.

• Countries investing in education and training, such as Sweden, report lower unemployment rates.

• This investment stimulates job creation and economic stability.

8. Disguised unemployment is common in developing nations.

• In disguised unemployment, more people are employed than necessary, reducing productivity of additional workers who are working.

• It often occurs in agriculture, where too many family members work on plots.

• Such unemployment obscures true labor availability, limiting economic potential.

• It is prevalent in developing countries due to lack of formal employment opportunities.

9. Higher education’s role is pivotal in health and productivity.

• Higher education improves awareness about health, nutrition, and hygiene, leading to better lifestyle choices.

• Educated individuals often access better jobs, boosting productivity. For example, doctors and engineers contribute directly to societal development.

• Countries like Japan invest in education and enjoy high health standards and economic growth.

• Thus, higher education plays a key role in creating a healthier, more productive population.

10. Disguised unemployment refers to a situation where more people are engaged in work than necessary, particularly in agriculture.

• Disguised unemployment is common in rural areas, especially in agriculture, where family members all work on the land, even if not all are needed.

• It does not contribute to overall productivity, leading to inefficiency.

• An example is a farm needing only 5 workers but employing 8, where the extra 3 do not add to productivity.

11. Seasonal unemployment occurs when workers lose jobs at certain times of the year.

• It affects agricultural workers who cannot find work during non-harvest months.

• Families face financial instability, relying on limited savings or alternative livelihoods.

• It leads to increased debt, as families may borrow to meet daily needs during off-seasons.

• It causes stress and uncertainty over household income, affecting family well-being.

12. Cyclical unemployment is linked to economic downturns.

• It occurs when there is a decrease in overall demand for goods and services.

• This leads to reduced production and lower demand for labor.

• The primary cause is economic recession when consumer spending and business investments decline.

• It resolves as the economy recovers and demand increases, restoring jobs.

13. MGNREGA aims to provide guaranteed employment in rural areas.

• It has improved livelihood security for rural households through 100 days of wage employment.

• It has enhanced infrastructure in rural areas by creating durable assets.

• It supports women empowerment by encouraging female participation in workforce.

• However, challenges like corruption and delayed wage payments hinder its effectiveness.

14. Educated unemployment in urban areas is rising due to multiple factors.

• One major cause is a mismatch between education and industry requirements, leading to skill gaps.

• Another cause is the oversupply of graduates in certain fields, leading to job scarcity.

• These issues result in educated youth unable to find suitable jobs.

• The lack of practical skills and experience further exacerbates the problem.

15. Unemployment has profound effects on families’ socio-economic conditions.

• It reduces household income, affecting the ability to afford basic needs like food, education, and healthcare.

• It increases stress and psychological burdens, leading to lower life satisfaction and potential social issues.

• Children’s education often suffers due to inability to pay school fees.

• Social status may decline, as unemployed individuals are often viewed negatively.

Long Answer Questions (100-120

words)

1. Human resource development profoundly impacts a nation’s economy.

• When people are healthy, educated, and skilled, they can work more efficiently and contribute to higher productivity and economic growth.

• Investment in education provides individuals with knowledge and skills needed for various jobs, leading to better employment opportunities and innovation.

• Similarly, investment in health ensures that people remain fit to work and live longer, productive lives.

• A nation with educated and healthy citizens can achieve faster development and compete better in the global market.

• Without proper investment in human resources, even natural and physical resources cannot be used effectively.

• Thus, education and health are critical for building a strong workforce and driving sustainable growth of the economy.

2. Vocational training is crucial for bridging workforce skill gaps.

• In many countries, including India, a major reason for unemployment is the mismatch between education and industry requirements. Vocational training helps overcome this by offering hands-on experience and improving employability.

• It provides practical skills needed for specific jobs like carpentry, electrical work, healthcare, and IT, making them job-ready.

• It also supports economic growth by creating a skilled work force essential for industrial and service sectors.

• However, challenges like lack of quality training centres and awareness still exist.

• Therefore, strengthening vocational education alongside formal schooling is important to create a more skilled, efficient, and self-reliant workforce for the nation’s development.

3. The link between health and productivity is undeniable. They are closely linked.

• Healthy population can work harder, longer, and more efficiently, boosting national income and development.

• Good health reduces absenteeism and increases focus and energy at work.

• Nations that invest heavily in healthcare, like Japan and Switzerland, show higher productivity and longer life expectancy.

• In these countries, strong healthcare systems ensure early treatment, prevention of diseases, and overall well-being, leading to a skilled and active workforce.

• On the other hand, poor health facilities can limit economic growth due to frequent illnesses and low work output.

• Thus, investment in health is not just a social goal but an economic necessity, helping nations achieve sustainable development and a higher standard of living for their people.

4. Education plays a pivotal role in forming human capital and fostering societal growth.

• It equips individuals with knowledge, skills, and values needed for productive work.

• An educated person can contribute more effectively to the economy through better job performance, innovation, and decision-making.

• Education also improves awareness, communication, and problem-solving abilities, leading to higher income and better quality of life.

• Education promotes societal well-being by promoting social harmony, gender equality, and responsible citizenship.

• Countries prioritizing education witness higher GDP and economic stability.

• Education fosters cultural development and national cohesion, vital for societal progress.

• Education helps reduce poverty, improve health, and encourage democratic participation.

• Therefore, education is a key factor in building a skilled, informed, and responsible population, which is essential for long-term societal growth and progress.

5. Government policies are instrumental in mitigating rural unemployment by creating job.

• Schemes like MGNREGA, which guarantees 100 days of wage employment provide employment during off-peak agricultural seasons.

• These policies support rural development, improve infrastructure, and reduce poverty.

• Vocational training enhances skill sets, making rural workers more employable

However, there are challenges such as:

• Delayed payments, corruption, and lack of awareness.

• Many rural workers still depend on seasonal farming and lack access to skill training.

To improve the situation,

• The government should strengthen monitoring systems, ensure timely wages, and expand skill development programs.

• Promoting small-scale industries, rural entrepreneurship, and better connectivity can also help.

• Overall, while government policies are essential in tackling rural unemployment, their success depends on proper implementation, awareness, and long-term planning for sustainable livelihood generation.

6. Unemployment causes serious problems in the economy and society.

• It leads to the wastage of human resources, as skilled and willing individuals become a burden instead of being productive. This creates hopelessness, especially among the youth.

• Unemployment is a major cause of poverty, as families struggle to meet basic needs without a steady income. Even educated people who are ready to work often cannot find suitable jobs, resulting in social and economic loss.

• It also increases the dependent population, putting pressure on those who are employed.

• The quality of life suffers, with poor health and children dropping out of school.

• Moreover, unemployment creates a divide between the rich and the poor, leading to social tension and class conflict in society.

7. Urban unemployment in India is driven by multiple factors that include:

• Rapid population growth, slow industrial development, and migration from rural areas in search of better opportunities.

• The education system often does not match industry needs, leading to educated unemployed youth who lack practical skills. As a result, many graduates struggle to find suitable jobs.

The effects of urban unemployment include

• Poverty, increased slum areas

• Increased dependency ratio, reduced economic growth

• Social unrest

To cope with this situation,

• Many educated unemployed individuals take up small businesses, freelance work, or lowpaying jobs unrelated to their qualifications.

• Educated unemployed individuals go for additional skills or migrating to areas with better opportunities. For instance, IT graduates may pursue certification courses to improve job prospects.

8. People are considered the most valuable resource a country possesses because

• They are the driving force behind all economic and social activities.

• Human resources, with their skills, knowledge, and creativity, contribute to the growth of industries, innovation, and overall national development.

• The potential of individuals can lead to advancements in technology, agriculture, and various sectors, ultimately improving the quality of life.

• A well-educated, healthy, and skilled population can enhance productivity, foster economic growth, and ensure sustainable development.

• Without human capital, other resources like land, money, and raw materials cannot be effectively utilized.

• Therefore, investing in people through education, healthcare, and skill development is crucial for any country’s progress and prosperity.

9. An educated woman can significantly improve her family’s condition.

• She can contribute to the household’s income through better job opportunities.

• With education, she can access higher-paying jobs or start her own business, improving financial stability.

• Moreover, educated women are more likely to invest in their children’s education, ensuring better opportunities for the next generation.

• They also make informed decisions about healthcare, nutrition, and family planning, leading to improved health and well-being for the entire family.

• Educated women are empowered to challenge traditional gender roles, participate in decision-making, and create a more equal and progressive environment.

• This positive impact extends beyond the family, contributing to societal development and economic growth.

Thus, an educated woman plays a key role in breaking the cycle of poverty.

10. The government has implemented various initiatives to ensure universal access, retention, and quality in elementary education, with a focus on promoting girls’ education.

• One such initiative is the establishment of pace-setting schools like Navodaya Vidyalayas in each district.

• Additionally, vocational training programs have been introduced to equip high school students with practical knowledge and skills related to various occupations.

• The Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, launched as a time-bound initiative, aims to provide elementary education to all children aged 6 to 14 by 2010, with collaborative efforts from the central and state governments, local authorities, and communities.

• Furthermore, the Right to Education Act was passed by the Indian Parliament to ensure free and compulsory education for all children in this age group.

11. Population can be converted into human capital by investing in education, skill development, and health.

• Education provides individuals with knowledge and skills, making them productive members of society.

• By offering quality education at all levels, from primary to higher education, individuals can enhance their employability and contribute to the economy.

• Skill development programs and vocational training help people acquire specific skills needed for various jobs, increasing their potential to work in different sectors.

• Health care is equally important, as a healthy population is more productive and can work longer.

• By focusing on these areas, a country can transform its population into a skilled, knowledgeable, and healthy workforce, thus maximizing its economic potential and overall development.

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1

(a) Vilas faced several economic challenges from an early age.

• Due to poor financial conditions, Vilas could not get proper medical treatment for his arthritis.

• He also had to leave his education and work to support his family,

(b) Lack of financial resources, absence of social support, and poor health prevented Vilas from attending school and living a healthy life. The early death of his father left the family without a stable source of income. His mother’s illness further worsened their condition.

He went to school He did not go to school He was physically healthy and strong He had medical issues and did not have money for medical treatment.

He got a job in private firm with a stable income. He sold fishes in the market

Earned good income

Earned a meagre income Investment in education and health is providing return in terms of good salary

Passage 2

No investment in health and education leading to earning only meagre amount.

(a) Rampur village was initially facing low productivity in farming due to lack of education and skills.

(b) Education and skill training helped the villagers improve their farming techniques, start small businesses, increase their incomes, and encourage children to attend school.

• Investment in human capital through education and skill development increases productivity and income.

• It shows how people, when properly trained, become valuable resources for economic growth and development.

SELF-ASSESSMENT

Time: 1 Hour

Section A

Scan me for all answers.

Max. Marks: 40

7. What might be a reason for governments to invest heavily in healthcare?

Choose and write the correct answer for each of the following.

(1 × 8 = 8 Marks)

1. Which of the following is an economic activity:

(a) Cooking done by a mother for her child

(b) A mother taking care of her child

(d) Anu giving tuitions to others

2. Which age group of children does the Sarva Siksha Abhiyan aim to promote education?

(a) 6 to 10 years

(b) 5 to 3 years

(d) 7 to 12 years

3. Which of the following sectors faces the problem of disguised unemployment?

(a) Agriculture

(b) Service sector

(d) IT sector

4. Choose the correct option to define People as resource.

(a) Population is an asset rather than liability.

(b) Population can be converted into human capital by investing in education and health.

(d) None of the above.

5. Which factor is most important among the given resources?

(a) Human capital

(b) Land

(d) None of the above

6. Which of the following sectors benefits most from investment in education and skill development?

(a) Quaternary sector

(b) Secondary sector

(d) Tertiary sector

(a) To improve the overall productivity of the workforce

(b) To decrease the dependency ratio

(d) To increase tax revenue

8. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Educated parents are found to invest more heavily on their child’s education. Reason (R): they understand the importance of education for having better future.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Section B

Answer the following questions.

9. What are the factors that increase the quality of population? (2 Marks)

10. Why is human capital considered superior than physical capital? (3 Marks)

11. What is the difference between Seasonal Unemployment and Disguised Unemployment? (3 Marks)

12. Why do educated parents invest more heavily in their children’s education? Give three reasons. (3 Marks)

13. Explain three problems of educated unemployment in urban areas. (3 Marks)

14. “Explain why a firm avoids employing workers with ill-health. What impact does ill-health have on the efficiency and environment of the workplace? (3 Marks)

15. Examine the contribution of the secondary sector to employment generation and its transition in a digital economy. (5 Marks)

16. Discuss how education affects economic growth and poverty reduction. (5 Marks)

17. Describe the various types of unemployment prevalent in India, with a focus on disguised and seasonal unemployment. How do they affect the economy and the individual workers involved? (5 Marks)

3 Poverty as a Challenge

Poverty remains one of the most critical challenges confronting independent India. It is defined as the inability to secure the minimum requirements of a dignified life, including food, shelter, and healthcare. Both rural and urban regions experience poverty, though in different manifestations. Social scientists analyse poverty using various indicators such as income levels, consumption patterns, and the Multidimensional Poverty Index. Case studies reveal poverty among landless labourers in villages and informal workers in urban slums. Despite notable economic growth, vulnerable groups such as Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes continue to face severe deprivation. The persistence of poverty can be attributed to historical exploitation, unequal distribution of resources, and limited employment opportunities. The Government of India has initiated several targeted anti-poverty programmes to address these issues. Sustained economic growth, improvement in education, and empowerment of marginalized sections are crucial to poverty alleviation. Nevertheless, poverty eradication remains a formidable task requiring continuous and coordinated efforts.

Poverty as a Challenge

Understanding Poverty Causes of Poverty

• Not having enough money to meet the basic needs – POOR

• Includes social indicators as well

Poverty Leads to

Social Exclusion

• lack of access to the societal benefits

Estimating Poverty

Poverty Line

• Defined via calorie requirement

• Different for rural and urban areas

• expenditure to buy these calories is also different

Vulnerability

• Scheduled Caste/ Scheduled Tribe

• Rural agricultural labourer

• Urban Casual labourer

• Historical Exploitation

• Unequal distribution of land holdings

• Unemployment

• Socio-cultural and economic factors

Rural • 2100 calories per person per day

• �816 per month

Anti-Poverty Measures

Economic Growth

• Higher economic growth means more investment in human development.

Consequences of Poverty

• Illiteracy

• Malnutrition

• Child Labour

Urban • 2400 calories per person per day

• �1000 per month

Estimated by NSSO

Targeted Anti-poverty Programs

• MGNREGA

• Prime Minister Rozgar Yozana (PMRY)

• Rural employment generation program

• Swarnjayanti

Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY)

• Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yozana (PMGY),

• Antyodaya Anna Yozana (AAY)

Challenges Ahead

• Need broader definition – Human Poverty

• focus on education and health

Key Terms and Definitions

Poverty: Poverty is a socio-economic condition characterized by insufficient financial resources to meet basic human needs such as food, clothing, and shelter, leading to limited access to opportunities and resources essential for a dignified life.

Poverty Line: The poverty line is a threshold income level established by government organizations to categorize individuals or families as poor when their income falls below this level, reflecting the minimum necessary for basic living.

Absolute Poverty: Absolute poverty is the condition under which an individual is unable to secure enough resources to afford the minimum essentials for a healthy life, resulting in a high risk of starvation or illness.

Relative Poverty: Relative poverty assesses an individual’s economic status compared to the broader community, highlighting disparities in income and living standards that can lead to social exclusion.

Social Exclusion: Social exclusion means some groups are left out and not given equal access to resources, rights, and opportunities, which keeps them poor and unequal.

BPL (Below Poverty Line): A term used to identify individuals or families who are below the poverty line and are eligible for government assistance.

Inter-State Disparities: Differences in poverty levels between different states in a country.

Chronic Poverty: A situation where people remain poor for a long period or even throughout their lives and may pass it on to the next generation.

Urban Poverty: Poverty seen in cities, often among slum dwellers or street vendors who lack stable jobs and living conditions.

Rural Poverty: Poverty in villages, often among landless labourers and marginal farmers with low income and poor access to services.

Unemployment: A situation where people who are willing to work at the going wage rate cannot find jobs.

Seasonal Employment: Jobs that are available only during certain seasons, such as in agriculture.

Scheduled Castes: Scheduled Castes are social groups recognized by the Indian government that have historically faced discrimination and socio-economic disadvantages, and currently experience higher poverty levels.

Scheduled Tribes: Scheduled Tribes comprise indigenous communities in India recognized for their unique cultural practices and traditional livelihoods, often facing considerable challenges related to poverty and social inequality.

Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Act: This legislation aims to enhance livelihood security for rural households by providing 100 days of wage employment each year, thus contributing to sustainable development and poverty alleviation in rural areas.

Human Poverty: Human poverty is a comprehensive concept and is defined as a condition where people lack access to basic necessities like food, clean water, education, and healthcare. It goes beyond just not having enough money and includes the inability to meet essential needs that affect a person’s well-being and dignity.

