Biology Science for Life with Physiology, 4E Colleen Belk Test Bank.pdf

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Type:

Test Bank

Biology Science for Life with Resource: Physiology Edition:

4th Edition

Author(s):

Colleen Belk Virginia Borden Maier

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Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk) Chapter 1 Can Science Cure the Common Cold? Introduction to the Scientific Method 1) The scientific method is used to A) answer specific questions about the natural world.

B) determine absolute truth.

C) distinguish good from evil.

D) establish moral codes.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 1.1 Skill: Factual 2) A scientific hypothesis has which of the following features?

A) It is able to be proven true.

B) It is falsifiable.

C) It is a theory about something.

D) It is not based on observations.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 1.1 Skill: Factual 3) Which of the following is an appropriate scientific hypothesis?

A) Bad people catch more colds than good people.

B) Cold viruses should be allowed to reproduce just like anything else.

C) It is unethical to go to school when you have a cold.

D) People catch colds because of exposure to cold temperature.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 1.1 Skill: Applied 4) A scientific theory is A) an explanation supported by a very large amount of experimental evidence.

B) an explanation that cannot be modified in light of new experimental evidence.

C) little more than an educated guess.

D) any testable explanation for a question or problem.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 1.1 Skill: Factual

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5) Deductive reasoning is used to make ________ based on a hypothesis.

A) correlations B) data C) predictions D) statistical tests Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 1.1 Skill: Factual 6) What hypothesis was tested by Warren and Marshall during their research involving Helicobacter pylori bacteria and stomach ulcers?

A) Eating spicy food increases populations of H. pylori in the stomachs of people susceptible to ulcers.

B) The cause of many stomach ulcers is the bacterium H. pylori, not spicy food.

C) Stomach acid production is decreased by H. pylori bacteria in the stomachs of people who have ulcers.

D) Acute stomach pain is often caused by H. pylori bacteria, not ulcers.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 1.1 Skill: Conceptual 7) The germ theory was developed by microbiologists, including A) Warren and Marshall.

B) Pasteur and Koch.

C) Watson and Crick.

D) Jacob and Monad.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 1.1 Skill: Factual 8) If an inductively reasoned hypothesis makes sense, based on all available and historical observations, then A) the hypothesis must be true.

B) the hypothesis cannot possibly be true.

C) the hypothesis might be false.

D) experimentation is not necessary.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 1.1 Skill: Conceptual

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9) Why are hypotheses never accepted by scientists?

A) A hypothesis cannot ever be true or false because it is an opinion.

B) Experimentation cannot support a hypothesis because it only tests predictions.

C) Hypotheses change every time a new experiment is conducted.

D) Alternative hypotheses might provide a better answer to the research question.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 1.1 Skill: Conceptual 10) When a hypothesis is extensively tested and supported by a large number of studies conducted by many different scientists, then A) it is considered a scientific theory.

B) the hypothesis is referred to as a prediction.

C) further experimentation will not occur unless an alternative hypothesis is proposed.

D) it is a fact that cannot be refuted.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 1.1 Skill: Factual 11) Consider this hypothesis: "Drinking Echinacea tea reduces the duration and severity of colds."

Which of the following statements is the best prediction based on this hypothesis?

A) If people with a cold drink Echinacea tea, then they will feel better sooner than people who don't consume the tea.

B) If people with a cold drink Echinacea tea, then an ingredient in the tea will bind to cold viruses and destroy them.

C) If people with a cold drink Echinacea tea, then the tea will reduce their stress, making them feel better.

D) If a person doesn't drink Echinacea tea, then he or she will catch a cold very easily.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 1.1 Skill: Applied 12) Which of the following is a testable hypothesis?

A) Taking zinc lozenges at the first sign of cold symptoms is wise.

B) Avoiding contact with other people reduces the chance of catching a cold.

C) Being a good driver makes you less likely to catch a cold.

D) Sleeping eight hours a night makes you feel better when you have a cold.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 1.1 Skill: Applied

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13) Which of the following hypotheses is testable using scientific methods? A) Bees can see ultraviolet light that humans can't. B) The dinosaur Tyrannosaurus rex was a scavenger, not a predator. C) Peacocks like to display their large tail feathers. D) People with type O blood are natural meat eaters.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 1.1 Skill: Applied 14) Which of the following statements is a testable scientific hypothesis?

A) Antioxidants from food are better than antioxidants from a vitamin pill.

B) Eating fish reduces the chance of having a stroke.

C) Embryonic stem cell research will allow scientists to find a cure for diabetes.

D) Smoking makes people less attractive.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 1.1 Skill: Applied 15) Which of the following statements is the best prediction based on the hypothesis that bird species have decreased in number in a particular wetland because of construction traffic?

A) If a wetland area is disturbed by construction vehicles, then the number of bird species will decrease.

B) If construction vehicles are in a wetland, then the birds will become too frightened to reproduce.

C) If bird numbers decrease in a wetland, then construction vehicles must have affected the environment.

D) If construction vehicles enter a wetland, then new predators will enter the area and reduce the size of bird populations.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 1.1 Skill: Applied 16) Certain researchers have published peer-reviewed reports that the use of zinc lozenges reduces the length about and severity of cold symptoms. What is one reason why some scientists are still skeptical the merits of using zinc lozenges during a cold?

A) Because most people get zinc in their diet anyway, there's no reason to believe that zinc lozenges could affect a cold.

B) Previous ideas about vitamin C usage have been discredited, so there's no reason to believe new ideas about zinc lozenges.

C) There is no way of knowing if the original work was properly controlled or statistically significant.

D) There may be other reasons why the people taking zinc lozenges recovered faster, such as stress levels or differences in their immune systems.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 1.1 Skill: Applied

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17) ________ reasoning takes the form of "if/then" statements.

Answer: Deductive Diff: 1 Topic: 1.1 Skill: Factual 18) ________ reasoning is used to make a hypothesis based on previously established observations.

Answer: Inductive Diff: 1 Topic: 1.1 Skill: Factual 19) A(n) ________ (two words) is an explanation of a set of related observations based on wellsupported hypotheses from a number of different, independent lines of research.

Answer: scientific theory Diff: 1 Topic: 1.1 Skill: Factual 20) ________ reasoning is used to make predictions based on a hypothesis.

Answer: Deductive Diff: 1 Topic: 1.1 Skill: Factual 21) A researcher has hypothesized that the chemical tributyltin (an additive in boat paint) seeps out of the paint into the water and causes reproductive defects in developing marine snails. Which of the following would be a good control in an experiment that tests the effects of tributyltin on developing snails?

A) Developing snails are kept in a tank of water and exposed to below-expected levels of tributyltin.

B) Developing snails are kept in a tank of water and exposed to boat paint that does not contain tributyltin.

C) Developing snails are kept in a dry tank to avoid exposure to contaminated water.

D) Developing snails are kept in a tank of water that has never been exposed to boat paint.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 1.1 Skill: Applied

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22) Mehran has heard from some of his teammates that drinking a high protein supplement after football training will improve his muscle mass. He decides to test this hypothesis by comparing the muscle mass of teammates who drink the high protein drink with a control group who drink only water. Which of the following would be the best control for his experiment? A) randomly selected teammates who are given only small amounts of a protein drink B) randomly selected teammates in training who are given a placebo instead of a protein drink C) volunteers from the general campus population who are not given any protein drink D) volunteers from the football team who agree to take a placebo instead of a protein drink Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 1.2 Skill: Applied 23) Which of the following situations has the greatest potential for observer bias in an experimental process?

A) Dr. Jones is evaluating cancer patients for their responses to a new therapeutic drug. She knows which patients are receiving the placebo and which are receiving the drug.

B) Mr. Bromley is conducting a survey of weight loss for his professor. He asks each student in the study the same questions.

C) Ms. Bradley is an outside consultant who is conducting a health and wellness survey for a pharmaceutical company. She does not know the name of the company nor does she know the name of the drug being tested during the survey.

D) Dr. Postgate is analyzing biopsy samples from rats that have been given either a placebo or an experimental drug believed to reduce inflammation. Each sample is identified by a code number so that Dr. Postgate cannot tell which treatment the rats received.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 1.2 Skill: Applied 24) A ________ is a factor in an experiment that can be manipulated.

A) bias B) control C) placebo D) variable Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 1.2 Skill: Factual 25) Consider an experiment in which subjects are given a pill to test its effectiveness on reducing the duration of a cold. Which of the following is the best way to treat the control group?

A) Do nothing with the control group.

B) Give the control group two pills instead of one.

C) Give the control group a pill that does not affect the duration of colds.

D) Let the control group choose whether or not to take any pills.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 1.2 Skill: Applied

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26) The most effective control subjects in a test of an experimental treatment are A) a different age or gender than the experimental subjects.

B) given different doses of the experimental treatment.

C) kept well informed of what treatment they are getting.

D) treated the same as experimental subjects but not given the experimental treatment.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 1.2 Skill: Applied 27) The purpose of double-blind experiments is to A) ensure that the hypothesis is scientifically testable.

B) see if the experimental group will respond differently than the control group.

C) help the subjects in an experiment understand the treatment they are receiving.

D) minimize the effects of human bias on the results.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 1.2 Skill: Factual 28) Model organisms are used to test hypotheses A) that are likely to apply only to the model organism.

B) that are potentially too dangerous to perform on human subjects.

C) only after human subjects have been tested.

D) that have results that are always applicable to humans.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 1.2 Skill: Factual 29) It has been observed that people with relatively high stress levels get a relatively high number of colds. This is an example of a(n) A) correlation.

B) experiment.

C) variable.

D) hypothesis.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 1.2 Skill: Applied 30) There is a strong correlation between stress and susceptibility to colds. This means that A) stress must directly cause susceptibility to colds.

B) a high susceptibility to colds must directly cause stress.

C) people with high stress must come into contact with more cold viruses.

D) stress might or might not affect susceptibility to colds.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 1.2 Skill: Applied 7 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

31) An experiment is called double-blind when A) the hypothesis being tested is not based on previous observations.

B) it has already been performed by different researchers.

C) neither the subjects nor the researchers know who is in the experimental and control groups.

D) the results of the experiment are only revealed to certain researchers.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 1.2 Skill: Factual 32) Ideally, an experiment studying the effect of a cold medicine should have A) no control group.

B) double-blind procedures.

C) a small sample size.

D) subjects of only one gender.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 1.2 Skill: Factual 33) Correlations are less convincing than controlled experimental results because correlations A) are subject to greater bias than experimental results.

B) cannot be observed outside the laboratory.

C) cannot be statistically significant.

D) do not eliminate as many alternative hypotheses as experimental results.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 1.2 Skill: Factual 34) Which of the following is a true statement about experimentation?

A) Variables in an experiment cannot be manipulated by the researcher.

B) Some hypotheses cannot be tested by experimentation.

C) Experimentation should test at least two or more hypotheses at the same time.

D) True randomization of subjects is impossible during experimentation.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 1.2 Skill: Conceptual

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35) Suppose that a botanist is interested in the effect of light on plants. In an experiment she conducts, 50 individuals of a single species of flowering plant are grown for 60 days under different lengths of artificial daylight. The plant species has flowers that can be either white or pink, depending on the genetics of the parent plants. The amount of water and fertilizer provided to each plant is constant. At the end of the experiment, the size of each leaf of every plant is measured. The dependent variable in this experiment is the A) duration of artificial daylight.

B) flower's color.

C) leaf's size.

D) duration of the experiment.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 1.2 Skill: Applied 36) Why is the random assignment of individuals to experimental and control groups important for an experiment?

A) It ensures that bias has been completely eliminated from the experiment.

B) It ensures that the results of the experiment will be statistically significant.

C) It ensures that the sampling error will have no effect on the results of the experiment.

D) It ensures that each group will better represent the population as a whole.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 1.2 Skill: Factual 37) Bias in an experiment can occur when A) a subject does not know who is in the control or experimental groups.

B) a technician knows which samples are from the control group.

C) a subject finds out the results of the experiment after it is finished.

D) a researcher randomly assigns subjects to the control or experimental group.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 1.2 Skill: Factual 38) Which of the following would be a control in an experiment testing the prediction that a certain drug prevents cataracts in females over the age of 65?

A) male subjects B) female subjects younger than 65 C) alternative drugs that are suspected to prevent cataracts D) female subjects over 65 that are given placebos Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 1.2 Skill: Conceptual

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39) Which experimental scenario would likely produce the most trustworthy results? A) a doubleblind study involving a new heart disease treatment B) an unbiased investigation that shows a strong correlation between two variables C) a blind experiment testing the effects of caffeine on blood pressure D) an experiment that is slightly biased but does not use a model organism Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 1.2 Skill: Applied 40) When graphing data, scientists plot the ________ on the x-axis.

A) independent variable B) dependent variable C) control D) sampling error Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 1.2 Skill: Factual 41) Imagine that the average annual temperature among geographic regions is plotted on the x-axis of a graph, and the spiciness of local food (ranked on a relative "spiciness" scale) in that region is plotted on the y-axis. If the data conform to a very tight relationship, for example, if the hotness of local food increases as the average annual temperature increases, then what can be concluded?

A) The spiciness of local food does not correlate with the average annual temperature in a region.

B) Food is spicy in warm climates because the environmental conditions (warm temperatures) make local foods more spicy.

C) The relationship between the two variables is not correlation, but it is actually an example of causation.

D) Spiciness of food and annual average temperature are correlated, but the relationship is not the result of causation.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 1.2 Skill: Applied 42) Which of the following is an example of a cohort study?

A) Compare lifetime exposure to coal plant emissions between individuals with lung cancer and individuals without lung cancer in the general population.

B) Measure lifetime exposure to coal plant emissions and the incidence of lung cancer in a group of individuals living in a small town.

C) anyQuestion all people in an area about their exposure to coal plant emissions and whether they have lung diseases.

D) coalExamine the incidence of lung disease in all females over the age of 50 in a city that is close to a plant.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 1.2 Skill: Conceptual

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43) Which of the following is a disadvantage of a correlational experiment?

A) subjects may not know exposure levels B) it is expensive and time consuming C) it is not feasible for rare diseases or environmental factors of interest D) it is only feasible for hypotheses for which an experimental treatment can be applied Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: 1.2 Skill: Factual 44) The incidence of cancer in people living within 100 yards of overhead power lines is recorded. This would be best described as an example of a(n) A) ecological study.

B) cross-sectional survey.

C) cohort study.

D) correlational experiment.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 1.2 Skill: Conceptual 45) The study of specific human populations for unusually high levels of a disease is A) a case-control study.

B) a cross-sectional survey.

C) an ecological study.

D) a correlational experiment.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 1.2 Skill: Factual 46) Double-blind experiments are used so that the results will be more A) biased.

B) controlled.

C) objective.

D) statistically significant.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 1.2 Skill: Factual

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47) Scientists are often hesitant to believe the results of a single experiment testing a particular treatment, even when the results are peer reviewed and statistically significant. This is because A) the experimental and control groups may be too alike. B) the results may not be true for humans if the experiment used a model organism. C) a single experiment may have eliminated most of the alternative hypotheses. D) the experiment was likely to have had many biases that affected the results. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 1.2 Skill: Applied 48) A(n) ________ subject is treated as closely as possible to an experimental subject except that he or she does not get the experimental treatment.

Answer: control Diff: 1 Topic: 1.2 Skill: Factual 49) A(n) ________ is an intentionally ineffective treatment given to members of a control group in an experiment.

Answer: placebo Diff: 1 Topic: 1.2 Skill: Factual 50) Scientific information called ________, which are collected from well-designed experiments, should allow researchers to either reject or support a hypothesis.

Answer: data Diff: 1 Topic: 1.2 Skill: Factual 51) A(n) ________ (two words) result is one that is very unlikely to be due to chance differences between the experimental and control groups.

Answer: statistically significant Diff: 2 Topic: 1.3 Skill: Factual 52) The specialized branch of mathematics that is used to compare data is called A) epidemiology.

B) computational mathematics.

C) cross-sectional mathematics.

D) statistics.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 1.3 Skill: Factual

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53) When an experiment has a large sample size, and there is a large difference between the results in the experimental and control groups, it is ________ that the experimental results are statistically significant.

A) very unlikely B) unlikely C) somewhat likely D) very likely Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 1.3 Skill: Factual 54) Sampling error refers to the A) difficulty in accurately measuring results that are incalculable.

B) differences between a group of experimental subjects and the population as a whole.

C) experimental results that do not support the hypothesis being tested.

D) intentional biases on the part of researchers.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 1.3 Skill: Factual 55) Sampling error can be reduced by A) increasing the sample size.

B) performing statistical tests on experimental data.

C) performing double-blind experiments.

D) closely monitoring changes in the experimental and control groups.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 1.3 Skill: Applied 56) In statistics, a sample is a A) mean of a population.

B) small subgroup of a population.

C) correlation between the experimental factor on the subject's response.

D) range of values that has a high probability of containing the true mean.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 1.3 Skill: Factual

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57) A statistically significant result is one that A) is unlikely due to chance.

B) has real-world importance but is not necessarily based on mathematical probability.

C) is likely due to chance differences between groups.

D) the media can report as valid but scientists must consider as unsupported by research.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 1.3 Skill: Factual 58) If the two means differ greatly between control and treatment groups, the difference is very likely to be statistically significant only if A) the hypothesis is false.

B) the sample size is large.

C) the experimental result is practically significant.

D) the experimental result is not practically significant.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 1.3 Skill: Conceptual 59) Experimental results with very high statistical significance mean that A) the hypothesis being tested is correct.

B) the experiment had no bias.

C) the experiment had proper controls.

D) a true difference between treatment and control groups likely exists.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 1.3 Skill: Applied 60) In an ideal experiment, there is a A) high sampling error.

B) small treatment effect.

C) low standard error.

D) large confidence interval.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 1.3 Skill: Conceptual 61) If the reported confidence interval for a population mean is 95%, then there is a A) 5% chance that the results are statistically significant.

B) 95% chance that the results are statistically significant.

C) 5% probability that the true mean is in the reported range.

D) 95% probability that the true mean is in the reported range.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 1.3 Skill: Factual 14 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

62) Which of the following is a standard probability that is accepted by most researchers as statistical significance?

A) 10% B) 5% C) 0.05% D) 0.01% Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 1.3 Skill: Conceptual 63) Statistical analysis of experimental results determines A) the amount of bias in the experimental design.

B) the likelihood that the results are due to the experimental treatment.

C) whether the experiment proves that the hypothesis being tested is correct.

D) whether the proper controls were used in the experiment.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 1.3 Skill: Factual 64) An experimental result is called statistically significant when A) the experiment is double blind.

B) experimental and control subjects are randomly assigned.

C) the result is unlikely to be due to chance alone.

D) the result supports the hypothesis being tested.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 1.3 Skill: Factual 65) Results from one test of a new drug are found to be statistically significant; therefore, the hypothesis A) is accepted as correct.

B) is called a theory.

C) is rejected.

D) should be tested again.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 1.3 Skill: Applied

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66) Which of the following statements is an example of anecdotal evidence?

A) Dr. Chowdury's research on bowel disorders, which was published in a scientific journal.

B) Dr. Jackson's statement in his infomercial that "I believe my personal cure for bowel disorders is more effective than any drug I've ever prescribed in 20 years of practicing medicine."

C) Information about side effects on the label of a bowel disorder drug.

D) An article on bowel disorders on a medical website.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 1.4 Skill: Applied 67) What does it mean to say that experimental results are peer reviewed?

A) The results are analyzed by other scientists before they are published.

B) The results are obtained from double-blind experiments.

C) The results are obtained from experiments with a large sample size.

D) The results are obtained from experiments with a low sampling error.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 1.4 Skill: Factual 68) A news report on CNN that describes recently published research on a new treatment for colds is an example of a(n) A) anecdote.

B) primary source.

C) secondary source.

D) peer-reviewed report.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 1.4 Skill: Factual 69) The most trustworthy source of scientific information is A) anecdotal evidence.

B) paid advertisements.

C) peer-reviewed research publications.

D) science reports in newspapers and on TV. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 1.4 Skill: Factual

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70) Which of the following is a sign that scientific information on a website may be unreliable?

A) The site avoids anecdotal evidence.

B) The site backs up its claims with references to primary sources.

C) A reputable medical establishment maintains the site.

D) The site is set up to allow you to buy the product being described.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 1.4 Skill: Factual 71) A personal opinion on the effectiveness of a dietary supplement in preventing colds is an example of ________ evidence.

Answer: anecdotal Diff: 1 Topic: 1.4 Skill: Factual 72) A news report is an example of a(n) ________ source of scientific information.

A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) anecdotal Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 1.4 Skill: Factual 73) In science, an individual's personal experience or endorsement is considered to be A) anecdotal evidence.

B) circumstantial evidence.

C) a primary source.

D) a peer review.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 1.4 Skill: Factual 74) According to scientific evidence, what is the best prevention method known for reducing the chance of contracting a common cold?

A) drinking Echinacea tea at least once a day B) eating 500 mg of vitamin C a day C) using throat lozenges that contain zinc D) washing your hands frequently and effectively Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 1.5 Skill: Factual

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Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk) Chapter 2 Are We Alone in the Universe?

Water, Biochemistry, and Cells 1) Each of the following is a feature of all known living things EXCEPT A) genes made from proteins. B) growth. C) homeostasis. D) metabolism. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Factual 2) Which term best describes the water in a sugar-water solution? A) product B) reactant C) solute D) solvent Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Conceptual 3) Which term best describes the sugar in a sugar-water solution? A) product B) reactant C) solute D) solvent Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Conceptual 4) Because the electrons in a water molecule are shared unequally between hydrogen and oxygen, water is said to be A) hydrophobic. B) ionic. C) noncovalent. D) polar. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Factual

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5) Which of the following are found in the nucleus of an atom?

A) electrons and neutrons B) neutrons and protons C) protons and electrons D) neutrons, electrons, and protons Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Factual 6) Nonliving things include fire, water, and viruses. Many features of living things are also found in nonliving things. Of the following features, which is most likely to be absent in nonliving things?

A) consumption of energy-containing molecules B) homeostasis C) reproduction D) response to external stimuli Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Conceptual 7) An atom will be least likely to form chemical bonds with other atoms when A) the number of protons equals the number of electrons.

B) the number of protons equals the number of neutrons.

C) there is only one electron in the valence shell.

D) the valence shell is full of electrons.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Conceptual 8) What type of chemical bond connects the complementary strands of a DNA molecule to each other?

A) hydrogen bonds B) ionic bonds C) nonpolar covalent bonds D) polar covalent bonds Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Factual

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9) If life on Mars is fundamentally like life on Earth, its macromolecules will be based on which element?

A) carbon B) hydrogen C) nitrogen D) oxygen Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Conceptual 10) Imagine a newly discovered biological molecule that is mostly hydrophobic in its structure. This new molecule will most likely be classified as a A) carbohydrate.

B) lipid.

C) nucleic acid.

D) protein.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Conceptual 11) Which of the following pairs of molecules can be held together by a hydrogen bond?

A) one polar molecule and one nonpolar molecule B) two ions C) two nonpolar molecules D) two polar molecules Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Conceptual 12) What kind of bond holds the atoms of a single water molecule together?

A) hydrogen bonds B) ionic bonds C) covalent bonds that are not polar D) covalent bonds that are polar Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Factual

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13) What kind of bond holds two water molecules to each other?

A) hydrogen bonds B) ionic bonds C) nonpolar covalent bonds D) polar covalent bonds Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Factual 14) In general, what makes one kind of amino acid different from other amino acids?

A) the amino group B) the carboxyl group C) the side group D) the type of bonds Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Factual 15) Which macromolecule has a sugar-phosphate backbone?

A) lipid B) nucleic acid C) protein D) polysaccharide Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Factual 16) The atomic number of an element refers to the number of ________ in one atom of that element.

A) electrons B) neutrons C) protons D) protons plus neutrons Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Factual 17) How do the concentrations of H+ and OH- compare to each other in an acidic solution?

A) The concentration of H+ is higher.

B) The concentration of H+ is lower.

C) The concentration of H+ is the same.

D) Acidic solutions do not contain H+.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Conceptual 4 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

18) What is the pH of a neutral solution? A) 1 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9 Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Factual 19) A molecule that is composed only of chains and rings of hydrogen and carbon is called a A) carbohydrate.

B) hydrocarbon.

C) polypeptide.

D) polysaccharide.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Factual 20) What is the name of a molecule composed of one or more sugars?

A) carbohydrate B) lipid C) nucleic acid D) polypeptide Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Factual 21) Polysaccharides are polymers of A) amino acids.

B) fatty acids.

C) nucleotides.

D) sugars.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Factual 22) Proteins are polymers of A) amino acids.

B) fatty acids.

C) nucleotides.

D) sugars.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Factual

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23) Nucleic acids are polymers of A) amino acids.

B) fatty acids.

C) nucleotides.

D) sugars.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Factual 24) Which of the following is a lipid?

A) cellulose B) cholesterol C) sucrose D) ribonucleic acid Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Factual 25) What is the name for the ability of living things to maintain a relatively constant internal environment?

A) cellular respiration B) homeostasis C) metabolism D) stimulus-response Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Factual 26) Sodium chloride is composed of molecules that are stable when dry. In the presence of water, however, the atoms that compose the molecules separate from each other. What type of chemical bond holds the dry substance together?

A) hydrogen bonds B) ionic bonds C) nonpolar covalent bonds D) polar covalent bonds Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Conceptual

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27) Cholesterol is classified as a lipid because it contains a large proportion of A) carbohydrates.

B) phosphates.

C) glycerol.

D) hydrocarbons.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Conceptual 28) Enzymes are A) carbohydrates.

B) lipids.

C) nucleic acids.

D) proteins.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Factual 29) The ________ of an organism is defined as all the chemical processes that occur in the cells of that organism.

Answer: metabolism Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Factual 30) ________ is the ability of living things to maintain a relatively constant internal environment even when the external environment is changing.

Answer: Homeostasis Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Factual 31) ________ are the smallest units into which an element can be broken down.

Answer: Atoms Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Factual 32) Proteins are composed of monomer subunits called ________ (two words).

Answer: amino acids Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Factual

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33) Which of the following is considered part of a life-form's metabolism?

A) secretion of wastes B) growth and development C) responses to external stimuli D) reproduction Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Factual 34) Which of the following is an element?

A) water B) methane C) hydrogen D) carbon dioxide Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Factual 35) Protons have a ________ charge and, collectively, give an element its ________.

A) negative; polarity B) positive; atomic number C) negative; electronegativity D) positive; ionic charge Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Factual 36) Which of the following is nonpolar?

A) a positive ion B) a negative ion C) a neutral ion D) a molecule with no partial charges Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Conceptual 37) Oxygen in highly electronegative, meaning that it A) pulls electrons toward itself.

B) is nonpolar.

C) repels electrons away from its nucleus and into the outermost electron shell.

D) discharges electrons readily out of the atom.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Factual 8 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

38) A solution with a pH of 2 has an H+ ion concentration that is ________ than a solution with a pH of 4. A) 2 times higher B) 10 times lower C) 100 times higher D) 1000 times lower Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Applied 39) Which of the following has the lowest OH- concentration?

A) baking soda B) pure water C) coffee D) battery acid Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Conceptual 40) Which pH represents an equal number of H+ and OH- ions?

