Business Communication Today, 9E Courtland L. Bovee Test Bank.pdf

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Type:

Test Bank

Resource:

Business Communication Today

Edition:

9th Edition

Author(s):

Courtland L. Bovee John V. Thill

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Table of Contents Chapter Success Through Effective Business Communication ...............1 Achieving

1 Communicating in Teams and Mastering Nonverbal Communication Chapter Skills ……………………………………………………18 Communicating in a World of

2 Diversity Chapter

Planning

...................................................35

3Business Messages Chapter ......................................................................

Writing

52 4

Business

Messages

.......................................................................69 Chapter Completing 5

Business

Messages Crafting

.................................................................86 Chapter Messages 6

for

Electronic

.................................................103 Chapter

Media

Writing

Routine

and

7Positive Messages ..................................................119 Writing Negative Chapter

Messages

8.....................................................................135 Chapter Writing

10 Chapter

Persuasive

Messages

9..................................................................153 Chapter

Finding,

11

Evaluating,

and

Processing

Information....................................170 Chapter

Designing

12

Visual

Communication

...........................................................187 Chapter

Planning

13

Reports

and

Proposals...............................................................204 Chapter

14

Writing

Reports

and

Proposals

................................................................221 Chapter

15

Completing

Reports

and

Proposals

..........................................................238 Chapter 16 Creating and Delivering Online and Oral Presentations

..........................254 Chapter 17 Enhancing Presentations with Slides and Other Visuals

.........................271 Chapter 18 Building Careers and ...................................................287 Chapter

19

Applying

and

Interviewing

Writing

Résumés

for

Employment

Business

Documents

...........................................304 Appendix

A

Format

and

Layout

of

Chapter 1 ACHIEVING SUCCESS THROUGH EFFECTIVE BUSINESS COMMUNICATION Multiple Choice 1. Communication is the process of a. transferring knowledge. b. listening actively. c. sending and receiving messages. d. writing effective messages.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 4; TYPE: concept 2. Which of the following would not be considered a stakeholder when it comes to your business communications? a. Co-workers b. Customers c. Friends d. Investors ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 4; TYPE: application 3. An example of internal communication would be a. an e-mail message from a manager to a supplier requesting updated prices on parts. b. an e-mail message from a sales manager to a salesperson asking for a report on travel expenses for a trade show. c. a phone call from a manager to a computer repair firm checking on the status of a printer being repaired. d. a fax from a magazine to an advertiser quoting new ad rates.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 4; TYPE: application

4. An example of informal external communication would be a. on the golf course, a restaurant owner listens to a friend describe the poor service she recently received while dining at the restaurant. b. a group of friends discuss a product they have all recently purchased. c. two department managers from the same company talk business while eating lunch. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 4; TYPE: application

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5. An example of external communication would be a. talking on a cell phone to a colleague. b. an e-mail from a salesperson to a customer. c. a memo from a manager at headquarters to a manager at a store in another state. d. a teleconference among company sales representatives in several locations.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 4; TYPE: application 6. An example of downward communication flow is a. a junior staff person giving information to a staff supervisor. b. a sales manager giving instructions to a salesperson. c. an e-mail message about sick leave from one staff secretary to another. d. a company briefing held on the organization’s top floor.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 5; TYPE: application 7. An example of horizontal communication would be a. a junior staff person giving information to a staff supervisor. b. a company briefing held on the organization’s ground floor. c. an e-mail message about sick leave sent from one department secretary to a secretary in a different department. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 5; TYPE: application 8. Every organization has a. an intranet. b. an extranet. c. an informal communication network. d. a tall communication structure.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 5; TYPE: concept 9. In most organizations, the grapevine tends to be particularly active when a. employees are satisfied with their jobs. b. formal communication channels are working efficiently. c. employees are wasting company time. d. the formal communication network is not providing the information employees believe they need.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 5; TYPE: concept

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10. A casual conversation between co-workers is an example of a. upward communication flow. b. downward communication flow. c. interdepartmental communication. d. informal communication.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 5; TYPE: application 11. When it comes to the informal communication network, savvy managers a. work hard to shut it down. b. tap into it to spread and receive informal messages. c. ignore most of the information it contains. d. none of the above ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 5; TYPE: concept 12. Which of the following is not a characteristic of effective business messages? a. They provide practical information. b. They present the writer’s opinions as facts. c. They state precise audience responsibilities. d. They clarify and condense information.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 6; TYPE: concept

13. Social networking technologies are designed to a. discourage employees from socializing at work. b. help dissatisfied employees find better jobs. c. help companies take advantage of all the contacts their employees have. d. do none of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 6; TYPE: concept 14. A flatter organizational structure a. decreases the chance of misunderstandings occurring. b. helps make communication more efficient. c. can block effective communication by overburdening key individuals. d. does all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 9; TYPE: concept

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15. If a company’s formal communication network contains many levels of hierarchy a. communication tends to be more effective. b. downward communication tends to be more effective, but upward does not. c. upward communication tends to be more effective, but downward does not. d. upward and downward communication tend to be less effective.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 9; TYPE: concept 16. Which of the following is not one of the four main ways to improve business communication? a. Acknowledge the importance of the situation. b. Minimize distractions. c. Adopt an audience-centered approach. d. Provide constructive feedback.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 10; TYPE: concept 17. The term corporate culture refers to a. the number of organizational levels within a corporation. b. the extent to which corporations dominate a particular culture. c. the mixture of values, traditions, and habits that give a company its atmosphere and personality. d. a company’s sponsorship of events such as concerts and plays.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 10; TYPE: concept 18. In the first step of the communication process, the sender a. decides what to say. b. chooses a communication channel. c. has an idea. d. chooses a communication medium.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 11; TYPE: concept 19. A communication channel is a. chosen based partly on the formality of your message. b. the specific method chosen for sending a message, such as e-mail, a memo, or a phone call. c. a means for transmitting your message. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 11; TYPE: concept

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20. In the communication process all of the following occur except a. the receiver decodes the message. b. the sender transmits the message. c. the receiver has an idea. d. the receiver gets the message.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 11; TYPE: concept 21. The final link in the communication chain is a. receiving the message. b. sending the message. c. giving feedback to the sender. d. interpreting the message.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 11; TYPE: concept 22. Business communication is often more demanding than social communication because communication on the job is affected by a. advances in technology. b. the growing reliance on teamwork in business. c. the globalization of business. d. all of the above ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 11; TYPE: concept 23. Bad connections, poor acoustics, and illegible text are all examples of a. problems with feedback. b. distractions. c. problems with background differences. d. overload problems.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 12; TYPE: application 24. Distorting the parts of a received message that do not fit your preconceptions is called a. discrimination. b. misreading. c. selective perception. d. stereotyping.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 14; TYPE: concept

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25. In order for the audience to respond positively to a business message, they must a. remember it. b. be able to respond to it. c. be motivated to respond to it. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 14-15; TYPE: concept 26. To make your communication more effective, a. don’t send unnecessary messages. b. include as much information as possible, even if you’re not sure it’s necessary. c. send the same messages by multiple channels. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 15; TYPE: concept 27. Which of the following contributes to overcoming emotional distractions in business communication? a. A top-down management style b. Unspoken limits on the kinds of information that can be transmitted c. Recognizing your feelings and anticipating others’ reactions d. High salaries and great benefits ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 15; TYPE: concept 28. Writing and speaking from your audience’s point of view makes it more likely that a. you will lose prestige in the eyes of your audience. b. there will be confusion about the meaning of your messages. c. receivers will understand your message and respond positively. d. your message will be ineffective.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 15; TYPE: concept 29. The primary difference between constructive feedback and destructive feedback is that constructive feedback a. avoids all negative information. b. focuses on the people involved in the situation. c. is designed to stimulate improvement. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 17; TYPE: concept

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30. Which of the following is not a characteristic of ethical communication? a. It includes all relevant information. b. It is designed to hide some negative information. c. It is true in every sense. d. It is not deceptive in any way.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 24; TYPE: concept 31. Like e-mail, instant messages a. are not considered legal documents. b. can be used as evidence in lawsuits or criminal trials. c. are the employee’s private property, and cannot be monitored. d. are none of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 24; TYPE: concept 32. All of the following are examples of unethical communication except a. using jargon. b. misquoting. c. distorting visuals. d. plagiarism.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 25; TYPE: application 33. Which of the following is an example of an ethical dilemma? a. Deciding whether or not to inform employees that layoffs are coming as they work on finishing a big project b. Deciding whether or not to sell company stock when you’ve received inside information on a coming downturn c. Deciding whether or not to use the copy machine for personal papers d. Deciding whether or not to declare the costs of your vacation travel as a deductible business expense ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 25; TYPE: application 34. Which of the following is an example of an ethical lapse? a. Putting unsigned suggestions in the company suggestion box b. Informing a new employer about your previous (competing) employer’s major clients c. Telling your supervisor that another employee is stealing office supplies d. Providing incorrect data in a report, even though you did not know it was incorrect at the time ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 25; TYPE: application

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35. To help establish clear guidelines for ethical behavior, many companies provide employees a written a. ethical audit. b. ethical dilemma. c. ethical lapse. d. code of ethics.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 26; TYPE: concept True or False

36. Downward communication flows from employees to executives, providing accurate, timely reports on problems, trends, opportunities, grievances, and performance.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 5; TYPE: concept

37. Most of the information that flows downward in an organization is geared toward helping employees do their jobs.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 5; TYPE: concept 38. Upward communication generally helps executives solve problems and make intelligent decisions.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 5; TYPE: concept 39. Within organizations, formal communication is upward and downward, while informal communication is always horizontal.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 5; TYPE: concept 40. Effective managers avoid the grapevine and communicate with employees through formal channels only.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 5; TYPE: concept 41. The grapevine tends to be most active when employees receive too much information about their company.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 5; TYPE: concept 42. Because external communication is carefully orchestrated, almost none of it occurs informally.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 5; TYPE: concept

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43. Informal external communication is generally less important than formal communication.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 6; TYPE: concept

44. Social networking technologies help companies capitalize on all the connections their employees may have.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 6; TYPE: concept

45. Social networking software helps companies prevent employees from sending personal e-mail messages from their offices.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 6; TYPE: concept 46. Effective communication eliminates the need for feedback from the audience.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 6; TYPE: concept

47. Despite increased market globalization, the nature of business communication has not changed very much in recent years.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 7-8; TYPE: application 48. Among other factors, the globalization of business has decreased the demand for skilled communicators.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 7-8; TYPE: concept 49. Knowledge workers specialize in acquiring, processing, and communicating information.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 8; TYPE: concept 50. Flatter organizational structures generally create less distortion when it comes to internal communication.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 9; TYPE: concept

51. The more links in the formal communication chain, the greater the opportunity for distortion of messages.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 9; TYPE: concept

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52. Workforce diversity includes differences in race, but also in gender and education.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 9; TYPE: concept

53. Employees should avoid strong negative feedback at all costs.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 10; TYPE: concept

54. The goal of an open communication climate is to eliminate the need for any feedback.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 10; TYPE: concept

55. The communication process is a simple one consisting of two phases: the sender transmits the message and the receiver gets the message.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 11; TYPE: concept 56. “Noise” refers to any interference that prevents the audience from receiving your message.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 12; TYPE: concept 57. Successful organizations usually avoid the need for feedback.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 12; TYPE: concept

58. Multitasking generally enhances the quality of employees’ communication.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 12; TYPE: concept

59. Factors such as poor acoustics and uncomfortable meeting rooms can be annoying but are not really that important when it comes to communication.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 12; TYPE: application 60. In business, you can usually count on having your audience’s full attention for important messages.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 12; TYPE: concept 61. Too much information is always better than not enough.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 12; TYPE: concept

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62. In today’s business environment, clients and co-workers expect you to answer your cell phone while meeting with them.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 15; TYPE: concept

63. If a long report requires no action from recipients, it’s best to withhold that information to ensure that they read the report.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 15; TYPE: concept 64. Effective communicators tag all e-mail messages as “urgent” to make sure the audience responds.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 15; TYPE: concept 65. As long as employees get the job done, most companies are not concerned with employees’ meeting expectations of business etiquette.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 18; TYPE: concept 66. E-mail and instant messages are legal documents and can be used as evidence in lawsuits or criminal trials.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 24; TYPE: concept 67. Ethics can be defined as not doing anything illegal.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 24; TYPE: concept

68. Plagiarism is only a problem in the classroom. In the business environment, it’s just another term for information sharing.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 25; TYPE: concept 69. A message that is intended to mislead or manipulate the audience is unethical, even if its content is true.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 25; TYPE: concept 70. When people must choose between conflicting loyalties and weigh difficult trade-offs, they are facing an ethical lapse.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 25; TYPE: concept

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Fill-in-the-Blank

71. Communication is the process of ____________________ and ____________________ messages.

ANSWER: sending, receiving; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 4; TYPE: concept 72. Groups affected in some way by a company’s actions are referred to as ____________________.

ANSWER: stakeholders; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 4; TYPE: concept

73. When, within a single company, the sales manager calls the production manager to discuss a delay, the message is traveling in the ________________ communication network.

ANSWER: internal OR formal; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 5; TYPE: application 74. The informal communication network within an organization is also called the ____________________.

ANSWER: grapevine; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 5; TYPE: concept

75. Social ____________________ technologies help companies take adva all the connections their employees may have.

ANSWER: networking; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 6; TYPE: concept

76. Workforce ____________________ refers to all the differences among t people you come into contact with on the job, including age, gender, sexual orientation, education, and so forth.

ANSWER: diversity; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 9; TYPE: concept

77. A ____________________ ____________________ is the traditions, and habits that give a company its atmosphere or personality.

ANSWER: corporate culture; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 10; TYPE: concept 78. When a sender puts an idea into a message the reader will understand, the sender is ____________________ the message.

ANSWER: encoding; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 11; TYPE: concept

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79. For a message to be successfully received, the receiver must ____________________ the message—extract your idea from it.

ANSWER: decode; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 12; TYPE: concept

80. Selective ____________________ is the process of distorting or ignorin information that does not fit one’s view of reality.

ANSWER: perception; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 14; TYPE: concept 81. Focusing on and caring about the receivers of your messages and making every effort to get your message across in a meaningful way is necessary to adopt an ____________________-____________________ appro ANSWER: audience-centered; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 15; TYPE: concept 82. ____________________ are the accepted principles of conduct that gov behavior within a society.

ANSWER: Ethics; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 24; TYPE: concept 83. Deliberately misleading an audience by omitting disappointing profit figures from a presentation is an example of ____________________ communicat ANSWER: unethical; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 25; TYPE: application 84. An ethical ____________________ involves choosing between conflicti alternatives that are not clear-cut.

ANSWER: dilemma; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 25; TYPE: concept 85. An ethical ____________________ involves making a clearly unethical o illegal choice.

ANSWER: lapse; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 25; TYPE: concept

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Short Answer

86. How does the primary function of upward-flowing communication differ from that of downward-flowing communication?

ANSWER: Communication that flows upward mainly helps executives solve problems and make intelligent decisions. On the other hand, communication that flows downward is geared primarily toward helping employees do their jobs.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 5; TYPE: concept 87. When is the grapevine most active within an organization?

ANSWER: Grapevines tend to be most active when employees believe the formal network is not providing the information they want or need.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 5; TYPE: concept

88. List at least three examples of formal external communication.

ANSWER: Any formal communication with outsiders (announcements, letters, email messages, meetings, etc.) constitutes formal external communication.

DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 6; TYPE: application

89. Briefly define “knowledge workers.”

ANSWER: Knowledge workers are employees who specialize in acquiring, processing, and communicating information.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 8; TYPE: concept

90. What characterizes an “open communication climate”?

ANSWER: In an open communication climate, communication flows freely down, up, and across the organization chart. Open climates encourage employees to communicate with candor and honesty, even when delivering negative information.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 10; TYPE: concept

91. What does it mean for an audience to “decode” a message?

ANSWER: The audience decodes your message by extracting your ideas from it.

Decoding is the sixth step in the communication process.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 11; TYPE: concept

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92. Briefly explain the nature and importance of the final phase in the communication process.

ANSWER: The final phase in the communication process occurs when the receiver provides feedback for the sender. Feedback enables the sender to evaluate the effectiveness of the message.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 12; TYPE: concept 93. How can the exchange of numerous messages become a barrier to effective communication?

ANSWER: The sheer number of messages that people receive on the job can be distracting. Too many messages can result in information overload, which not only makes it difficult to discriminate between useful and useless information but also amplifies workplace stress.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 12; TYPE: concept

94. To adopt an audience-centered approach to communication, what do you need to learn about your audience? List at least three specific examples.

ANSWER: An audience-centered approach requires learning as much as possible about the receiver’s biases, education, age, social status, style, and point of view.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 15; TYPE: concept 95. Briefly explain the difference between an ethical dilemma and an ethical lapse.

ANSWER: You face an ethical dilemma when you must choose between two or more conflicting alternatives that both seem valid and ethical. An ethical lapse, on the other hand, occurs when you make a choice that is clearly unethical and or illegal. An ethical dilemma can lead to an ethical lapse but doesn’t necessarily do so. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 25; TYPE: concept Essay

96. Describe the various directions communication flows through an organization’s formal network, and give an example of each one.

ANSWER: Communication travels upward, downward, and horizontally through an organization’s formal hierarchy. An example of upward flowing communication would be an employee sending an e-mail to his or her supervisor requesting clarification of a new company policy. The manager’s response would flow downward. Horizontal communication would include a memo from the production manager to the shipping manager warning of an impending delay.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 5; TYPE: application

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97. Describe at least five common characteristics of effective business messages.

Effective business messages provide practical information that immediately helps receivers in concrete ways. They also give facts rather than impressions, focusing on what is rather than on what could, should, or might be. They present information in a concise, efficient manner. Finally, effective business messages state precise responsibilities, persuade others, and offer recommendations rather than simply pointing out problems.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 6; TYPE: concept

98. Briefly describe the eight steps of the communication process.

ANSWER: The first step in the communication process occurs when the sender has an idea and decides to share it. Second, the sender encodes the idea as a message that the receiver will understand. Third, the sender produces the message in a transmittable medium. Fourth, the sender transmits the message through a channel (such as a face-to-face conversation or an e-mail).

Fifth, the audience receives the message. Sixth, the audience decodes the message by extracting your idea from it. Seventh, the audience responds the message. Eighth, the audience sends feedback that helps the sender evaluate the effectiveness of the communication effort.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 11-12; TYPE: concept 99. Describe four common types of communication barriers.

ANSWER: Four common types of communication barriers are noise and distractions, competing messages, filters, and channel breakdowns. Noise and distractions can be both physical and emotional and are especially common due to the widespread habit of multitasking. Competing messages make it difficult to gain and keep your audience’s attention and can result in information overload, which makes it difficult to distinguish between useful and useless information, and increases workplace stress. Messages can be blocked or distorted by filters, which are any human or technology intervention between the sender and the receiver. Filtering can be intentional or unintentional. Finally, channel breakdowns occur when the channel you select fails to deliver your message at all.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 12; TYPE: concept

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100. Describe five strategies for overcoming communication barriers and briefly explain what each one of these strategies requires.

ANSWER: The first strategy for overcoming common communication barriers is to minimize distractions by reducing noise and interruptions and sending fewer messages. Second, adopt an audience-centered approach. Doing so requires learning as much as possible about your audience and tailoring your message to suit the receiver’s needs and point of view. Third, effective communication requires fine-tuning your business communication skills. Fourth, provide and respond to constructive feedback. This involves focusing on the process and outcomes of communication (not the faults or failures of the people involved) and learning to view your work as something you can improve. Finally, be sensitive to business etiquette, since the way you conduct yourself can have a profound impact on your company’s success and reputation.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 15-18; TYPE: concept

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Chapter 2 COMMUNICATING IN TEAMS AND MASTERING LISTENING AND NONVERBAL COMMUNICATION SKILLS Multiple Choice 1. In participative management a. employees are involved in the company's decision making. b. all top-level managers participate in profit sharing. c. teams are discouraged in favor of individual achievement. d. an authoritarian management model is used.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 36; TYPE: concept 2. Which of the following is not a way teams help organizations to succeed? a. Increase information and knowledge b. Increase groupthink among members c. Increase performance levels d. Increase diversity of views ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 37; TYPE: concept 3. Groupthink refers to a. the willingness of individual group members to withhold contrary or unpopular opinions, even when those objections are legitimate, and to favor majority opinion. b. the four-step decision-making process in groups. c. software programs that help groups make decisions. d. the basic rules that underlie a group’s behavior.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 37; TYPE: concept 4. A hidden agenda refers to a. a meeting agenda that is not revealed to others outside the meeting group. b. individuals' private motives that affect a group's interaction. c. an agenda that members must look for before they can attend a meeting. d. an approach to group dynamics that helps facilitate group functioning.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 37; TYPE: concept

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5. To collaborate effectively on team messages, you should concentrate on a. pointing out as many typos, misspellings, and grammatical errors as possible. b. achieving team objectives rather than individual preferences and priorities. c. making other team members feel good. d. doing all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 38; TYPE: concept 6. When composing collaborative messages, it is a good idea to a. avoid writing as a group. b. begin by letting all members “do their own thing” and then seeing what they all produce. c. let all members use their own preferred software. d. make the team as large as possible so that every possible area of expertise will be covered.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 38; TYPE: concept 7. ____________ are informal standards of conduct that team members share. a. Group maintenance roles b. Rules of Parliamentary procedure c. Group norms d. Robert's Rules ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 40; TYPE: concept 8. Group members who are motivated mainly to fulfill personal needs play a a. team-maintenance role. b. task-facilitating role. c. self-oriented role. d. coordinating role.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 40; TYPE: concept 9. Group members who try to help people work well together are able to fill a a. team-maintenance role. b. task-facilitating role. c. self-oriented role. d. coordinating role.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 40; TYPE: concept

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10. The first phase that a team typically goes through is a. conflict. b. reinforcement. c. orientation. d. brainstorming.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 40; TYPE: concept 11. Only one sales representative can go to the conference in Hawaii, but both Susan and Sean want to go. After much discussion and arguing, they draw straws and Susan gets the trip. This is an example of a. a win-lose situation. b. the five-step decision-making process. c. the best way to deal with a conflict. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 42; TYPE: application 12. When it comes to overcoming resistance in groups, it is a good idea to a. avoid all conflict in the first place. b. hold off dealing with minor problems until the conflict becomes major. c. deal directly with resistance. d. encourage participants to repress their emotions about the situation.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 43; TYPE: concept 13. Which of the following is a valid claim when it comes to using the telephone to conduct business? a. When using the telephone and voice mail, you lose a great deal of the visual richness that accompanies face-to-face conversation. b. Your attitude and tone of voice can effectively convey your confidence and professionalism. c. When you place phone calls, plan ahead so you’ll be ready with relevant questions or information. d. All of the above are valid.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 45; TYPE: concept

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14. When receiving business-related phone calls, a. use frequent verbal responses (such as, “I see”) to show that you are listening. b. it is best to remain completely silent while the caller is speaking. c. it is perfectly acceptable to put the caller on hold without explanation. d. none of the above ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 45; TYPE: concept 15. Using a cell phone during meetings is a. routine in today’s high-tech workplace. b. frowned upon by many executives. c. an effective way to show your professionalism. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 45; TYPE: concept 16. In North American business contexts a. women are expected to shake hands differently than men. b. it is not necessary to stand up before shaking hands if you are already seated. c. shaking hands is now widely regarded as an outdated custom. d. a firm handshake is expected when two people meet.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 45; TYPE: concept 17. When introducing yourself to someone in a business context, you should always include a brief description of a. one of your personal interests or hobbies. b. your role in the company. c. your company’s history. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 45; TYPE: concept 18. A common mistake in holding meetings is a. sticking too closely to the agenda. b. not inviting enough participants. c. circulating the agenda too far in advance. d. not having an agenda.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 46; TYPE: concept

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19. The key to productive meetings is careful planning that addresses a. purpose. b. participants. c. location and agenda. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 46-47; TYPE: concept 20. A meeting agenda a. is a formality that most groups skip these days. b. should be circulated before the meeting, providing participants with enough time to prepare. c. should be general rather than specific. d. is only a guideline, and deviations are common and expected.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 47; TYPE: concept 21. Use of parliamentary procedure a. tends to slow meetings down. b. contributes to dissent among participants. c. helps meetings run more smoothly. d. is only useful for highly formalized, important meetings with more than a dozen participants.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 47; TYPE: concept 22. The best-known guide to parliamentary procedure is the same as a. SEC Standards of Ethics. b. Roberts Rules of Order. c. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles. d. mediation.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 47; TYPE: concept 23. When conducting a meeting a. if some people are too quiet, leave them alone; they probably have nothing to contribute. b. if some people dominate the conversation, let them do so, since they are probably the most knowledgeable attendees. c. try to simply act as an observer, and let the meeting "run itself." d. do none of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 47; TYPE: concept

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24. Meeting minutes should generally include a. a list of those present for the meeting. b. the times the meeting started and ended. c. descriptions of all major decisions reached at the meeting. d. all of the above ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 48; TYPE: concept 25. “Virtual offices” that give everyone on a team access to the same set of resources and information are called a. instant messaging software. b. videoconferencing systems. c. shared workspaces. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 49; TYPE: concept 26. If you are listening mainly to understand the speaker’s message, you are engaging in a. content listening. b. critical listening. c. empathic listening. d. active listening.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 51; TYPE: concept 27. If you are engaging in critical listening, your goal is to a. understand and retain information. b. understand the speaker's feelings, needs, and wants. c. evaluate the logic and validity of the message. d. appreciate the speaker's point of view.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 51; TYPE: concept 28. If you are listening mainly to understand the speaker's feelings and needs, you are engaging in a. content listening. b. empathic or active listening. c. critical listening. d. sustained listening.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 51; TYPE: concept

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29. Within 48 hours, people tend to forget approximately _______ percent of what was said in a 10-minute conversation. a. 1 b. 10 c. 50 d. 90 ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 52; TYPE: concept 30. The first step in the basic listening process is a. physically receiving the message. b. interpreting the message. c. evaluating the message. d. encoding the message.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 52; TYPE: concept 31. Selective listening refers to a. a highly focused form of listening. b. letting one’s mind wander until something relevant is said. c. a form of defensive listening. d. listening only long enough to get a word in edgewise.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 52; TYPE: concept 32. In part, poor listening occurs because listeners a. can think faster than speakers can speak. b. concentrate on each word the speaker says, rather than the overall point. c. are unable to think originally. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 53; TYPE: concept 33. If a person says one thing but sends a conflicting message nonverbally a. people are more likely to believe the verbal message. b. people are more likely to believe the nonverbal message. c. people are more likely to just stop listening. d. people are likely not to notice.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 54; TYPE: concept

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34. Nonverbal communication can a. complement verbal language. b. reveal truth. c. convey a great deal of information in an instant. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 54; TYPE: concept 35. Touch is a. the least important form of nonverbal communication. b. the great equalizer, putting people of different status on the same footing. c. completely avoided in all business situations. d. governed by relatively strict customs that establish who can touch whom and when.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 54; TYPE: concept True or False 36. A team consists of two or more people who share a mission and the responsibility for working to achieve their goals.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 36; TYPE: concept 37. Informal teams are part of the formal structure of an organization and work to solve problems or work on specific activities.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 36; TYPE: concept 38. Solving a temporary problem involving office renovations would call for the formation of a task force rather than a committee.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 36; TYPE: application 39. One characteristic of effective teams is that one leader tends to take charge and make all the major decisions.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 37; TYPE: concept 40. Teams usually achieve lower performance levels than what would have been accomplished by the members working independently.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 37; TYPE: concept

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41. In the phenomenon of groupthink, the team may arrive at poor-quality decisions and even act unethically.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 37; TYPE: concept 42. Free riders are group members who don’t contribute their fair share to the team’s activities.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 37; TYPE: concept 43. With collaborative writing, the usual outcome is a document that is inferior to one that would have been produced by a single individual.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 38; TYPE: concept 44. A wiki is a website that allows anyone with access to add new material and edit existing material in collaborative documents.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 39; TYPE: concept 45. Group members who play task-facilitating roles are motivated to fulfill personal needs, so they tend to be less productive than other members.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 40; TYPE: concept 46. Group members who play team-maintenance roles help everyone to work better together.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 40; TYPE: concept 47. When making a decision, groups usually go through five phases: orientation, conflict, brainstorm, emergence, and reinforcement.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 40-41; TYPE: concept 48. Conflict between persons or groups in an organization is always destructive and must be avoided at all costs.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 42; TYPE: concept 49. To resolve conflicts successfully, it is helpful to get opponents to fight together against an “outside force” instead of against each other.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 42; TYPE: concept

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50. Convincing others of your viewpoint depends on showing that you understand their point of view.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 43; TYPE: concept 51. Dealing directly with resistance is never good for team maintenance.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 43; TYPE: concept 52. To resolve conflict successfully, it helps to get feelings out in the open before dealing with the main issues.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 43; TYPE: concept 53. Although it used to be an important factor, personal appearance now has little to do with success in the workplace.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 44; TYPE: concept 54. When answering a business phone call, it is not necessary to smile since the caller cannot see your facial expressions.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 44; TYPE: concept 55. Most companies now allow their employees to use cell phones in meetings.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 45; TYPE: concept 56. When conducting business over a meal, you should wait to bring out business papers until after the entrée plates have been removed.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 46; TYPE: concept 57. Unproductive meetings are rare in today’s business environment.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 46; TYPE: concept 58. If you are trying to solve a problem or make a decision, the more people in your group the better.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 46; TYPE: concept 59. The main role of the meeting leader is to be passive and let others speak without interference.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 47; TYPE: concept

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60. Action-oriented listeners tend to focus on the personal characteristics of the speaker.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 51; TYPE: concept 61. The goal of content listening is to evaluate the logic, validity, and implications of a message.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 51; TYPE: concept 62. Good listeners specialize in one of the three types of listening and apply it to nearly all situations.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 51; TYPE: concept 63. The primary goal of empathic listening is to solve the speaker's problem.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 51; TYPE: concept 64. Most people need to improve their listening skills.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 52; TYPE: concept 65. Selective listening is an important skill for professionals, since it helps them filter out information that is not relevant to their jobs.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 52; TYPE: concept 66. Most people are unable to process information as quickly as a speaker talks, so they get behind in comprehending what the speaker is saying.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 53; TYPE: concept 67. One important characteristic of nonverbal communication is that it can convey lots of information in an instant.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 54; TYPE: concept 68. Unlike with verbal language, the meanings of nonverbal signals are consistent across cultures.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 54; TYPE: concept

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69. When it comes to personal appearance in the workplace, it’s best to adopt the style of the people you want to impress. ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 55; TYPE: concept 70. The use of time and space can send powerful nonverbal signals. ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 56; TYPE: concept Fill-in-the-Blank

71. A ____________________ is a unit of two or more people who work together to achieve a goal.

ANSWER: team; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 36; TYPE: concept 72. ____________________ management is a way of involving employees in the company’s decision making.

ANSWER: Participative; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 36; TYPE: concept 73. Group loyalty can lead members into ____________________, a willingness to set aside personal opinions and go along with everyone else, even if everyone else is wrong.

ANSWER: groupthink; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 37; TYPE: concept 74. Some group members have ____________________ _____________________ made up of private motives that affect the group's interaction.

ANSWER: hidden agendas; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 37; TYPE: concept 75. Group _____________________ are the interactions and processes that take place in a meeting.

ANSWER: dynamics; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 40; TYPE: concept 76. Group ____________________ are informal standards of conduct that members share and that guide member behavior.

ANSWER: norms; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 40; TYPE: concept

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77. In the ____________________ phase of team evolution, team members reach a decision and find a solution that is acceptable enough for all members to support (even if they have reservations).

ANSWER: emergence; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 41; TYPE: concept 78. Teams need to learn how to handle ____________________ —clashes over differences in ideas, opinions, goals, or procedures.

ANSWER: conflict(s); DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 42; TYPE: concept 79. When introducing yourself in a business context, it is a good idea to provide a brief description of your _____________________ in the company.

ANSWER: role; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 45; TYPE: concept 80. When planning a meeting, the group leader prepares (a)an _____________________ of items to discuss, topics to present, or decisions to make.

ANSWER: agenda; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 47; TYPE: concept 81. _____________________ procedure is a time-tested method for planning and running effective meetings.

ANSWER: Parliamentary; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 47; TYPE: concept 82. ____________________ ____________________ are “virtual offices” that give everyone on a team access to the same set of resources.

ANSWER: Shared workspaces; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 49; TYPE: concept 83. The goal of ____________________ listening is to evaluate the message at several levels.

ANSWER: critical; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 51; TYPE: concept 84. Most people find it much more difficult to __________ other people with nonverbal signals than with words.

ANSWER: deceive; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 54; TYPE: concept

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85. When it comes to nonverbal communication, your ____________________ are especially effective for indicating attention and interest, regulating interaction, and establishing dominance.

ANSWER: eyes; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 54; TYPE: concept Short Answer 86. Describe the primary difference between a committee and a task force.

ANSWER: Whereas a committee is normally a long-standing team (and can even become part of the organizational structure), a task force is a temporary team formed to deal with a temporary problem or issue. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 36; TYPE: concept 87. Briefly explain why the ability to work effectively in teams is so important in business.

ANSWER: Companies look for employees who work well in teams for a number of reasons, but primarily because successful teams improve productivity, creativity, employee involvement, and even job security. Teams also involve employees in company decision making through participative management.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 36-37; TYPE: concept 88. What are four potential disadvantages of working in teams?

ANSWER: While teams yield numerous benefits, it is important to recognize the possible drawbacks of working in teams. Groupthink occurs when team members value team harmony more than effective decision making. Some team members may have hidden agendas that can impede the team’s progress, while free riders do not contribute to the team’s work. Finally, the cost of coordinating group activities can be unreasonably high.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 37; TYPE: concept 89. As the leader of a new task force, you notice that one of your team members remains silent during meetings. What should you do?

ANSWER: The team won’t function to its potential if even one member doesn’t contribute, and this individual may be tuning out without really knowing why. It would be important to encourage him or her to participate by asking questions such as, “You seem cool to this idea. Have I made some faulty assumptions?” or “You’ve done a lot of work in this area. What do you think?”

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 43; TYPE: application

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90. If you are new to a company, what is the best way to decide what type of dress is appropriate in that organization?

ANSWER: The best way to learn what type of dress is right for those who work in a particular organization is to pay attention to the style of dress of other employees and adjust your style to match. If you’re not sure, dress moderately and simply. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 44; TYPE: concept 91. During a meeting with co-workers, your cell phone rings. Should answer it?

Why or why not?

ANSWER: Generally speaking, it would be best to avoid answering a cell phone in situations such as this, since doing so can cause disruption and signal disrespect toward your colleagues. Such disruptions have become such a problem that some senior executives have banned the use of cell phones during meetings.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 45; TYPE: application 92. While having lunch with a client, what should you do with the business papers you brought to discuss? Why? ANSWER: Since the business part of most meals does not begin until after entrée plates have been removed, you should place the papers under your chair or under the table until then.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 46; TYPE: application 93. List at least three benefits of effective listening in business.

ANSWER: Effective listening strengthens organizational relationships, enhances product delivery, alerts the organization to opportunities for innovation, and allows the organization to manage growing diversity both in the workforce and in the customers it serves.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 51; TYPE: application 94. List at least three strategies for keeping one’s mind from wandering while listening to a speaker.

ANSWER: Although we can think faster than we (and others) can speak, there are several techniques that can help. They include focusing on the speaker, analyzing the message, and formulating questions we need to ask.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 53; TYPE: application

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95. List at least three general categories of nonverbal communication.

ANSWER: The general categories of nonverbal communication include (1) facial expression, (2) gesture and posture, (3) vocal characteristics, (4) personal appearance, (5) touch, and (6) use of time and space.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 54-56; TYPE: concept Essay 96. Describe at least three common types of teams companies often create.

ANSWER: Teams can be formal or informal, depending on whether they are part of the organization’s structure. Problem-solving teams or task forces are temporary teams created to solve temporary problems. A committee, on the other hand, is usually more permanent and can become a permanent part of the organization. Finally, virtual teams bring together employees in different geographic areas to interact, share information, and accomplish goals.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 36; TYPE: concept 97. Discuss four strategies to use when planning an effective meeting.

ANSWER: The first task is to decide whether the meeting will serve mostly informational or decision-making purposes, or whether it will be geared toward both. Next, meeting participants should be chosen carefully, limiting selections to those whose presence is absolutely essential. Then the location must be selected and reserved. Finally, the meeting planner should develop a suitable agenda and distribute it among the participants several days before the meeting.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 46-47; TYPE: concept 98. Briefly describe at least three meeting-related technologies that make it easy for virtual teams to interact.

ANSWER: One of the newest virtual tools is online brainstorming, in which companies conduct “idea campaigns” to generate ideas from people across the organization. Another example is groupware, an umbrella term for systems that let people communicate, share files, present materials, and work on documents simultaneously. Shared workspaces are “virtual offices” that give everyone on a team access to a variety of materials. Videoconferencing combines audio communication with live video, enabling team members see each other, demonstrate products, and transmit other visual information. Web-based meeting systems allow teams to collaborate in real time simply by logging on from any desktop or laptop PC, a PDA, or even a web-enabled cell phone from almost anywhere in the world.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 48-50; TYPE: concept

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99. Differentiate among the three primary types of listening.

ANSWER: Content listening focuses on understanding and retaining what the speaker is saying. Critical listening, in contrast, is often more useful when the speaker is presenting an argument. In this type of listening, the listener’s goal is to evaluate the message on various levels. Finally, empathic listening is most useful when a speaker is primarily interested in sharing feelings. In this case, the listener’s goal is to appreciate the speaker’s point of view (whether or not the listener agrees with it).

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 51-52; TYPE: concept 100. List and briefly explain the three roles nonverbal communication plays in communication.

ANSWER: The first role of nonverbal communication is complementing verbal language. Nonverbal signals can strengthen, weaken, or even replace verbal messages. The second role is revealing truth. It is much more difficult to deceive others with nonverbal signals than with verbal ones. Finally, nonverbal communication conveys information efficiently, since nonverbal signals can convey both nuance and rich amounts of information in an instant.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 54; TYPE: concept

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Chapter 3 COMMUNICATING IN A WORLD OF DIVERSITY Multiple Choice 1. “All the characteristics and experiences that define each of us as individuals” is the definition of a. ethnicity. b. diversity. c. culture. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 64; TYPE: concept 2. Diversity in the workplace can be based on differences in a. ethnic heritage. b. religion. c. geography. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 64-65; TYPE: concept 3. By 2010, recent immigrants will account for ______ percent of all new U.S. workers. a. 10 b. 25 c. 50 d. 75 ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 65; TYPE: concept 4. Culture influences a person’s understanding of a. words. b. nonverbal signals. c. use of time and space. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 66; TYPE: application

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5. Many difficulties in intercultural communication occur because people in different cultures have different a. genetics. b. assumptions about how people should think, behave, and communicate. c. environments. d. media.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 66-67; TYPE: concept 6. When you react ethnocentrically, you a. assume that your culture is superior to others. b. recognize the differences that exist between your culture and other cultures. c. focus on the possibility that your words and actions will be misunderstood. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 67; TYPE: concept 7. Xenophobia is the fear of a. crises. b. working in unfamiliar environments. c. strangers and foreigners. d. change.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 67; TYPE: concept 8. The practice of accepting multiple cultures on their own terms is known as a. ethnocentrism. b. cultural pluralism. c. ethnography. d. stereotyping.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 67; TYPE: concept 9. Ethnocentrism can be overcome by a. avoiding assumptions. b. judging other groups according to your own standards. c. ignoring the distinctions among cultures. d. remembering that people from other cultures communicate in ways that are inferior to your own.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 67; TYPE: concept

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10. Cultural differences appear in a number of important areas, including a. nonverbal signals. b. gender. c. religion. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 69; TYPE: concept 11. In high-context cultures a. people rely more on nonverbal circumstances and cues to convey meaning. b. people rely less on the environmental setting to convey meaning. c. the rules of everyday life are highly explicit. d. all of the above occur.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 69; TYPE: concept 12. To convey meaning in a low-context culture such as the one existing in Germany, people rely more on a. gestures and vocal inflection. b. indirectness and metaphors. c. situational cues. d. explicit verbal communication.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 69; TYPE: concept 13. When it comes to decision-making customs, executives from low-context cultures a. tend to focus on the results of the decisions they face. b. prefer to make their deals slowly, after much discussion. c. spend a lot of time on each little point to display their good faith. d. arrive at decisions through consensus, after an elaborate and timeconsuming process.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 69; TYPE: concept 14. If a U.S.-based official pays a bribe to government officials in another country, it is a. always considered a normal part of doing business. b. considered unethical but not illegal to do so. c. illegal, under U.S. law. d. only unethical if the bribe is over $1,000.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 70; TYPE: application

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15. People in the United States generally a. view hard-earned material comfort as a worthy goal. b. believe that people who work hard are no better than those who don't work hard. c. condemn materialism and prize a carefree lifestyle. d. spend far less time on the job than German workers.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 70-71; TYPE: concept 16. Social rules vary from culture to culture in terms of a. attitudes toward work and success. b. roles and status. c. use of manners. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 70-71; TYPE: concept 17. Asking a colleague “How was your weekend?” is a. an effective greeting in any culture. b. accepted in the U.S., but considered intrusive in some cultures. c. never acceptable in a business environment. d. grounds for a lawsuit.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 71; TYPE: concept 18. Meeting a deadline is generally less important than building a relationship for businesspeople from a. the United States. b. Scandinavia. c. Taiwan. d. Germany.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 71; TYPE: application 19. Cultural differences in nonverbal communication can influence a. greetings. b. attitudes toward personal space. c. attitudes toward touching. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 72; TYPE: concept

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20. To learn as much as you can about a culture a. read books and articles about the culture. b. sample newspapers, magazines, music, and movies of that culture. c. study the languages of the culture. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 75-76; TYPE: concept 21. If you will be living in another country where English is not the official language but you will be doing business in English, you a. will not need to learn that country’s language. b. should learn only those words that are absolutely necessary for getting around. c. will show respect by making every effort to learn the language. d. should only deal with natives who can speak English.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 77; TYPE: concept 22. Letters from Japanese businesspeople tend to be ____________ than those written in the United States. a. more direct b. less direct c. less interesting d. shorter ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 77; TYPE: concept 23. When writing for multicultural audiences, it’s important to a. be brief. b. be clear. c. address international correspondence properly. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 77-78; TYPE: concept 24. German business letters often close with a. a joke. b. a compliment to the recipient. c. a question. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 78; TYPE: application

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25. When writing letters to businesspeople in other countries, you should a. use an informal, friendly tone. b. keep your sentences and paragraphs long. c. be vague and general in your wording. d. make generous use of transitional words and phrases.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 78; TYPE: concept 26. When preparing a message to someone from another culture, you should

a. write the letter in English and then translate it into the target language. b. assume that the audience is familiar with common U.S. phrases and references. c. be sure to remove all graphics, in case they might offend someone. d. be careful to express numbers and dates in the format used in that person’s culture.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 78; TYPE: concept 27. Which of the following sentences contains an idiomatic expression? a. Our monthly sales quota is unrealistic. b. We don’t expect to meet our monthly sales quota. c. Making our monthly sales quota will be a piece of cake. d. The sales quota is very reasonable.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 78-79; TYPE: application 28. When speaking in English to people who use English as a second language, you should a. forget about feedback; just make sure you get your message across. b. repeat your sentences often, a little louder each time. c. speak slowly and clearly. d. use plenty of adjectives such as fantastic and fabulous.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 80; TYPE: concept 29. During conversations with non-native English speakers, you should a. immediately rephrase statements they don’t seem to understand. b. avoid paying too much attention to nonverbal feedback. c. avoid including any words or phrases from their native language. d. do none of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 80; TYPE: concept

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30. When speaking with someone from another culture, avoid a. talking down to the other person. b. using any foreign phrases. c. paying any attention to the person’s body language. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 80; TYPE: concept 31. To English-speaking U.S. listeners, Arabic speech may sound a. excited or angry. b. disinterested. c. timid. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 81; TYPE: concept 32. When you deal with people who don't speak your language at all, you have three appropriate options, including a. using an interpreter or a translator. b. using gestures and sign language. c. speaking loudly and enunciating clearly. d. using an English-only policy.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 81; TYPE: concept 33. If you have a business message translated from English into another language, it is a good idea to a. have it translated word for word. b. have it back-translated. c. use several translators. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 81; TYPE: concept 34. Machine translations are usually ____________ those produced by human translators. a. more accurate than b. less accurate than c. just as accurate as d. more costly than ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 81; TYPE: concept

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35. In general, international correspondence tends to be ____________ than that of the United States. a. more direct b. less formal c. more formal d. much shorter ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 84; TYPE: concept

True or False 36. Intercultural communication is the process of sending and receiving messages within a specific culture.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 64; TYPE: concept 37. International business communication has been hampered by tightening trade barriers throughout the world.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 64; TYPE: concept 38. Although U.S. business is becoming more international and more culturally diverse, intercultural skills are still low on the list of companies’ employee requirements.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 64; TYPE: concept 39. A group of men and women of various ages working together is an example of cultural diversity.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 64; TYPE: concept 40. By 2010, recent immigrants will account for half of all new U.S. workers.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 65; TYPE: concept 41. People within a particular culture tend to differ greatly in their basic assumptions about how people should think, behave, and communicate.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 67; TYPE: concept 42. Culture is inborn.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 67; TYPE: concept

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43. Members of a well-established culture tend to view their culture as complete, which can dull or even suppress curiosity about other cultures.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 67; TYPE: concept 44. Ethnocentrism is the tendency to have an equally unbiased view of all ethnic groups.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 67; TYPE: concept 45. When ethnocentric people stereotype an entire group of people, they are usually justified in doing so.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 67; TYPE: concept 46. To overcome ethnocentrism, you should ignore the differences between another person’s culture and your own.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 67; TYPE: concept 47. Studies have shown that people often have cultural biases of which they’re not even consciously aware.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 67-68; TYPE: concept 48. Cultural context refers to the pattern of physical cues, environmental stimuli, and implicit understanding that conveys meaning between members of the same culture.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 69; TYPE: concept 49. Because the United States and Germany have such high-context cultures, they rely heavily on verbal communication and less on implied meaning.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 69; TYPE: concept 50. For Chinese businesspersons, the primary role of communication is building relationships, not exchanging information.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 69; TYPE: concept 51. In low-context cultures, businesspeople tend to focus on the results of the decisions they face.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 69; TYPE: concept

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52. Regardless of the country in which you’re doing business, a person suspected of a crime is considered innocent until proven guilty.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 70; TYPE: concept 53. All the industrialized nations have signed a treaty that makes payoffs to foreign officials a criminal offense.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 70; TYPE: concept 54. In every culture, it’s safe to assume that people view material comforts earned by individual effort as a sign of superiority.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 70-71; TYPE: concept 55. In Arab countries, it is impolite to take gifts to a man’s wife, but it is acceptable to take gifts to his children.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 71; TYPE: concept 56. On average, U.S. employees work many more hours per year than their counterparts in France and Germany.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 71; TYPE: concept 57. Differences in nonverbal communication are often a major source of misunderstanding in intercultural communication.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 71; TYPE: concept 58. In any culture, frequent eye contact is regarded as a sign of honesty and openness.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 72; TYPE: concept 59. Studies show that in all cultures, men and women tend to have different communication styles.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 73; TYPE: concept 60. When you’re preparing to do business in another culture, even studying that culture in advance won’t help you communicate more effectively.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 74; TYPE: concept

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61. When communicating with people from other cultures, it is best to apologize when you make a mistake.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 75; TYPE: concept 62. Many companies now routinely provide employees with training in languages other than English.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 77; TYPE: concept 63. There are few significant differences between English as it is spoken in the U.S. and English as it is spoken in the United Kingdom.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 77; TYPE: concept 64. Swedish business culture values direct communication as a sign of efficiency, but discourages heated debates and confrontations.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 77; TYPE: concept 65. Unlike most Asian professionals, French executives do not soften up their colleagues with praise before they criticize.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 77; TYPE: concept 66. American and German businesspeople use the same level of formality in writing business messages.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 77; TYPE: concept 67. In general, when writing to someone in another country, U.S. businesspeople should be a bit more formal than they would be otherwise.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 77; TYPE: concept 68. When writing to someone for whom English is a second language, you should avoid using slang and idioms.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 78-79; TYPE: concept 69. In intercultural conversations, speaking slowly is usually regarded as a sign of disrespect.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 80; TYPE: concept

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70. Machine translation software is generally far more effective than human translators.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 81; TYPE: concept Fill-in-the-Blank 71. The process of sending and receiving messages between people of different cultures is called ____________________ ____________________.