Important Formula

Poverty Ratio = Number of Poor People

Total Population × 100

NCERT Zone

Intext Questions

1. What could be the difference between consumption based expenditure Poverty Line and National Multidimensional Poverty Index?

Ans.

Consumption Based Expenditure Poverty Line

It defines poverty by the minimum income or spending needed to buy basic necessities like food, clothing, and shelter.

It focuses only on money spent.

National Multidimensional Poverty Index

It measures poverty using factors like health, education, and living standards

It gives a broader view of poverty beyond just income.

2. Study the table given below and answer the following questions:

Source: India in figures, 2018, Government of India Central Statistics office, niti.gov.in/state-statistics (accessed on Nov. 15, 2021); National Multidimensional Poverty Index: A Progress Review 2023, NITI Aayog, Government of India.

(i) Even if poverty ratio declined between 1993–94 and 2004–05, why did the number of poor remain at about 407 million?

Ans. Despite the decline in the poverty ratio, the absolute number of poor remained around 407 million because of the following reasons:

• India’s high population growth during that period.

• Although the proportion of people living below the poverty line declined, population growth offset this progress, resulting in a relatively unchanged number of individuals in poverty.

(ii) Are the dynamics of poverty reduction the same in rural and urban India?

Ans. The dynamics of poverty reduction are not the same in rural and urban India.

• Rural areas often face more challenges due to limited access to resources, job opportunities, and infrastructure.

• Urban areas, although experiencing different forms of poverty, usually have better access to jobs and amenities.

• However, this is contrasted by higher living costs. Thus, need-based solutions for poverty reduction are required for both contexts to address their unique challenges and needs.

3. Study the following graph.

Head Count Ratio in selected Indian States, 2019-21

Source: https://www.niti.gov.in/sites/default/files/2023-08/India-National-Multidimentional-Poverty-Index-2023.pdf

(i) Identify the three states where the HCR is the highest.

Ans. The states with the highest poverty ratios are

• Bihar (34%)

• Madhya Pradesh (21%)

(ii) Identify the three states where HCR is the lowest.

Ans. The states with the lowest poverty ratios are

• Uttar Pradesh (23%)

• Kerala (1%) • Punjab (5%)

• Himachal Pradesh (5%)

These states have made significant efforts in poverty reduction through development and welfare programs.

(iii) List the states which have HCR lower or higher than HCR for all India.

Ans. States with HCR Higher than All India (15%):

1. Bihar – 34%

2. Uttar Pradesh – 23%

3. Madhya Pradesh – 21% 4. Assam – 19%

5. Odisha – 16%

States with HCR Lower than All India (15%):

1. Rajasthan – 13%

3. Gujarat – 12%

5. Karnataka – 8%

7. Andhra Pradesh – 6%

9. Himachal Pradesh – 5%

11. Tamil Nadu – 2%

13. Maharashtra – 8%

2. Tripura – 13%

4. West Bengal – 12%

6. Haryana – 7%

8. Punjab – 5%

10. Delhi – 3%

12. Kerala – 1%

4. Study the graph given below and answer the questions that follow.

Share of people living on a day, 2005–2019

Source: Poverty and Equity Database; World Bank (http://databank.worldbank.org/data/reports.aspx?source=poverty-and-equity-database)

Number of poor by region in millions

South Aisa

Latin America and Carribean

Sub-Saharan Africa

East Asia and Paciﬁc

China

People in extreme poverty (millions)

Sub-Saharan Africa

Europe and Central Asia

South Asia Rest of the

East Asia and pacific

Forecasts from 2015 to 2030

and the Caribbean

By 2030, forecasts indicate that nearly 9 to 10 of the extreme poor will live in Sub-Saharan Africa.

Source: World Bank PovcalNet and Poverty & Equity Data Portal (http://databank.worldbank.org/data/reports.aspx?source=poverty-and-equity-database)

(i) Identify the areas of the world where poverty ratios have declined. Ans. Regions Where Poverty Ratios Have Declined:

• South Asia

• Sub-Saharan Africa

• China

• Latin America and the Caribbean

• East Asia and Pacific

(ii) Identify the area of the globe which has the largest concentration of the poor.

Ans. Sub-Saharan Africa has the largest concentration of people living in extreme poverty.

(iii) Why do different countries use different poverty lines?

Ans. Different countries use different poverty lines due to the following reasons:

• Variations in living conditions, cost of living, and development levels.

• Each country’s poverty line reflects its minimum social norms and the basic needs necessary for subsistence in its context.

• For instance, a poverty line in a developed nation might include access to technology, while in a developing country, it may focus on food and housing.

• Therefore, poverty lines are country-specific and cater to local economic and social conditions.

NCERT Exercises

1. Describe how the poverty line is estimated in India.

Ans. The poverty line in India is estimated based on

• The minimum level of income or consumption needed to meet basic needs like food, clothing, and shelter.

• It is calculated using calorie intake (2,400 calories in rural areas and 2,100 in urban areas) and monthly consumption expenditure.

• For the year 2011–12, the poverty line for a person was fixed at Rs.816 per month for rural areas and Rs.1000 for urban areas. This is high for urban areas because of high prices of many essential products in urban centres.

• The estimates are revised periodically by government committees using updated data.

2. Do you think that present methodology of poverty estimation is appropriate?

Ans. The current poverty estimation methodology, while providing a basic overview, has limitations.

• It considers a minimum subsistence of living instead of a reasonable level of living.

• It primarily focuses on income and consumption levels and does not fully capture

other aspects like healthcare, education access, and social security, which are critical for assessing poverty.

• Therefore, broadening the methodology to include these factors could offer a more comprehensive understanding of poverty.

3. Describe poverty trends in India since 1973.

Ans. Since 1973,

• India’s poverty trends show a decline in both the percentage of people living below the poverty line and the absolute number of poor.

• From about 45% in 1993–94, the poverty ratio decreased to 37.2% in 2004–05 and further to 22% by 2011–12.

• The number of poor declined from 407 million in 2004–05 to 270 million in 2011–12, showing an average decline of 2.2%.

• Economic growth and targeted poverty alleviation programs have contributed significantly to this decline, though regional disparities persist.

4. Discuss the major reasons for poverty in India.

Ans. There are several major reasons for poverty in India, including historical factors, economic disparities, and socio-cultural issues.

• The colonial past left a low level of economic development, impacting job availability and income growth.

• Moreover, population growth outpaced economic resources, keeping per capita income growth low.

• Despite land reform policies, unequal distribution of land and resources persists, leading to income inequalities.

• Many rural areas did not benefit from the Green Revolution, limiting job opportunities in agriculture.

• Urban migration due to lack of rural employment also caused overcrowded slums with poor living conditions.

• Socio-cultural obligations and ceremonies often lead to indebtedness that further aggravate poverty.

• Additionally, inadequate education, healthcare access, and lack of effective implementation of policies have contributed to high poverty levels.

5. Identify the social and economic groups which are most vulnerable to poverty in India.

Ans. In India, social and economic groups most vulnerable to poverty include

• Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, rural agricultural labor households, and urban casual labor households.

• These groups face significant economic challenges due to limited access to education, job opportunities, and social services, making them more susceptible to poverty.

• Additionally, intra-family income inequalities also emerge, often disadvantaging women and the elderly.

6. Give an account of interstate disparities of poverty in India.

Ans. Interstate disparities of poverty in India reveal uneven progress in poverty reduction.

• States like Bihar, Odisha, and Uttar Pradesh have high poverty ratios due to factors such as underdeveloped infrastructure, lack of industrialization, and reliance on agriculture without modern advancements.

• In contrast, states like Kerala, Punjab show lower poverty levels due to robust strategies in human development and agricultural growth.

• West Bengal has benefitted from effective land reforms,

• States like Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh have succeeded through public distribution and targeted development programs.

• This disparity is also marked by varying effectiveness in policy implementation, economic activities, and state-specific challenges.

• Hence, while some states enjoy substantial improvements, others continue to struggle with persistent poverty, necessitating diversified and local approaches to address these complex issues.

7. Describe global poverty trends.

Ans. Global poverty trends show:

• Significant decline in extreme poverty rates, from 16.27% in 2010 to 9.05% in 2019.

• Rapid economic growth and human resource investments have greatly reduced poverty in regions like China and Southeast Asia.

• Conversely, Sub-Saharan Africa still harbors the largest concentration of poverty.

• Regional disparities highlight successes in South Asia, Latin America, and challenges in some former socialist countries and parts of Africa.

8. Describe current government strategy of poverty alleviation?

Ans. The current government strategy for poverty alleviation in India focuses on economic growth and targeted anti-poverty programs.

• The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) provides guaranteed employment

• Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana (PMRY) supports self-employment for educated youth.

• Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY) aims to enhance livelihoods by organizing poor families into self-help groups.

• The Public Distribution System (PDS) ensures food security

• Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana (PMGY) supports health, education, and basic infrastructure in rural areas.

Despite mixed results from these initiatives, the emphasis is on improving implementation, monitoring, and targeting to ensure that benefits reach the deserving poor effectively, driving future poverty reduction.

9. What do you understand by human poverty?

Ans. Human poverty encompasses not just insufficiency of income, but also lack of education, healthcare, job security, and freedom from social discrimination.

10. Who are the poorest of the poor?

Ans. The “poorest of the poor” are those from disadvantaged social groups like Scheduled Castes and Tribes, landless laborers, women, and elderly who face extreme deprivation.

11. What are the main features of the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005?

Ans. The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005 ensures 100 days of wage employment per year to rural households, aiming to enhance livelihood security while promoting sustainable development.

12. Differentiate between consumption based poverty line and NMP Index based poverty estimates.

Ans.

Consumption-Based Poverty Line

It measures poverty based on income or consumption expenditure.

It is based on minimum consumption (calorie intake, essential goods, etc.) needed for survival.

It covers only the monetary aspect of poverty.

Example: Below Poverty Line (BPL) estimates using Rs/day or calories/ day benchmarks.

NMP (National Multidimensional Poverty Index)

It measures poverty based on multiple deprivations in health, education, and living standards.

It is based on indicators like nutrition, child mortality, school attendance, electricity, etc.

It covers non-monetary aspects of poverty.

Example: NITI Aayog’s reports on multidimensional poverty using the MPI framework.

13. List the indicators used to estimate multidimensional poor in India.

Ans. Following are the indicators used to estimate multidimensional poor in India:

• Nutrition

• Child-Adolescent Mortality

• Maternal Health

• Years of Schooling

• School Attendance

• Cooking Fuel

• Sanitation

• Drinking Water

• Housing

• Electricity

• Assets

• Bank Account

If an individual is found deprived on these indicators, he or she is considered as multidimensional poor.

Practice Questions

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. What is a significant advantage of the Public Distribution System (PDS) in India?

(a) It ensures food security by distributing essential commodities at subsidized rates.

(b) It generates employment in urban regions.

(d) It prevents food spoilage in rural areas.

2. How does the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) primarily aim to combat poverty?

(a) By increasing agricultural exports

(b) By guaranteeing at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year

(d) By providing free education to all households

3. What challenge does the Public Distribution System (PDS) often face despite its benefits?

(a) Overproduction of subsidized food items

(b) Lack of consumer interest

(d) Shortage of cold storage facilities

4. Which historical factor significantly contributed to poverty in India during colonial times?

(a) Increase in agricultural exports

(b) Encouragement of traditional crafts

(d) Introduction of Western education

5. Social exclusion in poverty context generally implies:

(a) Inclusion in political processes

(b) Participation in workforce

(d) Exclusion from access to services and opportunities

6. What is a major economic disparity contributing to poverty increase?

(a) Equal land distribution

(b) Universal healthcare access

(d) High employment rates

7. Identify a primary consequence of unemployment mentioned in the context of poverty.

(a) Reduced crime rates

(b) Improved literacy rates

(d) Increased poverty levels

8. In what way did the Green Revolution limit its benefits concerning poverty eradication?

(a) Occurred only in select regions

(b) Spread evenly across India

(d) Promoted only traditional farming methods

9. Which of the following indicators are common measures of poverty according to social scientists?

(a) Levels of income and consumption

(b) Dietary habits alone

(d) Ownership of vehicles

10. Given the calorie requirements differ between rural and urban areas, why do rural areas have a higher calorie requirement?

(a) Climatic conditions in rural areas demand more calories

(b) Rural areas have more food resources

(d) People in rural areas engage in more physical work

11. Which statement accurately represents the poverty line concept?

(a) It varies but is only based on food consumption.

(b) It is a fixed income level applicable worldwide.

(d) Poverty line is a variable threshold to identify income levels below the minimum for basic needs.

12. What trend does a declining poverty ratio in India since 1973 indicate?

(a) Rising inequality

(b) Improvements in economic conditions and poverty mitigation

(d) Consistent increase in population

13. Why does the poverty line vary between urban and rural areas?

(a) Family size is larger in rural areas

(b) Urban areas receive more rainfall affecting prices

(d) Urban areas have more medical and educational amenities costs

14. The poverty line measures poverty based on various criteria. Which of the following elements is crucial for determining the poverty line in both rural and urban areas?

(a) Type of employment

(b) Minimum calorie intake

(d) Access to healthcare

15. Consider the case of Ram Saran, a daily-wage earner in an urban area. What is the primary reason for his family’s inability to access better healthcare and education?

(a) Income instability and low wages

(b) Lack of awareness

(d) High expenditure on luxury goods

16. What major disadvantage aggravate poverty among urban casual labour households?

(a) Unstable and low-paying jobs

(b) High education levels

(d) Availability of healthcare facilities

17. Why might social exclusion lead to deeper poverty than simply low income levels?

(a) It restricts access to communities.

(b) It affects cultural identity.

(d) It only affects unskilled labourers.

18. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: The poverty line in India considers the cost of basic food items for its calculation.

Statement II: Social exclusion is a process where individuals are forced to live in isolation from societal benefits.

Statement III: Scheduled Tribes and Scheduled Castes often have an average poverty rate due to socio-economic empowerment.

Statement IV: Analysis of poverty trends is primarily based on economic growth statistics alone.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and III are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

19. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: Scheduled Tribe households face higher poverty due to limited access to resources.

Statement II: Casual labourers have consistent income sources.

Statement III: Rural poor often lack access to quality education.

Statement IV: The urban poor enjoy better standard of living.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and III are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

20. Match the following items related to Government Schemes and Anti-Poverty Measures in India from column A to column B.

Column A

A. Pradhan Mantri Rozgar Yojana (PMRY)

B. Public Distribution System (PDS)

C. Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY)

D. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)

(a) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii

(b) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

(d) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii

Column B

i. Aims at creating self-employment opportunities for youth

ii. Ensures water and fuel supply at subsidized rates

iii. Provides subsidized food grains to the poorest households

iv. Offers employment to those willing in rural areas

21. Match the elements of poverty categorization with their respective definitions.

Column A

Column B

A. Social Exclusion i. Higher probability of certain communities to stay poor

B. Poverty Line ii. Living in poor surroundings, excluded from benefits

C. Vulnerable Groups iii. Imaginary boundary used to measure economic disadvantage

D. Income Inequalities iv. Inequalities in land distribution and resources

(a) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

(b) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv

(d) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion (A): Several Government Schemes target specific underserved regions to reduce poverty.

Reason (R): Uniform distribution of resources is the most efficient way to tackle poverty.

2. Assertion (A): The Government of India has effectively reduced poverty through numerous programs.

Reason (R): Complex bureaucratic processes enhance the efficiency of these anti-poverty programs.

3. Assertion (A): The Green Revolution contributed significantly to poverty reduction across all Indian states.

Reason (R): The Green Revolution introduced agricultural mechanisation that benefitted large farmers of specific region.

4. Assertion (A): Social scientists view poverty through a variety of indicators beyond income levels.

Reason (R): Including illiteracy and healthcare access is essential in assessing true poverty conditions.

5. Assertion (A): Social exclusion is both a cause and consequence of poverty.

Reason (R): People from certain communities are excluded from access to important social facilities.

Picture Based Question

1. Look at the image below. Which of the following options best describes the issue depicted?

(a) Child labour caused by lack of access to education and basic needs

(b) A government employment scheme for young workers

(d) High literacy levels among the poor

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30-40 words)

1. What is the primary purpose of the Public Distribution System (PDS)?

2. Define the role of MGNREGA in rural economic development.

3. What is the main objective of the Government Schemes like Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Yojana (PMRY)?

4. How does the MGNREGA Act ensure equal employment opportunities

5. What role does corruption play in hindering the effects of Public Distribution System (PDS)?

6. Define economic disparity.

7. What does social exclusion imply in the context of poverty?

8. Name one historical factor that leads to poverty.

9. List one consequence of unemployment relative to poverty.

10. What is meant by the concept of vulnerability in poverty?

11. Define ‘poverty line’.

12. What role does calorie intake play in defining the poverty line in India?

13. State two examples of social indicators used to assess poverty.

14. How is vulnerability to poverty determined?

15. What poverty trend was observed in India during the 1990s?

16. Define ‘casual labourers’.

17. List any two factors that contribute to urban poverty.

Short Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. How does the Public Distribution System (PDS) play a role in alleviating poverty in rural India?