A) 1 B) 5 C) 7 D) 10 Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Factual 41) Which of the following could accept one (and only one) electron?

A) carbon (atomic number = 6) B) nitrogen (atomic number = 7) C) oxygen (atomic number = 8) D) hydrogen (atomic number = 1) Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Applied

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42) Use the figure to answer the following question. If two or more of these molecules are in proximity to one another, how will they bond together?

A) hydrogen bonding, with two hydrogen atoms bonded together B) covalent bonding, with two oxygen atoms bonded together C) hydrogen bonding, with a hydrogen atom bonded to an oxygen atom D) ionic bonding, with a hydrogen ion bonded to an oxygen atom Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 2.1 Skill: Applied 43) Which organelle contains digestive enzymes that degrade a variety of macromolecules?

A) chloroplast B) endoplasmic reticulum C) lysosome D) mitochondrion Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Factual 44) Which organelle is found in plant cells but not in animal cells?

A) chloroplast B) endoplasmic reticulum C) centriole D) mitochondrion Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Factual 45) Which organelle performs photosynthesis?

A) chloroplast B) Golgi apparatus C) lysosome D) mitochondrion Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Factual 10 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

46) Which organelle performs cellular respiration?

A) endoplasmic reticulum B) Golgi apparatus C) lysosome D) mitochondrion Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Factual 47) Cells contain proteins that help transport substances from the exterior to the interior of the cell.

Where are these proteins found?

A) Golgi apparatus B) lysosome C) mitochondrion D) plasma membrane Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Conceptual 48) Which organelle is represented by a network of membranes involved in the production of proteins?

A) chloroplast B) endoplasmic reticulum C) lysosome D) nucleus Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Factual 49) Which organelle is a stack of membranous sacs that are involved in sorting proteins to their proper cellular location?

A) centriole B) endoplasmic reticulum C) Golgi apparatus D) lysosome Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Factual

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50) Which cell component is composed of microtubules and helps move chromosomes around during cell division?

A) centriole B) chromatin C) cytoskeletal element D) nucleolus Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Factual 51) Microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments compose what part of a cell?

A) centriole B) cholesterol C) chromatin D) cytoskeletal elements Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Factual 52) What kind of molecule forms a bilayer that is the basis for all cellular membranes?

A) carbohydrate B) cholesterol C) phospholipid D) protein Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Factual 53) In what unit of a eukaryotic cell are ribosomes made?

A) endoplasmic reticulum B) Golgi apparatus C) lysosome D) nucleolus Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Factual 54) Which feature is found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

A) mitochondrion B) Golgi body C) DNA D) centriole Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Factual 12 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

55) According to the theory of evolution, which states that all life-forms on Earth arose from a common ancestor, all living organisms A) share a common organic chemistry. B) have DNA within their nucleus. C) exhibit the same basic cell wall. D) perform the same mode of reproduction.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Conceptual 56) The internal membrane-bound compartments found in eukaryotic cells are called ________.

Answer: organelles Diff: 1 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Factual 57) The ________ (two words) defines the outer boundary of all cells, separating the cell's contents from its environment.

Answer: plasma membrane Diff: 1 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Factual 58) Proteins in cells are assembled on workbench-like structures called ________.

Answer: ribosomes Diff: 1 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Factual 59) Inside a eukarotic cell, the organelles are located within a watery matrix called the ________.

Answer: cytosol Diff: 1 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Factual 60) The ________ is the compartment in a eukaryotic cell that stores DNA in the form of chromatin.

Answer: nucleus Diff: 2 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Factual

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61) Prokaryotic cells have A) a nucleus. B) endoplasmic reticulum. C) Golgi apparatus. D) a cell wall. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Factual 62) The purported fossils in meteorite ALH84001 resemble modern prokaryotes called A) nanobacteria.

B) amoebas.

C) fungi.

D) nucleoids.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Factual 63) Scientists believe that the first prokaryotes on Earth arose over ________ years ago, and the first eukaryotes arose about ________ years later.

A) 3.5 million; 1.7 million B) 1.7 million; 3.5 million C) 3.5 billion; 1.7 billion D) 1.7 billion; 3.5 billion Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Factual 64) Prokaryotic cells are generally ________ the diameter of eukaryotic cells.

A) twice B) one-half C) one-tenth D) one-thousandth Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Factual 65) The plasma membrane of a photosynthetic eukaryotic cell A) converts carbon dioxide and water into sugars.

B) isolates the cell's contents from the external environment.

C) controls protein synthesis in the cell.

D) is composed of cellulose.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Conceptual

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66) The reactions of cellular respiration occur in the A) nucleolus of the nucleus.

B) ribosomes of the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

C) matrix of the mitochondria.

D) hydrophobic core of the outermost cell plasma membrane.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Factual 67) The liquid interior of the chloroplast is called the A) centriole.

B) chromatin.

C) Golgi apparatus.

D) stroma.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Factual 68) The antibiotic streptomycin prevents protein synthesis in prokaryotes. Which cell component is the most likely target of this antibiotic?

A) ribosome B) cell membrane C) Golgi apparatus D) cell wall Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Applied 69) Assume that a plant is suffering from drought and is beginning to wilt. Which cell component is most likely being affected, and what type of molecule is being lost from this structure?

A) endoplasmic reticulum; protein B) Golgi apparatus; water C) lysosome; enzymes D) vacuole; water Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Conceptual 70) Cell membranes are ________, which means that they allow certain molecules to pass through while preventing the passage of other molecules.

Answer: semipermeable Diff: 1 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Factual

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71) Mitochondria convert food energy into a high-energy molecule that is directly usable by the cell, called ________.

Answer: adenosine triphosphate Diff: 2 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Factual 72) Which organelle in a scavenging white blood cell would break down bacteria that had entered the body?

Answer: lysosome Diff: 1 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Factual 73) The ________ is the fundamental structural unit of life on Earth.

Answer: cell Diff: 1 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Factual

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74) Label the parts of the animal cell.

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Answer:

Diff: 2 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Factual

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75) Label the parts of the plant cell.

Answer:

Diff: 2 Topic: 2.2 Skill: Factual 19 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk) Chapter 3 Is It Possible to Supplement Your Way to Better Health?

Nutrients and Membrane Transport 1) Nutrients that the human body requires in large quantities are called A) micronutrients.

B) macronutrients.

C) vitamins.

D) minerals.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Factual 2) Which of the following is NOT a macronutrient?

A) water B) carbohydrate C) protein D) vitamin C Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Factual 3) A deficiency of water in the body is called A) diffusion.

B) dehydration.

C) endocytosis.

D) hypertension.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Factual 4) A decrease in the body's normal water level can cause which of the following problems?

A) muscle cramps B) decreased heart rate C) low body temperature D) increased sweating Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Conceptual

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5) How many liters of water does an average human need to replace each day by consuming food or drink?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Factual 6) When you compare tap water to bottled water, in most cases A) bottled water has more impurities than tap water.

B) bottled water and tap water are equally clean.

C) tap water has more salt than bottled water.

D) tap water usually tastes better than bottled water.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Conceptual 7) Sports drinks that have a solute concentration that is higher than blood might cause ________ when you drink them.

Answer: dehydration Diff: 1 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Conceptual 8) Which macronutrient is the major source of energy for cell processes?

A) carbohydrates B) proteins C) fats D) water Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Factual 9) Table sugar (sucrose) belongs to which category of nutrients?

A) carbohydrates B) proteins C) fats D) minerals Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Factual

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10) Which of the following is an example of a food that is rich in complex carbohydrates?

A) pasta B) table sugar C) margarine D) cheese Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Factual 11) Which of these foods is made up of many branching chains of sugar monomers?

A) honey B) milk C) nuts D) beans Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Conceptual 12) The human body stores excess carbohydrates in the form of ________ in muscles and the liver.

Answer: glycogen Diff: 1 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Factual 13) A ________ (two words) has been stripped of most of its nutrients.

Answer: processed food Diff: 1 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Factual 14) Why are whole foods better for your health than processed foods?

A) Whole foods contain more sugars and less fiber, so they're more digestible than processed foods.

B) Whole foods have been refined to provide the highest possible calorie content.

C) Processed foods may contain antioxidants, which can cause disease.

D) Processed foods don't contain all the vitamins and minerals found in whole foods.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Conceptual

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15) Carbohydrates are an excellent source of energy for the body. If a candy bar and a pear contain an equal number of calories from carbohydrates, which is a healthier food and why?

A) The candy bar is healthier because it contains simple sugars, which are easier for the body to get energy from.

B) The pear is healthier because it contains fewer chemical bonds that need to be broken in the digestive tract.

C) The pear is healthier because it contains more vitamins, minerals, and fiber.

D) Neither the candy bar nor the pear is better because they both contain the same number of calories.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Applied 16) Plants store their excess carbohydrates in the form of ________.

Answer: starch Diff: 1 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Factual 17) Why is fiber an important part of a healthful human diet?

A) It is easily digested into monosaccharides, which are used for energy.

B) It may decrease the risk of certain types of cancers.

C) It increases the amount of HDL and LDL cholesterol in the body.

D) It contains more energy, gram for gram, than any other nutrient.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Conceptual 18) What are the monomer "building blocks" that make up proteins?

A) monosaccharides B) glycerol molecules C) amino acids D) fatty acids Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Factual 19) Amino acids that cannot be synthesized by the body are called ________ amino acids.

Answer: essential Diff: 1 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Factual

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20) Which food is most likely to contain all essential amino acids?

A) beef B) carrots C) corn D) rice Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Conceptual 21) What happens to excess protein in the body?

A) It is broken down and excreted in urine.

B) It is used as energy by muscles.

C) It is stored as fat.

D) It is used to build bone mass.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Factual 22) What is a major difference between saturated and unsaturated fats?

A) At room temperature, saturated fats are liquid and unsaturated fats are solid.

B) Unsaturated fats have a flat molecular structure, but saturated fats are kinked.

C) Saturated fat molecules are packed together loosely, but unsaturated fats are tightly packed.

D) Unsaturated fats contain carbon-to-carbon double bonds, but saturated fats don't.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Applied 23) In commercial food manufacturing, hydrogenation is used to A) make an unsaturated fat more saturated.

B) reduce the amount of "empty calories" in a carbohydrate.

C) convert fatty acids into amino acids.

D) convert vitamins into minerals.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Factual 24) A fat with many unsaturated carbons is called ________.

Answer: polyunsaturated Diff: 1 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Factual

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25) Omega-3 and omega-6 are the names of two ________ (three words).

Answer: essential fatty acids Diff: 1 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Factual 26) Erin wants to make a stir fry using an unsaturated fat. Sam suggests that she use A) butter.

B) olive oil.

C) lard.

D) margarine.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Applied 27) How are trans fats different from regular saturated fats?

A) Trans fats cannot form carbon-carbon double bonds.

B) Trans fats have flattened fatty acids.

C) Trans fats are liquid at room temperature.

D) Trans fats do not contain glycerol.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Conceptual 28) Trans-fatty acids, which are common in fast food, are a concern to nutritionists because they A) increase the incidence of clogged arteries.

B) decrease the availability of iron to bodily cells.

C) cannot be digested by the human body.

D) outcompete the enzymes needed for normal bodily functions.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Factual 29) Vitamins in the human body A) are sources of stored energy.

B) help enzymes function properly.

C) act as hormones that trigger cells to take up glucose.

D) are the basis of the plasma membrane.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Factual

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30) Which vitamin could build up to dangerous levels within the body?

A) vitamin B12 B) vitamin C C) vitamin D D) folic acid Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Conceptual 31) Sunlight is required for the synthesis of A) cholesterol.

B) vitamin D. C) vitamin K. D) amino acids.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Factual 32) Vitamins function as ________, helping molecules within the cells reduce the activation energy of necessary chemical reactions.

A) minerals B) leptin C) coenzymes D) enzymatic inhibitors Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Factual 33) Vitamin ________ is water soluble and cannot be synthesized by the body.

A) A B) C C) E D) K Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Factual 34) Scurvy is a disease that is caused by a deficiency of what vitamin?

A) vitamin A B) vitamin B6 C) vitamin C D) vitamin E Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Factual 7 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

35) Cal takes a vitamin supplement to make sure he has enough biotin in his diet. Instead of the supplement, Cal could just eat more A) oranges. B) eggs. C) red meat. D) grains. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Conceptual 36) Anemia is a disorder that can be caused by a deficiency in A) vitamin A. B) one of the B vitamins.

C) magnesium.

D) sodium.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Factual 37) Which of these statements is true about minerals?

A) Minerals will not dissolve in water.

B) Some minerals contain carbon.

C) Minerals cannot be made by the body.

D) Minerals are not used by body cells.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Factual 38) Tanya eats a vegan diet, which means that she does not eat any animal products. What would be a good source of calcium for Tanya?

A) spinach B) cheese C) nuts D) whole grains Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Conceptual

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39) Table salt provides the body with necessary sodium and chloride. However, too much salt could result in A) muscle cramps.

B) bone damage.

C) kidney stones.

D) high blood pressure.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Factual 40) A diet that is rich in whole grains provides the body with which of the following essential minerals?

A) calcium B) chloride C) potassium D) sulfur Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Factual 41) What is a function of antioxidants?

A) to prevent muscle cramps and weakness B) to improve skin tone and fight acne C) to decrease damage done to cells by free radicals D) to allow the cell to maintain water balance Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Factual 42) Which antioxidant is naturally found in cocoa?

A) vitamin A B) beta-carotene C) flavonoid D) selenium Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Factual 43) Which of these vitamins is also considered an antioxidant?

A) vitamin A B) biotin C) folic acid D) niacin Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 3.1 Skill: Conceptual 9 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

44) Which of the following does not involve molecules moving across cell membranes?

A) osmosis B) facilitated diffusion C) active transport D) induced fit Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 3.2 Skill: Factual 45) Diffusion is A) one type of active transport.

B) the movement of water across a cell membrane.

C) the movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.

D) the movement of molecules across a membrane, assisted by proteins embedded in the membrane.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 3.2 Skill: Factual 46) How would amino acids and calcium ions from the bloodstream move across a cell membrane?

A) diffusion B) osmosis C) facilitated diffusion D) active transport Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 3.2 Skill: Factual 47) Which of the following best describes the structure of the plasma membrane?

A) a single layer of proteins B) a single layer of lipids with proteins embedded in it C) a double layer of proteins D) a double layer of lipids with proteins embedded in it Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 3.2 Skill: Factual 48) Which of the following requires the most ATP to move the molecule across a plasma membrane?

A) water B) a simple sugar, such as glucose C) a dissolved gas, such as carbon dioxide D) an ion moving against a concentration gradient Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 3.2 Skill: Conceptual 10 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

49) What does hydrophobic mean? A) made of water B) repelled by water C) attracted to water D) dissolved in water Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 3.2 Skill: Factual 50) Even though they're extremely small, viruses are too large to enter a cell by passive or active transport and thus must enter a host cell via A) diffusion.

B) osmosis.

C) exocytosis.

D) endocytosis.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 3.2 Skill: Applied 51) The movement of a substance out of a cell via a vesicle is called ________.

Answer: exocytosis Diff: 1 Topic: 3.2 Skill: Factual 52) The interior of a phospholipid bilayer is A) hydrophobic.

B) hydrophilic.

C) proteinaceous.

D) hydrogenated.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 3.2 Skill: Factual 53) Phospholipid bilayer membranes are A) always impermeable to small molecules.

B) always permeable to charged atoms and molecules.

C) differentially permeable.

D) impermeable to all atoms and molecules.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 3.2 Skill: Factual

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54) Use the figure to answer the following question. Which of the following can't freely pass through a cell membrane without going through a protein channel?

A) oxygen B) carbon dioxide C) water D) calcium ions Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 3.2 Skill: Factual 55) Molecules embedded in phospholipid bilayers that form channels allowing molecules to pass into and out of the cell are made of A) carbohydrates.

B) proteins.

C) nucleic acids.

D) lipids.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 3.2 Skill: Factual

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56) In general, the net movement of small, uncharged atoms and molecules through the membrane of a cell will occur until A) the concentration of a solute is equal on both sides of the membrane. B) all those atoms or molecules are on the same side of the membrane. C) the cell grows so large that it can't hold any more material. D) the cell shrinks to the point that it can't function properly. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 3.2 Skill: Conceptual 57) Imagine a balloon is made from a membrane that's permeable to water but not sucrose molecules. If the balloon is filled with a 50% sucrose solution and then placed in a beaker of water, then the balloon will A) not change in size or volume.

B) get smaller as it loses water.

C) get larger as it gains water.

D) eventually burst.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 3.2 Skill: Conceptual 58) Imagine a balloon is made from a membrane that's permeable to water but not sucrose molecules. If the balloon is filled with a 50% sucrose solution and then placed in a beaker of water, how will the concentration of sucrose change inside the balloon (if at all)?

A) It won't change.

B) It will become less concentrated.

C) It will become more concentrated.

D) The concentration will increase and then decrease.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 3.2 Skill: Conceptual 59) If a drop of red food coloring is added to a glass of water, the red-colored molecules will A) move from an area of high concentration of red-colored molecules to an area of low concentration.

B) move from an area of low concentration of red-colored molecules to an area of high concentration.

C) move from an area of high concentration of water molecules to an area of low concentration.

D) move toward an area of low concentration of water molecules.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 3.2 Skill: Conceptual

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60) During diffusion, solute molecules move A) up a concentration gradient of solute molecules.

B) down a concentration gradient of solvent molecules.

C) down a concentration gradient of solute molecules.

D) unpredictably with regards to a concentration gradient of solvent molecules.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 3.2 Skill: Conceptual 61) When molecules or atoms move down a concentration gradient across cell membranes, it's called A) active transport.

B) passive transport.

C) exocytosis.

D) endocytosis.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 3.2 Skill: Factual 62) Phagocytic white blood cells digest many of the invasive bacteria that gain entry into the human body. How could a bacterial cell enter a white blood cell in order to be digested?

A) facilitated diffusion B) active transport C) exocytosis D) endocytosis Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 3.2 Skill: Conceptual 63) Water can enter cells through either passive transport or pores in the membrane called A) aquaporins.

B) electrolytes.

C) diffusion channels.

D) exocytes.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 3.2 Skill: Factual

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64) Elodea is a freshwater aquatic plant that is often used as aquarium vegetation. What would happen to an Elodea plant that was immersed in a saltwater aquarium? A) The cells of the plant would burst as water from the aquarium moved into the plant. B) The cells of the plant would shrink as water from the plant moved into the aquarium. C) The solution inside each cell would get salty as the saltwater moved into the plant. D) The saltwater would not affect the plant in any way. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 3.2 Skill: Applied 65) The type of diffusion in which water moves down a concentration gradient is called ________.

Answer: osmosis Diff: 1 Topic: 3.2 Skill: Factual 66) Exocytosis and endocytosis both involve membrane-bound ________ that can fuse with plasma membranes.

Answer: vesicles Diff: 1 Topic: 3.2 Skill: Factual 67) During exocytosis, large substances are moved A) out of the cell.

B) into the cell.

C) between organelles.

D) through protein channels in the plasma membrane.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 3.2 Skill: Factual 68) According to the USDA Food Guide Pyramid, what proportion of a healthy diet should consist of meat and beans?

A) about 10% B) about 20% C) about 30% D) about 40% Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 3.2 Skill: Factual

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69) If you put together a plate that included all of the food groups in the proportions that are recommended by the USDA, which of these would take up the largest portion of the plate? A) fruits B) vegetables C) grains D) meat and beans Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 3.2 Skill: Conceptual 70) When you eat a piece of toast that has been spread with butter, your body breaks the food down into mainly A) amino acids and glycerol.

B) glycerol, fatty acids, and monosaccharides.

C) monosaccharides and amino acids.

D) fatty acids, amino acids, and polysaccharides.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 3.2 Skill: Applied 71) Monosaccharides can be used by body cells A) to build membranes.

B) to produce enzymes.

C) for energy production.

D) to store energy.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 3.2 Skill: Factual 72) Which of these has not been tested by the Food and Drug Administration for safety and effectiveness?

A) aspirin B) multivitamin C) antibiotic D) cough medicine Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 3.2 Skill: Conceptual

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Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk) Chapter 4 Fat: How Much is Right for You? Enzymes, Metabolism, and Cellular Respiration 1) The proteins that catalyze chemical reactions in the body are called A) enzymes.

B) coenzymes.

C) antioxidants.

D) high-density lipoproteins (HDLs).

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 4.1 Skill: Factual 2) What would happen if activation energy barriers didn't exist?

A) Substrates would not bind properly to enzymes.

B) Chemical reactions in the body would never occur.

C) Coenzymes would not work, but enzyme function would not be affected.

D) All chemical reactions in the body would proceed whether they were needed or not.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 4.1 Skill: Conceptual 3) Activation energy is similar to the "push" needed to start rolling a stalled car down a hill. How do enzymes fit into this analogy?

A) Enzymes increase the effort that's needed to start the car moving.

B) Enzymes decrease the effort that's needed to start the car moving.

C) Enzymes increase the steepness of the hill that the car will roll down.

D) Enzymes decrease the distance the car needs to move to reach the bottom of the hill.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 4.1 Skill: Applied 4) What makes some people "lactose intolerant" as adults?

A) Some people don't produce any enzymes, including the one needed to digest lactose.

B) Lactose can only be digested by people who produce enough lactic acid to digest it.

C) Lactose-intolerant people don't produce adequate amounts of lactase.

D) The active site of the lactose-digesting enzyme can vary from person to person.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 4.1 Skill: Conceptual

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5) Which of these people is most likely to use the most Calories during 20 minutes of exercise?

A) a 70-year-old woman who weighs 120 pounds B) a 30-year-old man who weighs 250 pounds C) a 25-year-old woman who weighs 135 pounds D) a 45-year-old man who weighs 180 pounds Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 4.1 Skill: Applied 6) Which of the following is a true statement about caloric energy conversions?

A) A calorie is the same as a Calorie.

B) A kilocalorie is the same as a calorie.

C) A kilocalorie is the same as 1000 calories.

D) A kilocalorie is the same as 1000 Calories.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 4.1 Skill: Factual 7) More ________ will not increase an individual's basal metabolic rate.

A) exercise B) testosterone C) muscle mass D) caloric intake Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 4.1 Skill: Factual 8) To lose one pound of fat in a week, what combination of changes in your diet and exercise is needed?

A) Reduce food intake by 200 Calories per day and increase exercise to burn off 300 more Calories per day.

B) Reduce food intake by 300 Calories per day and increase exercise to burn off 100 more Calories per day.

C) Reduce food intake by 400 Calories per day with no change in exercise.

D) Increase exercise to burn off 400 more Calories per day with no change in diet.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 4.1 Skill: Applied 9) The resting energy requirement of a person who is awake but not active is called ________ (three words).

Answer: basal metabolic rate Diff: 1 Topic: 4.1 Skill: Factual

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10) Which of the following is most likely an enzyme?

A) proline B) stearic acid C) endopeptidase D) acetylcholine Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 4.1 Skill: Conceptual

11) Assume that a newly developed chemical agent blocks the active site of the enzyme shown in the figure. This drug must be similar in shape and size to A) glucose.

B) fructose.

C) sucrase.

D) sucrose.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 4.1 Skill: Applied 12) Which of the following is true regarding enzymes?

A) Enzymes are not very specific.

B) Enzymes are not affected by high heat, as proteins are.

C) Enzymes can be recycled and used over and over again.

D) Enzymes are "used up" during chemical reactions.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 4.1 Skill: Factual

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13) An infinite variety of enzymes and other proteins could be produced from the ________ amino acids in the human body. A) 10 B) 20 C) millions of D) infinite variety of Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 4.1 Skill: Factual 14) In the human body, the enzyme lactase acts on which substrate?

A) lactose B) galactose C) lactic acid D) glucose Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 4.1 Skill: Factual 15) How many calories would be needed to heat up one kilogram (1000 grams) of water by 1 degree Celsius?

A) 1 B) 10 C) 100 D) 1000 Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 4.1 Skill: Applied 16) What is the source of chemical energy used to power a muscle cell in your arm?

A) pyruvic acid B) adenosine triphosphate (ATP) C) nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) D) ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP) Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Factual

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17) After glycolysis, pyruvic acid loses a carbon dioxide molecule. In other words, the pyruvic acid is A) denatured. B) phosphorylated. C) decarboxylated. D) oxidated. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Factual 18) How does ATP provide energy to a cell?

A) It loses a phosphate group, releasing energy in the process.

B) It releases electrons, which are a source of energy.

C) It releases protons, which are used in the mitochondrion to create energy.

D) It shuttles electrons across the mitochondrial membrane to create potential energy.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Conceptual 19) Chemical work within cells is powered by A) NAD+.

B) NADPH. C) CO2.

D) ATP. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Factual 20) Where does the carbon dioxide you exhale come from?

A) aerobic respiration B) anaerobic respiration C) glycolysis D) transpiration Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Factual 21) Which of the following processes creates the most ATP per glucose molecule metabolized?

A) glycolysis B) fermentation C) anaerobic respiration D) aerobic cellular respiration Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Applied

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22) In cellular respiration, ________ is produced during ________.

A) oxygen; the citric acid cycle B) carbon dioxide; the citric acid cycle C) oxygen; the electron transport chain D) carbon dioxide; the electron transport chain Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Factual 23) Metabolic pathways that require oxygen are referred to as A) aerobic.

B) anaerobic.

C) photosynthetic.

D) fermentative.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Factual 24) Which of the following is a "metabolic taxicab" that shuttles electrons?

A) OAA B) NADH C) ATP D) ADP Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Factual 25) The main biochemical function of the electron transport chain is to A) break glucose into pyruvic acid.

B) add phosphate groups to ATP. C) regenerate OAA. D) force hydrogen ions through ATP synthase.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Factual 26) What is the name and function of the protein channel where H+ ions escape into the matrix of the mitochondrion?

A) ATP synthase; to add a phosphate to ADP B) OAA; to remove a phosphate from ATP C) grana; to break the bonds of ATP D) pyruvic acid; to create ADP from ATP Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Factual 6 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

27) Most of the large, fast-flowing rivers in the northwest United States are blocked by human-made dams. Water is directed through pipes in each dam that lead to hydroelectric generators. The generators in these dams create electricity as water rushes past them. This is most similar to which of the following metabolic processes?

A) the splitting of glucose during glycolysis B) the release of carbon dioxide during the citric acid cycle C) the transport of electrons by NADH D) the passage of hydrogen ions through ATP synthase to make ADP into ATP Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Conceptual 28) Which of the following macromolecules can't be broken down in the body and used to produce ATP? A) carbohydrates B) proteins C) fats D) vitamins Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Factual 29) During the process of cellular respiration, what is the final acceptor for electrons at the end of the electron transport chain?

A) oxygen B) carbon C) carbon dioxide D) hydrogen Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Conceptual 30) During glycolysis, a 6-carbon glucose molecule is broken into two 3-carbon molecules of ________ (two words).

Answer: pyruvic acid Diff: 1 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Factual 31) The products of cellular respiration are ________ and ________.

Answer: CO2 and H2O Diff: 1 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Factual

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32) If necessary, our muscles can rely upon an anaerobic (fermentative) pathway to metabolize glucose, but this can only last a short period of time. Why can't our cells survive very long under such anaerobic conditions?