ANSWER: intercultural communication; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 64; TYPE: concept 72. As businesses become more global, the workforce is increasingly ____________________, made up of employees with different national, religious, and ethnic backgrounds.

ANSWER: diverse; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 65; TYPE: concept 73. By 2010, recent____________________ will account for half of all new U.S. workers.

ANSWER: immigrants; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 65; TYPE: concept 74. ____________________ is a shared system of symbols, beliefs, attitudes, values, expectations, and norms for behavior.

ANSWER: Culture; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 66; TYPE: concept 75. ____________________ is the tendency to judge all other groups according to your own group's standards, behaviors, and customs.

ANSWER: Ethnocentrism; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 67; TYPE: concept 76. ____________________ is a fear of strangers and foreigners.

ANSWER: Xenophobia; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 67; TYPE: concept 77. Cultural ____________________ is the pattern of physical cues, environmental stimuli, and implicit understanding that convey meaning between two members of the same culture.

ANSWER: context; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 69; TYPE: concept

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78. In a ____________________ culture such as exists in Taiwan, people rely less on verbal communication and more on the context of nonverbal actions and environmental setting to convey meaning.

ANSWER: high-context; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 69; TYPE: concept 79. In a ____________________ culture such as exists in Germany, people rely more on verbal communication and less on circumstances and implied meaning.

ANSWER: low-context; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 69; TYPE: concept 80. Whether called a huilu (China), vzyatka (Russia), or una mordida (Mexico), money paid to get favors from officials is still a ____________________.

ANSWER: bribe; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 70; TYPE: concept 81. Rules that teach members of a culture how to behave in common social situations (such as table manners at meals) are considered ____________________ rules.

ANSWER: formal; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 70; TYPE: concept 82. Cultural rules learned over time by watching how people behave and then imitating that behavior are called ____________________ rules.

ANSWER: informal; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 70; TYPE: concept 83. Differences in ____________________ ____________________, such as gestures and eye contact, are a major source of misunderstanding during intercultural communications.

ANSWER: nonverbal communication; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 71-72; TYPE: concept 84. When preparing messages for multicultural audiences, it is best to avoid slang and ____________________ phrases such as “Off the top of my head.”

ANSWER: idiomatic; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 78-79; TYPE: concept 85. ____________________ ____________________ refers to any form of computerized intelligence used to translate one language to another.

ANSWER: Machine translation; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 81; TYPE: concept

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Short Answer 86. Briefly describe at least three advantages of a multicultural workforce.

ANSWER: A culturally diverse workforce yields a broader spectrum of viewpoints and ideas. It also helps companies understand and identify with diverse markets and enables organizations to benefit from a wider range of employee talents.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 65; TYPE: concept 87. What is a culture?

ANSWER: A culture is a shared system of symbols, beliefs, attitudes, values, expectations, and norms for behavior.

DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 66; TYPE: concept 88. What is ethnocentrism, and how can it be overcome?

ANSWER: Ethnocentrism is the tendency to judge all other groups according to one’s own group’s standards, behaviors, and customs and to see all other groups as inferior by comparison. You can overcome ethnocentrism by acknowledging distinctions and by avoiding assumptions and judgments.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 67; TYPE: concept 89. Explain the difference between a high-context culture and a low-context culture, and provide at least one example of each.

ANSWER: In high-context cultures such as South Korea or Taiwan, people rely less on verbal communication and more on the context of nonverbal actions and environmental setting to convey meaning. In low-context cultures such as the United States and Germany, people rely more on verbal communication and less on circumstances and cues to convey meaning.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 69; TYPE: concept 90. Describe at least three common business activities affected by contextual differences across cultures.

ANSWER: Contextual differences across cultures can profoundly affect the way people engage in decision making, problem solving, and negotiating.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 69; TYPE: concept

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91. Distinguish between “formal” and “informal” cultural rules, then briefly describe three areas in which differing informal rules can become evident during intercultural communication. ANSWER: Formal rules (such as table manners) are specifically articulated. Informal rules are learned over time by watching others’ behavior and imitating it. Differences in informal rules can affect a number of areas, including attitudes toward work and success, social roles, status, manners, and time. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 70-71; TYPE: application 92. List at least three areas of nonverbal communication that can differ widely among cultures. ANSWER: Greetings, the use of personal space, touching behavior, facial expressions, eye contact, posture and formality can all differ widely among various cultures. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 72; TYPE: concept 93. Before conducting business in a foreign country, why is it worthwhile to learn common phrases in the native language even if your clients there will speak English? ANSWER: Learning basic phrases not only helps you get through everyday business and social situations but also demonstrates your commitment to the business relationship.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 77; TYPE: concept 94. Briefly describe at least three strategies for writing effective multicultural messages. ANSWER: Strategies for writing multicultural messages include using simple, clear English; being brief; using transitional elements; addressing international correspondence properly; and citing numbers and dates carefully are all helpful when writing to a multicultural audience. It is also important to avoid slang, idioms, and humor. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 77-79; TYPE: application 95. A new employee who speaks English as a second language has just joined the design team you lead. You notice that she often looks confused during conversations. Describe at least three useful strategies for this situation.

ANSWER: Strategies you can use include speaking slowly and clearly, seeking feedback, and verifying what has been said and agreed on would all be useful in this situation. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 80; TYPE: application

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Essay 96. Since cultures do not always share the same ideas on ethical issues, how can you keep messages ethical when communicating interculturally? ANSWER: Not all cultures share the same perspective on ethical issues. When communicating interculturally, it’s important to actively seek mutual ground by being flexible and not insisting that everything happen in terms of one culture or another. Sending and receiving messages without judgment is also vital: Both parties must recognize that values vary among cultures and that trust is essential. In addition, messages should be honest. Both parties have to recognize their own cultural biases. Finally, for ethical intercultural communication to occur, the stakeholders must show respect for cultural differences. Avoiding ethnocentrism allows both parties to understand and acknowledge the other’s needs and preserve mutual dignity. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 70; TYPE: concept 97. While working in Mexico, you schedule a meeting with a vendor who lives there. When he shows up 20 minutes after the meeting was supposed to begin, should you take it as a sign of incompetence or disrespect? Explain. ANSWER: This behavior should not be regarded as a sign of incompetence or disrespect. It simply reflects cultural differences in the treatment of time. Executives in countries such as the United States and Germany view time as limited and tend to focus on one task during each scheduled period of the day. In Asian and Latin American cultures, however, time is treated with more flexibility. In these cultures, building business relationships is more important than meeting deadlines and being punctual: The work day is not expected to follow a rigid, preset schedule. If you respond with frustration or anger to the vendor’s late arrival, it could unnecessarily erode your relationship. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 71; TYPE: application 98. List at least three types of nonverbal differences might you encounter when working with businesspeople from other cultures. Provide at least one example of how these differences might cause misunderstandings in communication. ANSWER: Nonverbal differences among cultures are particularly evident in terms of greetings, personal space, touching and how body language is interpreted. For example, the gesture regarded as the “OK” sign in the U.S. is considered highly offensive in Germany, Brazil, and some other countries. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 72; TYPE: concept

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99. When doing business abroad, what are three strategies can you use to promote effective intercultural communication?

ANSWER: One strategy is to understand social customs regarding issues such as common ways of greeting others: Should you bow? Nod? Shake hands? It is also helpful to learn about clothing and food preferences that characterize the culture in which you’ll work. Doing so requires finding out (among other things) which occasions require special clothing, how many times a day people eat, and so forth.

Other and strategies include assessing political patterns, understanding religious folk beliefs, learning about business institutions, and appraising the nature of ethics, values, and laws.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 75-76; TYPE: concept 100. How can cultural differences affect communication styles? What general rule approach should Americans take when writing intercultural correspondence?

ANSWER: Audiences in various cultures often have widely differing ideas of appropriate communication styles. These expectations dictate factors such as how direct one can be, whether heated debates and confrontations are acceptable, and whether written or oral communication is generally preferred. In general, American businesspeople need to be more formal in their international correspondence than they are when writing to people in their own country.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 77; TYPE: concept

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Chapter 4 PLANNING BUSINESS MESSAGES Multiple Choice 1. The three primary steps involved in preparing a business message are a. planning, writing, and completing. b. informing, persuading, and collaborating. c. defining the purpose, the main idea, and the topic. d. satisfying the audience's informational, motivational, and practical needs.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 90; TYPE: concept 2. In developing business messages, the stage during which you step back to see whether you have expressed your ideas clearly is the a. planning stage. b. writing stage. c. completing stage. d. feedback stage.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 91; TYPE: concept 3. In preparing business messages, you should devote about ______ percent of your time to planning. a. 10 b. 20 c. 50 d. 70 ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 91; TYPE: concept 4. Which of the following is not a general purpose common to business communication? a. To inform b.

To persuade c.

To negotiate d.

To collaborate ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 92; TYPE: concept

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5. An example of a specific purpose for a business message would be a. to impart information to the audience. b. to inform employees about the new vacation policy. c. to persuade readers to take an action. d. to obtain audience participation and collaboration.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 92; TYPE: application 6. Most messages should not be sent unless they will a. bring about a change. b. increase your chances of being promoted. c. please your boss. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 92; TYPE: concept 7. A message should be deferred or canceled if a. your news is bad. b. someone else wants to deliver it. c. your audience is highly receptive. d. the timing is wrong.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 93; TYPE: concept 8. Audience analysis is relatively easy when you are communicating with a. strangers. b. co-workers. c. large groups of people. d. customers on a mailing list.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 93; TYPE: concept 9. The primary audience for your message is made up of a. all who receive it. b. the key decision makers in the audience. c. those people with the highest status. d. those people who represent the opinions and attitudes of the majority.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 93; TYPE: concept

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10. Messages should be especially detailed if a. you expect a favorable response. b. you are unsure about the audience’s level of understanding. c. you and your audience share the same general background. d. all of the above are the case.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 93; TYPE: concept 11. Educating your audience requires a. providing as much information as possible. b. giving only enough information to accomplish the purpose of the message. c. providing little information, as long as you indicate that you’re open to any questions that may arise. d. gearing your message to the least informed segment of the audience, even if they are not the key decision makers.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 93; TYPE: concept 12. If you face a skeptical audience, try to a. be as straightforward as possible about stating your conclusions and recommendations. b. avoid stating your conclusions and recommendations. c. use less evidence in support of your points. d. introduce your conclusions and recommendations gradually with more proof.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 94; TYPE: concept 13. Which of the following is not an informal method of gathering information to meet your audience’s needs? a. Reading reports and other company documents b. Chatting with supervisors and colleagues c. Conducting library research d. Asking your audience for input ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 94; TYPE: concept 14. When meeting your audience’s informational needs, you emphasize ideas a. of greatest interest to the audience. b. that are uncontroversial. c. that will have the least impact on the audience. d. that don’t need supporting evidence.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 95; TYPE: concept

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15. A good way to test the thoroughness of your business message is to check it for a. a main idea. b. a purpose. c. the who, what, when, where, why, and how. d. accuracy.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 95; TYPE: concept 16. If you make an honest mistake, such as giving incorrect information, the best thing to do is a. take no action. b. blame someone else. c. contact the primary audience immediately and correct the error. d. start looking for a new job.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 96; TYPE: concept 17. When choosing the appropriate medium for your message, your choices include a. oral media. b. written media. c. electronic media. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 98; TYPE: concept 18. When you must reach a dispersed audience quickly, which media are most effective? a. Written media b. Oral media c. Electronic media d. Presentations ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 99; TYPE: concept 19. Telephone calls are a. considered an outdated medium by many businesspeople. b. now acceptable only for external communication. c. still a vital communication link for many organizations. d. no longer practical when compared to e-mail.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 100; TYPE: concept

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20. Which of the following electronic media would be best for sending a brief, unambiguous message that does not require an immediate response? a. videoconferencing b. voice mail c. videotape d. CD-ROM ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 100; TYPE: concept 21. PDF is a a. widely used format for sending documents electronically. b. popular telephone connectivity service. c. highly technical videoconferencing program. d. type of voice-to-text translation software.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 100; TYPE: concept 22. In part, media richness refers to a. the cost of sending a message through a particular medium. b. the popularity of a specific medium. c. a medium’s ability to facilitate feedback. d. the difficulties involved with using a particular medium.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 100; TYPE: concept 23. The richest communication medium is a. a phone call. b. a memo. c. an e-mail. d. a face-to-face conversation.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 100; TYPE: concept 24. As a new supervisor, you need to introduce yourself to your team of ten employees. The best medium for this type of nonroutine message would be a. a face-to-face meeting. b. an e-mail. c. a memo. d. a conference call.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 100; TYPE: application

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25. Leaner media are best used for messages that a. are routine. b. are highly emotional. c. are nonroutine. d. require feedback.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 100; TYPE: concept 26. A key advantage of oral communication is a. the ability to plan and control the message. b. the opportunity to meet an audience's information needs. c. the ability to transmit highly complex messages. d. the opportunity to get immediate feedback.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 101; TYPE: concept 27. A written message is preferable to an oral one when a. immediate feedback is desired. b. the audience is large and geographically dispersed. c. the message is relatively simple. d. the information is controversial.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 101; TYPE: concept 28. One of the drawbacks of using e-mail is a. its high cost. b. its slow speed. c. its lack of privacy. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 101; TYPE: concept 29. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of electronic media? a. High cost b. Potential for inadvertently creating tension and conflict c. Tendency for employees to overuse them d. All of the above ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 101; TYPE: concept

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30. In high-context cultures, _________________ media are often more effective than _________________ ones. a. leaner, richer b. oral, written c. foreign, domestic d. none of the above ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 102; TYPE: concept 31. Which of the following formats is most formal? a. E-mail b. Memo c. Blog d. All are equal in formality ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 102; TYPE: concept 32. Which of the following is not an important factor to consider when choosing a medium for your message? a. Urgency b. Cost c. Gender of the audience d. Confidentiality ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 102; TYPE: concept 33. Which of the following is an example of a message topic? a. “To get the board of directors to increase the research and development budget” b. “Competitors spend more than our company does on research and development” c. “Funding for research and development” d. “The research and development budget is inadequate in our competitive marketplace” ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 104-05; TYPE: application 34. When you know your audience will be receptive to your message, it is generally best to organize it using a(n) a. complex approach. b. indirect approach. c. direct approach. d. none of the above ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 106; TYPE: concept

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35. Whatever the length of your message, you should limit the number of major support points to roughly a. two. b. three. c. six. d. ten.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 106; TYPE: concept True or False 36. When allocating your time among the three stages of the writing process, you should use about a fourth of the time for planning, half the time for writing, and a quarter of the time for completing.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 91; TYPE: concept 37. The three general purposes of business messages are to inform, to persuade, and to collaborate.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 92; TYPE: concept 38. If your message is intended strictly to inform, you control the message and need little interaction with your audience.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 92; TYPE: concept 39. If the general purpose of your message is to persuade, you will have little control over your message but will have a maximum of audience interaction.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 92; TYPE: concept 40. Collaborative messages are high in audience participation but low in communicator control.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 92; TYPE: concept 41. There is no point in sending a message if its purpose is not realistic.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 93; TYPE: concept 42. Once you have established your purpose, it’s best to consider whether it is worth pursuing at this time.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 93; TYPE: concept

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43. No matter how you feel personally about a situation, your communication should reflect your organization’s objectives.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 93; TYPE: concept 44. When analyzing your audience, you should focus on the key decision makers.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 93; TYPE: concept 45. As long as your message is clear, the size of your audience should not affect your approach.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 93; TYPE: concept 46. If you don’t know who your audience will be, there’s no point in trying to guess what would be of interest to them.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 93; TYPE: concept 47. If you expect your audience to be skeptical, you will need to provide more proof and introduce your conclusions and recommendations more gradually.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 94; TYPE: concept 48. One informal method for learning more about your audience’s information needs is to ask them directly for input.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 94; TYPE: concept 49. When you get a vague request for information, the best way to handle it is to provide all the information you can and allow the audience to pick and choose what is useful to them.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 95; TYPE: concept 50. Good communicators include only the information that their audience has specifically requested.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 95; TYPE: concept

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51. A helpful way to test the thoroughness of your message is to use the journalistic approach: asking yourself whether you have covered the who, what, where, when, why, and how.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 95; TYPE: concept 52. Accuracy of information is less important in business communication than in other types of communication.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 95; TYPE: concept 53. Online sources generally require more careful evaluation than other media.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 95; TYPE: concept 54. Messages can be unethical simply because certain details have not been included.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 96; TYPE: concept 55. If you provide inaccurate information in a business message, the best course of action is to say nothing and hope that no one notices.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 96; TYPE: concept 56. As long as your message is clear, the medium you choose won’t really matter.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 98; TYPE: concept 57. If you want to emphasize the confidentiality of a message, the preferred medium would be a fax or a memo.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 98; TYPE: concept 58. In today’s fast-paced environment, traditional business messages rely primarily on visual images, with occasional support from text.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 99; TYPE: concept 59. Media richness refers to the relative costs of advertising in the various mass media.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 100; TYPE: concept

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60. Face-to-face communication is the richest medium.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 100; TYPE: concept 61. Voice mail is a particularly effective medium for lengthy messages.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 100; TYPE: concept 62. The main advantage of written communication is that the writer has an opportunity to plan and control the message.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 101; TYPE: concept 63. The biggest drawback to e-mail is that it is underutilized.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 101; TYPE: concept 64. One advantage of e-mail is its high level of privacy.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 101; TYPE: concept 65. Instant messaging has quickly become the best medium for sending complex business messages.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 102; TYPE: concept 66. The urgency of your message should help you decide what medium to use.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 102; TYPE: concept 67. The best time to organize a message is after you’ve put a draft of it on paper— that way you know exactly what you’re working with.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 102-03; TYPE: concept 68. The topic and main idea of a message are basically the same thing.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 104; TYPE: concept 69. Brainstorming is helpful when working alone but is not an effective way to generate ideas if you are working with others.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 105; TYPE: concept

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70. In most cases, routine messages should be organized using the indirect approach.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 107; TYPE: concept Fill-in-the-Blank 71. Step one of the writing process is ____________________, in which you analyze the situation, gather information, select the right medium for the message, and organize the information.

ANSWER: planning; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 90; TYPE: concept 72. The final step in the writing process is ____________________ your message, which involves revising, producing, and distributing it.

ANSWER: completing; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 91; TYPE: concept 73. The three general purposes of business messages are to inform, to persuade, or to ____________________ with the audience.

ANSWER: collaborate; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 92; TYPE: concept 74. In addition to having a general purpose, each business message has a (an) ____________________ purpose.

ANSWER: specific; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 92; TYPE: concept 75. During the planning step you need to analyze your ____________________, including its size and composition, existing knowledge about the subject, and probable reaction to your message.

ANSWER: audience; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 93; TYPE: concept 76. A good way to test the thoroughness of your message is to use the ____________________ approach and ask whether the message answers who, what, when, where, why, and how.

ANSWER: journalistic; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 95; TYPE: concept 77. Speeches, presentations, and meetings are all examples of ____________________ media.

ANSWER: oral; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 98; TYPE: concept

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78. Media ____________________ is the ability of a medium to convey a message using more than one informational cue, facilitate feedback, and establish personal focus.

ANSWER: richness; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 100; TYPE: concept 79. Every medium has ____________________ that make it inappropriate for certain messages.

ANSWER: limitations OR drawbacks; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 102; TYPE: concept 80. Factors you should consider in choosing a communication ____________________ include formality, confidentiality, feedback, time, and cost.

ANSWER: medium; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 102; TYPE: concept 81. Including ____________________ material is an organization problem that frustrates your audience.

ANSWER: irrelevant; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 102; TYPE: concept 82. Your entire message supports, explains, or demonstrates your ____________________ ____________________ —a specific statement about the topic of your message.

ANSWER: main idea; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 104; TYPE: concept 83. The ____________________ of your message is the range of informatio present, the overall length, and the level of detail—all of which need to correspond to your main idea.

ANSWER: scope; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 105; TYPE: concept 84. No matter how long your message is, you should limit the number of major support points to roughly ____________________.

ANSWER: six; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 106; TYPE: concept 85. An alternative to creating an outline of your message is to use a(n) ____________________ ____________________ similar to those used to show a company’s management structure.

ANSWER: organization chart; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 109; TYPE: concept

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Short Answer 86. Describe at least three of the tasks involved in developing an audience profile.

ANSWER: Developing an audience profile involves identifying your primary audience and determining its size, geographic distribution, and composition. It also requires gauging your audience’s level of understanding, considering their expectations and preferences, and forecasting their probable reaction to your message.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 93-94; TYPE: concept 87. List at least four methods of gathering information to include in your message.

ANSWER: Strategies for gathering information include (1) considering other viewpoints; (2) reading reports and other company documents; (3) talking with supervisors, colleagues, or customers; and (4) asking your audience for input.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 94; TYPE: concept 88. How can the journalistic approach help you include all required information in you business messages?

ANSWER: The journalistic approach enables you to check the thoroughness of your message by seeing whether your message answers who, what, when, where, why, and how.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 95; TYPE: concept 89. List at least three strategies to help ensure the accuracy of information you in include in business messages.

ANSWER:You can minimize mistakes by double-checking every piece of information you collect. If you are consulting sources outside the organization, ask yourself whether they are current and reliable. Be particularly careful when using sources you find on the Internet. Be sure to review any mathematical or financial calculations. Check all dates and schedules, and examine your own assumptions and conclusions to be certain they are valid.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 95; TYPE: concept 90. Briefly describe how to meet an unfamiliar audience’s informational needs.

ANSWER: When you don’t know your audience, use common sense to identify points of particular interest. Audience factors such as age, job, location, income, and education can give you a clue.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 96; TYPE: concept

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91. Briefly define media richness, and provide at least one example of a rich medium and a lean medium.

ANSWER: Media richness is the value of a communication medium in a given situation. It is determined by a medium’s ability to convey a message by means of more than one informational cue, facilitate feedback, and establish personal focus.

Face-to-face conversation is the richest medium, while unaddressed documents such as posters and signs are the leanest.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 100; TYPE: concept 92. Describe at least two disadvantages of using electronic media for business messages.

ANSWER: Despite the speed convenience of electronic media, they are not without problems. These media help companies get input from a wider variety of people but people also tend to overuse them, leading to message overload. They can also lack privacy, and their use is so popular that it can diminish employees’ productivity.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 101; TYPE: concept 93. Briefly explain the difference between the topic of a message and the main idea.

ANSWER: The topic of a message is its broad subject, condensed to one idea. In contrast, the main idea is a specific statement about the topic.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 104; TYPE: concept 94. In preparing a letter to a vendor regarding a missing part of your order, would the direct or indirect approach be preferable? Briefly explain your choice.

ANSWER: In this case, the direct approach would be best because the audience is likely to be receptive to the message. The indirect approach should be used when the audience will probably react with skepticism or resistance.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 106-07; TYPE: application 95. Briefly distinguish between the deductive and inductive approaches to organizing business messages.

ANSWER: The deductive, or direct, approach starts with the main idea and then provides supporting evidence. The inductive approach builds a case with supporting evidence before presenting the main idea.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 106-07; TYPE: concept

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Essay 96. What are the four tasks involved in planning business messages? analyzing the situation by ANSWER: Planning business messages involves (1) defining your purpose and developing a profile of your audience , (2) gathering information that will meet your audience's needs, (3) selecting the right medium to deliver your message, and (4) organizing the information by defining your main idea, limiting your scope, selecting a direct or an indirect approach , and outlining your content DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 90; TYPE: concept 97. Explain each phase of the three-step writing process.

ANSWER: The three-step writing process includes planning, writing, and completing the business message. Planning involves analyzing the situation, gathering information, selecting the right medium for your message, and organizing the information. Writing the message involves adapting to your audience and composing your message. Completing a business message includes revising, producing, proofreading, and distributing it.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 90-91; TYPE: concept 98. List at least three helpful questions to ask in evaluating the purpose of a message.

ANSWER: Once you have determined the specific purpose of a business message, you can decide whether that purpose merits the time and effort required for you to prepare and send the message. In order to test the purpose of a message, one should ask (1) Will anything change as a result of this message? (2) Is my purpose realistic? (3) Is the time right? and (4) Is the purpose acceptable to my organization?

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 93; TYPE: concept 99. How can your audience’s level of understanding help you determine the appropriate amount of information to include in a business message?

ANSWER: If audience members do not share your general background, your You should try to message will likely need to include an element of education. include only enough information to accomplish the specific purpose of your message. If the members of your audience have various levels of understanding, gear your coverage to your primary audience (the key decision makers).

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 93; TYPE: concept

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100. Briefly describe at least three factors to consider when choosing media for business messages.

A number of factors can help you to determine the best medium for a ANSWER: business message. One is media richness, which is a medium’s ability to convey a message through more than one informational cue, facilitate feedback, and establish personal focus. Another is formality, since your media choice governs the style and tone of your message. It is also important to consider media limitations, since every medium has drawbacks that make it inappropriate for certain messages. The medium you choose also influences your audience’s perceptions of your intentions as a sender. Urgency and cost are other important factors.

Finally, it is vital to consider audience preferences when deciding which medium to use for a message.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 100-01; TYPE: concept

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Chapter 5 WRITING BUSINESS MESSAGES Multiple Choice 1. Which of the following statements best reflects the “you” attitude? a. You failed to enclose a check for $25. b. We need a check from you for $25 so that we can send the merchandise by May 15. c. We will send you the merchandise as soon as we receive your check for $25. d. You will have your merchandise by July 15 if you send us your check for $25 today.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 121; TYPE: application 2. Select the sentence with the best “you” attitude: a. Because your report was poorly written, we cannot accept it. b. Your report failed to meet company requirements. c. When we receive a report that is professional, we can act on your recommendations. d. Once the project includes the necessary estimates, we can proceed with it.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 121; TYPE: application 3. It is best to limit your use of the word “you” in business messages if a. you know your audience well. b. your organization prefers a more formal, impersonal style. c. you are filling your audience's informational needs. d. you are preparing a persuasive message.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 121; TYPE: concept 4. You earn respect from your audience by a. being brutally frank in your criticisms. b. flattering them as much as possible. c. being polite and diplomatic. d. doing all of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 121-22; TYPE: concept

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5. Select the sentence with the best positive emphasis: a. We failed to complete the process audit on time. b. We will complete the process audit by Friday. c. We haven’t completed the process audit. d. Because of Joan’s inaccurate figures on the Haymen project, we are not finished with the process audit.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 122; TYPE: concept 6. When you are criticizing or correcting, it is best to a. focus on what the person can do to improve. b. emphasize a person's mistakes so that he or she will not make the same ones again. c. be honest and call attention to the person's failures or shortcomings. d. make the person an example for everyone else to learn from.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 124; TYPE: concept 7. For persuasive messages, the best approach is to a. avoid the “you” attitude. b. get straight to the point. c. emphasize how your audience will benefit. d. open with the main idea and then provide supporting points.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 124; TYPE: concept 8. The best approach for getting someone to buy a magazine subscription from your charity group would be to say a. Please buy a subscription; our group really needs the money. b. If you buy a subscription from me I'll make my quota. c. This magazine will keep you informed on issues that affect your daily life. d. Our group doesn’t get any assistance from government agencies, so these magazine sales are our main source of funding.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 124; TYPE: application 9. A euphemism is a word or phrase that is a. possibly offensive. b. general or abstract in meaning. c. highly technical. d. a milder term for one with negative connotations.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 124; TYPE: concept

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10. To establish credibility with your audience, you should a. impress them with a long list of your accomplishments. b. be modest and deferential. c. show that you are confident and that you believe in yourself and in your message. d. use hedge words (“maybe,” “perhaps”) to demonstrate your knowledge that no issue is fully cut and dried.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 126; TYPE: concept 11. In business messages, using terms such as “if,” “hope,” and “trust” is a. usually a bad idea since it takes away from the writer’s credibility. b. a good way to show your modesty. c. common courtesy. d. acceptable for very formal contexts.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 127; TYPE: concept 12. The tone of business messages a. can range from informal to conversational to formal. b. should always be formal. c. should always be fairly informal. d. is governed by strict, unwritten rules that do not allow for humor.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 128; TYPE: concept 13. Generally speaking, business language used to be ____________ it is today. a. less formal than b. more formal than c. about as formal as d. simpler than ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 128; TYPE: concept 14. Plain English is a style of writing a. used only for casual correspondence. b. designed to make complex materials more understandable to the audience. c. aimed primarily at readers for whom English is a second language. d. inappropriate for business communication.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 129; TYPE: concept

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15. Which of the following is not an example of obsolete language? a. We are in receipt of b. Please be advised that c. Please let us know d. We wish to inform you ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 129; TYPE: application 16. Which of the following sentences contains the strongest and most effective wording? a. Given the parameters of the situation, the most propitious choice would be to make adjustments in certain budget areas. b. We need to cut the operating budget by 12 percent or profits will plummet. c. Someone’s going to need to do some budget cutting around here or heads will roll. d. Perusal of budgetary figures reveals that a 12 percent reduction in operations is called for if we are to stave off a negative impact on profits.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 129; TYPE: application 17. Identify the voice in the following sentence: “The report was changed by the marketing manager.” a. Active b. Passive c. Vocative d. State of being ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 130-31; TYPE: application 18. Using the passive voice makes sense when a. you want to be diplomatic in pointing out a problem or error. b. you want your sentence to be easier to understand. c. you need to make your sentences shorter. d. you want to emphasize the subject.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 131; TYPE: concept 19. Which of the following is a content word? a. around b. she c. jump d. the ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 132; TYPE: application

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20. The connotative meaning of a word is a. its dictionary meaning. b. its literal meaning. c. all the associations and feelings the word evokes. d. its objective meaning.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 133; TYPE: concept 21. Which of the following words are the most abstract? a. kiss, rose, house b. red, sharp, piercing c. kick, move, walk d. love, beauty, innocence ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 133-34; TYPE: application 22. “While you may not agree with Joan’s recommendations, you must admit that her suggestions would save the company money” is a a. simple sentence. b. compound sentence. c. complex sentence. d. compound-complex sentence.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 136; TYPE: application 23. “Stock prices have fallen, and foreign investments are far below normal levels” is a a. simple sentence. b. compound sentence. c. complex sentence. d. compound-complex sentence.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 136; TYPE: application 24. Which of the following is a compound sentence? a. David is a good worker, and he deserves a raise. b. Because David is a good worker, he deserves a raise. c. David, a good worker, deserves a raise. d. Having been a good worker, David will no doubt receive a raise.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 136; TYPE: application

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25. A complex sentence is one characterized by a. two independent clauses joined by a coordinating conjunction. b. a single subject and a single predicate plus any modifying phrases. c. two or more independent clauses along with all modifying phrases. d. an independent clause and one or more dependent clauses related to it.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 136; TYPE: concept 26. You can emphasize key points by a. using extra words to describe them. b. making important ideas the subject of the sentence. c. placing them at the beginning or end of a sentence. d. doing all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 136-37; TYPE: concept 27. To downplay a dependent clause in a complex sentence, you a. place it at the beginning of the sentence. b. place it at the end of the sentence. c. bury it in the middle of the sentence. d. set it off with a semicolon.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 137; TYPE: concept 28. A typical paragraph contains the three basic elements of a. a topic sentence, related sentences, and transitional elements. b. simple, compound, and complex sentences. c. the main idea, supporting ideas, and evidence. d. a problem, discussion, and a solution.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 137; TYPE: concept 29. Words such as “nevertheless,” “however,” “but,” and “therefore” a. are called pointer words. b. introduce modifiers. c. occur only in complex sentences. d. are useful for making transitions.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 139; TYPE: concept

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30. A paragraph that focuses on the reasons for something is developed according to which method? a. Illustration b. Comparison and contrast c. Cause and effect d. Problem and solution ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 140; TYPE: concept 31. When you want to develop a paragraph by showing how a general idea is broken into specific categories, which of these methods would you use? a. Illustration b. Comparison and contrast c. Cause and effect d. Classification ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 140; TYPE: concept 32. To ensure a consistent look for all company documents, many organizations provide employees with approved a. autocompletion software. b. spreadsheets. c. macros. d. style sheets.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 141; TYPE: concept 33. The _____________ feature in software enables you to personalize form letters by inserting names and addresses from a database. a. File merge b. Mail merge c. Autocorrection d. Boilerplate ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 141; TYPE: concept 34. Which type of software feature inserts a ready-made block of text when you type the first few characters? a. Machine translation b. Mail merge c. Autocompletion d. Autocorrection ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 141; TYPE: concept

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35. Boilerplate is a. a piece of computer hardware used to increase modem speed. b. a standard block of text used in various documents without being changed. c. a list of most-used e-mail addresses. d. a machine used in professional printing.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 141; TYPE: concept True or False 36. Adopting a “you” attitude in business writing is simply a matter of using the pronoun “you” as much as possible.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 121; TYPE: concept 37. In general, the word “you” should be avoided when you are assigning blame for a problem.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 121; TYPE: concept 38. When delivering negative news, it is misleading to emphasize any positive aspects of the situation.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 122; TYPE: concept 39. Always avoid using euphemisms, because they are inherently dishonest.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 124; TYPE: concept 40. Using the word “young” to describe an employee can have negative implications.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 126; TYPE: concept 41. Being too modest can reduce your credibility with your audience.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 126; TYPE: concept 42. A conversational tone is not appropriate for most business messages.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 128; TYPE: concept

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43. Bragging about your company’s accomplishments can be offensive to readers.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 128; TYPE: concept 44. Enlivening business messages with humor will always please your readers, especially if they don’t know you very well.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 129; TYPE: concept 45. Plain English is a style of writing used primarily for communicating to those for whom English is a second language.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 129; TYPE: concept 46. Good business letters use language that is as formal as possible and use proven terminology such as “please be advised that” and “we are in receipt of.”

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 129; TYPE: concept 47. “John rented the office” is written in the active voice.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 130-31; TYPE: application 48. You should completely avoid use of the passive voice in business writing.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 131; TYPE: concept 49. When composing a draft, you should never skip to another section of the document until you’ve finished the current one.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 131; TYPE: concept 50. The rules of grammar and usage do not change over time.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 132; TYPE: concept 51. Conjunctions, prepositions, articles, and pronouns are all functional words.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 132; TYPE: concept 52. Nouns, verbs, and adjectives are functional words.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 132; TYPE: concept

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53. Connotative meanings are the literal or dictionary meanings of words.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 133; TYPE: concept 54. In business communication it is best to use words that are low in connotative meaning.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 133; TYPE: concept 55. Abstract words are direct, vivid, clear, and exact.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 133; TYPE: concept 56. Abstract words should be completely avoided in business writing.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 133-34; TYPE: concept 57. Clichés are a valuable tool in business writing, as readers find such words and phrases to be comfortable and familiar.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 134; TYPE: concept 58. In business messages, using a great deal of jargon is an effective way to increase your credibility.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 134; TYPE: concept 59. A compound sentence is one that contains one main thought (independent clause) and one or more subordinate thoughts (dependent clauses).

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 136; TYPE: concept 60. “We can hire Jane, but not at the salary she’s requested” is a complex sentence.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 136; TYPE: application 61. “Profits have increased and employee morale is high” is a simple sentence.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 136; TYPE: application 62. “Insurance premiums are increasing, and health care costs continue to rise” is a compound sentence.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 136; TYPE: application

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63. Skilled business writers avoid complex sentences altogether.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 136; TYPE: concept 64. To emphasize a dependent clause, it is better to put it at the end of a sentence rather than in the middle.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 137; TYPE: concept 65. A properly constructed paragraph can deal with more than one topic.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 137; TYPE: concept 66. Coherence within and between paragraphs is achieved through the use of transitional words and phrases.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 139; TYPE: concept 67. When developing paragraphs, you should stick to one method within each paragraph and throughout a document.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 141; TYPE: concept 68. Instant messaging and blogging are popular for entertainment, but have not caught on as important business technologies.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 141; TYPE: concept 69. Autocompletion software is essentially the same thing as autocorrection software.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 141; TYPE: concept 70. Templates and style sheets can both help to ensure a consistent look for all company documents.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 141; TYPE: concept Fill-in-the-Blank 71. Using the ____________________ attitude allows you to establish empathy with your audience.

ANSWER: “you”; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 121; TYPE: concept

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72. Even in messages detailing negative situations, it is best to emphasize the ____________________ aspects of your topic.

ANSWER: positive; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 122; TYPE: concept 73. Instead of using harsh, unpleasant terms, use mild words, or ____________________.

ANSWER: euphemisms; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 124; TYPE: concept 74. To avoid embarrassing blunders in language related to gender, race, ethnicity, age, or disability, use ____________________ language.

ANSWER: bias-free; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 124; TYPE: concept 75. Terms such as ”handicapped,” “crippled,” and “retarded” are examples of ____________________ bias.

ANSWER: disability; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 125; TYPE: application 76. If your audience is unfamiliar with you, you need to devote the initial part of your message to establishing ____________________.

ANSWER: credibility; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 126; TYPE: concept 77. Style is the way you use words to achieve a certain ____________________, or overall impression.

ANSWER: tone; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 127; TYPE: concept 78. A sentence is in the ____________________ voice when the subject performs the action and the object receives the action.

ANSWER: active; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 130; TYPE: concept 79. ____________________ words express relationships and have only one unchanging meaning in any given context; ____________________ words, such as nouns, verbs, adjectives, and adverbs, carry the meaning of the sentence.

ANSWER: Functional, content; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 132; TYPE: concept

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80. The ____________________ meaning of a word is its literal, dictionary meaning, whereas the ____________________ meaning includes all the associations and feelings it evokes.

ANSWER: denotative, connotative; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 133; TYPE: concept 81. ____________________ words express a concept or quality, not a tangible object.

ANSWER: abstract; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 133; TYPE: concept 82. ____________________ sentences express two or more independent but related thoughts of equal importance.

ANSWER: Compound; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 136; TYPE: concept 83. ____________________ sentences express one main thought and one or more subordinate thoughts related to it.

ANSWER: Complex; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 136; TYPE: concept 84. A (An) ____________________ is a cluster of sentences related to the same general topic.

ANSWER: paragraph; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 137; TYPE: concept 85. A standard block of text used in various documents without being changed is called ____________________.

ANSWER: boilerplate; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 141; TYPE: concept Short Answer

86. List three strategies to become more sensitive to your audience’s needs.

ANSWER: You should adopt the “you” attitude, maintain good standards of etiquette, emphasize the positive, and use bias-free language.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 120; TYPE: concept

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87. You are scheduled to discuss a negative performance evaluation with one of your employees. How can you use the “you” attitude during your conversation?

ANSWER: In cases like this, using the “you” attitude requires emphasizing what the person can do to improve, rather than dwelling on his or her mistakes and shortcomings. Emphasizing the positive is more likely to yield the results you want.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 122; TYPE: application 88. Define bias-free language.

ANSWER: Bias-free language avoids words and phrases that unfairly and even unethically categorize or stigmatize people in ways related to gender, race, ethnicity, age and disability.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 124; TYPE: concept 89. List at least two types of biased language and explain how to avoid each type.

ANSWER: (1) Gender bias: Avoid sexist language by using the same label for everyone—police officer instead of policeman. (2) Racial and ethnic bias: Avoid language that suggests that members of a racial or ethnic group have stereotypical characteristics. (3) Age bias: Mention the age of a person only when it is relevant.

(4) Disability bias: Avoid mentioning a disability unless it is pertinent. Put the person first.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 125; TYPE: concept 90. List at least three characteristics that can help establish credibility with your audience.

ANSWER: Audiences assign credibility to individuals who display (1) honesty, (2) objectivity, (3) awareness of audience needs, (4) credentials, knowledge, and expertise, (5) endorsements, (6) performance, (7) confidence, (8) evidence-based communication, and (8) sincerity.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 126-27; TYPE: concept 91. Briefly explain the difference between tone and style in business writing.

ANSWER: Tone is the overall impression you achieve with a message. Style is the way you use words to achieve a specific tone.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 127; TYPE: concept

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92. List at least three guidelines to follow if you want to achieve a conversational tone in business messages.

ANSWER: (1) Avoid obsolete and pompous language such as “in due course” or “we are in receipt of”; (2) avoid preaching and bragging; (3) be careful with intimacy—don’t be overly friendly or chatty; and (4) be careful with humor.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 128-29; TYPE: concept 93. Briefly explain the difference between the active voice and the passive voice.

ANSWER: You are using the active voice when the subject performs the action, and the object receives the action: “John rented the office.” You are using the passive voice when the subject receives the action: “The office was rented by John.”

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 130-31; TYPE: concept 94. How is the denotative meaning of a word different from its connotative meaning?

ANSWER: The denotative meaning is the literal, or dictionary, meaning of a word. The connotative meaning includes all the associations and feelings evoked by the word.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 133; TYPE: concept 95. Give the definition of a complex sentence, then provide an example of one.

ANSWER: A complex sentence expresses one main thought (the independent clause) and one or more subordinate thoughts (dependent clauses). An example is, “Although we met our production quota, our repair costs this month were far higher than expected.” (Answers will vary.)

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 136; TYPE: concept/application

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Essay 96. Explain what it means to “emphasize the positive” in business messages, and describe at least three techniques for doing so.

ANSWER: Emphasizing the positive in business communication means recognizing the difference between delivering negative news and being negative.

When the tone of your message is negative, you put unnecessary strain on business relationships, which can cause people to distance themselves from you and your ideas. One strategy for maintaining a positive tone in a potentially negative situation is to highlight any positive points that will foster a good relationship with your audience. Another strategy involves situations in which you find it necessary to criticize or correct: don’t dwell on the other person’s mistakes, and avoid referring to failures, problems, or shortcomings. Instead, focus on what the person can do to improve. Other strategies include persuading the audience to do something by emphasizing what’s in it for them, and using euphemisms instead of words that might hurt or offend your audience.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 122-24; TYPE: application 97. List three situations in which the passive voice can help you demonstrate the “you” attitude.

ANSWER: The passive voice can be helpful when you need to shift emphasis away from the person who is the subject of your message. These situations include (1) when you need to be diplomatic in pointing out a problem or error, (2) when you want to point out what’s being done without taking or attributing either the credit or the blame, and (3) when you seek to create an objective tone.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 131; TYPE: concept 98. Explain what it means to choose “words that communicate well,” then list four techniques for selecting the best words when writing business messages.

ANSWER: Choosing words that communicate means finding the most powerful words for each situation. Selecting the best words in business messages involves (1) choosing powerful words—verbs and nouns are better than adjectives and adverbs; (2) choosing familiar words—terms that are familiar to both you and your readers; (3) avoiding clichés and buzzwords; and (4) using jargon carefully.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 134-35; TYPE: concept

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99. What are the five most common techniques for developing paragraphs?

ANSWER: There are several common techniques for developing paragraphs.

