
Course Introduction
Course Introduction
Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the biological, social, and environmental factors influencing human health and disease. This course provides an overview of key concepts in human anatomy, physiology, epidemiology, public health, and healthcare systems. Students will examine how scientific advances, health policies, and ethical considerations shape the delivery of health services. Emphasis is placed on understanding disease prevention, health promotion, and the roles of healthcare professionals in improving community and global health outcomes. Through case studies and practical applications, students gain a foundational understanding of how health sciences contribute to the well-being of individuals and populations.
Recommended Textbook
Histology and Cell Biology An Introduction to Pathology 3rd Edition by Abraham L Kierszenbaum
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246 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following proteins composes the majority of the basal lamina?
A) Collagen
B) Fibrin
C) Fibronectin
D) Integrin
E) Laminin
Answer: E
Q2) Identify the INCORRECT statement
A) Basal lamina can be divided into the lamina densa and lamina lucida
B) Desmosomes are an effective barrier to the diffusion of substances across an epithelium.
C) In pseudostratified epithelia all epithelial cells contact the basement membrane.
D) The basal lamina can act as a selective filter between the epithelium and the connective tissue.
E) Tight junctions between epithelial cells are an effective barrier to the diffusion of substances across an epithelium.
Answer: B
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Q1) Facilitated diffusion
A) Is another name for osmosis
B) Occurs against a concentration gradient
C) Occurs through pores in the phospholipid bilayer
D) Requires specialized proteins
E) Requires energy
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is the site of steroid hormone synthesis?
A) Golgi apparatus
B) Mitochondria
C) Ribosomes
D) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
E) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: E
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Q1) An action potential triggers the release of a(n)
A) Eicosanoid
B) Neurotransmitter
C) Paracrine
D) Peptide hormone
E) Steroid hormone
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is most likely to initiate apoptosis?
A) Apaf-1
B) Bcl-2
C) Caspase 3
D) Caspase 9
E) DNA protein kinase
Answer: D
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Q1) Metastasis can occur when tumor cells release _____, which can dissolve the basement membrane, resulting in the invasion of the tumor into underlying connective tissue.
A) Collagenase I
B) Collagenase IV
C) Gelatinase A
D) Elastase
E) Stromelysin 1
Q2) Dense regular connective tissue
A) Attaches bone to muscle and bone to bone
B) Is composed of a random arrangement of collagen fibers
C) Is composed primarily of fibroblasts in dense bundles
D) Owes its characteristics to the predominance of collagen II
E) Surrounds the walls of hollow organs
Q3) Formation of new cartilage along the surface of pre-existing cartilage is termed
A) Appositional growth
B) Endochondral growth
C) Interstitial growth
D) Intramembranous growth
E) Isogenous growth
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Q1) What occurs in the hypertrophic zone during endochondral ossificiation?
A) Chondrocytes in the center of the cartilage undergo mitosis and growth
B) Invasion of empty lacunae by osteoprogenitor cells
C) Penetration of calcified septa by blood vessels
D) Programmed cell death of chondrocytes
E) Proliferating chondrocytes organize into parallel columns
Q2) When the epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone
A) Appositional bone growth begins
B) Interstitial bone growth begins
C) Long bones have reached their adult length
D) Puberty begins
E) The bone becomes more brittle
Q3) Each of the following statements about epiphyseal plates is correct EXCEPT
A) Appositional growth occurs on the epiphyseal side
B) Bone replaces cartilage on the diaphyseal side
C) Mitotically active chondrocytes are distributed throughout the zone of reserve cartilage
D) These chondrocytes are required for lengthening of long bones
E) They contain a portion of healthy hyaline cartilage
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Q1) Which cell type synthesizes and releases antibodies?
A) Basophil
B) B-lymphocyte
C) Eosinophil
D) Monocyte
E) T-lymphocyte
Q2) One major protein of plasma that is involved in blood clotting is
A) Albumin
B) Fibrinogen
C) Globulin
D) Immunoglobulin
E) Spectrin
Q3) Which cell type differentiates into macrophages?
A) Basophil
B) Eosinophil
C) Lymphocyte
D) Monocyte
E) Neutrophil
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Q1) Following stimulation at the neuromuscular junction, Ca² binds to ____ on thin filaments.
A) F-actin
B) G-actin
C) Nebulin 77
D) Tropomyosin
E) Troponin
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a structural component of a triad?
A) Myofibril
B) Sarcolemma
C) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
D) Terminal cisterna
E) Transverse tubule
Q3) Following the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction, an action potential travels along the _____ to the interior of the muscle cell.
A) Sarcomere
B) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
C) Thick filament
D) Thin filament
E) Transverse tubule
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Q1) Neurotransmitters synthesized in the soma of a neuron reach the synaptic cleft via A) Action potentials
B) Anterograde axonal transport
C) Graded potentials
D) Retrograde axonal transport
E) Synaptic activity
Q2) Which of the following surrounds individual neurons within a nerve?