A) Fermentation doesn't extract enough ATP from glucose to sustain our energy-craving cells.

B) Anaerobic conditions creates a "carbon dioxide debt" that needs to be repaid quickly before the cells die.

C) The ethyl alcohol that builds up in muscles as a result of fermentation is a toxin.

D) Lactic acid causes the cell to die when it's exposed to even lower concentrations.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Conceptual 33) If loading and shooting a dart gun is analogous to how ATP functions, which of the following components of ATP is similar to the dart?

A) the nitrogenous base B) the sugar C) a phosphate D) a photon Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Conceptual 34) ATP helps to power ________ work when a muscle cell contracts.

A) chemical B) transport C) mechanical D) potential Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Factual 35) Transport work across cell membranes is powered by the release of energy from A) ADP. B) ATP. C) NADP. D) NADPH. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Factual

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36) What happens to an ATP molecule after it has released a phosphate?

A) It becomes AMP and is recycled into proteins.

B) It is phosphorylated and becomes ADP. C) It is converted into lactic acid and transported to the liver for disposal.

D) It is secreted in urine as a waste product of cellular respiration.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Conceptual 37) Creatine phosphate (marketed as "creatine") is a popular supplement taken by weightlifters and other athletes. This supplement provides phosphates that A) readily allow for the regeneration of ATP. B) break down glucose during the citric acid cycle.

C) accept electrons at the end of the electron transport chain.

D) ensure ATP is never broken down into ADP. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Applied 38) During cellular respiration, where does the energy released from glucose go as it is metabolized into the low-energy compounds carbon dioxide and water? The energy released from glucose goes A) into ATP. B) into lactic acid.

C) out of the cell as heat.

D) into electrons that directly power the cell.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Conceptual 39) Which of the following occurs inside the mitochondria?

A) glycolysis B) fermentation C) citric acid cycle and electron transport D) glycolysis and electron transport Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Conceptual

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40) The first reactant in the citric acid cycle is A) pyruvic acid (C3H3O3).

B) glucose (C6H12O6).

C) carbon dioxide (CO2).

D) oxalaoacetate (OAA).

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Factual 41) The reactions of the citric acid cycle are catalyzed by a series of ________.

Answer: enzymes Diff: 1 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Factual 42) During glycolysis, NAD+ picks up a hydrogen atom along with its electron to form A) NADP. B) NADPH. C) NADH. D) H2O. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Conceptual 43) Which molecule results from the process of fermentation?

A) ADP B) NADPH C) NADH D) NAD+ Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Factual 44) What happens to the lactic acid created during fermentation in human muscle cells?

A) It is directly converted into ATP. B) It donates a phosphate to ADP to recharge ATP. C) It goes to the liver, where it's converted into pyruvic acid.

D) It joins with electrons and hydrogen ions to form H2O. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Factual

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45) Which of the following are made during glycolysis? A) NADH and ATP B) ADP and NADPH C) water and NAD+ D) oxygen and water Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Factual 46) If no oxygen is available in a cell, then ________ will follow glycolysis.

A) fermentation B) cellular respiration C) phosphorylation D) the conversion of CO2 into O2 Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Conceptual 47) How much ATP is produced from one glucose molecule if no oxygen is available to a muscle cell during contraction?

A) none B) 1 molecule C) 2 molecules D) 26 molecules Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Conceptual 48) Fats are composed of fatty acids and ________, which can both be metabolized for the production of ATP. A) amino acids B) monosaccharides C) nucleic acids D) glycerol Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Factual

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49) The tart flavor of sour cream is due to A) ADP produced by microbes during glycolysis.

B) lactic acid, produced anaerobically by microbes.

C) ethyl alcohol that forms as the cream is broken down by microbes.

D) citric acid released by microbes as they undergo the citric acid cycle.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Factual

50) The figure shows the different pathways taken by the subunits of macronutrients during cellular respiration. Which macronutrient subunit is never converted into pyruvic acid before entering the citric acid cycle?

A) an amino acid B) a fatty acid C) glycerol D) glucose Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Factual

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51) According to the diagram, how many molecules of oxygen (O2) combine with electrons and hydrogen ions to form one molecule of water (H2O) at the end of the electron transport chain?

A) 1/2 B) 1 C) 2 D) none Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Factual 52) Why is oxygen needed in cellular respiration?

A) Oxygen combines with ADP to create ATP. B) Oxygen is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain.

C) Oxygen carries electrons from the citric acid cycle to the electron transport chain.

D) Fermentation in muscle cells relies upon oxygen as an electron acceptor.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Conceptual 53) Ethanol and carbon dioxide are released from the cell during A) glycolysis.

B) the citric acid cycle.

C) the electron transport chain.

D) alcohol fermentation.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 4.2 Skill: Factual

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54) Which of these statements is generally true? A) Men have a thicker dermis than women, causing male muscles to appear larger. B) People with larger body frames carry more body fat than people with smaller body frames. C) Younger people tend to carry more fat than older people. D) Larger muscles contain more fatty tissue than smaller muscles. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 4.3 Skill: Conceptual 55) A person with a BMI of 23 is considered to be ________.

Answer: healthy Diff: 1 Topic: 4.3 Skill: Factual 56) What amount of body fat is normal and healthy for a 19-year-old woman?

A) 3% B) 8% C) 10% D) 20% Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 4.3 Skill: Conceptual 57) Why is a very low level of body fat unhealthy in young women?

A) Women need a certain amount of fat to maintain their fertility.

B) Reduced levels of body fat make a woman unable to expend any energy.

C) Women with very low body fat have an increased risk of developing diabetes.

D) Women with very low body fat have an increased risk of having very heavy menstrual bleeding.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 4.3 Skill: Factual 58) Which of the following is a true statement about the differences in fat and energy storage between average men and women?

A) Men have proportionally more energy stores (fat) than women.

B) Women store proportionally more fat in their breasts, hips, and thighs than men.

C) Women need less body fat than men in order to maintain normal menstruation and to become pregnant.

D) Women store less energy as fat and burn more energy, proportionally, than men.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 4.3 Skill: Factual

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59) Why isn't a BMI (Body Mass Index) a perfectly reliable way to estimate your health? A) It considers your height but not your weight. B) It considers your weight but not your height. C) It doesn't account for differences in muscle mass between individuals. D) Your relative amount of body fat is not correlated with the risk of illness and death. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 4.3 Skill: Conceptual 60) Which of the following diseases is associated with a BMI of 16 or lower?

A) diabetes B) hypertension C) heart attack D) osteoporosis Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 4.3 Skill: Factual 61) Which is a correct statement about diet, exercise, and disease?

A) Type II diabetes is a disorder that can't be controlled by a change in diet or exercise.

B) Hypertension is a major disease associated with lack of exercise and an unhealthy diet.

C) Heart attacks are due to factors such as a lack of diet and exercise but are not due to genetics.

D) Increased exercise and a better diet can clear away all HDL and LDL cholesterol from blood vessels.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 4.3 Skill: Conceptual 62) Eating large amounts of food, followed by self-induced vomiting, is a type of eating disorder called A) anorexia.

B) bulimia.

C) osteoporosis.

D) atherosclerosis.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 4.3 Skill: Factual 63) Eating disorders in which the body is starved of calories are dangerous because A) menstruation can cease, causing sterility.

B) the risk of stroke can increase.

C) they can cause adult-onset diabetes or noninsulin-dependent diabetes.

D) they can lead to high blood pressure and weakened heart muscles.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 4.3 Skill: Factual

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64) The role of insulin in the human body is to A) increase the level of sugar in the blood.

B) decrease the amount of body fat.

C) trigger body cells to take up glucose.

D) trigger the immune system to destroy the beta cells in the pancreas.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 4.3 Skill: Factual 65) Another term for high blood pressure is ________.

Answer: hypertension Diff: 1 Topic: 4.3 Skill: Factual 66) Jim has a total cholesterol level of 220. What could he do to reduce his risk of stroke or heart attack?

A) eat only one meal per day B) consume more vegetables and fruit C) eat only high-protein foods D) eat more protein and more calories Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 3.1 and 4.3 Skill: Applied 67) Which of the following is generally true, regarding differences in fat deposition between healthy men and healthy women?

A) Men have more fat under their skin than women do.

B) Men have less fat stored on their thighs than women do.

C) Men have a higher body fat percentage than women do.

D) Men need more body fat than women to maintain their fertility.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 4.3 Skill: Factual 68) Shannon has considered herself an extremely healthy person for most of her life. She is a marathon runner and watches her diet very carefully. She has 8% body fat, weighs 105 pounds, and is 5 foot 10 inches tall. Shannon might not actually be as healthy as she thinks because she A) is overweight for her height.

B) likely has metabolic problems associated with high blood pressure.

C) doesn't have enough body fat for menstruation or pregnancy.

D) doesn't consume enough nutrients for normal bodily functions.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 4.3 Skill: Conceptual/Applied

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69) Marquisha is 5 foot 6 inches, weighs 155 pounds, and has a body fat percentage of 27%. Although she's not obese, she doesn't fit the body image of the models in her magazines. How would biologists view Marquisha's health?

A) She is at elevated risk for amenorrhea.

B) Her BMI is alarmingly high.

C) She is unhealthy because of her weight and needs to lose weight.

D) Her body fat percentage falls within the ideal range for women, and she's not overweight.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 4.3 Skill: Conceptual 70) Which of the following is true regarding the BMI of healthy men and women?

A) Healthy men always have a higher BMI than healthy women.

B) A BMI of 10 or less is ideal for both sexes.

C) Both healthy men and women have a BMI of at least 20 but less than 25.

D) The BMI of both healthy men and healthy women tends to decrease with age.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 4.3 Skill: Factual 71) Approximately one out of every ________ Americans has a BMI greater than 30 and is considered ________.

A) 3; underweight B) 3; overweight C) 20; overweight D) 20; underweight Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 4.3 Skill: Factual 72) Which of the following is associated with obesity?

A) Type 1, insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus B) Type 2, noninsulin-dependent diabetes mellitus C) osteoporosis D) altered heart rhythms Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 4.3 Skill: Factual

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Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk) Chapter 5 Life in the Greenhouse: Photosynthesis and Global Warming 1) Almost all scientists believe that the global warming observed over the past 100 years has been caused by elevated levels of gases in the atmosphere. Which of the following gases is primarily responsible for this problem?

A) carbon dioxide B) nitrous oxide C) oxygen D) ozone Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 5.1 Skill: Factual 2) Which of these human activities has directly contributed to global warming?

A) burning of coal B) building of greenhouses C) planting of trees D) development of solar energy Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 5.1 Skill: Conceptual 3) Which of the following is considered a greenhouse gas?

A) water vapor B) carbon monoxide C) gaseous nitrogen D) nitrous oxide Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 5.1 Skill: Factual 4) The greenhouse effect is most similar to A) heating up the air inside a car by parking it in the sun.

B) warming the air for a hot-air balloon with a propane burner.

C) burning kerosene in a heater to warm up the air inside a cold house.

D) growing plants in your office to reduce indoor air pollution.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 5.1 Skill: Conceptual

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5) How does the greenhouse effect work?

A) Rocks, soil, and water on Earth's surface absorb sunlight energy and radiate it as heat.

B) The energy from sunlight passes through the transparent water of the oceans and heats up the Earth's core.

C) Some sunlight energy that hits Earth radiates toward space, but some is trapped by atmospheric gases.

D) All the sunlight energy striking Earth bounces off the planet and radiates into space.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 5.1 Skill: Conceptual 6) Which of the following statements about the greenhouse effect is true?

A) Most life on Earth relies upon the hospitable temperatures resulting from the greenhouse effect.

B) The greenhouse effect is a dangerous phenomenon that should be stopped as soon as possible.

C) The greenhouse effect results from the presence of oxygen in the atmosphere.

D) Global warming is likely the result of a lessening of the greenhouse effect.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 5.1 Skill: Conceptual 7) The planet Mercury is closer to the sun than the planet Venus. However, temperatures on Venus are hotter than temperatures on Mercury. Why would this be the case?

A) Mercury has a thicker atmosphere than Venus that blocks heat from the sun.

B) Mercury spins more quickly than Venus, so its surface cannot heat up as quickly.

C) Venus has a thicker atmosphere than Mercury that traps heat from the sun.

D) Venus is cooled by high concentrations of water vapor in its atmosphere.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 5.1 Skill: Applied 8) How would Earth change if the greenhouse effect didn't exist at all?

A) Without the greenhouse effect, Earth would radiate all its heat into space.

B) All the incoming sunlight energy would be absorbed without the greenhouse effect.

C) The result of no greenhouse effect would be an extremely hot planet that never cools down.

D) Animals and plants would survive comfortably, and the average temperature would never change if the greenhouse effect did not exist.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 5.1 Skill: Applied

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9) Heat is a measure of A) the rate that molecules are moving within a substance. B) the resistance to temperature change within a substance. C) the ability of a substance to transfer energy between its molecules. D) the total amount of energy associated with the movement of molecules in a substance. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 5.1 Skill: Factual 10) Temperature is a measure of A) the potential energy in a substance.

B) how fast the molecules in a substance are moving.

C) the energy lost from a substance to its surroundings.

D) how much heat is being absorbed by a substance.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 5.1 Skill: Factual 11) Which of the following is most likely to contain the most heat overall?

A) a cup of coffee that is 140 degrees F B) a person that is 98.6 degrees F C) a large lake filled with water that is 72 degrees F D) a smoldering campfire ember that is 400 degrees F Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 5.1 Skill: Conceptual 12) What happens when water is heated?

A) It's broken into hydrogen and oxygen atoms.

B) New hydrogen bonds are created between water molecules.

C) Hydrogen bonds between water molecules are broken.

D) Hydrogen atoms jump from one water molecule to another water molecule.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 5.1 Skill: Factual 13) What process occurs as individual water molecules move fast enough to rise into the air as water vapor?

A) condensation B) combustion C) evaporation D) precipitation Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 5.1 Skill: Conceptual

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14) Which of these processes of the water cycle releases heat into the atmosphere?

A) condensation B) runoff C) evaporation D) ground-water discharge Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 5.1 Skill: Conceptual 15) Why is water so important in controlling Earth's climate?

A) Water vapor is one of the greenhouse gases that allows the release of heat into space.

B) The water in oceans and lakes stores the energy radiated by the sun and releases it slowly.

C) Water warms up quickly when very little energy is added to it.

D) The evaporation of water from oceans and lakes cools the temperature of the continents.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 5.1 Skill: Conceptual 16) Why does sweating cool you off?

A) The water in sweat, as it is secreted from skin glands, is cooler than your body temperature.

B) Heat is taken up from your skin by the water in the sweat.

C) Water in sweat contains hydrogen bonds that react with skin cells and removes excess heat from the skin.

D) Sweat contains a combination of chemicals that react with salt on the skin to create a heat-absorbing substance.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 5.1 Skill: Applied 17) Which of these would be the most likely effect on precipitation from global warming?

A) an increase in the months of snowfall in higher latitudes B) a decrease in the amount of snowfall on mountaintops C) an increase in the amount of rainfall in every climate D) a decrease in the amount of rainfall near oceans Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 5.1 Skill: Applied

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18) When are the most hydrogen bonds likely to reform between water molecules in a lake?

A) in the late morning B) at noon C) in the late afternoon D) at night Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: 5.1 Skill: Applied 19) Which of these emits carbon dioxide into the atmosphere?

A) green plants B) volcanoes C) soil D) water Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 5.2 Skill: Factual 20) During the water cycle, water evaporates from plants through a process called transpiration. Which of these is a similar process during the carbon cycle?

A) Carbon dioxide is absorbed by soils.

B) Carbon-based sugars are ingested by animals.

C) Carbon dioxide is respired by animals.

D) Carbon dioxide is absorbed by plants and converted to sugars.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 5.2 Skill: Conceptual 21) Which of these is a fossil fuel?

A) vegetable oil B) coal C) hydrogen gas D) wood Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 5.2 Skill: Factual 22) What are fossil fuels?

A) carbon-rich remains of plants and microorganisms B) underground deposits of carbon dioxide C) accumulations of partially decomposed dinosaurs D) timber from old-growth forests Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 5.2 Skill: Factual 5 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

23) Fossil fuels form from the unconsumed ________ of dead organisms.

Answer: carbohydrates Diff: 1 Topic: 5.2 Skill: Factual 24) The plants that made up fossil fuels lived around ________ years ago.

A) 300,000,000,000 B) 300,000,000 C) 300,000 D) 30,000 Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 5.2 Skill: Conceptual 25) Where does most of the carbon dioxide released by human activities come from?

A) exhaling (cellular respiration waste products) B) decomposing garbage in landfills C) burning wood for cooking fires D) burning fossil fuels Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 5.2 Skill: Factual 26) What can happen to the carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?

A) It can be released into space from the atmosphere.

B) It can be converted to glucose by plants.

C) It can be converted into carbon monoxide by the oceans.

D) It can react with nitrogen to form fossil fuels.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 5.2 Skill: Conceptual 27) Which of the following is a true statement about carbon and the carbon cycle?

A) There is a one-way flow of carbon from volcanoes to plants to herbivores to carnivores and, finally, to the atmosphere.

B) Carbon is recycled among plants, animals, water, soil, and the atmosphere.

C) Carbon dioxide (CO2) is the only carbon-containing compound involved in the carbon cycle.

D) Carbon is recycled in a general sense, but once carbon dioxide is exhaled from animals, it can only enter the atmosphere, where it's trapped and adds to the greenhouse effect.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 5.2 Skill: Conceptual

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28) On Earth, ________ is/are the largest reservoir of carbon dioxide and heat.

A) the atmosphere B) the oceans C) animal bodies D) fossil fuels Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 5.2 Skill: Factual 29) According to scientists, how do the levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere today compare to the past 400,000 years?

A) There's more atmospheric carbon dioxide today.

B) There's less atmospheric carbon dioxide today.

C) There have been no changes in atmospheric carbon dioxide levels.

D) Atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have fluctuated randomly.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 5.2 Skill: Factual

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30) According to the graph, by how many parts per million has the concentration of atmospheric carbon dioxide changed between 1980 and 2010?

A) about 20 ppm B) about 50 ppm C) about 80 ppm D) about 110 ppm Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 5.2 Skill: Applied 31) How do scientists "know" the atmospheric levels of carbon dioxide that existed on Earth hundreds or thousands of years ago?

A) They deduce it from the carbon dioxide content of fossil fuels.

B) They measure it from bubbles of gas trapped in Antarctic ice.

C) They estimate it from the relative numbers of carbon-based life forms that existed over time.

D) They measure it from erupting volcanoes, bubbling hot springs, and seeping hydrothermal vents.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 5.2 Skill: Factual 32) What relationship has been shown by the data from Antarctic ice cores?

A) a positive correlation between carbon dioxide concentration and ice core temperature B) a negative correlation between carbon dioxide concentration and ice core temperature C) no correlation between carbon dioxide concentration and ice core temperature D) a confusing relationship between carbon dioxide concentration and ice core temperature Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 5.2 Skill: Factual

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33) The process by which carbon dioxide and water are converted to glucose and oxygen is called A) photosynthesis. B) cellular respiration. C) glycolysis. D) fermentation. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 5.3 Skill: Factual 34) The process of photosynthesis transforms solar energy into ________ energy.

A) chemical B) mechanical C) heat D) kinetic Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 5.3 Skill: Factual 35) Photosynthesis takes place inside a specialized organelle called a ________.

Answer: chloroplast Diff: 1 Topic: 5.3 Skill: Factual 36) Each chloroplast is surrounded by how many membranes?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 5.3 Skill: Factual 37) Which of these increases the amount of surface area that is available for photosynthesis inside the chloroplast?

A) stroma B) chlorophyll C) envelope D) thylakoid Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 5.3 Skill: Factual

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38) The thick fluid found inside chloroplasts is known as A) grana.

B) stroma.

C) chlorophyll.

D) thylakoids.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 5.3 Skill: Factual

39) According to the graph, the chlorophyll pigments found in green leaves are best at absorbing which of these wavelengths of light?

A) 520 nm B) 560 nm C) 620 nm D) 680 nm Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 5.3 Skill: Applied 40) Which of the following is the proper equation for photosynthesis?

A) 6CO2 + 6O2 + sunlight → C6H12O6 + 6H2O B) 6H2O + 6CO2 + sunlight → C6H12O6 + 6O2 C) C6H12O6 + 6O2 + sunlight → 6CO2 + 6H2O D) O2 + H2O + sunlight → C6H12O6 + CO2 Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 5.3 Skill: Factual 41) Glucose is a molecule that supplies ________ to cells.

Answer: energy Diff: 1 Topic: 5.3 Skill: Factual

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42) The first step of photosynthesis is called the A) Calvin cycle.

B) light reactions.

C) citric acid cycle.

D) electron transport chain.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 5.3 Skill: Factual 43) The light reactions of photosynthesis occur in the A) stroma.

B) outer chloroplast membrane.

C) thylakoids.

D) rubisco.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 5.3 Skill: Factual 44) What happens first after chlorophyll absorbs light energy?

A) Water splits into H+ and O2.

B) Hydrogen ions combine with electrons to produce NADPH. C) Electrons are released and move to a higher energy level.

D) Carbon dioxide is converted to sugar.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 5.3 Skill: Conceptual 45) Oxygen is produced during the light reactions when A) NADP+ is converted to NADPH. B) CO2 splits apart at the end of the light reactions.

C) electrons reach the end of the electron transport chain.

D) water is split to provide replacement electrons to chlorophyll.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 5.3 Skill: Conceptual 46) What energy molecule is produced during the light reactions and helps to power the Calvin cycle?

A) ATP B) glucose C) sucrose D) NADP+ Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 5.3 Skill: Conceptual 11 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

47) The Calvin cycle of photosynthesis occurs in the A) stroma.

B) outer chloroplast membrane.

C) thylakoids.

D) rubisco.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 5.3 Skill: Factual 48) What is the initial carbon-containing starting product in the Calvin cycle?

A) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate B) glucose C) ribulose bisphosphate D) rubisco Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 5.3 Skill: Factual 49) The enzyme that catalyzes the reaction between carbon dioxide and ribulose bisphosphate is ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase oxygenase, or ________.

Answer: rubisco Diff: 1 Topic: 5.3 Skill: Factual 50) Excess amounts of which sugar are used by plants to make glucose?

A) G3P B) RuBP C) NADPH D) fructose Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 5.3 Skill: Factual 51) The role of NADP in photosynthesis is to A) pick up and drop off electrons.

B) phosphorylate ADP to ATP. C) convert carbon dioxide to rubisco.

D) absorb sunlight energy.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 5.3 Skill: Conceptual

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52) Which of the following is a true statement about photosynthesis? A) The light reactions produce NADP from sunlight energy. B) Carbon dioxide reacts with 5-carbon molecules during the Calvin cycle. C) ATP is released at the end of the Calvin cycle. D) Water is used during photosynthesis to capture the electrons released from excited chlorophyll pigments. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 5.3 Skill: Conceptual 53) In plant leaves, carbon dioxide enters and oxygen exits via tiny pores called ________. Answer: stomata Diff: 1 Topic: 5.4 Skill: Factual 54) Cells that regulate gas exchange by opening and closing the stomata are called ________ cells. Answer: guard Diff: 1 Topic: 5.4 Skill: Factual 55) During which process does water vapor move out of plant stomata? A) condensation B) combustion C) evaporation D) transpiration Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 5.4 Skill: Factual 56) What happens during photorespiration? A) The Calvin cycle produces twice as much glyceraldehyde 3phosphate (G3P), which is exported to make sugars. B) The enzyme rubisco uses oxygen as its substrate for the reaction it catalyzes with ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP). C) Ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP) is broken down into glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P) and exported to make sugars. D) A second wave of light reactions occurs to replace the Calvin cycle. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 5.4 Skill: Conceptual

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57) What gas do plants release during photorespiration?

A) water vapor B) oxygen C) carbon dioxide D) carbon monoxide Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 5.4 Skill: Factual 58) When can photorespiration occur in plants?

A) when stomata are closed B) when oxygen levels inside the leaf are low C) when the plant is undergoing transpiration D) during the Calvin cycle Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 5.4 Skill: Conceptual 59) Which of the following types of plants undergo the most photorespiration?

A) C2 plants B) C3 plants C) C4 plants D) CAM plants Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 5.4 Skill: Conceptual 60) Which plants are best adapted for very dry, hot environments such as deserts?

A) C2 plants B) C3 plants C) C4 plants D) CAM plants Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 5.4 Skill: Applied 61) C3 and C4 plants are named after the A) sequence in which the carbon-containing molecules were discovered.

B) botanically assigned geographic coordinates where the plants are located.

C) first stable carbon compounds that are produced during the second portion of photosynthesis.

D) first carbon compounds that are produced during the light reactions of each type of plant.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 5.4 Skill: Conceptual 14 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

62) Which of the following is most likely to be a C4 plant?

A) switchgrass B) clover C) rose D) cactus Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 5.4 Skill: Applied 63) A CAM plant A) uses 4-carbon sugars to pump carbon dioxide molecules to the Calvin cycle.

B) is often used in agriculture because of its ability to conserve water.

C) slows water loss by opening stomata only at night.

D) tends to grow very slowly because of its inability to undergo the Calvin cycle.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 5.4 Skill: Conceptual 64) Which of the following types of plant stores carbon dioxide as an organic acid in its vacuoles?

A) C2 plants B) C3 plants C) C4 plants D) CAM plants Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 5.4 Skill: Factual 65) How can deforestation increase global warming? Deforestation can A) decrease the total amount of photosynthesis as C3 plants are harvested.

B) increase the number of C4 plants, thereby increasing photorespiration.

C) cause runoff to become more acidic, thereby blocking the uptake of atmospheric carbon dioxide.

D) increase the uptake of carbon dioxide by encouraging the growth of faster growing plants.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 5.4 Skill: Applied

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66) How is global warming likely to affect an animal species that has narrow temperature requirements?

Global warming is likely to A) cause the expansion of the species' range.

B) cause the extinction of the species.

C) reduce the diseases that threaten the species.

D) have no effect on the species.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 5.5 Skill: Applied 67) Increased amounts of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere have made the ocean A) more acidic.

B) more basic.

C) closer to neutral in pH. D) richer in aquatic species.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 5.5 Skill: Factual 68) Which of these activities could help you to slow the rate of global warming?

A) only buy food in plastic containers B) drive faster than the speed limit C) replace an old refrigerator with a new one D) mow the grass more frequently Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 5.5 Skill: Applied 69) A(n) ________ could exert the most influence to speed the reduction of greenhouse gas emissions.

A) individual B) business owner C) nonprofit corporation D) policy maker Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 5.5 Skill: Applied 70) A decrease in the amount of greenhouse gases in Earth's atmosphere would result in A) cooler average global temperatures.

B) warmer average global temperatures.

C) no change in average global temperatures.

D) cooler temperatures in the northern hemisphere and warmer temperatures in the southern hemisphere.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 5.5 Skill: Conceptual 16 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk) Chapter 6 Cancer: DNA Synthesis, Mitosis, and Meiosis 1) What term describes a harmless, noncancerous or precancerous tumor?