2. Discuss the impact of the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) on women’s employment in rural India

3. What are some challenges faced by Government Schemes in effectively alleviating poverty? Provide examples to support your answer.

4. How have historical factors shaped the persistence of poverty in India. Provide two specific examples.

5. How does social exclusion act as both a cause and consequence of poverty? Illustrate with examples.

6. Critically examine the role of unemployment in perpetuating poverty. Give examples from urban settings.

7. In what ways do socio-cultural factors reinforce poverty? Discuss with reference to religious expenditures.

8. Explain the concept of the poverty line and how it is used to distinguish between the poor and non-poor in India.

9. How do social indicators such as illiteracy and access to healthcare help in identifying and understanding poverty levels in India.

10. Explain how social exclusion impacts the Scheduled Castes and Tribes, contributing to their vulnerability to poverty.

11. Discuss the role of employment opportunities in alleviating poverty among rural and urban poor. Address both positive and negative aspects.

12. How does the cycle of poverty continue to affect rural casual labourers? Include an explanation of at least two factors.

13. Analyze the major challenges faced by urban casual labourers in accessing government assistance programs.

14. Evaluate the effectiveness of social welfare schemes targeting casual labourers in rural areas. Provide examples to support your answer.

Long Answer Questions (100-120 words)

1. Discuss the multiplicity of government schemes aimed at poverty reduction in India. Examine their interplay and cumulative impact on poverty alleviation with examples.

2. Evaluate how social exclusion can be addressed within poverty alleviation programmes. Consider both policy measures and grassroots initiatives.

3. Describe how economic growth has impacted poverty alleviation in India. Discuss its limitations and suggest alternative strategies for sustainable poverty reduction.

4. Explain the social and economic impacts of poverty in India, and discuss how they affect other aspects such as education and health.

5. Describe how poverty lines are determined based on calorie requirements in rural and urban India, and the reasoning behind different standards for each.

6. Examine the reasons for high levels of poverty among the rural poor in India. Support your answer with specific examples and data wherever possible.

7. Evaluate the role of education in breaking the cycle of poverty among Scheduled Castes and Tribes. Include barriers and potential solutions in your discussion

8. Critically assess the impact of government policies on the livelihoods of casual labourers in India over the past decade. Provide examples to illustrate your points.

9. ”Poverty is a burden that holds back human progress and dignity.”

10. Explain the vicious circle of Poverty.

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

Read the text given and answer the questions that follow.

1. The present formula for food requirement while estimating the poverty line is based on the desired calorie requirement. Food items, such as cereals, pulses, vegetable, milk, oil, sugar, etc., together provide these needed calories. The calorie needs vary depending on age, sex and the type of work that a person does. The poverty line in India, for the year 2011–12, a family of five members living in rural areas and earning less than about `4,080 per month will be below the poverty line. A similar family in the urban areas would need a minimum of `5,000 per month to meet their basic requirements. The poverty line

is estimated periodically by conducting sample surveys. These surveys are carried out by the National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO).

(a) Which organisation is responsible for conducting surveys to estimate the poverty line in India?

(b) What were the poverty line income levels for a family of five in rural and urban India in the year 2011–12?

(c) What is poverty line and on what basis is the present formula for food requirement estimated while determining the poverty line in India?

2. Vulnerability to poverty is a measure, which describes the greater probability of certain communities (say, members of a backward caste) or individuals (such as a widow or a physically handicapped person) of becoming or remaining poor. Vulnerability is determined by the options available to different communities for finding an alternative living in terms of assets, education, health and job opportunities. Further, it is analysed on the basis of the greater risks these groups face at the time of natural disasters (earthquakes, tsunami). Additional analysis is made of their social and economic ability to handle these risks. In fact, vulnerability describes the greater probability of being more adversely affected than other people when bad time comes for everybody, whether a flood or an earthquake or simply a fall in the availability of jobs!

(a) What does “vulnerability to poverty” mean?

(b) What factors determine a community’s or individual’s vulnerability to poverty?

Answers

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. (a) It ensures food security by distributing essential commodities at subsidized rates.

2. (b) By guaranteeing at least 100 days of wage employment in a financial year

3. (c) Corruption and leakage of resources

4. (c) Ruined traditional handicrafts

5. (d) Exclusion from access to services and opportunities

6. (c) Unequal income distribution

7. (d) Increased poverty levels

8. (a) Occurred only in select regions

9. (a) Levels of income and consumption

10. (d) People in rural areas engage in more physical work

11. (d) Poverty line is a variable threshold to identify income levels below the minimum for basic needs.

12. (b) Improvements in economic conditions and poverty mitigation

13. (d) Urban areas have more medical and educational amenities costs.

14. (b) Minimum calorie intake

15. (a) Income instability and low wages

16. (a) Unstable and low-paying jobs

17. (c) It leads to isolation from social benefits.

18. (a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

19. (d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

20. (c) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv

21. (b) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

1. (c) A is true but R is false.

2. (c) A is true but R is false

3. (d) A is false but R is true.

4. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

5. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Picture Based Question

1. (a) Child labour caused by lack of access to education and basic needs

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30–40 words)

1. • The primary purpose of the PDS is to ensure food security.

• It distributes essential food commodities at subsidized rates to eligible households.

• It aims to reduce hunger and prevent malnutrition among the poor.

• Thus, it helps stabilize food prices and availability.

2. • MGNREGA aims to enhance rural livelihoods through wage employment.

• It guarantees at least 100 days of work for rural households annually.

• The Act supports infrastructure development, boosting local economies.

• It leads to increased rural purchasing power and improved living standards.

• The main objective is to create selfemployment opportunities.

• PMRY aims to assist educated unemployed youth in rural and urban areas.

• It provides financial support for setting up small businesses.

• This helps reduce unemployment and promote entrepreneurship.

4. • MGNREGA provides a legal guarantee of wage employment for rural households.

• It mandates one-third reservation of jobs for women.

• The Act promotes inclusive participation regardless of caste or ethnicity.

• Thus, fostering equal employment opportunities in rural settings.

• Corruption leads to leakage of resources within PDS systems.

• It results in commodities being diverted away from intended beneficiaries.

• Bribery can make access to subsidized goods inconsistent and unfair.

• Overall, corruption undermines the effectiveness of PDS in alleviating poverty.

• Economic disparity refers to the unequal distribution of income and wealth among individuals or groups.

• It leads to social and economic inequalities in access to resources and opportunities.

• These disparities can result in varying standards of living, impacting poverty levels.

• One historical factor that leads to poverty is the colonial exploitation of resources.

• Colonial rulers imposed economic policies that drained local wealth and stunted industrial growth.

• The legacy of these policies continues to influence modern-day poverty.

• A primary consequence of unemployment in relation to poverty is financial instability.

• It results in reduced household incomes, affecting basic living standards.

• This instability can lead to a lack of access to education and healthcare, perpetuating poverty.

10.

• Vulnerability in poverty refers to the increased likelihood of certain individuals or groups becoming poor.

• It is determined by limited assets, lack of education, and inadequate access to resources.

• Vulnerable populations may face greater risks during economic or natural crises.

11.

• The poverty line is a threshold level to distinguish between the poor and non-poor.

• It is based on minimum income or consumption needed to satisfy basic needs.

• A person below this threshold is considered poor.

• It varies by country and context.

12.

• Calorie intake is crucial in setting the poverty line.

• It determines the minimum calorie requirements for basic health.

• In India, higher rural calorie needs reflect more physical activity.

• The monetary cost for these calories helps set the poverty line.

• Social exclusion implies the marginalization of certain individuals or groups from necessary resources and societal participation.

• It involves being denied access to services, rights, and opportunities.

• This exclusion can aggravate poverty conditions and hinder social integration.

13.

• Illiteracy is a social indicator of poverty, reflecting access to education.

• Healthcare access is another, showing availability of medical facilities.

• Both indicators provide insights into quality of life and poverty levels.

• They aid in comprehensive poverty assessment.

14.

• Vulnerability to poverty is measured by potential future poverty risk.

• It considers factors like lack of assets, education, and job security.

15.

• Certain groups, such as backward castes, face higher vulnerability.

• Their resilience to economic or natural shocks is assessed.

• During the 1990s, India saw a significant decline in poverty levels.

• Economic reforms launched in the early 1990s boosted growth.

• The poverty ratio fell, despite fluctuating employment rates.

• Improved antipoverty programs contributed to this reduction.

16.

• Casual labourers are workers who are employed on a temporary or irregular basis.

• They often have no formal employment contract and lack job security.

• Casual labourers are typically paid low wages with minimal or no benefits.

• They are vulnerable to economic instability

17. • Unstable and low-paying jobs contribute significantly to urban poverty.

• High living costs in urban areas make it challenging for low-income families to save and invest.

• Limited access to education restricts employment opportunities.

• Inadequate housing and basic infrastructure further exacerbate urban poverty.

Short Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. The Public Distribution System (PDS) in India plays a key role in alleviating poverty, especially in rural areas.

• PDS provides essential commodities like grains and kerosene at subsidized rates.

• It ensures food security by making these commodities more accessible to low-income households.

• The system aims to reduce hunger by improving the nutritional intake of vulnerable populations.

• PDS indirectly supports the rural economy by stabilizing prices and ensuring demand for farmers’ produce.

2. MGNREGA has significantly impacted women’s employment in rural India.

• The Act mandates one-third of total work days for women, promoting female participation.

• It empowers women financially, providing them with independent earnings.

• Participating in MGNREGA has improved women’s decision-making within households.

• The Act has enhanced social standing, contributing to women’s empowerment and economic development.

3. Despite efforts, government schemes in India face challenges that hinder effective poverty alleviation.

• Corruption and resource leakage limit the reach of benefits to the intended recipients.

• Complex procedures and bureaucratic hurdles impede timely execution and accessibility.

• Targeting errors lead to benefits failing to reach the populations most in need.

• Overlapping of schemes leads to confusion and inefficiency in resource allocation.

4. Historical factors have significantly shaped the current poverty landscape in India.

• One major factor was the exploitation of India’s resources by the British, leading to economic drain.

• The destruction of traditional industries, such as handlooms, caused massive unemployment.

• Another factor is the inadequate development of infrastructure during colonial rule, which hinders growth.

5. Social exclusion plays a dual role in the poverty cycle.

• Social exclusion prevents individuals from accessing resources, education, and jobs, causing poverty.

• In turn, poverty leads to further exclusion, as poor people are denied opportunities and social participation.

• For example, Dalits in India often face discrimination, limiting their income sources, and remaining excluded from growth, creating a cycle of poverty and marginalization.

6. Unemployment is a major driver of poverty, especially in urban contexts.

• Lack of jobs leads to inadequate income for basic needs, increasing poverty.

• Irregular employment causes financial instability, worsening living conditions.

• High competition for few jobs leads to underemployment and low wages.

• In urban areas, many migrate for jobs but end up in low-paying or no jobs, living in slums.

• Examples include street vendors and dailywage laborers struggling in cities.

7. Socio-cultural factors significantly contribute to the persistence of poverty.

• Cultural practices often demand high expenditure, burdening the poor.

• Religious ceremonies and social events consume limited financial resources.

• This spending leaves little for education or healthcare, crucial for advancement.

• Socio-cultural factors like spending on religious rituals, weddings, or festivals often force poor families to borrow money and prioritize social status over savings.

8. The poverty line is a critical tool for identifying and assessing poverty levels.

• It is a minimum income or consumption level necessary to meet basic needs.

• In India, the poverty line is determined based on calorie requirements and associated expenditures.

• Rural areas require higher calories due to physical labor, reflecting in lower monetary thresholds compared to urban areas.

• A person whose income or consumption falls below this line is considered poor.

9. Social indicators provide a broader view of poverty beyond mere income levels.

• Illiteracy indicates lack of education, often linked to poverty, as it limits job opportunities.

• Access to healthcare reflects socio-economic status, with poor healthcare access prevalent among the impoverished.

• Both factors contribute to a cycle of poverty, where lack of education and poor health maintain poverty levels.

• Identifying these indicators helps design holistic poverty alleviation programs.

10. Social exclusion has a profound impact on Scheduled Castes and Tribes, increasing their vulnerability to poverty.

• They are often isolated from accessing resources available to other communities.

• Social exclusion denies them opportunities for education, employment, and healthcare.

• Their exclusion from social networks can limit access to information and opportunities.

• Many Scheduled Castes and Tribes live in underdeveloped areas lacking infrastructure and services.

11. Employment opportunities play a crucial role in poverty alleviation among rural and urban poor. Positive:

• Employment provides a stable income source, improving living standards.

• Job opportunities help in skill development and economic growth.

Negative:

• Unreliable employment can lead to income instability, especially for casual labourers.

• Seasonal work in rural areas fails to provide year-round employment.

• Urban jobs may involve low wages and lack benefits, perpetuating poverty.

12. Rural casual labourers are trapped in a cycle of poverty due to multiple factors.

• They face erratic employment opportunities, leading to income instability.

• Lack of education limits their job prospects and potential earnings.

• Poor health conditions prevent them from consistent work, affecting income.

• High indebtedness, often due to healthcare or land issues, exacerbates poverty.

• Limited access to financial resources restricts their ability to invest in better opportunities.

13. Urban casual labourers face significant barriers in accessing government assistance programs.

• Lack of awareness about available programs prevents them from seeking aid.

• Bureaucratic hurdles and documentation requirements are often difficult to meet.

• Programs may lack effective delivery systems, limiting reach to intended beneficiaries.

• High levels of corruption can result in the misuse of allocated resources.

14. Social welfare schemes are crucial for improving the lives of rural casual labourers.

• MGNREGA provides guaranteed employment, improving income stability.

• It has led to increased rural wage levels, reducing financial distress.

• However, delays in payment and limited coverage limit its impact.

• The Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) offers health insurance but reaches only a fraction of the needy.

• Inadequate infrastructure and administrative hurdles limit program effectiveness.

Long Answer Questions (100–120

words)

1. Numerous government schemes in India target poverty reduction by addressing multifaceted issues.

• MGNREGA provide 100 days of guaranteed rural employment, ensures wage employment, aiding rural economic stability.

• PDS provides food security, reducing hunger and malnutrition.

• Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana addresses housing needs, curbing urban homelessness.

• Prime Minister’s Rozgar Yojana fosters entrepreneurship among unemployed youth. These schemes often overlap to address multiple needs—for example,

• A rural family may benefit from MGNREGA for income, PDS for food, and PMAY for shelter. The cumulative impact has been positive in reducing poverty levels and improving living standards.

• However, challenges such as inefficient delivery, corruption, and targeting errors persist.

• For greater effectiveness, better coordination, transparency, and use of technology are needed to ensure benefits reach the most needy.

2. Social exclusion can be addressed within poverty alleviation programmes through both policy measures and grassroots initiatives.

• Government policies like the Public Distribution System (PDS), MGNREGA, and reservations in jobs and education help include marginalized communities in development.

• Schemes like Jan Dhan Yojana promote financial inclusion, while Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan ensures education for all.

• At the grassroots level, Self-Help Groups (SHGs) empower women and the poor through microcredit and skill-building.

• NGOs spread awareness, provide training, and help people access government schemes. Community participation ensures transparency and better delivery of services.

• Together, these efforts help reduce inequality, promote social justice, and ensure that excluded groups are brought into the mainstream of society.

3. Economic growth plays a significant role in poverty alleviation in India

• Growth has generated employment and increased incomes in several sectors.

• It has led to infrastructure development like education and healthcare and improved living standards for many.

However, benefits have not been evenly distributed.

• Benefits often do not reach the poorest, and income inequality has increased.

• Rural areas often lag behind in availing the fruits of economic growth.

To ensure sustainable poverty reduction, alternative strategies should include:

• inclusive policies focusing on education, skill development and healthcare

• Investing in rural infrastructure can bridge the urban-rural divide and support equitable growth.

• Strengthening social security, promoting small businesses, and ensuring land and job security for the poor are key. Growth should benefit all sections of society, especially the marginalized.

4. Poverty in India has far-reaching social and economic impacts.

Socially,

• Poverty leads to exclusion from education and healthcare.

• Poor people often live in unsafe conditions, lack proper food, clean water, and shelter.

• They face social discrimination and are unable to access good jobs, keeping them trapped in poverty.

Economically,

• It restricts employment opportunities and reduces income levels.

• Poverty also affects education and health. Many poor children drop out of school to support their families.

• Without education, they cannot get better jobs in the future.

• Poor families also cannot afford proper medical care, leading to poor health and high death rates. This creates a cycle where poverty continues across generations.

• To break this cycle, it is important to provide better education, healthcare, and job opportunities for the poor.

5. In India, the poverty line is determined based on minimum calorie intake needed for survival.

• For rural areas, the requirement is set at 2400 calories per person per day.

• Urban areas have a lower requirement of 2100 calories due to less physical work. The poverty line also considers the minimum income needed to buy food and basic needs.