A) Endoneurium
B) Endoplasmic reticulum
C) Epineurium
D) Myelin
E) Perineurium
Q3) The neuroglial cells responsible for myelinating axons in the central nervous system are
A) Astrocytes
B) Ependymal cells
C) Microglial cells
D) Oligodendrocytes
E) Schwann cells
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Q1) The photoreceptor neurons of the retina synapse on ____
A) Amacrine cells
B) Bipolar cells
C) Ganglion cells
D) Horizontal cells
E) Müller cells
Q2) Most of the aqueous humor produced by the ciliary body drains into the
A) Aqueous veins
B) Canal of Schlemm
C) External collecting channel
D) Scleral plexus
E) Trabecular meshwork
Q3) When auditory vibrations enter the cochlear duct, the _____ membrane remains stationary, resulting in a shearing action of the vibrating hair cells, leading to the stimulation of the cochlear nerve
A) Basilar
B) Reissner's
C) Sacular
D) Tectorial
E) Tympanic
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Q1) When a child develops measles and acquires immunity to a subsequent infection, this type of immunity is called
A) Adaptive immunity
B) Artificial immunity
C) Inherited immunity
D) Natural immunity
E) Passive immunity
Q2) The major histocompatibility complex
A) Activates B cells to produce specific antibodies
B) Differentiates into cytotoxic T cells upon re-exposure to a known pathogen
C) Helps T cells recognize antigens as nonself
D) Recognizes and kills viral cells by secreting perforin
E) Secretes interferon on contact with a virus
Q3) The humoral immune response is carried out by
A) B lymphocytes
B) Erythrocytes
C) Neutrophils
D) T lymphocytes
E) Thrombocytes
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Q1) Which of the following epidermal layers is closest to the dermis?
A) Stratum corneum
B) Stratum germinativum
C) Stratum granulosum
D) Stratum lucidum
E) Stratum spinosum
Q2) Which of the following sensory receptors is activated by painful stimuli?
A) Mechanoreceptors
B) Meissner corpuscles
C) Merkel disks
D) Nociceptors
E) Pacinian corpuscles
Q3) These cells are responsible for producing a pigment that protects underlying tissue from ultraviolet radiation
A) Basal (satellite) cells
B) Keratinocytes
C) Langerhans cells
D) Melanocytes
E) Merkel cells
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Q1) Purkinje fibers of the conductive system of the heart are embedded in the
A) Epicardium
B) Myocardium
C) Subendocardium
D) Subepicardium
E) Visceral pericardium
Q2) In the heart's conduction system, the electrical signal travels from the atrioventricular node to the
A) Atrioventricular bundle (bundle of His)
B) Bundle branches
C) Junctional fibers
D) Purkinje fibers
E) Sinoatrial node
Q3) Which of the following is not a component of the tunica intima of a muscular artery?
A) Internal elastic lamina
B) Simple squamous epithelia
C) Smooth muscle
D) Subendothelial connective tissue
E) All of the above compose the muscular artery tunica intima
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Q1) Which respiratory structure constitutes the last part of the conducting zone?
A) Alveolar ducts
B) Primary bronchi
C) Respiratory bronchioles
D) Secondary bronchi
E) Terminal bronchioles
Q2) Keratinized epithelium becomes nonkeratinized at which of the following structures?
A) Nasal vestibule
B) Nasopharynx
C) Olfactory region of nasal cavity
D) Oropharynx
E) Posterior nasal cavity
Q3) Which of the following cells in the olfactory epithelium are structurally bipolar neurons?
A) Basal cells
B) Bowman's cells
C) Columnar cells
D) Olfactory cells
E) Sustentacular cells
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Q1) Each renal corpuscle receives blood directly from which of the following vessels?
A) Afferent arteriole
B) Arcuate artery
C) Efferent arteriole
D) Interlobar artery
E) Interlobular artery
Q2) The loop of Henle
A) Comprises the macula densa
B) Descends into the renal medulla
C) Is lined by cuboidal or columnar epithelium
D) Is the longest section of the renal tubule
E) Is where glomerular filtrate is produced
Q3) Simple cuboidal epithelium containing long microvilli lines the A) Bowman's capsule
B) Collecting duct
C) Distal convoluted tubule
D) Loop of Henle
E) Proximal convoluted tubule
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Q1) Which of the following is true of the fungiform lingual papillae?
A) There are 8 to12 of them along the sulcus terminalis
B) They are single, evenly spaced, and are located on the tongue's margin
C) They are the largest lingual papillae and contain the most taste buds
D) They are the smallest and most numerous papillae and give the tongue its characteristic rough appearance
E) They help to clean oral surfaces as well as manipulate and process food
Q2) The secretion of which cell type is needed to begin the process of digesting proteins?
A) Chief cells
B) Gastroenteroendocrine cells
C) Mucous neck cells
D) Parietal cells
E) Stem cells
Q3) The outer surface of the tooth's root is covered by _____.
A) Cementum
B) Dentin
C) Enamel
D) Gingivae
E) Pulp
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of the crypts of Lieberkühn?
A) Their bases may contain Paneth cells
B) They are found between the intestinal villi
C) They are intestinal glands
D) They are simple tubular glands
E) They are unique to the small intestine
Q2) Where are electrolytes actively absorbed, and where is water passively absorbed?