A) benign B) carcinogenic C) malignant D) metastatic Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 6.1 Skill: Factual 2) Which term describes a cancerous tumor?

A) benign B) carcinogenic C) malignant D) oncogenic Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 6.1 Skill: Factual 3) What is the name of the process by which cancer cells break off of tumors and spread to other parts of the body?

A) angiogenesis B) carcinogenesis C) metastasis D) mutagenesis Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 6.1 Skill: Factual 4) ________ is the cause of about one-third of all cancer deaths.

A) Smoking tobacco B) Exposure to viruses C) Exposure to ultraviolet light D) Exposure to high-energy radiation Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 6.1 Skill: Factual

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5) The process by which cells of a malignant tumor can break away and start new cancers at distant locations is called ________.

Answer: metastasis Diff: 1 Topic: 6.1 Skill: Factual 6) Cancer cells within which of the following biopsy samples would be the best indicator that the cancer has metastasized and is circulating through the bloodstream?

A) liver B) lymph node C) pancreas D) ovary Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 6.1 Skill: Conceptual 7) Which of the following is not a known carcinogen?

A) certain viruses B) ultraviolet light C) cigarette smoke D) pet dander Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 6.1 Skill: Factual 8) Free radicals remove ________ from other molecules.

A) protons B) neutrons C) electrons D) photons Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 6.1 Skill: Factual 9) Which of the following can neutralize dangerous free radicals within the body?

A) nucleotides from DNA B) antioxidants from dietary fruits and vegetables C) carbohydrates from dietary rice and pasta D) hormones from the ovaries and testes Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 6.1 Skill: Factual

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10) Which of the following is a risk factor for colon cancer?

A) advanced age B) high-fiber diet C) asbestos inhalation D) male gender Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 6.1 Skill: Factual 11) What are the two halves of a duplicated chromosome called?

A) alleles B) centromeres C) homologous chromosomes D) sister chromatids Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 6.2 Skill: Factual 12) Consider a strand of DNA with the sequence GAATTCGGCA. What is the sequence of the complementary strand?

A) ACGGCTTAAG B) AGGCCTAATG C) CTTAAGCCGT D) GAATTCGGCA Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 6.2 Skill: Applied 13) What is the name for the region toward the middle of a replicated chromosome where sister chromatids are connected?

A) centriole B) centromere C) karyotype D) chromatid Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 6.2 Skill: Factual

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14) Which of the following is a feature of DNA? A) Adenine (A) forms a base pair with cytosine (C). B) The backbone of each strand is composed of alternating sugar and phosphate groups. C) Complementary strands are held together by ionic bonds. D) DNA remains condensed in a short linear form both before and after cell division. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 6.2 Skill: Factual 15) In a certain species of animal, 33% of the bases in its DNA are A. What percent of the bases are C? A) 8.5% B) 17% C) 33% D) 34% Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 6.2 Skill: Applied 16) The two halves of a duplicated chromosome are called ________ (two words).

Answer: sister chromatids Diff: 1 Topic: 6.2 Skill: Factual 17) ________ (two words) is the enzyme that assists in DNA synthesis.

Answer: DNA polymerase Diff: 1 Topic: 6.2 Skill: Factual 18) In a bacterial species, 20% of the bases in its DNA are C. What percent of the bases are G? A) 80% B) 40% C) 20% D) 10% Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 6.2 Skill: Applied

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19) The term "semiconservative replication" refers to the fact that A) DNA is created from only four of nine available nucleotides. B) the DNA molecule includes a parental strand and newly created DNA strand. C) DNA is not just one strand but two complementary strands. D) the mode of DNA replication is only tentatively described. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 6.2 Skill: Conceptual 20) Nucleotides in opposing strands of DNA that bind to each other are called A) semiconservative.

B) complementary.

C) conjoined.

D) sister chromatids.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 6.2 Skill: Factual 21) The scientists that first described the structure of DNA were A) Frankford and Joules.

B) Culbertson and Gallo.

C) Watson and Crick.

D) Cook and Wiley.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 6.2 Skill: Factual 22) Bacteria are single cells that replicate themselves by binary fission, resulting in genetically identical daughter cells. These cells undergo A) sexual reproduction.

B) asexual reproduction.

C) fertilization.

D) condensation.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 6.2 Skill: Conceptual

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23) If a double-stranded DNA molecule is like a twisted rope ladder with handrails and steps, what would the steps in the ladder represent? A) phosphate groups B) sugar (deoxyribose) molecules C) nitrogenous bases D) DNA polymerase Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 6.2 Skill: Conceptual

24) DNA polymerase moves along the length of the unwound helix, starting at the end of one strand and finishing at the end of the other strand. As shown in this figure, what is the result of this phenomenon?

A) One resulting double strand of DNA is composed of new DNA, and one is composed of parental DNA. B) Free nucleotides are added to one strand of parental DNA but not to the other.

C) The DNA polymerase moves toward the unwound helix on one strand of DNA and away from it on the other strand.

D) DNA polymerase is destroyed as it binds nucleotides to form each daughter strand.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 6.2 Skill: Conceptual 6 Email: r ichard@qwconsultancy.com

25) Which type of cell division produces daughter cells that are identical to the original cell?

A) meiosis in animals B) meiosis in plants C) mitosis in animals D) meiosis in bacteria Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 6.3 Skill: Factual 26) Which of the following is a phase that occurs during mitosis?

A) first gap phase B) metaphase C) second gap phase D) S phase Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 6.3 Skill: Factual 27) Which of the following is the correct order of events in the cell cycle?

A) G1, G2, S, mitosis, cytokinesis B) G1, S, G2, mitosis, cytokinesis C) S, G1, G2, cytokinesis, mitosis D) S, G1, G2, mitosis, cytokinesis Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 6.3 Skill: Factual 28) During which part of mitosis does the nuclear envelope break down?

A) anaphase B) metaphase C) prophase D) telophase Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 6.3 Skill: Factual 29) Which of the following is the correct order of events in mitosis?

A) anaphase, metaphase, prophase, telophase B) anaphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase C) metaphase, prophase, telophase, anaphase D) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 6.3 Skill: Factual 7 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

30) Consider a cell that underwent mitosis but not cytokinesis. The result would be A) a cell with one nucleus containing twice the normal number of chromosomes. B) a cell with two nuclei. C) daughter cells with no nucleus. D) daughter cells with too few chromosomes. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 6.3 Skill: Applied 31) A cell plate forms during which process?

A) cytokinesis in an animal cell B) cytokinesis in a plant cell C) mitosis in an animal cell D) mitosis in a plant cell Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 6.3 Skill: Factual 32) Which carbohydrate is used to create the cell wall during cytokinesis in plant cells?

A) cellulose B) sucrose C) glucose D) lactose Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 6.3 Skill: Factual 33) During which phase of mitosis are the replicated chromosome aligned in the middle of the cell?

A) prophase B) anaphase C) metaphase D) telophase Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 6.3 Skill: Factual 34) During which phase of mitosis does the cytoplasm divide?

A) prophase B) anaphase C) metaphase D) telophase Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 6.3 Skill: Conceptual

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35) During which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids separate to opposite poles of the cell?

A) prophase B) anaphase C) metaphase D) telophase Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 6.3 Skill: Factual 36) Most cells spend most of their time in which phase?

A) interphase B) prophase C) metaphase D) anaphase Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 6.3 Skill: Factual 37) Which of the following cells spends the most time in interphase?

A) skin cells on the hands B) epithelial cells lining the intestine C) nerve cells in the brain D) mucous membrane cells in the mouth Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 6.3 Skill: Applied 38) Why do chromosomes resemble the letter X when viewed during metaphase?

A) Because they all appear and function as X chromosomes at that stage.

B) Because there are two sister chromatids joined at a point in the middle (the centromere).

C) Because microtubules encircle and attach pairs of chromosomes to each other at the centromere.

D) Because each X-shaped structure is actually four chromosomes joined at the centromere.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 6.3 Skill: Conceptual 39) Most organelles duplicate during A) prophase of mitosis.

B) telophase of mitosis.

C) the S phase of interphase.

D) the G1 phase of interphase.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 6.3 Skill: Factual 9 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

40) Use the diagram to complete this sentence. Microtubules connect centrioles to ________ during mitosis.

A) the nuclear envelope B) uncondensed DNA C) cytoplasm D) centromeres Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 6.3 Skill: Factual 41) During the metaphase checkpoint, the cell checks whether A) it is large enough to divide.

B) its DNA has been replicated correctly.

C) its chromosomes are properly attached to microtubules.

D) there are sufficient nutrients available.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 6.4 Skill: Factual

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42) What is the difference between oncogenes and proto-oncogenes?

A) Oncogenes encode proteins that help a cell divide under favorable conditions; proto-oncogenes encode proteins that help a cell divide under unfavorable conditions.

B) Oncogenes encode proteins that prevent cell division under unfavorable conditions; proto-oncogenes encode proteins that allow cell division under unfavorable conditions.

C) Proto-oncogenes encode proteins that help a cell divide under favorable conditions; oncogenes encode proteins that help a cell divide under unfavorable conditions.

D) Proto-oncogenes encode proteins that prevent cell division under unfavorable conditions; oncogenes encode proteins that allow cell division under unfavorable conditions.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 6.4 Skill: Factual 43) A gene that encodes a protein necessary for a cell to stop at checkpoints is an example of a(n) A) angiogenesis inhibitor.

B) growth factor.

C) oncogene.

D) tumor-suppressor gene.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 6.4 Skill: Conceptual 44) What is the process by which a tumor attracts and redirects blood vessels to keep it supplied with O2 and nutrients?

A) angiogenesis B) carcinogenesis C) contact inhibition D) tumor suppression Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 6.4 Skill: Factual 45) Which of the following is a common feature of cancer cells?

A) anchorage dependence B) contact inhibition C) metastasis D) controlled division Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 6.4 Skill: Conceptual

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46) The multiple-hit model of cancer means that A) most cancer-causing mutations are passed on to future generations. B) most cancers occur in many different tissues simultaneously. C) multiple mutations are required to cause most forms of cancer. D) a person gets cancer only if both of his or her parents had cancer. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 6.4 Skill: Factual 47) ________ are places in the cell cycle where proteins survey the cell to make sure that conditions for a favorable cell division have been met.

Answer: Checkpoints Diff: 1 Topic: 6.4 Skill: Factual 48) Which of the following is a protein that acts as a tumor suppressor by fixing damaged DNA in cancerous cells?

A) HER2 B) Trisomy X C) BRCA2 D) CA125 Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 6.4 Skill: Factual 49) Mutations of the gene that encodes p53 result in A) damaged DNA proceeding through mitosis.

B) damaged DNA being repaired.

C) cells containing damaged DNA to "commit suicide."

D) a receptor protein with a different shape than usual.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 6.4 Skill: Factual 50) The surgical removal of cells, tissue, or fluid that will be analyzed to determine whether they are cancerous is called a ________.

Answer: biopsy Diff: 1 Topic: 6.5 Skill: Factual

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51) The most common type of cancer that people in the United States die from is A) lung cancer.

B) breast cancer.

C) skin cancer.

D) prostate cancer.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 6.5 Skill: Factual 52) Most forms of chemotherapy target which feature of cancer cells?

A) anchorage independence B) cell division C) invasiveness of surrounding tissues D) metastasis Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 6.5 Skill: Factual 53) Radiation therapy works primarily by A) causing problems with microtubule formation, preventing chromosomes from aligning properly during mitosis.

B) causing tumor cells to stick together, making them easier to remove.

C) damaging DNA in cells so that cells can no longer grow and divide.

D) making cancer cells divide so fast that they may develop extra mutations and die.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 6.5 Skill: Factual 54) A scientist who observes cancer cells under a microscope would likely see A) orderly rows of cells.

B) cells that are much smaller than normal cells.

C) large growths containing fluid.

D) disorganized cells.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 6.5 Skill: Conceptual 55) A ________ is a surgical instrument used to perform biopsies.

Answer: laparoscope Diff: 1 Topic: 6.5 Skill: Factual

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56) Elevated CA125 in a patient's blood may indicate ovarian cancer. However, routine screening of CA125 levels is not practical due to which of the following reasons? A) CA125 levels vary among individuals. B) CA 125 levels cannot be detected during certain portions of the menstrual cycle. C) Only ovaries secrete CA125. D) CA125 levels are elevated only at the beginning of cancer development and then cease abruptly. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 6.5 Skill: Factual 57) The members of a pair of nonsex chromosomes are called A) alleles.

B) diploids.

C) gametes.

D) homologous chromosomes.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 6.6 Skill: Factual 58) Different versions of the same gene are called A) alleles.

B) diploids.

C) homologous chromosomes.

D) sister chromatids.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 6.6 Skill: Factual 59) Normal sperm or egg cells in a human A) are produced by mitosis.

B) have one copy of each chromosome.

C) have two copies of each chromosome.

D) are genetically identical to every other sperm or egg cell made by that person.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 6.6 Skill: Factual

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60) Tetraploid organisms have four copies of each chromosome instead of the two copies that humans have. How many copies of each chromosome end up in a gamete produced by a tetraploid organism? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 6.6 Skill: Applied 61) A normal human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is a(n) A) egg cell.

B) somatic cell of a female.

C) somatic cell of a male.

D) sperm cell.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 6.6 Skill: Applied 62) A normal human cell containing 44 autosomes and two X chromosomes is a(n) A) egg cell.

B) somatic cell of a female.

C) somatic cell of a male.

D) sperm cell.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 6.6 Skill: Applied 63) Homologous chromosomes separate during A) meiosis I. B) meiosis II. C) mitosis.

D) cytokinesis.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 6.6 Skill: Factual 64) Sister chromatids separate during A) meiosis I and meiosis II. B) meiosis I and mitosis.

C) mitosis and cytokinesis.

D) meiosis II and mitosis.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 6.6 Skill: Factual

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65) Crossing over occurs during A) anaphase I of meiosis I. B) anaphase II of meiosis II. C) prophase I of meiosis I. D) prophase II of meiosis II. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 6.6 Skill: Factual 66) Genes that are located on the same chromosome are called A) alleles.

B) diploid genes.

C) homologous genes.

D) linked genes.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 6.6 Skill: Factual 67) How does crossing over increase genetic diversity?

A) Crossing over increases the number of distinct combinations of genes that may be present in a gamete.

B) Crossing over allows specific genes to travel together on one chromosome.

C) Crossing over increases the incidence of mutations in genes.

D) Crossing over prevents the inheritance of harmful mutations.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 6.6 Skill: Factual 68) ________ are specialized cells (egg cells and sperm cells, for example) used for sexual reproduction.

Answer: Gametes Diff: 1 Topic: 6.6 Skill: Factual 69) Which of these conditions is caused by nondisjunction of autosomal chromosomes?

A) XO — Turner syndrome B) Trisomy 21 — Down syndrome C) XXY — Kleinfelter syndrome D) Trisomy X — Meta female Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 6.6 Skill: Factual

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70) Mutations are only passed from parent to child if the mutation occurs in the gonads that will be used to produce A) a gamete.

B) an autosomal cell.

C) a diploid cell.

D) telomerase.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 6.6 Skill: Factual

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Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk) Chapter 7 Are You Only as Smart as Your Genes? Mendelian and Quantitative Genetics 1) Alternate forms of a gene are called A) alleles.

B) chromosomes.

C) gametes.

D) homologues.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 7.1 Skill: Factual 2) A typical gene contains the instructions for making a A) chromosome.

B) lipid.

C) polysaccharide.

D) protein.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 7.1 Skill: Factual 3) What causes the differences between two human cell types (for example, a skin cell and a brain cell)?

A) Different cell types begin with the same genes but eliminate certain genes as they develop.

B) Different cell types contain different genes.

C) Different cell types contain different proteins that give each cell a different function.

D) Different cell types contain the same genes but use different combinations of them.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 7.1 Skill: Factual 4) Half of the gametes produced by an organism with the genotype Aa will receive the A allele, while half will receive the a allele. This is a demonstration of A) independent assortment.

B) mutation.

C) random fertilization.

D) segregation.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 7.1 Skill: Applied

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5) Assuming that the genes are on separate chromosomes, an organism with the genotype AaBb will make gametes in the following proportions: 1/4 AB, 1/4 Ab, 1/4 aB, and 1/4 ab. This is an example of A) independent assortment.

B) mutation.

C) random fertilization.

D) segregation.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 7.1 Skill: Applied 6) Which of these produces genetic diversity in a population?

A) independent assortment B) random fertilization C) segregation D) mutation Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 7.1 Skill: Conceptual 7) The members of a pair of chromosomes (for example, the two copies of chromosome 1) are called A) alleles.

B) gametes.

C) homologous chromosomes.

D) sister chromatids.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 7.1 Skill: Factual 8) Which of the following is a true statement about chromosomes?

A) Only eukaryotic cells contain chromosomes.

B) Chromosomes are made of carbohydrates.

C) Genes are found on chromosomes.

D) The most complex organisms have the largest number of chromosomes.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 7.1 Skill: Conceptual 9) Which of the following is true about genes that are located on different chromosomes?

A) These genes are inherited independently of each other.

B) Only the dominant alleles of these genes tend to be inherited together.

C) These genes are always inherited together.

D) These genes are more likely to undergo mutation.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 7.1 Skill: Conceptual 2 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

10) A mistake made during copying of genetic information is called a A) genotype.

B) mutation.

C) variance.

D) zygote.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 7.1 Skill: Factual 11) Gametes fuse together during A) embryonic development.

B) fertilization.

C) meiosis.

D) mitosis.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 7.1 Skill: Factual 12) Monozygotic (identical) twins are the result of A) one sperm fertilizing two different eggs.

B) one egg being fertilized by two different sperm.

C) one embryo splitting to become two embryos.

D) two different sperm fertilizing two different eggs.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 7.1 Skill: Factual 13) Segregation of alleles occurs when A) homologous chromosomes separate during meiosis.

B) homologous chromosomes separate during mitosis.

C) sister chromatids separate during meiosis.

D) sister chromatids separate during mitosis.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 7.1 Skill: Factual 14) Specialized cells used for sexual reproduction (for example, sperm cells) are called ________.

Answer: gametes Diff: 1 Topic: 7.1 Skill: Factual

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15) Segments of DNA that generally code for proteins are called ________.

Answer: genes Diff: 1 Topic: 7.1 Skill: Factual 16) Prokaryotes, like bacteria, contain a single ________ that is circular.

Answer: chromosome Diff: 1 Topic: 7.1 Skill: Factual 17) The growth and reproduction of an individual is called its A) life cycle.

B) genotype.

C) phenotype.

D) normal distribution.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 7.1 Skill: Factual 18) Which if the following is the correct sequence of how an animal is "built"?

A) fertilization → meiosis → zygote → embryo B) meiosis → fertilization → zygote → embryo C) fertilization → zygote → meiosis → embryo D) meiosis → fertilization → embryo → zygote Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 7.1 Skill: Factual 19) Which of the following is a true statement about chromosome number?

A) Among all known living creatures, humans have the most chromosomes.

B) Animals have more chromosomes than plants.

C) Eukaryotes have more chromosomes than prokaryotes.

D) All organisms have pairs of chromosomes.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 7.1 Skill: Conceptual

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20) If the DNA contained in the chromosomes of an organism is similar to an instruction manual, then what are the genes "instructing" the cell to do?

A) grow in size until a certain point is reached, then reproduce itself B) convert carbohydrates into enzymes C) change shape and structure to meet the demands of the local environment D) synthesize specific proteins from amino acids Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 7.1 Skill: Conceptual 21) Which of the following would be expected in normal eye cells but not in normal heart cells?

A) the protein rhodopsin B) light-detecting mitochondria C) DNA that codes for the conversion of mitochondria into rhodopsin D) genes for the production of rhodopsin Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 7.1 Skill: Applied 22) DNA is often likened to an instruction manual. According to this analogy, the typographical errors that would inevitably result when the DNA "manual" is transcribed would be similar to A) dominant alleles.

B) recessive alleles.

C) mutations.

D) homologous chromosomes.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 7.1 Skill: Conceptual 23) Homologous chromosomes A) almost always contain identical alleles.

B) generally contain the same genes.

C) are inherited together because they don't separate during meiosis.

D) are fewer in body cells than in gametes.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 7.1 Skill: Factual

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24) Combined, your parents could have produced as many as ________ different types of children, genetically speaking.

A) 46 B) 285 C) 8 million D) 64 trillion Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 7.1 Skill: Factual 25) Fraternal twins are also referred to as A) dizygotic.

B) identical.

C) monozygotic.

D) heterozygous.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 7.1 Skill: Factual 26) Gregor Mendel's genetic research A) was not appreciated by the scientific community until after he died.

B) focused on pea plants because they have fewer than four different heritable traits.

C) produced results that can be used to predict heritability in plants but not animals.

D) included detailed studies on the phenomena of codominance and incomplete dominance.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 7.2 Skill: Factual 27) A typical recessive allele codes for a A) lethal protein.

B) nonfunctional protein.

C) functional protein.

D) mutant protein.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 7.2 Skill: Factual

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28) In humans, heterozygotes are referred to as ________, particularly when the recessive allele is associated with a genetic disease. A) vectors B) dizygotic C) carriers D) qualitative Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 7.2 Skill: Factual 29) If you're interested in studying one gene within a human, and each gene has two alleles, then the Punnett square that you would use to predict the inheritance of the alleles would contain how many total boxes?

A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 16 Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 7.2 Skill: Applied 30) CFTR/CFTR-ΔF508 refers to the A) dominant allele that causes cystic fibrosis.

B) recessive allele that causes cystic fibrosis.

C) homozygous genotype of a cystic fibrosis victim.

D) heterozygous genotype of a carrier of cystic fibrosis.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 7.2 Skill: Factual

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31) How many different types of offspring (genotypes) are possible as a result of this cross, according to the Punnett square?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 7.2 Skill: Factual 32) A heterozygous organism A) always shows a recessive trait.

B) can't produce gametes.

C) has two identical alleles of a gene.

D) has two different alleles of a gene.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 7.2 Skill: Factual 33) Which of the following situations most likely describes a recessive genetic disorder?

A) The mutant allele of the gene encodes a completely nonfunctional protein.

B) The mutant allele of the gene encodes a protein that has both the normal function and a new, harmful function.

C) The mutant allele of the gene encodes a protein that has a new, harmful function.

D) The mutant allele of the gene encodes a protein with the normal function but twice the normal activity.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 7.2 Skill: Applied

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34) A dominant genetic disorder occurs when A) only one allele of the gene is the mutant allele. B) both alleles of the gene are the mutant allele. C) neither allele of the gene is the mutant allele. D) either one or both alleles of the gene are mutant. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 7.2 Skill: Conceptual 35) In a certain plant species, thick-shelled seeds are caused by the dominant allele T, while thinshelled seeds What are caused by the recessive allele t. Consider an individual plant that has thin-shelled seeds. is the genotype of this individual?

A) TT B) tt C) Tt D) tt or Tt Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 7.2 Skill: Conceptual 36) A mutation in a gene A) might have no effect on the protein encoded by the gene.

B) must result in the creation of a nonfunctional protein.

C) cannot result in a protein with a new function.

D) invariably results in a change in the phenotype of an organism.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 7.2 Skill: Factual 37) Because of the law of independent assortment, A) an individual will get most of their alleles from one parent.

B) monozygotic twins will have about 50% of their alleles in common.

C) two typical siblings will have about 50% of their alleles in common.

D) dizygotic twins will have 100% of their alleles in common.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 7.2 Skill: Conceptual

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38) If a certain recessive allele can cause a change in cellular proteins that ultimately leads to circulatory problems and premature death, then A) any homozygous individual will always have an advantage over any heterozygous individual. B) any heterozygous individual will always have an advantage over any homozygous individual. C) any homozygous individual will always have a disadvantage compared to any heterozygous individual. D) any heterozygous individual will have an advantage over any homozygous recessive individual. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 7.2 Skill: Conceptual 39) Cystic fibrosis is caused by the allele f, which is completely recessive to the normal dominant allele F. Consider a couple with the genotype Ff. What is the chance that their first child will develop cystic fibrosis?

A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 7.2 Skill: Applied 40) Cystic fibrosis is caused by the allele f, which is completely recessive to the normal dominant allele F. Consider a couple with the genotype Ff. What is the chance that their second child will develop cystic fibrosis?

A) 25% B) 50% C) 75% D) 100% E) It depends on which alleles were inherited by their first child.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 7.2 Skill: Applied 41) Huntington's disease is caused by the allele H, which is completely dominant to the normal recessive allele h. Consider a couple where the man has the genotype Hh, and the woman has the genotype hh.

What is the chance that their first child will develop Huntington's disease?

A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 7.2 Skill: Applied 10 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

42) In humans, straight thumbs are caused by the dominant allele T, while individuals who are tt have thumbs that curve backward ("hitchhiker's thumb"). Consider a family in which the father has straight thumbs, and both the mother and their only child have curved thumbs. What is the chance that their next child will have curved thumbs?

A) 25% B) 50% C) 75% D) 100% Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 7.2 Skill: Applied 43) In pea plants, the allele for purple flowers (P) is dominant to the allele for white flowers (p). In a cross between a purple-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant, all 73 of the offspring plants had purple flowers. Which of the following most likely describes the cross above?

A) pp x pp B) Pp x Pp C) PP x PP D) PP x pp Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 7.2 Skill: Applied 44) An individual who is a carrier for a recessive genetic disorder but does not have symptoms of the disorder is A) heterozygous.

B) homozygous for the recessive allele.

C) homozygous for the dominant allele.

D) either homozygous for the recessive allele or heterozygous.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 7.2 Skill: Factual 45) How many different kinds of gametes can be made by an individual with the genotype AaBb? A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 16 Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 7.2 Skill: Applied

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46) Which of the following is a cross between parents who each have two different alleles for each of two different genes? A) AAbb x aaBB B) aabb x AABB C) AaBb x AaBb D) AaBB x AABb Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 7.2 Skill: Conceptual 47) A ________ cross is a genetic cross involving two traits.

Answer: dihybrid Diff: 1 Topic: 7.2 Skill: Factual 48) The ________ of an organism is the genetic makeup of that organism.

Answer: genotype Diff: 1 Topic: 7.2 Skill: Factual 49) The ________ of an organism refers to its physical traits.

Answer: phenotype Diff: 1 Topic: 7.2 Skill: Factual 50) An individual who has two copies of the same allele is ________ for that allele.

Answer: homozygous Diff: 1 Topic: 7.2 Skill: Factual 51) Which of the following is an example of a qualitative trait in humans?

A) height B) skin color C) Huntington's disease D) intelligence Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 7.3 Skill: Conceptual

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52) Which of the following is an example of a quantitative trait in humans?

A) cheek dimples B) number of toes C) musical ability D) cystic fibrosis Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 7.3 Skill: Conceptual 53) Typical quantitative traits A) are easy to follow using Punnett squares.

B) are not affected by the environment.

C) are usually influenced by only one gene.

D) show continuous variation.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 7.3 Skill: Factual 54) What is the term used to describe a trait that is controlled by many genes?

A) dihybrid B) dominant C) heritable D) polygenic Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 7.3 Skill: Factual 55) A trait that shows continuous variation is typically influenced by A) genes only.

B) environmental factors only.

C) both genes and environmental factors.