Illustration involves giving examples to demonstrate the main idea. Comparison and contrast both involve using similarities or differences. Cause and effect requires focusing on the reasons for something. Classification involves showing how a general idea is broken into specific categories. Finally, problem and solution requires presenting a problem and then discussing the solution.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 140; TYPE: concept 100. Briefly describe at least four word processing capabilities that can help business writers shape their writing.

ANSWER: Most word processing programs contain features that automatically handle the “housekeeping chores” often associated with business document preparation. These include (1) style sheets—master lists of predefined styles for headlines, paragraph texts, and so on; (2) templates, which provide standardization in terms of page design, available fonts, and other features; (3) autocompletion, which inserts a ready-made block of text when you type the first few characters; (4) autocorrection, which instantly corrects spelling and typing errors and converts texts to symbols; (5) file merge and mail merge—features that make it easy to combine files; (6) endnotes, footnotes, indexes, and tables of contents; and (7) wizards, which take you through the process of creating letters, résumés, and other common documents.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 141; TYPE: concept

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Chapter 6 COMPLETING BUSINESS MESSAGES Multiple Choice 1. The main tasks in completing a business message consist of all except a. proofreading. b. revising. c. forecasting. d. producing.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 150; TYPE: concept 2. When revising a document, you should a. first read through it quickly to evaluate its overall effectiveness. b. first look carefully for grammatical errors. c. try to accomplish all revision tasks in one pass, in order to finish quickly. d. pay closest attention to the document’s spelling.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 151; TYPE: concept 3. When reviewing your document for content, you should be concerned with a. grammar and usage. b. punctuation and spelling. c. the accuracy and relevance of the information. d. style and tone.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 151; TYPE: concept 4. One of the best-known readability formulas is the a. Flesch-Kincaid Grade Level Score. b. 2 + 2 Formula. c. Scan Plan. d. Carnegie Index.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 153; TYPE: concept 5. For general business messages, your writing should be geared to readers at the a. first- to fourth-grade level. b. fifth- to sixth-grade level. c. eighth- to eleventh-grade level. d. twelfth- to fourteenth-grade level.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 153; TYPE: concept

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6. Which of the following is not a technique for helping readers who skim your document? a. Using lists instead of narrative b. Keeping all sentences the same length c. Including headings and subheadings d. Using shorter paragraphs ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 154; TYPE: concept 7. Skilled business writers a. use long sentences to emphasize important information. b. keep their sentences to an average length of 40 words or fewer. c. vary the length of their sentences. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 154; TYPE: concept 8. When it comes to paragraph length a. use long paragraphs with detailed information for direct-mail letters. b. use long paragraphs if you want your document to look more inviting. c. keep all paragraphs to fewer than 60 words. d. use one-sentence paragraphs only occasionally, for emphasis.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 154; TYPE: concept 9. When creating a list for a business document a. always use bullets, rather than numbers or letters. b. keep in mind that the items need not be parallel. c. be sure to introduce them clearly. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 155; TYPE: concept 10. Informative headings and subheadings a. simply identify topics covered in the document. b. guide readers to think a certain way about the topics covered. c. are easier to write than descriptive headings. d. are less helpful to readers than descriptive headings.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 156; TYPE: concept

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11. “If the figures are in by the end of the month we will hopefully be able to begin planning for the upcoming year’s budget, but if they are not then the planning process will most definitely have to wait until later” is an example of a. a comma splice. b. an overly long sentence. c. an indefinite pronoun starter. d. an awkward pointer.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 157; TYPE: application 12. Which of the following is an example of a hedging sentence? a. The report seems to be incomplete. b. The deadline is next Tuesday. c. The financial statement needs to have two sections. d. None of the above is hedging.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 157; TYPE: application 13. What is wrong with the following sentence? “To waste time and missing deadlines are bad habits.” a. Similar ideas are not parallel. b. It contains a dangling modifier. c. It contains a split infinitive. d. Nothing—it is grammatically correct as written.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 157; TYPE: application 14. What is wrong with the following sentence? “Driving to the office, a police officer stopped me for speeding.” a. It lacks parallelism. b. It contains a dangling modifier. c. It contains an awkward pointer. d.

Nothing—it is grammatically correct as written.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 157; TYPE: application 15. “Government task force report recommendations” is an example of a. redundancy. b. a dangling modifier. c. a dependent clause. d. a long noun sequence.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 159; TYPE: application

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16. Which of the following sentences contains a camouflaged verb? a. Some do; others don’t. b. She is a marketing manager but also serves as ad manager. c. It is John’s recommendation that she be hired. d. He slowly, deliberately added the numbers.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 159; TYPE: application 17. “The above-mentioned book” is an example of a. a redundancy. b. a strung-out sentence. c. an indefinite pronoun starter. d. an awkward reference.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 159; TYPE: application 18. Which of the following sentences is the most concisely worded? a. The project manager is in charge of furnishing specifications until such time as the project gets underway. b. All specifications should be provided by the project manager prior to the start of a project. c. Project managers have the capability of changing specifications before the official start date. d. The project manager must give the engineers the revised specifications before the project starts.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 159; TYPE: application 19. “Visible to the eye” is an example of a. a cliché. b. redundancy. c. the passive voice. d. obsolete language.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 159; TYPE: application 20. Starting a sentence with “It is” or “There are” is a. usually a sign that the sentence could be shorter and more active. b. perfectly acceptable, and you need not try to rewrite the sentence. c. a sign of the active voice being used. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 159; TYPE: concept

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21. The “replace all” feature in word-processing programs a. tracks down words or phrases and automatically changes them all. b. can save you time when revising messages. c. must be used with care, since it can make undesirable changes. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 161-62; TYPE: concept 22. A spell checker a. cannot automatically correct misspelled words as you type. b. highlights words it doesn’t recognize. c. suggests synonyms. d. does all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 162; TYPE: concept 23. A computer thesaurus a. catches punctuation as well as grammar errors. b. highlights phrases in passive voice. c. suggests correct spelling. d. can help you find just the right word for a given situation.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 162; TYPE: concept 24. Clip art a. is unprofessional and should not be used in business documents. b. is not copyrighted. c. is costly and difficult to use. d. makes it impossible to attach your document to an e-mail message.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 164; TYPE: concept 25. Inserting hypertext into documents a. involves using HTML language to create hyperlinks. b. is not possible yet, given current technology. c. allows you to hear sounds over the Internet. d. requires an expert to handle the programming.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 164; TYPE: concept

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26. For effective document design, you should a. fit as much material as possible on each page. b. use a mix of several typefaces and type sizes and include a variety of decorative touches to make the pages look more interesting. c. balance the space devoted to text, artwork, and white space. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 166; TYPE: concept 27. Using white space in a document a. is considered “cheating.” b. is only an option when you can't use color. c. makes your document look unappealing. d. provides contrast.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 166; TYPE: concept 28. Justified type is type that is a. set flush on the left and flush on the right. b. centered. c. set flush left and ragged on the right. d. set flush right and ragged on the left.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 166; TYPE: concept 29. Justified margins are not preferred for business documents because they a. make the document harder to read. b. darken the message’s appearance because there is less white space. c. make messages look less personalized. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 166; TYPE: concept 30. Centered type in business documents is a. never appropriate. b. rarely used for text but commonly used for headings. c. acceptable for long sections of text but not for headings. d. always preferred for exceptionally long paragraphs.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 167; TYPE: concept

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31. Serif typefaces are generally preferable to sans serif faces for a. display treatments. b. headings and captions. c. text. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 167; TYPE: concept 32. When selecting typefaces for most business documents, you should a. generally avoid using more than two typefaces on a page. b. make generous use of such styles as all caps, underlines, and boldface. c. choose a nice sans serif face for your main body text. d. use a large type size (at least 14 points) for your basic text if you need to fill up space.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 167; TYPE: concept 33. Desktop publishing software a. includes specialized tools for formatting, layout, and design. b. allows you to add color, photographs, and clip art to documents c. provides “style sheets” that help ensure a consistent look to your documents. d. does all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 168; TYPE: concept 34. Which of the following lists contains the elements of a business letter in the proper order? a. letterhead, date, inside address, salutation, message, complimentary close b. letterhead, inside address, date, salutation, message, complimentary close c. date, letterhead, inside address, salutation, message, complimentary close d. none of the above ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 169; TYPE: concept

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35. If you’re sending extremely large files, you should a. use overnight delivery to send a hard copy rather than sending them electronically. b. see whether your audience would prefer to receive them on a CD instead of as an e-mail attachment. c. always send them as MS Word attachments. d. send them through the mail to avoid excessive costs.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 171; TYPE: concept True or False 36. After you have completed the first draft of your business message, the next step is to make a final, quick pass through it to check for typos and spelling errors.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 150; TYPE: concept 37. With practice, most writers can create first drafts that do not need to be revised.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 150; TYPE: concept 38. The best approach to completing your business message is to focus on the details first before addressing the document as a whole.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 151; TYPE: concept 39. It is a good idea to set aside a first draft for a day or two before beginning the revision process.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 151; TYPE: concept 40. At the beginning of the revision process, you should evaluate the content of your message, then review the effectiveness of its organization.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 151; TYPE: concept 41. The middle section of a message has the greatest impact on the audience.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 151; TYPE: concept 42. You should strive for a sixth-grade reading level for most business messages.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 153; TYPE: concept

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43. Although readability formulas are easy to apply, they ignore some factors that contribute to reading ease.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 153; TYPE: concept 44. Skilled business writers keep all their sentences as short as possible.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 154; TYPE: concept 45. Although you should vary the length of paragraphs in your business messages, in general you should strive for short paragraphs.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 154; TYPE: concept 46. It is inappropriate to use lists in formal business writing.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 155; TYPE: concept 47. To create a list, you can use numbers, letters, or bullets (graphic elements) to separate the items.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 155; TYPE: concept 48. Items in a list do not need to have parallel construction.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 155; TYPE: concept 49. Headings have one function, which is to break up long blocks of type.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 156; TYPE: concept 50. An example of an informative heading would be “Business Travel.”

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 156; TYPE: application 51. Readers can understand informative headings without reading the rest of the document.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 156; TYPE: concept 52. One way to make your messages clearer is to break up overly long sentences into shorter sentences.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 157; TYPE: concept

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53. To avoid legal problems in your business messages, you should use as many hedging words (such as may or seems) as possible.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 157; TYPE: concept 54. Dangling modifiers are often the result of passive constructions.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 157; TYPE: concept 55. A camouflaged verb is a verb that has been turned into a noun or an adjective.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 159; TYPE: concept 56. The subject and predicate of a sentence should be kept as close together as possible.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 159; TYPE: concept 57. To save words, make liberal use of references such as “the latter,” “the former,” “the aforementioned,” and “as mentioned above.”

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 159; TYPE: concept 58. After editing for conciseness and clarity, you’ll find that most first drafts can be cut by as much as 50 percent.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 159; TYPE: concept 59. The word very is usually unnecessary and contributes to sentence clutter.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 159; TYPE: concept 60. Short words are more vivid and easier to read than long words.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 159; TYPE: concept 61. Redundancies are useful to readers because repetition leads to better recall of information.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 159; TYPE: concept 62. If a sentence starts with an indefinite pronoun such as “it” or “there,” chances are the sentence can be shortened.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 159; TYPE: concept

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63. Using a spell checker guarantees that your documents will be free of spelling errors.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 162; TYPE: concept 64. Today’s powerful grammar checkers can easily determine whether your document states your message correctly and communicates it clearly.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 163; TYPE: concept 65. Because the first thing that readers will notice about your message is its appearance, you should pay special attention to design and page layout.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 164; TYPE: concept 66. To make your message more interesting and accessible, you should use as many design elements and decorative touches as possible.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 166; TYPE: concept 67. One advantage of justified type is that it makes a message look more personalized and less like a form letter.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 166; TYPE: concept 68. Using many different fonts in the same document will make it more appealing to your audience.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 167; TYPE: concept 69. The best way to draw attention to important points or terms is to underline them or type them in all capital letters.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 167-68; TYPE: concept 70. Proofreading is rarely necessary since today’s professionals use wordprocessing software to prepare documents.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 170; TYPE: concept

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Fill-in-the-Blank 71. Using a ____________________ ____________________ will give you a rough idea of how educated your audience must be to read and comprehend your message.

ANSWER: readability formula; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 153; TYPE: concept 72. An effective alternative to using conventional sentences is to set off important ideas in a(an) ____________________ —a series of words, names, or other items.

ANSWER: list; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 155; TYPE: concept 73. ____________________ headings identify a topic but do little more; ____________________ headings guide readers to think in certain ways about a topic.

ANSWER: Descriptive, informative; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 156; TYPE: concept 74. A ____________________ sentence uses words such as may and seems to avoid stating a judgment or fact.

ANSWER: hedging; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 157; TYPE: concept 75. With ____________________ construction, two or more similar ideas are expressed with the same grammatical pattern.

ANSWER: parallel; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 157; TYPE: concept 76. A modifier is said to be ____________________ when it has no real connection to the subject of the sentence.

ANSWER: dangling; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 157; TYPE: concept 77. ____________________ verbs are those that have been changed into nouns or adjectives.

ANSWER: Camouflaged; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 159; TYPE: concept

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78. Word combinations ____________________.

that

are

needlessly

repetitive

are

called

ANSWER: redundancies; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 159; TYPE: concept 79. A(An) ____________________ compares your document with an electronic dictionary, highlights unrecognized words, and suggests correct spelling.

ANSWER: spell checker; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 162; TYPE: concept 80. An electronic ____________________ gives you alternative words and helps you find synonyms.

ANSWER: thesaurus; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 162; TYPE: concept 81. ____________________ markup language (HTML) is used to insert hyperlinks, images, and other elements into your messages.

ANSWER: Hypertext; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 164; TYPE: concept 82. ____________________ ____________________ provides visual contrast for your readers and gives them a resting point.

ANSWER: White space; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 166; TYPE: concept 83. ____________________ typefaces have small crosslines at the ends of each letter stroke.

ANSWER: Serif; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 167; TYPE: concept 84. You can use ____________________ ____________________ software such as andQuark XPress or Adobe InDesign to produce professional-looking formats layouts for your documents.

ANSWER: desktop publishing; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 168; TYPE: concept 85. One of the final stages in producing a document is ____________________ it to make sure that it contains no errors in grammar, usage, and punctuation.

ANSWER: proofreading; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 170; TYPE: concept

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Short Answer 86. Briefly explain what the opening of a document should accomplish.

ANSWER: The opening of a shorter document should be relevant, interesting, and geared to the reader’s probable reaction. For longer messages, the first few paragraphs should establish the subject, purpose, and organization of the material.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 151; TYPE: concept 87. Conclusions should accomplish what two tasks?

ANSWER: Conclusions should (1) summarize the main idea and (2) leave the audience with a positive impression.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 151; TYPE: concept 88. Briefly describe at least three advantages of using lists in business documents.

ANSWER: Lists can show the sequence of your ideas, heighten their impact visually, and help readers find your key points. They also provide readers with clues, simplify complex subjects, highlight the main point, break up the page visually, ease the skimming process, and give readers a breather.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 155; TYPE: concept 89. Rewrite the following sentence to remove the dangling modifier: “Lying next to the filing cabinet, the office manager found the financial report.”

ANSWER: The office manager found the financial report next to the filing cabinet. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 157; TYPE: application 90. Rewrite the following sentence to improve clarity and avoid the long noun sequence: “The financial estimates and accounting consulting firm will be closed next week.”

ANSWER: The consulting firm that provides financial estimates and accounting services will be closed next week.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 157; TYPE: application 91. Rewrite the following sentence to avoid camouflaged verbs: “The customer will ultimately make a determination about whether or not a purchase will occur.”

ANSWER: The customer will ultimately determine whether or not to make a purchase.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 159; TYPE: application

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92. Rewrite the following sentence to eliminate the unnecessary phrases: “In view of the fact that the customer service department is closed, we do not have the capability of offering refunds until such a time as they reopen.”

ANSWER: We cannot offer refunds until the customer service department opens.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 159; TYPE: application 93. Rewrite the following sentence to eliminate redundancies: “The engineers collaborated together in order to produce the uniquely original final outcomes of their research.”

ANSWER: The engineers collaborated to produce their original research outcomes. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 159; TYPE: application 94. Rewrite the following sentence to be more concise by using short, simple words: “Effective immediately, all employees need to terminate their excessive utilization of the office duplication machine for personal affairs and activities.”

ANSWER: The office copier is not for personal use. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 159; TYPE: application 95. List four characteristics of effective document design.

ANSWER: Effectively designed business documents exhibit (1) consistency, (2) balance, (3) restraint, and (4) attention to detail.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 166; TYPE: concept Essay

96. What three functions do effective headings serve in business documents?

Explain each one.

ANSWER: Headings contribute to the document’s organization by showing the reader at a glance how the document is organized. They act as labels to group related paragraphs and organize material into short sections. Headings also control the reader’s attention, making the text easier to read and helping the audience find the parts they need to read—or skip. Finally, headings help readers make connections between subordinate ideas and main ones.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 156; TYPE: concept

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97. Explain at least three of the steps involved in editing documents for clarity.

ANSWER: Editing for clarity involves breaking up overly long sentences and rewriting sentences that contain hedging (words like may and seems). It also requires imposing parallelism, or using the same grammatical pattern to express two or more similar ideas. Correcting dangling modifiers is another necessary step, along with rewording long noun sequences. Improving the clarity of a document also involves eliminating camouflaged verbs, clarifying sentence structure and awkward sentences, and moderating your enthusiasm.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 157-59; TYPE: concept 98. Explain why editing for conciseness is important, then list the four steps it involves.

ANSWER: Editing business documents for conciseness is important because many drafts are twice as long as they need to be. Eliminating unnecessary material helps you get your point across more efficiently. Improving the conciseness of a message involves removing unnecessary words and phrases, shortening long words and phrases, and eliminating redundancies. It also requires shortening sentences that begin with indefinite pronouns such as it and there.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 159; TYPE: concept 99. Describe at least three types of software that can help you revise and polish a document.

ANSWER: Software tools such as revision marks and commenting keep track of proposed editing changes electronically and provide a history of a document’s revisions. A spell checker compares your document with an electronic dictionary, highlights unrecognized words, and suggests correct spellings. A computer thesaurus gives you alternative words much more quickly than a printed thesaurus does. A grammar checker provides limited help with issues such as noun-verb agreement problems and items you should consider changing (such as passive voice, long sentences, or words that tend to be misused or overused). Finally, a style checker monitors your word choice and sentence structure and suggests alternatives that might produce more effective meaning. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 161-62; TYPE: concept

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100. Explain the importance and process of proofreading. Why does it matter and what should you look for?

ANSWER: Proofreading is important because it is your last chance to make sure that your document is ready to carry your message—and your reputation—to the intended audience. When proofreading, you should check the document for errors from the writing, design, and layout stages, and mistakes that crept in during production. More specifically, you should be on the lookout for writing errors (such as typographical mistakes and misspelled words), missing elements (text sections and visual aids), and design and formatting errors (such as incorrect font selections and page numbers).

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 170; TYPE: concept

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Chapter 7 CRAFTING MESSAGES FOR ELECTRONIC MEDIA Multiple Choice 1.

Of the media listed below, which is generally not used for routine, internal communication? a. memo b. e-mail c. letter d. telephone call

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 180; TYPE: application 2.

When it comes to writing messages in today’s business environment, a. printed letters are obsolete. b. printed letters are still used often for external communication. c. e-mail has completely replaced printed memos for all internal communication. d. printed letters are used primarily for negative messages.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 180; TYPE: concept 3.

E-mail can be used for external communication a. regularly—it is now a primary medium for most companies. b. only for formal documents that you need to keep a record of. c. in response to letters your customers have sent. d. all of the above

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 180; TYPE: concept 4.

Compared to e-mail, instant messaging a. is slower and more complicated to use. b. has not caught on in the business community. c. is much faster, but more costly as well. d. offers greater speed and is less susceptible to privacy problems.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 180; TYPE: application

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5.

Which of the following are benefits of instant messaging? a. It allows a rapid response to urgent messages. b. It is less susceptible to security and privacy problems. c. It costs less than phone calls or e-mail. d. All of the above are benefits.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 180; TYPE: concept 6.

Many businesses are now using podcasts to replace or supplement a. letters. b. memos. c. conference calls. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 181; TYPE: concept

7.

When you want your message to stand out amidst the flood of e-mail your audience receives, you should a. consider sending a printed message. b. flag your e-mail messages as ‘high priority’ or ‘urgent.’ c. send multiple copies of the same e-mail message. d. do none of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 181 TYPE: concept 8.

The most formal type of written communication is: a. instant messaging b. e-mail c. blogging d. letters

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 181; TYPE: concept 9.

Using e-mail in the workplace a. requires no more formality than using it for personal correspondence. b. is frowned upon by most executives. c. has dramatically different demands than using it for personal messages. d. is a good idea only in technological fields.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 181-82; TYPE: concept

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10.

To minimize the potential problems associated with e-mail, many companies have a. abandoned the use of e-mail altogether. b. adopted formal e-mail policies governing appropriate usage. c. stopped monitoring the messages employees send and receive. d. limited the number of messages each employee can send.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 182; TYPE: concept 11.

Roughly ___ percent of U.S. employers have terminated employees for misuse of company e-mail systems. a. 1 b. 10 c. 25 d. 80

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 182; TYPE: application 12.

E-mail hygiene refers to a. the absence of slang and informal language in e-mail messages. b. a nationwide movement to do away with information overload. c. all the efforts companies make to keep e-mail clean and safe. d. none of the above

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 182; TYPE: concept 13.

E-mails should include all of the following except: a. information about attachments b. inside address c. e-mail addresses of sender and receiver d. contact information

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 182; TYPE: concept 14. When it comes to monitoring incoming and outgoing e-mail, a. most companies do not make the effort. b. only about 10 percent of U.S. employers do it. c. most employers view it as an invasion of employee privacy. d. about 50 percent of U.S. employers regularly do so.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 182; TYPE: concept

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15.

When it comes to legal issues, a. e-mails mean nothing—only printed documents can be used in court. b. e-mail and other electronic documents have the same weight as printed ones. c. your e-mail messages are off limits—using them in court would violate your privacy. d. none of the above are correct.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 182; TYPE: concept 16. According to a recent study, workers exposed to a constant barrage of e-mail, IM, and phone calls a. increased their productivity by 20 percent. b. were 50 percent more likely than their peers to be promoted. c. experienced an average 10-point drop in their functioning IQ. d. experienced none of the above ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 183-84; TYPE: concept 17.

One important element of basic e-mail etiquette is to a. be careful about using the “cc” function. b. use bullets and lists. c. include headings on all e-mails. d. capture your readers’ attention.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 184; TYPE: concept 18.

E-mail etiquette requires that writers be all of the following except a. sure every e-mail they send is absolutely necessary b. respectful of the chain of command c. careful to keep their emotions in check when composing messages d. careful to mark all e-mails as “urgent” to make sure they are read.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 184-85; TYPE: concept 19.

The subject line of an e-mail message a. is one of the most important parts. b. helps recipients decide whether or not to read the message. c. should do more than simply describe the general topic of the message. d. does all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 185; TYPE: concept

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20.

Which of the following is an example of an effective e-mail subject line? a. Website redesign is on schedule b. Status Report c. Employee Parking d. All of the above

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 185; TYPE: application 21.

E-mail a. should follow the convention of other business writing in formal situations. b. should never be longer than one screen. c. does not need to be proofread. d. involves all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 185; TYPE: concept 22. When exchanging multiple e-mails with someone on the same topic, a. use the same subject line to avoid confusion. b. write a descriptive kind of subject line. c. modify the subject line with each response. d. change the topic whenever the date changes but not before.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 185; TYPE: application 23.

To make e-mail more readable, you should do all of the following except: a. limit subject lines to describing the general topic of your message. b. make your message easy to follow. c. personalize your message. d. observe e-mail etiquette.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 185; TYPE: concept 24. Which of the following is an example of an effective subject line for an e-mail requesting information about the August inventory for bananas? a. Information needed b. Banana inventories c. Banana information needed d. Please send August banana inventory ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 185; TYPE: application

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25.

Drawbacks of IM include a. the challenge of logging messages for later review and archiving. b. the need for users to learn complicated software. c. the ability to use it only on expensive, highly specialized devices. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 186; TYPE: concept 26. Advantages of using IM rather than e-mail include a. its lower cost than phone calls and e-mail b. its availability on a wide range of devices c. its ability to mimic conversation more closely d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 187; TYPE: concept 27.

“Spim” refers to a. unwanted e-mail from unknown sources. b. e-mail that contains computer viruses. c. the IM version of e-mail spam. d. none of the above

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 189; TYPE: application 28.

If you do not have a constant supply of new information to post on a business blog, a. your audience will appreciate not having to process information that changes constantly. b. re-post old material so your audience will not lose interest. c. online audiences are likely to ignore your material. d. none of the above

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 191; TYPE: concept 29.

If you receive criticism based on a business blog, a. you should respond to it promptly and honestly. b. ignore it unless the critic is incorrect. c. post it, and follow with a blog entry to show your audience that it will not be tolerated. d. none of the above

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 191; TYPE: concept

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30.

Many businesses now use blogs to a. keep project teams up to date. b. replace e-mail in many cases. c. inform employees about general business matters. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 192; TYPE: concept 31.

“Viral marketing” is a. the unethical practice of marketing products through computer viruses. b. advertising products and services related to the health-care industry. c. spreading the word about your company and products in much the same way that biological viruses are spread from person to person. d. none of the above

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 192; TYPE: concept 32. When it comes to blogging for business, a. don’t worry about proofreading—your audience doesn’t expect it. b. you should apply the three-step writing process as you would for any other business message. c. don’t spend a lot of time trying to define your audience: you’re writing for everyone. d. all of the above are true.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 193; TYPE: concept 33.

Podcasts are a. great for entertainment, but not useful in business. b. helpful for training in business, but not much c. tooelse. technical to be practical for business use. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 195; TYPE: application 34.

Compared to blogs, podcasts are a. much easier to edit. b. more difficult to edit. c. equally challenging when it comes to editing. d. used only by high-tech companies.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 195; TYPE: concept

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35.

One of the greatest drawbacks to using podcasts in business is a. they require costly, specialized equipment you’ll need to purchase regardless of the production quality you want. b. the difficulty of finding people with good speaking voices. c. the challenge of scanning back and forth to find specific parts of the message. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 195; TYPE: concept True or False 36.

_____ Printed letters are the still the most common medium for formal internal business communication.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 180; TYPE: concept 37.

_____ Formal business letters are generally best for written, internal communication.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 180; TYPE: application 38.

_____ E-mail should never be used for external communication.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 180; TYPE: concept 39.

_____ E-mail is now a primary communication medium for most companies.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate: PAGE: 180; TYPE: concept 40.

______ There are no important differences between instant messaging and text messaging.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 180; TYPE: concept 41.

_____ One advantage of blogging for business is that it makes it so easy to stand out from the crowd.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 181; TYPE: concept 42.

_____ One limitation of podcasts is that they can be played only on Apple iPods.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 181; TYPE: concept

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43.

_____ Compared to blogs, podcasts require more work to create.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 181; TYPE: concept 44.

_____ It is safe to assume that the usual standards and expectations of business communication do not apply to e-mail.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 181; TYPE: concept 45.

_____ Podcasts that contain video are known as vidcasts or vodcasts.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 181; TYPE: concept 46.

_____ In a court of law, e-mail messages can have the same weight as more traditional printed documents.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 182; TYPE: concept 47.

_____ Only about 10 percent of all employers monitor incoming and outgoing email.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 182; TYPE: concept 48.

_____ It is illegal for your company to open and read e-mail you send and receive at work.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 182; TYPE: concept 49.

_____ In e-mail, “cc” stands for “confidential copy.”

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 184; TYPE: concept 50.

_____ In e-mails it is a good idea to make frequent use of background colors and colored type to add visual appeal to the text.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 184; TYPE: concept 51.

_____ E-mail etiquette requires that you respect the chain of command.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 185; TYPE: concept 52.

_____ If you and someone else are replying back and forth based on the same original e-mail, you should always use the exact same subject line with each new e-mail response.

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ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 185; TYPE: concept 53. _____ Leaving the subject line out on important e-mail messages will spark your audience’s curiosity and increase their desire to read your e-mail.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 185; TYPE: concept 54.

_____ An effective e-mail subject line is very short and describes only the general topic of the message.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 185; TYPE: concept 55.

_____ Spelling, punctuation, and grammar do not matter in e-mail; getting your message out quickly should be your only concern.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 186; TYPE: concept 56.

_____ If you write an emotionally charged e-mail message, let it sit for at least one day before sending it.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 186; TYPE: concept 57. _____ Set the message priority to “High” for all the e-mails you send—it is the only way to make sure everyone will read them.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 186; TYPE: concept 58.

_____ Instant messaging is a faster communication tool than e-mail.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 187; TYPE: concept 59. _____ Compared to e-mail and phone calls, IM is less costly.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 187; TYPE: concept 60. _____ “Spim” is the term used to describe the IM version of e-mail spam.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 189; TYPE: concept 61.

_____ Blogs are useful in business for communicating in the midst of a company crisis.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 189; TYPE: concept

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62.

_____ One drawback of current blogging software is that it takes a great deal of time to post new material.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 189; TYPE: concept 63. Blogging is a great way to promote your company’s products, but blatant _____ product promotion should be reserved for other media.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 191; TYPE: concept 64.

_____ If you do not frequently have new information to post, a traditional website will be more effective than a blog for your business.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 191; TYPE: concept 65.

_____ To avoid mistakes, it is best to read a script when creating podcasts for business.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 195; TYPE: concept 66.

_____ To create the most basic podcasts, inexpensive equipment is all you’ll need.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 196; TYPE: concept 67.

_____ Although RSS is the most common format for publishing blogs and podcasts, it is complicated to use and requires special training.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 197; TYPE: concept 68.

_____ Unlike other business presentations, podcasts require little planning and are most effective when delivered impromptu.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 195; TYPE: concept 69.

_____ One way to make your podcast more effective in business is to create a blog that contains similar content.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 196; TYPE: concept 70.

_____ Tagging the contents of your blog makes it easy for audiences to read everything you’ve written on a specific subject.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 198; TYPE: concept

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Fill-in-the-Blank 71.

For many companies, e-mail has replaced the more traditional _______________ as the primary means of internal communication.

ANSWER: memo; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 180; TYPE: concept 72.

A video podcast is often called a _______________ or _______________.

ANSWER: vidcast; vodcast; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 181; TYPE: concept 73.

A ___________ is the online equivalent of recorded audio or video broadcasts.

ANSWER: podcast; DIFFICULTY: moderate: PAGE: 181; TYPE: concept 74.

E-mail ________ refers to all the efforts companies are making to keep e-mail clean and safe from spam blocking and virus protection to content filtering.

ANSWER: hygiene; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 182; TYPE: concept 75.

The ________ ________ of an e-mail is important because it helps readers decide whether to read the message or delete it.

ANSWER: subject line; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 185; TYPE: concept 76.

In an e-mail message, “cc” refers to __________ ________.

ANSWER: courtesy copy; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 186; TYPE: concept 77.

An e-mail message that contains insensitive, insulting, or critical comments is called a(an) _______________.

ANSWER: flame; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 186; TYPE: concept 78.

One feature of instant messaging software is ________________ awareness, which enables users to see which people are at their desks and available to IM.

ANSWER: presence; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 187; TYPE: concept 79. Benefits of IM include its rapid response to urgent messages and its ___________ cost when compared to phone calls and e-mail.

ANSWER: lower; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 187; TYPE: concept

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80. The IM version of e-mail spam is known as _______________.

ANSWER: spim; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 189; TYPE: concept 81.

Another term for a video blog is ____________.

ANSWER: vlog; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 189; TYPE: concept 82. Blogs have also become a popular medium for __________ support—enabling employees to answer questions and offer tips and advice.

ANSWER: customer or client; DIFFICULTY: moderate: PAGE: 192; TYPE: concept 83.

Viral _____________ refers to spreading the word about your company and its products in much the same way that biological viruses are transmitted from person to person.

ANSWER: marketing; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 192; TYPE: concept 84.

The __________ feature enables readers of your blog to receive headlines of new posts.

ANSWER: newsfeed; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 194; TYPE: concept 85. When creating a basic ____________ for clients to download and listen to, a microphone, a sound card, and free recording software are all you need.

ANSWER: podcast; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 196; TYPE: concept Short Answer 86.

List at least five media that are popular for sending short business messages.

ANSWER: Popular media for sending short business messages include: (1) memos and letters, (2) e-mail, 3) instant messaging (IM), (4) text messaging, (5) blogs, and (6) podcasts. DIFFICULTY: moderate PAGE: 180-81; TYPE: concept 87.

Give at least three reasons to send a hard copy of a business message instead of using an electronic medium.

ANSWER: Instances when you would want to send a printed message include (1) when you want to make a formal impression, (2) when you need to accompany products with other physical materials, (3) when you want to stand out from the flood of electronic messages your audience receives, and (4) when you are legally required to provide information in printed form. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 181; TYPE: concept

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88.

Define “e-mail hygiene.”

ANSWER: E-mail hygiene refers to all the efforts companies are making to keep e-mail clean and safe—from spam blocking and virus protection to content filtering.

DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 182; TYPE: concept 89.

Briefly describe the characteristics of an effective e-mail subject line.

ANSWER: An effective subject line is both informative and compelling, and captures the audience’s attention. It does more than just describe or classify message content, and it builds interest with key words, quotations, directions, or questions. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 185; TYPE: concept 90. Write an informative subject line for the following e-mail.

From July 6-9 the employee cafeteria will be closed in order to update the electrical system in the kitchen. Employees may bring their own food and eat in the cafeteria, but no food will be served on those dates. (Answers will vary.) DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 185; TYPE: application 91.

List at least three drawbacks of using instant messaging in business.

ANSWER: Potential disadvantages of using IM in business include (1) security problems such as computer viruses and intercepted messages, (2) the need for user authentication, (3) the challenge of logging messages for later review and archiving, and (4) incompatibility between competing IM systems. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 187; TYPE: application 92.

List at least three advantages of using blogs in business.

ANSWER: Effective blogs enable companies to 1) communicate with personal style and an authentic voice (rather than an impersonal “corporate voice”), 2) deliver new information quickly during crises and at other times, 3) Choose topics of peak interest to audiences, and 4) encourage audiences to join the conversation (which can provide companies with important news, information, and insights). DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 189-90; TYPE: concept 93.

Give at least three examples of how podcasts could replace more traditional message formats in business.

ANSWER: (Answers may vary.) Real estate agents could record audio podcasts that potential homebuyers could listen to while walking through homes. Marketing departments could replace expensive printed brochures with video podcasts that demonstrate new products in action. Human resource departments could use podcasts to offer video tours of their companies to entice new recruits. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 195; TYPE: application

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94. When creating podcasts for business, should you script them entirely and read them word-for-word? Briefly explain your answer.

ANSWER: In podcasts, it is generally best to speak from an outline and notes rather than from a script. One of the attractions of podcasting is the conversational, person-to-person feel of the recordings, and a scripted performance can reduce or eliminate these characteristics. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 195; TYPE: application 95.

Define “RSS” and briefly describe its function.

ANSWER: “RSS” is short for really simple syndication, a process for publishing blogs and podcasts. It enables audiences to subscribe to blogs and podcasts of interest and easily receive updated content. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 197; TYPE: concept.

Essay 96.

Explain how inappropriate use of e-mail at work can lead to legal problems.

ANSWER: The consequences of bad writing or poor judgment in e-mail can be even more serious than those associated with printed messages. In numerous instances in recent years, e-mail and other electronic message forms have been used as evidence in lawsuits and criminal investigations involving everything from sexual harassment to financial fraud. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 181-82; TYPE: concept 97.

Briefly explain why it is so important to avoid sending unnecessary e-mail messages at work.

ANSWER: Many business professionals now struggle to keep up with the flow of e-mail messages—some report receiving as many as 50 messages an hour from colleagues and clients. The flood of messages from an expanding array of electronic sources can significantly affect employees’ ability to focus on their work. One study has even shown that workers exposed to a constant barrage of e-mail, IM, and phone calls experienced an average 10-point drop in their functioning IQ. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 183-84; TYPE: concept 98.

Briefly explain why it is important to pay attention to issues such as spelling, punctuation, and grammar when composing e-mail messages in business.

ANSWER: As a general rule, the time you might save with careless e-mail writing won’t make up for the damage it can do to your career. First, sloppy writing may require less time for writers, but it usually demands more time from readers who are forced to dig the meaning out of poorly written messages. Second, people who care about effective communication often judge the quality of your work by the quality of your writing.

Third, it is easy for e-mail messages to end up in places you never expected, so it is important for them to make a good impression.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 185; TYPE: concept

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99.

Define “flames” and explain how to avoid them in business.

ANSWER: Flames are e-mail messages that contain insensitive, insulting, or critical comments. To avoid sending them, do not allow your emotions to dictate what you include in e-mail messages. If you do write an emotionally-charged message, let it sit for at least a day and ask yourself, “Would I say this to my audience face to face?”

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 186; TYPE: concept 100. Explain how to apply the three-step writing process to instant messages.

ANSWER: Although instant messages are often conceived, written, and sent within a matter of seconds, the principles of the three-step process still apply. In planning instant messages, view every IM exchange as a conversation and take a moment to plan the overall exchange. Think through the specific needs of your audience and try to deliver information in a coherent, complete way that minimizes the number of individual messages required. When writing instant messages, remember that the appropriate writing style for business IM is more formal than the style you may be accustomed to with personal IM or text messaging. Avoid IM acronyms except when communicating with close colleagues. The completing phase is easy when it comes to IM. Once you’ve selected some basic font settings that apply to all your messages, you generally don’t need to do anything in terms of producing each message, and distributing is as simple as clicking the “send” button. However, don’t skip over the revising and proofreading tasks and make sure your message contains all the necessary information. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 187-88; TYPE: concept

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Chapter 8 WRITING ROUTINE AND POSITIVE MESSAGES Multiple Choice 1. When making a routine request, you begin with a. an indication of the importance of your request. b. a statement of who you are. c. a clear statement of the main idea or request. d. a question.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 216; TYPE: concept 2. When making a request, you should a. use the inductive plan. b. assume the reader will comply with your request. c. demand immediate action. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 216; TYPE: concept 3. An effective opening for a routine request would be a. Please send me a summary of last month’s east region sales data. b. As soon as you get this, send me last month’s sales data. c. I know you may not want to, but send me last month’s sales data. d. any of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 216; TYPE: application 4. In the body of a request message, you a. beg the reader to grant your request. b. give details and justify your request. c. give your sales pitch. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 216; TYPE: concept 5. When asking questions in a request message a. begin with the least important question and work your way up to the most important. b. avoid any open-ended questions. c. begin with the most important question. d. weave your questions into the rest of the content of your message.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 216; TYPE: concept

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6. When closing a direct request, you a. thank the reader in advance for helping you. b. mention your own qualifications or status. c. request a specific response and mention the time limits. d. indicate the consequences of a failure to reply.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 216; TYPE: concept 7. When requesting information or action from a fellow employee, you should generally a. use the indirect approach. b. get straight to the point. c. maintain a formal style and tone. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 217; TYPE: concept 8. Before volunteering someone’s name as a reference, always a. assume you have permission to do so. b. ask that person's permission. c. describe your relationship with that person. d. list that person's address and phone number for ease of contact.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 219; TYPE: concept 9. If you request a recommendation from a person you haven’t had contact with recently, you should a. use the opening of your letter to refresh the person’s memory. b. enclose a stamped, preaddressed envelope. c. use the persuasive approach. d. use the bad-news approach.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 219; TYPE: concept 10. The opening of a request for a recommendation should include a. the direct request for a recommendation. b. a clear statement that you’re applying for a position. c. a reminder of who you are. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 219; TYPE: concept

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11. In closing a request for a recommendation, you should include a. an expression of appreciation. b. an indication that you’ve enclosed a stamped, preaddressed envelope. c. the full name and address of the person to whom the letter should be sent. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 219; TYPE: concept 12. When writing a claim letter, the best way to begin is by a. complimenting the company for past service. b. providing a detailed description of the faulty merchandise. c. providing a straightforward statement of the problem. d. threatening legal action if you do not receive a favorable adjustment.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 219; TYPE: concept 13. When making a claim or requesting an adjustment, your closing should usually a. clearly state how angry and disappointed you are. b. explain the specific details of the problem. c. request a specific action or express your desire to find a solution. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 219; TYPE: concept 14. Routine, positive messages should do all of the following except a. leave your reader with a good impression. b. use an indirect approach. c. provide all required details. d. communicate the information or good news.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 221; TYPE: concept 15. In a positive message, the main idea is presented a. in the first sentence of the middle paragraph. b. at the end of the middle paragraph. c. right at the beginning of the letter. d. in the last sentence of the letter.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 221; TYPE: concept

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16. The longest part of a positive message is typically the a. introduction. b. body. c. close. d. None— all parts are usually the same length.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 222; TYPE: concept 17. If you have mildly negative information to deliver as part of a positive message, you should a. put the negative information in a favorable context. b. just leave it out. c. put the negative information first. d. put the negative information last.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 223; TYPE: concept 18. If you have strongly negative information to deliver as part of a positive message, you should a. open with the negative information. b. use an indirect approach. c. put the negative information in a separate message. d. apologize for having to spoil the moment.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 223; TYPE: concept 19. Assuring the customer that he or she has made a wise purchase is a. to be avoided in routine positive messages. b. a good way to build customer relationships. c. an important part of all negative responses to claim letters. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 223; TYPE: concept 20. The closing of a routine reply or positive message should a. clearly state who will do what next. b. explain the reasons for any negative information you have included. c. offer an explanation for why this decision was made. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 223; TYPE: concept

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21. The closing section of a positive message a. highlights a benefit to the audience or expresses goodwill. b. states the main idea. c. is the longest part. d. provides resale information.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 223; TYPE: concept 22. The categories of routine replies and positive messages include all of the following except a. answering requests for information and action. b. granting claims and adjustments. c. refusing requests. d. sending goodwill messages.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 223; TYPE: concept 23. A human resources department that receives a lot of inquiries about job openings would best deal with this repetitive task by a. using a carefully crafted form letter. b. answering each one personally. c. not responding if there are no job openings. d. making most responses by phone.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 224-25; TYPE: concept 24. When responding to a customer request for an adjustment, it is usually sensible to assume that a. the customer’s account of the situation is truthful. b. the customer’s account of the situation is exaggerated. c. the customer is hostile. d. the customer is trying to pull a fast one.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 226; TYPE: concept 25. When responding to a customer complaint about one of your company’s services, you should a. soften the situation with excuses such as “Nobody's perfect” or “Mistakes will happen.” b. use a generous, grudging tone. c. use a standard form letter, with blanks left for filling in unique information in neat handwriting. d. avoid blaming anyone in your organization by name.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 226; TYPE: concept

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26. Successful companies that receive large numbers of customer claims per year often develop a. a policy of rejecting all claims, even when they are legitimate. b. a policy of nonresponse to all customer inquiries. c. customized form letters to speed the response to customers' claims. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 227; TYPE: concept 27. If a customer requesting an adjustment is at fault for the problem, the best response is to a. refuse the claim without any explanation. b. refuse the claim and point out the customer's mistake. c. honor the claim but do so grudgingly. d. honor the claim but tactfully point out that your firm was not at fault.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 227; TYPE: concept 28. When responding to a request for adjustment when a third party is at fault, the best approach is to a. refuse the claim and suggest that the customer sue the third party. b. refuse the claim but forward the paperwork to the third party. c. respond promptly, explaining how the problem will be solved. d. honor the claim but explain that your company was not at fault.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 229; TYPE: concept 29. When writing a letter of recommendation, you should a. illustrate your general points with specific examples. b. show it to the job candidate before sending it to the person who requested it. c. overstate the candidate's abilities if he or she is a good friend and really wants the job. d. make sure to include any negative stories you've heard about the candidate.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 229; TYPE: concept

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30. If you have negative comments to express regarding the qualifications of a job candidate, it is best to a. keep them to yourself. b. include others' criticisms to support your statements. c. list the shortcomings as areas for improvement. d. state your opinion strongly, since it is protected by the First Amendment.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 230; TYPE: concept 31. Your comments about a job candidate could be considered libelous if a. in a phone conversation you tell the applicant’s potential employer that the applicant is an alcoholic. b. you omit important negative information about the candidate in a recommendation letter. c. you decline to provide a recommendation because of “company policy.” d. you mention in a recommendation letter that your other employees seemed pleased that the candidate left your company.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 230; TYPE: concept 32. It may be unethical to omit negative information from a recommendation if the a. information is well-known in the workplace. b. information is true and relevant. c. applicant asks you to do so. d. position is a high-ranking one.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 230-31; TYPE: concept 33. If you are sending an informative memo to employees about policy statements or procedural changes, you should a. assume that employees will have a neutral response. b. use the indirect approach. c. use the body of the message to provide all the necessary details. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 231; TYPE: concept 34. When offering compliments in a goodwill message, you should a. feel free to exaggerate. b. always use the strongest words you can think of. c. be sure to back them up with specific points. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 234; TYPE: concept

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35. Condolence messages should a. be as long as possible. b. make as little reference to the deceased as possible. c. avoid phrases such as “passing away” or “departing.” d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 236; TYPE: concept True or False 36. For routine messages, the planning stage tends to be very short.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 214; TYPE: concept 37. When making a direct request, you should state what you want in the first sentence or two and then follow with an explanation.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 216; TYPE: concept 38. In preparing routine requests, you should not assume your audience will comply.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 216; TYPE: concept 39. When making direct requests, you should avoid such polite words and phrases as “please” and “I would appreciate.”