• In rural areas, this amount is lower because living costs are cheaper than in cities.

• In urban areas, things like housing, transport, and food are more expensive, so the poverty line is set higher.

• In 2011, rural thresholds were ₹816, while urban thresholds were ₹1000.

• Cost of living differences, such as housing and transport, justify varied standards.

6. Poverty among the rural poor in India is influenced by multiple interrelated factors.

• Landlessness is significant, as many lack productive assets and depend on low-paid labor.

• Many depend on agriculture, which is seasonal

• Unequal land distribution and ineffective land reforms compound this issue.

• Erratic monsoons, lack of irrigation, and outdated tools make farming unprofitable.

• Examples include frequent droughts in states like Maharashtra and Kerala.

• Limited access to education and healthcare restricts opportunities to move out of poverty.

• Social factors like caste discrimination also worsen poverty.

• For example, as per past reports, over 75% of poor people in India live in rural areas. Many of them belong to Scheduled Castes and Tribes. Without steady jobs or support services, poverty continues across generations

7. Education is pivotal in breaking the poverty cycle for Scheduled Castes and Tribes.

• Access to quality education empowers these groups with better job opportunities.

• It helps empower individuals to improve their social and economic status.

However, there are barriers that include

• inadequate facilities and socio-cultural discrimination.

• Dropout rates remain high due to poverty and lack of role models. Potential solutions include

• The government can provide scholarships and incentives for continued education.

• Improve school infrastructure

• Ensure free and compulsory education, and create awareness about the importance of education

• Special coaching and reservation policies also help bridge the gap and ensure equal opportunities for all.

• Government policy must focus on inclusive education and infrastructure development.

8. Government policies significantly affect the livelihoods of casual labourers in India.

• Policies like MGNREGA have provided employment and income stability by assuring 100 days of wage employment in rural areas.

• This has helped reduce distress migration and supported rural incomes, especially during crises like the COVID-19 lockdown. However, many casual labourers in urban areas remain outside the scope of such schemes.

• Skill development schemes aim to enhance employability but face implementation gaps.

• Urban reforms have aimed at reducing vulnerabilities but often exclude informal sectors.

• Examples include limited reach of social security schemes for urban laborers.

• Loan and financial inclusion policies have empowered some but not reached all.

• Policy impact varies greatly by region and labor sector.

9. Poverty is truly a curse upon humanity as it deprives people of basic needs like food, shelter, education, and healthcare.

• It forces individuals, especially children, to work instead of going to school, which continues the cycle of poverty across generations.

• Poor living conditions lead to poor health and low life expectancy.

• Poverty also leads to social inequality, lack of dignity, and exclusion from opportunities for growth and development.

• It creates feelings of hopelessness and powerlessness among the poor.

• Moreover, poverty weakens the overall progress of a nation, as a large part of the population remains unproductive and unskilled.

• Therefore, removing poverty is essential for ensuring justice, equality, and sustainable development for all sections of society.

10. The vicious circle of poverty refers to a cycle where poverty continues from one generation to the next due to a lack of basic resources and opportunities.

• Poor people often do not have access to good education, healthcare, or decent jobs. Because of this, they earn low incomes and cannot afford a better lifestyle.

• Their children also grow up without proper nutrition or schooling, and face the same struggles.

• This keeps them trapped in poverty. Low income leads to low savings, which results in low investment in skill development or business. As a result, poverty continues.

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

1. (a) The National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) is responsible for conducting the sample surveys used estimate the poverty line.

(b) In 2011–12, a rural family of five earning less than ₹4,080 per month and an urban family earning less than ₹5,000 per month were considered below the poverty line.

(c) The poverty line is an imaginary line used by governments and organizations to determine the minimum level of income needed for a person or family to meet basic needs such as food, clothing, shelter, and healthcare. The present formula for food requirement is based on the desired calorie intake, which varies according to a person’s age, sex, and the type of work they do.

2. (a) Vulnerability to poverty refers to the higher likelihood of certain individuals or communities, such as backward castes, widows, or physically handicapped people, to become or remain poor.

(b) Vulnerability is determined by the options available for alternative living, such as access to assets, education, health, and job opportunities.

• They often lack resources like safe housing, savings, education, and healthcare.

• Their limited social and economic ability to cope with risks makes it harder for them to recover from such events.

SELF-ASSESSMENT

Time: 1 Hour

Section A

Choose and write the correct answer for each of the following.

(1 × 8 = 8 Marks)

1. Vulnerability to poverty is determined by the options for finding an alternative living in terms of:

(a) Assets (b) Education

2. Which of the following is not considered a social indicator of poverty?

(a) Literacy level

(b) Lack of access to health care

(d) Lack of access to safe drinking water

3. The country which has the largest single concentration of the poor people in the world is

(a) China (b) Pakistan

4. Which two states of India continue to be the poorest states?

(a) Orissa, Bihar

(b) Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand

(d) None of the above

5. Which social group is most vulnerable to poverty in India?

(a) Schedule castes (b) Schedule tribes

6. In which state has rapid agricultural growth contributed significantly to poverty reduction?

(a) Jammu & Kashmir

(b) West Bengal

(d) Gujarat

7. Social exclusion denies certain individuals the (a) Facilities (b) Benefits

Scan me for all answers.

Max. Marks: 40

8. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Poverty line is solely defined as the minimum intake of calories in urban and rural areas per person per day.

Reason (R): Rural workers perform greater physical work so; they have higher intake of calories.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Section B

9. What do you mean by social exclusion? (2 marks)

10. How can it be said that the outcomes of poverty alleviation programmes have been uneven? Give three valid reasons to support your answer. (3 marks)

11. Why do social scientists look at poverty through a variety of indicators? (3 marks)

12. What is the difference between Human Poverty and Poverty Line? (3 marks)

13. What are the determinants of vulnerability to poverty? (3 marks)

14. How are economic growth and poverty reduction connected to each other? (3 marks)

15. What underlying factors have contributed to the persistence of poverty in India despite various development efforts? (5 marks)

16. Do you agree that poverty is a major curse on humanity? Give reasons to support your answer. (5 marks)

17. Analyse poverty through the lens of social exclusion. (5 marks)

4 Food Security in India

Food is one of the most basic human needs, essential for survival and a healthy life. Food security means ensuring that all people, at all times, have access to sufficient, safe, and nutritious food. In India, even though food production has increased over the years, many people still suffer from hunger and malnutrition due to poverty, natural disasters, and lack of purchasing power. To tackle this, the government has introduced various measures to ensure food security. The Public Distribution System (PDS) plays a major role in supplying food grains at subsidized rates to the poor. Buffer stocks are maintained to prevent shortages during emergencies or bad harvests. Special programs like the Antyodaya Anna Yojana aim to help the poorest families by providing them with highly subsidized food grains. Food security is closely linked to poverty reduction and improvements in agriculture. This chapter discusses the importance of food security and the steps India has taken to ensure that every citizen has access to adequate food.

Food Security in India

Meaning of Food Security

Availability of food

Accessibility to food

Affordability of food

Mid-Day Meal Scheme

Essential for a healthy and productive life

To prevent hunger and starvation

To handle natural disasters, droughts, etc.

Government Schemes

Who Are Food Insecure

Rural poor (landless labourers, small farmers)

Urban poor (daily wage workers, unemployed)

Economically weaker sections

Disaster-affected people

Causes of Food Security

Food Security System Need for Food Security

Poverty Buffer stock

Natural calamities

Unemployment

Poor Public Distribution System (PDS)

• Maintained by FCI (Food Corporation of India)

• Procurement of food grains

• Stored in government warehouses

Public Distribution System (PDS)

• Ration shops (Fair Price Shops)

• Supplies essential commodities to poor

Annapurna Scheme

Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY)

Benefits of PDS

• Food at subsidized rates

• Stabilizes food prices

• Supports poor people during crises

Limitations of PDS

• Corruption and black marketing

• Inefficiency and leakage

• Poor quality of grains

Key Terms and Definitions

Food Security: Food security ensures that all individuals have physical, social, and economic access to sufficient, safe, and nutritious food that meets their dietary needs and preferences for an active and healthy life.

Public Distribution System (PDS): The PDS is a government-run food delivery system in India that aims to provide subsidized food and non-food items to the disadvantaged sections of the society to ensure food security.

Malnutrition: Malnutrition is the condition that results from consuming a diet deficient in nutrients or in calories, which often leads to significant health issues including stunted growth, weakened immunity, and increased mortality rates among vulnerable populations.

Minimum Support Price (MSP): Minimum Support Price is a price set by the government to purchase directly from the farmer to ensure that they are given a minimum price for their crops, protecting against market fluctuations.

Chronic Hunger: Chronic hunger is a persistent condition where individuals are unable to secure enough food over a long period due to socio-economic factors, leading to malnutrition and health issues.

Cooperatives: Cooperatives are organizations formed by individuals or groups to meet their common economic needs by pooling their resources to provide goods and services, particularly in the agriculture and food sector.

Green Revolution: The Green Revolution refers to a series of research, development, and technology transfer initiatives that increased agricultural production worldwide, especially in developing countries, with India benefiting significantly in its wheat and rice production.

NCERT Zone

Intext Questions

1. Some people say that the Bengal famine happened because there was a shortage of rice. Study the table and find out whether you agree with the statement?

Production of rice in the Province of Bengal

Ans. • In 1942, the rice production was 92 lakh tonnes, and in 1943 it was 76 lakh tonnes.

• While there was indeed a decline, rice production was not the main reason for the famine.

• The increase in rice prices and lack of access and distribution played a significant role.

• Hence, I do not agree that the famine was solely due to a shortage of rice.

2. Which year shows a drastic decline in food availability?

Ans. The year 1941 shows a drastic decline in food availability.

3. What do you see in the first picture?

Ans. In the first picture, we see

• Starvation victims arriving at a relief center, likely taken during the Bengal famine of 1943.

• The image depicts individuals in dire need of assistance, highlighting the gravity of famine’s impact on people.

4. Which age group is seen in the first picture?

Ans. • The first picture predominantly shows adults and some children.

• This indicates that people of varied age groups, including the vulnerable, were affected by starvation during the famine, needing urgent relief.

5. Can you say that the family shown in the second picture is a poor family? why?

Ans. Yes, the family shown in picture appears to be poor.

• They are depicted leaving their village during the Bengal famine, suggesting they are fleeing due to lack of resources and food.

• This displacement indicates a severe economic struggle, typical of impoverished families.

6. Can you imagine the source of livelihood of the people, (shown in two Pictures) before the occurrence of famine? (In the context of a village)

Ans. Before the famine,

• People in the pictures likely relied on agriculture, fishing, or casual labour as their primary sources of livelihood.

• The Bengal region was primarily agricultural, and these individuals might have been involved in land cultivation or related rural occupations.

7. Find out what type of help is given to the victims of a natural calamity at a relief camp.

Ans. At relief camps,

• Victims of a natural calamity receive essential services such as food supplies, clean drinking water, temporary shelter, medical aid, and sanitation facilities.

• Efforts also include providing counselling services to cope with trauma and offering assistance in recovering livelihoods.

8. Why is agriculture a seasonal activity?

Ans. Agriculture is a seasonal activity because

• It largely depends on climatic conditions that vary throughout the year.

• Different crops require specific weather and timing for sowing, growing, and harvesting.

• Due to variance in these conditions, agricultural activities fluctuate according to seasons.

9. On the basis of following story answer the following questions.

Story of Ramu Ramu works as a casual labourer in agriculture in Raipur village. His eldest son Somu who is 10 years old also works as a pali to look after the cattle of the Sarpanch of the village Satpal Singh. Somu is employed for the whole year by the Sarpanch and is paid a sum of `1,000 for this work. Ramu has three more sons and two daughters but they are too young to work on the field. His wife Sunhari is also (part time) working as house cleaner for the livestock, removing and managing cow dung. She gets half a litre milk and some cooked food along with vegetables for her daily work. Besides she also works in the field along with her husband in the busy season and supplements his earnings. Agriculture being a seasonal activity employs Ramu only during times of sowing, transplanting and harvesting. He remains unemployed for about 4 months during the period of plant consolidation and maturing in a year. He looks for work in other activities. Sometimes he gets employment in brick laying or in construction activities in the village. By all his efforts, Ramu is able to earn enough either in cash or kind for him to buy essentials for two square meals for his family. However, during the days when he is unable to get some work, he and his family really face difficulties and sometimes his small kids have to sleep without food. Milk and vegetables are not a regular part of meals in the family. Ramu is food insecure during 4 months when he remains unemployed because of the seasonal nature of agriculture work.

(a) Why is Ramu unemployed for about four months in a year?

Ans. Ramu is unemployed for about four months because

• Agricultural work is seasonal.

• He works during sowing, transplanting, and harvesting periods

• But during plant consolidation and maturing, there is no field work, leading to unemployment during these months.

(b) What does Ramu do when he is unemployed?

Ans. When Ramu is unemployed in agriculture

• He seeks work in other sectors like brick laying or construction activities in the village.

• This highlights his reliance on seasonal work and the necessity to diversify earnings during the off-season to support his family.

Ans. In Ramu’s family,

• His wife Sunhari supplements the family income by working part-time as a house cleaner and assisting in agricultural activities during the busy season.

• Additionally, his eldest son, Somu, contributes through work as a cattle caretaker for the village Sarpanch.

(d) Why does Ramu face difficulty when he is unable to have work?

Ans. Ramu faces difficulty when he is unable to find work due to the following reasons:

• Lack of a stable income: As an agricultural labourer, his earnings are seasonal, and without employment in the off-season,

• He struggles to provide for his family’s basic needs, sometimes leaving them without adequate food.

(e) When is Ramu food insecure?

Ans. Ramu experiences food insecurity,

• During the four months when he is unemployed due to the seasonal nature of agricultural work.

• During this time, he struggles to afford essentials for his family, forcing them into a situation where they may not have enough food to eat.

10. On the basis of following story answer the following questions.

Story of Ahmad Ahmad is a rickshaw puller in Bangalore. He has shifted from Jhumri Taliah along with his 3 brothers, 2 sisters and old parents. He stays in a jhuggi. The survival of all members of his family depends on his daily earnings from pulling rickshaw. However, he does not have a secured employment and his earnings fluctuate every day. During some days he gets enough earning for him to save some amount after buying all his day-to-day necessities. On other days, he barely earns enough to buy his daily necessities. However, fortunately, Ahmad has a yellow card, which is PDS Card for below poverty line people. With this card, Ahmad gets sufficient quantity of wheat, rice, sugar and kerosene oil for his daily use. He gets these essentials at half of the market price. He purchases his monthly stock during a particular day when the ration shop is opened for below poverty people. In this way, Ahmad is able to eke out his survival with less than sufficient earnings for his big family where he is the only earning member.

(a) Does Ahmad have a regular income from rickshaw-pulling?

Ans. • No, Ahmad does not have a regular income from rickshaw-pulling.

• His earnings fluctuate daily, depending on the amount of work he gets.

• Some days he can save, while on others, he barely earns enough to cover basic necessities, making his income insecure.

(b) How does the yellow card help Ahmad?

Ans. Ahmad’s yellow card, a PDS card for below poverty line individuals

• It helps him by enabling access to subsidized essentials like wheat, rice, sugar, and kerosene.

• This reduces his expenses significantly since he gets these items at about half the market price, supporting his family’s needs with limited income.

11. Study graph and answer the following questions.

12. Study the graph given below and answer the questions.

Source: AS & E Division, Department of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare in Economic Survey 2023–24, Statistical Appendix. * Third Estimate

(a) In which year did our country cross the 200 Million tonne per year mark in foodgrain production?

Ans. • India crossed the 200 million tonne per year mark in foodgrain production in the year 2010–11.

• This milestone marked a significant achievement in India’s agricultural productivity and self-sufficiency after years of development and improvements in farming techniques.

(b) In which decade did India experience the highest decadal increase in foodgrain production?

Ans. India experienced the highest decadal increase in foodgrain production during the decade 2010–2020, with an increase of 52 million tonnes.

Ans. The production increase in India since 2000–01 has not been completely consistent; while there has been overall growth, there were periods of fluctuation— especially between 2011 and 2016—before stabilizing again in recent years.

Source: Food Corporation of India (dfpd.gov.in/foodgrain-stocking), 2020–21 (Accessed on 29/09/2021)

(a) In which recent year foodgrain stock with the government was maximum?

Ans. Based on the graph, the maximum foodgrain stock with the government in the recent year (2020–21) was in the month of July, when the actual stock reached 900.45 lakh tonnes.

(b) What is the minimum buffer stock norm for the FCI?

Ans. From the graph, the minimum buffer stock norm for the Food Corporation of India (FCI) is seen in the month of April, which is 210.40 lakh tonnes.

Ans. The FCI granaries were overflowing with foodgrains due to the following reasons:

• High procurement of foodgrains at increased MSPs, especially from leading agricultural states

• Also, problems in distribution and storing too much food without selling enough through systems like the Public Distribution System (PDS) led to extra stock piling up.