D) neither genes nor environmental factors.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 7.3 Skill: Factual 56) Which of these describes influence on a trait that is due to genes and not environment?

A) Hair dye turns Angela's brown hair to red.

B) Sandy's hair becomes blonder when she spends time out in the sun.

C) Jen has brown hair, just like her mother and father.

D) Identical twins Kiera and Tanya have different colored hair.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 7.3 Skill: Factual 13 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

57) A scientist studying the heritability of IQ would expect to find the highest correlation between the IQ scores of A) two unrelated children.

B) a child and his mother.

C) monozygotic twins.

D) dizygotic twins.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 7.3 Skill: Conceptual 58) The IQ test developed by Alfred Binet was designed to A) measure intelligence based on the most accepted theory of the time.

B) compare the intelligence of different cultural subpopulations in the general population.

C) determine the relative effects of genes and environment on intelligence.

D) identify school children in need of remedial help.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 7.3 Skill: Factual 59) Consider a trait that shows continuous variation. If the variance is low, then A) the majority of individuals will be far above the mean.

B) the majority of individuals will be very close to the mean.

C) the majority of individuals will be far below the mean.

D) relatively few individuals will be very close to the mean.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 7.3 Skill: Factual 60) A ________ trait has an "off-or-on" character, where individuals have either one phenotype or another (for example, purple vs. white flowers).

Answer: qualitative Diff: 1 Topic: 7.3 Skill: Factual 61) A ________ trait shows continuous variation, where there is a large range of phenotypes in a population (for example, height or skin color).

Answer: quantitative Diff: 1 Topic: 7.3 Skill: Factual 62) The estimated influence of genes (as opposed to environment) on a trait is called ________.

Answer: heritability Diff: 1 Topic: 7.3 Skill: Factual 14 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

63) The large variation in shoe size among humans is due to a trait that is A) dizygotic.

B) qualitative.

C) quantitative.

D) polygenic.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 7.3 Skill: Conceptual 64) The difference between the lowest and highest values on the x-axis of a normal distribution curve represents the ________ for the population that is being studied.

A) bell-shaped curve B) mean value C) variance D) frequency distribution Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 7.3 Skill: Conceptual

65) According to this graph, what can be concluded about immunity in these birds?

A) The heritability value is approximately 0.50.

B) Genes explain all the variation in immunity among birds in this population.

C) Environment still plays a role in these birds' immunity, even though heritability is high.

D) The heritability of immunity follows a bell-shaped curve, indicating a normal distribution.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 7.3 Skill: Applied

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66) The highest point on a bell-shaped curve represents the A) maximum amount of variation in a trait.

B) heritability value of a trait.

C) number of people in the population who are heterozygous.

D) mean of the population.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 7.3 Skill: Factual 67) If the estimated heritability of a trait is approximately 0.50, then A) the environment must have little to no influence over the expression of the trait.

B) genes exclusively control the expression of the trait in at least 50% of the population.

C) at least 50% of the variation in the trait in the population is due to genetic differences.

D) the environment completely controls the variation in the trait in the population.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 7.3 Skill: Conceptual 68) Which of the following pairs of people would provide the most useful information to geneticists, regarding the heritability of a certain trait?

A) non-twin siblings separated into different households soon after birth B) monozygotic twins separated into different households soon after birth C) non-twin siblings raised in the same household since birth D) monozygotic twins raised in the same household since birth Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 7.3 Skill: Applied 69) According to one study, the heritability of IQ score in humans has a value of 0.52. What does this tell us about the role of "nature" vs. "nurture" in determining intelligence in humans?

A) Intelligence is a qualitative trait, affected by both genetics and the environment, and it can't be predicted by heritability scores.

B) Children of highly intelligent parents will likely be very intelligent, regardless of the environment in which they're raised.

C) There is an approximately equal chance that children of intelligent parents will be as intelligent as their parents, depending on the environment in which they're raised.

D) High heritability values don't mean that the intelligence of children can be accurately predicted because the environment plays a strong role.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 7.4 Skill: Conceptual

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70) Which of the following was a conclusion based on experiments with "maze-bright" and "maze-dull" rats?

A) An enriched environment increases maze-running ability only in dull rats.

B) A poor environment adversely affects maze-running ability in both bright and dull rats.

C) Maze-running ability is highly heritable and unaffected by environment.

D) Maze-running ability is based entirely on environment and unaffected by genes.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 7.4 Skill: Factual 71) What can be concluded about the ability of doctorate-category sperm to help produce children that are smarter than average?

A) Because intelligence has no genetic basis, there's no real reason to expect children produced by this type of sperm to be smarter than average.

B) Children produced by this type of sperm have an approximately 72% chance of being more intelligent than average.

C) Children produced by this type of sperm will be smarter than average only if the mother has a high IQ. D) There is currently no way to predict whether children produced by this type of sperm will be smarter than average.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 7.4 Skill: Conceptual

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Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk) Chapter 8 DNA Detective: Complex Patterns of Inheritance and DNA Fingerprinting 1) When the phenotype of a heterozygote is intermediate between both homozygotes, the pattern of inheritance is ________.

A) incomplete dominance B) codominance C) independent assortment D) sex linkage Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Factual 2) When does codominance occur?

A) both of the alleles in a heterozygote are expressed phenotypically in an individual B) expression of two different alleles alternates from one generation to the next C) a heterozygote expresses an intermediate phenotype D) offspring exhibit several different phenotypic expressions of a single trait Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Factual 3) The AB blood type, in which both A and B alleles are expressed, is an example of A) incomplete dominance.

B) codominance.

C) independent assortment.

D) sex linkage.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Conceptual 4) If a blue-colored flower crossed with a white-colored flower produced light blue-colored flower offspring, then it's most likely a case of A) incomplete dominance.

B) codominance.

C) independent assortment.

D) sex linkage.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Conceptual

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5) Phenotypic features that are coded for by several genes, such as eye color in humans, are called A) linked.

B) polytrophic.

C) polygenic.

D) codominant.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Factual 6) Multiple ________ occurs in the ABO blood system, where there are three distinct alleles in human populations.

Answer: allelism Diff: 1 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Factual 7) There are NO sugars on the surface of any of the red blood cells for which blood type?

A) type A B) type B C) type AB D) type O Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Conceptual 8) A woman with type AB blood has sugars on what percent of her red blood cells?

A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 100% Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Applied 9) The pattern of inheritance for Rh factor is best described as ________.

A) incomplete dominance.

B) codominance.

C) dominant-recessive.

D) sex linkage.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Conceptual

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10) Which of the following individuals doesn't have the Rh factor on their red blood cells?

A) Rh+ Rh+ B) Rh+ RhC) Rh- Rh+ D) Rh- RhAnswer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Factual 11) A child with type O blood could not have a parent with type ________ blood.

A) A B) B C) AB D) O Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Conceptual 12) A child with the genotype IAi has type ________ blood.

A) A B) B C) AB D) O Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Factual 13) A person who is homozygous recessive for both blood type alleles has type ________ blood.

A) A B) B C) AB D) O Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Factual 14) People with the same blood type A) are always unrelated.

B) are always related.

C) may or may not be related.

D) always have both alleles in common but are not necessarily related.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Applied 3 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

15) Which statement about the inheritance of blood types in humans is correct?

A) Alleles IA and i are dominant to the allele IB. B) Alleles IB and i are dominant to the allele IA. C) Alleles IA and IB are dominant to the allele i.

D) Alleles IA, IB and i are codominant. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Factual 16) The alleles responsible for the ABO blood types of humans are an example of ________ alleles.

Answer: multiple Diff: 1 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Factual 17) In human ABO blood types, the alleles for A and B are said to be ________ because they're both expressed.

Answer: codominant Diff: 1 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Factual 18) Type AB blood is a result of A) polygenic inheritance.

B) simple dominance.

C) codominance.

D) sex-linked recessive inheritance.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Factual 19) A woman with type A blood has the alleles IA and i. Her blood type is a result of A) polygenic inheritance.

B) simple dominance.

C) codominance.

D) sex-linked recessive inheritance.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Conceptual

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20) If one person in a population has two different alleles of a particular gene and it's known that other people in the population have yet another different allele of this gene, then this is an example of A) codominance.

B) pleiotropy.

C) incomplete dominance.

D) multiple allelism.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Factual 21) When a dominant allele has different effects between heterozygous individuals and homozygous individuals, the phenomenon is called A) codominance.

B) continuous variation.

C) incomplete dominance.

D) polygenic inheritance.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Factual 22) A patient with which blood type can receive blood from any donor?

A) type A B) type B C) type AB D) type O Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Conceptual 23) A patient with which blood type can donate blood to anyone?

A) type A B) type B C) type AB D) type O Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Conceptual

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24) A woman with type A blood and a man with type B blood have a baby with type O blood. What are the genotypes of the woman and the man?

A) IAi and IBi B) IAIA and IBi C) IAi and IBIB D) IAIA and IBIB Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Applied 25) A woman with type AB blood and a man with type O blood have a child. Which type of blood could the child have?

A) type A or type O B) type B or type O C) type AB or type O D) type A or type B Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Applied 26) What is the most common blood type in the U.S. population?

A) type OB) type B+ C) type ABD) type O+ Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Factual 27) The ability of a gene to cause multiple effects on a phenotype is called A) pleiotropy.

B) codominance.

C) polygenic inheritance.

D) continuous variation.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Factual

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28) Describing a person as having hemophilia is to indicate his or her A) genotype. B) phenotype.

C) genetic code. D) number of chromosomes. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Factual 29) A person with hemophilia lacks the pleiotropic gene that codes for the protein called clotting factor VIII. This means that he or she will A) have only the symptom of lack of blood clotting (bleeding).

B) always have the same symptoms as other hemophiliacs.

C) have many other symptoms in addition to excessive bleeding.

D) always have neurological problems.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Factual 30) In addition to excessive bleeding, persons with hemophilia may have excessive bruising, pain and swelling in the joints, vision loss, anemia, or neurological problems. This is a result of the effects of a single gene loss and is called A) codominance.

B) multiple allelism.

C) pleiotropy.

D) environmental effects.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Factual 31) Human bone size and structure are a result of the environment and A) polygenic inheritance.

B) codominance.

C) simple dominance.

D) sex-linked recessive inheritance.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 8.1 Skill: Factual

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32) Females inherit two X chromosomes and males inherit one X chromosome. However, there is not a double dose of X gene products in females because of A) nondisjunction.

B) X- linkage.

C) the SRY gene.

D) X inactivation in females.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 8.2 Skill: Factual 33) Sex-linked traits can be expressed in A) males only.

B) females only.

C) either males or females.

D) carriers only.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 8.2 Skill: Conceptual 34) Hemophiliacs have blood that does not coagulate well, and they often die at a young age. The disease allele is recessive and X-linked. Which of the following is the BEST prediction about the offspring of a hemophiliac male and a nonhemophiliac female who is a carrier for the disease?

A) All children would be hemophiliac.

B) All females would be hemophiliac.

C) All males would be hemophiliac.

D) Some males and females could be hemophiliac.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: 8.2 Skill: Applied 35) Hemophilia is a genetic disease that has plagued the royal houses of Europe. The disease allele is recessive and X-linked. Queen Victoria was a carrier, and her granddaughter Alexandra married Nicholas II, the last czar of imperial Russia. Alexandra was a carrier for hemophilia; Nicholas was normal. Their son, Alexis, was afflicted with the disease. Alexis and his four sisters were killed in 1917.

It's most likely that A) none of the four sisters carried the hemophilia allele.

B) at least one of the sisters was a carrier of the allele.

C) all four sisters were carriers of the hemophilia allele.

D) at least one of the sisters had hemophilia like Alexis.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 8.2 Skill: Conceptual

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36) Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive allele causing a blood disorder. What are the chances that a daughter of a normal man and a woman, who is heterozygous for the disease, will have hemophilia?

A) 0% B) 25% C) 75% D) 100% Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 8.2 Skill: Applied 37) In humans, the allele for red-green color blindness is X-linked and recessive (Xr; the dominant allele is called XR). A man with normal color vision marries a color-blind woman who gives birth to a colorblind daughter. From this, we can tell that A) the woman is XRXr. B) the man must be a carrier for the color blindness allele.

C) the daughter must be heterozygous.

D) the man is probably NOT the father of the daughter.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 8.2 Skill: Applied 38) A normal individual who is a carrier for an X-linked trait such as hemophilia A) is always female.

B) is homozygous for the recessive condition.

C) shows the recessive phenotype.

D) cannot have daughters who have the allele.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 8.2 Skill: Conceptual 39) Y-linked genes include a gene that produces hairy ears. A male with hairy ears should pass this trait A) only to his sons.

B) only to his daughters.

C) only to his grandsons.

D) to all his children if the mother is a carrier.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 8.2 Skill: Conceptual

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40) A man who carries a harmful allele for a sex-linked gene (on the X chromosome) will pass the allele on to A) all of his daughters. B) only half of his daughters. C) only half of his sons. D) all of his children. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 8.2 Skill: Applied 41) In humans, the sex of the offspring is ordinarily determined by the A) autosomes carried by the egg cell.

B) autosomes carried by the sperm cell.

C) sex chromosome carried by the egg cell.

D) sex chromosome carried by the sperm cell.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 8.2 Skill: Conceptual 42) A human sperm cell receives autosomes and A) an X chromosome always.

B) either an X or a Y chromosome.

C) a Y chromosome always.

D) both an X and a Y chromosome.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 8.2 Skill: Factual 43) Humans possess A) 2 pairs of sex chromosomes and 46 pairs of autosomes.

B) 2 pairs of sex chromosomes and 22 pairs of autosomes.

C) 1 pair of sex chromosomes and 46 pairs of autosomes.

D) 1 pair of sex chromosomes and 22 pairs of autosomes.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 8.2 Skill: Factual

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44) What are the chances that a hemophiliac male and an unaffected female could have a baby that is a hemophiliac male?

A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 8.2 Skill: Factual 45) Because the bones thought to belong to the Romanov family were highly decayed, scientists determined the gender of each deceased individual by utilizing which type of analysis?

A) pelvic bone analysis only B) DNA analysis of material that is specific to the Y chromosome C) DNA analysis of material that is specific to the X chromosome D) both pelvic bone analysis and DNA analysis Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 8.2 Skill: Factual 46) What is responsible for the tortoiseshell phenotype in some female cats?

A) codominance B) X inactivation C) incomplete dominance D) pleiotropy Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 8.2 Skill: Factual

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47) The allele for orange fur in cats is Xb, while the allele for black fur is XB. You adopt a tortoiseshell kitten (with orange and black fur). When you take the kitten to the vet, you find out that it is a male. What is the genotype of this kitten?

A) XBY B) XBXb C) XbY D) XBXbY Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: 8.2 Skill: Applied 48) A family tree that is used to follow human matings that have already occurred is a A) test cross.

B) karyotype.

C) sex-linked record.

D) pedigree.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 8.3 Skill: Factual 49) Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive trait in humans. If phenotypically normal parents have children without hemophilia, pedigree analysis A) could demonstrate that neither parent carries the hemophiliac allele.

B) would show that none of their children is a carrier of the hemophilia allele.

C) would show that none of their children could have hemophiliac children.

D) would not be able to show the exact genotypes of the parents or children.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: 8.3 Skill: Conceptual

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50) A pedigree of the British royal family shows that Queen Victoria was the first in the royal line to have A) hemophilia.

B) all of her children born with hemophilia.

C) a mutation in a blood-clotting gene.

D) inherited a mutation in a blood-clotting allele.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: 8.3 Skill: Conceptual 51) On a pedigree chart, a son who is affected by a genetic disorder would be represented by which symbol?

A) a shaded circle B) a clear circle C) a shaded square D) a clear square Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 8.3 Skill: Factual

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52) What does a half-shaded circle represent on a pedigree chart? A) a female carrier B) a female who does not have an allele for the genetic disorder represented C) a male who is affected by the genetic disorder represented D) a male carrier Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 8.3 Skill: Factual 53) Polydactyly is a dominant trait. A male who has polydactyly would be represented by what symbol on a pedigree chart? A) a half-shaded square B) a shaded square C) a half-shaded circle D) a clear circle Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 8.3 Skill: Conceptual 54) Queen Elizabeth II of England is a descendant of Edward VII of England, who was the son of Queen Victoria. Edward VII did not have hemophilia. Prince Philip, who is married to Queen Elizabeth II, is a descendant of Alice, the daughter of Queen Victoria. Alice was a carrier of hemophilia. However, Prince Philip does not have hemophilia. What can you assume about the children of Queen Elizabeth II and Prince Philip? A) None of the children could have the hemophilia allele. B) Only the sons could have the hemophilia allele. C) Only their daughter could have the hemophilia allele. D) Any one of the children could have the hemophilia allele. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: 8.4 Skill: Applied 55) Which of the following types of forensic evidence was available for scientists studying the case of the Romanovs? A) fingerprint B) toxicology C) DNA D) footprint Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 8.4 Skill: Factual

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56) England's Prince Philip was found to have DNA sequences that matched ________.

A) both the tsar and the tsarina B) the tsar but not the tsarina C) the tsarina but not the tsar D) neither the tsar nor the tsarina Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 8.4 Skill: Factual 57) When comparing the DNA fingerprints of a parent and child, the parent's DNA fingerprint will have which of the following genetic traits?

A) all of the DNA bands that the child has B) more than half of the DNA bands that the child has C) DNA bands that match those in the child's fingerprint and that aren't from the other parent D) DNA bands that are very close to bands found in the child but do not match precisely Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 8.4 Skill: Conceptual

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58) DNA fragments must be denatured during the polymerase chain reaction due to which of the following?

A) Taq polymerase breaks down when heated B) the repeated gene sequences are not present in double-stranded DNA C) the primer must bind to a single-stranded template to synthesize double-stranded DNA D) VNTRs have DNA sequences that vary in number Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 8.4 Skill: Conceptual 59) VNTR stands for A) variable number tandem repeats.

B) varied nucleotides to repeat.

C) volumes of nucleotide tandem repeats.

D) variation of nucleotide terminal repeats.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 8.4 Skill: Factual 60) A DNA fingerprint of a suspect doesn't match a DNA fingerprint from a blood sample taken at a crime scene. What can you conclude?

A) The suspect was never at the crime scene.

B) The blood sample was probably degraded or destroyed in some way.

C) There is no DNA in a blood sample.

D) The blood came from a different person, but the suspect may have been there.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 8.4 Skill: Applied 61) Different persons have different DNA fingerprints because A) they have completely different kinds of VNTRs. B) they have different numbers of the same VNTR. C) PCR generates some sequences more than other sequences.

D) restriction enzymes may not cut some VNTRs if adjacent to different DNA sequences.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 8.4 Skill: Conceptual

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62) What is the function of Taq polymerase?

A) to denature DNA so its strands separate B) to bond to complementary DNA C) to free nucleotides from a DNA strand D) to use primers to initiate DNA synthesis Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 8.4 Skill: Conceptual 63) Which of the following is used to produce genetic fingerprints of people?

A) RNA polymerase B) Punnett squares C) pedigree analysis D) VNTRs Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 8.4 Skill: Factual 64) VNTRs are A) fragments of DNA that have been denatured.

B) nucleotide sequences that correspond to specific genes.

C) distinct nucleotide sequences that everyone has in different numbers.

D) nucleotide sequences that are different in different individuals.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 8.4 Skill: Factual 65) The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used to A) analyze a person's fingerprints.

B) separate fragments of DNA. C) make many copies of a small amount of DNA. D) cut DNA into many small pieces.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 8.4 Skill: Factual 66) What is one reason why the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is so useful for DNA fingerprinting?

A) It can produce millions of copies from tiny amounts of DNA. B) It can be used to compare DNA from different individuals.

C) It can identify the complete sequence of a gene.

D) It can allow scientists to visualize the DNA of specific individuals.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 8.4 Skill: Conceptual 17 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

67) The enzyme used to synthesize daughter strands of DNA during PCR is called a ________.

A) replicase.

B) DNA polymerase.

C) RNA polymerase.

D) Taq polymerase.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 8.4 Skill: Factual 68) In DNA fingerprinting, amplified fragments of DNA are separated from one another by which process?

A) filtering B) chromatography C) electrophoresis D) PCR (polymerase chain reaction) Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 8.4 Skill: Factual 69) Gel electrophoresis separates DNA segments on the basis of their A) weight.

B) length.

C) types of nucleotides.

D) complexity.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 8.4 Skill: Factual 70) DNA moves in an electric field toward A) a positive charge.

B) a negative charge.

C) the highest concentration of gel.

D) the smallest sized DNA fragments.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 8.4 Skill: Factual 71) What does each different band on a DNA fingerprint represent?

A) gene B) VNTR site C) allele D) pleiotropy Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 8.4 Skill: Factual 18 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk) Chapter 9 Genetically Modified Organisms: Gene Expression, Mutation, and Cloning 1) A DNA molecule consists of A) amino acids. B) nucleotides. C) fatty acid chains. D) polysaccharides. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Factual 2) Which of the following pairs with adenine in a DNA molecule? A) cytosine B) thymine C) uracil D) guanine Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Factual 3) A sequence of DNA codes for a A) protein. B) lipid. C) monosaccharide. D) nucleotide. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Conceptual 4) The structure of a protein is determined by A) the number of amino acids it contains. B) the sequence of the amino acids it contains. C) the function of the nucleic acids it contains. D) the number of fatty acids it contains. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Factual

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5) A molecule of RNA (ribonucleic acid) contains the bases A) adenine, guanine, thymine, and uracil. B) uracil, adenine, guanine, and adenosine. C) thymine, adenine, guanine, and cytosine.

D) adenine, guanine, cytosine, and uracil. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Factual 6) Which molecule remains in the nucleus during protein synthesis?

A) DNA B) tRNA C) mRNA D) rRNA Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Factual 7) The sequence of events in the process of protein synthesis is usually A) Protein → RNA → DNA. B) RNA → DNA → protein.

C) DNA → RNA → protein.

D) RNA → protein → DNA. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Conceptual 8) Which of the following complementary base pairings occur between DNA and RNA? A) A to T and C to G B) T to C and A to G C) G to C and A to U D) C to U and A to T Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Factual 9) The process of copying a sequence of DNA nucleotides into a complementary sequence of RNA nucleotides is called A) translation.

B) mutation.

C) transcription.

D) excision.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Factual

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10) The RNA molecule that carries the sequence of nucleotides needed to determine the order of amino acids in a protein is A) transfer RNA. B) ribosomal RNA. C) messenger RNA. D) translator RNA. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Conceptual 11) RNA polymerase binds to the ________ to begin the process of transcription.

A) promoter B) structural gene C) codon D) anticodon Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Factual 12) Which of the following is not directly involved in the process of translation?

A) ribosome B) tRNA C) mRNA D) DNA Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Conceptual 13) The rate of production of cellular proteins within each cell is regulated through which of the following?

A) redundancy in the genetic code B) frameshift mutations C) gene expression D) ambiguity in the genetic code Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Factual

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14) Milk production in modern dairy cows has been dramatically increased because of A) the insertion of Ti plasmids in the cow genome.

B) recombinant bovine growth hormone.

C) frameshift mutations in the DNA of the cows.

D) the use of gene guns to insert rBGH genes into the mammary tissues of cows.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Factual 15) Which of the following is found in the nucleotides of DNA but NOT in RNA? A) a sugar B) a phosphate group C) deoxyribose D) a nitrogen-containing base Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Factual 16) RNA differs from DNA in that RNA A) is contained in the nucleus.

B) doesn't contain a sugar.

C) is single-stranded.

D) takes part in transcription.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Factual 17) When genes are copied (in transcription), the resulting copy is in the form of a A) complementary strand of DNA. B) strand of mRNA. C) molecule of tRNA. D) palindrome.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Factual

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18) If the process of protein synthesis in a cell is analogous to a politician's speech being written down by a reporter and then converted into a different language before being published, then the initial step (being written down by a reporter) corresponds to A) transcription.

B) translation.

C) genetic recombination.

D) cloning.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Conceptual 19) The nucleotide sequence on a section of DNA where transcription begins is called a A) polymerase.

B) palindrome.

C) promoter.

D) codon.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Factual 20) Which of the following serves as the template during transcription?

A) DNA B) mRNA C) tRNA D) polymerase Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Conceptual 21) Which of the following serves as the template during translation?

A) DNA B) mRNA C) tRNA D) polymerase Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Conceptual

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22) Ribosomes are made of subunits that are composed of A) mRNA and DNA. B) tRNA and mRNA. C) rRNA and proteins.

D) DNA and proteins.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Factual 23) What is the function of tRNA molecules during translation?

A) They unzip double-stranded mRNA. B) They serve as the starting point for RNA polymerase.

C) They carry amino acids to the ribosome.

D) They encode the instructions for protein synthesis.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Conceptual 24) Which of the following always contain three nucleotides?

A) tRNA B) an anticodon C) mRNA D) ribosome Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Conceptual 25) What type of bond is formed between amino acids at the ribosome during translation?

A) peptide B) ester C) phosphodiester D) hydrogen Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Factual 26) What signal when present at the ribosome causes protein synthesis to end?

A) DNA B) tRNA C) a stop codon D) RNA polymerase Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Factual 6 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

27) Which amino acid always begins a polypeptide (protein) during translation? A) valine B) phenylalanine C) methionine D) arginine Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Factual 28) When a mutation results in no significant change in the production of a functional protein, it's called a A) frameshift mutation.

B) substitution mutation.

C) normal mutation.

D) neutral mutation.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Conceptual 29) Activators present near a gene that can be "turned on" will result in A) increased transcription.

B) decreased gene expression.

C) unwinding of the DNA double helix.

D) a shift in the reading frame.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Factual 30) Which of the following would allow gene expression to proceed?

A) X-chromosome inactivation B) an increase in proteases C) an increase in repressor proteins D) a reduction in nucleases Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Conceptual 31) A double-stranded DNA molecule that has 22% guanine will have A) 22% thymine.

B) 22% cytosine.

C) 44% adenine.

D) 48% thymine.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Conceptual

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32) Imagine that a mutation in a DNA molecule results in the codon CCU being changed to CCC. Both of these codons code for proline. The fact that more than one codon can code for the same amino acid is referred to as A) the ambiguity of the genetic code. B) the redundancy of the genetic code. C) the universality of the genetic code. D) mutations in the genetic code. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Factual 33) A point mutation results in the incorporation of a new amino acid in a protein. Which of the following would be the most likely result?

A) an incomplete protein that still functions normally B) an altered protein, which could result in a genetic disease C) two proteins produced instead of one D) no change to the function of the protein Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Conceptual 34) Which of the following could be incorporated into a protein?

A) alanine B) ribonucleic acid C) thymine D) uracil Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Conceptual 35) Gene regulation in eukaryotic cells includes A) activators that help RNA polymerase bind to the promoter.

B) repressors that prevent DNA polymerase from binding.

C) activation of the X chromosome.

D) degradation of nucleases by mRNA. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Conceptual

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36) If a DNA sequence of a gene reads, in part, TAACAGGTCA, what is the sequence of the complementary strand of DNA? A) ATTGTCCAGT B) AUUGUCCAGU C) UUACAGGUCC D) CTTGTGGACC Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Conceptual

37) As shown in this figure, which of the following is a difference between DNA and RNA? A) the presence of a nitrogen-containing base B) the presence of a phosphate group C) the type of sugar present D) the presence of guanine Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Factual

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38) Which of the following pairs includes items that aren't analogous according to this figure?