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 216; TYPE: concept 40. As you explain and justify your request, you should try to point out how complying with the request could benefit the reader.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 216; TYPE: concept 41. If the middle section of your request letter contains a series of questions, the most important question should be saved for last.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 216; TYPE: concept 42. In the final section of a request message, you should thank the reader in advance for cooperating.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 216; TYPE: concept 43. There is no reason to put requests to fellow employees in writing.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 217; TYPE: concept

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44. Requests sent to individuals outside your organization should be more formal than those sent internally.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 217; TYPE: concept 45. When making complex routine requests to company outsiders, you rarely need to explain how responding to the request will benefit the reader.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 219; TYPE: concept 46. Past customers are usually irritated if a company sends a letter of inquiry trying to reestablish the relationship.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 219; TYPE: concept 47. It is not necessary to ask someone's permission before listing his or her name as a job reference.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 219; TYPE: concept 48. Because requests for recommendations are persuasive messages, you should use the indirect approach.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 219; TYPE: concept 49. If you are writing to someone to request a recommendation letter for a job or scholarship, you should include a stamped, pre-addressed envelope for mailing.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 219; TYPE: concept 50. When making a claim or requesting an adjustment from a company, you should document your initial complaint and every correspondence after that.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 219; TYPE: concept 51. When writing a claim letter, you should assume that a fair adjustment will be made.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 219; TYPE: concept 52. When responding to claim letters, companies usually accept the customer's explanation of the problem.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 221; TYPE: concept

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53. It’s best to back up all claims and requests for adjustments with invoices, sales receipts, and so on and to send copies to the company and keep the originals.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 221; TYPE: concept 54. “I am pleased to inform you that . . .” is a good standard opening for a positive message.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 221; TYPE: concept 55. A routine positive message should never include negative information.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 223; TYPE: concept 56. When sending a positive message to a customer, it is a good idea to reassure the customer that he or she has made a wise purchase.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 223; TYPE: concept 57. It is no longer acceptable to use form letters to handle repetitive requests for information.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 225-26; TYPE: concept 58. Even when you grant a dissatisfied customer’s request for adjustment, he or she will most likely not return to your business.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 226; TYPE: concept 59. When replying to a customer’s complaint when your company is at fault, be sure to list the names of all employees who were involved in the error.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 226; TYPE: concept 60. In a letter agreeing to make an adjustment even though the buyer technically was at fault, a courteous tone is less important.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 227; TYPE: concept 61. When a third party is at fault in a claim, the best approach is simply to refer the customer to that party to resolve the problem.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 229; TYPE: concept

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62. The most difficult recommendation letters to write are those for truly outstanding candidates.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 229; TYPE: concept 63. In positive recommendation letters, it’s important to back up your general points with specific examples of the candidate’s fitness for the job.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 229; TYPE: concept 64. When writing a letter of recommendation, you should omit references to the candidate's shortcomings if they will keep him or her from getting the job.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 229-30; TYPE: concept 65. Although most recommendation letters are confidential, it is best to avoid value judgments and stick to the facts.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 230; TYPE: concept 66. Because informative messages such as meeting announcements and reminder notices are generally neutral, it is not necessary to worry too much about the reader’s attitude toward the information.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 231; TYPE: concept 67. Goodwill messages are friendly, even unexpected notes with no direct business purpose.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 234; TYPE: concept 68. You shouldn’t send notes of congratulation that deal with personal events unless you know the recipient well.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 234; TYPE: concept 69. A message of appreciation can become an important part of someone’s personnel file.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 234; TYPE: concept 70. When writing a condolence message about a loss, always use expressions such as “passing away” or “departing,” rather than the word “death.”

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 236; TYPE: concept

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Fill-in-the-Blank 71. Most of a typical employee’s communication is about ____________________ matters: orders, information, company policies.

ANSWER: routine; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 214; TYPE: concept 72. Whenever you ask for something—information, action, adjustments—you are making a ____________________.

ANSWER: request; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 215; TYPE: concept 73. If you are applying for a job, you may need to ask a professional associate to write a letter of ____________________.

ANSWER: recommendation OR reference; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 219; TYPE: concept 74. Customers who are dissatisfied with a company’s product or service make a (an) ____________________, or formal complaint.

ANSWER: claim; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 219; TYPE: concept 75. Dissatisfied customers can request a(an) ____________________, or claim settlement.

ANSWER: adjustment; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 219; TYPE: concept 76. If your routine message must convey some mildly disappointing information, put the negative portion into as ____________________ a context as possible.

ANSWER: favorable OR positive; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 223; TYPE: concept 77. The body of a positive message is a good place to assure a customer of the wisdom of his or her ____________________ selection.

ANSWER: purchase; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 223; TYPE: concept 78. Because many requests are similar, companies usually develop ____________________ letters to respond to these repetitive queries.

ANSWER: form; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 224-25; TYPE: concept

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79. Making a false and malicious written statement that injures someone’s reputation constitutes ____________________.

ANSWER: libel; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 230; TYPE: concept 80. If you must refer to a candidate’s shortcomings in a recommendation letter, you should always stick to the ____________________.

ANSWER: facts; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 230; TYPE: concept 81. In describing a candidate’s shortcomings in a recommendation letter, it is often best to present them as areas for ____________________.

ANSWER: improvement; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 230; TYPE: concept 82. A ____________________ ____________________ is a specialized document used to share relevant information with the local or national news media.

ANSWER: news release OR press release; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 232; TYPE: concept 83. Friendly notes with no direct business purpose, such as those conveying congratulations or thanks, are called ____________________ messages.

ANSWER: goodwill; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 234; TYPE: concept 84. Messages of ____________________ recognize the contributions of employees or business associates.

ANSWER: appreciation; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 234; TYPE: concept 85. Messages of ____________________ express sympathy.

ANSWER: condolence; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 235; TYPE: concept Short Answer

86. List four guidelines to follow in preparing the opening of a routine request in the direct format.

ANSWER: In preparing the opening of a routine request in the direct format, it is important to pay attention to tone and to avoid demanding action. You should also assume that your audience will comply, and be specific about what you want.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 216; TYPE: concept

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87. Describe the elements that should be included in an effective closing for a routine request.

ANSWER: The closing for an effective routine request should request specific action, provide contact information, and express appreciation and goodwill.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 216; TYPE: concept 88. List the three major categories of common routine requests.

ANSWER: The three major types of routine requests are (1) requesting information and action, (2) asking for recommendations, and (3) making claims and requesting adjustments. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 217; TYPE: concept 89. Describe the three-step strategy for requesting information and action.

ANSWER: Start with a clear statement of your reason for writing. Then provide whatever explanation is needed to justify your request. Finally, close with a specific account of what you expect, and include a deadline if appropriate.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 217; TYPE: concept 90. How can a request for information reestablish a relationship with former customers or suppliers?

ANSWER: In some cases, when customers are unhappy with a business, they don’t complain; they simply stay away. A letter of inquiry can offer them the chance to voice their displeasure and move on to a good relationship.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 219; TYPE: concept 91. How should mildly disappointing information be included within a generally positive routine message?

ANSWER: In a generally positive routine message, mildly disappointing information should be placed in as favorable a context as possible.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 219; TYPE: concept 92. In responding favorably to a claim even though the customer was at fault, should you indicate that your company was not to blame? Why or why not?

ANSWER: In these cases, it is important to make the customer realize that he or she was responsible for the damage. This must be done tactfully, but if you fail to do so you may commit your firm to an endless procession of returned merchandise.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 227; TYPE: concept

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93. Briefly explain why it is so difficult to write recommendation letters for excellent candidates.

ANSWER: Writing recommendations for outstanding candidates is difficult because your audience is not likely to believe uninterrupted praise for someone’s talents and accomplishments. You therefore have to illustrate your general points with specific examples.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 229; TYPE: concept 94. What potential legal problem can result from writing a critical recommendation letter?

ANSWER: Writing a negative letter of recommendation can constitute libel—publishing a false and malicious written statement that injures the candidate’s reputation.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 230; TYPE: concept 95. List at least three guidelines to follow when writing condolence messages.

ANSWER: Messages expressing sympathy are best when you keep reminiscences brief, write in your own words, and write tactfully. They also require special care with things like correctly spelling names. It is also helpful to write about the special qualities of the deceased and those of the bereaved person as you express sympathy for the loss.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 235-36; TYPE: concept Essay 96. Many routine requests have several parts. What guidelines should you keep in mind when your request contains a series of questions?

ANSWER: It is important to ask the most important questions first and to ask only relevant questions. Both of these strategies usually expedite the handling of your request.

If your questions require simple yes-or-no answers, providing a form with boxes to check is a good idea. Finally, it is helpful to deal with only one topic per question, rather than confuse the reader by asking too much at once.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 216; TYPE: concept 97. Explain what you should do when replying to a claim when the customer is at fault.

ANSWER: First you must decide whether the cost of making the adjustment outweighs the cost of losing this customer’s future business. You can refuse the claim and explain your refusal, but remember that refusal will most likely cost you this customer and perhaps the business of many of the customer’s friends who will hear only one side of the argument. If you grant the claim, open with the good news. In the body, tactfully educate the customer on how to prevent this situation from occurring again. Be careful not to offend the person by being condescending or preachy.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 227; TYPE: application

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98. Explain what you should include in an effective recommendation letter.

ANSWER: A successful recommendation letter includes (1) the candidate’s full name, (2) the position or other objective the candidate seeks, (3) the nature of your relationship with the candidate, (4) an indication of whether you’re answering a request from the person or taking the initiative to write, (5) facts and evidence relevant to the candidate and the opportunity, (6) a comparison of this candidate’s potential with that of peers, and (7) your overall evaluation of the candidate’s suitability for the opportunity.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 229; TYPE: concept 99. Explain why goodwill messages are important, then describe at least two characteristics of effective goodwill messages.

ANSWER: Goodwill messages can improve your relationships with customers, colleagues, and other businesspersons. They should be sincere and honest—otherwise the writer appears interested only in personal gain. Avoid exaggeration, back up compliments with specific points, and be restrained but sincere in your praise. Saying things like, “Only you can do the job” will detract from your credibility in these messages.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 234; TYPE: concept 100. Why are appreciation messages important? What should they include?

ANSWER: It is important to recognize the contributions of employees, colleagues, suppliers, and other associates. Your praise will make the person feel good and encourage further excellence. These messages can also become part of an employee’s personnel file.

The message should specifically mention the person or persons you want to praise, and documents the person’s contributions.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 234; TYPE: concept

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Chapter 9 WRITING NEGATIVE MESSAGES Multiple Choice 1. When composing a negative message, you should try to a. choose a buffer that will distract your reader from the main point of your message. b. gain the audience’s acceptance of the bad news. c. leave the reader with hope that you will change your decision. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 254; TYPE: concept 2. Which of the following would be an inappropriate use of the word “you” in a negative letter? a. You possess many fine skills. b. The frying pan you ordered is being shipped today. c. You shouldn’t have washed that wool shirt; it should be dry cleaned only. d. When you have more managerial experience, we encourage you to reapply.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 255; TYPE: application 3. Use the direct approach with a negative message if a. the message will have a great deal of personal impact on members of the audience. b. the situation is one in which people readily acknowledge the possibility of receiving bad news. c. an order is unfillable or portions of it must be back-ordered. d. you are refusing to make an adjustment on a claim.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 256; TYPE: concept 4. When using the direct approach to deliver bad news, you a. begin with a buffer. b. do not include reasons for the decision or information. c. must still work to end with a positive statement. d. can expect your audience to be offended.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 258; TYPE: concept

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5. When using the direct approach to deliver bad news, the closing should include a. an explanation for the bad news. b. an action step for those who want to appeal or contest the bad news. c. a positive, but still honest and respectful, statement. d. an apology.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate: PAGE: 258; TYPE: concept 6. Instead of beginning your negative message with a blunt announcement of the news, you can use a. the direct approach. b. a buffer. c. a combination of the direct and indirect approaches. d. the deductive approach.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 259; TYPE: concept 7. A poorly written buffer can a. trivialize the reader’s concerns. b. divert attention away from the problem. c. mislead the reader into thinking good news follows. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 259; TYPE: concept 8. The buffer of a negative message a. should be neutral and noncontroversial. b. implicitly says no. c. apologizes. d. should be very vague about the subject of the message.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 259; TYPE: concept 9. If you are responding negatively to a request, a buffer a. comes right out and says no. b. ignores the request altogether. c. automatically misleads the reader. d. validates the request.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 259; TYPE: concept

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10. One important goal of a buffer is to a. delay stating the bad news. b. establish common ground with your reader. c. make your reader wonder what the message is about. d. divert the reader’s attention to a more pleasant subject.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 259; TYPE: concept 11. A good opening for a negative message would be a. I’m sorry to say I have some bad news. b. This letter is in reply to your application. c. Your résumé clearly shows why you are interested in becoming a management trainee with our company. d. We have no openings at this time.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 259-60; TYPE: concept 12. In a negative message, the reasons for the decision a. are so obvious that you don't need to mention them. b. come directly after the buffer and follow naturally from it. c. should be glossed over quickly. d. should be long and roundabout to cushion the negative aspects.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 260; TYPE: concept 13. In the reasons section of a negative message, you should a. present enough detail for the audience to understand your reasons. b. explain what your decision is before you explain why you have reached it. c. apologize for the negative decision. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 260; TYPE: concept 14. A way to be tactful when giving your reasons for bad news is to a. explain why the decision is good for you and your company. b. highlight, if possible, how your negative decision benefits your readers. c. explain that the decision is based on company policy. d. apologize for having to be the bearer of bad news.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 260; TYPE: concept

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15. Using the indirect approach, the bad news comes a. immediately after the buffer. b. immediately before the reasons. c. immediately after the reasons. d. at the very end.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 261; TYPE: concept 16. A good way to make bad news less painful is to a. maximize the space devoted to it. b. say, “I trust our decision is satisfactory.” c. avoid stating it and hope that the reader understands what you mean. d. de-emphasize it by embedding it in the middle of a sentence or paragraph.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 261; TYPE: concept 17. When rejecting a job applicant, you can soften the blow by a. using a conditional statement to imply that he or she might someday receive a favorable answer. b. mentioning the qualifications of the person who was hired. c. telling the applicant how many others he or she was competing against. d. apologizing for wasting the person's time.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 261; TYPE: concept 18. To clearly and kindly say no, do all of the following except a. offer a sincere apology. b. de-emphasize the bad news. c. imply that the audience may someday receive a favorable answer. d. tell the audience what you can or will do rather than what you cannot or will not do.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 261; TYPE: concept

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19. Which of the following statements does the best job of delivering the bad news clearly and kindly? a. I am sorry to have to tell you that you were not selected for the position. b. Because you do not have the experience we clearly listed in the job posting, we cannot offer you the position. c. Although you currently do not have the master’s degree that we require for this position, we would be happy to reconsider your application once you have completed your degree. d. Several other applicants were far more qualified for the position than you were, so we cannot offer you the job.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 261-62; TYPE: application 20. When delivering bad news, wording such as “We must turn down,” “Much as I would like to,” and “We cannot afford to” a. softens the blow by drawing attention away from the reader and onto the sender. b. will impress the reader as being straightforward and forceful. c. is likely to cause pain and anger in the reader. d. is unavoidable.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 262; TYPE: concept 21. In the closing of a negative message, you should a. encourage the person to write or call to discuss the situation further. b. build goodwill by ending on a positive note. c. ask for feedback on whether the decision is acceptable to the reader. d. express concern over possibly losing the reader's business.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 262; TYPE: concept 22. Which of the following is the most effective close for a letter rejecting a job applicant? a. If you have any questions about our decision, don’t hesitate to call. b. We hope that despite this rejection you will continue to frequent our establishments. c. Again, we are very sorry that we cannot offer you a position at this time. d. I wish you the best in your job search. I am sure you will find a match for your skills and interests.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 262; TYPE: application

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23. If you must send a negative message to someone in another country a. always use the direct approach. b. always use the indirect approach. c. use the direct approach for countries like France but the indirect approach for countries like Japan. d. use the same approach as you would for typical American readers.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 262-63; TYPE: concept 24. When you are refusing a routine request, you a. should always use the direct approach. b. should invoke company policy if that is a possible out. c. don’t need to invest as much time and effort as you would for other kinds of negative messages. d. should use the indirect approach when you’re forced to decline a request that you might have said yes to in the past.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 266; TYPE: concept 25. Negative messages about business transactions are designed to a. modify the customer’s expectations. b. explain how you plan to resolve the situation. c. repair whatever damage might have been done to the business relationship. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 266; TYPE: concept 26. Whether or not you should apologize when delivering bad news about transactions depends mainly on a. how much the customer has purchased from your company in the past. b. the medium you are using for the message. c. how long it has been since the problem occurred. d. none of the above ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 266; TYPE: concept

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27. A woman returns a formal dress to your store. It is stained and has a rip at the hem line, but she says she is returning it unworn because it doesn't fit. How do you inform her of your refusal to give her a refund? a. State that company policy prevents you from accepting the return but that if you had anything to say about it you'd take it back, no questions asked. b. Restate her complaint to let her know you understand it, explain as positively as possible that you are unable to accept the return of damaged merchandise, and recommend a tailor who can fix the tear and alter the dress for her. c. Challenge the woman to try on the dress and prove that it doesn't fit. d. Use humor to soften the blow of your refusal.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 268-70; TYPE: application 28. Someone suing for defamation must prove a. that the statement is false. b. that the language is injurious to the person’s reputation. c. that the statement has been published. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 270; TYPE: concept 29. To avoid being accused of defamation when you refuse an adjustment a. make all refusals by phone instead of in writing. b. explain why you are making the refusal. c. consult your company’s legal department or an attorney if you think a message might have legal consequences. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 270; TYPE: concept 30. When you need to inform employees that a benefit will be eliminated a. the best approach is to leak the news as a rumor rather than make a public announcement. b. minimize the bad news by presenting it in as positive a light as possible. c. use the direct approach. d. use as many hedging words as possible.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 270-71; TYPE: concept

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31. A letter in which you refuse to provide an employment recommendation a. is considered unethical; these requests should not be refused. b. should follow the indirect approach. c. should be brief and direct. d. involves all of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 273; TYPE: concept 32. A letter rejecting a job applicant should a. clearly state why he or she was not selected. b. point out the applicant's shortcomings. c. be as personal as possible. d. be as long as possible.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 275; TYPE: concept 33. If you must give an employee a negative performance review a. do so by e-mail or fax. b. confront the problem right away. c. limit your discussion to the areas where the employee needs improvement. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 275; TYPE: concept 34. A negative performance review should a. focus on the problems caused by the employee’s behavior. b. compare employee behavior with what is expected or with job requirements. c. mention some good points about the employee’s contributions. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 275-77; TYPE: concept 35. When writing an employment termination letter, you should a. include words that are open to interpretation, such as difficult and untidy. b. make sure your reasons are accurate and verifiable. c. not get too caught up in trying to preserve a good relationship with the employee. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 277; TYPE: concept

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True or False 36. When delivering bad news, your only goal is to maintain a good image for yourself.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 254; TYPE: concept 37. To avoid awkward situations, it is best to deliver bad news for employees in writing whenever possible.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 254; TYPE: concept 38. You can help establish the right tone in a negative message by making liberal use of the “you” attitude.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 255; TYPE: concept 39. The direct approach is never used for negative messages.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 256; TYPE: concept 40. You would use the direct approach for negative messages when the message has a relatively minor impact on the audience.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 256; TYPE: concept 41. An advantage of the direct approach for communicating bad news is that it keeps the message short.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 257; TYPE: concept 42. No matter the situation, you should always provide an extensive explanation of the bad news in negative messages.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 258; TYPE: concept 43. Using a buffer to begin a negative message is generally manipulative and unethical.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 259; TYPE: concept 44. When writing negative messages, you begin with a buffer to make the reader think that good news will follow.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 259; TYPE: concept

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45. A poorly written buffer can mislead your audience into expecting that positive news will follow.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 259; TYPE: application 46. The buffer for a negative message should be positive.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 259; TYPE: concept 47. In a negative message, an effective explanation section leads readers to your conclusion before you come right out and say it.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 260; TYPE: concept 48. It’s best to suggest that the bad news will actually benefit your audience— even if you don’t really think it will.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 260; TYPE: concept 49. It is a good idea to use “company policy” as a cushion when presenting reasons for bad news.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 260; TYPE: concept 50. When the bad news is a logical outcome of the reasons that come before it, the reader is psychologically prepared to receive it.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 260; TYPE: concept 51. You can de-emphasize bad news by minimizing the space or time devoted to it.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 261; TYPE: concept 52. In a negative message, you should never give the reader any indication that he or she could have received or might someday receive a favorable answer.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 261; TYPE: concept 53. Statements beginning “I must refuse” and “We cannot allow” are particularly likely to offend readers.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 262; TYPE: application

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54. In closing negative messages, it is always best to encourage additional communication.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 262; TYPE: concept 55. In the close to a negative message, you should repeat the bad news.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 262; TYPE: concept 56. The close of a negative message should end with a statement such as “We hope you will continue to do business with us.”

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 262; TYPE: concept 57. Negative messages from Japanese businesspeople may be worded so ambiguously that the recipient doesn’t realize that the message contains a refusal.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 263; TYPE: concept 58. You should always use the direct approach when denying a request for information.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 266; TYPE: concept 59. If you are turning down an invitation, it is usually acceptable to use the direct approach.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 266; TYPE: concept 60. When you deliver bad news about business transactions, you should always apologize to the audience.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 266; TYPE: concept 61. Negative statements about a customer can always qualify as defamation, even if you can prove that those statements are true.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 270; TYPE: concept 62. One way to avoid being accused of defamation is to make accusations orally and not in writing.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 270; TYPE: concept

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63. To avoid legal problems, businesses should delay communicating with the media in the aftermath of a crisis.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 271; TYPE: concept 64. Among other points, a crisis management plan outlines which individuals are authorized to speak for the company.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 272; TYPE: concept 65. Some employers refuse to write recommendation letters.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 273; TYPE: concept 66. Experts disagree on whether a direct or an indirect approach is best for letters turning down job applicants.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 275; TYPE: concept 67. When rejecting a job applicant, it is best to come right out and say, “You do not meet our requirements.”

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 275; TYPE: concept 68. Firing an employee whose performance reviews were all positive can result in a lawsuit.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 275; TYPE: concept 69. The best method for delivering performance reviews is by e-mail or fax.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 276; TYPE: concept 70. Termination letters should always use delicate terms such as “untidy” and “difficult.”

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 277; TYPE: concept Fill-in-the-Blank

71. The primary goal of a negative message is to _______________ the bad news.

ANSWER: convey; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 254; TYPE: concept

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72. Employees are more likely to accept negative news if it is delivered _______________ _______________, rather than via e-mail or memo.

ANSWER: in person; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 254; TYPE: concept 73. When composing negative messages, it is important to use language that conveys respect and avoids an accusing _______________.

ANSWER: tone; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 255; TYPE: concept 74. A message organized using the _______________ approach starts with a clear statement of the bad news.

ANSWER: direct; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 256; TYPE: concept 75. Using the indirect approach, you begin your message with a (an) _______________ that softens the blow of the bad news.

ANSWER: buffer; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 259; TYPE: concept 76. The _______________ section of a negative message should lead readers to your conclusion before you come right out and say it.

ANSWER: explanation OR reasons; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 260; TYPE: concept 77. Avoid hiding behind _______________ _______________ to cushion your bad news.

ANSWER: company policy; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 260; TYPE: concept 78. In the _______________ approach for negative messages, the bad news comes after the reasons supporting the decision.

ANSWER: indirect; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 260-61; TYPE: concept 79. One way to de-emphasize bad news is to embed it in the middle of a (an) _______________.

ANSWER: paragraph; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 261; TYPE: concept

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80. Almost every customer who makes a claim or requests an adjustment is _______________ involved; therefore, the indirect method is usually best for refusals.

ANSWER: emotionally; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 268; TYPE: concept 81. Delivering bad news effectively requires special attention to ethics and _______________.

ANSWER: etiquette; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 263; TYPE: concept 82. Making false statements that damage someone’s character or reputation might cause you to be sued for _______________.

ANSWER: defamation; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 270; TYPE: concept 83. A (An) _______________ review is a manager’s formal or informal evaluation of an employee.

ANSWER: performance; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 275; TYPE: concept 84. When evaluating employees, it is important to identify the _______________ of continuing poor performance.

ANSWER: consequences; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 277; TYPE: concept 85. When writing a (an) _______________ message, present specific justifications for asking the employee to leave.

ANSWER: termination; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 277; TYPE: concept Short Answer

86. What are your five main goals when delivering bad news? ANSWER: In any negative message, your main goals are to (1) convey the bad news, (2) gain acceptance for it, (3) maintain as much goodwill as possible, (4) maintain a good image for your organization, and (5) reduce or eliminate the need for future correspondence on the matter.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 254; TYPE: concept

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87. Rewrite the following sentence using the “you” attitude: “You shouldn’t have put the blender into the dishwasher.” ANSWER: This type of blender should not be cleaned in the dishwasher. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 255; TYPE: application 88. Rewrite the following negative message using positive words rather than negative ones: “Since you failed to send payment, we cannot ship your order.” ANSWER: By sending payment promptly, you can receive your order within 5 business days. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 255; TYPE: application 89. What are the two benefits of stating the bad news at the beginning of a negative message? ANSWER: Stating the bad news at the beginning makes a shorter message possible and requires less time for the audience to reach the main idea of the message. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 257; TYPE: concept 90. Briefly describe the elements of a negative message that uses the direct approach. ANSWER: The opening should start with a clear statement of the bad news. The body should give the reasons for the bad news, and the closing should end with a positive statement aimed at maintaining a good relationship with the audience. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 256-59; TYPE: concept 91. What is a “buffer,” and what function does it serve in negative messages? ANSWER: A buffer is a neutral, noncontroversial statement that is closely related to the point of the message.

In negative messages using the indirect approach, the buffer establishes common ground with your reader. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 259; TYPE: concept 92. Explain how an effective buffer differs from one that is poorly written. ANSWER: A poorly written buffer might trivialize the reader’s concerns, divert attention from the problem, or mislead the reader into thinking your message actually contains good news. A good buffer, on the other hand, is respectful, relevant, and neutral, and provides a smooth transition to the reasons that follow. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 259; TYPE: application

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93. Briefly describe the elements of a negative message that uses the indirect approach.

ANSWER: Begin with a buffer (a neutral statement that sets the stage for the bad news). Follow with the reasons for the bad news, then state the bad news as diplomatically as possible. Emphasize any good news and de-emphasize the bad.

End with a positive, forward-looking statement that is helpful and friendly and tries to preserve goodwill.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 259-62; TYPE: concept 94. List three techniques for de-emphasizing bad news.

ANSWER: Three methods for de-emphasizing bad news are (1) minimize the space or time you devote to the bad news, (2) subordinate your bad news in a complex or compound sentence, and (3) embed bad news mid-paragraph or use parenthetical expressions.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 261; TYPE: concept 95. Someone suing for defamation must prove three things about the statement(s) in question. What are those things?

ANSWER: Someone suing for defamation must prove (1) that the statement is false, (2) that the language is injurious to the person’s reputation, and (3) that the statement has been published.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 270; TYPE: concept Essay

96. You are faced with informing your supervisor about massive production delays. Company policy dictates that you must provide this information in writing. What questions should you consider when deciding between the direct and indirect approaches for your message?

ANSWER: (1) Will the bad news come as a shock to my audience? (2) Does the audience prefer short messages that get right to the point? (3) How important is this news to my audience? (4) Do I need to maintain a close working relationship with the audience? (5) Do I need to get the audience’s attention? (6) What is my organization’s preferred style for delivering bad news? (7) How much follow-up communication do I want?

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 256; TYPE: application

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97. Briefly describe five guidelines to follow in writing effective closings to negative messages.

ANSWER: (1) Avoid a negative or uncertain conclusion—there’s no need to refer to, repeat, or apologize for the bad news. (2) Limit future correspondence. Don’t encourage additional communication unless you’re willing to discuss your decision in more detail. (3) Be optimistic about the future instead of anticipating problems with statements such as, “If you have any further problems, please let me know.” (4) Be sincere, avoiding meaningless clichés. (5) Be confident about keeping the reader as a customer. Statements such as, “We hope you will continue to do business with us” are unnecessary.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 262; TYPE: concept 98. Briefly describe at least five strategies that can help employees avoid being accused of defamation based on negative messages.

ANSWER: When writing negative messages, employees can avoid being accused of defamation by avoiding the use of abusive language or terms, using personal stationery--instead of company letterhead—to express personal opinions about sensitive matters, and providing accurate information and sticking to the facts.

Other strategies include not allowing anger or malice to motivate messages, consulting the company’s legal department or attorney about questionable messages, communicating honestly, and emphasizing a desire for a good relationship in the future.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 270; TYPE: concept 99. Describe at least five guidelines to observe when making negative organizational announcements.

ANSWER: (1) Match your approach to the situation—if the news is relatively minor, the direct approach may be best. If it will come as a shock, use the indirect approach. (2) Consider the unique needs of each group—not everyone needs the same information. (3) Give each audience enough time to react as needed. If a plant is closing, for example, employees may need months to find new jobs. (4) Give yourself enough time to plan and manage a response. Complaints and questions are likely to follow your announcement. (5) Look for positive angles but don’t exude false optimism. (6) Minimize the element of surprise whenever possible. (7) Seek expert advice if you’re not sure how to handle all aspects of the announcement.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 271; TYPE: concept

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100. Describe the elements of an effective letter rejecting a job applicant.

ANSWER: Rejecting job applicants requires choosing your approach carefully— experts disagree on whether a direct or an indirect approach is best. No matter which approach you choose, rejection letters must clearly state why the applicant was not selected. Stating that someone with more experience or more relevant qualifications was hired makes the rejection less personal.

Finally, this type of message should close by suggesting alternatives. If the applicant is qualified, you can mention other openings within your company, suggest professional organizations that could help the applicant find employment, or simply state that the applicant’s résumé will be considered for future openings. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 275; TYPE: concept

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Chapter 10 WRITING PERSUASIVE MESSAGES Multiple Choice 1. When compared to routine positive messages, persuasive messages aim to influence audiences who are likely to a. agree with you right away. b. know more than you do about the topic of your message. c. resist at first. d. be easily offended.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 294; TYPE: concept 2. If a supervisor approaches a worker who consistently arrives late by saying, “I know your job is important to you,” the supervisor is addressing the worker’s need for a. safety and security. b. acceptance. c. status and esteem. d. self-actualization.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 295; TYPE: application 3. The best persuasive messages are closely connected to your audience’s a. desires and interests. b. motivations. c. potential concerns and objections. d. all of the above ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 295; TYPE: application 4. Which of the following is not an example of demographic information? a. Age b. Occupation c. Lifestyle d. Income ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 295; TYPE: concept

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5. Personality, lifestyle, and attitudes are assessed through a. demographic surveys. b. psychographic studies. c. inkblot tests. d. examinations of census data.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 295; TYPE: concept 6. Most persuasive messages combine a. truth and falsehood. b. current and very old evidence. c. logical and emotional factors. d. many major points all at once.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 295; TYPE: concept 7. When it comes to persuasive messages, the direct approach a. is rarely used. b. is often preferable when you know your audience is likely to agree with you. c. is used only by top management. d. does not require inclusion of justifications or explanations.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 296; TYPE: concept 8. AIDA stands for a. appeal, indirect, direct, action. b. anticipate inquiry in doing adjustments. c. assume, insist, describe, act. d. attention, interest, desire, action.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 300; TYPE: concept 9. When using the AIDA approach to persuasion, the opening should a. build common ground with your audience. b. build your audience’s interest in your idea. c. capture the audience’s attention. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 300; TYPE: concept

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10. The purpose of the interest section of a persuasive message is to a. capture attention. b. explain the relevance of your message to your audience. c. increase the audience's desire to take the action recommended in the message. d. get the reader to act immediately.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 300; TYPE: concept 11. The purpose of the desire section of a persuasive message is to a. introduce the main idea. b. create interest in the main idea. c. help the audience embrace your idea by explaining how the change will benefit them. d. suggest the action your audience should take.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 300; TYPE: concept 12. When using the AIDA approach to persuasion, the closing should a. urge the audience to take the action you are requesting. b. provide additional evidence and detail not covered in the desire section. c. explain the steps needed to implement your ideas. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 300; TYPE: concept 13. An effective ending for a persuasive message would be a. Simply return the enclosed coupon by June 15 for your free oil and filter change. b. Please respond as soon as possible. c. Wouldn’t you like to save some money? d. Be sure to tell all your friends about this exciting offer.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 300; TYPE: application 14. The secret to a successful action phase in the AIDA model is a. getting readers to change their minds. b. increasing the audience’s awareness of your product or service. c. convincing readers that the action you propose is easy. d. creating a win-lose situation, with you as the winner.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 300; TYPE: concept

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15. The AIDA approach for persuasive messages should be used with a. a direct approach only. b. an indirect approach only. c. either a direct or an indirect approach. d. neither a direct nor an indirect approach.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 300; TYPE: concept 16. An advertisement stating that a new resort offers “freedom and comfort along with great value” is using a. an emotional appeal. b. an analogy. c. an inductive appeal. d. both logical and emotional appeals.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 302; TYPE: application 17. An analogy lets you a. reason from one specific piece of evidence to another specific piece of evidence. b. reason from specific evidence to a general conclusion. c. reason from a generalization to a specific conclusion. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 302; TYPE: concept 18. Which of the following uses a deductive approach to persuasion? a. Because the stock market is expected to fall next month, shares of our company stock will probably also decline. b. It is important for our sales force to operate like a well-oiled machine. c. Our stock price is like a marathon runner, slowly making progress towards our goal. d. None of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 302; TYPE: application 19. When writing persuasive messages, one way to avoid faulty logic is to a. avoid induction. b. avoid deduction. c. avoid praising your opponent. d. avoid hasty generalizations.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 303; TYPE: concept

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20. To overcome audience resistance to your message a. use the hard-sell approach. b. present all sides of the issue before making the case for your position. c. emphasize your impeccable logic. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 304; TYPE: concept 21. When preparing a persuasive request, it is vital to a. remain open to compromise. b. emphasize how you will benefit if the request is fulfilled. c. emphasize the negative consequences of not complying with the request. d. make yourself look good in the reader’s eyes.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 304; TYPE: concept 22. When writing a persuasive request for action, you should a. use the direct approach. b. demonstrate that helping you will indeed solve a significant problem. c. ask for more than you actually want so that you'll have a cushion for negotiation. d. avoid flattery.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 305; TYPE: concept 23. When writing a persuasive claim letter, you should a. assume that the other person is trying to cheat you. b. use a confident and positive tone. c. mention as many additional complaints as possible about the company. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 307; TYPE: concept 24. In marketing and sales messages, what is the primary difference between selling points and benefits? a. Selling points are positive whereas benefits are not. b.

Selling points focus on the user rather than the product. c. Selling points focus on the product rather than the user. d. None of the above are correct.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 308; TYPE: application

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25. As you consider the benefits of your product, in your marketing or sales messages you will ultimately want to a. pick out three or four to call attention to. b. single out one benefit that corresponds to your readers’ primary needs or emotional concerns. c. mention as many benefits as possible. d. choose one direct benefit and one indirect benefit.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 308; TYPE: concept 26. If the audience for your marketing or sales message promoting a new security system is made up of wealthy suburbanites, the consumer benefit you would most want to emphasize is a. the reliability of the system when protecting the consumer's property. b. the low cost. c. the attractive appearance of the device. d. easy, do-it-yourself installation.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 308-09; TYPE: application 27. In marketing and sales messages, the best way to handle potential objections is to a. avoid mentioning them. b. identify them up front and try to address as many as you can. c. explain why the objections aren’t really important. d. do none of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 309; TYPE: concept 28. In marketing and sales messages, you can deemphasize the price of your product by a. mentioning it in the middle of a paragraph after you’ve presented benefits and selling points. b. stating it right at the beginning. c. commenting on how wealthy your readers probably are. d. doing all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 310; TYPE: concept

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29. If price is one of your strong selling points, you should a. mention special offers, such as volume discounts, before actually stating the price. b. compare the price to the cost of some other product or activity ("This exercise equipment costs less than a health club membership"). c. break the total price into smaller units ("Just six easy payments of $19.95 each will bring you this lovely collector's item"). d. give it a position of prominence, such as in the headline or as the last item in a paragraph.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 310; TYPE: concept 30. Which of the following is not an effective technique for gaining audience attention in sales messages? a. Stating your product’s strongest benefit. b. Emphasizing how close your company is to going out of business. c. Explaining how your product offers a solution to a problem. d. Promising savings.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 310-11; TYPE: concept 31. The interest phase of a sales message should a. flatter your audience. b. distract the audience with loads of complex data on your product. c. provide support for whatever claims or promises you made in the attention section. d. avoid any attempts at answering potential objections.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 311; TYPE: concept 32. Which of the following would be the best wording in a marketing or sales message?

a. The Never-Off whole-house generator requires professional installation. b. The Never-Off whole-house generator is designed to turn on automatically when it detects a general service interruption. c. The Never-Off whole-house generator provides the power you and your family need during electrical outages. d. The Never-Off whole-house generator is compact and unobtrusive, so it will not present an unattractive appearance.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 311; TYPE: application

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33. In a marketing or sales letter, product claims are supported a. primarily by testimonials from satisfied customers. b. primarily by statistics from scientific studies of the product. c. primarily by background information on the company selling the product. d. by as much information as possible, of many different types.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 313; TYPE: concept 34. In sales letters, a postscript (P.S.) below your signature is a. not likely to draw the reader’s attention. b. often one of the first and last parts people will read. c. almost always inappropriate. d. expected by most consumers.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 314; TYPE: concept 35. An ethical persuasive argument a. is a contradiction in terms. b. focuses on how the audience’s actions will benefit the sender. c. includes any evidence the sender can come up with, whether or not it's relevant. d. influences audience members by providing information that allows them freedom to choose.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 314; TYPE: concept True or False 36. Successful professionals understand that persuasion is the attempt to get your audience to make the choices you want them to make—even if those choices are not in their best interest.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 294; TYPE: concept 37. To devise an effective persuasive message, you need to analyze audience members and then appeal to their desires and interests.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 295; TYPE: concept 38. According to psychologist Abraham Maslow, people’s higher-level needs must be met before they will seek to fill lower-level needs.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 295; TYPE: concept

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39. Demographic information includes people’s psychological characteristics, such as personality, attitudes, and lifestyle.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 295; TYPE: concept 40. Most persuasive messages combine logical and emotional appeals.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 295; TYPE: concept 41. When writing persuasive messages, one should be careful not to mix emotional and logical appeals.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 295; TYPE: concept 42. Most persuasive messages take the direct organizational approach.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 296; TYPE: concept 43. The direct approach is not useful for persuasive messages.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 296; TYPE: concept 44. An important factor to take into account when deciding on the approach for persuasive messages is your corporate culture.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 297; TYPE: concept 45. When aiming persuasive messages at a French audience, you will be most successful if you use an aggressive, hard-sell approach.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 298; TYPE: concept 46. Using simple language in persuasive messages usually decreases your credibility.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 298; TYPE: concept 47. One of the best ways to gain credibility for your message is to support it with objective evidence.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 298; TYPE: concept 48. The term AIDA refers to computer software used to compose persuasive messages.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 300; TYPE: concept

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49. In the attention phase of a persuasive letter, you make the audience want to hear about your problem or idea.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 300; TYPE: concept 50. The interest section of a persuasive letter provides details on how the message is relevant to the audience.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 300; TYPE: concept 51. The AIDA model can be used with both the direct and indirect approaches for persuasive messages.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 300; TYPE: concept 52. The primary purpose of the desire section of a persuasive letter is to get the audience to keep reading.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 300; TYPE: concept 53. When it comes to persuasive messages, an up-front hard-sell approach is usually the most successful.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 300; TYPE: concept 54. The AIDA model for persuasive messages works only with the indirect approach.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 300; TYPE: concept 55. Deductive reasoning moves from specific evidence to a general conclusion.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 302; TYPE: concept 56. Induction refers to reasoning from a generalization to a specific conclusion.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 302; TYPE: concept 57. An example of faulty logic is to assume that one event caused another just because it happened first.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 303; TYPE: concept

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58. In developing persuasive messages, you should avoid the use of metaphors, as they will only confuse the reader. ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 303; TYPE: concept 59. If you expect a hostile audience, you should be careful to present all sides of an issue before making the case for your own argument. ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 304; TYPE: concept 60. If you anticipate objections to your message, it is best not to bring them up. ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 304; TYPE: concept 61. Most persuasive business messages involve requests for action.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 304; TYPE: concept 62. A persuasive message should always do more than simply convince audiences to change their attitudes or beliefs about a particular topic. ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 304; TYPE: concept 63. Most persuasive claim letters and requests for adjustment use the direct approach. ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 306; TYPE: concept 64. When writing a persuasive claim or request for adjustment, you should appeal to your audience’s sense of fair play, goodwill, or moral responsibility. ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 307; TYPE: concept 65. When it comes to promotional messages, selling points and benefits are basically the same things.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 308; TYPE: concept 66.

Successful marketing and sales messages match the product’s distinguishing benefit to the audience’s primary needs or emotional concerns. ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 308-09; TYPE: concept

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67. A good way to open a marketing or sales message would be “We here at Colbert Corporation are proud to announce our new, improved all-weather tent.”

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 310-11; TYPE: application 68. In the action section of a marketing or sales message, you try to persuade the reader to act immediately.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 313-14; TYPE: concept 69. Since promotional messages are not legally binding contracts in most states, it is usually acceptable to imply offers or promises you cannot deliver.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 314; TYPE: concept 70. You usually do not need permission to use a person’s name or photograph in a marketing or sales message.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 315; TYPE: concept Fill-in-the-Blank 71. ____________________ is the process of changing an audience’s attitudes, beliefs, or actions.

ANSWER: Persuasion; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 294; TYPE: concept 72. ____________________ information includes age, gender, occupation, income, and education.

ANSWER: Demographic; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 295; TYPE: concept 73. ____________________ include information about an individual’s personality, attitudes, lifestyle, and other psychological characteristics.

ANSWER: Psychographics; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 295; TYPE: concept 74. It is particularly important to establish ____________________ with a skeptical or hostile audience—to convince them that you know what you’re talking about and that you’re not trying to mislead them.

ANSWER: credibility; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 298; TYPE: concept

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75. Persuasive messages often follow a specialized four-phase format called the ____________________ model.

ANSWER: AIDA; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 300; TYPE: concept 76. A (An) ____________________ appeal bases an argument on the audience’s needs or sympathies.

ANSWER: emotional; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 302; TYPE: concept 77. ____________________ is reasoning from specific evidence to a general conclusion.

ANSWER: Induction; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 302; TYPE: concept 78. ____________________ is reasoning from a generalization to a specific conclusion.

ANSWER: Deduction; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 302; TYPE: concept 79. ____________________ ____________________ is a logical fallacy in which you try to support your claim by restating it in different words.

ANSWER: Circular reasoning; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 303; TYPE: concept 80. Marketing and ____________________ messages are designed to motivate audiences to participate in a commercial transaction.

ANSWER: sales; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 307; TYPE: concept 81. In part, writing promotional messages involves assessing customer ____________________, analyzing your ____________________, and determining key selling points and benefits.

ANSWER: needs, competition; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 307; TYPE: concept 82. ____________________ ____________________ are the most attractive features of an idea or product.

ANSWER: Selling points; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 308; TYPE: concept

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83. _________________________ are the particular advantages that readers will realize from the features of a product or idea.

ANSWER: Benefits; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 308; TYPE: concept 84. A marketing or sales message begins with some sort of ____________________-____________________ device.

ANSWER: attention-getting; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 310; TYPE: concept 85. In many states, marketing and sales messages are considered binding ____________________.

ANSWER: contracts; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 314; TYPE: concept Short Answer

86. In preparing to write persuasive messages, what two types of information are vital to assess the needs of your audience? ANSWER: Demographics (the age, gender, occupation, income, education, and other quantifiable characteristics of your audience) are very important. Psychographics (the personality, attitudes, lifestyle, and other psychological characteristics of your audience) are also helpful. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 295; TYPE: concept 87. When is it a good idea to use the direct approach for persuasive messages? ANSWER: Using the direct approach for persuasive messages can be effective when your audience is ready to hear your proposal or when you’ve been building your case through several indirect messages and now it’s time to make your request. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 296; TYPE: concept 88.

What does AIDA stand for? ANSWER: Attention, Interest, Desire, and Action. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 300; TYPE: concept

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89. When your AIDA message uses an indirect approach and is delivered by memo or e-mail, what are two goals to keep in mind as you write the subject line?

ANSWER: One challenge in this situation is to make the subject line interesting and you relevant enough to capture reader attention. At the same time, however, have to do so without revealing your main idea.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 300-02; TYPE: concept 90. Rewrite the following e-mail subject line to make it more interesting without revealing provider.” the main idea: “Proposal to switch to new medical insurance ANSWER: A more effective subject line would be something such as “Instant savings on medical insurance premiums.”

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 302; TYPE: application 91. What are three methods of reasoning you can use when making a logical appeal?

ANSWER: Logical appeals can take place through analogy, induction, or deduction.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 302; TYPE: concept 92. List three categories of common persuasive business messages.

ANSWER: Most persuasive business messages fall into one of three categories: (1) persuasive requests for action, (2) persuasive presentation of ideas, and (3) persuasive claims and requests for adjustment.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 304; TYPE: concept 93. What three elements make up an effective persuasive claim letter?

ANSWER: A persuasive claim letter should begin by stating the problem or reviewing what has been done about the problem so far. It should then specifically state what you want to happen next, along with a good reason to grant your claim.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 307; TYPE: concept 94. Briefly explain the difference between selling points and benefits, and then give an example of each.