NCERT Exercises

1. How is food security ensured in India?

Ans.

• Food security in India is ensured through a carefully designed system comprising Buffer Stock and the Public Distribution System (PDS).

• This system stores surplus foodgrains to distribute at subsidized rates and ensures availability during crises.

• Various government schemes also aid foodinsecure populations.

2. Which are the people more prone to food insecurity?

Ans. People more prone to food insecurity include

• landless labourers

• marginal farmers

• traditional artisans, providers of services

• petty workers

• destitute, including beggars

• Urban residents in casual, ill-paid jobs are also at risk

• SCs, STs, and some OBCs due to poor land base and low income.

3. Which states are more food insecure in India?

Ans. States that are more food insecure in India include

• Uttar Pradesh (eastern and south-eastern parts)

• Bihar

• Jharkhand

• Orissa

• West Bengal

• Chhattisgarh

• Parts of Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.

These regions are economically backward, have high poverty, and are more prone to natural disasters, aggravating food insecurity.

4. Do you believe that green revolution has made India self-sufficient in food grains? How?

Ans. Yes, the Green Revolution has significantly contributed to making India self-sufficient in food grains.

• It introduced high-yielding varieties (HYVs) of seeds, increased use of fertilizers and irrigation, and improved agricultural

techniques, which drastically increased production, especially of wheat and rice.

• This ensured not just sufficiency but also stability in food grain availability across India.

• The revolution played a pivotal role in transforming India from a food-deficient to a food-surplus nation, supporting economic growth and reducing dependency on food imports.

• Its impact is evident as India now consistently maintains substantial buffer stocks, aiding in food security even during adverse weather conditions or calamities.

5. A section of people in India are still without food. Explain.

Ans. Despite India’s progress, a significant section of the population still suffers from food insecurity. This is due to several factors including

• Poverty

• Unequal distribution of resources

• Limited access to nutritious food.

• Vulnerable groups such as landless labourers, marginal farmers, and ill-paid urban workers often face chronic or seasonal hunger due to low incomes.

• Poor agricultural infrastructure and frequent natural disasters worsen food shortages in many regions.

• Social disparities, such as caste and gender discrimination, lead to unequal access to food.

• The government has introduced various schemes for Food distribution and Poverty alleviation.

6. What happens to the supply of food when there is a disaster or a calamity?

Ans. When a disaster or calamity occurs,

• Food supply can drastically decline due to reduced production and transportation disruptions.

• This shortage leads to price hikes, making it difficult for people, especially the poor, to afford food.

If prolonged, these conditions can cause widespread hunger and even famine.

7. Differentiate between seasonal hunger and chronic hunger?

Ans. Seasonal Hunger Chronic Hunger

It occurs at certain times of the year, typically before harvests in rural areas or during off-peak construction periods in urban areas. It is a continuous state of undernourishment due to consistently inadequate food intake. It is due to the cyclical nature of work. It is linked to persistent poverty.

8. What has our government done to provide food security to the poor? Discuss any two schemes launched by the government.

Ans. The government has implemented several schemes to ensure food security for the poor.

• One such scheme is the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS)

° It distributes subsidized food grains to families below the poverty line.

° This scheme helps ensure food accessibility to those who cannot afford market prices.

• Another important initiative is the Mid-Day Meal Scheme

° It aimed at providing free lunches to school children.

° This encourages education while improving nutritional levels among children from disadvantaged sections.

° Additionally, it boosts school enrolment and attendance, simultaneously addressing immediate hunger and contributing to the long-term developmental goals of health and education.

9. Why buffer stock is created by the government?

Ans. The government creates buffer stock for the following reasons:

• To stabilize food supply and prices

• Ensuring availability during times of shortage such as natural calamities or production dips.

• It aids in distributing food to deficit areas and supports public distribution systems, providing food at subsidized rates to poorer sections.

10. Write notes on:

(a) Minimum support price

Ans. Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a pre-announced price by the government to purchase crops directly from farmers, ensuring they receive a fair and guaranteed income for their produce.

(b) Buffer stock

Ans. Buffer Stock refers to the surplus food grains procured and stored by the government to ensure food security and distribute during shortages.

Ans. Issue Price is the price at which the government sells food grains from buffer stock to the public through the Public Distribution System (PDS).

(d) Fair price shops

Ans. Fair Price Shops are government-regulated outlets distributing essential commodities to the poor at Issue Prices, usually lower than market rates, ensuring accessibility and affordability.

11. What are the problems of the functioning of ration shops?

Ans. Ration shops face problems like

• Diversions of grains to open markets,

• Selling poor quality food

• Irregular opening times

• Corruption.

• Marginal discounts for Above Poverty Line (APL) consumers lead to decreased purchase incentives.

• Unsold stocks of low-quality grains accumulate, reducing effectiveness in food distribution.

Unsold stocks of low-quality grains accumulate, reducing effectiveness in food distribution.

12. Write a note on the role of cooperatives in providing food and related items.

Ans. Cooperatives play a crucial role in providing food and related items:

• It ensures food security by operating fair price shops,

• It distributes essential commodities at subsidized rates.

• In Tamil Nadu, most fair price shops are cooperative-managed.

• Moreover, cooperatives like Amul have revolutionized milk production, boosting food security and supporting livelihoods throughout rural India.

Practice Questions

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following is a common challenge to food security in regions with high population density?

(a) Excess rainfall

(b) Low temperature

(d) Inadequate water resources

2. What is the main reason for economic barriers affecting food accessibility in rural areas?

(a) Global food price alignment

(b) Subsidized farming equipment

(d) Unequal land distribution

3. What can governments effectively implement to counter climate change’s impact on agriculture?

(a) Promote crop diversification

(b) Decrease irrigation infrastructure

(d) Reduce farm subsidies

4. How do economic accessibility challenges manifest during global food crises?

(a) Increased local food prices

(b) Decline in domestic crop yield

(d) Greater employment in agriculture

5. Which of the following groups is most likely to suffer from food insecurity during a famine?

(a) Casual laborers and agricultural workers

(b) Government employees

(d) School teachers

6. During a food shortage, what role does the Public Distribution System (PDS) play?

(a) Increases the prices of commodities

(b) Shuts down due to insufficient stocks

(d) Exports surplus food to other countries

7. Why did the Bengal Famine of 1943 lead to mass starvation despite the availability of rice in nearby regions?

(a) Rice was not the staple food for the locals.

(b) The famine was not severe.

(d) There was no political intervention to regulate food distribution.

8. How does chronic hunger differ from seasonal hunger?

(a) Chronic hunger is due to temporary food shortage; seasonal hunger is ongoing.

(b) Neither has a lasting impact on food security.

(d) Seasonal hunger is due to temporary food shortage; chronic hunger is ongoing.

9. What is the primary role of buffer stock policy in India?

(a) To stabilize market prices and ensure food security during shortages.

(b) To increase foodgrain exports.

(d) To regulate food prices internationally.

10. Which act ensures food and nutritional security by providing grains at affordable prices?

(a) Essential Commodities Act, 1955

(b) Agricultural Produce Act, 1991

(d) Grain Distribution Act, 2005

11. Which of the following is a potential disadvantage of the Public Distribution System (PDS) in India?

(a) Can lead to wastage and corruption due to inefficiencies.

(b) Encourages dependence on imported foodgrains.

(d) Reduces food availability in rural areas.

12. What measure can prevent the problem of grains being diverted from PDS to open markets?

(a) Reducing PDS grain allocation

(b) Increasing grain prices for PDS

(d) Merging PDS with other private distribution systems

13. What was a significant change introduced by the Revamped Public Distribution System (RPDS) in 1992?

(a) Shift to universal PDS coverage

(b) Increase in grain prices to market level

(d) Focus on remote and backward areas

14. Which component of food security focuses on the economic capacity to purchase food?

(a) Accessibility (b) Availability

15. Which of the following best describes the term ‘food security’?

(a) Providing food relief during emergencies

(b) Availability, accessibility, and affordability of food to all people at all times

(d) Setting up more food processing industries

16. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: Climate change has worsened the regional disparities in food security in India.

Statement II: Regions with poor infrastructure face greater challenges in food distribution.

Statement III: Government subsidies effectively eliminate all economic barriers to food access.

Statement IV: Inflation does not affect food affordability for the rural poor.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and III are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

17. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: Food security means availability, accessibility, and affordability of food to all people at all times.

Statement II: The Public Distribution System (PDS) alone can ensure food security in India.

Statement III: Natural disasters can exacerbate food insecurity in vulnerable regions.

Statement IV: Higher agricultural production automatically resolves the issue of hunger.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and III are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

18. Match the following:

Economic Factor Impact on Food Accessibility

A. Wealth inequality i. Limits access to basic food

B. Subsidies ii. Restricts food distribution

C. Inflation iii. Increases food prices

D. Poverty iv. Reduces cost of essential items

(a) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i

(b) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

(d) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii

19. How many Union Territories does India have at present (2025)?

Government Measures Purpose Related to Food Security

A. National Food Security Act i. Legal basis for food access

B. Buffer stock ii. Ensure minimum income for farmers

C. Public Distribution System iii. Distribute food to the needy

D. Minimum Support Price iv. Prevent food shortages

(a) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

(b) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

(d) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion (A): Buffer stocks are an effective measure to ensure food security against climate change impacts.

Reason (R): Buffer stocks allow for the distribution of food during periods of low production due to adverse weather.

2. Assertion (A): Ample food production guarantees freedom from hunger.

Reason (R): Poverty limits access to available food.

3. Assertion (A): Food security means availability, accessibility, and affordability of food.

Reason (R): Food imports can fully resolve food insecurity.

4. Assertion (A): The Public Distribution System in India has successfully eradicated hunger and malnutrition.

Reason (R): The PDS ensures the distribution of foodgrains at subsidized prices, making it accessible to the poor.

5. Assertion (A): Availability is an essential aspect of food security.

Reason (R): Food security eliminates all povertyrelated issues immediately.

6. Assertion (A): Food security in a country can be threatened during natural calamities like droughts or floods.

Reason (R): Such calamities directly impact food production and prices, affecting affordability.

Picture Based Questions

1. What does the image represent in the context of food security in India?

(a) A private grocery store providing food at market prices

(b) A government-run Fair Price Shop under the Public Distribution System (PDS)

(d) A food donation camp run by a charity organization

2. Which of the following schemes is most likely linked to the food distribution shown in the image?

(a) Mid-Day Meal Scheme

(b) Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY)

(d) MGNREGA

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30-40 words)

1. Define ‘economic accessibility’ in the context of food security.

2. What does ‘regional disparity’ imply with regards to food security?

3. Identify one major impact of climate change on food security.

4. Define ‘food security’.

5. What is the primary cause of chronic hunger in India?

6. How does the PDS support below poverty line families?

7. What was the impact of the Green Revolution on food insecurity in India?

8. Define buffer stock and its purpose in India’s food security system.

9. How do employment programmes contribute to food security?

10. What is the role of Cooperatives in providing food security? Name two co-operative societies working in different parts of the country.

11. What is the main goal of the National Food Security Act?

12. What are Fair Price Shops? Who can buy from these shops?

13. How did India achieve food self-sufficiency?

14. How have Minimum Support Prices (MSP) helped farmers?

15. What does ‘Availability of food’ mean in the context of food security?

16. Why is accessibility a crucial component of food security?

Short Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. What is meant by hunger? What are the various aspects or dimensions of hunger?

2. How can buffer stocks mitigate the effects of climate change on food security in India?

3. Analyze why economic accessibility is crucial in achieving food security and suggest ways to improve it.

4. Enumerate the ways in which climate change worsens regional disparities in food security.

5. How did the COVID-19 pandemic impact food security in India?

6. What are the effects of having too much stock of foodgrains in India?

7. Describe the role of Public Distribution System (PDS) in addressing food insecurity in India.

8. What are the limitations faced by agricultural workers in periods outside of the planting and harvest seasons that worsen food insecurity in rural areas?

9. How was ‘Food Security’ defined at the World Summit in 1995?

10. What are the main strategies implemented by the Indian government to ensure food security during national emergencies?

11. Write a short note on Academy of Development Science (ADS) Grain Banks.

12. What challenges does the Public Distribution System face in ensuring food security effectively in rural areas?

13. Evaluate the impact of the Buffer Stock policy on farmers’ incentives and food distribution equity in India.

14. What is a Subsidy? How is it helpful for producers?

15. Define ‘food security’ and explain the three components that constitute food security.

16. Discuss the impact of fluctuations in food imports on food security in a nation.

17. How did income loss during COVID-19 affect food security?

Long Answer Questions (100-120 words)

1. Discuss the multi-dimensional nature of food insecurity, considering factors such as economic, geographic, and social elements.

2. Analyze the implications of rising food prices on food insecurity in both rural and urban regions.

3. In the context of the recent Pandemic (COVID 19), how did food insecurity impact public health?

4. Compare and contrast the roles of Buffer Stock and the Public Distribution System in ensuring food security in India. Discuss their interplay and individual significance.

5. “What is the Minimum Support Price (MSP) and what are its effects when increased?”

6. What government schemes have been launched to ensure food security in India?

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

In the 1970s, food security was primarily defined as the “availability at all times of adequate supply of basic foodstuffs” (UN, 1975). However, Amartya Sen introduced a new perspective by emphasizing the concept of “access” to food, which he defined as ‘entitlements’—a combination of what one can produce, exchange in the market, and obtain through state or other socially provided supplies. This shift led to a broader understanding of food security, as highlighted in the 1995 World Food Summit declaration, which defined food security as ensuring that all people, at all times, have physical and economic access to sufficient, safe, and nutritious food to meet their dietary needs and preferences for an active, healthy life. The declaration also acknowledged that eradicating poverty is crucial for improving access to food.

(a) What was the original definition of food security in the 1970s?

(b) How did Amartya Sen change the understanding of food security?

(c) How does the 1995 World Food Summit’s definition of food security reflect a more holistic approach compared to earlier definitions? Explain with reasoning.

2. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

Ramesh is a marginal farmer living in a droughtprone village in Bihar. His small farm can barely feed his family of five. Due to irregular rainfall and lack of irrigation, he often suffers from crop failure. However, he is registered under the Public Distribution System (PDS) and holds a Below Poverty Line (BPL) ration card. Every month, his family receives wheat and rice at subsidized rates from the Fair Price Shop in the village. During the COVID-19 lockdown, Ramesh also received free food grains under

the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY). This government support helped his family survive during the crisis and ensured that no one went hungry. The village also benefits from a government mid-day meal scheme in the local school, where his younger daughter receives one nutritious meal daily.

(a) How did the Public Distribution System help Ramesh’s family?

(b) What special support did Ramesh’s family receive during the COVID-19 lockdown?

(c) Why is food security important for families like Ramesh’s? Identify two government schemes mentioned in the case that promote food security.

Answers

Part A (Objective Question Section)

Multiple Choice Questions

1. (d) Inadequate water resources

2. (d) Unequal land distribution

3. (a) Promote crop diversification

4. (a) Increased local food prices

5. (a) Casual laborers and agricultural workers

6. (c) Ensures availability of food at subsidized rates

7. (d) There was no political intervention to regulate food distribution.

8. (d) Seasonal hunger is due to temporary food shortage, chronic hunger is ongoing.

9. (a) To stabilize market prices and ensure food security during shortages.

10. (c) National Food Security Act, 2013

11. (a) Can lead to wastage and corruption due to inefficiencies.

12. (c) Strict tracking of grain distribution

13. (d) Focus on remote and backward areas

14. (b) Affordability

15. (b) Availability, accessibility, and affordability of food to all people at all times

16. (a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

17. (d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

18. (a) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i

19. (d) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

2. (d) A is false but R is true.

3. (c) A is true but R is false.

4. (d) A is false but R is true.

5. (c) A is true but R is false.

6. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Picture Based Questions

1. (b) A government-run Fair Price Shop under the Public Distribution System (PDS)

2. (a) Mid-Day Meal Scheme

Part B (Subjective Question Section)

Very Short Answer Questions (30-40 words)

1. • Economic accessibility refers to people’s ability to afford sufficient food.

• It includes having enough financial resources to purchase necessary nutrients.

• It’s a crucial factor in ensuring that individuals can meet their dietary needs.

• Economic challenges can hinder acquiring food, impacting overall food security.

2. • Regional disparity in food security refers to uneven access and affordability across areas.

• It affects regions differently based on economic conditions and resource availability.

• Regions with better infrastructure and investment have improved food security.

• Addressing these disparities is crucial for equitable food distribution.

3. • One major impact of climate change is reduced agricultural productivity and possible food shortages due to irregular rainfall and extreme weather.

• This leads to lower crop yields, affecting food availability

• Climate change can also result in new pest and disease threats to crops.

4. • Food security means ensuring everyone has access to sufficient, safe, and nutritious food to lead an active and healthy life

• It encompasses food availability, accessibility, and affordability for everyone in the country.

• Food security prevents hunger and malnutrition.

5. • Chronic hunger in India is primarily due to persistent poverty.

• Poor people cannot afford nutritious food regularly, leading to undernourishment.

