Exam
: HP HP0-144
Title
: ProCurve Secure WAN
Version : R6.1
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1. What is a disadvantage of dynamic routing? A. Dynamic routing does not allow you to restrict which networks are included in routing tables. B. Dynamic routing can consume bandwidth and CPU processes on the router. C. Dynamic routing is less scalable than static routing. D. Dynamic routing makes adding new networks to a WAN difficult. Answer: B 2. How many access control lists (ACLs) can you apply directly to one interface? A. 1 B. 2 C. 5 D. unlimited number Answer: B 3. Click the Exhibit button.
You want your ProCurve Secure Router to act as a gateway device for any remote VPN client who initiates IKE in its most secure mode. Which policy shown contains the correct configurations for this use? A. 1 B. 2
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C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 F. 6 G. 7 Answer: C 4. Which command allows you to use enable mode commands from any mode except basic mode? A. the get command B. the go command C. the nomode command D. the do command Answer: D 5. Which interfaces can be configured as DHCP clients? Select TWO. A. BRI interface B. ADSL interface C. ATM subinterface D. Ethernet interface E. Frame Relay interface F. DSX-1 or G. 703 interface Answer: CD 6. Which type of connection may be used for the backup modules on the ProCurve Secure Router? A. Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL)2+, Annex A or Annex B B. T1 or E1 connections C. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) connection D. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) connection Answer: C 7. Which feature does the ProCurve Secure Router 7203dl provide that the ProCurve Secure Router 7102dl does not? A. built-in encryption module B. support for redundant power source (RPS) C. one additional Ethernet port D. support for up to 6 ADSL lines Answer: B 8. Which steps must you complete to enable access to the ProCurve Secure Router's web interface? Select TWO.
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A. Enable the ftp server. B. Enable the http server. C. Configure a Telnet password. D. Configure an enable mode password. E. Configure a username and password. F. Configure an ACL permitting FTP traffic. Answer: BE 9. Which tasks can you use CompactFlash to complete? Select TWO. A. Configure routers at remote sites. B. Increase RAM on the router by configuring virtual memory. C. Enter bootstrap mode. D. Back up configuration files. E. Enable IPSec security. F. Store and view the Secure Router OS in an uncompressed format. Answer: AD 10. Which Quality of Service (QoS) features does the ProCurve Secure Router support? Select TWO. A. custom queuing B. low latency queuing (LLQ) C. weighted fair queuing (WFQ) D. generic traffic shaping (GTS) E. Frame Relay traffic shaping (FRTS) Answer: BC 11. Which type of firewall monitors traffic on several layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model? A. packet-filtering firewall B. circuit-level gateway C. application-level gateway D. stateful-inspection firewall Answer: D 12. Before the ProCurve Secure Router and the DSL Access Multiplexer (DSLAM) exchange Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) cells, they utilize physical-layer signaling to establish an Asymmetric DSL (ADSL) connection. Which monitor evaluates the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) margin while the router and the DSLAM establish the physical ADSL connection? A. ADSL monitor B. showtime monitor
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C. phase 1 monitor D. training monitor Answer: D 13. When you are configuring an Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL), what is the purpose of training mode? A. ADSL is dependent upon line quality; ADSL devices must determine the best way to use the line. B. ADSL devices always negotiate the signaling standard used, based on the type of DSLAM used by the public carrier. C. The ADSL device and the DSLAM must identify the fastest switched virtual circuit (SVC) available. D. The training mode is essentially a testing phase to determine if the ADSL module itself is working correctly. Answer: A 14. Which function does the virtual path identifier/virtual channel identifier (VPI/VCI) perform? A. It identifies the endpoint for an Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) connection. B. It identifies the tunnel endpoint for virtual private network (VPN) peers. C. It identifies the permanent virtual circuit (PVC) in a Frame Relay network. D. It defines each peer in a Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) connection, if authentication is configured. Answer: A 15. What determines the number of Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) subinterfaces you configure for an Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) connection? A. the number of LANs you want to connect to the Internet B. the number of access control lists (ACLs) you want to apply to the ADSL interface C. the amount of bandwidth you want to reserve for upstream and downstream transmissions D. the number of virtual circuits you want to establish Answer: D 16. What must you do to configure Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE) for an Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL)? A. Configure and bind the ATM interface to the ADSL interface; then bind the ATM subinterface to a PPP interface. B. Configure a PPP interface; then bind the PPP interface to the ADSL interface. C. Configure both an ATM interface and a PPP interface, and bind the ADSL interface to both virtual interfaces. D. Configure a PPPoE interface and bind it directly to the ADSL interface. Answer: A 17. The Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) keeps going into training mode. What is causing this
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problem? A. The signaling type configured for the router does not match the signaling type used by the service provider. B. The encapsulation type configured for the router does not match the type used by the service provider. C. The signal-to-noise (SNR) margin configured for the router is too high. D. The ADSL interface has not been assigned an IP address. Answer: C 18. You have configured an Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) backup for your organization's Frame Relay connection. When this connection goes down, which virtual interface could establish and maintain the backup connection? A. a backup Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) interface B. a backup Frame Relay interface C. a backup Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) interface D. a backup BRI ISDN interface Answer: C 19. How can you configure the ProCurve Secure Router so that a backup module does not establish a backup connection with an unauthenticated peer? A. Set the backup call mode so that the module cannot answer calls until the primary connection goes down. B. Configure PAP or CHAP on the backup interface. C. Add an authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) list to the backup interface. D. Add authenticated routers' hostnames to the global configuration mode database. Answer: B 20. The status of the BRI interface is "connected." What does a connected status indicate? A. The backup module is installed in the ProCurve Secure Router and is ready to be configured. B. The BRI interface has been assigned to a primary connection. C. The BRI interface is ready to provide a backup connection. D. The BRI interface is currently providing a backup connection. Answer: D 21. Which command can you use to view the number that the backup module will call when a primary connection goes down? A. show interfaces command for the analog or BRI interface B. show interfaces command for the primary virtual interface C. show backup interfaces command D. show interfaces command for the backup PPP interface