ANSWER: Selling points are the most attractive features of an idea or product.

Benefits features. are the particular advantages that readers will realize from those The fact that a television comes with a remote control is a selling point, but the 167 of the remote control is a benefit. convenience the buyer will enjoy because DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 308; TYPE: concept/application

95. Why is it important in marketing and sales messages to avoid implying offers or promises you cannot fulfill?

ANSWER: In many states, marketing and sales messages are binding contracts.

Therefore, dishonesty in a sales letter can lead to unfavorable legal action.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 314; TYPE: concept Essay 96. Describe at least five strategies for establishing credibility when preparing persuasive messages.

ANSWER: (1) Use simple language. Your audience is likely to be cautious, watching for fantastic claims, insupportable descriptions, and emotional manipulation. (2) Support your message with facts. The more specific and relevant your evidence, the better. (3) Identify your sources. Tell your audience where your information comes from and who agrees with you. (4) Be an expert.

Know your subject area thoroughly. (5) Establish common ground—help your audience identify with you by appealing to shared beliefs, attitudes, and background experiences. (6) Be objective. Your ability to acknowledge all sides of an issue will help you present fair and logical arguments. (7) Display your good intentions. Your willingness to keep your audience’s best interests at heart will help you create ethical persuasive messages.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 298; TYPE: concept 97. Describe each of the four phases of the AIDA model for persuasive messages.

ANSWER: (1) Attention: Make your audience want to hear about your idea. Find some common ground on which to build your case. (2) Interest: Explain the relevance of your message to your audience. (3) Desire: Make readers want to change by explaining how the change will benefit them. Answer in advance questions that your audience might have, and back up your claims with relevant evidence. (4) Action: Ask your audience to take the specific action you suggest.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 300; TYPE: concept

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98. Explain how to balance emotional appeals and logical appeals to persuade an audience.

ANSWER: Generally speaking, persuasive business messages rely more heavily on logical appeals than emotional appeals, since the main idea is to save money, improve quality, and so on. It is important, however, to avoid the assumption that business decisions are purely logical and therefore ignore the emotional component. For example, you might be able to build a strong logical case for acquiring another company, based on projected financial return and other objective factors. However, the managers making the decision will experience a range of emotions, such as fear of making a wrong move that could be careerthreatening. To find the optimum balance between emotional appeals and logical appeals, consider four factors: (1) the actions you hope to motivate, (2) your reader’s expectations, (3) the degree of resistance you need to overcome, and (4) how far you feel empowered to go to sell your point of view.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 302; TYPE: application 99. Describe several ways you can de-emphasize price in sales letters.

ANSWER: You can leave out any mention of price or include it in an accompanying brochure. You can place it in a less important location in the letter, near the end or middle paragraph after you have described the benefits and selling points. You can compare the cost to some other product or activity in an attempt to make the price of your product seem small and affordable in comparison. You can break a large price down into units—instead of noting the price of the whole unit, report the price of each individual element.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 310; TYPE: application 100. What are some common techniques for attracting an audience’s attention at the beginning of a marketing or sales message?

ANSWER: Effective strategies for grabbing the audience’s attention include (1) outlining your product’s strongest benefit, (2) sharing a piece of genuine news, (3) establishing a point of common ground with the audience, (4) making a personal appeal to the reader’s emotions and values, (5) promising inside information, (6) promising savings, (7) providing a sample or demonstration of the product, and (8) offering a solution to a problem.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 310-11; TYPE: concept

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Chapter 11 FINDING, EVALUATING, AND PROCESSING INFORMATION Multiple Choice 1. At the beginning of a research project, you need to a. develop a formal outline that you plan to stick to throughout your researching and writing. b. familiarize yourself with the subject. c. just jump in by finding resources on the Internet and taking notes from them. d. develop the conclusion you want to reach and start looking for evidence that supports that conclusion.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 333; TYPE: concept 2. A problem statement a. outlines all the potential drawbacks of your research. b. defines the purpose of your research. c. is an unsupportable claim or assertion. d. should be long and complex.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 334; TYPE: concept 3. Primary research refers to a. new research done specifically for your current project. b. the evidence that stands out in your report. c. the research you conduct first. d. research that is fairly easy to conduct.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 335-36; TYPE: concept 4. Which of these documents would not qualify as primary research? a. A sales report from a company rep b. The most recent issue of a trade magazine in your industry c. Correspondence with a particular customer d. Your company's latest balance sheet ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 335-36; TYPE: application

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5. Sources of secondary information include a. first-hand observation. b. in-person interviews. c. newspapers and periodicals. d. experiments.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 335-36; TYPE: concept 6. In evaluating material you have gathered for a report, you should a. assume that any information taken from a webpage will be credible and reliable. b. throw out any information whose source is an organization that might be biased. c. check the material for currency. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 336; TYPE: concept 7. Problems with electronic search engines include a. that you can’t evaluate the quality of webpage content. b. you can’t access material held in limited-access collections. c. you must use different techniques to find, classify, and present pages. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 340; TYPE: concept 8. Which of the following is not true of search engines? a. They travel the web automatically, identifying new websites. b. They access the “deep web” or “hidden internet.” c. They return to previously identified websites to look for changes. d. Not all search engines operate in the same way.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 340; TYPE: concept 9. A web directory is different from a search engine in that a. it doesn’t include Usenet newsgroups. b. it doesn’t provide as precise results as a search engine. c. humans, rather than “robots,” find and index the websites to include. d. it usually locates more sites than a search engine.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 340; TYPE: concept

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10. A metacrawler is a. a highly specialized directory that focuses on a specific subject matter area. b. a search engine that examines only newsgroup messages. c. a type of aggregator that offers subscribers all-day information on their desktops. d. a special type of engine that searches several search engines at once.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 340; TYPE: concept 11. Which of the following is not a characteristic of online databases? a. They often categorize information by subject area. b. They offer access to billions of records of the world’s published literature. c. Using them often requires knowledge of basic search techniques. d. Most of them are available free of charge.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 340-41; TYPE: concept 12. Unlike Internet search engines, online databases a. can be accessed only from a library. b. offer access to back issues of many newspapers, magazines, and professional journals. c. are rarely up-to-date. d. do not require a subscription.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 340-41; TYPE: concept 13. When conducting a database search, you use wildcards to a. find similar spellings of your search terms. b. provide variations on your key terms. c. help you find plurals and alternative spellings of your key words. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 342; TYPE: concept 14. To conduct an effective database search a. choose one search engine and stick with it. b. enter variations of your search terms to increase the likelihood of obtaining desirable “hits.” c. use long search phrases rather than short ones or single terms. d. avoid Boolean operators.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 342-43; TYPE: concept

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15. Newsfeeds a. take all the hassles out of Internet research. b. are too technical for most researchers. c. require nothing of the user to set them up. d. are an ideal way to stay up-to-date on subjects that are likely to change or develop over time.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 344; TYPE: concept 16. You would not need to cite a source if you a. used a direct quotation of under 250 words from a book titled Modern Economics. b. used a table from the 1985 Farmer's Almanac. c. described, in your own words, a plan for organizing production lines, which appeared in a professional journal. d. listed the ingredients found in a popular sports drink.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 345; TYPE: concept 17. According to the fair use doctrine a. plagiarism is not an issue in business—only in schools. b. crediting sources is all that is necessary to avoid legal problems. c. once material is made public, it no longer belongs to the author. d. you can use other people’s work only if you don’t prevent them from benefiting as a result.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 345; TYPE: concept 18. The two most common primary research methods are a. not appropriate for test marketing. b. experiments and observations. c. surveys and interviews. d. test panels.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 345; TYPE: concept 19. Survey results are considered reliable when a. identical results are produced when the surveys are repeated. b. a representative group of people has been surveyed. c. the research measures what it was intended to measure. d. the phrasing of the questions is unbiased.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 345; TYPE: concept

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20. A survey is not valid if it a. does not include at least 50 responses. b. is more than one year old. c. fails to measure what it is intended to measure. d. lacks secondary evidence to supplement it.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 345; TYPE: concept 21. People are more likely to respond to a questionnaire if a. they can complete it within a short time. b. you allow them plenty of time to research their answers. c. the questions are open ended. d. all of the above are the case.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 346; TYPE: concept 22. Questions such as, “Do you shop at the mall often?” are a. perfect for most surveys. b. too ambiguous to include on a survey. c. likely to offend your respondents. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 346; TYPE: concept 23. “What are your plans for expanding your sales to the European market?” is an example of a. a closed-ended question. b. an open-ended question. c. a restatement question. d. an inappropriate question.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 348; TYPE: application 24. A disadvantage of using open-ended questions in an interview is a. they limit the subject’s freedom in giving a response. b. they prevent important information from being revealed.. c. they diminish the interviewer’s control over the interview. d. they do all of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 348; TYPE: concept

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25. Which of the following is a closed-ended question? a. Do you think the proposed expansion plan is feasible? b. What do you see as the primary benefit of the proposal? c. What corporate goals does the expansion help achieve? d. How will the expansion affect day-to-day operations?

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 348; TYPE: application 26. When preparing to conduct an interview, you should a. take into account the subject’s gender, age, educational level, social status, and cultural background. b. be aware of the ethical implications of any questions you might ask. c. consider providing the subject with a list of questions a day or two before the actual interview. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 348; TYPE: concept 27. When conducting an information interview, it is a good idea to a. limit the number of questions so they will fit in the allotted time. b. stick to using just one type of question. c. save the most important questions for last. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 348; TYPE: concept 28. Unlike a summary, a paraphrase a. restates the original material in your own words. b. presents the gist of the original material in fewer words. c. does not require complete documentation of sources. d. is never acceptable in business documents.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 350; TYPE: concept 29. To paraphrase effectively a. avoid using any business language or jargon. b. double-check your version against the original to make sure that you haven't altered the meaning. c. make sure your version is the same length as or longer than the original. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 350; TYPE: concept

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30. What would be the median for the following set of monthly salaries: $1200, $1200, $1300, $1500, $1700, $2000, $2800? a. $1200 b. $1500 c. $1671.43 d. $1700 ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 351; TYPE: concept 31. To find out your company’s average monthly utility bill over the last year, you would need to calculate the _______ of the last twelve bills. a. mean b. median c. mode d. highest ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 351; TYPE: application 32. In a particular set of figures or data, the number that occurs most often is called the a. mean. b. median. c. mode. d. correlation.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 351-52; TYPE: concept 33. When drawing conclusions for a report, you a. should make sure to take into account any information you know about that hasn’t been included in the report. b. shouldn't compromise with others working as a part of your team. c. should suggest actions for the company to take based on the facts you have collected. d. interpret what the facts you have gathered mean.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 353; TYPE: concept 34. Conclusions differ from recommendations in that conclusions a. are opinions or interpretations. b. are objective. c. are acceptable to readers. d. suggest what ought to be done about the facts.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 353-54; TYPE: concept

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35. The recommendations you make in a report should be a. the same as the conclusions. b. easy to implement. c. what the audience wants to hear. d. practical and offer real advantages to the organization.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 354; TYPE: concept True or False 36. Because of their complexity, industry publications are not a good place to begin familiarizing yourself with an unfamiliar subject area.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 334; TYPE: concept 37. To help guide your research, you should develop a problem statement that defines the problem or purpose of your research.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 334; TYPE: concept 38. You should not use any information that companies post online because it is bound to be filled with bias.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 334; TYPE: concept 39. The difference between primary sources and secondary sources is that primary sources are those you gather specifically for your project.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 335-36; TYPE: concept 40. It is particularly important to verify information when it goes beyond simple facts to include projections and interpretations.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 336; TYPE: concept 41. With the advent of the Internet, business writers have little need for libraries when it comes to finding secondary information.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 339; TYPE: concept 42. If you wanted to find statistical information about countries in South America, the best type of library resource to consult would be a directory.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 339; TYPE: application

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43. When you need to consult government documents, your only option is to go to the appropriate government office in your city.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 339; TYPE: concept 44. When using the Internet to conduct research, you can be reasonably sure that any information you find will be accurate.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 339; TYPE: concept 45. Some of the most useful and up-to-date resources available at libraries are online databases.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 340; TYPE: concept 46. The best search engines are capable of reaching information on the “hidden Internet.”

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 340; TYPE: concept 47. Search engines and directories use different approaches to find and index web sites.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 340; TYPE: concept 48. A search engine is likely to find more websites than a web directory will, but a directory yields results that have been screened by human editors.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 340; TYPE: concept 49. A metacrawler enables you to use multiple search engines simultaneously.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 340; TYPE: concept 50. Boolean operators include terms such as AND, OR, and NOT. ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 342; TYPE: concept 51. When using search engines, Boolean operators enable you to define search queries with greater precision.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 342; TYPE: concept

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52. All search engines treat the question mark as a wildcard to let you search for variations of a given word.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 343; TYPE: concept 53. There is no real difference between a natural language search and a formsbased search.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 343; TYPE: concept 54. A work is not considered copyrighted until it is legally registered.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 345; TYPE: concept 55. According to the fair use doctrine, you can use other people's work only as long as you do not unfairly prevent them from benefiting as a result.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 345; TYPE: concept 56. Observations, surveys, and experiments are all considered secondary sources of information.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 345; TYPE: concept 57. A survey is considered reliable if it measures what it is intended to measure.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 345; TYPE: concept 58. A survey is valid if it produces identical results when repeated.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 345; TYPE: concept 59. When preparing a questionnaire, you should avoid compound questions and ask only one thing at a time.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 346; TYPE: concept 60. Surveys conducted over the Internet are more expensive and time-consuming than surveys conducted by traditional methods.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 346; TYPE: concept

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61. “Do you think the new employee benefit package is adequate?” is an example of an open-ended question.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 348; TYPE: application 62. If you plan to quote your interview subject in writing, it is a good idea to provide him or her with a list of questions a day or two ahead of time.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 348-49; TYPE: concept 63. It is always preferable for interviews to take place in person rather than to conduct them via e-mail.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 349; TYPE: concept 64. Paraphrases do not require documentation of sources.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 350; TYPE: concept 65. If sales for the first six months of the year were $24,000, $20,000, $23,000, $20,000, $19,000, and $21,000, the mean for the six months would be $20,000.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 351; TYPE: application 66. The mean (or average) is the sum of all the values in a series divided by the number of values in that group.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 351; TYPE: concept 67. If you find a strong correlation between company stress-reduction programs and increased worker productivity, you can conclude that such programs do indeed cause increased productivity.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 352; TYPE: application 68. Conclusions are interpretations based on the evidence in your report.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 353; TYPE: concept 69. You should assume that everyone who examines the evidence you present in your report will arrive at the same conclusion.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 353; TYPE: application

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70. An example of a recommendation would be "Given the slowdown in the real estate market and the past history of this particular property, it would not be a good acquisition at this time."

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 354; TYPE: application Fill-in-the-Blank 71. A____________________ ____________________ defines the purpose of your research.

ANSWER: problem statement; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 334; TYPE: concept 72. Books, periodicals, newspapers, and websites are all examples of ____________________ sources.

ANSWER: secondary; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 335; TYPE: concept 73. An online ____________________ is a computer-searchable collection of information.

ANSWER: database; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 340; TYPE: concept 74. Online ____________________ ____________________ identify individual webpages that contain a specific word or phrase you’ve asked for.

ANSWER: search engines; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 340; TYPE: concept 75. Whereas a search engine uses an automated “robot” to find and index websites, a web ____________________ uses humans to do this job.

ANSWER: directory; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 340; TYPE: concept 76. You can narrow or broaden an Internet search by using operators ____________________ such as AND, OR, and NOT. ANSWER: Boolean; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 342; TYPE: concept 77. A ____________________ ____________________ search lets you ask questions in normal, everyday English.

ANSWER: natural language; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 342; TYPE: concept

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78. ____________________ law covers printed materials, audiovisual material, many forms of artistic expression, computer programs, maps, mailing lists, and even answering-machine messages.

ANSWER: Copyright; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 345; TYPE: concept 79. A survey is considered ____________________ if it produces identical results when repeated; a survey is considered ____________________ if it measures what it’s intended to measure.

ANSWER: reliable, valid; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 345; TYPE: concept 80. When conducting an interview, you use ________________________________________ questions to get the interviewee to offer an opinion and not just a yes-or-no answer.

ANSWER: open-ended; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 348; TYPE: concept 81. Unlike a paraphrase, a ____________________ presents the gist of the material in fewer words than the original.

ANSWER: summary; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 350; TYPE: concept 82. When analyzing data, look for ____________________, which are repeatable patterns taking place over time, such as growth and decline.

ANSWER: trends; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 352; TYPE: concept 83. A ____________________ is a simultaneous change in two variables that you’re measuring.

ANSWER: correlation; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 352; TYPE: concept 84. A __________________ is a logical interpretation of the facts in your report.

ANSWER: conclusion; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 353; TYPE: concept 85. A __________________ suggests what ought to be done about the information you have presented in your report.

ANSWER: recommendation; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 354; TYPE: concept

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Short Answer 86. List three examples of ethical lapses to avoid when conducting research.

ANSWER: (1) Don’t force a specific outcome by skewing your research. (2) Respect the privacy of your research participants. (3) Document sources and give appropriate credit. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 333; TYPE: concept 87. Define information gap analysis and list one of its benefits.

ANSWER: An information gap analysis is a technique for identifying the specific pieces of information you require. It helps you make the best use of your time as you conduct research. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 334; TYPE: concept 88. You have been asked to help a company find ways to reduce the amount it spends on employee health and dental benefits. Write a problem statement for the report that you will produce.

ANSWER: “How can we decrease Company A’s expenses on employee health and dental benefits?” (Answers may vary.) DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 334; TYPE: application 89. Briefly explain the difference between primary research and secondary research.

ANSWER: Primary research is new research conducted specifically for your current project. Secondary research involves consulting sources such as magazines, newspapers, public websites, books, and other reports.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 335-36; TYPE: concept 90. Briefly explain the difference between trade journals and academic journals.

ANSWER: Trade journals provide information about specific professions and industries. Academic journals, on the other hand, offer research-oriented articles from researchers and educators. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 339; TYPE: concept 91. What is the greatest problem you face when using business information obtained from the Internet?

ANSWER: The Internet can be a valuable source of information, but it can also deliver information that is biased, exaggerated, or unsubstantiated.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 339; DIFFICULTY: moderate; TYPE: concept

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92. Briefly explain the main difference between an Internet search engine and a web directory.

ANSWER: Whereas Internet search engines use no human editors to evaluate the quality of the content they yield, web directories use human editors to categorize and evaluate websites and other media. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 34041; TYPE: concept 93. What is the difference between a reliable survey and a valid survey?

ANSWER: A reliable survey produces identical results when repeated. A valid survey measures what it’s intended to measure. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 345; TYPE: concept 94. What are open-ended questions? What is their function?

ANSWER: An open-ended question is one that requires more than a simple yes or no answer. It invites the interviewee to reveal feelings, provide information, and offer an opinion. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 348; TYPE: concept 95. Explain the difference between a conclusion and a recommendation.

ANSWER: A conclusion is the logical interpretation of the facts in your report; it is based on the evidence at hand. A recommendation suggests what should be done about those facts. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 353-54; TYPE: concept Essay

96. Briefly describe five general procedures that can increase the productivity of your research.

ANSWER: The first of these procedures is to plan your research, which will help you get better results in less time. Second, locate the data and information you need—and don’t assume that all of it will be available online. Third, process the data and information you located; doing so can involve anything from performing statistical analyses to resolving the differences between two or more expert opinions. Fourth, apply your findings by summarizing information for someone else’s benefit, drawing conclusions based on what you’ve learned, or developing recommendations. Finally, manage your information efficiently by storing and sharing it in formats that maximize the return on your research. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 332; TYPE: concept

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97. What are nine criteria for evaluating the credibility of an information source? ANSWER: In evaluating the credibility of sources, it is important to determine whether the source has a reputation for honesty and reliability. You should also be sensitive to any potential bias in the source. Knowing the purpose of the source can help you decide whether it is appropriate for your project. You should also find out whether the author is credible and where he or she got the information included in the source. Another important issue is whether or not you can verify the material independently. You should also check to make sure that the material is current and complete. Finally, it is important to see how well the sources claims stand up to scrutiny.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 336; TYPE: concept 98. List the three major disadvantages of Internet search engines, then briefly describe other electronic research tools that overcome those shortcomings. ANSWER: The three disadvantages of Internet search engines are (1) no human editor screens and evaluates the content of the websites they list; (2) they do not allow you to reach the content held in limited-access collections, such as the back issues of many newspapers and periodicals; and (3) because various search engines use different techniques to find, classify, and present pages, you might be able to find certain pages through one engine but not through another. One other type of electronic research tool that helps to overcome these drawbacks is the web directory, which uses human editors to categorize and evaluate website content.

Another is the online database, which offers access to the newspapers, magazines, and journals you can’t access via search engines. Finally, metacrawlers or metasearch engines address the third shortcoming by automatically formatting your search request for the specific requirements of multiple search engines and telling you how many hits each engine was able to find for you. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 340-42; TYPE: concept 99.

Describe six strategies for producing surveys that are both valid and reliable.

ANSWER: To produce valid and reliable surveys, provide clear instructions so that respondents know exactly how to fill out your questionnaire. You should also keep the entire survey short and easy to answer—all questions should be relevant and respondents should be able to complete the survey quickly and easily. Whenever possible, it is important to design questions to provide answers that will be easy for you to analyze; numbers, for example, are easier to analyze than opinions. Leading questions (which will bias the results of your survey) should be avoided. Likewise, avoid ambiguous questions such as, “Do you shop at the mall often?” Ask only one thing at a time rather than using compound questions, and adapt the question sequence based on audience responses. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 345-46; TYPE: concept

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100. In addition to asking both open- and closed-ended questions, what are five guidelines to follow in devising interview questions?

ANSWER: There are several strategies for developing effective interview questions. These include (1) Think about sequence—arrange questions in a way that helps uncover layers of information or that helps the subject tell a complete story. (2) Rate your questions and highlight the ones you really need answers to.

(3) Ask smart questions—this helps maintain your credibility (and the subject’s interest) during the interview. (4) Limit the number of questions—plan on 15–20 questions for a half-hour interview, and remember that open-ended questions take much longer to answer than closed questions. (5) Edit your questions to make them neutral and easy to understand, then practice asking them several times prior to the actual interview. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 348; TYPE: concept

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Chapter 12 DESIGNING VISUAL COMMUNICATION Multiple Choice 1. U.S. government research shows that about ___ percent of the adult population in the U.S. has the literacy skills needed for success in today’s workplace. a. 1 b. 10 c. 50 d. 75 ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 363; TYPE: concept 2. Making arbitrary changes in the color, size, or shape of your visual aids may a. stimulate the flagging interest of your audience. b. be difficult to do without sophisticated software or the help of a graphic designer. c. confuse your audience. d. unnecessarily lengthen your report/presentation.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 364; TYPE: concept 3. A three-dimensional bar chart decorated with clip art is an example of a. a pictogram. b. chartjunk. c. a good way to grab reader interest. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 364-65; TYPE: application 4. Examples of ethical lapses to avoid in business visuals include all of the following except a. including photos that play on racial or gender stereotypes. b. reducing the detail of a graphic in order to make it more readable. c. altering photos or graphs to hide information that could make you look bad. d. distorting the axes on a line chart to make sales look like they have increased significantly over previous years.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 366-67; TYPE: concept

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5. If you have a great deal of detailed, specific information to present, the best visual to use would be a. a table. b. a pie chart. c. a diagram. d. none of the above ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 371; TYPE: concept

6. When preparing numerical tables, you should a. be sure to identify the units (such as dollars or percentages) you are using. b. express all items in the same column in the same unit of measure. c. document the source of data. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 373; TYPE: concept

7. The best type of visual aid for showing trends over time is a. a table. b. a pie chart. c. a line chart. d. an organization chart.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 373; TYPE: concept

8. When preparing a line chart, keep in mind a. that you should never leave out increments from the vertical axis. b. that you should be especially careful to avoid distorting the data. c. that the vertical axis should never have negative numbers. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 373; TYPE: concept

9. The best visual for illustrating profits and losses over a two-year period is a a. line chart. b. flowchart. c. scatter diagram. d. pie chart.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 373-74; TYPE: application

10. A surface chart is

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a. a type of three-dimensional pie chart. b. a form of line chart in which all the lines add up to the top line. c. a type of map showing various terrains. d. used to show interrelationships within an organization.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 374; TYPE: concept

11. A bar chart would be particularly useful for a. illustrating what percentages of a company’s monthly budget are spent on utilities and other expenses. b. comparing market shares of three breakfast cereals from 1987 to 1990. c. showing the stages in production of a jet engine. d. depicting the proportion of advertising dollars spent on various major media.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 374-75; TYPE: application

12. A segmented bar chart a. shows how individual components contribute to a total number. b. shows the correlation between two items. c. compares quantities that require different intervals. d. identifies positive and negative values.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 375; TYPE: concept

13. A chart that uses symbols instead of words or numbers to portray data is called a a. Gantt chart. b. surface chart. c. combination chart. d. pictogram.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 376; TYPE: concept

14. A Gantt chart is a type of a. pictogram. b. line chart. c. time line chart. d. pie chart.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 376; TYPE: concept

15. When you want to track progress toward completing a project, you should use a. an organizational chart.

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b. a Gantt chart. c. a pie chart. d. a pictogram.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 376; TYPE: concept

16. The best way to illustrate how the parts of a whole are distributed is with a a. pie chart. b. line chart. c. bar chart. d. flowchart.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 377; TYPE: concept

17. When preparing a pie chart, you should a. limit the number of slices to no more than three. b. place the largest or most important segment at the 12 o'clock position. c. arrange wedges of decreasing importance in a counterclockwise direction. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 377; TYPE: concept

18. Flowcharts are used to a. summarize large amounts of statistical data. b. show the relative sizes of the parts of a whole. c. show how something looks or operates. d. illustrate processes and procedures.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 378; TYPE: concept

19. The best visual to describe the communication channels of a business is a(n) a. organization chart. b. bar chart. c. scatter diagram. d. Gantt chart.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 378; TYPE: concept

20. Microsoft Visio is one example of specialized software used to create a. professional-quality illustrations. b. complex spreadsheets.

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c. cash flow tracking systems. d. none of the above ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 381; TYPE: concept

21. CAD stands for a. charts automatically designed. b. complete audiovisual display. c. computer-aided design. d. computer adaptable display.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 381; TYPE: concept

22. A potential drawback of using photographs in reports is a. that they can show too much detail. b. that they are difficult to change or manipulate. c. that appropriate photos are difficult to find. d. all of the above ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 381-82; TYPE: concept

23. A good situation for using photographs would be a. in repair manuals, to show the steps in making repairs. b. to show how equipment operates. c. to show the exact appearance of a new product. d. to illustrate processes and procedures in sequence.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 381-82; TYPE: concept

24. Which of the following is the most specialized visual commonly used in business documents? a. tables. b. line charts. c. animations. d. maps.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE 382; TYPE: concept

25. When creating digital photos, it is important to consider “dpi,” which stands for a. digital photo imaging. b. downloadable photo import. c. dots per inch.

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d. none of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 382; TYPE: concept

26. Producing visual aids with a computer graphics system is a. no substitute for the training and experience of a professional designer. b. a surefire way to ensure that your visuals are effective. c. not advisable unless you have access to extremely expensive computer equipment. d. not likely to result in professional-looking materials.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 383; TYPE: concept

27. In computer graphics, a template is a. a tool for creating curves and geometric shapes. b. a ready-made design provided in a software program. c. any kind of chart generated by a spreadsheet program. d. a tool for creating classic architectural views.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 383; TYPE: concept

28. The style and quality of your visuals depend mostly on a. the gender of your audience. b. whether or not your topic is controversial. c. the subject matter and the situation at hand. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 383; TYPE: concept

29. The ideal balance between the visual and the verbal depends on a. the nature of your audience. b. the length of the report/presentation. c. the amount of money available for underwriting the costs of graphics. d. internal company guidelines.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 384; TYPE: concept

30. A reference to a visual aid should a. come directly after the piece itself appears. b. precede the piece itself. c. come fairly close to the appearance of the piece. d. include copyright information.

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ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 384; TYPE: concept

31. In business reports, it is best to place each visual a. within, beside, or immediately after the paragraph it illustrates. b. just before the paragraph referring to it. c. together with other visuals at the end of each chapter. d. together with other visuals in an appendix at the end of the report.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 385; TYPE: concept

32. The primary difference between titles and captions of visuals is that a. titles are usually longer than captions. b. captions usually appear above visuals, whereas titles appear below. c. captions are often longer than titles. d. titles provide detailed descriptions of visuals, but captions give only short descriptions.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE; 385; TYPE: concept

33. Legends should be included with a. controversial reports. b. all visuals in business reports. c. visuals that are more complex than a simple graph or a series of data. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 385; TYPE: concept

34. Which of the following is an example of a descriptive title for a visual aid? a. How CamCo Reduces Costs b. CamCo Cost Reductions c. Reducing Costs Is a Number-One Goal at CamCo d. Whither Camco?

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 385; TYPE: application

35. When creating visuals, it is highly unethical to a. leave out important information, such as data points that don’t fit your needs. b. “airbrush” the photos of company executives to make them look more attractive. c. overload your report with unnecessary tables and charts. d. simplify data from other sources.

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ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 385-86; TYPE: concept True or False

36. Unlike words, visual images have connotative meanings that are consistent across cultures.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 362; TYPE: concept

37. When designing visuals, you should keep in mind that elements such as shapes and colors have meanings, which can vary among cultures.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 362; TYPE: concept

38. Including visuals in your report or presentation is a particularly powerful way to communicate with a culturally diverse audience.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 362-63; TYPE: concept

39. Poorly planned visuals can damage your credibility even more severely than grammatical errors in the text of your report.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 363; TYPE: concept

40. U.S. government research suggests that only half of the adult population in the U.S. now has the literacy skills needed for success in the workplace.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 363; TYPE: concept

41. “Visual literacy” describes the ability to create effective images and correctly interpret visual messages.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 363; TYPE: concept

42. Making arbitrary changes in color, shape, size, or texture is one way of stimulating an audience’s interest in your presentation.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 364; TYPE: concept 43. A good way to distinguish between 2007 and 2008 on a bar chart illustrating monthly expenses would be to use contrasting colors.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 364; TYPE: application

44. Emphasizing background features (such as the grid lines on a chart) is helpful to your audience.

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ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 364; TYPE: concept 45. The more decorative elements you can add to a graphic, the more interesting and useful it will be to the audience.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 364-65; TYPE: concept 46. Altering the horizontal or vertical scale on a chart or graph can profoundly influence your audience’s perception of the data you present.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 366-67; TYPE: concept 47. Tables are ideal for summarizing information that would be difficult or tedious to handle in the main text.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 371; TYPE: concept 48. Tables presented in printed documents must contain fewer columns and rows than tables presented online.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 371-72; TYPE: concept 49. Tables should always be presented on a separate page, rather than being included within the text of a report.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 372; TYPE: concept 50. When preparing numerical tables, you should clearly identify the units you are using (such as dollars or percentages) and express all items in a column in the same unit.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 373; TYPE: concept 51. Word tables are generally less useful than numerical ones.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 373; TYPE: concept

52. In line charts showing trends, the vertical axis indicates time or quantity, and the horizontal axis indicates amount.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 373; TYPE: concept 53. If at all possible, use a maximum of six lines on any given line chart.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 374; TYPE: concept

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54. A surface chart is a type of bar chart in which the bars are represented by symbols.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 374; TYPE: concept

55. Bar charts can be used to compare more than one set of data.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 374; TYPE: concept

56. The deviation bar chart is a special type of bar chart that identifies both positive and negative values, such as winners and losers.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 375; TYPE: concept

57. Because computer software generates charts from data tables, you need to think ahead about how the chart will look when deciding on the order of data for the table.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 375-76; TYPE: concept 58. Compared to bar charts, pictograms are generally easier to read.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 376; TYPE: concept

59. A Gantt chart is a type of time line chart used to track the progress of a project.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 376; TYPE: concept

60. A pie chart would be the best visual to illustrate how an employee’s time is divided among different tasks throughout the week.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 377; TYPE: application 61. When you are preparing a pie chart, you should place the largest or most important segment in the six o’clock position.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 377; TYPE: concept 62. If you want to illustrate a process or procedure, the best type of visual aid to use is a flowchart.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 378; TYPE: concept

63. On a flowchart, diamonds indicate decision points.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 378; TYPE: concept

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64. Drawings, diagrams, and photographs are generally not helpful in business documents.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 381; TYPE: concept

65. Because of the costs of reproduction, photographs are usually not used in business reports.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 381; TYPE: concept 66. One potential disadvantage of using photographs in business documents is that they show so much detail.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 381-82; TYPE: concept 67. In the text of a report, only the most important visual aids should be referred to by number.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 384; TYPE: concept 68. When describing the data from visual aids in the text of your report, you should be sure to reiterate all the details of the data, rather than simply touch on the highlights.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 384; TYPE: concept 69. The best place to put a visual aid is right next to or immediately following the paragraph it illustrates.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 385; TYPE: concept 70. Short titles such as “Refineries” intrigue audiences and encourage them to pay careful attention to your visuals.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 385; TYPE: application

Fill-in-the-Blank

71. A basic principle of design is to maintain ____________________ among all th visuals in a document.

ANSWER: consistency; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 364; TYPE: concept

72. ____________________ refers to decorative elements that clutter documents adding any relevant information.

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ANSWER: Chartjunk; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 364-65; TYPE: concept

73. A(n) ____________________ is a type of visual aid that includes vertical colum and horizontal rows.

ANSWER: table; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 371; TYPE: concept 74. A(n) ____________________ chart illustrates trends over time.

ANSWER: line; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 373; TYPE: concept

75. ____________________ charts are a form of line chart with a cumulative effec the lines add up to the top line.

ANSWER: Surface; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 374; TYPE: concept 76. A(n) ____________________ chart can take several forms including singular, deviation, segmented, combination, or paired.

ANSWER: bar; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 374-75; TYPE: concept

77. A(n) ____________________ is a type of chart that uses symbols instead of wo or numbers to portray data.

ANSWER: pictogram; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 376; TYPE: concept

78. A(n) ____________________ chart shows how much time is needed to comple each task in a given project.

ANSWER: time line; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 376; TYPE: concept

79. A(n) ____________________ chart is a type of time line chart used to track prog toward completing a project.

ANSWER: Gantt; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 376; TYPE: concept 80. _______________ charts are especially effective for showing the composition of a whole.

ANSWER: Pie; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 377; TYPE: concept

81. ____________________ illustrate a sequence of events from start to finish.

ANSWER: Flowcharts; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 378; TYPE: concept

82. To illustrate the positions, units, or functions of an organization and the way they interrelate, use a(n) ____________________ chart.

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ANSWER: organization; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 378; TYPE: concept

83. Along with the title of a visual, the ____________________ offers additional discussion of the visual’s content and can be several sentences long.

ANSWER: caption; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 385; TYPE: concept 84. A(n) ____________________ title on a graphic simply identifies the topic.

ANSWER: descriptive; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 385; TYPE: concept

85. A(n) ____________________ title calls attention to the conclusion that ought t drawn from the data.

ANSWER: informative; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 385; TYPE: concept Short Answer

86. What is “chartjunk”?

ANSWER: “Chartjunk” refers to any decorative elements that clutter documents (and confuse readers) without adding any relevant information. DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 364-65; TYPE: concept

87. Briefly describe one way that visuals can be designed to emphasize or deemphasize certain aspects of the data they present.

ANSWER: You can emphasize or deemphasize certain aspects of data in visual aids by altering the horizontal or vertical scale on a chart or graph or by manipulating the perspective a photograph provides on an object. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 367; TYPE: concept

88. List at least five types of visual aids commonly used to present data in business documents.

ANSWER: (1) Tables, (2) line charts, (3) surface charts, (4) bar charts, (5) pictograms, (6) Gantt charts, (7) Scatter and bubble diagrams, and (8) pie charts. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 371; TYPE: concept 89. In a line chart, what do the vertical and horizontal axes normally illustrate?

ANSWER: The vertical axis normally shows the amount, and the horizontal axis illustrates the time or other quantity against which the amount is being measured.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 373; TYPE: concept

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90. In designing visuals for business reports, what tasks are best suited for bar charts?

List at least two.

ANSWER: Bar charts are particularly useful for comparing the size of several items at one time, showing changes in one item over time, indicating the composition of several items over time, and showing the relative size of components of a whole. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 374-75; TYPE: concept 91. How are Gantt charts used in business documents?

ANSWER: Gantt charts are used to track progress toward completing a project.

DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 376; TYPE: concept

92. In preparing a brochure for visitors, you need to describe the process your plant uses to manufacture home appliances. What type of visual aid should you use to describe the process, and why?

ANSWER: A flowchart would be best in this case, since it is the visual aid designed to illustrate a sequence of events from start to finish. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 378; TYPE: application

93. List two ways that including too many visuals can distract your audience from the main points of your message.

ANSWER: (1) Along with constantly referring to tables, drawings, and other visual elements, switching back and forth from words to visuals can make it difficult for readers to follow your message. (2) The space occupied by visuals can disrupt the flow of text on the page or screen, which also creates additional work for the reader. DIFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 384; TYPE: concept

94. Briefly explain whether it is a good idea to bunch visuals at the end of a section or at the end of a document.

ANSWER: It is usually not a good idea to bunch visuals in business documents because having to flip (or scroll) back and forth between the visuals and the text can distract readers from the main points of your message. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 385; TYPE: concept 95. Explain the difference between the title and the caption of a visual aid.

ANSWER: A title simply provides a short description of the content and purpose of the visual, along with whatever label and number you use to refer to the visual. A caption, on the other hand usually offers additional discussion of the visual’s content and can be

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several sentences long if appropriate. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 385; TYPE: concept Essay

96. Describe at least five principles to keep in mind when designing visuals regarding the aesthetic and symbolic aspects of graphic art.

ANSWER: (1) Consistency: Readers view a series of visuals as a whole, assuming that design elements will be consistent from one page to the next. (2) Contrast: Visual distinctions should match verbal ones. To emphasize differences, depict items in contrasting colors, such as red and blue, or black and white. To emphasize similarities, make color difference more subtle. (3) Balance: Images that appear to be out of balance can be as unsettling as a building that looks like it’s about to tip over. Balance can be either formal, in which the elements in the images are arranged symmetrically around a central point or axis, or informal, in which elements are not distributed evenly but stronger and weaker elements are arranged in such a way that achieves an overall effect of balance. (4) Emphasis: The most important point should receive the greatest visual emphasis, so present the key item on the chart in the most prominent way—through color, position, size, or whatever. Visually downplay less important items. (5) Convention: Visual communication is governed by a variety of generally accepted (and deeply ingrained) rules. Flouting those conventions can be effective, but must be done carefully in order to avoid breakdowns in communications. (6) Simplicity: Limit the number of colors and design elements you use, and take care to avoid chartjunk.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 364-65; TYPE: concept

97. Define and explain the “visual evolution in business communication.”

ANSWER: Several technological and social factors are contributing to the increasing use—and importance—of visuals in business communication. Whereas creating and working with visual elements used to be the domain of experts, digital technology has changed this situation dramatically. Digital cameras that can produce high-quality images and video are inexpensive and easy enough for anyone to use; the software needed to create diagrams, process photos, edit video, and prepare other visual elements continues to get both easier and more powerful all the time; the global reach of the Internet makes it easy to send images almost instantly; and more Internet users have high-speed connections that can handle the larger computer files that visuals tend to require. Design and production tasks that used to take days can now be completed in hours or even minutes. As technologies such as wireless networking continue to advance, business communicators will continue to reach wider audiences in less time, using equipment that

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costs less and requires fewer skills. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 363; TYPE: concept 98. What are the “five Cs” to consider when you’re deciding which points to illustrate with visuals?

ANSWER: (1) Clear: The human mind is extremely adept at processing visual information, so if you're having difficultly conveying an idea in words, take a minute to brainstorm some visual possibilities. (2) Complete: Visuals, particularly tables, often serve to provide the supporting details for your main idea or recommendation. (3) Concise: If a particular section of your message seems to require extension description or explanation, see whether there's a way to convey this information visually. (4) Connected: Whenever you want readers to see key connections, see whether a chart, diagram, or other illustration can help. (5) Compelling: Even if a particular point can be expressed equally well via text or visuals, consider adding the visual in order to make your report or presentation more compelling. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 370; TYPE: concept

99. One of the most common visuals in many business documents is the table. What six guidelines should you follow to make your tables easy for audiences to read?

ANSWER: (1) Use common, understandable units, and clearly identify the units you’re using, whether it's dollars, percentages, price per ton, or whatever. (2) Express all items in a column in the same unit and round off for simplicity. (3) Label column headings clearly and use a subhead if necessary. (4) Separate columns or rows with lines or extra space to make the table easy to follow; in complex tables, consider highlighting every other row of column in a pale, contrasting color. (5) Provide totals or averages of columns or rows when relevant. (6) Document the source of the data using the same format as a text footnote. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 373; TYPE: concept

100. Pie charts are common in various types of business documents. Briefly describe at least five strategies for creating effective pie charts.

ANSWER: (1) Restricting the number of slices in the pie keeps the chart from looking cluttered and makes it easier to label. Lumping the smallest pieces together in a “miscellaneous” category can also be helpful. (2) Place the largest or most important slice of the pie (the segment you want to emphasize) at the twelve o’clock position; arrange the rest clockwise either in order of size or in some other logical progression. (3) Use different colors or patterns to distinguish the various pieces. Use a brighter color to draw attention to the segment that is of the greatest interest to your readers. You can also draw an arrow to the segment, or explode it. (4) Label all the segments and indicate their value in either percentages or units of measure. (5) Make sure the segments add up to 100 percent if percentages are used or to the total number if numbers are used.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 377-78; TYPE: concept

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Chapter 13 PLANNING REPORTS AND PROPOSALS Multiple Choice 1. Despite the variety among them, many analytical reports include a a. standard opening. b. section of recommendations. c. “this is how it’s done” quality. d. standard middle section.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 394; TYPE: concept 2. The basic purpose of informational reports is a. to persuade the audience to act. b. to present recommendations and conclusions. c. to present data, facts, feedback, and other types of information, without analysis or recommendations. d. to convince the reader of the soundness of your thinking.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 394; TYPE: concept 3. The best way to phrase the purpose statement of a report is with a. complex language. b. an infinitive phrase. c. a controversial statement. d. jargon.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 396; TYPE: concept 4. Which of the following is the least clear statement of purpose? a. “The purpose of this report to determine which of four alternative investments will have the highest return.” b. “The purpose of this report is to analyze four potential investments.” c. “The purpose of this report is to answer the question, ‘Which ofprovide four the highest return?’” investments will d. “The goal of this report is to evaluate the return on four investments.”

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 396; TYPE: application

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5. Which of the following is an infinitive phrase? a. updating clients b. update clients c. updated clients d. to update clients ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 396; TYPE: application 6. A formal work plan includes all of the following except a. a statement of the problem or opportunity addressed in your report. b. a list of all the sources you will use. c. plans for following up after delivering the report. d. a statement of the purpose and scope of your investigation.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 397-98; TYPE: concept 7. Which of the following is not a typical element in a formal work plan? a. Statement of purpose b. Statement of the scope of the investigation c. Discussion of tasks to be accomplished d. Conclusions and recommendations ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 397-98; TYPE: concept 8. When selecting media for a report a. you should choose the ones that are most convenient. b. you should choose the ones that are most economical. c. your decisions should reflect your audience’s expectations. d. you should always present your report in writing.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 398; TYPE: concept 9. Delivering a business report as a word-processing file a. is usually not preferable to a printed document. b. is useful if the audience will need to search the report frequently. c. wastes time and confuses your audience. d. is rarely, if ever, necessary.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 398; TYPE: application

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10. When outlining the content of your report a. it is preferable to use informative headings as opposed to descriptive ones. b. you should use complex language for all headings. c. keep in mind that you will have to use this same outline for your final report. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 401; TYPE: concept 11. Which of the following is not a useful strategy in preparing business reports? a. Understand and meet audience expectations. b. Use the same format for reports, regardless of length. c.