• Unemployment, High food prices relative to low incomes prevent them from accessing enough food for a healthy and active life.

6. The Public Distribution System (PDS) supports Below Poverty Line (BPL) families in following ways:

• It offers food grains like wheat, rice, and other staples at subsidized rates through fair price shops.

• It ensures these families have access to essential nutrients.

• It helps stabilize food security for vulnerable households.

7. The Green Revolution significantly reduced food insecurity in India in following ways:

• By increasing food grain production, especially wheat and rice.

• It ensured better food availability, reduced dependence on imports, and helped achieve self-sufficiency, particularly in states like Punjab, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh.

8. • Buffer stock is the surplus of foodgrains procured by the government through agencies like FCI.

• Its purpose is to prevent food shortages in times of calamity, stabilizing prices, and providing grains through the Public Distribution System (PDS).

• By maintaining reserves, it ensures consistent food distribution.

9. Employment programmes contribute to food security

• By providing the poor with income through guaranteed work.

• With regular wages, people can afford nutritious food.

• Programmes like MGNREGA help reduce hunger by ensuring both employment and access to food for vulnerable families.

10. • Cooperatives play a vital role in food security by supplying food at reasonable prices through fair price shops and self-help groups.

• Two such societies are Amul in Gujarat and Mother Dairy in Delhi, ensuring milk and food availability to consumers.

11. • The main goal of the National Food Security Act is to provide food security.

• It aims to offer affordable foodgrains to up to 75% of the rural population.

• Around 50% of the urban population also benefits from this act.

• It reduces hunger by making food a legal right to the eligible.

12. • Fair Price Shops are ration shops under the Public Distribution System (PDS) that sell essential food items like rice, wheat, and sugar at subsidized rates.

• Families identified as Below Poverty Line (BPL) can buy from them.

13. • India became self-sufficient in food production through initiatives like the Green Revolution, which introduced high-yielding variety seeds, improved irrigation, and modern farming techniques.

• This led to increased agricultural productivity, reducing reliance on food imports and ensuring food security.

14. • Minimum Support Prices (MSP) help farmers by guaranteeing a fixed price for their crops, ensuring they receive a fair return for their produce.

• This protection against price fluctuations encourages higher production and stabilizes farmers’ income, promoting food security.

15. • ‘Availability of food’ means having enough food produced or supplied in the country through domestic production, imports, or buffer stocks.

• It ensures that food is physically present in markets to meet the needs of the population at all times.

16. • Accessibility is crucial for food security because

• it ensures that people can obtain food, not just that it is available.

• Without access—due to poverty, poor infrastructure, or social barriers—people cannot benefit from available food, leading to hunger.

Short Answer Questions (50-60 words)

1. Hunger refers to the physical discomfort or pain caused by lack of food.

• Hunger is a key indicator of food insecurity and not only reflects poverty but also contributes to it.

• Hunger has two dimensions:

° chronic hunger, resulting from consistently insufficient or poor-quality diets

° seasonal hunger, which is tied to agricultural cycles of food production and harvest.

2. Buffer stocks play a crucial role in countering food security threats due to climate change in India.

• Buffer stocks ensure food availability during drastic climatic events like droughts.

• These stocks can stabilize prices, preventing food inflation in adverse conditions.

• Timely distribution of buffer stocks helps manage shortages in disaster-hit regions.

• The government can utilize stocks to support vulnerable populations during climatic disruptions.

3. Economic accessibility is crucial for food security because

• It ensures that individuals can afford sufficient, nutritious food.

• Without adequate income, even abundant food supplies become out of reach.

To improve economic accessibility, governments can implement policies like

• raising wages,

• providing social safety nets,

• enhancing employment opportunities, and

• strengthening the Public Distribution System (PDS) to help vulnerable populations access affordable food.

4. Climate change intensifies regional disparities affecting food security across various regions.

• It causes uneven rainfall patterns leading to distorted agricultural productivity.

• Regions with fragile ecosystems are more susceptible to climate impacts on food production.

• Areas reliant on single crops are disproportionately affected by climate shifts.

• Climate change aggravates existing vulnerabilities in economically backward regions.

5. COVID-19 pandemic had an adverse impact upon food security.

• Restriction on movement of goods and services impacted economic activity, limiting access to food, and causing income loss.

• Migrant workers faced job losses and food shortages.

• The lockdowns led to a rise in hunger and malnutrition, especially among vulnerable populations.

• Agricultural production and distribution faced significant challenges due to restrictions and labour shortages.

6. Excessive reserves of foodgrains in India lead to

• wastage due to poor storage, high maintenance costs, and inefficient distribution.

• It burdens government finances and creates imbalances in food supply.

• Farmers may not get fair prices, and it diverts resources from other needs.

• Overstocking also neglects the production of other nutritious food items like pulses and vegetables.

7. The Public Distribution System plays a vital role in food security.

• PDS distributes essential commodities like rice, wheat, and sugar at subsidized rates through fair price shops.

• It ensures food reaches lower-income groups consistently.

• It helps stabilize prices during shortages.

• It ensures food availability, especially during crises like droughts or floods

• Example: PDS was crucial during COVID-19 lockdown to provide essentials.

8. Agricultural workers in rural areas are often vulnerable outside key seasons.

• There are limited employment opportunities outside planting and harvest times leading to increased food insecurity.

• Due to dependence on seasonal work, income is irregular making rural families vulnerable to hunger and malnutrition.

• Without stable wages, they are vulnerable to food price changes.

• Jobs that are available are also not well paid.

9. • The World Summit of 1995 defined food security as a situation where all people, at all times, have physical and economic access to sufficient, safe, and nutritious food to meet their dietary needs and food preferences for an active and healthy life.

• This definition emphasizes availability, accessibility, and adequacy of food for everyone, ensuring long-term nutritional wellbeing.

10. India uses various strategies to strengthen food security during crises.

• Buffer stocks help stabilize food supply, while the Public Distribution System (PDS) ensures food availability to all.

• Cash transfers support vulnerable groups in purchasing food.

• For example, during the COVID-19 pandemic, the government implemented targeted relief measures to ensure that poor and needy populations had access to food.

11. • The Academy of Development Science (ADS) has helped set up community Grain Banks in Maharashtra to ensure food security in rural areas.

• These banks store foodgrains locally and lend them to villagers during times of need.

• Managed by the community, they promote self-reliance and reduce dependency on government aid, helping poor families access food during crises or shortages.

12. While PDS aims to secure food for rural areas, several challenges hinder its effectiveness.

• Corruption and leakage of grains divert resources away from intended beneficiaries.

• Poor infrastructure affects efficient distribution and access to remote villages.

• Rural PDS outlets often suffer from stock shortages and inconsistent supply schedules.

• Inadequate monitoring and accountability allow manipulation within the system.

13. Buffer Stock policy plays a multifaceted role impacting farmers and food distribution.

• Minimum Support Price (MSP) encourages farmers to increase production.

• It helps ensure food reaches the poor through fair distribution.

• However, it often mostly benefits farmers in areas with surplus crops.

• Also, focusing mainly on rice and wheat reduces crop variety in farming

14. Subsidies are a type of financial support given by the government to the people.

• It results in the reduction in the price of the product which is being subsidised.

• It helps producers by reducing their expenses, encouraging higher production, and making goods more affordable for consumers.

• In agriculture, subsidies on seeds, fertilizers, and electricity support farmers, increase output, and help ensure food availability at lower prices.

15. Food security ensures that food is available, accessible, and affordable for all individuals at all times.

• Availability refers to the production, import, and stock of food in a country.

• Accessibility ensures that food is within the reach of every person, physically and economically.

• Affordability means food is within the financial reach of all, especially the poor.

16. Fluctuations in food imports can significantly alter food security in a nation.

• Depending too much on imports makes a country weak against global price changes.

• Less imports during global problems can cause food shortages.

• Changes in imports affect how much food is available in the country.

• This can raise food prices, making it hard for many people to afford enough to eat.

17. Income loss during COVID-19 worsened food security

• It became difficult for many families, especially the poor, to afford basic food.

• Job losses, reduced wages, and economic shutdowns left people without a stable income, leading to hunger and malnutrition.

• Vulnerable groups, such as daily wage earners, were most affected, struggling to access sufficient and nutritious food.

Long Answer Questions (100-120 words)

1. Food insecurity is a complex issue influenced by multiple factors.

• Economically, lack of stable income and poverty limit people’s ability to purchase sufficient and nutritious food.

• Geographically, regions prone to droughts, floods, or poor infrastructure face challenges in food production and distribution, affecting availability and accessibility.

• Social elements such as discrimination based on caste, gender, or ethnicity can also impact food distribution, leading to unequal access.

• Additionally, poor health, lack of education, and unemployment further contribute to vulnerability.

• Government policies, improper public distribution systems, and regional disparities aggravate the problem.

• Addressing food insecurity requires a comprehensive approach that considers all these interconnected dimensions to ensure equitable access to food for all sections of society.

2. Rising food prices have serious implications for food insecurity in both rural and urban areas.

In rural regions

• Mostly, people are dependent on agriculture for livelihood but often do not produce enough for their own consumption.

• Price Rise makes it difficult for them to buy essential food items.

In urban areas

• Most people purchase food from markets, rising prices reduce their purchasing power, especially for the poor and daily wage earners.

• This leads to reduced food intake and poor nutrition.

• Middle-income groups also feel the burden, cutting down on the quality and quantity of food.

Overall, rising prices worsen inequality and deepen food insecurity, affecting health and productivity. Government support becomes essential to control prices and protect vulnerable groups.

3. During the COVID-19 pandemic, food insecurity significantly impacted public health in India.

• Lockdowns and job losses led to widespread unemployment and reduced incomes, making it difficult for many to afford sufficient and nutritious food.

• This situation was particularly severe among vulnerable groups such as migrant workers, women, children, and marginalized communities.

• Malnutrition and weakened immunity increased susceptibility to diseases, including COVID-19 itself.

• Disruptions in food supply chains and health services further worsened the crisis.

• In response, the government implemented relief measures like the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana, providing free food grains to millions.

Despite these efforts, the pandemic highlighted the critical need for robust food security systems to protect public health during emergencies.

Buffer Stock Public Distribution System (PDS)

It is a Reserve of food grains maintained by the government.

It is managed by Food Corporation of India (FCI).

It helps in stabilizing prices, ensure supply during shortages or disasters.

Main function is to procure and store surplus food grains.

It is a system for distributing food grains to the poor.

It is managed through Fair Price Shops (ration shops).

It provides food at subsidized rates to poor and needy people.

Main function is to distribute stored grains to the public.

Interplay and Significance:

• Buffer Stock ensures availability of food; PDS ensures its accessibility.

• Together, they form a strong mechanism to achieve food security in India.

5. The MSP is the price at which the government buys crops from farmers to protect them from low market prices. It ensures that farmers get a fair, guaranteed income and encourages agricultural production. However, it also has some consequences.

Positive Effects of Increasing MSP:

• It can benefit farmers by providing better income.

• It encourages them to grow more food.

Negative Effects of Increasing MSP:

• Higher MSP can lead to overproduction of certain crops like wheat and rice, causing wastage and strain on storage.

• It can also increase the financial burden on the government and raise food prices for consumers.

Therefore, while MSP supports farmers, it must be balanced with efficient procurement, storage, and distribution systems to avoid negative impacts.

6. The government of India has launched several schemes to ensure food security.

• The Public Distribution System (PDS) is a key mechanism that provides subsidized food grains to poor families through fair price shops.

• The Mid-Day Meal Scheme offers free, nutritious meals to school children, improving health and school attendance.

• The Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) targets the poorest families with highly subsidized food.

• The Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) provides food and healthcare to young children and pregnant women.

• A major step was the National Food Security Act, 2013, which made access to food a legal right for about two-thirds of India’s population. It strengthened and expanded the PDS, ensuring food reaches the most vulnerable sections effectively.

Case-Based/Source-Based/Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1

(a) In the 1970s, food security was defined as the “availability at all times of adequate supply of basic foodstuffs” (UN, 1975).

(b) Amartya Sen added the idea of “access” to food through ‘entitlements,’ which include what a person can produce, exchange in the market, and receive through state or social support.

• It includes not only food availability but also physical and economic access

• It emphasises on nutritional adequacy, and the need for an active and healthy life

• It links food security closely with poverty eradication and well-being.

Passage 2

(a) The PDS provided subsidized wheat and rice every month, ensuring food availability even when Ramesh’s crops failed.

(b) They received free food grains under the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY), which helped them survive during the crisis.

(c) Food security ensures that even during natural disasters or economic crises, families have access to sufficient and nutritious food, preventing hunger and malnutrition.

Schemes that promote food security are:

• Public Distribution System (PDS)

• Mid-Day Meal Scheme

SELF-ASSESSMENT

Time: 1 Hour

Section A

Scan me for all answers.

Max. Marks: 40

(a) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

(b) Food Corporation of India (FCI)

(1 × 8 = 8 Marks)

Choose and write the correct answer for each of the following.

1. Identify the cooperative that provides milk and vegetables at fair prices in Delhi.

(a) Amul

(b) Kendriya Bhandar

(d) None of these

2. The price that is announced before the sowing season is called:

(a) Issue price

(b) Fair price

(d) Minimum support price

3. Chronic hunger refers to:

(a) Low income

(b) Inadequate quantity of food

(d) All of the above

4. Which of the following is not a dimension of food security?

(a) Availability

(b) Accessibility

(d) Costly

5. The most devastating famine occurred in India in 1943 in:

(a) Assam (b) Bengal

6. Which of the following is a food intervention programme started by the Indian government?

(a) Digital India

(b) Mid-Day Meal Scheme

(d) Skill India Mission

7. Who is responsible for procuring foodgrains from farmers at the Minimum Support Price (MSP) in India?

(d) Indian Farmers’ Association

8. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Buffer stock is procured by the government through FCI.

Reason (R): PDS includes distribution of essential commodities through Fair price shops.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Section B

Answer the following questions.

9. What do you mean by a famine? (2 Marks)

10. What is the role of Cooperatives in providing food security? (3 Marks)

11. How do natural disasters lead to food insecurity among people? (3 Marks)

12. What is the Public Distribution System (PDS)? What benefits does it offer? (3 Marks)

13. How did the COVID-19 pandemic impact food security in India? (3 Marks)

14. What are the essentials of food security system? (3 Marks)

15. What is rationing, and why was it first introduced in India? (5 Marks)

16. How has India worked towards achieving self-sufficiency in foodgrains since Independence? (5 Marks)

17. What is the Food Corporation of India (FCI) and what are its main roles. (5 Marks)

Self-Assessment Answers

INDIA AND THE CONTEMPORARY WORLD-I (History)

Chapter 1

1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d)

5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (a)

Chapter 2

1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b)

5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (b)

Chapter 3

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c)

5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (a)

Chapter 4

1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b)

5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (a)

Chapter 5

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (b)

5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (a)

CONTEMPORARY INDIA-I (Geography)

Chapter 1

1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (a)

Chapter 2

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a)

5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b)

Chapter 3

1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c)

5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (c)

Chapter 4

1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a)

5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (b)

Chapter 5

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d)

5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b)

Chapter 6

1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (c)

5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (a)

DEMOCRATIC POLITICS-I (Political Science)

Chapter 1

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b)

5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (c)

Chapter 2

1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b)

5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (a)

Chapter 3

1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b)

5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (c)

Chapter 4

1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a)

5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (c)

Chapter 5

1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c)

5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (a)

UNDERSTANDING ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT

(Economics)

Chapter 1 1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d)

5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (a)

Chapter 2

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c)

5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (a)

Chapter 3

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a)

5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (d)

Chapter 4

1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (d)

5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (b)

Projects

Project Work in Social Science

The latest CBSE circular for the academic year 2025–26 outlines the mandate for project work.

The Project work (Interdisciplinary)-Disaster Management is part of the internal assessment, carries a total weightage of 5 marks.

The distribution of marks is as follows:

Objectives of the Project Work:

• To help students gain a deeper and more practical understanding of the selected theme, viewing Social Science through an interdisciplinary lens.

• To enhance essential life skills.

• To apply Social Science concepts learned over the years in the preparation of the project report.

• To provide opportunities for collecting data from both primary and secondary sources.

• To offer a platform for integrating learning into a meaningful project experience.

In the following pages, you will find a suggested structure for the project work, including section headings and explanations of their purpose. Additionally, an exemplar project has been provided using the same structure, allowing students to see how the format translates into actual content grounded in Disaster Management concepts.

Students are encouraged to use the suggested structure to frame their own projects or adapt it as per the specific requirements of their chosen topic.

This is an Interdisciplinary Project where the topic and scope can be chosen by the student/assigned by the teacher.

Section 1: Project Objectives

In this section, the student articulates the aims of the project and outlines what they intend to achieve. It also includes a summary of the topics and/or concepts being explored through the project.

In summary: This section defines the scope and intent of the project.

Section 2: Introduction

Here, students present the background knowledge or ideas relevant to the chosen topic. This section sets the context for the analysis or exploration that follows and may also examine existing beliefs or the current body of knowledge related to the topic.