A) protein; cake B) amino acids; flour, sugar, and eggs C) tRNA; copy of recipe D) genome in nucleus; cookbook on shelf Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Conceptual 39) What is the sequence of the mRNA made from the gene TTACAGGTCC? A) UUACAGGUCC B) AATGTCCAGG C) AAUGUCCAGG D) GGAGTGGACC Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Conceptual 40) Which of these is a polymer made of nucleotides?

A) nuclease B) mRNA C) proline D) RNA polymerase Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Factual

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41) Which of the following "unzips" the double helix of DNA? A) an anticodon B) mRNA C) tRNA D) RNA polymerase Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Conceptual 42) As a result of a frameshift mutation, A) one or two nucleotides are added or deleted in a DNA strand.

B) amino acids are assembled into normal, functional proteins.

C) the DNA is always modified in such a way that protein synthesis is prevented.

D) the substitution of one amino acid for another with similar chemical properties has no effect on protein synthesis.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 9.1 Skill: Conceptual 43) Recombinant proteins refer to proteins that have been made in which manner?

A) from chemicals in the lab B) by genetically modified bacteria C) more potent or more highly concentrated before their use D) directly from deoxyribonucleic acids, thus bypassing transcription and translation Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 9.2 Skill: Factual 44) Which statement best describes how the FDA regulates the food industry?

A) All new foods developed by industry, whether they contain new products or old products, are put through a rigorous testing program by the FDA. B) Newly developed foods or food additives must be certified safe by the FDA before they can be marketed to the public.

C) Foods must be clearly labeled in accordance with FDA guidelines to indicate whether they're naturally occurring or genetically modified food products.

D) New foods can be marketed without FDA approval until there is a clear health issue with the food.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 9.2 Skill: Conceptual

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45) All the genes in an organism constitute its A) palindrome. B) genome. C) genetic code. D) reading frame. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 9.2 Skill: Factual 46) The GRAS designation made by the FDA stands for A) "genetic research and support."

B) "genome recognized and studied."

C) "genetically recombined and synthesized."

D) "generally regarded as safe."

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 9.2 Skill: Factual 47) Which of the following foods or food ingredients come under the FDA jurisdiction for ensuring food safety?

A) vitamin tablets B) cheese C) sirloin steaks D) chicken wings Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 9.2 Skill: Conceptual 48) The "highly specific molecular scissors" that cut DNA are called A) plasmids.

B) anticodons.

C) codons.

D) restriction enzymes.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 9.2 Skill: Factual 49) In genetics, palindromes refer to A) the types of DNA sequences that are cut out by restriction enzymes.

B) the A-T complementary bases of DNA. C) the C-G complementary bases of DNA. D) the A-U base pairing between DNA and mRNA. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 9.2 Skill: Factual

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50) The molecular structure that geneticists use to insert foreign DNA into a recipient bacterial cell where it can be replicated is called a(n) A) codon.

B) anticodon.

C) genome.

D) plasmid.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 9.2 Skill: Factual 51) Which of the following is least likely to be genetically modified?

A) microwave popcorn B) potato chips C) a candy bar D) a head of broccoli Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 9.3 Skill: Conceptual 52) Genetically modifying crop plants can do which of the following?

A) decrease pesticide resistance in the plants.

B) make the plants more resistant to freezing.

C) reduce the amount of fat in the plants.

D) increase the incidence of galls in the plants.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 9.3 Skill: Factual 53) Genetically modified foods have resulted in A) rice that allows greater synthesis of vitamin A. B) calorie-free potato chips.

C) a tomato that tastes like a melon.

D) lettuce that doesn't require water to grow.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 9.3 Skill: Conceptual

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54) A recombinant Ti plasmid can be used to A) insert genes from any source into a bacterium.

B) insert bacterial genes into a human.

C) insert genes from any source into a plant.

D) remove specific genes from a plant.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 9.3 Skill: Conceptual 55) The possibly harmful environmental effects of GM foods include which of the following?

A) the decreased use of herbicides when GM foods are herbicide-resistant B) the transfer of genetically modified genes to weedy relatives C) the reduction of genetic diversity in all crops D) an increase in allergic reactions in sensitive humans Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 9.3 Skill: Factual 56) Genetically modified tomatoes have been designed with which purpose in mind?

A) improving absorption of vitamins in the human body B) continuing growth even after temperatures fall below freezing C) killing insect pests on contact D) having a longer shelf life in grocery stores Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 9.3 Skill: Factual 57) The β-carotene was inserted into GM golden rice to allow a person to A) better synthesize proteins in the body.

B) see better under low light conditions.

C) more efficiently digest his or her starchy diet.

D) better synthesize vitamin A in the body.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 9.3 Skill: Factual 58) The Ti plasmid originated from A) the baker's yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae.

B) the bacterium Agrobacterium tumefaciens.

C) the fungus Candida albicans.

D) the bacterium E. coli.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 9.3 Skill: Factual 15 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

59) What are genetically modified organisms (GMOs) also called? A) artificial crop plants B) artificially selected organisms C) transgenic organisms D) mutant crop plants Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 9.3 Skill: Factual 60) Approximately ________ of the foods in American grocery stores contain at least small amounts of GMOs. A) less than 10% B) 25% C) 50% D) over 75% Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 9.3 Skill: Factual 61) To what does the "Ti" in Ti plasmid refer?

A) tumor inducing B) transcription initiating C) translation initiating D) tumefaciens inclusion Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 9.3 Skill: Factual 62) Plant galls are A) tumors caused by Ti plasmids in nature.

B) the result of neutral mutations.

C) pellets of foreign DNA inserted into the plants with a gene gun.

D) transgenic organisms containing foreign DNA of plant origin.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 9.3 Skill: Factual 63) Roundup Ready soybean plants A) produce fewer amino acids than regular soybean plants.

B) are extremely sensitive to herbicides but have a greater yield of soybeans.

C) have been modified to resist certain chemicals applied by farmers to control weeds.

D) manufacture very high levels of β-carotene.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 9.3 Skill: Conceptual

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64) Data from the Human Genome Project might help scientists A) understand who might be susceptible to certain diseases.

B) clone humans more easily.

C) understand the effects of genetically modified foods on the human body.

D) cure most human diseases.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 9.4 Skill: Factual 65) The raw data from the human genome project consists of A) the order of the bases A, T, G, and C in human DNA. B) a list of all the genes expressed in each human cell type.

C) the disease conditions associated with each human chromosome.

D) the length of the DNA molecule making up each human chromosome.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 9.4 Skill: Factual 66) Which of the following is an example of gene therapy?

A) replacing a failing heart with a new heart from a genetically matched donor B) injecting human factor VIII protein into hemophiliacs with a defective factor VIII gene C) infecting a cystic fibrosis patient with a virus carrying a working copy of the cystic fibrosis gene D) providing therapeutic drugs to a patient experiencing high blood pressure Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 9.4 Skill: Conceptual 67) Which type of disease condition would most likely be successfully treated by gene therapy?

A) a disease caused by a nonfunctional enzyme in the body B) a disease caused by excess fat intake C) a disease caused by bacterial infection D) a cancer caused by uncontrolled cell division Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 9.4 Skill: Conceptual 68) The undifferentiated cells that can be used in therapeutic cloning are A) plasmid cells.

B) stem cells.

C) somatic cells.

D) transgenic cells.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 9.4 Skill: Factual 17 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

69) Therapeutic cloning aims to produce ________ from stem cells.

A) healthy tissues B) genomes C) model organisms D) reproductive clones Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 9.4 Skill: Factual 70) The famous sheep "Dolly" was the result of A) therapeutic cloning.

B) the Human Genome Project.

C) stem cell research.

D) nuclear transfer.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: 9.4 Skill: Conceptual

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Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk) Chapter 10 Where Did We Come From? The Evidence for Evolution 1) Which of the following lists events in the proper order to reflect how natural selection works in a population of lice that could originally be controlled by permethrin?

A) A louse population evolves resistance to permethrin; permethrin is used to kill lice; lice become more common in schoolchildren.

B) Some lice are resistant to permethrin; permethrin is used to kill lice; lice resistant to permethrin become the most common type.

C) Permethrin resistance is common in lice; permethrin is used to kill lice; most lice become sensitive to permethrin.

D) Permethrin is used to kill lice; individual lice change in order to survive exposure to permethrin; most lice become resistant to permethrin.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 10.1 Skill: Applied 2) Which of the following is an example of microevolution?

A) Birds evolved from dinosaurs.

B) Lions and tigers evolved from a common cat-like ancestor.

C) HIV evolved resistance to antiviral medications.

D) Land plants evolved from algae.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 10.1 Skill: Conceptual 3) Which of the following is what scientists mean when they use the term theory?

A) a hypothesis that has not yet been tested B) a hypothesis that seems logical but cannot be tested because it's impractical to do so C) a set of findings that are supported by repeated testing D) ideas which are so obviously true that they don't need to be tested Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 10.1 Skill: Conceptual 4) Which of the following is an example of biological evolution?

A) You are vaccinated against polio and are protected against the disease.

B) A tree branch is broken off and another grows in its place.

C) Over time, a species of caterpillar becomes the same shade of green as the leaves on which it feeds.

D) The average woman's dress size has increased over the last 50 years.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 10.1 Skill: Conceptual

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5) Which of the following descriptions would be considered a theory in the same scientific sense that evolution is considered a theory?

A) a theory about why an apple falls to the ground when dropped B) a theory about why your neighbor has the nicest car in the neighborhood C) a theory about which of your classmates is the source of your cold D) a theory about why blue is your favorite color Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 10.1 Skill: Conceptual 6) True or false: Evolution is a very controversial idea among scientists.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Topic: 10.1 Skill: Conceptual 7) The mechanism that results in evolution is ________ (two words).

Answer: natural selection Diff: 2 Topic: 10.1 Skill: Factual 8) Which of the following is an example of a nonevolutionary change in a population?

A) an increase in mosquitoes that are resistant to insecticide B) plants in a dry climate that have faster-growing roots than plants found there 20 years ago C) after decreases in airborne soot, a change in the most common color of moths D) an increase in the number of people diagnosed with colon cancer Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 10.1 Skill: Conceptual 9) What makes one louse able to survive treatment with permethrin and another louse unable to survive?

A) If there is genetic variation in the louse population independent of permethrin exposure, then some lice are likely to be resistant.

B) If a louse is exposed to low levels of permethrin, then it becomes resistant.

C) If the parents of a louse are exposed to permethrin, then the offspring become resistant.

D) If a louse is exposed to other anti-lice treatments, then it becomes resistant to all anti-lice treatments.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 10.1 Skill: Conceptual

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10) In the figure, the branching points of the tree represent A) a modern species.

B) the origin of a new species from an ancestral form.

C) an extinct species.

D) a common ancestor of a group of modern species.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 10.1 Skill: Factual 11) The most important reason that one can see evolution in a population of mosquitoes more easily than one can see evolution in a population of squirrels is because mosquitoes A) have a shorter generation time.

B) have a higher mutation rate.

C) feed on blood.

D) lay eggs rather than bear live young.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 10.1 Skill: Factual

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12) When a biologist is looking for a suitable organism in which she can study the process of evolution in a laboratory setting, what would be an important consideration?

A) The organism should be large.

B) The organism should have a short generation time.

C) The organism should produce relatively few offspring.

D) The organism should have a complete fossil record of its ancestry.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 10.1 Skill: Factual 13) What is it about macroevolution that people find controversial?

A) the appearance of new traits in existing populations B) the common descent of all organisms from one ancestral cell C) the concept of species being subdivided into separate populations D) the concept that genes can vary spontaneously Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 10.1 Skill: Factual 14) True or false: The common ancestor of all life must have had genes for all traits now present in animals today.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Topic: 10.1 Skill: Conceptual 15) Which of the following observations was most influential to Charles Darwin?

A) the wide variety of living things in South America B) the difference between organisms of South America and organisms of Europe C) the similarity between organisms of South America and organisms of Europe D) the slight differences between organisms on nearby islands Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 10.2 Skill: Factual 16) According to the theory of common descent, each species on Earth today should A) look very similar to all other species.

B) not have ancestors in common with members of other species.

C) have a single ancestor in common.

D) have DNA that is mostly unique from other species.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 10.2 Skill: Factual

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17) What was Lamarck's idea about how organisms changed?

A) He proposed that body parts increased or decreased as a result of extra use or disuse.

B) He proposed that variations in populations were selected by the environment.

C) He proposed that all organisms were unchanging over time.

D) He proposed that humans evolved from fish.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 10.2 Skill: Factual 18) How did the geologist Charles Lyell influence Darwin?

A) He provided evidence that Earth was really only about 10,000 years old.

B) He suggested that slow, gradual changes shaped the features of Earth.

C) He proposed a theory about how small islands were formed.

D) He charted the currents found off the Pacific coast of South America.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 10.2 Skill: Factual 19) The person who also proposed a mechanism for evolution similar to natural selection was A) Charles Lyell.

B) Jean Baptiste Lamarck.

C) Alfred Russel Wallace.

D) Robert Fitzroy.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 10.2 Skill: Factual 20) What was the original purpose of the voyage of the HMS Beagle?

A) to add to the general knowledge of the animals and plants on Earth B) to gather physical evidence in support of the theory of evolution C) to chart the coast and harbors of South America D) to do experiments to test Lamarck's view of inheritance of acquired characteristics Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 10.2 Skill: Factual 21) Which statement best describes the now-discredited theories of Lamarck?

A) All life was created in the form we see today.

B) Modern life forms are the descendants of past individuals who were the most fit.

C) Organisms acquire traits during their lifetime and pass those traits on to their offspring.

D) Earth is extremely old and has undergone many changes.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 10.2 Skill: Factual 5 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

22) What aspect of the geology of the Galápagos was important in producing the diversity of organisms seen by Darwin?

A) the islands are in the Pacific B) the islands are in a chain C) the islands are very dry D) there are no mammals on the islands Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 10.2 Skill: Applied 23) What was the contribution of Wallace to the history of ideas about evolution?

A) He proposed the idea that Earth is very old.

B) He was the main opponent of Darwin's ideas immediately after they were published.

C) He proposed the theory of inheritance of acquired characteristics.

D) He proposed a theory of evolution similar to Darwin's.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 10.2 Skill: Factual 24) True or false: Special creation is NOT considered a scientific hypothesis because no one has ever tested it using scientific means.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Topic: 10.2 Skill: Conceptual 25) Why were Darwin's ideas so widely accepted by scientists of his day?

A) He published his book soon after he returned to England and all his recollections were fresh in his mind.

B) Darwin's ideas fit well with what most people already believed about evolution.

C) Darwin presented extensive evidence from many areas of biology to support his ideas.

D) Darwin was from a rich and powerful family.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 10.2 Skill: Factual 26) Intelligent design is NOT a testable ________ and thus cannot be considered a scientific explanation for the origin of living things.

A) strategy B) hypothesis C) experiment D) theory Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 10.2 Skill: Factual

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27) Which of the following levels would contain members that are the most similar?

A) class B) genus C) kingdom D) order Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Factual 28) You discover a butterfly that has some similarity to members of the species Faunis canens, but it also has a few important differences. You may have discovered a new A) order.

B) family.

C) species.

D) genus.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Applied 29) You are interested in the evolution of a particular kind of beetle. What sort of analysis might be useful in your study?

A) Look for similarities between the histone genes of other beetles and the one being studied.

B) Find out what kinds of birds eat the beetles and see what else those birds eat.

C) Compare the beetles to other insects in the area.

D) Find all the places where this particular kind of beetle lives.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Applied 30) The standard classification system used by biologists today groups and classifies organisms on the basis of similar physical traits. This system was first developed by Carl Linnaeus. At the time of his work, there were other methods for grouping organisms that were based on similar habitats, similar diets, or similar behaviors. Why is Linnaeus's system the most useful one to biologists today?

A) Linnaeus's system is the simplest; the others are too complicated.

B) Classifying on the basis of shared traits points out the underlying evolutionary relationships among organisms.

C) Linnaeus's system included all organisms found on Earth.

D) Linnaeus's system relies on Latin names that make the most sense to biologists.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Factual

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31) What should you look for when considering whether structures from two kinds of organisms are homologous? A) The structures should have identical functions in both organisms. B) The structures should be in different positions on the bodies of the two organisms. C) The structures should not appear in any close relatives of the organisms. D) The structures should have similar anatomy in the two organisms. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Conceptual 32) In land mammals, the pelvic girdle is the point where the leg bones attach to the rest of the skeleton.

Whales commonalso have a small pelvic girdle. This would be an example of what type of evidence for descent?

A) a homologous gene B) a homologous structure C) fossil evidence D) a vestigial structure Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Applied 33) Humans who have mutations in the presenilin genes are at a higher risk for developing earlyonset Alzheimer's disease. The human presenilin proteins that are made from these genes are responsible for altering other proteins by cleaving (cutting) them at specific positions. Presenilin proteins that are highly similar to the human ones have been identified in C. elegans, a microscopic nematode worm. These nematodes do not get Alzheimer's disease, as they do not have a brain. What would you expect the function of nematode presenilins to be?

A) They are responsible for the development of the central nervous system.

B) They are responsible for altering other proteins by cleaving them.

C) They are responsible for altering other proteins by transporting them to a new location within cells.

D) They are responsible for the synthesis of new proteins.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Applied 34) What is the molecular clock?

A) The rate at which mutations accumulate in DNA within a species.

B) The rate at which new species diverge from ancestral species.

C) The rate at which structures no longer needed become small and insignificant.

D) The rate at which new discoveries are made about gene homology.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Factual 8 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

35) Darwin observed that tortoises of the nearby islands, although slightly different, belonged to the same species. How might he have known they were the same species?

A) He probably compared DNA sequence data from the different tortoises.

B) He probably compared the metabolism of the different tortoises and saw they had similar enzymes.

C) He may have been told by local people that when tortoises of different islands were brought together, they could mate with each other.

D) He may have moved one group of tortoises to a new island and observed the accumulation of changes in the moved group.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Applied 36) Lizards on a dry, sandy island are most likely to be similar to A) lizards in the rainforest on the mainland 20 miles away.

B) lizards on a rainforest island 200 miles farther out to sea.

C) lizards on a dry, sandy island 500 miles farther out to sea.

D) tortoises on the same dry, sandy island.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Conceptual 37) What is the role of fossils in supporting the theory of common descent?

A) Fossils of dinosaurs show that other types of life existed, but there is no evidence of relationships between them.

B) There have been many fossils of intermediate types discovered that provide strong support for the theory of common descent.

C) There are plenty of fossils to show that animals have evolved, but there are not enough fossils of human ancestors to suggest that humans are related to other animals.

D) Fossil evidence has been found to support the relationship between humans and other primates but only in Europe.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Factual 38) Which of these events would most likely result in the creation of large numbers of fossils?

A) a drought B) an earthquake C) a fire D) a volcano Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Factual

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39) You discover a primate fossil while on an expedition in Africa. Which part of the skeleton would you be most interested in examining in order to classify this primate as a human or a nonhuman primate?

A) the hand bones B) the base of the skull C) the ribs D) the backbone (vertebrae) Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Applied 40) How do fossils support the theory of common descent?

A) They are a record of at least some intermediate types of organisms and thus document the process of evolution.

B) They can be easily and precisely dated.

C) They are found equally all over the world, so they explain all our questions about biogeography.

D) They contain complete DNA genomes, so they can be compared to modern organisms.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Conceptual 41) The DNA of cats and dogs is much more similar than the DNA of cats and hamsters. Why is that?

A) Cats and dogs have lived together with humans for a longer period of time, so they have grown more similar.

B) Cats and dogs have a common ancestor that is more recent than the common ancestor of cats and hamsters.

C) The ancestors of cats and the ancestors of dogs evolved in similar environments.

D) Cats and dogs have fewer offspring during their lifetime than hamsters, so their DNA change less rapidly.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Applied 42) Common descent is referred to as a theory because A) there is overwhelming evidence to support it from many areas of biology.

B) scientists are reasonably sure it's true, but there's little evidence to support it.

C) it's an idea from more than 100 years ago and thus is not a modern idea.

D) it's the only idea about life on Earth that can be tested by observation of the material universe.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Factual

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43) Bat wings are homologous to the front legs of cats. What does the term "homologous" mean in this context?

A) Both structures are used for the same purpose.

B) The common ancestor of bats and cats had limbs that functioned as wings.

C) The common ancestor of bats and cats had a limb with a bone structure similar to that found in cat legs and bat wings.

D) Bat wings are vestigial legs.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Applied 44) Why are fossils from older species found deeper in the earth than those from more recent species?

A) Layers of sediments accumulate every year, covering older fossils in more layers.

B) Older species were more likely to burrow underground.

C) Modern species can swim better than older species.

D) Older species were more likely to be trapped in sediments and form fossils than modern species.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Conceptual 45) True or false: When comparing different families of animals, you would expect gene-coding for proteins that perform basic cell functions to show much higher homology than gene-coding for proteins involved in coordinating organ systems.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Applied 46) Which of these species is most likely to share the greatest percentage of DNA with humans?

A) blue jay B) beaver C) leopard frog D) dragonfly Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Conceptual 47) True or false: A fossil whose age is determined by radiometric dating would be considered very old if only the smallest amount of radioactivity remained.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Conceptual

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48) Which of the following groupings are in order from broadest to most narrow?

A) kingdom, species, genus B) class, family, species C) family, order, class D) phylum, kingdom, genus Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Factual 49) In studying a species of fish, a structure is discovered that has no apparent function. If this is a vestigial structure, what would you find in at least some relatives of this fish?

A) The structure should be absent.

B) A similar structure should be present, but it would be larger and have a function.

C) The structure should look different and also have no function.

D) The structure should be absent from fossils of ancestors of this species.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Applied 50) The term that describes distribution patterns of living things around the world is ________.

Answer: biogeography Diff: 2 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Factual 51) DNA evidence, fossil evidence, homology, and vestigial structures all provide evidence that humans and chimpanzees share a(n) ________ (two words).

Answer: common ancestor Diff: 2 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Factual 52) The presence of a tailbone in humans and other primates without tails is an example of a(n) ________ trait.

Answer: vestigial Diff: 1 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Factual

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53) Which of the following observations of species distribution across Earth support the theory of common descent?

A) All continents contain nearly identical organisms.

B) Each part of Earth contains life forms perfectly designed for that region.

C) One can see similarities in organisms that are found in close proximity, but each population has adaptations that suit the organisms to their particular habitat.

D) There are very few similarities among life forms on different tropical islands.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Conceptual 54) Which of the following is a somewhat confusing structure found in humans that is best explained by our evolutionary heritage?

A) tailbone B) lack of body hair C) upright posture D) opposable thumb Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Factual

55) From the perspective of an evolutionary biologist, the most significant thing about this figure is that A) all vertebrates have bones.

B) all vertebrates have limbs.

C) the relative arrangement of bones is similar.

D) finger bones are usually thin.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Conceptual

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56) The nonfunctional wings of an ostrich are an example of what sort of evidence for the theory of common descent?

A) vestigial structures B) homologous structures C) shared developmental pathways D) DNA similarity Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Factual 57) Humans and apes show such a strong degree of similarity that they are placed in the same A) species.

B) genus.

C) subfamily.

D) subspecies.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Factual 58) The presence of goose bumps in humans is an example of what sort of evidence for the theory of common descent?

A) vestigial structures B) homologous structures C) shared developmental pathways D) DNA similarity Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Factual 59) True or false: DNA evidence has strongly supported the original groupings proposed by Carl Linnaeus to show relationships between organisms.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Conceptual

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60) You're examining fossils from a variety of hominin species. Which ones would you expect to show the greatest amount of radioactive material in relation to daughter products?

A) Paranthropus aethiopicus B) Homo habilis C) Ardepithecus ramidus D) Australopithecus garhi Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Applied

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61) What do the fossil records tell us about hominins?

A) Hominins were a series of species, with one set of branches that eventually led to modern humans.

B) Hominins were related to chimpanzees but not to humans.

C) Hominins were a diverse group of human ancestors not related to other primates.

D) Hominins were a diverse group of primate species of which modern humans are the only surviving group.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 10.3 Skill: Factual 62) Of the four hypotheses that explain the origin of modern organisms, which is the one with the least scientific support?

A) the static hypothesis B) the transformation hypothesis C) the separate type hypothesis D) the common descent hypothesis Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 10.4 Skill: Factual 63) Which of the following is true about predictions made from the theory of common descent?

A) They are almost always supported when they can be tested.

B) They cannot be tested and thus we cannot know if they are correct.

C) They are supported and not supported by experimental evidence with equal frequency.

D) They are supported by experimental evidence for all organisms except humans.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 10.4 Skill: Factual 64) True or false: Almost as much evidence exists to support the hypothesis of transformation as the theory of common descent.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Topic: 10.4 Skill: Factual 65) Which piece of evidence would allow you to reject the hypothesis of separate types?

A) fossil evidence showing that organisms have been on Earth for billions of years B) similarity of physical structures among species C) universality of DNA to all life D) fossil evidence that species have changed over time Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 10.4 Skill: Conceptual

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66) Why is the separate types hypothesis considered so unlikely by most biologists?

A) If different types of life evolved independently, it would be obvious in the fossil record.

B) There are multiple similarities in all life at the cellular level that strongly suggest a common origin for all living things.

C) The separate types model hypothesizes many changes in living things over time, while the fossil record suggests that few of these changes have occurred.

D) The similarity in appearance in many living things suggests that there must have been only one common ancestor.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 10.4 Skill: Conceptual 67) Evidence for the theory of common descent demonstrates consilience, which means that A) supporting evidence for the theory is derived from different sources.

B) the evidence is able to convince even nonscientists who have doubts about the theory.

C) not enough evidence has been gathered to support the theory.

D) the theory can never be challenged by new evidence.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 10.4 Skill: Conceptual 68) Evidence from radiometric dating of nonfossil rocks allows rejection of the A) static hypothesis.

B) transformation hypothesis.

C) separate type hypothesis.

D) common descent hypothesis.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 10.4 Skill: Conceptual 69) The hypothesis of one common ancestor for all life is best supported by the fact that A) DNA sequences from bacteria can be transferred to plants and other organisms.

B) species in some groups have homologous anatomical structures.

C) embryonic development is similar for all chordates.

D) species in similar geographic locations show structural similarities.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 10.4 Skill: Conceptual 70) True or false: The fields of science that support the theory of evolution include geology, molecular biology, and genetics.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Topic: 10.4 Skill: Conceptual 17 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk) Chapter 11 An Evolving Enemy: Natural Selection 1) What causes the disease tuberculosis?

A) a particular type of virus B) a particular type of bacteria C) exposure to polluted air D) genetics Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 11.1 Skill: Factual 2) What is the primary body part affected by tuberculosis?

A) the liver B) the muscles C) the immune system D) the lungs Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 11.1 Skill: Factual 3) How is tuberculosis transmitted?