Keep your report as short as possible. d. All of the above are useful strategies.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 401; TYPE: concept 12. Monitor/control reports include a. policies and procedures. b. plans, operating reports, and personal activity reports. c. solicited and unsolicited sales proposals. d. research, justification, and troubleshooting reports.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 402; TYPE: concept 13. Policy and procedure reports are used for a. documenting compliance with government regulations. b. monitoring and controlling operations. c. conveying guidelines and other organizational decisions. d. presenting and analyzing the alternative solutions to a problem.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 402; TYPE: concept 14. Compliance reports are generally required by a. parent companies. b. accounting departments. c. government agencies. d. marketing departments.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 402; TYPE: concept

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15. A public corporation filing a quarterly tax report would be providing a. a progress report. b. a compliance report. c. a justification report. d. a periodic operating report.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 402; TYPE: application 16. A contractor submitting a weekly report on work done to date would be providing the client with a. an interim progress report. b. an interim compliance report. c. a justification report. d. a periodic operating report.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 402; TYPE: application 17. Topical organization strategies for informational reports include all of the following except a. complexity. b. spatial orientation. c. importance. d. comparison.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 404; TYPE: concept 18. A report that examines the financial aspects of a proposed decision, such as acquiring another company, is known as a ________ report. a. troubleshooting b. hypothetical c. due diligence d. justification ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 407; TYPE: concept 19. A justification report a. provides the history of a problem, then presents and analyzes possible solutions. b. describes what has happened in a department or division during a particular period. c. is written after a course of action has been taken to justify what was done. d. does all of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 407; TYPE: concept

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20. Unlike a failure analysis report, a troubleshooting report is written a. before a failure occurs. b. while a failure is occurring. c. after a failure occurs. d. by management.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 407; TYPE: concept 21. Unlike proposals, justification reports a. are designed to support products, plans, or projects after they have been implemented. b. are internal as opposed to external reports. c. are always in memo format. d. do not require a great deal of supporting data.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 407; TYPE: concept 22. Problem factoring is the process of a. looking at a problem from many different angles. b. considering how to divide responsibility for a problem c. creating problems instead of solving them. d. breaking a problem down into a series of logical, connected questions.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 409; TYPE: concept 23. Reports for skeptical audiences should generally follow the ___________ approach. a. direct b. indirect c. hypothetical d. none of the above ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 410; TYPE: concept 24. Which of the following is not a common organizational format for analytical reports? a. Focusing on conclusions b. Focusing on recommendations c. Focusing on information d. Focusing on logical argument ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 410; TYPE: concept

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25. One potential drawback of focusing on conclusions in a report is that you may a. reveal information you know about that has not been included in the report. b. make everything you say seem too simple. c. offend your audience. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 410; TYPE: concept 26. A report focused on recommendations should a. first establish or verify the need for action. b. not include conclusions. c. avoid mentioning any potential risks. d. outline costs, but not in detail.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 411; TYPE: concept 27. Any risks involved with your recommendations should a. not be addressed since they may discourage your audience. b. be discussed in your report, but only in vague, general terms. c. be addressed clearly in your report. d. be outlined before you reveal the benefits that can be achieved.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 411; TYPE: concept 28. Unlike those focused on conclusions or recommendations, reports focusing on logical arguments a. use the indirect approach. b. are not very convincing. c. emphasize the positive. d. do not include outside evidence.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 411-12; TYPE: concept 29. Which of the following is not a strategy for structuring reports focused on logical arguments? a. 2+2 approach b. Direct approach c. Yardstick method d. All of the above are acceptable strategies.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 411-12; TYPE: concept

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30. The 2+2 approach a. generally works only with lengthy, nonroutine reports. b. is the first strategy to try when writing reports that include recommendations. c. is far more complicated than any other organizational strategy. d. is the only approach that is appropriate for any business report.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 412; TYPE: concept 31. Because of its natural feel and versatility, the __________ approach is generally the most persuasive way to develop an analytical report for skeptical readers. a. 2+2 b. yardstick c. direct d. none of the above ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 412; TYPE: concept 32. One drawback of using the yardstick approach to structure business reports is that a. you must discuss all the alternatives, even if many of them turn out to be irrelevant and/or unproductive. b. this approach is generally considered old-fashioned. c. it forces you to ignore the fact that the problem may have multiple causes. d. it is impractical in most business settings.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 413; TYPE: concept 33. If a client requests a proposal and then provides a list of criteria the solution must meet, the ________ approach will probably be the best way to organize your report. a. 2+2 b. scientific c. direct d. yardstick ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 413; TYPE: concept

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34. Solicited proposals are generally prepared by a. companies attempting to obtain business. b. government regulatory agencies. c. companies at the request of clients who require a product or service. d. clients who wish to acquire the services of highly regarded companies.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 413-14; TYPE: concept 35. In an unsolicited proposal, the writer a. must convince readers that a problem or opportunity exists. b. analyzes the client's business in light of the competition. c. uses a style approved by the American Association of Business Writers. d. enumerates the client's options regarding such business decisions as product-line expansion.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 414-16; TYPE: concept True or False 36. An analytical report often ends by presenting a recommendation.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 394; TYPE: concept 37. For a business document to be considered a report, it must be at least six pages long.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 394; TYPE: concept 38. Internal reports are more likely to be misinterpreted than external reports.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 394; TYPE: concept 39. The statement of purpose for a report is always presented as a question.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 396; TYPE: concept 40. The statement of purpose for analytical reports will usually need to be more comprehensive than one for informational reports.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 396; TYPE: concept 41. Very few reports require a work plan.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 397; TYPE: concept

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42. When writing a work plan, it’s important to begin by developing a problem statement.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 397; TYPE: concept 43. Some work plans include a tentative or “working” outline.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 397-98; TYPE: concept 44. An executive dashboard is a customized online presentation of key report elements.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 398; TYPE: concept 45. Electronic reports are always preferable to paper reports in today’s business environments.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 398; TYPE: concept 46. The direct approach is the most popular strategy for business reports.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 399; TYPE: concept 47. Depending on your status in the organization, using the direct approach in reports can be misconstrued as arrogance.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 400; TYPE: concept 48. For long, complex reports, the indirect approach tends to be less effective than the direct approach.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 400; TYPE: concept 49. In business reports, it is never appropriate to combine the direct and indirect approaches by revealing conclusions and recommendations as you go along.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 400; TYPE: concept 50. A primary goal in preparing monitor/control reports is to emphasize the good news and hide the bad news.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 402; TYPE: concept

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51. A memo summarizing an employee’s trip to a trade show would be an example of a personal activity report.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 402; TYPE: application 52. Sales call reports are a type of compliance report.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 402; TYPE: concept 53. Operating reports establish expectations and guidelines to direct future action.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 402; TYPE: concept 54. Compliance reports, progress reports, and monitor/control reports are all types of informational reports.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 402; TYPE: concept 55. Position papers spell out lasting guidelines on company policies and procedures.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 402; TYPE: concept 56. Progress reports are never more than updates in memo or e-mail form.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 402; TYPE: concept 57. Interim progress reports to customers are rarely needed.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 402; TYPE: concept 58. For most audiences, reading material on a computer monitor is far easier than reading from the printed page.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 405; TYPE: concept 59. Reports that examine the financial aspects of a proposed decision, such as acquiring another company, are called due diligence reports.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 407; TYPE: concept 60. Whereas troubleshooting reports deal with problems as they occur, failure analysis reports seek to prevent problems before they happen.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 407; TYPE: concept

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61. A justification report is an internal report designed to persuade top management to approve a proposed investment or project.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 407; TYPE: concept 62. Managers use feasibility reports to examine the ramifications of a decision they are about to make.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 407; TYPE: concept 63. Information architecture refers to the structure and navigational flow of all parts of a website.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 406; TYPE: concept 64. Focusing on conclusions in an analytical report involves using the direct approach to organization.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 410; TYPE: concept 65. In reports focused on recommendations, it is best to avoid the direct approach.

ANSWER: F: DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 411; TYPE: concept 66. The yardstick approach is best for organizing reports when you and your audience do not agree on the criteria you’re using in your analysis.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 412; TYPE: concept 67. The primary purpose of an internal proposal is either to request funds and management support for new projects or to obtain permission to take action on specific projects.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 413; TYPE: concept 68. Proposals are classified in two ways: internal versus external, and solicited versus unsolicited.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 413; TYPE: concept 69. “RFP” stands for “ratified final proposal.”

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 413; TYPE: concept 214

70. A landscaper bidding on a job at the request of a general contractor would submit an external, unsolicited proposal.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 413; TYPE: application Fill-in-the-Blank 71. Whereas ____________________ reports focus on facts, ____________________ reports offer interpretation and can also include recommendations.

ANSWER: informational, analytical; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 394; TYPE: concept 72. The statement of ____________________ defines why you are preparing the report.

ANSWER: purpose; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 396; TYPE: concept 73. In organizing their reports, business people often combine the ____________________ and ____________________ approaches—revealing their conclusions and recommendations as they go along instead of putting them first or last.

ANSWER: direct, indirect OR indirect, direct; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 400; TYPE: concept 74. A common monitor/control report is the strategic ____________________ , used to direct organizational activities over the course of several years.

ANSWER: plan; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 402; TYPE: concept 75. All ____________________ reports are written in response to regulations of one sort or another.

ANSWER: compliance; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 402; TYPE: concept 76. A ____________________ report is written to validate a decision that has already been made.

ANSWER: justification; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 407; TYPE: concept

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77. ____________________ ____________________ reports study events that happened in the past, with the hope of learning how to avoid similar failures in the future.

ANSWER: Failure analysis; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 407; TYPE: concept 78. Breaking down a problem into a series of specific questions is called ____________________.

ANSWER: factoring; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 409; TYPE: concept 79. When you speculate about the cause of a problem, you are forming a(n) ____________________--a potential explanation that needs to be tested.

ANSWER: hypothesis; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 410; TYPE: concept 80. The ____________________ approach is often the most persuasive and efficient way to develop an analytical report for skeptical readers—it’s the approach to try first.

ANSWER: 2+2; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 412; TYPE: concept 81. With the ____________________ approach to structuring analytical reports, you begin by discussing the problem, but then you set up the conditions that must be met to solve the problem.

ANSWER: yardstick; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 412-13; TYPE: concept 82. Whereas ____________________ proposals are used to request decisions from managers within an organization, ____________________ proposals are directed to parties outside the organization.

ANSWER: internal, external; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 413; TYPE: concept 83. ____________________ proposals are initiated by a company that is trying to obtain business or funding on its own, without a specific offer from a client.

ANSWER: Unsolicited; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 413; TYPE: concept

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84. A formal invitation to bid on a contract is called a ____________________ for ____________________, or RFP. ANSWER: request, proposal(s); DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 413; TYPE: concept 85. In a(an) ____________________ proposal, the author must convince readers that a problem or opportunity exists before providing a solution or plan of action.

ANSWER: unsolicited; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 414; TYPE: concept Short Answer

86. You have been asked to help a company find ways to reduce the amount it spends on employee health and dental benefits. Write a purpose statement for the report you will produce.

ANSWER: To analyze the current costs of employee health and dental benefits and suggest ways to reduce expenses. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 396; TYPE: application 87. Briefly explain the primary function of a statement of purpose, then indicate the most useful way to phrase one.

ANSWER: A statement of purpose defines why you are preparing your report.

The best way to phrase a purpose statement is to begin with an infinitive phrase, such as “to analyze.” DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 396; TYPE: concept 88. List three common types of monitor/control reports.

ANSWER: (1) Plans, (2) operating reports, and (3) personal activity reports.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 402; TYPE: concept 89. Provide at least five examples of topical organization strategies for business reports.

ANSWER: (1) Comparison, (2) importance, (3) sequence, (4) chronology, (5) spatial orientation, (6) geography, and (7) category. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 404; TYPE: concept

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90. What is the primary difference between a feasibility report and a justification report?

ANSWER: Whereas a feasibility report studies proposed options, a justification report is written after an action, to justify what was done. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 407; TYPE: concept 91. Give three reasons that writing analytical reports presents a greater challenge than writing informational reports.

ANSWER: Analytical reports challenge (1) the quality of your reasoning— you’re doing more than just delivering information; (2) the quality of your writing—you need to present your thinking in a compelling and persuasive manner; and (3) your ability to take the responsibility that comes with persuasion.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 407-08; TYPE: concept 92. Briefly explain problem factoring.

ANSWER: Problem factoring helps report writers identify cause and effect by breaking down the defined problem into a series of logical, connected questions.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 409; TYPE: concept 93. List the three most common strategies for structuring analytical reports.

ANSWER: (1) Focusing on conclusions (direct), (2) focusing on recommendations (direct). 3) focusing on logical argument (indirect).

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 410; TYPE: concept 94. Briefly describe the circumstances in which the yardstick approach would be particularly useful for organizing your proposal.

ANSWER: The yardstick approach is useful when you need to use a number of criteria to evaluate one or more possible solutions. It is also tailor-made for situations in which the audience has provided a list of criteria the solution must meet. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 412; TYPE: concept 95. Describe the general function of internal proposals.

ANSWER: Internal proposals request decisions from managers within the organization, such as proposals to buy new equipment or launch new research projects. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 413; TYPE: concept

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Essay 96. Describe the ways that analytical and informational reports differ.

ANSWER: These two types of reports differ in terms of content and aims.

Analytical reports offer information and analysis, and can also include recommendations. Informational reports present unbiased information; they do not offer analysis or recommendations. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 394; TYPE: concept 97. List and describe the seven elements that usually are part of a formal work plan.

ANSWER: (1) Statement of the problem or opportunity: This clarifies the problem you are addressing and helps you stay focused on the goal. (2) Statement of the purpose and scope of your investigation: This describes what you plan to accomplish and the boundaries of your work. It states what you will and will not cover. (3) Discussion of tasks to be accomplished: This includes the things to do, the amount of time needed for each task, the research necessary, and any constraints. (4) Description of any products that will result from your investigation: Sometimes this will consist only of the report. In other cases, there may be additional deliverables. (5) Review of the project assignments, schedules and resource requirements: Who will be responsible for what? When will tasks be completed? Who will coordinate the process? How much will it cost? (6) Plans for following up after delivering the report: Follow-up helps make sure that the information gets to the right people and shows you care about your work's effectiveness. (7) Working outline: This is an initial outline of the report you will produce. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 397-98; TYPE: concept 98. Describe several benefits and one potential drawback of organizing business reports using the direct approach.

ANSWER: The direct approach is the most popular and convenient format for business reports because it saves time and makes the report easy to follow. It produces a more forceful report, and you sound sure of yourself when you state your conclusions confidently at the outset. In some cases, however, that confidence may be misconstrued as arrogance. Depending on your relationship with your audience and on their probable reaction to your report, the indirect approach may be more appropriate. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 399-400; TYPE: concept

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99. Discuss four points to keep in mind when structuring an analytical report or proposal.

ANSWER: The first guideline is to make sure you understand and meet audience expectations. If possible, study an example of a successful report before writing a similar one. Second, be sure to select a format that’s appropriate to the task—a brief memo may be fine for a short, internal report, but a lengthy proposal will require many of the elements of a formal report. Third, keep the report as short as possible; leave out unnecessary information and irrelevant details. Fourth, “Talk” your way through your outline with descriptive headings rather than simple descriptive ones. This will help you plan more effectively and facilitate collaborative writings. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 401; TYPE: concept 100. Explain the three basic categories of analytical business reports and provide at least one example of each type.

ANSWER: The first category includes reports written to assess opportunities.

One example of this type is the market analysis report, which judges the likelihood of success for new products or sales initiatives by suggesting potential opportunities in a given market and identifying competitive threats and other risks. Due diligence reports, which examine the financial aspects of a proposed decision, are also in this category. The second category includes reports written to solve problems. Examples are troubleshooting reports (which managers assign when they need to understand why something isn’t working properly) and failure analysis reports (which study past failures in an effort to avoid similar ones in the future). The third category of analytical business reports includes reports written to support decisions. Feasibility reports are one type in this category. They are called for when managers need to explore the ramifications of a decision they’re about to make. Justification reports (written to justify decisions that have already been made) also fall into this group.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 407; TYPE: concept

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Chapter 14 WRITING REPORTS AND PROPOSALS Multiple Choice 1. To gain credibility with your audience in business reports, do all of the following except a. research all sides of your topic. b. make the report lengthy. c. avoid including irrelevant information. d. document your findings with credible sources.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 427; TYPE: concept 2. When you write in a formal style, you a. eliminate all references to I and me. b. remain businesslike and unemotional. c. use very few colorful adjectives or adverbs. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 427; TYPE: concept 3. The writing style for a report should be more formal if a. you know your readers reasonably well. b. your report is internal. c. the subject is controversial or complex. d. the report is relatively short.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 427; TYPE: concept 4. Which of the following statements is the most formal? a. The financial analysis clearly shows that buying TramCo is the best alternative. b. I think we should buy TramCo. c. In my opinion, we should consider the purchase of TramCo. d. We therefore conclude that acquiring TramCo would (based on information we have gathered) be in our company’s best interest.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 427; TYPE: application

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5. When writing business reports for outsiders (such as customers or suppliers), it is best to a. use a more formal tone than you would for an internal audience. b. use a less formal tone than you would for an internal audience. c. include personal references such as “you” and “us.” d. use a great deal of idiomatic language.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 427; TYPE: concept 6. The introduction (or opening) of a business report or proposal should always a. outline your conclusions or recommendations. b. list all the sources from which you draw information. c. provide a detailed description of your qualifications to write the report. d. tie your report to a problem or an assignment.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 428; TYPE: concept 7. The detailed proof needed to support your conclusions and recommendations should appear in the __________ of your report. a. opening b. body c. close d. appendix ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 428-29; TYPE: concept 8. The close of a report should a. emphasize the main points of the message. b. summarize reader benefits if the document suggests a change. c. refer back to all the pieces and remind readers how those pieces fit together. d. achieve all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 429; TYPE: concept 9. In the introduction, explaining the historical conditions or factors that led up to your report a. enables readers to understand how the problem, situation, or opportunity developed and what has been done so far. b. is unnecessary in internal reports. c. diminishes your credibility by wasting readers’ time. d. is necessary only in very formal reports.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 432; TYPE: concept

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10. Terms in your report that are unfamiliar to your audience should be defined in the a. introduction. b. body. c. explanatory notes. d. any of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 432; TYPE: concept 11. In the close of a report that proposes a specific course of action, you should a. provide hints on what the audience should do so you don’t sound like you’re giving orders. b. instruct your audience to contact you about what they should do next. c. make sure your readers understand exactly what’s expected of them and when it’s expected. d. any of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 433; TYPE: concept 12. If you end up with multiple conclusions, recommendations, or actions in your report, it is best to a. go back to the drawing board and cut them down to one or two, at the most. b. combine similar items to make it easy on your readers. c. number and list them. d. leave them out of the report itself and include them in an appendix.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 433; TYPE: concept 13. The writing for a proposal should a. follow the AIDA plan. b. follow the plan for good-news messages. c. avoid the “you” attitude. d. be as vague as possible.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 434; TYPE: concept 14. The introduction of a solicited proposal a. need not be as detailed as that of an unsolicited proposal. b. should refer specifically to the RFP that initiated it. c. should downplay the magnitude of the problem you’re addressing. d. is expected to be much longer than that of an unsolicited proposal.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 435; TYPE: concept

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15. Which of the following is not an element normally included in the introduction section of a proposal? a. Background/statement of the problem b. Proposed solution to the problem c. The scope of the report d. Statement of qualifications ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 435-36; TYPE: concept 16. “Delimitations” are a. market conditions that allow a company to adopt your proposal. b. employee restraints that have recently been lifted. c. the scope of your proposal. d. harsh realities that may prevent your audience from adopting your proposal.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 436; TYPE: concept 17. In the body of a proposal, the section describing the concept, product, or service you have to offer can be called a. Technical Proposal b. Research Design c. Issues for Analysis d. any of the above ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 436; TYPE: concept 18. In a proposal, the work plan a. is presented in the conclusion. b. is contractually binding. c. outlines the costs of the proposed actions. d. involves all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 437; TYPE: concept 19. Describing your organization’s qualifications in a formal proposal is a. considered arrogant and should be avoided. b. appropriate, but only in the introduction. c. an essential part of the body. d. a good idea only when your recommendations are controversial.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 437; TYPE: concept

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20. The close of a proposal should a. ask for a decision from the client. b. restate why you or your firm are the ones to perform the service in question. c. emphasize the benefits readers will realize from your solution. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 437; TYPE: concept 21. When writing content to post on the web, keep in mind that readers are generally ________ of online content. a. respectful b. receptive c. skeptical. d. none of the above ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 437; TYPE: concept 22. In a proposal to install and monitor a security system, statements such as “Our company has over 25 years of experience” should appear in what section? a. Introduction b. Body c.

Close d.

Appendix ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 437; TYPE: application 23. Including transitions and other directional aids is important a. in online reports, but not usually necessary in written ones. b. whether your report is in print or online. c. in print reports, but not in those published online. d. in any report longer than 2 pages.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 439-40; TYPE: concept 24. In an online report, headings a. should rarely be used. b. can be used to provide links to other sections of the report and other websites. c. are considered trendy and should usually be avoided. d. complicate the organization of your report by enabling readers to jump from section to section.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 440; TYPE: concept

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25. Transitional words and phrases a. tie ideas together and show how one thought is related to another. b. help overcome poor organization. c. are essential to analytical reports but unnecessary in informational reports. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 441; TYPE: concept 26. Effective transitions in a business reports a. should never be longer than a short phrase. b. may be as long as a sentence. c. may be as long as a paragraph. d. are included only between major sections—never within each section.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 441; TYPE: concept 27. Which of the following would be an effective preview in a formal report? a. Our sales in the eastern region have plummeted. b. First, let me begin by introducing our team. c. The next section discusses the advantages of advertising on the Internet. d. All of the above are effective previews.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 441-42; TYPE: application 28. When preparing review sections in a report a. always write them in narrative form, not as lists. b. use multiple review sections if the report is long and complex. c. introduce new facts and information to support the review points. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 442; TYPE: concept 29. Which of the following would be an effective review in a formal report? a. As this section has shown, our current marketing strategy is highly effective. b. The next segment illustrates potential challenges. c. Having outlined the details, I will now offer a few other points. d. All of the above are effective reviews ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 442; TYPE: concept

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30. Using templates in preparing reports a. limits your creativity and makes your report look ordinary. b. is a sign of incompetence. c. saves time by providing a format and identifying the specific sections required for the type of report you are writing. d. is costly and time-consuming.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 442; TYPE: concept 31. The primary difference between linking and embedding files in your report is that a. linked files are automatically updated, but embedded files are not. b. embedded files are automatically updated, but linked files are not. c. it is more difficult to link files than to embed them. d. embedded files must be in PDF format.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 442-43; TYPE: concept 32. In an online report regarding your region’s productivity, the best way to include a spreadsheet containing figures that are updated daily would be to a. embed the spreadsheet in your report. b. include the spreadsheet in an appendix. c. simply insert the spreadsheet using Microsoft Word. d. link the spreadsheet to your report.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 442-43; TYPE: application 33. Electronic forms a. are easy to fill out but difficult to post and distribute. b. combine boilerplate with text boxes that allow users to input new information. c. require special software to create and use. d. are all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 443; TYPE: concept 34. Saving your report in PDF format a. makes it easy to share electronically. b. drastically limits the number of people who can access it. c. will make most of the graphics impossible to read. d. should only be used as a backup measure.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 443; TYPE: concept

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35. To create an online form on which customers can type answers to questions about their dining habits, you would need to use a. Acrobat Reader. b. a scanner. c. text boxes. d. embedding software.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 443; TYPE: application True or False 36. Using words such as “I” and “we” decreases the formality of your report ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 427; TYPE: concept 37. Communicating with people within your organization usually calls for more formality than one would use in reports for customers or suppliers.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 427; TYPE: concept 38. Documenting your sources is important for reports you write in school, but it is not necessary in business reports.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 427; TYPE: concept 39. All formal business reports should include all of the following elements in the introduction: authorization, problem/purpose, scope, background, sources/methods, definitions, limitations, and report organization.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 432; TYPE: concept 40. Readers may agree with everything you say in your report but still fail to take any action unless you specify what should happen next.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 433; TYPE: concept 41. In a business report, you should not introduce new facts as part of a conclusion or recommendation.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 433; TYPE: concept 42. Combining conclusions and recommendations under one heading is not acceptable in business reports.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 433; TYPE: concept

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43. Most RFPs spell out exactly what you should cover in your report and in what order.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 434; TYPE: concept 44. In solicited proposals, you have more freedom in terms of scope and organization than you do in unsolicited proposals.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 434; TYPE: concept 45. Your writing approach for a proposal should be similar to that used for persuasive sales messages.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 434; TYPE: concept 46. The general purpose of any proposal is to get your audience members to change their minds about some important issue.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 434; TYPE: concept 47. In formal proposals, you should summarize both the problem and the solution you propose.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 435; TYPE: concept 48. If your proposal is solicited, its introduction should refer to the RFP specifically.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 435; TYPE: concept 49. Using the “you” attitude is inappropriate when writing proposals.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 435; TYPE: concept 50. In the body of a proposal, it is particularly important to avoid overselling your plan.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 436; TYPE: concept 51. When it comes to formal proposals, it is impossible to oversell your message.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 436; TYPE: concept 52. Once your proposal is accepted, you can start altering the work plan to make the schedule and costs more realistic.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 437; TYPE: concept

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53. The close of a proposal is the right place to discuss any costs associated with your recommendations.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 437; TYPE: concept 54. In formal proposals, the close should be the longest section.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 437; TYPE: concept 55. The close of a proposal is not the place to ask for a decision from the client.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 437; TYPE: concept 56. In a formal report, it is unprofessional to point out your company’s advantages over its competitors.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 437; TYPE: concept 57. In the close of a proposal, it is not necessary to emphasize reader benefits if you think they are obvious.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 437; TYPE: concept 58. If your proposal involves providing a standard, off-the-shelf item, it is not necessary in the Work Plan section to describe how you’ll accomplish what must be done.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 437; TYPE: concept 59. Statements such as “Cyberdyne has more than 25 years of experience providing effective software solutions” are inappropriate for formal proposals.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 437; TYPE: application 60. Headings and subheadings are more vital for online reports than for those distributed on paper.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 438-39; TYPE: concept 61. Providing plentiful headings and transitions is necessary only when you’re writing a report for audiences from other cultures.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 439-40; TYPE: concept

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62. In business environments, you can usually assume that most members of your audience will read your entire report.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 440; TYPE: concept 63. Using a variety of arrangements for headings makes it easy for readers to navigate your proposal.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 440-41; TYPE: concept 64. Including phrases such as “As you can see” in a business report is helpful to readers as they seek to understand the document.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 441; TYPE: application 65. In a long report, including review sections at the end of every major section block is redundant and distracting.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 442; TYPE: concept 66. Previews and reviews can be written in a sentence format or in bulleted lists, but you should never combine the two.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 442; TYPE: concept 67. Report templates often identify the specific sections required for each type of report.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 442; TYPE: concept 68. Linking a spreadsheet to your report will enable you to update the spreadsheet automatically.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 442-43; TYPE: concept 69. Electronic forms combine boilerplate text with form tools in which users can insert new text.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 443; TYPE: concept 70. Business reports should never include elements such as video clips and animation.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 443; TYPE: concept

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Fill-in-the-Blank 71. A more ____________________ tone is appropriate for longer reports, those dealing with controversial or complex information, and those that will be sent to other parts of the organization or to outsiders. ANSWER: formal; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 427; TYPE: concept 72. The introduction or opening of a business report should put the report in a broader context by tying it to a(n) ____________________ or an assignment. ANSWER: problem; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 428; TYPE: concept 73. In the ____________________ of a business report, include only enough detail to support your conclusions and recommendations.

ANSWER: body; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 433; TYPE: concept 74. The general purpose of any ____________________ is to persuade readers to do something, such as purchase goods or services, fund a project, or implement a program.

ANSWER: proposal; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 434; TYPE: concept 75. The introduction of a proposal should state the ____________________ or boundaries of the proposal—what you will and will not do. ANSWER: scope OR delimitations; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 436; TYPE: concept 76.

The ____________________ ____________________ of a proposal describes (among other things) how you’ll accomplish what must be done, when the work will begin, and when it will be completed. ANSWER: work plan; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 437; TYPE: concept 77. In online reports, headings can be used as ____________________, enabling your audience to jump from section to section, back and forth to the table of contents, and so on. ANSWER: links or hyperlinks; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 440; TYPE: concept

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78. Words or phrases that tie ideas together and show how one thought relates to another are known as __________________ and are useful for keeping readers on track as they read your report.

ANSWER: transitions; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 441; TYPE: concept 79. __________________ sections introduce important topics by helping readers get ready for new information.

ANSWER: Preview; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 441; TYPE: concept 80. Use __________________ sections after a body of material in a report to summarize the information for your readers.

ANSWER: review; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 442; TYPE: concept 81. A(n) __________________ can save time by identifying the specific sections required for the type of report you are writing.

ANSWER: template; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 442; TYPE: concept 82. A file that is __________________ to a report will get updated automatically when you or someone else updates the file.

ANSWER: linked; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 442-43; TYPE: concept 83. Files that are __________________ in a report are not connected to their original versions and will not be updated automatically.

ANSWER: embedded; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 442-43; TYPE: concept 84. __________________ __________________ such as text boxes and check boxes enable you to create forms that accommodate changing information.

ANSWER: Form tools; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 443; TYPE: concept 85. Reports and proposals saved in __________________ document format are easy to share electronically and have become a universal replacement for printed versions.

ANSWER: portable; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 443; TYPE: concept

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Short Answer 86. List three ways to increase the formality of business reports.

ANSWER: To make a report more formal, use the impersonal journalism style, eliminating all references to “you” and “I” (including “we,” “us,” and “our”). Be careful to avoid jokes, similes, and metaphors, and try to minimize the use of colorful adjectives or adverbs. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 427; TYPE: concept 87. List at least three strategies for increasing the formality of your writing in business reports.

ANSWER: (1) Avoid referring to yourself as “I” and to your readers as ”you.” (2) Do not include jokes. (3) similes, or (4) metaphors. (5) Try to minimize the use of colorful adjectives or adverbs. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 427; TYPE: concept 88. What are the three main sections of a business report?

ANSWER: The introduction (or opening), the body, and the close. DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 428; TYPE: concept 89. List three functions of the close in a business report.

ANSWER: The close of a report (1) emphasizes the main points of the message, (2) summarizes the benefits to the reader if the message proposes a change or course of action, and (3) brings all the action items together in one place and gives the details about who should do what, when, where, and how. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 429; TYPE: concept 90. If you find relevant information that does not support your line of reasoning, should you still include it in your report? Why or why not?

ANSWER: Yes, you should include it. Although you want to be as brief as possible, your readers need a minimum amount of information before they can grasp the issue being presented. Omitting relevant information or facts can bias your report.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 431; TYPE: concept 91. In a business report, what options do you have in terms of defining terms that might be unfamiliar to your audience?

ANSWER: You can define these unfamiliar terms in the introduction, in the body, in explanatory notes, or in a glossary. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 432; TYPE: concept

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92. What does it mean to “package your proposal attractively”? Why is it important to do so?

ANSWER: This phrase refers to making sure your proposal is letter perfect, inviting, and readable. It is important to do so because readers will prejudge the quality of your products or services by the proposal you submit. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 435; TYPE: concept 93. In what forms can previews and reviews be written in a business report?

ANSWER: Previews and reviews can be written in a sentence format, in bulleted lists, or in a combination of the two. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 442; TYPE: concept 94. Briefly explain the primary difference between linking and embedding files in business reports.

ANSWER: These are both strategies for combining graphics, spreadsheets, and other elements with the text of your report. The primary difference is that linked files are automatically updated, while embedded documents are not. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 442-43; TYPE: concept 95. Explain the function of “form tools” and provide at least one example of a specific situation in which they would be helpful.

ANSWER: Form tools allow you to create electronic forms that can accommodate input that is not always the same. For example, a lawn care company might use text boxes to allow employees to list the chemicals they use each week on customers’ lawns.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 443; TYPE: concept Essay

96. List and briefly explain five characteristics of effective report content.

ANSWER: The content of effective business reports is (1) accurate—it is factually correct and error-free; (2) complete—providing colleagues or supervisors with all the information they need to understand the situation, problem, or proposal and make a decision; (3) balanced--presenting all sides of the issue fairly and equitably and including all the essential information, even if some of the information doesn't support the author’s line of reasoning; (4) clear and logical—written in uncluttered sentences and logically organized with clear transitions; and (5) documented properly—giving credit to all outside sources of information on which the report draws. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 430-31; TYPE: concept

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97. Describe six strategies (in addition to using the AIDA format) for strengthening your argument in business proposals.

ANSWER: Six strategies for making proposals more effective are (1) Demonstrate your knowledge in order to convince your audience that you have the knowledge and experience to solve the problem or address the opportunity outlined in your proposal. (2) Provide concrete, quantifiable information and examples instead of vague, unsupported generalizations. Spell out your plan and give details on how the job will be done. (3) Research the competition using trade publications and the Internet to become familiar with the products, services, and prices of other companies offering similar products or services. (4) Prove that your proposal is workable and compatible with your audience’s capabilities and resources. (5) Adopt a “you” attitude, relating your product, service, or personnel to the reader’s exact needs, either as stated in the RFP for a solicited proposal or as discovered through your own investigation for an unsolicited proposal. (6) Package your proposal attractively, insuring that it is letter perfect, inviting, and readable. Readers will prejudge the quality of your products or services by the proposal you submit.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 435; TYPE: concept 98. What four topics are commonly covered in the introduction to a business proposal?

Briefly explain each one.

ANSWER: The introduction to a business proposal normally provides some background or simply a statement of the problem or opportunity. Here you review the reader’s situation and establishes a need for action and emphasize how your goals align with those of the audience. It also offers a brief description of the solution—outlining the change you propose along with your key selling points and their benefits. The introduction also describes the scope or ‘delimitations’ of the proposal, clearly defining its boundaries and explaining what you will and will not do. Finally, the introduction explains how the proposal is organized, orienting the reader to the remainder of the proposal and calling attention to the major divisions of information. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 43536; TYPE: concept 99. In a formal proposal, where does the Work Plan section normally appear, and what information does it contain? Can it be changed later?

ANSWER: The Work Plan section normally appears in the body of a formal proposal. It describes how you’ll accomplish what must be done, explains the steps you’ll take, their timing, the methods or resources you’ll use, and the person(s) responsible. It also specifies when the work will begin, how it will be divided into stages, when you will finish, and whether any follow-up is involved. If the proposal is accepted, the work plan is contractually binding, so you cannot change it later in the midst of the project.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 437; TYPE: concept

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100. List and explain the function of five important technological tools for developing effective reports and proposals. ANSWER: (1) Templates save report writers time by helping with formatting and even identifying the specific sections required for each type of report. (2) Linked and embedded documents make it easy to include graphics, spreadsheets, databases, and other elements created in a variety of software packages.

(3) Electronic forms are word processor files that combine boilerplate text—for material that doesn't change from report to report—with form tools such as text boxes and check boxes to accommodate input that does change. The completed file can then be printed, e-mailed, or posted to an intranet, like any other document. (4) The simple process of converting reports to electronic (PDF) files allows writers to share their reports quickly and economically with a widespread audience. (5) Multimedia documents combine the text of the report with video clips, animation, presentation software slides, and other elements. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 442-43; TYPE: concept

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Chapter 15 COMPLETING REPORTS AND PROPOSALS Multiple Choice 1. The three sections of a formal report include all of the following except a. prefatory parts. b. text. c. conclusions. d. supplementary parts.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 456; TYPE: concept 2. The prefatory parts of a report should a. help readers decide whether they need to read the report. b. be prepared and written before the text of the report. c. include an introduction to the report. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 456; TYPE: concept 3. Which of the following is not included in the prefatory parts of a formal report? a. Cover b. Letter of authorization c. Introduction d. Table of contents ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 456; TYPE: concept 4. What would be the best title for a formal report on your company’s proposed acquisition of Freedman's Nuts & Bolts? a. "To Acquire or Not to Acquire" b. "A Study of the Feasibility of Angstrom Hardware Inc. Acquiring the Concern Currently Operating as Freedman's Nuts & Bolts" c. "The Pros and Cons of Acquiring Freedman's Nuts & Bolts" d. "Why Angstrom Should Forget About Acquiring Freedman" ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 472; TYPE: application 5. The purpose of the title fly is to a. give the name of the company for which the report has been prepared. b. add a touch of formality to the report. c. protect the report from dirt and careless handling. d. provide a page for the reader to make notes on.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 472; TYPE: concept

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6. In addition to the title and submission date, the title page of a formal report should include information on a. the authorizer and the preparer. b. the authorizer and the recipient. c. the contents. d. the copyright.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 472; TYPE: concept 7. The letter of transmittal a. may follow the direct or indirect plan. b. has a more formal style than the report itself. c. is usually included as an appendix. d. does all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 472; TYPE: concept 8. The letter of transmittal should a. discuss the scope and methods of the project. b. highlight important sections of the report. c. thank the reader for the assignment, if appropriate. d. do all of the above ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 472-73; TYPE: concept 9. The table of contents should a. word headings as they appear in the text. b. not include any of the headings in the text. c. paraphrase the text headings. d. not include the supplementary material.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 473; TYPE: concept 10. The table of contents for a complex formal report should include a. every level of heading in the report plus all illustration and table titles. b. two tables: a high-level table that shows only major headings, followed by a detailed table that includes everything. c. everything but prefatory parts. d. everything but supplementary parts.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 473; TYPE: concept

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11. The synopsis of a formal report is a. a concise overview of the report’s most important points. b. a short summary containing subheadings and visual aids. c. usually anywhere from two to five pages. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 473; TYPE: concept 12. Executive summaries a. are shorter than a synopsis. b. give a fully developed “mini” version of the report. c. provide additional information (not covered in the report) that executives will need. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 474; TYPE: concept 13. An executive summary a. is never longer than a few paragraphs. b. may contain headings and visual aids. c. comes before the synopsis in the prefatory section of a report. d. is always included with reports longer than 10 pages.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 474; TYPE: concept 14. Shorter reports of fewer than 10 pages often

a. omit executive summaries. b. omit synopses. c. combine executive summaries and synopses with letters of transmittal. d. do any of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 475; TYPE: concept 15. Which of the following is not a typical function of the introduction to a report? a. Telling the audience what the report is about b. Explaining to readers why they should be concerned about the topic c. Outlining how the report is organized d. Documenting sources ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 475; TYPE: concept

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16. The best way to decide what to include in an introduction is to a. consult with more-experienced report writers. b. figure out what kinds of information will most help your readers follow and comprehend the report. c. put in as many standard topics as you can cover in 10 pages or less. d. do a quick survey of potential readers.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 475; TYPE: concept 17. If you have organized your report in a direct pattern, the close should a. present the conclusions and recommendations for the first time. b. be relatively long. c. be relatively brief. d. not mention a specific course of action you want the reader to take.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 475; TYPE: concept 18. The close of an action-oriented report a. consists of the report's key findings. b. is the writer's analysis of what the findings mean. c. lists any courses of action that you expect readers to take or that you will be taking yourself. d. contains the answers to the questions that led to the report.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 475; TYPE: concept 19. Materials that are related to the report but lack direct relevance are included in the a. summary. b. appendix. c. recommendations. d. notes.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 475; TYPE: concept 20. Materials in an appendix are not incorporated into the text because a. they are controversial. b. they include bad news. c. they are not directly relevant. d. they are boring.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 475; TYPE: concept

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21. All appendixes should be a. listed in the table of contents, but not mentioned in the text of the report. b. mentioned in the text of the report, but not listed in the table of contents. c. mentioned in the text of the report and listed in the table of contents. d. included in the index but not listed in the table of contents.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 475; TYPE: concept 22. The list of secondary sources at the end of a report is labeled “Works Cited” when it contains a. all the secondary sources consulted in preparing the report. b. more than ten entries. c. only those secondary works that were mentioned in the report. d. anonymous sources.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 475; TYPE: concept 23. Acknowledging sources in the body of a report a. is only necessary in school—not in business. b. unnecessarily clutters the text of your report. c. demonstrates that you have thoroughly researched your topic. d. shows that you have too much time on your hands.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 475; TYPE: concept 24. An index a. may include the names of important persons mentioned in your report,. b. lists only the names of authors cited in the report. c. is never necessary in business reports. d. involves all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 476; TYPE: concept 25. Unlike reports, most proposals a. contain many supplementary parts. b. contain few supplementary parts. c. never contain an appendix. d. are never analytical.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 476; TYPE: application

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26. Proposals addressed to potential customers and investors a. are nearly always formal. b. rarely include a copy of the RFP. c. are less formal than those addressed to internal audiences. d. are none of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 476; TYPE: concept 27. The prefatory parts of a formal proposal may include a. a letter of authorization. b. a copy of the RFP. c. an index. d. visual aids.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 476; TYPE: concept 28. A formal proposal is slightly different from a formal report in that it a. includes a letter of transmittal. b. uses only an indirect approach. c. refers specifically to the RFP. d. uses an executive summary instead of a synopsis.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 476; TYPE: concept 29. In a formal proposal, a synopsis or executive summary may be a. essential for highlighting your competitive advantage. b. useful if the proposal is fairly short. c. placed in an appendix. d. unnecessary.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 477; TYPE: concept 30. Letters of transmittal for unsolicited proposals should follow the form for a. persuasive messages. b. bad-news messages. c. good-news messages. d. routine messages.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 477; TYPE: concept

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31. The text of a proposal a. must always follow the AIDA plan. b. is usually presented in outline form. c. consists of the introduction, body, and close. d. involves all of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 478; TYPE: concept 32. The body of a proposal should a. capture the reader’s attention. b. explain the complete details of the solution. c. make whatever promises it takes to win the contract. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 478-79; TYPE: concept 33. When proofreading formal reports and proposals, you should a. go back and use the biggest words you can find to describe key concepts. b. make sure that headings in the text match headings in the table of contents. c. not worry about typos—only content. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 479; TYPE: concept 34. Proofreading reports is different from proofreading other kinds of business messages in that a. reports usually have more typographical errors. b. the visual aids in reports don’t usually need proofing. c. reports often have elements that aren’t included in other business messages. d. none of the above—reports do not differ significantly from other business messages.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 480; TYPE: concept 35. If you don’t get a response from readers of your report within a week or two of sending it out, you should a. inquire politely as to whether the report arrived or offer to answer any questions regarding its subject. b. take it as a sign that everyone agrees with what you had to say. c. assume that the report has not been read. d. demand to know why you haven’t received a response yet.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 482; TYPE: concept

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True or False 36. Most employees who must produce business reports can count on lots of help from specialists in design and production.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 455; TYPE: concept 37. The number of components a report contains varies according to the type of report you are writing.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 455; TYPE: concept 38. Most prefatory parts (such as the table of contents) should start on their own page.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 456; TYPE: concept 39. Every component of a formal report should always start on a new page.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 456; TYPE: application 40. Because they fall at the beginning of a report, the prefatory parts are usually written first.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 456; TYPE: concept 41. Covers for reports are usually blank sheets of card stock that serve to protect the contents.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 456; TYPE: concept 42. A report title always starts with “A Study of” or “A Report on.”

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 457; TYPE: application 43. It is sometimes acceptable for the title page to serve as the report cover.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 472; TYPE: concept 44. The letter of acceptance is the reply to the letter of authorization.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 472; TYPE: concept

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45. The letter of transmittal says what you would say if you were handing the report directly to someone.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 472; TYPE: application 46. The letter of transmittal should always use the indirect approach, especially if the report is an analytical one.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 472; TYPE: application 47. If a report does not have a synopsis, the letter of transmittal can be used to summarize the major findings, conclusions, and recommendations.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 474; TYPE: application 48. The table of contents should always include all levels of headings for the report.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 473; TYPE: application 49. A synopsis of a 15-page report should usually be at least two pages long.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 473; TYPE: application 50. For reports organized in the indirect pattern, you should use an informative synopsis instead of a descriptive one.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 474; TYPE: application 51. A synopsis is generally more comprehensive than an executive summary.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 474; TYPE: concept 52. Unlike a synopsis, an executive summary may contain headings and visual aids.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 474; TYPE: concept 53. Many reports, especially short ones, do not require a synopsis or executive summary.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 474; TYPE: concept 54. An introduction is never longer than a paragraph or two.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 475; TYPE: application

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55. The introduction is a good place to tell readers why they should be concerned with your topic.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 475; TYPE: application 56. Reports do not need an introduction if they have a synopsis and a letter of transmittal.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 475; TYPE: concept 57. The close of a report may be called the “Summary” or “Conclusions and Recommendations.”

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 475; TYPE: concept 58. In reports that are intended to lead to action, the recommendations section may be fairly extensive because it spells out exactly what should happen next.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 475; TYPE: concept 59. The most common supplementary parts to include in a formal report are the appendix, the bibliography, and the index.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 475; TYPE: concept 60. It’s best to make your source references as conspicuous as possible, to give credibility to your report.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 476; TYPE: application 61. An index is necessary only if your report is going to be published.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 476; TYPE: concept 62. Proposals addressed to external audiences, including potential customers and investors, are nearly always formal.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 476; TYPE: concept 63. The components of a formal proposal are entirely different from those of other formal reports.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 476; TYPE: concept

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64. Most proposals have few supplementary parts.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 476; TYPE: concept 65. A synopsis or executive summary is less useful in a formal proposal than in other types of formal reports.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 477; TYPE: concept 66. If a proposal is unsolicited, the letter of transmittal should follow the format for persuasive messages.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 477; TYPE: concept 67. The closing of a formal proposal emphasizes the benefits that readers will realize from your solution.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 479; TYPE: concept 68. When you proofread the text part of a report, you should essentially look for the same types of mistakes as you would look for in any business message.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 480; TYPE: concept 69. When checking over your visual aids, you can assume that all the data are correct at this point.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 480; TYPE: concept 70. After sending your report, you should wait at least three weeks before contacting the readers if you don’t hear from them.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 482; TYPE: concept Fill-in-the-Blank

71. The three categories of report components are ____________________ parts, ____________________ of the report, and ____________________ parts.

ANSWER: prefatory, text, supplementary; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 455; TYPE: concept

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72. The cover, title page, and table of contents are among the ____________________ parts of a formal report.

ANSWER: prefatory; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 456; TYPE: concept 73. The ____________________ ____________________ is a single sheet of paper with only the title of the report on it.

ANSWER: title fly; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 472; TYPE: concept 74. A letter of ____________________ is a written acknowledgment of the letter of authorization.

ANSWER: acceptance; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 472; TYPE: concept 75. The letter of ____________________ conveys the report to the readers.

ANSWER: transmittal; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 472; TYPE: application 76. A (An) ____________________ synopsis presents the main points of a report in the order in which they appear in the text.

ANSWER: informative; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 473; TYPE: concept 77. A (An) ____________________ synopsis simply tells what the report is about.

ANSWER: descriptive; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 473; TYPE: application 78. A (An) ____________________ ____________________ is a fully developed “mini” version of the report itself.

ANSWER: executive summary; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 473; TYPE: concept 79. The writer's analysis, logic, and interpretation of the information are usually included in the ____________________ of the report.