In summary: This section provides the context for the project and serves as a bridge between the objectives and the main body of work.

Section 3: Main Body of the Project

This section comprises the core content of the project. It may include various headings and sub-headings that allow the student to explore different aspects of the topic. It should present narratives, research findings, interpretations, and any other relevant information the student wishes to include.

In summary: This section forms the primary component of the project and elaborates on the details in alignment with the stated objectives.

Section 4: Research Methodology

This section outlines the research process and describes the steps taken for data and information collection. It helps establish the credibility and structure of the project.

In summary: This section explains how the student approached the research and compiled the information used in the project.

Section 5: Case Studies

This section includes selected case studies relevant to the topic. It connects the gathered information and analysis with real-life situations, helping to contextualize the research.

In summary: This section demonstrates how the chosen topic relates to real-world examples and applications.

Section

6: Conclusion

This section presents the final synthesis of the project. It may include:

• Key Findings: A summary of the main insights and outcomes of the research.

• Reflections: Personal and academic learning gained through the project, including how the student’s understanding evolved and what challenges were encountered.

• Recommendations: Based on the project findings, students may suggest possible actions or next steps for relevant stakeholders such as governments, private bodies, or citizens.

In summary: This section captures the outcomes, personal growth, and suggestions for improving the current scenario related to the topic.

Section 7: Bibliography

This section lists all the sources of information and data referenced in the project. It reinforces the importance of academic integrity and distinguishes between original work and cited materials.

In summary: This section acknowledges all referenced materials and reinforces ethical research practices.

Some Suggested Topics for Projects on Disaster Management (Interdisciplinary)

1. Comparative Study of Major Earthquakes in India and Abroad

• Compare the causes, impacts, and responses to events like the Gujarat earthquake (2001) and Japan earthquake (2011).

2. Climate Change and Increasing Frequency of Disasters

• Investigate how global warming influences the rise in floods, cyclones, and heat waves.

3. Disaster Preparedness in Schools and Educational Institutions

• Evaluate evacuation drills, safety measures, and disaster awareness programs in schools.

4. The Role of Technology in Disaster Prediction and Early Warning Systems

• Study how satellites, weather radars, and mobile apps help prevent loss during disasters.

5. Socio-Economic Impact of Man-Made Disasters

• Focus on events like the Bhopal Gas Tragedy or industrial fires and their effect on communities.

6. Urbanisation and Flood Risk in Indian Cities

• Examine how unplanned urban growth contributes to flooding and drainage failure (e.g., Chennai or Bengaluru floods).

7. Youth and Community Participation in Disaster Management

• Highlight the importance of student involvement, volunteers, and NGOs in relief efforts.

8. Impact of Natural Disasters on Indian Economy

• Explore how disasters like floods, droughts, and earthquakes affect agriculture, trade, infrastructure, and livelihoods in India.

9. Role of Government and Local Bodies in Disaster Management

• Analyse the responsibilities and disaster response mechanisms of central, state, and local governments.

Project Report

Title of the Project:

Objective:

Name:

School:

Year:

Class:

Submitted to:

Acknowledgement

I would like to extend my sincere gratitude to my teacher, ________________, and our respected Principal, ___________, who provided me with the valuable opportunity to undertake this meaningful project on _________________________.

Working on this project significantly enhanced my understanding and knowledge of _____________________________. The extensive research and analysis undertaken allowed me to explore various dimensions of the topic, contributing profoundly to my intellectual growth.

I am deeply thankful to my friends, project partners, and guide for their invaluable support, insights, and for generously investing their precious time in helping me complete this project successfully. Furthermore, I express my heartfelt appreciation to my parents and guardians for their constant encouragement, guidance, and support, which enabled me to finish this assignment timely and effectively.

This project has not merely been an academic endeavor aimed at securing marks; it has also been a profound learning experience that has broadened my perspective and enriched my knowledge.

Once again, I extend my sincere thanks to everyone who contributed to making this project a successful and enriching experience.

Certificate

This is to certify that the project titled _____________________________ is the bonafide work of _________________________ (Name of the student), who has successfully completed the project under my guidance and supervision.

(Name and Signature of Teacher/Supervisor)

Disaster Management Interdisciplinary Project

Objectives of the Project

This interdisciplinary project has multiple perspectives.

• The aim of this project is to understand disasters—both natural and man-made—and how their management is crucial for reducing loss of life, property, and infrastructure.

• It will help develop awareness among students regarding disaster preparedness, mitigation strategies, and the importance of coordination during emergencies.

• It also aims to educate students about the relationship between disasters and subjects like Geography (location-based causes), Economics (financial impacts), History (past disasters and their influence), and Political Science (government roles and policies).

• This project will cover the following topics:

° Classification and causes of disasters

° Effects on society and environment

° Phases of disaster management Cycle

° Disaster management strategies

° Safety and preparedness tips

° Case studies

By exploring these aspects, students will gain interdisciplinary insights and learn the value of preparedness and proactive community participation in managing disasters.

Introduction

A ‘disaster’ is a sudden event that causes massive destruction, loss of life, and damage to property or the environment. Disasters may be natural, such as earthquakes, floods, cyclones, or tsunami, or man-made such as industrial accidents, nuclear leaks, or wars.

These events disrupt normal life, requiring immediate response and long-term recovery.

‘Disaster Management’ is the process of planning, preparing, responding to, and recovering from disasters. Disasters and Disaster Management is not a standalone subject. It is related to other academic disciplines. It impacts a society, at various levels and in multiple ways, starting from the local community to the national level.

• Geography helps understand where and why disasters occur.

• Economics studies the financial losses and economic recovery.

• History records past disasters to learn from them.

• Political Science focuses on government action, policies, and public administration during disasters. Understanding disasters through these lenses makes disaster management more effective, collaborative, and educational.

Causes and Effects of Disasters

• Natural disasters are caused by environmental or geological phenomena (e.g., tectonic activity for earthquakes).

• Human-induced disasters arise from industrial negligence or war. Effects include:

° Loss of life and injuries

° Damage to homes, infrastructure, and the environment

° Displacement and psychological trauma

° Economic disruption and food insecurity

Major Natural and Man-made Disasters

A. Natural disasters include earthquakes, floods, cyclones, tsunamis, droughts, and landslides. These are caused by natural forces and can lead to massive loss of life and property. Biological disasters such as viral outbreaks, such as the COVID-19 outbreak of 2020, pest invasions, livestock epidemics, and locust plagues are come under this category.

Some major natural disasters in India:

• 2001 Gujarat Earthquake

• 2004 Indian Ocean Tsunami

• 2018 Kerala Floods

• Cyclone Amphan (2020)

• Wayanad landslide in Kerala (2024), the Kedarnath landslide in Uttarakhand (2013)

B. Man-made disasters such as industrial accidents, oil spills, nuclear leaks, radiation leaks, mining disasters, and terrorist attacks are caused due to human negligence or intent.

Two major industrial disasters:

• Bhopal Gas Tragedy (1984)

• Chernobyl Disaster (1986)

Two major terrorist attacks:

• 11 September 2001, World Trade Centre attack (USA)

• 26 September 2008 Mumbai Terror attack

Need for Disaster Management

The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), headed by the Prime Minister of India, is the apex body for Disaster Management in India. Setting up of NDMA and the creation of an enabling environment for institutional mechanisms at the State and District levels is mandated by the Disaster Management Act, 2005. Disasters can strike anytime and anywhere, often with little warning. Disaster Management is needed to:

• Save lives and reduce suffering

• Minimise economic losses

• Speed up recovery and rebuilding

• Strengthen community resilience

A well-prepared society can respond efficiently and bounce back faster from calamities.

Disasters

Havoc of floods

Widespread destruction from an earthquake

The Bhopal Gas Tragedy

Phases of Disaster Management Cycle

1. Mitigation: Efforts to reduce the severity or likelihood of a disaster (e.g., building earthquake-resistant structures).

2. Preparedness: Planning and organizing for potential disasters (e.g., evacuation plans, drills, resource stocking).

3. Response: Immediate actions taken during or after a disaster (e.g., search and rescue, first aid, food distribution).

4. Recovery: Long-term efforts to restore normalcy (e.g., rebuilding, psychological counseling, and financial assistance).

The FOUR phases minimise the impact of disasters and help societies bounce back quickly to normalcy.

Preparedness and Safety Tips

Preparedness includes being aware, trained, and equipped. Safety tips:

• During an Earthquake: Drop, Cover, Hold. Evacuate calmly.

• During Fire: Use fire exits, avoid elevators, crawl under smoke.

• Floods: Move to higher ground, avoid contact with flood water.

• Cyclones: Stay indoors, listen to official warnings, stock essentials.

Mitigation

Plan in Case of a Disaster

Why do we need a mitigation plan?

A mitigation plan reduces risks and prepares communities for disasters.

Key components of a mitigation plan:

• GIS (Geographical Information Systems) for disaster mapping

• Early warning systems

• Role of social media and mobile apps in disaster response

• Risk Assessment: Identify hazards and vulnerable areas

• Infrastructure: Build earthquake/flood-resistant buildings

• Regular Check of Safety Equipment: All safety equipment like fire extinguisher, emergency exits, hooters, emergency contact numbers, safety/first aid kit, etc. should be kept ready.

• Emergency Services: Train teams and stock supplies

• Education: Conduct drills in schools and public awareness campaigns

• Coordination: Involve local, state, and national agencies in planning

Evacuation Plan for School in Case of Fire Accident and Earthquake

The two most common disasters are fire accidents and earthquakes.

We should be aware of the essential steps to be taken in the event of any such disaster.

Fire Accident:

• Alarm system alert to be sounded.

• Clear exit signs marked all along the exit route.

• Teachers to lead students through nearest safe exit.

• No panic or pushing.

• Avoid elevators; use stairs only.

• Assemble in playground/safe zone for attendance.

• Conduct regular drills to ensure readiness.

Earthquake:

• Drop, Cover, Hold, during tremors.

• After shaking stops, evacuate quickly and calmly.

• Avoid elevators; use stairs only, do not panic, push or run.

• Assemble in open space and check attendance of all students.

• Conduct regular drills to ensure readiness.

Evacuation Plan for Home in Case of Fire Accident and Earthquake

Fire Accident:

• Know two exits from each room.

• Avoid opening hot doors, crawl under smoke.

• Gather at pre-decided meeting point outside.

• Don’t re-enter the place unless declared safe.

Earthquake:

• Take cover under tables, stay away from glass windows.

• Evacuate after shaking stops using stairs.

• Meet in a safe outdoor area.

• Keep an emergency kit ready at all times.

Tsunami Safety Guidelines for Coastal Areas

A tsunami is a series of large waves usually caused by underwater earthquakes.

Before: Identify if you live in a coastal area and know escape routes.

During: Move to higher ground immediately after a strong earthquake near the coast. Avoid beaches.

After: Return only when officials declare it safe. Help others and avoid floodwaters.

Schools must practice tsunami evacuation drills in vulnerable areas.

Role of Students and Community in Disaster Management

• Students can spread awareness, participate in safety drills to equip themselves for their own safety and to rescue others, in time of need.

• Communities should form local disaster response teams, assist the elderly, sick or disabled people, and follow safe environmental practices.

• Active participation ensures faster response and reduced panic during real time disasters.

Research Methodology

• This project is based on qualitative research using secondary data sources such as books on disasters and disaster management, government reports, online articles, and news archives.

• Information was collected from reliable websites like NDMA (National Disaster Management Authority), UNDRR, and case studies published by reputed organisations.

• The methodology also involved observation of disaster preparedness measures in local environments such as schools and residential buildings.

Some Case Studies

India

Case Study 1: 2024 Wayanad landslides, Kerala

The July 2024 Wayanad landslides were a series of catastrophic landslides triggered by heavy rainfall, resulting in widespread destruction and loss of life. It resulted in over 200 deaths, thousands injured and displaced, and significant damage to property.

Case Study 2: 2013 Uttarakhand Floods

On 16 June 2013, a cloudburst in the state of Uttarakhand caused flash floods and devastating landslides that destroyed several villages and towns. Over 5,000 people died, thousands of people were swept away, and many bodies were never recovered, and several thousands were stranded.

This disaster highlighted the importance of regulating tourism and construction in eco-sensitive zones.

Case Study 3: 2001 Gujarat (Bhuj) Earthquake

The 26 January 2001 Gujarat (Bhuj) earthquake, was a devastating seismic event which measured 7.6 on the Richter scale. It killed nearly 20,000 people and left over 150,000 injured. Thousands of homes were destroyed. The government, armed forces, and international organisations conducted major rescue operations.

The disaster led to reforms in building codes and disaster policy in India.

Case Study 4: Bhopal Gas Tragedy (1984)

A devastating industrial accident, occurred on the night of December 2–3, 1984, at the Union Carbide India Limited (UCIL) pesticide plant in Bhopal, India. A toxic gas, methyl isocyanate (MIC), leaked due to a faulty safety system. The disaster resulted in the immediate deaths of thousands and long-term health consequences for several thousands more, over generations. The site of the UCIL plant remains contaminated even today.

International

Case Study 1: 2015 Nepal Earthquake

The 25 April 2015 Nepal earthquake killed 8,962 people and injured 21,952 across Nepal, India, China and Bangladesh. It measured a magnitude 7.8 and was followed several aftershocks and tremors over several days, killing over 9,000 people. There was massive destruction of infrastructure, buildings and historical monuments, most of them reduced to rubble.

Case Study 2: 2011 Japan Tsunami and Fukushima Nuclear Disaster

On 11 March 2011, a massive 9.0 magnitude earthquake struck off the coast of Japan, triggering a tsunami. Waves over 10 metres high caused destruction in northeastern Japan and led to the Fukushima nuclear disaster. Over 15,000 people died. Japan’s prior preparedness, alert system, and infrastructure helped save many lives despite the scale of the disaster.

Case Study 3: 2010 Deepwater Horizon Oil Spill

The Deepwater Horizon oil spill, which began on April 20, 2010, resulted from an explosion and fire on the Deepwater Horizon drilling rig in the Gulf of Mexico. The explosion, killed 11 workers and injured 17 others, and led to a catastrophic oil leak from the Macondo well. Over 87 days, an estimated 4.9 million barrels (210 million US gallons) of oil spilled into the Gulf of Mexico. The spill caused significant environmental damage and economic hardship for Gulf Coast residents.

2010 Deepwater Horizon Oil Spill

Case Study 4: 1991 Persian Gulf Oil Spill

The worst oil spill in history was the Persian Gulf Oil Spill of 1991. It began in January, where an estimated 380520 million gallons of oil was released into the Persian Gulf. This massive spill, a result of Iraqi troops setting fire to oil wells as they withdrew from Kuwait during the Gulf War, caused significant environmental damage and is considered one of the largest oil spills in history. Oil wells in Kuwait were set on fire by retreating Iraqi forces in February 1991, as they withdrew from the country following the First Gulf War. Approximately 700 wells were ignited, and the fires burned for several months. The fires caused significant environmental damage and pollution. A wholly mad-made disaster in the frenzy of war, caused massive environmental damage!

Conclusion

• Disasters—both natural and man-made—cause widespread destruction.

• However, proactive disaster management significantly reduces loss and accelerates recovery.

• Preparedness is essential for survival during disasters.

• Public awareness, government policies, and individual action must work together to mitigate any kind of disaster.

• The interdisciplinary approach combines perspectives from Geography, History, Political Science, and Economics to understand the broad impact of disasters and the effectiveness of management strategies.

Recommendations

• Schools and residential colonies should regularly conduct safety drills.

• Local communities should have emergency kits and evacuation plans.

• Students should be trained as disaster awareness ambassadors.

• More funding should be allocated for building resilient infrastructure.

• Scientists, engineers and architects should research and develop more disaster/accident resistant structures. For example, Japan has developed earthquake and tsunami resistant buildings which reduce property and loss to life, despite earthquakes and tsunamis of dangerous magnitude.

Bibliography / References

• NDMA (National Disaster Management Authority) official website UNDRR (United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction) reports

• News articles from The Hindu, BBC, and Times of India, National Geographic, and Encyclopedia Britannica, for general overviews of case studies

Viva Voce

1. What do you understand by the term disaster?

Ans. A ‘disaster’ is a sudden event that causes massive destruction, loss of life, and damage to property or the environment.

2. What is the difference between natural and man-made disasters?

Ans. Natural disasters are caused by nature, like earthquakes or floods, while man-made disasters are caused by human actions, like accidents or war.

3. Why is disaster management important?

Ans. Disaster management is important because it helps to minimise the loss of life, property and the environment, caused by natural or human-made disasters. It helps to speed up recovery and rebuilding, and strengthens community resilience.

4. What is the role of students in disaster preparedness?

Ans. Students can actively participate in disaster preparedness by learning about different types of disasters, practicing emergency procedures, helping others in rescue and evacuation, and sharing information with their families and communities.

5. What are the four phases of disaster management cycle?

Ans. The four phases of the disaster management cycle are mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery.