A) by sexual contact B) by contaminated food C) by sneezes D) by infected blood products Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 11.1 Skill: Factual 4) Your friend was diagnosed with strep throat 2 months ago. She was treated with antibiotics for 10 days, but 2 weeks after treatment, the symptoms returned. She was given a different antibiotic and her symptoms improved again, initially, but then got worse. What is happening?

A) Your friend has taken antibiotics so long that she has become tolerant to them, making them ineffective.

B) Exposure to antibiotics has caused each individual bacterial cell to evolve resistance to the antibiotics.

C) Your friend was originally infected with some bacteria that were resistant to these two antibiotics and the bacteria multiplied.

D) Your friend probably doesn't have a bacterial infection. There must be some other reason for her symptoms.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 11.1 Skill: Applied

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5) After a rapid change in climate, one population of bird quickly adapts to the change, but others in the area do not. What could you conclude about the quickly adapting population? A) They had a greater need to evolve than the other population. B) They already had some alleles in their genome that were adaptive in the new environment. C) They reproduced more slowly than the non-adapting population. D) They had a higher rate of mutation than the other population. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Applied 6) Evolution is A) a rare event.

B) constantly occurring at the same rate in all organisms.

C) a process that occurs as a result of differences in reproductive fitness.

D) a process that occurred only in the past.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Factual 7) Which of the following is able to evolve?

A) individual cats in a home B) a population of asexually reproducing bacteria C) a rose bush D) an HIV virus that has infected a patient Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Conceptual 8) When a population of organisms is evolving, what can you be sure is happening?

A) It's improving.

B) It's stable (no change).

C) It's getting bigger.

D) It's changing.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Conceptual

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9) A city was intensively sprayed with DDT to control houseflies. The number of houseflies was immediately greatly reduced. Each year thereafter, the city was sprayed again, but the flies gradually increased in numbers until 10 years later, when they were almost as abundant as they were when the control program began. Which of the following most likely explains this?

A) Flies from other areas moved in and replaced the ones killed by DDT. B) The few flies that were affected by DDT but survived developed antibodies to DDT, which they passed on to their descendants.

C) The DDT caused new mutations to occur in the surviving flies, resulting in resistance to DDT. D) The DDT killed most flies. The few that were already naturally resistant survived and passed this resistance on to their offspring.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Applied 10) In order for the theory of common descent and the theory of natural selection to both be true, what can we infer about the genetic material for all life?

A) It must change very rarely.

B) It must vary spontaneously and randomly.

C) It must be transferrable between adults.

D) It must be transferable between different species.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Applied 11) True or false: Natural selection is only one of several possible causes of evolution.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Factual 12) Which of the following is NOT part of the theory of natural selection?

A) Individuals in a population vary.

B) Some variation can be passed on to offspring.

C) Populations produce more offspring than the environment can support.

D) All species are descended from a common ancestor.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Factual 13) True or false: Any individual organism has the potential to evolve if it's given enough time and possesses a mechanism to generate variation.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Conceptual

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14) Traits that increase fitness in a particular environment are called ________.

Answer: adaptations Diff: 1 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Factual 15) Darwin explained in his book The Origin of Species how natural selection could result in ________.

Answer: evolution Diff: 1 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Factual 16) You notice that some squirrels in your neighborhood have a much darker coat color than most of the other squirrels. Is this darker color an adaptation?

A) Yes, all variations are adaptations.

B) No, adaptations are traits developed when they're needed to help an organism survive.

C) You can't know unless you can know the coat color of the dark squirrel's parents.

D) The trait is only an adaptation if it gives the squirrels an advantage in their habitat.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Applied 17) What kind of bacterial variant would be most likely to survive in the human digestive system?

A) a variant that thrives at temperatures close to 100°C B) a variant with a coating that is resistant to an acidic environment C) a variant that reproduces slowly D) a variant that easily attaches to hard surfaces Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Applied 18) If you wanted to see natural selection working in a population of mosquitoes in response to pesticide, how much pesticide should you use?

A) Enough to kill most but not all the mosquitoes.

B) Enough to kill all the mosquitoes.

C) Just enough so that the mosquitoes will be exposed but not enough to kill any of them.

D) Enough to kill the weakest 1% of the mosquitoes.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Conceptual

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19) Which of the following variations could be subject to natural selection?

A) A dog with short legs due to malnutrition is able to crawl into holes better than his littermates.

B) A tree is not infested by a ground-dwelling beetle when the homeowner cuts the lower branches.

C) A hyena is born with a spotted fur pattern that allows it to hide in the grass better than its littermates.

D) A pigeon learns that when its keeper comes near it will get fed.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Conceptual 20) Which of the following describes natural selection?

A) A population of a mammal species varies in the length of their legs; water levels rise and the habitat becomes swampy; the individuals with shorter legs are better able to swim to food; the population evolves to become shorter-legged.

B) A population of a mammal species lives near the water; water levels rise and the habitat becomes swampy; the animals have trouble moving in the water; the population changes to a shorter-legged type so they can move more easily in the water.

C) Water levels rise and a habitat becomes swampy; a population of a mammal species on high ground observes the change; individuals with shorter legs migrate to the area.

D) A population of a mammal species lives near the water; water levels rise and the habitat becomes swampy; the act of swimming shortens the legs of the mammals; the offspring of the mammal species have shorter legs.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Applied 21) Which of the following plants is the most fit?

A) a plant with deep roots B) a plant with large leaves C) a plant with large flowers D) Fitness can't be determined without reference to the environment.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Conceptual 22) Which of the following would exert selection pressure on a population of insects?

A) a new species of bird in the area B) a fire C) an earthquake D) the introduction of a population of feral cats into the area Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Conceptual

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23) In a population, which individuals are most likely to survive and reproduce?

A) The individuals who are best adapted to the environment.

B) The largest individuals in the group.

C) The individuals who can catch the most prey.

D) The individuals who grow the most rapidly.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Conceptual 24) In what way is artificial selection different from natural selection?

A) There's no difference; both have caused evolution throughout the history of life on Earth.

B) Artificial selection applies to changes in domestic animals only, while natural selection applies to all other species.

C) In artificial selection, human preference is the selecting force; in natural selection, environmental conditions are the selecting force.

D) Artificial selection causes one species to change to another, while natural selection only modifies existing species.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Conceptual 25) True or false: Any trait that is controlled by genes can be acted on by natural selection.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Conceptual 26) A biologist has been studying two populations of trout in Montana for the last 25 years, when the two populations were established from one common population. In the southern population, the fish now have a slightly different mouth shape. But the northern population hasn't changed from the original type.

The new shape works well in catching the type of prey common in the habitat of the southern population. Which explanation best explains the gene differences in the two populations?

A) The mutation only appeared in the southern population after it was exposed to the new prey.

B) The gene that produces the variation is probably still present in a small percentage of the northern population, but since there's no advantage to having it, individuals with the variation aren't selected.

C) The gene that produces the variation used to be present in a few individuals, but since it wasn't advantageous, individuals with that variation died out.

D) The gene that produces the variation used to be common in both populations, but since it wasn't advantageous in the northern population, the variation died out.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Conceptual

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27) Which of the following steps in the theory of natural selection do humans impact the most to bring about artificial selection?

A) Individuals in a population vary.

B) Some variation can be passed on to offspring.

C) Populations produce more offspring than the environment can support.

D) There is differential survival and reproduction among individuals in a population.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Conceptual 28) The blueberries found in a typical grocery store have several gene differences compared to wild blueberries. What has caused this difference?

A) natural selection B) artificial selection C) a change in the environment D) genetic engineering Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Factual 29) True or false: The goal of natural selection is to make extreme traits more common.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Factual 30) True or false: Any allele that's present in a population exists because it increases fitness.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Conceptual 31) Artificial selection occurs when an organism's fitness is controlled by ________.

Answer: humans Diff: 1 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Factual 32) The raw material for evolution is ________.

Answer: mutation Diff: 2 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Factual

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33) Which of the following is an adaptation?

A) immunity to a virus caused by vaccination B) clipped ears on a dog to prevent the dog from developing ear infections C) webbed feet on a bird D) a grizzly bear learning to open a Dumpster Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Conceptual 34) After four observations, Darwin made the inference that natural selection causes ________.

Answer: evolution Diff: 1 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Factual 35) As natural selection acts on a trait in a population, the amount of variation associated with that trait in the population is likely to do which of the following?

A) decrease B) increase C) remain the same D) disappear altogether Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 11.2 Skill: Applied 36) You notice in the fall that the oak trees on campus change color at slightly different times, even though the environment is the same for all the trees. What is the most likely explanation?

A) Natural selection is causing some trees to change.

B) There are different alleles of the gene responsible for color change.

C) The weather changes the genes of the oak trees each year.

D) All the trees have the same genes, but each tree makes different proteins from the genes.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 11.3 Skill: Conceptual 37) What is an allele?

A) a gene that has been changed by natural selection B) a trait that has been influence by artificial selection C) a gene that hasn't changed over time D) a particular version of a gene Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 11.3 Skill: Factual

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38) A population of caterpillars feeds on the leaves of trees in a forest and is in turn food for birds that eat them off the tree leaves. Given this information, which adaptation would be most likely to evolve?

A) Caterpillars would evolve to a larger size.

B) Caterpillars would evolve to eat the bark as well as the leaves.

C) Birds would evolve to eat more types of insects.

D) Caterpillars would evolve to a color that matched the leaves they eat.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 11.3 Skill: Applied 39) A primary source for new, unique genes in a population is A) mutation.

B) natural selection.

C) artificial selection.

D) crossing over.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 11.3 Skill: Factual 40) Which of the following is true of individuals who are well adapted for a particular environment?

A) They may or may not be equally fit in another environment.

B) They are the best fit for all other environments.

C) They are at a disadvantage in other environments.

D) They will mutate to become fit in other environments.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 11.3 Skill: Conceptual 41) Which of the following is the most direct (or first) result of natural selection on a population?

A) New alleles are created when confronted with a new environment.

B) Proteins lose some functions.

C) The frequency of some alleles changes in the population.

D) Members of the population start reproducing more rapidly.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 11.3 Skill: Conceptual

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42) A population of birch trees is present on the side of a mountain and is preyed upon by beetles that burrow into bark. Which of the following trees would be the most fit?

A) a tree that grows to be the tallest B) a tree that has thicker bark C) a tree with more active photosynthetic enzymes D) a tree that has thick, strong roots Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 11.3 Skill: Applied 43) When a population undergoes strong selection, what is most likely to happen to it?

A) The most common type of organism is replaced with a different type.

B) Variation increases in the population.

C) New mutations will form more frequently.

D) The number of individuals in the population will rapidly increase.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 11.3 Skill: Conceptual 44) True or false: It was better for humans to walk upright, so they evolved a different pelvis than their primate ancestors.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Topic: 11.3 Skill: Applied 45) True or false: Once an adaptation appears, it remains in all the descendants unless the species becomes extinct.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Topic: 11.3 Skill: Conceptual 46) True or false: During a time when resources are abundant, one would not expect much evolutionary change.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Topic: 11.3 Skill: Applied 47) True or false: Natural selection occurs so an organism can become perfectly adapted to its environment.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Topic: 11.3 Skill: Conceptual

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48) It is most likely that dinosaur populations became extinct because A) their environment changed.

B) different alleles became dominant in the populations.

C) mutations became common in the populations.

D) they were not perfectly adapted to their environment.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 11.3 Skill: Applied 49) Many variants are produced during the long course of an HIV infection. Which of these variants would be most fit in the environment of the human body?

A) a virus that infects liver cells B) a virus that reproduces very slowly C) a virus that makes fewer mistakes when replicating its RNA D) a virus that can't be recognized by the patient's immune system Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 11.3 Skill: Applied 50) Your text describes an experiment in which low-nutrient conditions select bacteria that would kill off other bacteria. When nutrients became plentiful again, these killer bacteria became less common because they had lower fitness in this environment, but they didn't become extinct. Why wouldn't the killer bacteria die out completely in the new environment?

A) They're waiting for a future time when that trait may be useful again.

B) They have changed the killer gene to a less costly one but can regenerate the killer gene when necessary.

C) Competition must be low enough that the disadvantage of having the killer trait isn't great enough to cause extinction.

D) The killer trait is a dominant trait, so it cannot be eliminated.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 11.3 Skill: Conceptual 51) Which of the following is an example of jury-rigged design, or an adaptation that is constrained by the particular ancestral structure of the organism?

A) antibiotic resistance in bacteria B) anatomy that allows upright posture in humans C) the wings of bats D) ethanol tolerance in fruit flies Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 11.3 Skill: Factual

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52) The evolution of a long neck in giraffes is an example of A) stabilizing selection. B) directional selection. C) diversifying selection. D) disruptive selection Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 11.3 Skill: Applied

53) What is shown in this figure?

A) stabilizing selection B) directional selection C) diversifying selection D) disruptive selection Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 11.3 Skill: Applied 54) Which of these is an example of diversifying selection?

A) A population of moths with white and grey forms lives in a forest containing trees with light and dark bark.

B) Because bees prefer dark blue flowers, this color gradually becomes more dominant in a population of plants with a color ranging from light blue to dark blue.

C) A population of plants develops all orange fruit instead of a mixture of yellow, red, and orange fruit, due to animals showing a preference for orange fruit.

D) Wild cat populations gradually develop spots that allow them to be camouflaged in the dark forest.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: 11.3 Skill: Applied

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55) In 1980, only 1% to 5% of all Staphylococcus aureus isolates were MRSA strains. Now 60% to 70% of S. aureus isolates are MRSA strains. This is an example of A) stabilizing selection of humans.

B) directional selection of humans. C) directional selection of bacteria. D) diversifying selection of bacteria. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 11.3 Skill: Applied 56) A trait that confers ________ in one environment might make an organism less able to survive and reproduce in another environment.

A) selection B) fitness C) adaptation D) alleles Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 11.3 Skill: Factual 57) The phrase "survival of the fittest" is somewhat misleading because A) it implies that the best possible organism will evolve.

B) it implies that organisms will always grow bigger and more complex.

C) it implies that there's random generation of variation.

D) it implies that humans are the proper end result of evolution.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 11.3 Skill: Factual 58) Human females have a lifespan of over 80 years. However, the trait of living for eight decades is somewhat of a puzzle to evolutionary biologists. Why might that be?

A) The genes responsible for long life have not been identified.

B) The lifespan of human females is slightly longer than human males.

C) Women who live to be 80 don't have better relative fitness than women who live to be 50.

D) Long life can be a burden for an individual.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 11.3 Skill: Conceptual

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59) How did an understanding of genetics lead to "the modern synthesis"?

A) It showed how traits could be passed from one organism to the next.

B) It showed how many offspring a single individual was capable of producing.

C) It showed the extent of variation for many traits.

D) It showed the kind of environmental change that could cause evolution.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 11.3 Skill: Conceptual

60) How would you describe the gene changes shown in this figure?

A) No genes have changed, since all flies have a gene for the alcohol processing.

B) The number of genes in the population has increased.

C) The frequency of the fast enzyme allele has decreased.

D) The frequency of the fast enzyme allele has increased.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 11.3 Skill: Conceptual

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61) What would happen if a mutation created a new allele that decreased fitness? A) The new allele would spread through the population and decrease the fitness of that population. B) The new allele would decrease the fitness of the individual that possessed it, and that individual would have few or no offspring. C) The new allele would have to change back to an allele of higher fitness so the possessor of that allele could maintain its fitness. D) The individual with the new allele would wait for an environmental change so that its fitness would increase again. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 11.3 Skill: Conceptual 62) Drug resistance to anti-HIV drugs is a serious problem. Which of the following facts about HIV is the most direct reason why drug resistance appears so rapidly?

A) It has a high rate of mutation.

B) It's a virus.

C) It's found in the blood.

D) It's sexually transmitted.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 11.4 Skill: Conceptual 63) Why is combination drug therapy less likely to lead to resistance than single drug therapy?

A) In the presence of multiple drugs, the mutation rate of HIV decreases.

B) The drugs improve the immune system so that it's better able to find and remove virus particles.

C) The likelihood of one virus spontaneously mutating to be resistant to three different drugs is extremely small.

D) There are fewer side effects associated with combination drug therapy, and the appearance of resistance is directly proportional to the severity of side effects.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 11.4 Skill: Factual 64) Based on what you know about resistance to infection, what must be unique about people who are resistant to HIV? A) They have a strong immune system that clears the virus completely.

B) They have been immunized in an experimental program.

C) They can't be infected with HIV even when exposed.

D) They never engage in risky behavior and thus can't become infected.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 11.4 Skill: Factual

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65) Which of the following is the main reason widespread resistance to tuberculosis (TB) is not likely to evolve any time soon?

A) Only a small percentage of people who are nonresistant to the bacterium will become infected and die from TB, so the variant will stay in the population.

B) TB is highly fatal, so those who are nonresistant will die quickly.

C) Humans are no longer evolving, so the population cannot develop widespread resistance.

D) It would be too expensive to genetically engineer people to give them the resistance gene.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: 11.4 Skill: Conceptual 66) Which of these statements best describes the phenomenon of antibiotic resistance in bacteria?

A) For a particular antibiotic, all bacteria are either completely resistant or completely sensitive.

B) When a type of bacteria is resistant to antibiotics, it's resistant to all antibiotics.

C) Resistance is a matter of degrees; resistance can be partial or total, and resistance to each antibiotic is a separate trait.

D) Resistance to antibiotics is a trait that didn't exist before antibiotics were developed for pharmaceutical use.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 11.4 Skill: Factual 67) Is it possible to prevent bacteria from becoming resistant to antibiotics?

A) Yes: If we give antibiotics properly, resistance will go away and not evolve again.

B) No: Bacteria need to become resistant to anything that will kill them.

C) No: However, by using antibiotics properly, we can slow the rate at which resistance appears.

D) Yes: If we stop using antibiotics, the trait will disappear.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 11.4 Skill: Applied 68) What is combination drug therapy?

A) a succession of drugs to combat an infection–as the infecting microorganism becomes resistant to one drug, the patient is put on another B) a mixture of drugs and homeopathic medications C) a mixture of several different kinds of drugs given simultaneously D) one drug that has a combination of effects Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 11.4 Skill: Factual

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69) Why haven't humans evolved a resistance to the common cold? A) Colds are effectively killed by antibiotics, so there's no need. B) Cold viruses haven't been in existence long enough to exert selective pressure. C) Colds are not serious enough to remove nonresistant variants from the population. D) We could evolve resistance if we stopped taking so many over-the-counter medications for colds. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 11.4 Skill: Factual 70) Why aren't antibiotics used against the common cold?

A) Cold viruses have already evolved resistance to antibiotics.

B) Colds are caused by viruses and have never been affected by antibiotics.

C) Antibiotics are only active against infection in the blood but not the respiratory tract.

D) They're only effective if you take them within the first few hours of the infection.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 11.4 Skill: Factual 71) In 2005, a strain of extremely drug-resistant bacteria was isolated from a man in New York City.

Public health officials braced themselves for many more cases, but they never appeared. What is the most likely explanation?

A) The strain must have reverted back to a sensitive strain in order to keep infecting more people.

B) The strain may have been less fit in other ways and thus not successful in the population.

C) The strain must have become extinct.

D) The strain must have been dormant and was waiting for the right conditions to reappear.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 11.4 Skill: Conceptual 72) What is MRSA? A) tuberculosis bacteria resistant to antibiotics B) any bacteria resistant to antibiotics C) antibiotics used as a last resort for resistant bacteria D) a form of skin bacteria that's resistant to methicillin Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 11.4 Skill: Factual

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Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk) Chapter 12 Who Am I? Species and Races 1) What causes the reproductive isolation that can lead to speciation?

A) Members of one group don't want to mate with other groups.

B) Members of one group are unable to make fertile offspring with other groups.

C) A group is extinct.

D) Some members of a group are sterile.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 12.1 Skill: Factual 2) Which of these most accurately describes a single population?

A) all the oak trees in a park B) two coneflower plants in a field of coneflowers C) all the housecats in Montana D) all the gulls in North America Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 12.1 Skill: Conceptual 3) Which of the following occurs after the creation of a new allele?

A) The gene pool becomes more diverse.

B) The gene pool becomes less diverse.

C) The gene pool fragments into smaller groups.

D) Reproductive isolation always occurs in the group where the mutation occurred.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 12.1 Skill: Conceptual 4) Which of the following is an example of behavioral isolation?

A) A species of daisy only blooms when nights become longer than nine hours.

B) The offspring of horses and donkeys are sterile.

C) The pollen of roses isn't recognized by the eggs of morning glories.

D) Female spiders only mate when a male of the same species taps her web in a particular way.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 12.1 Skill: Conceptual

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5) You wish to study interspecies mating. Which of the following would be the best mating pair to study?

A) a Great Dane and a poodle B) a lion and a tiger C) a green bell pepper plant and a red bell pepper plant D) a striped tiger and an albino tiger Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 12.1 Skill: Applied 6) What prevents mules from having offspring?

A) They don't develop sex organs.

B) They are all males.

C) They can't produce eggs and sperm.

D) Each mule produced is a different species from other mules.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 12.1 Skill: Factual 7) True or false: A minimum of 100 years of isolation is required for two populations to accumulate enough differences to be considered different species.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Topic: 12.1 Skill: Conceptual 8) A postfertilization barrier to reproduction has what result?

A) mutations in genes that control development B) offspring that fail to develop C) mechanical isolation of a species D) gamete incompatibility Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 12.1 Skill: Factual 9) Apple maggot flies appear to be two separate races. What makes these races different?

A) They look different.

B) They eat different foods.

C) They have different allele frequencies.

D) They mate at different times.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 12.1 Skill: Conceptual

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10) How does polyploidy cause reproductive isolation?

A) It changes the timing of reproduction.

B) It changes instructions for how to make reproductive anatomy.

C) It alters the number of chromosomes in sex cells.

D) It changes the prey preference of the organism.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 12.1 Skill: Factual 11) Which one of the following shows the steps of speciation in the correct order?

A) evolutionary changes, geographic isolation, reproductive isolation B) genetic incompatibility, geographic isolation, evolutionary changes C) geographic isolation, evolutionary changes, reproductive isolation D) reproductive isolation, genetic incompatibility, geographic isolation Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 12.1 Skill: Conceptual 12) When geographic isolation occurs, under what conditions might you expect the most rapid speciation?

A) when there is similarity in the food supply in both locations B) when the climate is very different in the two locations C) when the species has a long generation time D) when one of the two groups becomes extinct Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 12.1 Skill: Applied 13) A small founder population of turtles has established a population on an island with a varied and good habitat that contains ample food. There is very little competition between members. What is the likely effect on evolution of this low level of competition?

A) The population will remain very stable in size, and it won't evolve much.

B) The population will grow in size but won't change much.

C) The population will grow in size, and many variants will coexist.

D) Genetic drift will eliminate most of the population.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 12.1 Skill: Applied

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14) What sort of fossil data would support the hypothesis of punctuated equilibrium?

A) fossils that look alike through many layers of sediment B) fossils that look very different through many layers of sediment C) fossils that look alike through layers of sediment, then a layer with many new fossils D) a few layers of sediment with different fossils between layers of sediment without fossils Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 12.1 Skill: Applied 15) One species of plant produces flowers when nights are 10 hours long. A related species comes into flower when nights are 9 hours long. This is an example of A) gamete incompatibility.

B) temporal isolation.

C) mechanical isolation.

D) behavioral isolation.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 12.1 Skill: Factual 16) All of the bees in an area are eliminated by disease. This could lead to reproductive isolation of which of the following species in the area?

A) black cherry trees B) red ants C) white-footed mice D) ostrich ferns Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: 12.1 Skill: Applied 17) What produces gene flow?

A) mating between populations B) geographical isolation C) mutation D) speciation Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 12.1 Skill: Factual

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18) The hypothesis of punctuated equilibrium suggests that A) there's been no change in life on Earth.

B) there's been gradual and steady change in life on Earth.

C) there have been short periods of dramatic evolutionary change separated by long periods of no change.

D) life on Earth changes dramatically most of the time, but there are short periods when there's no change.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 12.1 Skill: Factual 19) Fruit flies all look more or less alike. If you have a male and female fruit fly, how could you test the hypothesis that they're the same species?

A) Determine the sequence of several of their genes.

B) Examine them closely under a microscope, and compare what you see to a published description of fruit flies.

C) See if they'll mate when they're put together.

D) See if they mate and if their offspring can also mate.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 12.1 Skill: Applied 20) True or false: When speciation occurs, the result is usually a dramatic change in appearance in the new species.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Topic: 12.1 Skill: Conceptual 21) True or false: When a founder population has a small gene pool, evolutionary change is more likely to be rapid than if the founder population has a large gene pool.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Topic: 12.1 Skill: Conceptual 22) True or false: Reproductive isolation is the only requirement for speciation.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Topic: 12.1 Skill: Conceptual 23) Closely related species of orchids never mate in the wild because they bloom at different times. This is an example of ________ reproductive isolation.

Answer: temporal Diff: 2 Topic: 12.1 Skill: Applied 5 Email: r ichard@qwconsultancy.com

24) Which of the following describes mechanical reproductive isolation?

A) two squirrel populations live on either side of a mountain range B) two fly species have differently shaped genitals that prevent interspecies mating C) two similar species of sunflowers bloom at different times of the year D) individuals from two wildcat species produce infertile offspring when they mate Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 12.1 Skill: Applied 25) The eggs released by sponges during reproduction have proteins on their surfaces that prevent sperm from different sponge species from binding to the eggs. This is an example of A) gamete compatibility.

B) hybrid inviability.

C) mechanical reproductive isolation.

D) behavioral reproductive isolation.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 12.1 Skill: Applied

26) California tarweed seeds were able to reach the Hawaiian Islands, and a new species emerged from this isolated population. This example illustrates A) the founder hypothesis.

B) hybridization.

C) punctuated equilibrium.

D) polyploidy.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 12.1 Skill: Conceptual 6 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

27) You're studying two species of frog. How would you know if gradualism or punctuated equilibrium played a role in the formation of the two species from their common ancestor? A) The species would have more differences if speciation occurred gradually. B) The species would have more differences if speciation occurred suddenly. C) The species would be the same regardless of the how speciation occurred. D) The degree of difference depends less on the mechanism of speciation than on the time that's passed since speciation occurred. Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: 12.1 Skill: Applied 28) After a speciation event A) two species have evolved that are each different from the original species.

B) one new species evolves, while the original species stays the same.

C) one new species evolves, while the original species may stay the same or evolve into something different.

D) one new species evolves, while the original species goes extinct.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 12.1 Skill: Factual

29) The figure illustrates the concept of A) gradualism.

B) hybridization.

C) punctualism.

D) polyploidy.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 12.1 Skill: Conceptual

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30) The terms "subspecies" and "race" are best described by which of the following scenarios?

A) a population of rabbits that lives near a lake and sometimes breeds with rabbits farther inland B) two populations of birds that have different amounts of orange coloration and could produce offspring if they were not separated by a mountain range C) two populations of frogs that cannot produce offspring D) a breed of dog with a longhaired coat instead of a shorthaired coat Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 12.2 Skill: Conceptual 31) Genealogical species are groups that have diverged from a common ancestor but aren't yet reproductively ________.