ANSWER: body; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 475; TYPE: concept 80. The appendix, bibliography, and index make up the ____________________ parts of a formal report.

ANSWER: supplementary; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 475; TYPE: concept

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81. A (An) ____________________ contains materials that are too lengthy or too bulky to include in the main body of a report.

ANSWER: appendix; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 475; TYPE: concept 82. A (An) ____________________ is a list of secondary sources consulted when preparing a report.

ANSWER: bibliography; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 476; TYPE: concept 83. Instead of a letter of authorization, solicited proposals contain a(n) ____________________ ____________________ ____________________ issued by the client.

ANSWER: request for proposal(s) OR RFP; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 476; TYPE: concept 84. In an unsolicited proposal, the letter of transmittal follows the pattern for ____________________ messages.

ANSWER: persuasive; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 477; TYPE: application 85. The ____________________ section is your last opportunity to urge readers to act on your proposal.

ANSWER: closing or close; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 479; TYPE: concept Short Answer

86. List at least three factors that can help you decide what parts to include in a business report.

ANSWER: (1) The type of report you are writing, (2) the length of your report, (3) what your audience expects and requires, and (4) what your organization dictates.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 455; TYPE: concept 87. What is one advantage of starting each section of your report on a separate page?

ANSWER: It helps your readers navigate the report and recognize transitions between major sections or features. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 456; TYPE: concept

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88. Describe the primary function of the letter of transmittal.

ANSWER: The letter of transmittal introduces your report to the audience. It says what you’d say if you were handing the report directly to the person who authorized it.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 472; TYPE: concept 89. When should you include a separate list of illustrations with your report?

ANSWER: You should create a separate list of illustrations if you have more than a handful of visual aids or you want to call attention to the ones you have included in your report. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 473; TYPE: concept 90. Briefly explain the difference between an informative synopsis and a descriptive synopsis.

ANSWER: Whereas an informative synopsis presents the main points of the report in the order they appear in the text, a descriptive synopsis simply tells what the report is about, using only moderately greater detail than the table of contents. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 473; TYPE: concept 91. Briefly explain the difference between a synopsis and an executive summary.

ANSWER: A synopsis (or abstract) is simply a brief overview of the report’s most important points. An executive summary is a fully developed “mini” version of the report itself. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 473-74; TYPE: concept 92. What three main parts make up the text of a report?

ANSWER: The text of a report contains (1) an opening (or introduction), (2) a body, and (3) a close. DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 474; TYPE: application 93. List at least three types of materials commonly included in appendixes.

ANSWER: Appendixes commonly include questionnaires and cover letters, sample forms, computer printouts, statistical formulas, financial statements and spreadsheets, copies of important documents, and so on. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 475; TYPE: concept

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94. Briefly explain how the components of a formal proposal often differ from those of other formal reports.

ANSWER: Formal proposals contain many of the same components as other formal reports. The difference lies mostly in the text, although a few of the prefatory parts are also different. Most proposals generally have few supplementary parts, with the exception of an occasional appendix. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 476; TYPE: concept 95. List at least three elements normally included in the body of a formal proposal.

ANSWER: (1) Complete details of the proposed solution, (2) how the job will be done, (3) how it will be broken into tasks, (4) what method will be used to do it, (5) when the work will begin and end, (6) cost of the entire project, (7) why your company is qualified.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 478-79; TYPE: concept Essay

96. Explain why it is generally best to prepare the prefatory parts of your report after you’ve written the text.

ANSWER: Although prefatory parts are placed before the text of your report, many of these parts (such as the table of contents, list of illustrations, and executive summary) are easier to do after the text has been completed because they directly reflect the contents.

Other parts (such as the cover and title page) can be prepared at almost any time.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 456; TYPE: application 97. Explain the difference between a title fly and a title page.

ANSWER: The title fly is simply a plain sheet of paper with only the title of the report on it. The title page, however, includes the title; the name, title, and address of whoever authorized the report; the name, title, and address of the person who prepared the report; and the date the report was submitted. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 472; TYPE: concept 98. What concerns should guide you when selecting an effective title for your report?

ANSWER: The title of the report needs to give readers all the information they need: the who, what, when, where, why, and how of the subject. It also needs to be reasonably concise, since long, awkward titles can intimidate your audience. One way to reduce the length of your title is to eliminate unnecessary phrases such as A Report of, A Study of, or A Survey of. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 472; TYPE: concept

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99. In a formal proposal, how do you determine the organizational approach to use in the letter of transmittal?

ANSWER: How you handle the letter of transmittal depends on whether the proposal is solicited or unsolicited. If the proposal is solicited, the transmittal letter follows the pattern for positive messages, highlighting those aspects of your proposal that may give you a competitive advantage. If the proposal is unsolicited, the transmittal letter follows the pattern for persuasive messages, since it must persuade the reader that you have something worthwhile to offer. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 477; TYPE: concept 100. List the three parts of the text of a formal proposal, then explain the primary functions of each part.

ANSWER: The text of a formal proposal contains an introduction, body, and close.

The introduction presents and summarizes the problem you intend to solve and your solution to that problem, including any benefits the reader will receive from the solution. The body will explains the complete details of the solution, how the job will be done, how it be broken into tasks, what method will be used to do it (including the required equipment, material, and personnel), when the work will begin and end, how much the entire job will cost (including a detailed breakdown), and why your company is qualified.

The close emphasizes the benefits that readers will realize from your solution, and it urges readers to act. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 478-79; TYPE: concept

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Chapter 16 DESIGNING AND DELIVERING ORAL AND ONLINE PRESENTATIONS Multiple Choice 1. Speeches and oral presentations are much like any other messages in that a. they require similar planning. b. the size of the groups to which they are delivered is similar. c. the interaction between the audience and speaker is similar. d. they deal with emotional or personal issues to a similar extent.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 498; TYPE: concept 2. When you prepare a speech or presentation, your first step involves a. analyzing the situation. b. choosing the right words. c. planning the content, length, and style of your speech or presentation. d. doing all of the above ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 498; TYPE: concept 3. The two most common purposes of business presentations are to a. analyze and synthesize. b. regulate and validate. c. inform and persuade. d. illustrate and entertain.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 499; TYPE: concept 4. One of the steps in analyzing your audience is to a. determine whether your audience is comfortable listening to the language you speak. b. remember to keep your speech or oral presentation short. c. define your purpose. d. prepare a detailed, informative outline.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 499; TYPE: concept 5. Selecting the right medium for your presentation is a. easy—you’re simply giving a speech. b. an important decision since technology offers a number of choices. c. only an issue when addressing audiences from other cultures. d. not something you need to think about early on.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 500; TYPE: concept

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6. When organizing a speech or presentation, your first step is to a. develop an outline. b. define the main idea. c. write the introduction. d. decide on the delivery style.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 500; TYPE: concept 7. The best way to clarify your main idea in a presentation is to a. provide a lengthy handout for your audience to review during your presentation. b. describe it using jargon and complicated language to emphasize its importance. c. develop a single sentence that links your subject and purpose to your audience’s frame of reference. d. allow your audience to gradually figure it out on their own.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 501; TYPE: concept 8. For business presentations, time restraints are usually a. rigid, permitting little or no flexibility. b. meaningless—audiences expect presenters to take a little more time than they’re allotted. c. imposed only on lower-level employees. d. not important if you are presenting to your colleagues.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 502; TYPE: concept 9. When using electronic slides, try to average one slide for a. each minute you speak. b. every 3 minutes you speak. c. every 7 minutes you speak. d. every 10 minutes you speak.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 502; TYPE: concept 10. The average speaker talks at a rate of about a. 50 words a minute. b. 10 double-spaced pages an hour. c. 2,000 words an hour. d. 125 to 150 words per minute.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 502; TYPE: application

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11. If you have 10 minutes or less to deliver a presentation a. speak as quickly as you possibly can. b. limit yourself to four or five main points. c. you can assume your audience is already interested. d. organize your presentation as you would a brief written message.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 502; TYPE: concept 12. Longer speeches and presentations are organized like a. reports. b. memos. c. letters. d. e-mail messages.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 502; TYPE: concept 13. When organizing a speech, use the indirect order if your purpose is to a. entertain and the audience is resistant. b. motivate and the audience is receptive. c. persuade and the audience is resistant. d. inform and the audience is receptive.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 503; TYPE: application 14. When preparing an outline for your speech, keep in mind that a. it can serve as the foundation of your speaking notes. b. you should keep each item to two- to three-word descriptions of what you will say. c. you can leave out all transitions. d. this is not the place to include “stage directions.”

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 504; TYPE: application 15. To reduce the formality of a talk a. deliver your remarks in a conversational tone. b. use a large room. c. seat the audience in rows. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 506; TYPE: application

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16. Formal speeches differ from informal ones in that a. formal speeches always include obscure, unfamiliar vocabulary. b. formal speeches are always much longer. c. formal speeches are often delivered from a stage or platform. d. all of the above are the case.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 506; TYPE: concept 17. In the introduction to your speech, it is important to a. discuss the three or four main points on your outline. b. establish credibility. c. ask for audience input. d. boast about your qualifications.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 507-08; TYPE: concept 18. As a speaker, how you go about establishing credibility depends in part on a. your relationship with the audience. b. whether or not you are a well-known expert in the subject matter. c. whether you will introduce yourself or have someone else introduce you. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 507; TYPE: concept 19. To arouse interest at the start of a speech, whether it’s serious or light, a. always start things off with a joke. b. encourage the audience to take your subject personally. c. tease the audience by not mentioning specifically what you'll be talking about. d. do none of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 508; TYPE: concept 20. “Now that we've reviewed the problem, let's take a look at some solutions” is an example of a. a poor transition. b. a good transition between major sections of a speech. c. a small link between sentences or paragraphs in a speech. d. the kind of wording that should never appear in a speech.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 509; TYPE: application

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21. To hold your audience’s attention during the body of your speech a. make at least seven or eight main points. b. include numerous abstract ideas. c. relate your subject to your audience’s needs. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 509; TYPE: concept 22. At the close of a business presentation a. audience attention tends to reach its lowest point. b. you should clearly indicate that you’re about to finish. c. you should avoid making it obvious that you’re about to finish. d. audiences resent being reminded of the presentation’s main ideas.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 510; TYPE: concept 23. When you have covered all the main points in your speech a. reinforce your theme by repeating and summarizing the three or four main supporting points. b. wrap up as quickly as possible. c. avoid using such phrases as “To sum it all up” and “In conclusion.” d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 510; TYPE: concept 24. If there is a lack of consensus among the audience at the end of your presentation, you should a. gloss over it as quickly as possible. b. make the disagreement clear and be ready to suggest a method for resolving the differences. c. identify the individuals causing the disagreement and ask them pointed questions. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 510; TYPE: application 25. If your speech or presentation requires the audience to reach a decision or take some specific action a. go directly to the question-and-answer session after you cover the main points of your speech. b. close your speech on a note of uncertainty. c. close your speech by explaining who is responsible for doing what. d. lead people to believe that the decision will be easy to carry out.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 510; TYPE: concept

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26. You should always close your speech a. on an encouraging and memorable note. b. by leaving the audience with a feeling of incompleteness, which you can resolve in the question-and-answer period. c. with something dramatic or flamboyant. d. by introducing some new ideas for the audience to think about.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 511; TYPE: application 27. Disadvantages of delivering a presentation from memory include all of the following except a. sounding stilted. b. possibly forgetting your lines. c. sounding too informal. d. all of the above are disadvantages.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 511; TYPE: concept 28. Making a presentation by reading it word-for-word is usually a bad idea unless a. your presentation is very lengthy. b. you’re delivering a technical or complex presentation. c. the presentation is humorous. d. the audience is hostile.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 511; TYPE: concept 29. Probably the most effective and easiest mode of speech delivery is a. memorization. b. reading from a prepared script. c. speaking from notes. d. impromptu speaking.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 511; TYPE: concept 30. When speaking from notes, it is best to put the notes on a. regular white typing paper. b. stiff note cards. c. brightly colored note cards. d. your PDA. ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 511; TYPE: concept

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31. Rehearsing your presentation on video will a. help you see yourself as your audience will. b. increase your nervousness. c. most likely ruin your ability to make an effective presentation. d. rob you of the confidence you need.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 512; TYPE: concept 32. When checking the location of your presentation in advance, it is important to pay attention to a. seating arrangements. b. the availability of equipment such as a laptop. c. whether the venue offers a permanent projection system. d. all of the above ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 512; TYPE: concept 33. Which of the following is not a good way to deal with speaking anxiety? a. Prepare more material than necessary. b. Concentrate on your nervousness. c. Take a few deep breaths before speaking. d. Have your first sentence memorized and on the tip of your tongue.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 513; TYPE: application 34. A question-and-answer period after a speech is a. usually unnecessary. b. helpful only if the purpose of the speech is to motivate or entertain. c. often one of the most important parts of any presentation. d. included only for small audiences.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 514; TYPE: concept 35. When your allotted time is up, you can prepare your audience for the end by a. beginning to pack your materials. b. refusing to acknowledge those who wish to speak. c. saying that you will take one more question. d. waving good-bye and leaving the podium.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 516; TYPE: application

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True or False 36. Because you can adapt to your audience while you are speaking, it’s not as important to research your audience for an oral presentation as it is for a written message.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 498; TYPE: concept 37. You will communicate more successfully with an international audience if you speak slowly and distinctly and pause frequently.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 500; TYPE: concept 38. Organizing an oral message is similar to organizing a written message.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 500; TYPE: concept 39. You should be able to summarize the main idea for a speech in a single sentence that links your subject and purpose to the audience’s frame of reference.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 501; TYPE: concept 40. Most speakers can comfortably deliver at least 200 words per minute.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 502; TYPE: concept 41. Even when you expect your audience to be skeptical, the direct approach is always best for presentations.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 502; TYPE: concept 42. If your purpose is to analyze, persuade, or collaborate, you should organize your speech around conclusions and recommendations or a logical argument.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 502-03; TYPE: concept 43. Simplicity of organization is important only if your speech is long.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 503; TYPE: concept 44. In preparing a speaking outline for your presentation, you should avoid cluttering it with complete sentences.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 504; TYPE: concept

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45. The speech outline is not an appropriate place to include notes about the visual aids.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 506; TYPE: concept 46. Your speech outline is a good place to include annotations about the tone or body language you want to use.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 506; TYPE: concept 47. In general, you should use a casual style when speaking to small groups and a formal style for large groups.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 506; TYPE: concept 48. In a formal speech, it is important to impress your audience with your extensive and even obscure vocabulary.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 506; TYPE: concept 49. The more you interact with the audience during your presentation, the less control you have.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 507; TYPE: concept 50. Of the total time you spend writing your oral presentation, you should devote only a minimal amount to writing your introduction.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 507; TYPE: concept 51. When discussing topics of profound importance to your audience, you usually don’t need to craft an attention-getting introduction to your presentation.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 507; TYPE: concept 52. If you are addressing a large audience on a controversial topic, a good way to arouse their interest is to encourage comments from the audience during the introduction of your presentation.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 507; TYPE: concept 53. If you have no working relationship with your audience, you have only a few minutes to convince them that what you have to say is worth listening to.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 507; TYPE: concept

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54. Audiences tend to decide within only a few minutes whether or not someone is worth listening to.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 507; TYPE: concept 55. Having someone else introduce you can help establish your credibility as a speaker.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 507; TYPE: concept 56. Giving your audience a preview of what you'll be talking about will reduce their interest and attention.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 508; TYPE: concept 57. The finale of an effective presentation should be carefully staged.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 511; TYPE: concept 58. Transitional words and sentences are less important in oral presentations than in written reports.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 509; TYPE: concept 59. To keep an audience's attention, try to present every point in light of the audience’s needs and values.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 509; TYPE: concept 60. The ending is the least important part of a speech.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 510; TYPE: concept 61. As you end your presentation, it is best to avoid obvious clues such as, “In conclusion” or “To sum it all up.”

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 510; TYPE: application 62. When concluding a speech, don’t bore your audience by restating points you already made in the body of the speech.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 510; TYPE: concept

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63. At the close of an action-oriented presentation, it is rude to show the audience a visual that lists the action items, deadlines, and the name of the person or team responsible.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 510; TYPE: concept 64. Even if parts of your presentation have been downbeat, it’s always best to close on a positive note.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 511; TYPE: concept 65. To make your presentation memorable, your ending should be spontaneous and impromptu.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 511; TYPE: concept 66. The best way to prepare for a business presentation is to memorize the whole thing.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 511; TYPE: concept 67. Making a presentation with the help of an outline or note cards is the most effective and easiest delivery mode.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 511; TYPE: concept 68. You should never ask to see the location for your presentation in advance, since doing so shows a lack of confidence.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 512; TYPE: concept 69. An effective way to deal with nervousness over speaking is to prepare more material than you really need.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 513; TYPE: concept 70. People who speak with lower vocal tones at a slightly faster than average rate are perceived as being more credible.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 514; TYPE: concept

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Fill-in-the-Blank 71. The purpose of most business presentations is to inform or ____________________.

ANSWER: persuade; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 499; TYPE: concept 72. Early in the planning stages of a speech, you should develop a (an) ____________________ profile.

ANSWER: audience; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 499; TYPE: concept 73. The ____________________ ____________________ of a speech is a onesentence statement that links your subject and purpose to your audience’s frame of reference.

ANSWER: main idea; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 501; TYPE: concept 74. A presentation ____________________ helps you organize your material and can serve as the foundation of your speaking notes.

ANSWER: outline; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 504; TYPE: application 75. For a large audience and an important event, your tone will generally be __________________.

ANSWER: formal; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 506; TYPE: concept 76. The ____________________ to your speech must capture the audience's attention.

ANSWER: introduction; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 507; TYPE: concept 77. At the beginning of a speech, you need to establish ___________________ with your audience by explaining your qualifications.

ANSWER: credibility; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 507; TYPE: concept 78. A good introduction gives the audience a (an) ____________________ of what’s ahead in your speech.

ANSWER: preview; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 508; TYPE: concept

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79. In the body of your presentation, it is vital to hold your audience’s ____________________.

ANSWER: attention OR interest; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 509; TYPE: concept 80. Even if parts of your presentation are downbeat, you should always try to end on a ___________________ note.

ANSWER: positive; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 511; TYPE: concept 81. The easiest and most effective delivery mode for most business presentations is speaking from ____________________.

ANSWER: notes; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 511; TYPE: concept 82. If you’re addressing an audience that doesn’t speak your language, consider using a (an ) ____________________ to put your speech into terms they can easily understand.

ANSWER: interpreter; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 512; TYPE: concept 83. You can overcome ____________________ related to public speaking by concentrating on your message and your audience, not on your fears.

ANSWER: anxiety OR nervousness; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 513; TYPE: application 84. During a presentation, take particular care to maintain eye ____________________ with your audience.

ANSWER: contact; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE:

513;

TYPE:

application 85. The ____________________ and ____________________ period following a presentation gives you a chance to build enthusiasm for your point of view, work in material that didn’t fit into the formal presentation, and obtain important feedback from your audience.

ANSWER: question, answer; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 514; TYPE: concept 266

Short Answer 86. List the four steps involved in planning an oral presentation.

ANSWER: (1) Analyze the situation. (2) Gather information. (3) Select the right medium. (4) Organize the information. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 498; TYPE: concept 87. What two steps help you define the main idea of your presentation?

ANSWER: The first step is to figure out the one message you want audience members to walk away with. Then compose a one-sentence summary that links your subject and purpose to your audience’s frame of reference.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 501; TYPE: concept 88. In a longer presentation, how does your purpose influence the way you organize your material?

ANSWER: If the purpose is to inform, use a direct approach and a structure imposed naturally by the subject (importance, sequence, etc.). If the purpose is to analyze, persuade, or collaborate, organize the material around conclusions and recommendations or around a logical argument.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 502-03; TYPE: concept 89. Briefly explain the difference between a planning outline and a speaking outline.

ANSWER: Whereas a planning outline is very detailed and includes all the points you plan to cover in your presentation, a speaking outline is much simpler and provides only the cues and reminders you need to present your material.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 506; TYPE: concept 90. What three tasks should an effective speech introduction accomplish?

ANSWER: (1) Arouse audience interest in your topic. (2) Establish your credibility. (3) Prepare the audience for what will follow. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 507; TYPE: concept 91. List two goals to achieve in the body of a business presentation.

ANSWER: (1) Make sure that the organization of your presentation is clear and (2) maintain your audience’s interest in your topic. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 509; TYPE: concept

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92. Briefly describe the three tasks that an effective closing to a presentation should accomplish.

ANSWER: (1) Restate your main points—emphasize what you want the audience to do or think. (2) Describe the next steps—explain who is responsible for doing what. (3) End on a strong note—make your final remarks encouraging and memorable. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 510-11; TYPE: concept 93. List the four delivery methods for oral presentations.

ANSWER: Memorizing, reading, speaking from notes, and impromptu speaking DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 511-12; TYPE: concept 94. Briefly explain how nervousness can actually improve the quality of your presentation.

ANSWER: Nervousness is an indication that you care about your audience, your topic, and the occasion. Such stimulation can give you the extra energy you need to make your presentation sparkle. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 512; TYPE: concept 95. List at least three guidelines for effectively handling questions following a business presentation.

ANSWER: (1) Focus on the questioner. (2) Respond appropriately—answer the question you're asked. (3) Maintain control of the situation. (4) Survive the hot seat by responding honestly and calmly to hostile questions. (5) Encourage questions—if listeners do not ask questions try to ask some yourself to get them started. (6) Conclude your presentation—when the time allotted is up, call a halt to the question-and-answer session, even if more people want to talk.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 515-16; TYPE: concept

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Essay 96. When planning a presentation, what does it mean to “analyze the situation”?

Briefly explain each of the tasks involved.

ANSWER: Analyzing the situation involves defining your purpose, developing an audience profile, and assessing the circumstances in which you will speak.

The purpose of most business presentations is to inform or to persuade, although some may involve collaboration. Developing an audience profile requires anticipating what sort of emotional state your audience is likely to be in and determining whether your audience is comfortable listening in the language you speak. Finally, assessing the circumstances of your presentation involves considering everything from the size and layout of the room to the types of equipment to which you will have access. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 499500; TYPE: concept 97. Describe the four steps to organizing a presentation effectively.

ANSWER: (1) Define the main idea—what do you want the audience to walk away with? (2) Limit your scope—tailor the material to fit the time limit. (3) Choose your approach--direct for supportive audiences and indirect for resistant audiences. (4) Prepare your outline—keep it audience-centered for maximum effectiveness. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 500-04; TYPE: concept 98. What six stages should you go through in preparing an effective outline for a presentation?

ANSWER: The first stage is to state your purpose and main idea. Doing so enables you to make sure everything you add later relates to these components of your presentation. The second stage is to organize your major points and subpoints in a manner that is logical and effective. Third, identify your introduction, body, and close. Fourth, show your connections by writing out in sentence form the transitions you plan to use to move from one part to the next.

Fifth, show your sources by preparing your bibliography carefully. Sixth, choose a title for your presentation that will let your audience know what to expect.

Coming up with a title is especially important if your speech will be publicized ahead of time or introduced by someone else. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 504-05; TYPE: concept

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99. List and briefly explain six strategies for holding your audience’s attention during a business presentation.

ANSWER: (1) Relate your subject to your audience’s needs—present every point in light of how it will affect the listeners. (2) Anticipate your audience's questions—anticipate listener questions and address them in the body of your speech. (3) Use clear, vivid language—familiar words, short sentences, and concrete examples. (4) Explain the relationship between your subject and familiar ideas--show how your subject is related to ideas that your listeners already understand. (5) Ask opinions or pause for questions or comments—this lets the audience change from listening to participating. (6) Illustrate your ideas with visual aids. Doing so will enliven your message and help your audience remember it more effectively. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 509-10; TYPE: concept 100. Give ten suggestions for becoming a more confident speaker.

ANSWER: (1) Prepare more material than necessary. Extra knowledge will reduce your anxiety. (2) Rehearse. The more familiar you are with your material, the less nervous you will be. (3) Think positively. Imagine yourself giving a polished and professional presentation. (4) Visualize your success. Use the few minutes before you start to tell yourself that you’re ready. (5) Take a few deep breaths. (6) Be ready. Have your first sentence memorized and ready to go. (7) Be comfortable. (8) Don't panic. (9) Concentrate on your message and audience. (10) Keep going. Don't stop if you make a mistake. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 513; TYPE: concept

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Chapter 17 ENHANCING PRESENTATIONS WITH SLIDES AND OTHER VISUALS Multiple Choice 1. Studies show that visual aids can improve learning by up to _____ percent. a. 50 b. 100 c. 200 d. 400 ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 524; TYPE: concept

2. An advantage of electronic presentations is a. they are relatively inexpensive to prepare and display. b. they are easy to change. c. the equipment is easy to use. d. they can be projected in full daylight.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 524; TYPE: concept 3. A disadvantage of electronic presentations is a. they can only be prepared by expert designers. b. they are difficult to store or transport. c. the equipment can be expensive. d. they cannot be customized to different audiences.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 524; TYPE: concept 4. Using electronic presentation software a. is too difficult for most speakers. b. allows you to incorporate photos, sound, video, and animation in your presentations. c. allows you to make each slide much more complicated than you would a visual for a printed report. d. does all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 524; TYPE: concept

5. When preparing electronic slides, inexperienced presenters tend to a. incorporate fewer special effects than they should. b. add too many special effects. c. become frustrated by complicated software such as Microsoft PowerPoint. d. do none of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 524; TYPE: concept

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6. The most popular type of visual aid for business presentations is a. flip charts. b. whiteboards. c. electronic slides. d. overhead transparencies.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 524; TYPE: application 7. An advantage of overhead transparencies is a. they are easy to prepare. b. they are easy to edit and change. c. they allow you to move around the room during your presentation. d. they do all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 525; TYPE: concept 8. A disadvantage of overhead transparencies is a. they are expensive to produce. b. they must be replaced if content changes. c. they must be shown in the dark. d. the projection equipment is not easily available.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 525; TYPE: concept 9. Which of the following visuals would be particularly helpful for recording ideas during a group brainstorming session? a. Flip chart b. Electronic presentation c. Screencast d. none of the above ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 525; TYPE: concept 10. Inexperienced presenters tend to use a. too few special effects on their slides. b. too many special effects on their slides. c. about the right amount of special effects on their slides. d. no special effects on their slides.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 525; TYPE: concept

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11. Chalkboards and whiteboards are particularly useful a. for small-group brainstorming sessions. b. when doing presentations for large audiences. c. for formal situations. d. for technical or scientific presentations.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 525; TYPE: application 12. When preparing text slides a. try to have a slide to go with every concept you want to convey. b. be sure to use complete sentences. c. limit each slide to one thought, concept, or idea. d. do none of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 527; TYPE: concept 13. To make your text slides more readable a. limit the content to about 40 words. b. use short bulleted phrases. c. use the active voice. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 527; TYPE: concept 14. When adapting graphs for slides a. reduce the amount of detail. b. use full numbers, such as 2008, rather than ’08. c. avoid using arrows or boldface type. d. don’t use more than eight or nine graph lines.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 528-29; TYPE: concept 15. Four important design elements to consider when creating slides include all of the following except a. choosing color. b. selecting background designs. c. writing content. d. selecting fonts and type styles.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 529-31; TYPE: concept

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16. When it comes to using color in your slides, keep in mind that a. color can increase the viewer’s willingness to read a slide by up to 80 percent. b. color tends to distract viewers, which reduces their retention of the material. c. you should use as many colors as possible to maintain viewer interest. d. your choices are not that important as long as your slides are colorful.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 530; TYPE: concept 17. In a presentation designed to excite your audience about a new product, the best colors to use would be a. blues and purples. b. greens and browns. c. reds and oranges. d. complementary colors.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 530; TYPE: application 18. If you are using yellow for your titles and text, the best background color would be a. white, if the slide is for a transparency. b. a darker shade of yellow. c. dark blue or purple. d. orange or red.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 530; TYPE: application 19. When choosing a background for your slides, the most effective approach is to a. use dark colors such as blue. b. pair complex patterns with intricate borders. c. choose a simple design. d. use all of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 530; TYPE: concept

20. When preparing a background design for slides a. you will need to consult a professional graphic artist. b. you should avoid designs dominated by busy patterns. c. any of the designs that come with your software program will do. d. none of the above are advised.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 530; TYPE: concept

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21. Your policy for using clip art in presentations should be a. not to use any clip art, ever. b. to use clip art sparingly, if at all. c. to use clip art as much as possible in those presentations that need spicing up. d. to use just those pieces that you particularly like.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 531; TYPE: concept 22. When choosing fonts and type styles for slides, be sure to a. use script fonts for emphasis. b. limit your fonts to no more than two per slide. c. avoid boldface type. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 531; TYPE: concept

23. When using thinner fonts in electronic presentations, a. use a wide variety of them, to keep the presentation interesting. b. include decorative fonts to help maintain audience interest. c. use boldface type so that letters won’t look washed out. d. use all capital letters so type will stand out.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 532; TYPE: concept 24. The “slide master” in presentation software a. allows you to save design elements so that they can be included on any new slides you add. b. can make it easier for your audience to comprehend your slides. c. helps create a consistent-looking design for your entire slide show. d. does all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 532; TYPE: concept 25. The predefined layouts in presentation software a. contain placeholders for specific slide elements such as titles and bulleted text. b. allow you to automate your slide show. c. allow you to add hyperlinks to your presentation. d. let you see an entire batch of slides at once.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 532; TYPE: concept

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26. When using builds, you should a. limit them to text; they are not appropriate for graphics. b. vary the direction, sometimes going from top to bottom and sometimes going from left to right. c. reveal information in a way that helps your audience better understand your message. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 534; TYPE: concept 27. Hyperlinks are useful in slide presentations for a. providing additional details without having to incorporate each detail into a slide. b. customizing one electronic presentation for several audiences. c. added information during question-and-answer periods. d. doing all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 534; TYPE: concept 28. During the revision stage of preparing your slide presentation, you should a. decide on the background color to use. b. decide where builds and transitions should be inserted. c. check for readability and clarity. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 537; TYPE: concept 29. The title slide of your presentation should contain a. your name. b. your department affiliation (for internal audiences). c. your company affiliation (for external audiences). d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 537; TYPE: concept 30. A title slide a. is the equivalent of a report’s title page. b. defines the topic of the presentation and informs the audience why you are speaking on the topic. c. lists the topics you plan to cover in your presentation. d. always contains the word “Introduction.”

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 537; TYPE: concept

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31. In an upcoming presentation, you plan to cover three important changes to your employees’ insurance benefits. The proper place to list this plan would be the ________ slide. a. cover b. introduction c. agenda a. none of the above ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 538; TYPE: application

32. __________ slides indicate which material has been covered and which section you are about to begin. a. Title b. Agenda c. Navigation d. none of the above ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 538; TYPE: concept

33. Which of the following would be an appropriate handout to accompany an oral presentation? a. Complex charts and diagrams b. A list of relevant websites c. Case studies d. Any of the above ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 540; TYPE: concept

34. The best way to introduce a slide is to a. show the slide, then start talking about the topic on the slide without formally introducing it. b. show the slide, then say “The next slide illustrates . . .” c. not to say anything about it before showing it. d. do so before you show it.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 541; TYPE: concept

35. Sending preview study materials prior to an online presentation a. wastes valuable time and can diminish your credibility. b. is rarely necessary. c. is particularly helpful when presenting complicated or unfamiliar material. d. teases your audience—it’s better to send the entire thing so they can view it before you actually present it.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 543; TYPE: concept

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True or False

36. Visual aids can improve learning by up to 400 percent because humans can process visuals 60,000 times faster than text.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 524; TYPE: concept 37. Speakers who use visuals are perceived as being more knowledgeable than speakers who don’t use visual aids.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 524; TYPE: concept

38. Effective visuals should take center stage during your presentation and become the focus of the audience’s attention.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 524; TYPE: concept 39. A major advantage of electronic presentations is the ability to make changes easily at the last minute.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 524; TYPE: concept 40. Major disadvantages of electronic presentations are the high cost of the display equipment and the tendency of poorly designed special effects to distract from the content of the presentation.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 524; TYPE: concept 41. Overhead transparencies are old-fashioned visual aids that are no longer used in business.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 524-25; TYPE: concept

42. Overhead transparencies are impossible to edit once you’ve printed them.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 525; TYPE: concept

43. The advantages of overhead transparencies are that they are inexpensive, easy to create, and simple to use.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 525; TYPE: concept 44. Chalkboards and whiteboards are old-fashioned and inappropriate for any serious business presentation.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 525; TYPE: concept

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45. Flip charts are particularly effective for recording ideas during group brainstorming sessions.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 525; TYPE: concept

46. The two most popular types of visual aids for oral presentations are whiteboards and flip charts.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 525; TYPE: concept

47. Screencasting software lets you show the audience everything you do on screen and is effective for demonstrating particular software programs.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 525; TYPE: concept 48. It is preferable to work on the design of an electronic presentation before concentrating on the content.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 526; TYPE: concept 49. When creating text or graphics slides, it is important to keep content and graphics as simple and readable as possible.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 526; TYPE: concept 50. Text slides should contain no more than 6 lines and no more than 6 or 7 words per line.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 527; TYPE: concept

51. When writing content for electronic slides, it is best to use passive voice whenever possible.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 527; TYPE: concept

52. Your graphic slides will be more effective if you keep the numbers to a minimum, such as showing a trend line without including all the numerical data.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 528-29; TYPE: concept 53. The colors you use for slides should reflect your personality and individual style.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 530; TYPE: concept

54. Studies have shown that as long as the content of a presentation is compelling and well organized, it will have basically the same effect whether or not it’s presented in color.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 530; TYPE: concept

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55. The best background for your slides is one with a colorful, interesting pattern that will grab the audience’s attention.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 530; TYPE: concept

56. When selecting fonts and type styles for slides, you should avoid script or decorative fonts.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 531; TYPE: concept

57. A good rule of thumb is to put all your text in 12- and 14-point type for electronic presentations.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 532; TYPE: concept

58. When it comes to using special effects in electronic presentations, the biggest challenge is overcoming the tendency to use too many of these features.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 532; TYPE: concept 59. Using transitions and builds can help prevent your audience from reading ahead during your presentation.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 534; TYPE: concept 60. Including hyperlinks in a presentation limits your ability to customize it for different audiences and situations.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 534; TYPE: concept 61. The “slide sorter view” in presentation software allows you to see a file’s batch of slides, either all at once or in significant portions.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 537; TYPE: concept 62. A “title slide” is a basic slide with just the word “Introduction” on it that serves as the first slide in your presentation.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 537; TYPE: concept

63. The title slide is similar to a report’s title page and serves as the first slide in your presentation.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 537; TYPE: concept

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64. You can use “moving blueprint slides” at several points in your presentation, but not at the end.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 538-39; TYPE: concept

65. Electronic presentations do not necessarily eliminate the need for you to provide the audience with handouts.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 540; TYPE: concept 66. You should always distribute handouts before you begin your presentation.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 540; TYPE: concept

67. When presenting slides, it is best to introduce the slide before showing it.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 541; TYPE: concept

68. One of the worst mistakes you can make when delivering a presentation is reading their slides to the audience word for word.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 541; TYPE: concept 69. Even for important presentations, any more than three practice runs is counterproductive.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 541; TYPE: concept

70. Compared to traditional presentations, those delivered online have no significant drawbacks.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 542-43; TYPE: concept Fill-in-the-Blank

71. Microsoft PowerPoint and Apple Keynote are popular software programs for creating ____________________ slides.

ANSWER: electronic OR presentation; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 524; TYPE: concept

72. A(An) ____________________ ____________________ consists of la attached at the top like a tablet.

ANSWER: flip chart; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 525; TYPE: concept

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73. To make the text on your slides more readable, write short ____________________ rather than long sentences.

ANSWER: bulleted; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 527; TYPE: concept

74. When modifying graphics for electronic slides, it is best to ____________________ amount of detail each one contains.

ANSWER: reduce OR decrease; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 528; TYPE: concept

75. For electronic presentations, it is best to use dark colors for the _________________ midrange of brightness for illustrations, and light colors for the ___________________ ANSWER: background, text; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 530; TYPE: concept

76. Software programs such as PowerPoint offer a ____________________ ____________________ feature that allows you to preset all your design choices, whi automatically applied to all new slides.

ANSWER: slide master; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 532; TYPE: concept

77. ____________________ control how one electronic slide replaces another on scre ANSWER: Transitions; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 534; TYPE: concept

78. ____________________ enable you to make elements on each slide appear one at rather than have them all show up on a slide at once.

ANSWER: Builds; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 534; TYPE: concept

79. ____________________ ____________________ are preprogramm available in PowerPoint.

ANSWER: Action buttons; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 534; TYPE: concept

80. A(An) ____________________ slide is the equivalent of a report’s cover and title pa ANSWER: title; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 537; TYPE: concept

81. ____________________ slides tell your audience where you’ve been and where yo in your presentation.

ANSWER: Navigation; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 538; TYPE: concept

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82. A(An) ____________________ blueprint slide signals that you are moving from one part of the presentation to another.

ANSWER: moving; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 538; TYPE: concept

83. ____________________ slides appear at each major section break and announce t the section you’re about to begin.

ANSWER: Bumper; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 539; TYPE: concept 84. A good way to give audiences additional information without overloading your slides is to provide ____________________ for them to take home.

ANSWER: handouts; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 540; TYPE: concept

85. ____________________ presentations allow you to communicate with a geograph diverse audience at a fraction of the cost of travel.

ANSWER: Online; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 542; TYPE: concept Short Answer

86. List at least three types of visuals commonly used in business presentations.

ANSWER: (1) Overhead transparencies, (2) electronic slides, (3) chalkboards and whiteboards, and (4) flip charts. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 524-25; TYPE: concept

87. What presentation tools are often used for group brainstorming sessions?

ANSWER: Chalkboards, whiteboards, and flip charts are all effective tools for recording points made during small-group sessions. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 525; TYPE: application 88. Describe at least two advantages of using color in business presentations.

ANSWER: Color visuals can account for 60 percent of an audience’s acceptance or rejection of an idea. It can increase willingness to read by up to 80 percent, and it can enhance learning and improve retention by more than 75 percent. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 530; TYPE: concept 89. Briefly explain whether you should use clip art in business presentations.

ANSWER: Clip art is probably the biggest troublemaker in decorative art because it is so easy to misuse. If you use it in a business presentation, do so judiciously and avoid the temptation to find a piece of clip art for every slide you show. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 531; TYPE: concept

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90. What two types of artwork can be included in the foreground of electronic slides? Briefly explain the distinction between these types.

ANSWER: This artwork can be functional or decorative. Functional artwork includes photos, technical drawings, charts, and other visual elements containing information that's part of your message. Decorative artwork simply enhances the look of your slides. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 531; TYPE: concept 91. Generally speaking, what font sizes are best for the text in an electronic presentation?

ANSWER: A good rule of thumb is to use between 24- and 36-point type, reserving the larger size for titles and the smaller size for text items.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 532; TYPE: concept 92. What is a slide master?

ANSWER: A slide master is a software feature that enables you to choose specific colors, fonts, and design elements that automatically show up on every slide in your presentation.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 532; TYPE: concept 93. Briefly explain the function builds play in electronic presentations.

ANSWER: Builds control the release of text, graphics, and other elements on individual slides.

For example, you can use them to make bullet points appear one at a time rather than having all of them appear at once. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 534; TYPE: concept 94. What is a title slide?

ANSWER: A title slide is the equivalent of a report’s cover and title page. It contains the title of your presentation, your name, your department affiliation (for internal audiences), and your company affiliation (for external audiences). It may also include the date an appropriate graphic element. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 537; TYPE: concept 95. What is the potential disadvantage of distributing handout copies of your slides before your presentation begins?

ANSWER: Distributing copies of your slides before your presentation begins allows your audience to read ahead instead of listening to you. Doing so is especially risky if your subject is a touchy one and you’ve chosen an indirect approach. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 540; TYPE: concept

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Essay 96. Describe seven strategies for writing readable content for slides. ANSWER: The first step is to limit each slide to one thought, concept, or idea. You should also limit the content to about 40 words—with no more than six lines of text containing about six or seven words per line. It is also more effective to write short bulleted phrases instead of long sentences. You should use complete sentences only when you need to share a quotation or other text word-for-word. When it comes to items in lists, make sure to state them in parallel grammatical form to facilitate quick reading. Use the active voice rather than the passive to make your slides easy to read, and include short informative titles.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 527; TYPE: concept 97. Describe the eight factors you should consider when completing slides and other visual aids. ANSWER: First, make sure that your visuals are readable. Consider questions such as, Are the font sizes large enough?

Too large? Does the font color stand out from the background? Second, look for consistency in terms of colors and designs. Third, check your visuals for simplicity.

Should some information be illustrated by a chart, diagram, or picture? Should some be eliminated or moved? Fourth, make sure the design elements you’ve used are appropriate for your audience. Fifth, make sure the visuals are clear. Is the main point of each slide obvious and easy to comprehend in five to eight seconds? Sixth, check the text of your slides for conciseness and to eliminate any grammatical errors. Seventh, make sure your slides are focused—each one should cover only one thought, concept, or idea.

It should also grab the reader’s attention in the right place and support the key points of your message. Finally, verify that each slide in your presentation is fully operational and that the animations and other special effects work as you intended. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 537; TYPE: concept 98. Explain the content and function of the three types of navigation and support slides. ANSWER: Navigation and support slides add “finish” to your presentation and provide additional information to benefit your audience. Title slides are the equivalent of a report’s cover and title page, and they present basic information about you, your organization, and your presentation. Agenda and program details slides communicate both the agenda for your presentation and any additional information that your audience might need. Navigation slides tell your audience where you’re going and where you’ve been in the presentation. They include moving blueprint slides, which show what material has been covered and which section you are about to begin. Another example is the bumper slide, which appears at each major section break and announces the title of the section you’re about to begin. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 537-39; TYPE: concept

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99. Explain five types of materials that are often best presented on handouts.

ANSWER: Materials that are best presented on handouts include: (1) Complex charts and diagrams. These can be overwhelming if you include them in the presentation, so presenters commonly use stripped down versions in their presentation slides and provide more detailed versions in a handout. (2) Articles and technical papers that supplement information in your presentation—providing these as a handout allows you to highlight material from them during your presentation. (3) Case studies. Be sure to include references and contact information with these. (4) Websites related to your topic. It’s best to annotate each of these in a handout, providing a one- or two-sentence summary of each site’s content. (5) Copies of presentation slides. Audiences often like to have small print versions of a presenter’s slides, complete with the speaker’s comments and blank lines for note taking. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 540; TYPE: concept 100. Describe at least seven guidelines to follow in order to overcome the unique challenges of online presentations.

ANSWER: First, consider sending preview study materials ahead of time. Doing so will enable your audience to familiarize themselves with vital background information prior to viewing your presentation. Second, keep your content—and your presentation of it—as simple as possible by (for example) breaking complicated slides down into multiple slides and keeping the direction of your discussion clear throughout. Third, ask for feedback frequently. Since online presentations cut down on the amount of visual feedback you receive from your audience, it’s important to draw out feedback as you go. Fourth, consider the viewing experience from the audience’s side—will the visuals be as clear to your audience and as easy to access as they are for you? Fifth, improve any sections of your presentation that might be slow or difficult. Don’t ignore all the everyday distractions your audience will have to deal with as they view your presentation. Sixth, make sure your audience can receive the sort of content you intend to use. Software discrepancies and corporate firewalls may make parts of your presentation impossible for your audience to see.

Seventh, allow plenty of time for everyone to get connected and familiar with the screen they’re viewing. Allow for plenty of extra time to ensure that everyone is connected at the beginning of your presentation. Other strategies include assigning a moderator to host the event and handle the software, and engaging the audience frequently throughout your presentation. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 543; TYPE: concept

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Chapter 18 BUILDING CAREERS AND WRITING RÉSUMÉS Multiple Choice 1. Generally speaking, most employers prefer to look for job candidates a. at college job fairs. b. within their own organization or through referrals from people they trust. c. who have posted their résumés online. d. through an outside consulting firm.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 550; TYPE: concept 2. Regardless of a candidate’s work experience, the prime source of jobs in general appears to be a. personal contacts. b. online job posting services. c. college job fairs. d. all of the above equally.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 550; TYPE: application 3. Approximately ____ percent of all job openings in the U.S. are never advertised. a. 10 b. 30 c. 80 d. 90 ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 551; TYPE: concept 4. Applicant tracking systems help employers by a. charting each applicant’s progress through the hiring process. b. mapping out promising career paths for each applicant. c. sifting through the hundreds or thousands of résumés they receive each year. d. doing all of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 551; TYPE: application

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5. Major job boards such as Monster.com and CareerBuilder.com have made it a. impossible to find good jobs in a specific area. b. virtually impossible not to find a job you like. c. far easier to stand out from the crowd of other applicants. d. much more difficult to stand out from other applicants.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 551; TYPE: concept 6. The hidden job market is a. a list of jobs published only in specialized journals. b. made up of jobs available only to applicants of a certain age. c. made up of all the job openings that are never advertised. d. none of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 551; TYPE: application 7. When conducting a job search, you can use the World Wide Web to a. look for job openings. b. respond to job openings. c. research various companies. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 553; TYPE: application 8. As part of your search for employment you should a. research specific companies. b. check websites and newspapers for job openings. c. network. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 553; TYPE: application 9. The purpose of a résumé is to a. induce the reader to hire you. b. list all your skills and abilities. c. get you an interview. d. take the place of an application letter.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 556; TYPE: concept

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10. A typical recruiter devotes ___________ to each résumé before tossing it into either the “maybe” pile or the “reject” pile. a. 45 seconds b. 2 minutes c. 5 minutes d. 10 minutes ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 566; TYPE: concept 11. The primary difference between a résumé and a CV is that the CV is likely to be __________ than the résumé. a. shorter b. less formal c. more detailed d. less detailed ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 556-57; TYPE: concept 12. When it comes to functional résumés, many employers a. are suspicious of them. b. strongly prefer them to chronological résumés. c. view them as a sign of strong communication skills. d. don’t know what they are.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 558; TYPE: concept 13. The most common way to organize a résumé is a. chronologically. b. functionally. c. geographically. d. alphabetically.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 558; TYPE: application 14. The best organization for the résumé of someone with a strong employment history along a progressive career path would be a. chronological. b. functional. c. targeted. d. portfolio.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 558; TYPE: application

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15. If you are planning a career change and want to prepare a résumé emphasizing skills that qualify you for a job in your new field, the best organizational plan for your résumé would be a. chronological. b. functional. c. targeted. d. indirect.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 558; TYPE: concept 16. A type of résumé that emphasizes a candidate’s skills and accomplishments while also including a complete job history is termed a. a chronological résumé. b. a functional résumé. c. a combination résumé. d. an indirect résumé.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 559; TYPE: concept 17. Which of the following would be the most desirable wording to use on a résumé? a. “I was in charge of a staff of six employees.” b. “I supervised six employees.” c. “Was in charge of entire departmental staff.” d. “Supervised staff of six employees.”