6. What safety measures should be followed during a fire in school?

Ans. During a fire in school, the most important safety measure is to evacuate quickly without any panic to a designated safe meeting point out in the open, following the pre-planned evacuation route and procedures.

7. Tell 3 Do’s and 3 Don’ts when there is an earthquake.

Ans. During an earthquake, it's essential to DO: drop, cover, and hold on under a sturdy desk or table, stay indoors, and move to an open space if outdoors.

DON'T: panic to rush outside, evacuate only after shaking stops, stay away from danger items.

8. Explain the importance of early warning systems.

Ans. An early warning system is a technology and process designed to detect a potential disaster early enough to provide sufficient time to react and mitigate the impact on people and infrastructure.

9. What did you learn from the Gujarat Earthquake case study?

Ans. The Gujarat Earthquake disaster led to reforms in building codes and disaster policy in India. It also highlighted the importance of efficient communication and swift relief efforts to minimise damage and loss of life in case of natural disasters.

10. How can communities help during disasters?

Ans. Communities can help during disasters by providing immediate support like search and rescue, first aid, and essential supplies, as well as long-term support like rebuilding infrastructure and restoring livelihoods.

Examination Time Part B

Sample Question Paper – 1 (Solved)

Time Allowed: 3 hours

General Instructions:

Read the following instructions carefully and follow them:

I. This question paper contains 37 questions. All questions are compulsory.

II. Question paper is divided into SIX sections - Section A, B, C, D, E and F

III. Section A - question number 1 to 20 are multiple choice type questions. Each question carries 1 mark.

IV. Section B - question number 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer type questions. Each question carries 2 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 40 words.

V. Section C - question number 25 to 29 are Short Answer type questions. Each question carries 3 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 60 words.

VI. Section D - question number 30 to 33 are Long Answer type questions. Each question carries 5 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 120 words.

VII. Section E - question number 34 to 36 are Case-based/Source-based questions with three sub-questions. Each question carries 4 marks.

VIII. Section F - question number 37 is Map skill based question with two parts 37(i) History (2 marks) and 37(ii) Geography (3 marks). This question carries total 5 marks.

SECTION A

(Multiple Choice Questions) (20 × 1 = 20 MARKS)

1. In a democratic election, why is it vital for every vote to have equal value?

(a) To ensure everyone’s decision is equally weighted.

(b) To make governances richer.

(d) To reduce the number of voters.

2. Identify the country that restricted its citizens from forming political parties.

(a) India

(b) Saudi Arabia

(d) Canada

3. In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Majority of the villagers of India are engaged in services.

Reason (R): Transportation is a service.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

4. Why can social exclusion result in deeper poverty beyond just having a low income?

(a) It limits access to communities.

(b) It impacts cultural identity.

5. What is the primary cause of frictional unemployment?

(a) Technological changes in industries

(b) People moving from one job to another

(d) Mismatch between skills and job requirements

6. Kavita wants to increase the produce of her field. What is the most simple and common way to achieve it?

(a) Taking a loan

(b) Increasing irrigation

(d) Using HYV seeds

7. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: The poverty line in India considers the cost of basic food items for its calculation.

Statement II: Social exclusion is a process where individuals are forced to live in isolation from societal benefits.

Statement III: Scheduled Tribes and Scheduled Castes often have an average poverty rate due to socio-economic empowerment.

Statement IV: Analysis of poverty trends is primarily based on economic growth statistics alone.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and III are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

8. Match the following

Group I

Group II

A. HYV seeds, tractor, fertilisers i. Non-farm activities

B. Dairy, rice mill, shops ii. Method of irrigation

C. Borrow money iii. Features of modern farming

D. Persian wheel iv. Small farmers

(a) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii

(b) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv (c) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

9. What did the fall of the Bastille signify?

(a) The rise of monarchy

(b) End of feudal privileges

(d) Victory of the clergy

(d) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii

10. What does the poster suggest about factory smoke in Soviet Russia?

(a) It symbolises strength and progress.

(b) It warns against pollution.

(d) It represents economic failure.

11. What was the name of the secret police in Nazi Germany?

(a) Gestapo

(b) Red Army

(d) Black Shirts

12. Why were Maasai herders restricted from moving into many areas in Africa?

(a) The land was infertile.

(b) Wildlife protection laws were enforced.

(d) There was too much rainfall.

13. Which one of the following is an essential feature of a democracy?

(a) Unelected rulers

(b) Censorship of media

(d) One-party rule

14. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

15. The President of India is elected by:

(a) The Lok Sabha only

(b) The people directly

(d) The Supreme Court

16. Where is the Maldives located?

(a) South of Andaman Islands

(b) B.R. Ambedkar

(d) Sardar Patel

(b) South of Ganga Delta

(d) South of Lakshadweep

17. In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Coral polyps secrete calcium carbonate.

Reason (R): A tolls are horse shoe-shaped coral reefs and usually surround a lagoon.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

18. What is a direct method to reduce pollution in rivers due to urban runoff?

(a) Installing water turbines

(b) Reducing use of detergents

(d) Increasing urban afforestation

19. How do the Himalayas impact the climate of Northern India?

(a) They bring more rainy weather.

(b) They increase the coastal temperatures.

(d) They prevent cold winds from Central Asia affecting the climate.

20. Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement I: The National Population Policy 2000 aimed to achieve universal immunisation of children.

Statement II: Family Welfare Programme promotes voluntary family planning.

Statement III: Adolescent education is not part of the National Population Policy 2000.

Statement IV: The National Population Policy makes family welfare a people-centred programme.

(a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

(b) Statements I, II and IV are appropriate.

(d) Statements I and III are appropriate.

SECTION B

(Very Short Answer Type Questions) (4 × 2 = 8 MARKS)

21. Why is it important to develop skills in today’s workforce?

22. Describe any three ways in which Nazi ideology influenced the youth in Germany.

23. Why do we need a Constitution?

24. What is the role of the Prime Minister in India?

SECTION C

(Short Answer Type Questions) (5 × 3 = 15 MARKS)

25. Why are rights important during a conflict?

26. What is the primary production activity in the village? Name one significant change in the way farming is carried out. What is a side effect of this change?

27. What was the significance of the Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen in the French Revolution?

28. Why is democracy considered a better form of government than dictatorship?

29. What are the main features of the Retreating Monsoon?

SECTION D

(Long Answer Type Questions) (4 × 5 = 20 MARKS)

30. What are the key differences between a general election and a by-election in India? Under what situations is each type of election conducted?

31. “Poverty is a burden that holds back human progress and dignity."

32. Explain the causes of the February Revolution in Petrograd in 1917.

33. Discuss the features of the Northern Plains.

SECTION E

(Case-based / Source-based Questions) (3 × 4 = 12 MARKS)

34. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow. (1 + 1 + 2 = 4 marks)

Ajay is a small-scale farmer living in a drought-prone village in Bihar. His tiny farm barely prvides enough food for his family of five. Due to unpredictable rainfall and the absence of proper irrigation, he frequently faces crop failures. However, he is registered under the Public Distribution System (PDS) and holds a Below Poverty Line (BPL) ration card. Each month, his family gets wheat and rice at subsidized prices from the village Fair Price Shop. During the COVID-19 lockdown, Ajay also benefited from free food grains distributed under the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY). This government aid helped his family survive the crisis and ensured that no one went hungry. Additionally, the village has a government-run midday meal program at the local school, where his younger daughter receives a nutritious meal every day.

(a) How did the Public Distribution System help Ajay’s family?

(b) What special support did Ajay’s family receive during the COVID-19 lockdown?

(c) Why is food security important for families like Ajay’s? Identify two government schemes mentioned in the case that promote food security.

35. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow. (1 + 1 + 2 = 4 marks) We have found in non-violence a force which, if organised, can without doubt match itself against a combination of all the most violent forces in the world. In non-violent technique, as I have said, there is no such thing as defeat. It is all ‘do or die’ without killing or hurting. It can be used practically without money and obviously without the aid of science of destruction which you have brought to such perfection. It is a marvel to me that you do not see that it is nobody’s monopoly. If not the British, some other power will certainly improve upon your method and beat you with your own weapon. You are leaving no legacy to your people of which they would feel proud. They cannot take pride in a recital of cruel deed, however skilfully planned. I, therefore, appeal to you in the name of humanity to stop the war…. I am, Your sincere friend, M. K. GANDHI .

(a) According to Gandhiji, what is the core strength of non-violence?

(b) Why does Gandhiji say that non-violence can be used without money or destructive science?

36. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow. (1 + 1 + 2 = 4 marks) India’s contacts with the World have continued through ages but her relationships through the land routes are much older than her maritime contacts. The various passes across the mountains in the north have provided passages to the ancient travellers, while the oceans restricted such interaction for a long time. These routes have contributed to the exchange of ideas and commodities since ancient times. The ideas of the Upanishads and the Ramayana, the stories of Panchtantra, the Indian numerals and the decimal system thus could reach many parts of the world. The spices, muslin and other merchandise were taken from India to different countries. On the other hand, the influence of Greek sculpture, and the architectural styles of domes and minarets from West Asia can be seen in different parts of our country.

(a) Which mountains in the north does this passage refer to?

(b) What special architectural influence of West Asian sculpture can be seen in India?

(c) ‘The ancient routes helped in spreading the literary wealth and special products of India, beyond its boundaries.’ Justify the statement with two examples.

SECTION F

(Map Skill Based Question) (1 × 5 = 5 MARKS)

37. A. Map Work History (2)

On the given outline political map of the world, mark and label the following:

(i) One country that was part of the Axis Powers

(ii) One country that was part of the Allied Powers

B.

On the outline map of India (political), label the following:

(i) Chhattisgarh

(ii) Vindhya Range (draw the range)

(iii) Mount K2 (mark with a triangle)

LAKSHADWEEP (INDIA)

ARABIAN SEA

Sample Question Paper – 1 (Solved)

Answer Key

SECTION A (Multiple Choice Questions)

1. (a) To ensure everyone’s decision is equally weighted.

2. (b) Saudi Arabia

3. (d) A is false but R is true.

4. (c) It leads to isolation from social benefits.

5. (b) People transitioning between jobs

6. (c) Multiple cropping

7. (a) Statements I and II are appropriate.

8. (a) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii

9. (b) End of feudal privileges

10. (a) It symbolises strength and progress.

11. (a) Gestapo

12. (c) The British colonial government demarcated grazing lands

13. (c) Regular elections

14. (b) B.R. Ambedkar

15. (c) Members of Parliament and State Legislatures

16. (d) South of Lakshadweep

17. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

18. (c) Construction of stormwater management systems

19. (d) They prevent cold winds from Central Asia affecting the climate.

20. (b) Statements I, II and IV are appropriate.

SECTION B (Very Short Answer Type Questions)

21. Skill development is essential because

• It equips individuals with necessary competencies for modern job demands.

• It supports adaptability to technological advancements.

• Skill development enhances employability and reduces unemployment.

• It contributes to higher productivity and national economic growth.

22. • Nazi ideology influenced youth through the Hitler Youth movement, instilling loyalty to Hitler.

• Schools taught Nazi beliefs, glorifying war and Aryan supremacy. Textbooks were rewritten to reflect Nazi views.

• Physical training became essential, preparing boys for military service and girls for motherhood, reinforcing gender roles and obedience to the state.

23. • A Constitution provides the basic rules for governance, defines the powers of government institutions, and protects citizens’ rights.

• It ensures justice, equality, and liberty, and prevents the misuse of power by any authority.

24. • The Prime Minister is the head of the government, leads the Cabinet, and coordinates the work of various ministries.

• They play a central role in policymaking and represent the country in national and international matters.

SECTION C (Short Answer Type Questions)

25. Rights are especially important during conflicts because of the following reasons:

• They protect people from abuse by authorities.

• In times of war or emergency, governments might misuse power by arresting or harming citizens unfairly.

• Rights ensure legal protection, fair treatment, and dignity even during crises.

• They act as a safeguard against injustice, preventing torture, discrimination, and unlawful killings.

• Without rights, people suffer silently, and justice is lost during difficult times.

26. Farming is the main production activity in the village.

• An important change in the way farming is practised is the use of modern techniques like high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilizers, and pesticides.

• While this increases production, a major side effect is soil degradation and the overuse of groundwater, leading to environmental problems.

27.

• The Declaration affirmed that liberty, equality, and fraternity were natural and inalienable rights.

• It shifted power from the monarchy to the people by establishing popular sovereignty.

• It also guaranteed freedom of speech and legal equality, laying the foundation for democracy in France and inspiring similar revolutionary and human rights movements worldwide.

28.

• Democracy allows citizens to choose their representatives through regular and free elections.

• It ensures accountability of the government to the people.

• People's rights and freedoms are protected under the rule of law.

• Unlike dictatorship, power in democracy is not concentrated in one hand.

• It encourages transparency, debate, and peaceful change.

29. • The Retreating Monsoon, or Post-Monsoon season, in India is characterised by the weakening and withdrawal of the southwest monsoon winds.

• This period, typically from October to November, is marked by a transition from the rainy season to the dry winter conditions.

• The characteristic features during this time are clear skies, rising temperatures, and cyclonic depressions.

SECTION D

(Long Answer Type Questions)

30.

General Election

By-Election

Election held to elect members of the Lok Sabha or State Assemblies. Election held to fill a vacant seat in the legislature.

Conducted after the expiry of the full term (usually 5 years). Held anytime a seat becomes vacant before the next general election.

Conducted across the entire country or a whole state. Held in only one constituency where the seat is vacant. To form a new government at the central or state level. To fill a vacancy due to resignation, death, or disqualification of a member.

Happens once every 5 years unless early elections are called. Happens as needed, not on a regular schedule.

31. Poverty is truly a curse upon humanity as it deprives people of basic needs like food, shelter, education, and healthcare.

• It forces individuals, especially children, to work instead of going to school, which continues the cycle of poverty across generations.

• Poor living conditions lead to poor health and low life expectancy.

• Poverty also leads to social inequality, lack of dignity, and exclusion from opportunities for growth and development.

• It creates feelings of hopelessness and powerlessness among the poor.

• Moreover, poverty weakens the overall progress of a nation, as a large part of the population remains unproductive and unskilled.

• Therefore, removing poverty is essential for ensuring justice, equality, and sustainable development for all sections of society.

32. • Impact of World War I: Russia faced heavy losses, food and fuel shortages, and economic hardships due to its involvement in the war.

• Worker Discontent: Harsh working conditions, low wages, and long hours led to strikes and unrest in factories.

• Peasant and Soldier Unrest: Soldiers were tired of war, and peasants demanded land reforms.

• Loss of Faith in the Monarchy: The Tsarina’s German background and Rasputin’s influence discredited the royal family.

• Immediate Trigger: On 25th February 1917, workers went on strike and soldiers mutinied. The Tsar abdicated, ending monarchy and leading to the formation of the Provisional Government.

33. • The Northern Plains stretch about 2,400 kilometres in length and 240 to 320 kilometres in width.

• It is formed by the sediment deposited by major rivers like the Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra.

• The plains comprise fertile alluvial soil, making it one of the most agriculturally productive regions in India.

• The plain is divided into three sections—the Punjab Plain in the west, the Ganga Plain in the centre, and the Brahmaputra Plain in the east.

• It is traversed by multiple rivers and their tributaries, leading to the formation of doabs in Punjab, and riverine islands like Majuli, in Brahmaputra.

• South of the Shiwaliks is a swampy area known as terai. It is well-known for its rich biodiversity and is a crucial habitat for wildlife.

SECTION E

(Case-based / Source-based Questions)

34. (a) The PDS provided subsidized wheat and rice every month, ensuring food availability even when Ramesh’s crops failed.

(b) They received free food grains under the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY), which helped them survive during the crisis.

(c) Food security ensures that even during natural disasters or economic crises, families have access to sufficient and nutritious food, preventing hunger and malnutrition. Schemes that promote food security are:

• Public Distribution System (PDS)

• Mid-Day Meal Scheme

35. (a) The core strength of non-violence, according to Gandhiji, is that it is a powerful force capable of standing against the most violent forces in the world.

(b) • Gandhiji asserts that non-violence requires no financial investment or reliance on destructive technologies.

• It is based on moral strength and personal conviction, not on weapons or scientific advancements used for harm.

(c) • Gandhiji warns that if the British continue using violence, other powers may adopt and enhance their methods and eventually defeat them using those same violent tactics.

• He implies that violent achievements leave behind no honourable legacy for future generations.

36. (a) The passage refers to the Himalayas.

(b) The architectural styles of domes and minarets from West Asia can be seen in different parts of India.

(c) • The literary ideas of the Upanishads, the Ramayana, and the stories of Panchtantra, the Indian numerals and the decimal system reached many parts of the world through these mountain passages.

• Indian spices, muslin and other merchandise were taken from India to different countries through these mountain routes.

37. A. Map Work History

SECTION F

(Map Skill Based Question)

B. Map Work Geography

Sample Question Paper – 2 (Solved)