A) Duodenum
B) Ileum
C) Jejunum
D) Large intestine
E) Stomach
Q3) Which of the following are not mucosal specializations of the small intestine?
A) Peyer's patches
B) Villi
C) Plicae circulares
D) Microvilli
E) Rugae
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Q1) Which of the following does not differentiate the gallbladder from the liver?
A) Microvilli are present on gallbladder epithelial cells
B) The gallbladder epithelium is folded
C) The muscularis mucosae of the gallbladder is thicker than that of the liver
D) There are no mucus-producing cells in the gallbladder
E) Water is reabsorbed from the bile in the gallbladder
Q2) Portal triads are made up of vessels carrying all of the following EXCEPT
A) Bile away from the liver cells
B) Deoxygenated blood away from the liver cells
C) Deoxygenated blood to the liver cells
D) Nutrient-rich blood to the liver cells
E) Oxygenated blood to the liver cells
Q3) Which of the following has a mucosa that is rich in mitochondria, absorbs sodium, and is lined with columnar epithelium?
A) Anterior dorsal tongue
B) Intercalated intralobular salivary ducts
C) Interlobular salivary ducts
D) Striated intralobular salivary ducts
E) Vermilion aspect of the lips
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Q1) Prolactin secretion is _____ by _____.
A) Inhibited dopamine
B) Inhibited somatostatin
C) Stimulated dopamine
D) Stimulated growth hormone-releasing hormone
E) Stimulated nerve impulse from the hypothalamus
Q2) Which of the following statements about the neurohypophysis is not true?
A) Contains glial-like cells called pituicytes
B) It synthesizes, stores, and secretes antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin
C) Its axons derive from the paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei
D) Secretion of its hormones is controlled by nerve impulses from the hypothalamus
E) The hypothalamohypophyseal tract runs through the infundibulum
Q3) The anterior pituitary
A) Has a blood-brain barrier generated by pituicytes
B) Is composed of basophils, acidophils, and chromophobe cells
C) Is made up of the pars nervosa and the infundibulum
D) Receives blood from the inferior hypophyseal artery
E) Secretes hormones when directed to do so by a nervous signal from the hypothalamus
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Q1) Which endocrine structure secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine?
A) Adenohypophysis
B) Adrenal cortex
C) Adrenal medulla
D) Neurohypophysis
E) Thyroid gland
Q2) The trophic hormone that controls the release of T4 (thyroxine) and T3 (triiodothyronine) is secreted by
A) Acidophilic cells
B) Basophilic cells
C) Chromaffin cells
D) Chromophobic cells
E) Follicular cells
Q3) Parafollicular cells
A) Are found in the parathyroid glands
B) Are found in the zona glomerulosa
C) Constitute the pars tuberalis
D) Secrete a hormone that lowers blood calcium levels
E) Secrete hormones responsible for establishing the basal metabolic rate
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Q1) Which of the following are diploid structures?
A) Primary spermatocytes
B) Secondary spermatocytes
C) Sperm
D) Spermatids
E) Spermatozoa
Q2) Which of the following is not true of Sertoli cells?
A) Their function is regulated by follicle-stimulating hormone
B) They are found in testicular interstitial tissue
C) They prevent cytotoxic agents from moving to the seminiferous tubules from the blood by forming tight junctions with adjacent Sertoli cells
D) They provide mechanical support for spermatogenic cells
E) They provide nutrition for spermatogenic cells
Q3) Meiosis II occurs in the
A) Primary spermatocyte
B) Secondary spermatocyte
C) Spermatid
D) Spermatogonia
E) Spermatozoa
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Q1) Sperm move from the tubuli recti into the
A) Ductuli efferentes
B) Epididymidis
C) Rete testis
D) Seminiferous tubules
E) Vas deferens
Q2) Which duct has a characteristic wavy lumen as a result of different epithelial cell heights?
A) Ductuli efferentes
B) Ductus epididymidis
C) Rete testis
D) Seminiferous tubules
E) Tubuli recti
Q3) Which of the following structures secretes the largest component of seminal fluid?
A) Bulbourethral gland
B) Ductuli efferentes
C) Ductus epididymidis
D) Prostate gland
E) Seminal vesicle
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Q1) The thick fibromuscular layer of the uterus is the A) Cervix
B) Cortex
C) Endometrium
D) Myometrium
E) Tunica albuginea
Q2) The inner layer of the uterus is called the A) Cervix
B) Endometrium
C) Germinal epithelium
D) Mesovarium
E) Myometrium
Q3) Developing follicles are found in the A) Ovarian cortex
B) Ovarian medulla
C) Oviduct
D) Tunica albuginea
E) Uterus
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Q1) Where does fertilization usually occur?
A) Cervix
B) Ovary
C) Oviduct
D) Uterus
E) Vagina
Q2) What structure secretes estrogen and progesterone for approximately 3 months following fertilization?
A) Corpus albicans
B) Corpus luteum
C) Mature follicle
D) Placenta
E) Tunica albuginea
Q3) Which part of the spermatozoa contains digestive enzymes that aid in fertilization?
A) Acrosome
B) Basal plate
C) End piece
D) Neck
E) Tail
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