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Answer: C 22. Your organization has connected its offices through Frame Relay running over E1 lines. The ProCurve Secure Router at the main office is using Routing Information Protocol (RIP) version 2 but the router at a new branch office supports only RIP version 1. How can you configure the main office router to exchange routes with the branch office router? A. Configure the RIP version for the entire router as auto, allowing it to send or receive either RIP version 1 or version 2. B. Configure the Frame Relay interface that connects to the branch office to send and receive RIP version 1. C. Configure the E1 interface that connects to the branch office to send and receive RIP version 1. D. Configure the Frame Relay subinterface that connects to the branch office to send and receive RIP version 1. Answer: D 23. You want to create a default route to your Internet Service Provider's router which has an IP address of 10.10.15.1 /30. The E1/T1 1/1 interface, which is bound to the PPP 1 interface, provides the connection to this router. This WAN connection on your router has the IP address 10.10.15.2 /30. Which command would you enter? A. ip route 10.10.15.0 /30 ppp 1 B. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.15.1 C. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 10.10.15.2 D. ip route 10.10.15.0 255.255.255.252 ppp 1 Answer: B 24. In a Routing Information Protocol (RIP) environment, what will be the role of the PPP 1 interface if it is configured as a passive interface? A. The PPP 1 interface has no involvement in RIP. It ignores RIP updates. B. The PPP 1 interface receives RIP updates, but does not send RIP updates. C. The PPP 1 interface becomes an active RIP interface if a primary route fails. D. The PPP 1 interface is not advertised in the RIP updates sent from the router. Answer: B 25. The PPP 1 interface has an IP address of 10.15.1.5 /30; the PPP 2 interface has an IP address of 10.1.1.2 /30; the Ethernet 0/1 interface has an IP address of 192.168.115.1 /24; and the Ethernet 0/2 interface has an IP address of 172.16.100.1 /24. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is enabled on the router. If no loopback interface is defined on the ProCurve Secure Router, what is the router ID? A. 10.15.1.5 B. 192.168.115.1
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C. 172.16.100.1 D. 10.1.1.2 Answer: B 26. In the IP route table shown below, what does the 110 in the [110/70] represent? O 10.10.10.0/30 [130/130] via 10.5.5.1, ppp 1 O 10.7.7.0/30
[130/150] via 10.1.1.3, ppp 2
O 172.16.4.0/30 [110/70] via 192.168.3.1, eth 0/1 O 100.10.1.0/30 [130/65] via 192.168.4.1, eth 0/2 A. metric B. cost of route C. priority of route D. administrative distance Answer: D 27. Review the routing table below. What will happen if device 192.168.20.5 sends a packet to device 192.115.1.55? C
10.2.2.0/30 is directly connected, ppp 1
C
10.3.3.0/30 is directly connected, ppp 2
C
10.1.1.0/30 is directly connected, ppp 3
C
192.168.20.0/24 is directly connected, eth 0/1
S 192.168.30.0/24 [1/0] via 0.0.0.0, ppp 1 S 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 10.3.3.2, ppp 2 S 10.7.7.0/24 [1/0] via 0.0.0.0, ppp 3 A. The router will forward the packet through its ppp 2 interface. B. The router will forward the packet through its ppp 3 interface. C. The router will forward the packet through its ppp 1 interface. D. The router will not route the packet; it will drop the packet. Answer: A 28. You want a network to participate in open shortest path first (OSPF). What do you specify with the network command? Select TWO. A. area ID B. router ID C. OSPF version D. cost for the route E. IP address and wildcard bits Answer: AE
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29. You are using a ProCurve Secure Router to extend the LAN to a remote site. Devices at the remote site will have addresses on the same subnet as those at the local site. What must you configure on the router to support this function? Select TWO. A. Configure Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) parameters on the WAN interface. B. Create a bridge group and configure it for IEEE protocol. C. Configure a DHCP pool to assign clients at the remote site addresses on the local subnet. D. Enable IEEE protocol from the WAN interface configuration mode context. E. Assign the local Ethernet and WAN interfaces to a bridge group. Answer: BE 30. Which command must you enter on a ProCurve Secure Router to protect your network against the IP spoofing attack? A. ip firewall check syn flood B. ip firewall check ipspoof C. ip firewall D. ip firewall check reflexive-traffic Answer: C 31. In which environment would you enable the ip firewall check reflexive-traffic? A. You would enable this check if you have configured virtual private networks (VPNs). B. A web or FTP server is connected to the Ethernet 0/1 interface. You would enable this check to monitor sessions between the server and individual clients. C. You would enable this check if you have configured Network Address Translation (NAT). D. You would enable this check in a multi-netted environment. Answer: D 32. What does the session initiation protocol (SIP) application level gateway (ALG) do? A. monitors SIP-compatible applications for attacks B. provides quality of service (QoS) for SIP-compatible applications C. allows SIP-compatible applications to operate correctly through the firewall D. enables the ProCurve Secure Router to function as a gateway for SIP-compatible applications Answer: C 33. What does setting the attack log threshold do? A. specifies how many attack logs can be stored in the event history B. specifies what type of events are recorded in the attack log C. specifies how many attacks are logged before an interface is shut down D. specifies how many attacks are detected before a log is generated Answer: D
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