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 563; TYPE: application 18. If you are still a student and have little work experience, your résumé should emphasize a. summer jobs you have held. b. your educational background. c. your hobbies and interests. d. volunteer work you’ve done and service organizations in which you’ve been active.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 564; TYPE: application 19. When you describe your work experience on your résumé, you should a. start with your most recent job and work back chronologically. b. describe one or two jobs in detail so that employers get an idea of your work ethic. c. list only full-time positions. d. try to come up with fancier titles for the jobs you’ve held.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 565; TYPE: application

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20. In the “Personal Data” section of your résumé, you list a. hobbies or miscellaneous experiences that are relevant to the job. b. any health problems or disabilities you have, whether or not they may affect your job performance. c. your age, marital status, race, color, religion, and national origin, which are required by law. d. any experience in the military, whether or not it has a bearing on the job.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 566; TYPE: application 21. When listing activities and achievements, you should probably avoid mentioning a. participation in athletics. b. involvement in fund-raising or community service activities. c. membership in political or religious organizations. d. speaking, writing, or tutoring experience.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 566; TYPE: application 22. In describing activities and achievements on your résumé, you should a. use mild exaggerations—everyone else does, so you’ll be at an unfair disadvantage if you don’t. b. quantify them whenever possible. c. use significant amounts of jargon and technical terms. d. leave out any awards you’ve won unless they are specifically relevant to your current career objective.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 566; TYPE: concept 23. Do not include on your résumé items that could encourage discrimination, such as a. home address. b. hobbies. c. marital status. d. military service.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 566; TYPE: concept

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24. Military service relevant to the position you’re seeking should be listed in the _____ section of your résumé. a. Education b. Work Experience c. Personal Data d. any of the above ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 566; TYPE: concept 25. Which of the following is not a common problem that employers see in résumés? a. They are too slick. b. They are amateurish. c. They are filled with misspellings and grammatical errors. d. They are too straightforward.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 567; TYPE: concept 26. To achieve the best physical appearance for your résumé, you should a. have it prepared by a professional résumé service. b. leave plenty of white space. c. use colored paper. d. use a variety of typefaces in various colors.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 567; TYPE: application 27. Using a boastful tone in your résumé a. is the only way to avoid sounding unsure of your qualifications. b. helps you stand out among other applicants. c. causes prospective employers to question your self-evaluation. d. is expected in today’s tight job market.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 567; TYPE: concept 28. The most common problem with résumé design is a. using excessive and distracting design elements. b. settling for an old-fashioned look. c. using the wrong type of paper. d. failing to include at least one graphic.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 567; TYPE: concept

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29. “OCR” stands for a. online character reference. b. optical character recognition. c. occupation criteria record. d. online chronological résumé.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 569; TYPE: concept 30. To prepare your résumé for the scanning process, you need to a. rewrite the whole thing. b. format it to be OCR-friendly. c. use a special software program. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 569; TYPE: application 31. A scannable résumé differs from a standard print résumé in that a. it includes a list of key words. b. the Work Experience section always gets listed first. c. you leave out the Education section. d. it involves all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 569; TYPE: application 32. The most common file format for uploading résumés directly to websites such as Monster.com is a. WordPerfect. b. PDF. c. Microsoft Word. d. Microsoft Publisher.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 571; TYPE: concept 33. When mailing a résumé, it is best to a. have it delivered via Priority Mail in a cardboard mailer. b. use a standard white #10 envelope. c. pay to have it delivered the next day. d. use a large kraft envelope.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 572; TYPE: application

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34. When e-mailing your résumé to a prospective employer, you should a. always send it as a Microsoft Word attachment. b. make it less formal than you would for other formats. c. insert it as plain text into the body of the message unless you are specifically asked to send it as an attachment. d. use lots of colors to make your résumé stand out.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 572; TYPE: concept 35. When posting your résumé on websites such as Monster.com, you should a. avoid including your Social Security number, student ID number, or driver’s license number. b. make your résumé longer than you would for other formats. c. use a personal, “chummy” tone. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 573; TYPE: application True or False 36. In today’s marketplace, college job fairs appear to be the prime source of jobs—regardless of an applicant’s experience.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 551; TYPE: concept 37. Major job boards such as Monster.com and CareerBuilder.com have made it more difficult for applicants to stand out from the crowd.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 551; TYPE: concept 38. Employers generally prefer to look outside the organization to fill openings rather than hire from within.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 551; TYPE: concept 39. The “hidden job market” describes the many job openings that are never advertised by employers.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 551; TYPE: concept 40. As part of your job search, it’s a good idea to stay abreast of business and financial news.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 551; TYPE: concept

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41. You can find information about job hunting on the Internet, but it’s not a good source for information on specific job openings.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 553; TYPE: concept 42. A résumé is a form of advertising designed to help you get an interview.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 556; TYPE: concept 43. The main purpose of a résumé is to list all your skills and abilities.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 556; TYPE: concept 44. A good résumé can be customized for different situations and different employers.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 556; TYPE: concept 45. Recruiters typically spend about 5 minutes to each résumé before tossing it into the “maybe” or the “reject” pile.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 556; TYPE: concept 46. All résumés should be organized chronologically.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 557; TYPE: concept 47. Most employers now prefer functional résumés to both chronological and combination résumés.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 558; TYPE: concept 48. An applicant with a criminal record should always disclose that information on his or her résumé.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 558; TYPE: concept 49. A functional résumé is organized around a list of accomplishments and focuses on the person’s areas of competence.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 558; TYPE: concept 50. When giving your background and qualifications on a résumé, you always use complete sentences.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 563; TYPE: application

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51. If you have a personal webpage or e-portfolio, you should list it on your résumé under “Contact Information.”

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 564; TYPE: concept 52. If you plan to include a career objective or summary of qualifications in your résumé, you should make it as vague as possible to keep from limiting your prospects.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 564; TYPE: concept 53. Experts agree that every résumé should include a statement of the applicant’s career objective.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 564; TYPE: concept 54. One example of an effective career objective is, “A fulfilling position that provides ample opportunity for career growth and personal satisfaction.”

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 564; TYPE: concept 55. The education section of your résumé includes any relevant seminars or workshops you have attended.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 565; TYPE: concept 56. You should always include your college GPA on your résumé.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 565; TYPE: concept 57. If you have worked in your chosen field for a year or more, your résumé deemphasizes your educational background.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 565; TYPE: concept 58. In the work experience section of your résumé, you should leave out any jobs that do not relate directly to your career objective.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 565; TYPE: concept 59. Your résumé should list past jobs in chronological order, with the first job first and the current job last.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 565; TYPE: concept 296

60. When listing work experience on a résumé, you should emphasize significant achievements in each job.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 565; TYPE: concept 61. It is inappropriate to mention community activities or volunteer work on a résumé.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 566; TYPE: concept 62. Prospective employers generally do not like résumés that are boastful.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 567; TYPE: concept 63. Not all résumés need to be limited to one page in length.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 566-67; TYPE: concept 64. To fit everything on one page, it’s okay to sacrifice white space on your résumé.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 567; TYPE: concept 65. With today’s technology, preparing a paper résumé is a waste of time.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 568; TYPE: concept 66. Virtually any font is appropriate for a scannable résumé.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 569; TYPE: concept 67. Some examples of effective keywords to include in your electronic résumé would be “works hard,” “knows foreign languages,” and “gets along well with others.”

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 569; TYPE: application 68. When it comes to sending résumés as e-mail attachments, WordPerfect is the most common format.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 571; TYPE: concept

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69. Employers are generally understanding if a candidate has only one or two typos on his or her résumé, although having more than that can decrease one’s chances of getting an interview.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 571-72; TYPE: concept 70. When posting your résumé to a website, you should always provide your home address.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 573; TYPE: concept Fill-in-the-Blank 71. ____________________is the process of making informal connections with a broad sphere of mutually beneficial business contacts.

ANSWER: Networking; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 553; TYPE: concept 72. A ____________________ is a persuasive message designed to get you an interview.

ANSWER: résumé; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 556; TYPE: concept 73. Typically, recruiters devote less than ____________________ minute(s) to each résumé before tossing it into either the “maybe” pile or the “reject” pile.

ANSWER: one; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 556; TYPE: concept 74. The most common way to organize a résumé is ____________________.

ANSWER: chronologically; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 558; TYPE: concept 75. A ____________________ résumé is organized around a list of skills and accomplishments.

ANSWER: functional; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 558; TYPE: concept 76. For a résumé, use short, crisp phrases starting with strong ____________________ verbs.

ANSWER: action; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 563; TYPE: concept

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77. The ____________________ ____________________ section of a résumé states what you wish to accomplish in your work, although experts disagree about its effectiveness.

ANSWER: Career Objective; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 564; TYPE: concept 78. One alternative to putting a Career Objective on your résumé is to include a Summary of ____________________.

ANSWER: Qualifications; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 564; TYPE: concept 79. In the ____________________ section of your résumé you list schools you’ve attended and degrees you’ve received.

ANSWER: Education; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 564-65; TYPE: concept 80. In the ____________________ ____________________ section of your résumé you list jobs you’ve had and responsibilities you’ve held on those jobs.

ANSWER: Work Experience; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 565; TYPE: concept 81. Volunteer work that demonstrates your abilities should be listed in the ____________________ and ____________________ section of your résumé.

ANSWER: Activities, Achievements; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 566; TYPE: concept 82. Résumés prepared for an electronic database should include a ____________________ summary that lists all the terms that could help match your résumé to the right openings.

ANSWER: keywords; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 569; TYPE: concept 83. to A printed, unformatted version of your résumé makes it easy for employers ____________________ it into a database.

ANSWER: scan; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 569; TYPE: concept 84. To make it easy for employers to scan your traditional paper résumé into their databases, you must convert it to ____________________ format.

ANSWER: plain-text OR ASCII; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 569; TYPE: concept

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85. When e-mailing a copy of your résumé, it is generally best to include it within the ____________________ of the message.

ANSWER: body; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 572; TYPE: concept Short Answer 86. Define the “hidden job market” and explain what it suggests about most employers’ approach to finding candidates for job openings.

ANSWER: The “hidden job market” refers to the many job openings (about 80 percent) that employers never advertise. This phenomenon suggests that employers usually prefer to look for candidates within their own organization or through referrals from people they know and trust.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 551; TYPE: concept 87. Briefly explain what information you should seek out at the very beginning of your career search.

ANSWER: You should begin by finding out where the job opportunities are, which industries are strong, which parts of the country are booming, and which specific job categories offer the best prospects for the future.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 551; TYPE: concept 88. Briefly describe four steps you can take to prepare for and successfully complete your search for employment.

ANSWER: (1) Stay abreast of business and financial news. (2) Research specific companies. (3) Network. (4) Seek career counseling. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 551-55; TYPE: concept 89. Name at least three qualities you need to convey on any résumé.

ANSWER: On any résumé, you need to show that you (1) think in terms of results, (2) know how to get things done, (3) are well rounded, (4) show signs of career progress, (5) have personal standards of excellence, (6) are flexible and willing to try new things, and (7) communicate effectively. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 557; TYPE: concept

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90. List two strategies for handling gaps in your employment history when writing a résumé.

ANSWER: (1) Mention relevant experience and education you gained during employment gaps, such as volunteer or community work. (2) If gaps are due to personal problems, offer honest but general explanations about your absences.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 557; TYPE: concept 91. Rewrite the following to make it a more active statement: “I was in charge of customer complaints and all ordering problems.”

ANSWER: Handled all customer complaints and resolved all product order discrepancies. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 564; TYPE: application 92. In addition to your name, what should be included in the Contact Information section of your résumé?

ANSWER: (1) Physical address, (2) e-mail address, (3) phone number(s), and (4) the URL of your personal webpage if you have one. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 564; TYPE: concept 93. What potential risk do some experts associate with including a Career Objective on your résumé?

ANSWER: Some experts maintain that such a statement labels you as being interested in only one thing and thus limits your possibilities as a candidate, especially if you want to be considered for a variety of openings. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 564; TYPE: concept 94. Name at least five types of information that should be excluded from all résumés in order to discourage discrimination.

ANSWER: Résumés should never include information about (1) marital or family status, (2) age, (3) race, (4) religion, (5) national origin, or (6) physical or mental disabilities. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 566; TYPE: concept 95. List at least seven of the eleven most common problems with résumés.

ANSWER: (1) Too long. (2) Too short or sketchy. (3) Hard to read. (4) Wordy.

(5) Too slick. (6) Amateurish. (7) Poorly reproduced and hard to see. (8) Misspelled words and grammatical errors. (9) Boastful. (10) Dishonest. (11) Gimmicky. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 567; TYPE: concept

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Essay 96. Describe how today’s employers generally approach the employment process.

ANSWER: Generally, employers tend to look for candidates within their own organizations or through referrals from people they know and trust. They often do not even advertise job openings. Overall, personal contacts appear to be the prime source of jobs, regardless of whether a candidate has just graduated from college or has been out of school for several years. Many employers interview college students through campus placement offices, and regularly accept unsolicited résumés to keep on file or in a database. A number of companies also use some form of automation—such as an applicant tracking system—to help them sift through the many résumés they receive. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 550-51; TYPE: concept 97. Explain the importance of networking as part of your career search, and describe how to go about finding helpful networks.

ANSWER: Networking is the process of making informal connections with a broad sphere of mutually beneficial business contacts. Research suggests that it is currently the most common way that employees find jobs. Helpful networks are available in-person and online. You can find them by reading news sites, blogs, and other online sources, by participating in student business organizations, and by visiting trade shows that cater to the industry you’re interested in.

Volunteering in social, civic, and religious organizations can also help you create a network for yourself. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 553; TYPE: concept 98. List and describe the three methods for organizing a résumé along with the advantages and disadvantages of each one.

ANSWER: (1) Chronological--lists your employment history starting with the most recent job first. Advantages: employers are familiar with it, it highlights growth and career progression, and it emphasizes continuity and stability.

Disadvantages: it draws attention to gaps in your employment history. (2) Functional--lists your skills and accomplishments. Advantages: employers can quickly see what you can do, you can emphasize earlier job experience, and deemphasize any lack of career progress or lengthy unemployment. Disadvantages: employers tend to assume that you are trying to hide something; it is harder for employers to quickly determine your employment history. (3) Combination-includes features of both chronological and functional approaches. Advantages: you can highlight both your skills and your employment history. Disadvantages: employers are somewhat unfamiliar with it, it can be repetitious and longer than other formats. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 558-59; TYPE: concept

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99. Describe the main sections or elements that are included on most résumés.

ANSWER: (1) Name and Contact Information--any information necessary to contact you including phone numbers, email addresses, etc. (2) Career Objective or Summary of Qualifications--this section is optional. Including it allows you to clearly state your desired goal and to categorize yourself. (3) Education--give your educational background, degrees earned, where you attended school, the dates attended, and the skills and abilities that you've developed in your course work. (4) Work Experience, Skills, and Accomplishments--list your jobs in chronological order with the current one first. Give the name and location of the employer as well as your title. Describe your skills and accomplishments and quantify them whenever possible. (5) Activities and Achievements--list volunteer activities that demonstrate your leadership, organization, teamwork, etc. Explain how the skills learned there are related to the job you're applying for. Note any awards you've received. (6) Personal Data--like Career Objective, this section is optional. Include information about your interests and hobbies only if they enhance the employer's understanding of why you would be the best candidate for the job. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 564-66; TYPE: concept 100. Explain how to select keywords to include on a scannable résumé.

ANSWER: Include a keyword summary consisting of words and phrases that define your skills, experiences, education, and professional affiliations. Use mostly nouns, as verbs tend to be generic rather than specific to a particular position or skill. Underline all the skills listed in ads for the types of jobs you're interested in. Use those words that match your skills and qualifications. Use words that potential employers will understand, and use abbreviations sparingly.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 569; TYPE: concept

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Chapter 19 INTERVIEWING FOR EMPLOYMENT AND FOLLOWING UP Multiple Choice 1. You’ll impress prospective employers with your application letter if you a. use a gimmicky layout. b. show that you know something about their organization. c. use a personal, “chummy” tone. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 582; TYPE: concept 2. Your cover letter should a. be specific. b. not repeat anything that you have discussed in your résumé. c. be short, upbeat, and professional. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 582-83; TYPE: concept 3. Cover letters submitted via e-mail should be a. longer than traditional cover letters. b. shorter than traditional cover letters. c. the same length as traditional cover letters. d. less formal than traditional cover letters.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 583; TYPE: concept 4. Sending an unsolicited application letter to an employer will probably a. result in your application getting more attention than it might receive if it were in response to an advertised opening. b. irritate the personnel office staff. c. mean that your letter will not get read. d. neither help nor harm your chances for an interview with the employer.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 583; TYPE: concept 5. The main difference between solicited and unsolicited application letters is in a. the length. b. the way qualifications are presented. c. the way the letter begins. d. the way the letter closes.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 583; TYPE: concept

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6. In the middle section of a job application letter, you a. present your strongest selling points in terms of their potential benefit to the organization. b. give your entire work history, in case the employer doesn’t read your résumé. c. mention any ways in which you do not meet the job qualifications but point out that you are willing to learn. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 584; TYPE: concept 7. When filling out a job application form, you should a. be as thorough and accurate as possible. b. write additional information about yourself on the back if the form doesn’t ask the right questions. c. indicate the exact salary you want. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 587; TYPE: concept 8. If your application letter and résumé fail to bring a response within a month or so, you should a. call to find out why you haven’t heard from the prospective employer. b. write a follow-up letter. c. cross this particular job possibility off your list. d. send another copy of your application letter and résumé.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 587; TYPE: concept 9. Generally speaking, the best way to connect with small businesses is a. through a campus placement office. b. through a job search website. c. to contact the company directly. d. to attend a job fair.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 588; TYPE: concept 10. Most employers interview an applicant _____ time(s) before deciding to make a job offer. a. 1 b.

2-3 c.

4-5 d.

5-6 ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 588; TYPE: concept

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11. Employers use preliminary screening interviews to a. find out as much as possible about each job candidate. b. give employment tests. c. narrow the field of applicants. d. offer jobs to the best candidates.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 589; TYPE: concept 12. During a screening interview, your best approach is to a. ask as many questions as possible. b. follow the interviewer’s lead. c. expand on your answers as much as possible so that the interviewer knows you are at ease. d. keep as low a profile as you can; this is not the time to try to differentiate yourself from other candidates.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 589; TYPE: concept 13. Your goal in the initial screening interview is to a. explain your greatest strengths in depth. b. differentiate yourself from other candidates. c. clinch the deal. d. show the interviewer that your personality fits well with the job.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 589; TYPE: concept 14. In the second round of interviews, your best approach is to a. stick to brief yes and no answers to the interview questions. b. relate your training and experience to the organization’s needs. c. inquire about salary and benefits. d. do all the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 589; TYPE: concept 15. If you are asked back for a final job interview, the interviewer will most likely be concerned with a. your previous job experience. b. selling you on the benefits of joining the organization. c. your educational background. d. checking your references.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 589; TYPE: concept

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16. Preparing for a video interview is generally a. the same as preparing for a face-to-face interview. b. not necessary. c. different from preparing for a face-to-face interview. d. virtually impossible.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 590; TYPE: concept 17. An interview in which a job candidate is criticized or provoked is a type of a. stress interview. b. structured interview. c. screening interview. d. situational interview.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 589; TYPE: concept 18. Interviews in which job candidates are asked how they would respond to various on-the-job scenarios are known as ____________ interviews. a. stress b. structured c. screening d. situational ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 590; TYPE: concept 19. In general, employers are looking for two things: proof that a candidate can handle a specific job and a. excellent references. b. high employment test scores. c. evidence that the person will fit in with the organization. d. long-term commitment to the organization.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 590; TYPE: concept 20. When it comes to drug and alcohol testing a. by law only government agencies can require it. b. more than half of all U.S. companies have in recent years required it of all applicants. c. only a few companies now require it. d. the Supreme Court has declared it unconstitutional.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 592; TYPE: concept

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21. When asking questions during a job interview, you should a. stick to neutral topics such as the weather. b. steer the discussion into areas where you can present your qualifications to peak advantage. c. stick to questions that elicit simple yes or no answers. d. put as much pressure on the interviewer as possible.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 594; TYPE: concept 22. When going in for a job interview, it’s best to take a. a list of questions to ask the interviewer. b. some kind of object to occupy your hands, such as a key ring. c. a tape recorder. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 594-95; TYPE: concept 23. The best way to counteract feelings of shyness, self-consciousness, or nervousness about job interviews is to a. identify and deal with the source of these feelings. b. use humor to mask these feelings. c. act overly confident to counteract these feelings. d. see a psychotherapist, since you obviously can’t deal with such a serious problem on your own.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 596; TYPE: concept 24. In the United States, you are more likely to have a successful interview if you a. refrain from smiling. b. maintain eye contact with the interviewer. c. avoid using hand gestures. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 597; TYPE: concept 25. When choosing the clothing you will wear for an interview, the best policy is to a. pick something that will make you stand out from the crowd. b. wear only dark colors. c. dress as you expect your interviewer to be dressed. d. dress conservatively.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 597; TYPE: concept

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26. When going to a job interview a. take along samples of your work; recruiters are impressed by tangible evidence of job-related accomplishments. b. there is no need for you to bring copies of your résumé; you can assume the interviewer already has one. c. try not to be more than five or ten minutes late. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 598; TYPE: concept 27. If you are a smoker and must go to a job interview a. ask the interviewer politely if you can smoke. b. smoke only if the interviewer smokes. c. refrain from smoking before and during the interview. d. smoke just prior to the interview to calm yourself.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 599; TYPE: concept 28. Many interviewers begin making a decision about the applicant a. within the first 20 seconds of the interview. b. during the question-and-answer stage. c. during the final minutes of the interview. d. after the candidate has left.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 600; TYPE: concept 29. The longest phase of a job interview is a. the warm-up. b. the question-and-answer stage. c. the close. d. none; all are about the same length.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 601; TYPE: concept 30. The employer should not ask you questions about a. your marital status. b. your health. c. your religion. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 601; TYPE: concept

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31. If your interviewer asks you inappropriate questions, how you answer depends mainly on a. how badly you want the job. b. what you think the interviewer will do with the information. c. how you feel about revealing the information requested. d. all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 601; TYPE: concept 32. When a job interviewer indicates the interview is coming to a close, you should a. try to prolong the interview, since the more the interviewer interacts with you, the better impression you’ll make. b. leave as quickly as possible. c. prepare to leave but try to pin down what will happen next. d. ask how you did.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 602; TYPE: concept 33. On your second or third visit to an organization, if you haven’t been told by the end of an interview whether you got the job, you should a. not bring up the topic. b. mention that you have another job offer and need to give the other company an answer by a specific date. c. ask tactfully when you can expect to learn of the decision. d. ask whether you did anything wrong during the interview.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 602; TYPE: concept 34. When you discuss salary requirements with a job recruiter, you should a. let the interviewer raise the topic first. b. say that you expect to receive a competitive compensation package. c. try to negotiate a higher salary if you are not satisfied with the offer and are in a good bargaining position. d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 602; TYPE: concept 35. Within two days after an interview, you should a. have a friend call to see whether you got the job. b. write a follow-up letter (using the format for persuasive messages) and include another copy of your résumé. c. write a short note of thanks (using the format for routine messages). d. assume that you didn’t get the job if you haven’t heard anything.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 604; TYPE: concept

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True or False 36. Unsolicited application letters are those sent in response to want ads for job openings.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 583; TYPE: concept 37. An unsolicited job application letter may get more individual attention than a solicited one.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 583; TYPE: concept 38. An application letter follows the AIDA format for persuasive messages.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 583; TYPE: concept 39. The main difference between solicited and unsolicited application letters is in the opening paragraph.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 583; TYPE: concept 40. The opening paragraph of an application letter states the reason for writing and gives the recipient a reason to keep reading.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 583; TYPE: concept 41. In the middle part of an application letter, you spell out your “selling points” and other potential benefits to your employer.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 584; TYPE: concept 42. In the final paragraph of your application letter, you should forcefully demand an interview.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 587; TYPE: concept 43. The campus placement office is the best means for getting in touch with small businesses about job openings.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 588; TYPE: concept 44. Most employers interview an applicant two or three times before deciding whether to offer a person a job.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 588; TYPE: concept

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45. Preliminary screening interviews tend to be structured, with each applicant being asked the same questions.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 589; TYPE: concept 46. A screening interview is usually used to gauge a job candidate’s personality and personal qualities.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 589; TYPE: concept 47. To distinguish yourself during a screening interview, it is best to emphasize the theme you used in developing your resume.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 589; TYPE: concept 48. An open-ended interview tends to be formal and highly structured.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 589; TYPE: concept 49. During a stress interview, you might be asked pointed questions designed to anger or unsettle you.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 589; TYPE: concept 50. You should prepare for a video interview the same way you would prepare for an in-person interview.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 590; TYPE: concept 51. The number of U.S. companies that require job applicants to undergo drug and alcohol testing appears to be increasing.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 592; TYPE: concept 52. You can prepare for a job interview by anticipating the questions that will be asked and rehearsing answers to each one.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 592; TYPE: concept 53. Some employers will want to know about your hobbies and interests.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 593; TYPE: concept

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54. Job applicants don’t ask questions during an interview; they are there to answer questions, not to ask them.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 594; TYPE: concept 55. Staging mock interviews can help you identify self-defeating nonverbal behaviors and speech mannerisms.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 597; TYPE: concept 56. Part of your preparation for job interviews is an evaluation of your vocal tone and speaking habits.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 597; TYPE: concept 57. Because a job interview is a serious situation, you should try to smile as little as possible.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 597; TYPE: concept 58. The appropriate clothing for most job interviews is something conservative and businesslike, such as a dark blue suit.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 597-98; TYPE: concept 59. It’s a good idea to take extra copies of your résumé with you to an interview, as well as a list of questions to ask and any past correspondence about the position.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 598; TYPE: concept 60. Most interviewers expect applicants to be a few minutes late for their appointment.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 599; TYPE: concept 61. Of the three stages of a job interview, the close is the most important.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 600; TYPE: concept 62. If you get off to a bad start in a job interview, you can usually turn things around with an impressive close.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 600; TYPE: concept

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63. Body language is particularly important during the warm-up phase of a job interview.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 600; TYPE: concept 64. During the question-and-answer phase of an interview, try to keep your answers short; usually just a yes or no will do.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 601; TYPE: concept 65. It is illegal for an interviewer to ask about your religious affiliation, marital status, or number of children.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 601; TYPE: concept 66. If you are asked an unlawful question during a job interview, you are legally obligated to refuse to answer.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 601; TYPE: concept 67. At the close of an interview, you can impress the interviewer with your assertiveness by pressing for an immediate decision.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 602; TYPE: concept 68. A job interviewer will expect you to raise the issue of salary.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 602; TYPE: concept 69. Once an interviewer states the salary for a job offer, you should never try to negotiate it.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 602; TYPE: concept 70. Even if you feel that you have little chance for the job, you should still send a thank-you message.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 604; TYPE: concept Fill-in-the-Blank 71. ____________________ interviews, such as those on college campuses, are a means of eliminating unqualified applicants.

ANSWER: Screening; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 589; TYPE: concept

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72. In ____________________ interviews, the interviewer controls the situation by asking a series of prepared questions in a set order.

ANSWER: structured; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 589; TYPE: concept 73. In ____________________- ____________________ interviews, the interviewer poses broad questions and encourages the applicant to talk freely.

ANSWER open-ended; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 589; TYPE: concept 74. In ____________________ interviews, several candidates are interviewed simultaneously to see how they interact.

ANSWER: group; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 589; TYPE: concept 75. In ____________________ interviews, the candidate is asked pointed questions designed to irk or unsettle him or her.

ANSWER: stress; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 589; TYPE: concept 76. In ____________________ interviews, candidates are asked how they would handle real-life work problems.

ANSWER: situational; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 590; TYPE: concept 77. In _________________ interviews, candidates are asked to describe real situations in the past and explain how they responded.

ANSWER: behavioral; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 590; TYPE: concept 78. The worst way to start any interview is to be ____________________.

ANSWER: late; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: 599; TYPE: concept 79. Inquiries about an applicant’s religious affiliation, national origin, marital status, and so on are considered to be ____________________ interview questions.

ANSWER: discriminatory OR illegal; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 601; TYPE: concept 80. Following a job interview, send a (an) ________________________________________ message even if you feel you have little chance of landing the job.

ANSWER: thank-you; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 604; TYPE: concept

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81. If you haven’t heard from an employer within two weeks after an interview, send a message of ____________________.

ANSWER: inquiry; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 604; TYPE: concept 82. If you receive a job offer but are waiting to hear from other possible employers, request a time ____________________.

ANSWER: extension; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 605; TYPE: concept 83. When you receive a job offer that you want to accept, you should reply within ____________________ days.

ANSWER: five; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 605; TYPE: concept 84. A letter declining a job offer follows the organizational model for ____________________ messages.

ANSWER: negative; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 606; TYPE: concept 85. When resigning from your current job, it is vital to give your employer at least ____________________ ____________________ notice.

ANSWER: two weeks’; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 607; TYPE: concept Short Answer

86. Briefly explain the primary differences between solicited application letters and unsolicited application letters.

ANSWER: Whereas a solicited application letter is written in response to an announced job opening, an unsolicited letter is sent to an organization that has not announced an opening. In terms of content, the main difference is in the opening paragraph, since the unsolicited letter should start with more of an attentiongetter. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 583; TYPE: concept 87. List the two functions of an application letter’s final paragraph.

ANSWER: This paragraph is designed to (1) ask the reader for a specific action and (2) facilitate a reply. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 587; TYPE: concept

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88. Explain the dual purposes of employment interviews.

ANSWER: The organization is trying to find the best person available for the job, while the applicant is trying to find the best job for his or her goals and capabilities. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 588; TYPE: concept 89. Explain what you should focus on during a selection interview.

ANSWER: You should show interest in the job, relate your skills and experience to the organization’s needs, listen attentively, ask insightful questions, and display enthusiasm. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 589; TYPE: concept 90. Briefly explain the difference between a structured interview and an openended interview.

ANSWER: In structured interviews, the employer asks a series of prepared questions in a set order. In less formal open-ended interviews, the employer asks broad questions, encouraging the applicant to talk freely. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 589; TYPE: concept 91. What six tasks do you need to complete to prepare for a successful job interview?

ANSWER: (1) Learn about the organization. (2) Think ahead about questions. (3) Bolster your confidence. (4) Polish your interview style. (5) Plan to look good.

(6) Be ready when you arrive. DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 592; TYPE: concept 92. What two essential questions do employers seek to answer about each candidate in interviews?

ANSWER: Employers seek to answer two questions: (1) Will the candidate be a good fit with the organization, and (2) can he or she handle the responsibilities of the position? DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 590; TYPE: concept 93. List at least five things that you might want to find out during a job interview.

ANSWER: (1) Are these my kind of people? (2) Can I do this work? (3) Will I enjoy the work? (4) Is this the job I want? (5) Does the job pay what I'm worth?

(6) What kind of person will I be working for? (7) What sort of future can I expect with this organization? DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 595-96; TYPE: concept

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94. In general, what three guidelines should you follow when deciding what to wear for an employment interview?

ANSWER: (1) Dress conservatively. (2)Wear the best-quality businesslike clothing you can, preferably in a dark, solid color. (3) Avoid flamboyant styles, colors, and prints even in companies where interviewers may dress casually.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 597-98; TYPE: concept 95. List at least five items to you should take to every interview.

ANSWER: (1) Small notebook, (2) pen, (3) list of the questions you want to ask, (4) at least two copies of your résumé, (5) an outline of what you have learned about the organization, (6) any past correspondence about the position.

DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: 598; TYPE: concept Essay 96. Explain the function of each phase of an application letter written in the AIDA format.

ANSWER: (1) Getting Attention: The opening paragraph of your application letter has two important jobs to do: clearly stating your reason for writing and giving the recipient a reason to keep reading. (2) Building Interest and Increasing Desire: The middle section of the application letter presents your strongest selling points in terms of their potential benefit to the organization, thereby building interest in you and creating a desire to interview you. (3) Motivating Action: The final paragraph of your application letter has two important functions: to ask the reader for a specific action and to facilitate a reply. In almost all cases, the action you request is an interview. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 583-87; TYPE: concept 97. Describe each of the three stages in a typical sequence of interviews.

ANSWER: (1) Screening stage—these interviews usually occur on campus or via phone. They are short; the focus is on screening out unqualified applicants. Try to make yourself memorable while giving short, relevant examples about your experience. (2) Selection stage—these are onsite interviews with several employees of the organization. They allow the applicant and the organization to decide if they will be a good fit for one another. (3) Final stage—this is usually an interview with a higher-level executive who can make the final decision and negotiate the terms of an offer. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 589-90; TYPE: concept

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98. Describe at least five types of employment interviews.

ANSWER: (1) Structured interviews—Generally used in the screening stage, these interviews ask a series of prepared questions in a set order. All applicants are asked the same questions, and their answers are compared. (2) Open-ended interviews—Applicants are asked a series of unstructured, open-ended questions.

These interviews are meant to bring out an applicant's personality and test professional judgment. (3) Panel interviews—During this type, several interviewers ask questions of the candidate during a single session. (4) Group interviews—To judge interpersonal skills, some employers meet with several candidates simultaneously to see how they interact. (5) Stress interviews—These interviews try to put applicants in a difficult or stressful situation and then observe how well they can handle that. (6) Video interviews—These interviews are set up via videoconferencing to save time and money. (7) Situational interviews—This is a hands-on meeting between an employer who needs a job done and a worker who must be fully prepared to do the work. Interviewers describe a situation and ask applicants how they would handle it. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 58990; TYPE: concept 99. Describe each of the three stages of a successful employment interview.

ANSWER: (1) The warm-up: This is the most important stage. Interviewers will make important decisions about you based on their first impression. Sell yourself nonverbally. Offer a firm but gentle handshake; use the interviewer's name; smile.

Let the interviewer begin the discussion. (2) The question-and-answer stage: Let the interviewer lead the conversation. Try to tailor your answers to make a favorable impression. Be sure to ask questions of your own about the job and the company. Explain how you will be able to help the company meet its needs. (3) The close: Pay attention to the interviewer’s signals that the interview is coming to a close. Thank the interviewer and express your enthusiasm for the job and the organization. DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 600-02; TYPE: concept 100. Describe at least three common employment messages that follow an interview.

ANSWER: (1) Thank-you letter: Send this type of message within two days of the interview. Acknowledge the interviewer's time and courtesy and express your continued interest in the job. (2) Message of inquiry: If you have not heard back from the company within two weeks of your interview, you should send them a letter asking to be notified about the decision. Doing so shows that you are still interested in the position. (3) Request for a time extension: If you receive an offer while still waiting to hear back from another interview, you may write to the offering company and ask for a time extension on your decision. (4) Letter of acceptance: Like the job offer itself, this message is legally binding. (5) Letter declining a job offer: The bad-news plan is ideally suited for this type of letter.

DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: 604-06; TYPE: concept

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Appendix A FORMAT AND LAYOUT OF BUSINESS DOCUMENTS Multiple Choice 1. The quality of paper is measured by a. length and width. b. weight and cotton content. c. color and texture. d. whether or not it is imprinted with the name and address of the company.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-1; TYPE: concept 2. The proper sequence for the standard parts of a letter is a. heading, date, inside address, salutation, body, complimentary close, signature block. b. date, heading, inside address, salutation, body, typewritten name, complimentary close. c. salutation, date, heading, inside address, body, complimentary close, signature block. d. inside address, heading, date, salutation, body, complimentary close, typewritten name.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-2-A-8; TYPE: concept 3. Which of the following is a salutopening? a. Dear Professor Milford: b. Dear Esteemed Professor Milford, c. Thank you, Professor Milford, d. Attention: Professor J. J. Milford ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-8; TYPE: application 4. If you include an attention line in a business letter, you should place it a. at the top of the page, centered under the letterhead. b. below the salutation. c. two lines below the complimentary close. d. on the first line of the inside address.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-8; TYPE: concept

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5. What is the correct format for reference initials? a. RSR/sm b.

RSR:sm c.

RSR:SM d. all of the above ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-10; TYPE: application 6. The letter format in which all parts begin at the left margin is called a. block. b. modified block. c. simplified. d. mixed.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-11; TYPE: concept 7. To meet the needs of U.S. Postal Service equipment, envelopes a. are never made of colored paper. b. are addressed in capital letters, with no punctuation. c. include all mailing instructions below the address area. d. adhere to all of the above guidelines.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-13; TYPE: concept 8. The top of a memo usually includes headings for a. to, from, date, subject. b. department, date, subject. c. attention, to, from, date. d. subject, to, date.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-16; TYPE: concept 9. When preparing a memo that deals with money or confidential matters, it is often a good idea to a. leave the subject line blank. b. include a complimentary close. c. use high-quality paper. d. sign it at the bottom.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-17; TYPE: concept

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10. When preparing a formal report, leave at least a a. uniform 2-inch margin on all sides. b. 2-inch margin at the top and bottom and a 1-inch margin on the sides. c. 1-inch margin on three sides and a 1-1/2-inch margin on the bound side. d. uniform 1-1/2-inch margin on all sides.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-19; TYPE: concept True or False 11. The design for letterhead stationery should be as simple as possible.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: A-1; TYPE: concept 12. In business documents, abbreviations such as U.S.A. and M.B.A. must always contain periods.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-2; TYPE: concept 13. “Sept. 10th, 2008” is the correct way to type the date in a letter.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-2; TYPE: application 14. If you are writing a business letter to someone you know well, it is acceptable to use his or her first name in the salutation.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-8; TYPE: concept 15. Three blank lines are left between the complimentary close and the sender's typed name.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-8; TYPE: concept 16. The second page of a letter includes a heading containing the name of the person or organization receiving the letter, the page number, and the date.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-9-A-10; TYPE: concept 17. In the simplified letter format, commas follow both the salutation and the complimentary close.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-11-A-12; TYPE: concept

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18. Most envelopes used in U.S. business are No. 10 (9 1/2 inches long).

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-12; TYPE: concept 19.

A memo should always contain a complimentary close and a signature.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-16-A-17; TYPE: concept 20. E-mail messages can act as memos but not as letters. ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-17; TYPE: concept

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Appendix B DOCUMENTATION OF REPORT SOURCES Multiple Choice 1. With Chicago Humanities style, you use a. the author-date system. b. the author-page number system. c. footnotes or endnotes. d. full citations within the text itself.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-21; TYPE: concept 2. The purpose of a superscript in text is to let the reader know a. to read the marked line more carefully. b. how many sources the author consulted. c. that the report is scholarly. d. to look for source information in either a footnote or an endnote.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-21; TYPE: concept 3. A content note a. offers additional information or provides a cross-reference. b. documents direct quotes. c. documents paraphrased passages. d. documents visual aids.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-21; TYPE: concept 4. With Chicago Humanities style, the Bibliography a. lists only those works actually cited in the text. b. lists works in the order in which they were cited in the text. c. can include annotations. d. does all of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-22; TYPE: concept

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5. Entries for the Bibliography for a report following the Chicago style a. alphabetize magazine articles by the name of the magazine if no author is cited. b. use quotation marks around the titles of articles from newspapers and journals. c. capitalize only the first words of titles of books and articles. d. use only the name of the principal author, followed by "et al." to represent any other authors.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: A-23; TYPE: concept 6. With the APA style, you use a. the author-date system. b. the author-page number system. c. superscripts and footnotes or endnotes. d. full citations within the text itself.

ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-24; TYPE: concept 7. When citing journal articles using the APA style a. use quotation marks around the title. b. capitalize only the first word of the title and the first word to follow an internal colon. c. you do not need to include the volume number. d. include only the first page of the article.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-24; TYPE: concept 8. When preparing the list of references following the APA style a. include all the works you consulted, even if you didn't actually cite them anywhere in the text. b. include full information on any personal communications or interviews you conducted in your research. c. use the title “References.” d. do all of the above.

ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-24-A-25; TYPE: concept 9. With the MLA style, you use a. the author-date system. b. the author-page number system. c. superscripts and footnotes or endnotes. d. full citations within the text itself.

ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-24; TYPE: concept

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10. In the List of Works Cited following the MLA style a. the date comes immediately after the author's name. b. electronic sources are not included. c. the titles of books and periodicals are put in quotation marks. d. all the main words are capitalized in the titles of books and articles.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-25; TYPE: concept True or False 11. You should always use APA style for documentation in your reports, even if your employer or client normally uses a different form.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-21; TYPE: concept 12. The Chicago style refers to the documentation style used by companies in the Chicago area.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-21; TYPE: concept 13. Footnotes and endnotes are identical; the only difference between the two is their placement.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-21; TYPE: concept 14. The only format difference between endnotes and a bibliography is that the bibliography is in alphabetical order.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-21; TYPE: concept 15. If a newspaper article doesn’t have an author, your citation begins with the title of the newspaper.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-22; TYPE: concept 16. If you use unpublished materials, such as doctoral dissertations or public speeches, as resources, you do not need to cite them in your report.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-22; TYPE: concept 17. The American Psychological Association style uses the author-date system.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-24; TYPE: concept

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18. In the APA style, titles of articles are put in quotation marks and all important words are capitalized.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-24; TYPE: concept 19. If you use the MLA style, your in-text citations include the author's last name and a page reference.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-24; TYPE: concept 20. With the MLA style, you should wait to compile the Works Cited list until the rest of your report is completed.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: A-24; TYPE: concept

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HANDBOOK OF GRAMMAR, MECHANICS, AND USAGE Multiple Choice 1. Which of the following is a demonstrative pronoun? a. He b. This c. Who d. Anyone ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: H-5; TYPE: application 2. Which of the following possessive phrases is not correct? a. A year’s recommendations b. Two years' recommendations c. Its recommendations d. It’s recommendations ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: H-6; TYPE: application 3. What is the tense of the verb in this sentence? “We had issued the policy Monday afternoon.” a. Present b. Past c. Future d. Past perfect ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: H-6; TYPE: application 4. Which of the following words is an adjective? a. too b. silent c. into d. badly ANSWER: b; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: H-8; TYPE: application 5. Which of the following is a sentence fragment? a. The bigger they are, the harder they fall. b. Put it in the mail right away. c. Come here. d. Depending on the circumstances.

ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: H-13; TYPE: application

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6. What is the problem with this sentence? “We can give him a small raise, he deserves it.” a. Comma splice b. Sentence fragment c. Dangling modifier d. Nothing ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: H-13; TYPE: application 7. Which of the following punctuation marks is used to separate a dependent clause at the beginning of a sentence from the rest of the sentence? a. Semicolon b. Colon c. Comma d. Dash ANSWER: c; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: H-15; TYPE: concept 8. Which of the following terms should not be hyphenated? a. Non-union b. Pro-Republican c. Self-assured d. Ex-wife ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: difficult; PAGE: H-17; TYPE: application 9. In the following sentence, which words should not be capitalized? “After talking with President Hilda Bruckner, he decided that the Insurance industry would provide a suitable career for someone who was a Graduate of the Department of Business at Gable University.” a. insurance, department b. president, university c. graduate, department d. insurance, graduate ANSWER: d; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: H-18-H-19; TYPE: application 10. Which of the following words is misspelled? a. accomodate b. exaggerate c. occurrence d. receive ANSWER: a; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: H-23; TYPE: application

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True or False 11. The plural of “son-in-law” is “sons-in-law,” but the possessive is “son-inlaw’s.”

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: H-3; TYPE: application 12. The pronoun “who” is in the nominative case; the pronoun “whom” is in the objective case.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: H-5; TYPE: application 13. The verb “do” is an example of a regular verb.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: H-7; TYPE: application 14. The difference between “lie” and “lay” is that “lie” is an intransitive verb and “lay” is a transitive verb.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: H-7; TYPE: application 15. Many adverbs are formed by adding “-ly” to adjectives.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: easy; PAGE: H-9; TYPE: concept 16. A linking verb is always followed by a noun, pronoun, or adjective.

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: H-14; TYPE: concept 17. A semicolon is used to separate independent clauses when the second one begins with a word such as “however” or “therefore.”

ANSWER: T; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: H-15; TYPE: application 18. You should include a comma when a date consists only of the month and year.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: H-16; TYPE: concept 19. A period goes inside quotation marks if the whole sentence is quoted but outside the quotation marks if only the last part of the sentence is a quote.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: H-17; TYPE: concept

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20. Ellipsis points consist of four to five evenly spaced periods.

ANSWER: F; DIFFICULTY: moderate; PAGE: H-18; TYPE: application

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