Answer: isolated Diff: 2 Topic: 12.2 Skill: Factual 32) True or false: A genealogical species definition includes fewer organisms than a biological species definition.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Topic: 12.2 Skill: Factual 33) You read that two populations of hyena are different subspecies. Which of the following would be true of the two populations?

A) They could produce fertile offspring.

B) One group would be much larger than the other group.

C) Their mating behavior would be quite different.

D) They would have different diets.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 12.2 Skill: Factual 34) How are human fossils classified into species?

A) by differences in DNA B) by differences in diet C) by differences in skin color D) by differences in the skeleton Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 12.2 Skill: Factual

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35) What is found when alleles among different human groups are analyzed?

A) There are no race-specific alleles and no consistent patterns of allele frequencies within racial groups.

B) There are a few race-specific alleles but no consistent patterns of allele frequencies within racial groups.

C) There are many race-specific alleles and several consistent patterns of allele frequencies within racial groups.

D) There are no race-specific alleles but several consistent patterns of allele frequencies within racial groups.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 12.2 Skill: Factual 36) Where can you find the most genetically diverse populations of humans?

A) Europe B) Central America C) Africa D) Pacific Islands Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 12.2 Skill: Factual 37) About how long have modern humans existed?

A) 25,000 years B) 250,000 years C) 2,500,000 years D) 25,000,000 years Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 12.2 Skill: Factual 38) True or false: Fossil evidence shows that all modern human populations evolved from human ancestors in Africa.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Topic: 12.2 Skill: Factual 39) Which of the following would be considered a population genetics question that could be answered using the Hardy—Weinberg equation?

A) What will be the frequency of a particular genotype in a future generation?

B) What is the probability that members of two groups will mate?

C) Is an allele dominant or recessive?

D) What is the genetic basis of racial categories?

Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: 12.2 Skill: Conceptual 9 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

40) A gene exists as two alleles in a population of freely mating individuals. If 40% of the population carries the recessive allele (a) for the gene, what percentage of the population has the homozygous recessive aa genotype? A) 40% B) 20% C) 16% D) 80% Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 12.2 Skill: Conceptual 41) You're interested in the genetics of earlobe shape on your campus. Free (unattached) earlobes are caused by a dominant allele. The attached earlobe phenotype is caused by a recessive allele.

Individuals with free earlobes have either a homozygous genotype or a heterozygous genotype. Assuming that your college campus is a stable population, how could you use one calculation to determine the percentage of students who have a heterozygous genotype for earlobe shape?

A) calculate the percentage of people who have free earlobes B) calculate the percentage of people who are homozygous-dominant for free earlobes C) calculate the percentage of people who have attached earlobes D) calculate the percentage of people who carry the recessive allele Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 12.2 Skill: Applied 42) You read that the frequency of a particular disease-associated recessive allele in a population is 12%. What does that mean?

A) 12% of the population has the disease caused by that allele.

B) 12% of the population is a carrier for that disease.

C) For every 100 people, there are 12 copies of the allele.

D) The allele is present in 12% of the cells in your body.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 12.2 Skill: Conceptual 43) Why would a scientist use DNA fingerprinting to answer a question about human migration?

A) to determine what race a person belongs to B) to determine the paternity of an individual C) to determine the frequency of a particular allele in different populations D) to determine whether a recessive allele gave an advantage in a particular environment Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 12.2 Skill: Factual

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44) In order to support the hypothesis that two groups are different races, one group should have at least some unique alleles A) in one individual in the population.

B) in one family line of the population.

C) in a significant number of members in the population.

D) in all the members on the population.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 12.2 Skill: Conceptual 45) The ________ species concept is used by paleontologists as they compare the physical characteristics of fossils to understand human evolution.

Answer: morphological Diff: 1 Topic: 12.2 Skill: Factual 46) Scientists are most likely to use which of the following to calculate allele frequencies in a human population?

A) Hardy—Weinberg theorem B) DNA technology C) physical characteristics of fossils D) Punnett squares Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 12.2 Skill: Factual 47) Which individuals have the greatest fitness in an area where malaria is common?

A) Individuals of any genotype who become infected with malaria before the age of five.

B) Individuals homozygous for the sickle cell anemia allele.

C) Individuals homozygous for the normal globin allele.

D) Individuals heterozygous for the normal and sickle cell anemia alleles.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 12.3 Skill: Factual 48) On Long Island, New York, there's a population of wall lizards that originated from a group in Italy.

Several had been imported to be sold as pets many decades ago, and some escaped and started a new population in this suburban area. This is an example of A) genetic drift.

B) the founder effect.

C) a population bottleneck.

D) gene flow.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 12.3 Skill: Conceptual

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49) What is the evolutionary origin of light skin in humans?

A) Light skin evolved several times in response to high ultraviolet light levels.

B) Light skin evolved several times in response to low ultraviolet light levels.

C) Light skin evolved several times in areas where there was no malaria.

D) Light skin evolved as an adaptation that decreased folate levels in humans.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 12.3 Skill: Factual 50) In what type of population would evolution occur most rapidly?

A) a large population with a large gene pool B) a small population with a relatively diverse gene pool C) a small population with a small gene pool D) a large population with a relatively limited gene pool Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 12.3 Skill: Conceptual 51) You observe several populations of a species of wildflower in your county. Even though the climate is nearly identical in all three places, each population has distinct traits. What's the most likely cause of change when habitat is similar?

A) a chance event in each population as the original population spread B) founder effect in each population as the original population spread C) sexual selection acting on each population D) independent mutations arising in each population Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 12.3 Skill: Applied 52) Many lines of evidence suggest that human populations aren't distinct races. What keeps us so similar even though adaptations to local conditions have occurred?

A) Members of different populations mate with each other.

B) Natural selection has acted in the same way for all groups of humans.

C) Populations mate assortatively.

D) Sexual selection has acted in the same way for all groups.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: 12.3 Skill: Conceptual

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53) Traits acted on by sexual selection A) increase fertility.

B) occur mostly in females.

C) sometimes appear to have no relation to fitness.

D) occur in plants but not in animals.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 12.3 Skill: Conceptual 54) Assortative matings have what effect on populations?

A) They cause one sex to be much different than the other.

B) They cause isolated groups to be more similar to each other.

C) They increase the rate of mutations.

D) They maintain appearance differences between groups.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 12.3 Skill: Factual 55) True or false: Traits like reduced body hair in many native North American and Asian populations are most likely the result of sexual selection.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Topic: 12.3 Skill: Factual 56) True or false: Levels of ultraviolet light influence both folate and vitamin D production in humans.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Topic: 12.3 Skill: Factual 57) ________ shape of humans is correlated with the humidity in the air to which the group is adapted.

Answer: Nose Diff: 1 Topic: 12.3 Skill: Factual 58) True or false: Two populations that have adapted to similar environmental conditions sometimes have a similar appearance.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Topic: 12.3 Skill: Conceptual

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59) Evolution that occurs as a result of chance events is called A) sexual selection.

B) genetic drift.

C) gene flow.

D) population bottleneck.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 12.4 Skill: Factual 60) Evolution that occurs as a result of a dramatic reduction in population size is called A) founder effect.

B) genetic drift.

C) gene flow.

D) population bottleneck.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 12.4 Skill: Factual 61) Populations that change due to genetic drift A) haven't really undergone evolutionary change.

B) will then be subject to strong sexual selection.

C) have evolved.

D) will soon change back to the original form as a result of natural selection.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 12.3 Skill: Conceptual 62) The existence of superficial differences among groups of humans is primarily due to A) temporal isolation.

B) geographic isolation.

C) genetic incompatibility.

D) behavioral isolation.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 12.3 Skill: Factual

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63) The figure shows that sickle cell allele is not common in every region that malaria is present. Why not?

A) The sickle-cell allele only protects against some forms of malaria.

B) The sickle-cell allele is adaptive in only some races but not others.

C) The sickle-cell allele appeared by chance in certain populations and increased in frequency in those populations after it appeared.

D) The areas where sickle-cell and malaria overlap represent migration from the original population where sickle-cell arose.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 12.3 Skill: Conceptual 64) Alleles for other genetic diseases also provide protection against malaria when only one copy of the allele is present. In what cell type would you expect these genes to be active?

A) liver cells B) skin cells C) red blood cells D) lung cells Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 12.3 Skill: Factual 65) In a population where most of the individuals have long, narrow noses, a child is born with a short, broad nose. What's the most likely evolutionary explanation for this variation?

A) Both parents of this child are from another population.

B) Humidity in the area is increasing, and selection pressure is changing.

C) The child reflects the normal variation around the average type.

D) A mutation must have occurred to produce a new allele of the nose shape gene.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 12.3 Skill: Applied 15 Email: r ichard@qwconsultancy.com

66) Which of these traits are explained by convergent evolution?

A) sickle-cell anemia in areas where malaria is common B) light skin color in many northern populations C) short stature in natives from the island of Puka Puka D) red hair among people of Irish descent Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 12.3 Skill: Factual 67) How can we explain the observation that traits such as skin color are fairly consistent within a racial group but alleles for skin color aren't consistent?

A) There's no relationship between alleles and skin color.

B) Skin color is influenced by many genes, so several different gene pools can produce the same skin color.

C) Only one gene is important in skin color, and when analysis is limited to that gene, there's clear evidence of a long separation of groups.

D) Few allele variations between groups are just what you would expect if races were genealogical species.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 12.3 Skill: Applied 68) In order to be acted on by sexual selection, a trait must be A) something that influences mate choice by the opposite sex.

B) something that increases survival.

C) a male trait.

D) a trait that increases fertility.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 12.3 Skill: Conceptual

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69) How does the distribution shown on the map of alleles for the B blood type support the hypothesis that there are no biological races of humans?

A) All human groups show the same frequency of this allele.

B) A distinct frequency pattern of this allele is found in each human group.

C) A gradient of frequency of the allele is found from its origin in Asia outward to Europe.

D) There's no pattern with respect to frequency of this allele throughout Asia and Europe.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 12.3 Skill: Factual 70) Two unrelated individuals with the same color skin A) would have similar alleles for melanin production.

B) would have similar alleles for repetitive DNA segments.

C) would have similar alleles for nose shape.

D) would be no more likely to have similar alleles for any gene than any two individuals chosen randomly.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 12.3 Skill: Factual

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Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk) Chapter 13 Prospecting for Biological Gold: Biodiversity and Classification 1) Why are companies particularly interested in bioprospecting?

A) Companies hope to become famous for discovering a new species.

B) Companies hope to make more students interested in taxonomy.

C) Companies hope to discover a species that contains an enzyme or another protein that can be marketed.

D) Companies hope to discover how life on Earth began.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 13.1 Skill: Conceptual 2) Dr. Smith has discovered a bird that he believes is a new species. Dr. Wilson says he will only be convinced if Dr. Smith finds several more birds of the same type. Why might Dr. Wilson feel this way?

A) He wants to be sure Dr. Smith hasn't killed the last one and made the species extinct.

B) He wants to be sure that the bird Dr. Smith found isn't just an unusual example of an alreadydescribed species.

C) He wants to make sure that there will be enough specimens for many scientists to study the bird and see if it is a new species.

D) All the bird species have already been described, so there can't be anymore.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 13.1 Skill: Applied 3) Why is it so difficult for scientists to know how many species have already been described?

A) Scientific journals do not publish accounts of new species.

B) There isn't one location for cataloguing all species.

C) Scientists are too busy testing hypotheses to investigate the number of species on Earth.

D) Many species are microscopic, so they are difficult to study.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 13.1 Skill: Conceptual 4) Scientists can compare the relationships between all modern species by examining a gene that performs a similar function in species from all kingdoms. What does this one gene encode?

A) Taq polymerase B) ribosomal RNA C) enzymes needed for photosynthesis D) restriction enzymes Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 13.1 Skill: Factual

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5) According to the most current classifications, which of the following groups is the most different from all the others? A) bacteria B) fungi C) animals D) archaea Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 13.1 Skill: Factual 6) Scientists would change the most current classification system if A) more species became extinct.

B) more types of vertebrates were discovered.

C) more information became available on the evolutionary history of existing species.

D) new species evolved.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 13.1 Skill: Conceptual 7) What does the main trunk at the far left of the "tree of life" represent?

A) all extinct members of the lineage B) the earliest common ancestor of all the organisms in the tree C) the most successful members of the lineage D) the organisms for which most fossils have been discovered Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 13.1 Skill: Conceptual 8) How have classification systems for living things changed over the years?

A) Scientists have always recognized five kingdoms of living things, but the placement of species within those kingdoms has changed.

B) Until the last 20 years, organisms had been classified first as animal or plant. Recently, a fivekingdom system became the preferred classification system.

C) The three-domain system has been introduced within the last 30 years, to replace the five-kingdom system.

D) The exact organization proposed in the 18th century by Carl Linnaeus has recently been reinstituted by scientists.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 13.1 Skill: Factual

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9) Which of the following would be considered bioprospecting? A) studying how cancer cells reproduce without controls B) studying the mating rituals of fish species in a coral reef C) studying a sample of earthworm skin for antibacterial properties D) studying the number of species a particular species of owl uses as food Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 13.1 Skill: Applied 10) True or false: It's possible for the same species to be categorized under two different names in different natural history museums around the world.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Topic: 13.1 Skill: Conceptual 11) True or false: Once some bioprospectors have determined that a representative of a species has no useful compounds, that species is excluded from further study by other bioprospectors.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Topic: 13.1 Skill: Applied 12) True or false: Organisms on Earth are currently classified first as either plant or animal.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Topic: 13.1 Skill: Conceptual 13) In what period did all modern animal groups first appear in the oceans?

A) Cambrian B) Silurian C) Carboniferous D) Permian Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 13.1 Skill: Conceptual 14) In which era did primitive bacteria first appear?

A) Precambrian B) Paleozoic C) Mesozoic D) Cenozoic Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 13.1 Skill: Conceptual

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15) An organism that is multicellular and makes its own food would be classified in which kingdom?

A) kingdom Animalia B) kingdom Fungi C) kingdom Plantae D) kingdom Protista Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 13.1 Skill: Conceptual 16) An organism that is multicellular, relies on other organisms for food, and reproduces by spores would be classified in which kingdom?

A) kingdom Animalia B) kingdom Fungi C) kingdom Plantae D) kingdom Protista Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 13.1 Skill: Conceptual 17) Of the four kingdoms in the domain Eukarya, which one is most likely to be split into two or more new kingdoms as scientists perform more genetic analyses on evolutionary relationships?

A) kingdom Plantae B) kingdom Protista C) kingdom Animalia D) kingdom Fungi Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 13.1 Skill: Conceptual 18) DNA is found in every cell of an organism. What subset of DNA changes would be most useful to molecular biologists to determine evolutionary relationships?

A) DNA changes that occur in genes specific to organisms in one kingdom B) DNA changes in genes that are shared by a common ancestor C) DNA changes in genes that occur in body cells and cannot be passed to offspring D) DNA changes in genes that do not generally code for any function Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 13.1 Skill: Conceptual

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19) Fossils of ancient organisms are found in deep layers of rock, while the fossils of more recent organisms are found in shallower layers. Which two groups' common ancestor would be found in relatively shallow fossils? A) Protista and Bacteria B) Fungi and Archaea C) Animals and Plants D) Plants and Protists Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 13.1 Skill: Conceptual 20) How does the DNA of related organisms show similarity? A) The DNA of each organism is unique and therefore shows no similarity. B) The diverse types of sugars and phosphates are very similar. C) The sequence of bases is very similar. D) The locations of DNA within the cell are very similar. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 13.1 Skill: Factual

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21) In what way is a member of domain Archaea similar to a member of domain Bacteria? A) They are both photosynthetic. B) They both live in extreme environments.

C) They both have DNA enclosed in a nucleus. D) They are both prokaryotic cells.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Conceptual 22) Both mitochondria and chloroplasts originated from free-living A) protists.

B) animals.

C) bacteria.

D) plants.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Factual 23) Different phyla of fungi are distinguished from each other by what trait?

A) their methods of obtaining food B) the way they form spores C) the type of hyphae they form D) the type of antibiotics they produce Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Factual 24) How are prokaryotes different from eukaryotes?

A) Prokaryotes have no DNA. B) Prokaryotes have no nucleus separating the DNA from the rest of the cell.

C) Prokaryotes are unicellular, while eukaryotes are multicellular.

D) Prokaryotes cause disease, but eukaryotes don't.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Factual 25) Algae are classified as part of which group?

A) Plantae B) Protista C) Fungi D) Archaea Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Factual

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26) Place these categories in the correct order, from most inclusive to least inclusive. A) phylum, kingdom, domain, species B) species, phylum, domain, kingdom C) kingdom, species, phylum, domain D) domain, kingdom, phylum, species Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Factual 27) You work for a firm that has hired you to look for drugs that work in a similar way to aspirin.

Your first search will be among organisms in which kingdom?

A) Plantae B) Protista C) Fungi D) Animalia Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Applied 28) How do fungi obtain nutrients?

A) through photosynthesis B) by secreting chemicals that break down food and then absorbing it C) by secreting antibiotics and then absorbing killed bacteria D) by engulfing bacteria directly Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Factual 29) The leftovers in your refrigerator are guaranteed to eventually grow mold because fungi A) get nutrients from other organisms.

B) have cell walls.

C) are widespread and reproduce quickly.

D) often produce antibiotics.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Conceptual 30) In what way are fungi similar to animals?

A) Both take in food from the outside.

B) Both produce hair-like hyphae.

C) Both form embryos when they reproduce.

D) Both produce antibiotics.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Conceptual

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31) Plants possess many compounds that affect animals. Which of the following is the most likely reason?

A) Plants have been subject to mutation-causing pollution for many decades.

B) Plants have cell structures that are very different from animal cells.

C) Plants contain chloroplasts that are derived from free-living prokaryotes.

D) Plants that produce chemical defenses were successful against plant-eating animals.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Conceptual 32) Which group underwent a large increase in diversity during the Cambrian explosion?

A) animals B) plants C) fungi D) bacteria Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Factual 33) Which of the following animal traits would be of most interest to bioprospectors?

A) the ability to eat other organisms B) the ability to survive in the ocean C) the ability to produce venom D) the ability to produce food Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Conceptual 34) An organism is described that can live in very high temperature water. This organism is most likely a member of the A) Bacteria domain.

B) Archaea domain.

C) Protista kingdom.

D) Animalia kingdom.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Factual

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35) Life on Earth is approximately A) 36 billion years old.

B) 3.6 billion years old.

C) 360 million years old.

D) 36 million years old.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Factual 36) The Cambrian explosion is a period in Earth's history when what significant event occurred?

A) life first appeared B) eukaryotes first appeared C) plants first appeared D) multicellular animals first appeared Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Factual 37) Why would bioprospectors for private drug companies be interested in animals that produce venom?

A) The venom could be used to control pests like mice and rats.

B) Venoms often interact with nerves, so at much reduced concentrations, they could act as painkillers.

C) Powerful venoms could be used as biological weapons.

D) Many venoms potentially have antibiotic properties.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Applied 38) What is the result of adaptive radiation?

A) the extinction of one species and the replacement with another B) the diversification of one or a few species into a varied group of descendants C) symbiosis between eukaryotes and prokaryotes D) convergent evolution in which unrelated species take similar forms Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Factual 39) What is the adaptive value of natural antibiotic production for fungi?

A) Bacteria use fungi for food.

B) Bacteria spoil the food that the fungi need for their own nutrition.

C) Bacteria are the main competitors with fungi for food.

D) Bacteria inhibit the reproduction of fungi.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Conceptual 9 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

40) To which group are organisms in kingdom Fungi most closely related? A) Plantae B) Protista C) Animalia D) Bacteria Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Factual 41) In order to construct an evolutionary classification of modern-day aquatic vertebrates, what is the the best source of information?

A) the DNA sequence B) the structure of organs C) the position of appendages D) the distribution of scales Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Conceptual 42) With the evolution of ________, plants were able to grow taller.

A) seeds B) vascular tissue C) flowers D) photosynthesis Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Factual 43) Why might Archaea be more difficult to grow in the lab than Bacteria?

A) Archaea are larger cells and thus take in more food.

B) Archaea are much smaller than bacteria and are harder to see growing.

C) Archaea often grow in unusual environments that would be hard to reproduce in the lab.

D) Archaea don't usually reproduce in captivity.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Applied

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44) How could a molecule from plants that blocks the connection between nerves and muscles be useful as a pharmaceutical? A) It could be used to produce restriction enzymes. B) It could be used as a source of antibiotic. C) It could be used as a muscle relaxant. D) It could be used as an antiviral medication. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Conceptual 45) The most important role of bacteria in the environment is A) as disease-causing agents.

B) as fungal control.

C) as decomposers.

D) as a source of restriction enzymes.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Conceptual 46) For how long were prokaryotes the only kind of life on Earth?

A) 100 million years B) 500 million years C) 1 billion years D) 1.5 billion years Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Factual 47) Symbiosis is a relationship that is mutually beneficial to two organisms. Which organelle developed as a result of a symbiotic relationship?

A) golgi body B) nucleus C) mitochondrion D) endoplasmic reticulum Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Conceptual

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48) What were the Ediacaran fauna?

A) organisms that seem to be the first life on Earth B) symbiotic organisms that evolved into cellular organelles C) the first multicellular organisms found in the fossil record D) the most ancient ancestors of organisms in kingdom Protista Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Factual 49) A book is being publicized that purports to provide proof that aliens from another planet brought life to Earth. The proof they show are strange fossils of multicellular organisms that look like no animal you have ever seen. These "aliens" are an example of A) adaptive radiation.

B) the Ediacaran fauna.

C) ancient Archaea.

D) endosymbiosis.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Applied 50) Why would bioprospectors be interested in an animal that is bright red and slow-moving?

A) It could be a good source of pigment.

B) It could make a toxic molecule that could be useful in small quantities.

C) It could make a good pet.

D) It could be a good source of a sedative.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Conceptual 51) There are a number of sites, around the world, that have been made uninhabitable because of chemical pollution in the soil. Which group of organisms might have useful biological tools for breaking down these toxic compounds?

A) animals B) fungi C) protists D) plants Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Applied

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52) Mycorrhizae are fungi that are symbiotic with plants. What is the likely relationship between these fungi and plants?

A) The fungi provide soil nutrients to the plants; the plants provide food to the fungi.

B) The fungi remove bacteria from the soil; the plants provide water to the fungi.

C) The fungi provide CO2 to the plants; the plants protect the fungi from predators.

D) The fungi remove predators from the plants; the plants provide shelter for the fungi.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Applied 53) After dinosaurs became extinct, the number of mammal species increased greatly. This is an example of A) adaptive radiation.

B) endosymbiosis.

C) competition.

D) eukaryotic development.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Factual 54) When plants first colonized land, the space they occupied was two-dimensional: the surface of the land. Which adaptation allowed plants to occupy a three-dimensional environment?

A) double fertilization B) seeds C) vascular system D) flowers Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Conceptual

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55) What evolutionary milestone is shown in the figure?

A) bacteria evolving into archaea B) prokaryotes evolving into eukaryotes C) protists evolving into animals D) algae evolving into plants Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Factual 56) True or false: Mitochondria and chloroplasts of eukaryotic cells are very similar to prokaryotes.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Factual 57) Organisms that form mats of long, thin chains of cells and are important in decomposition are ________.

Answer: fungi Diff: 2 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Factual 58) The first antibiotic, discovered as a result of a laboratory accident, was ________.

Answer: penicillin Diff: 2 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Factual 59) Both algae and plants have the ability to perform ________.

Answer: photosynthesis Diff: 2 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Factual

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60) What is a virus? A) an organism in domain Archaea B) an organism in kingdom Protista C) an organism in domain Bacteria D) a non-living particle Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Factual 61) Which of these is a true statement about viruses?

A) Viruses are living cells that can invade other organisms.

B) Viruses use energy to perform life functions.

C) Viruses use host cells to make more viruses.

D) Viruses will die unless they are inside an organism.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 13.2 Skill: Conceptual 62) Taxol is the most well-known anticancer chemical. Taxol was obtained from a species in which of the following groups?

A) Plantae B) Protista C) Animalia D) Bacteria Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 13.3 Skill: Factual 63) The best source of an antibacterial compound that would limit the growth of a particular kind of soil bacteria would be A) other bacteria regardless of habitat.

B) animals that live in the same area.

C) fungi from the same soil.

D) flowering plants from the same soil.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 13.3 Skill: Applied

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64) The entity most likely to profit when a pharmaceutically important molecule is discovered in a species of rainforest tree is A) the country in which the rainforest is located.

B) the shaman who has been using the bark of that tree to cure disease.

C) the company that discovered the compound.

D) the wildlife federation that has been working to maintain the rainforest and prevent development.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 13.3 Skill: Applied 65) Using the "grind 'em and find 'em" strategy, a scientist finds eight promising chemicals that can control the growth of cancer cells in the lab. However, the only one that is useful as a drug for humans A) kills normal cells as well as cancer cells.

B) is stable in the human body.

C) is difficult to manufacture in a laboratory.

D) is very expensive to gather.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 13.3 Skill: Applied 66) True or false: Organisms that live in habitats with high levels of competition are more likely to produce defensive chemicals than those that live with little competition.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Topic: 13.3 Skill: Conceptual 67) Bioprospectors who search for clues in the habitat for whether an organism will be useful are taking advantage of an organism's ________.

Answer: ecology Diff: 2 Topic: 13.3 Skill: Conceptual 68) Indigenous healers who have knowledge of the healing properties of native organisms are called ________.

Answer: shamans Diff: 1 Topic: 13.3 Skill: Factual

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69) Which of the following is the best way to test a hypothetical evolutionary classification among living organisms?

A) analysis of embryonic development B) analysis of physical structures C) analysis of DNA sequence D) analysis of habitat Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 12.2 Skill: Conceptual 70) Taq polymerase was not among compounds known to be useful to healers of native people. Why not?

A) Taq polymerase is used in molecular biology applications and not for pharmaceutical use.

B) Taq polymerase is used to treat diseases that didn't exist in ancient times.

C) Taq polymerase comes from an organism that only recently evolved.

D) The gene that codes for Taq polymerase has recently evolved new functions.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: 13.3 Skill: Applied

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71) In this phylogeny feather pattern on the head is the trait used to separate the sparrows into groups.

DNA analysis suggests a different phylogeny that places white-crowned birds and golden-crowned birds more closely together. Therefore, the striped pattern on the head is a result of A) convergent evolution.

B) sexual selection.

C) genetic drift.

D) endosymbiosis.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 13.3 Skill: Conceptual 72) Why is adult anatomy sometimes a misleading way to construct a phylogeny that reflects evolutionary history?

A) Adult anatomy isn't strongly influenced by natural selection B) Convergent evolution produces similar traits in unrelated species.

C) Adult anatomy is too variable within a species.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 13.3 Skill: Conceptual

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Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk) Chapter 14 Is the Human Population Too Large? Population Ecology 1) Which of the following projects would be conducted by an ecologist?

A) a research project testing new pollution filters for cars B) a study of squirrels and their interactions with other animals C) observations of toad embryos' development in a Petri dish D) a project to genetically modify a wheat plant in order to increase production Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Conceptual 2) Which of the following experiments would not be considered an ecological study?

A) the effect of a housing development on a spotted salamander population in a vernal pool B) the effect of changing availability of acorns on a population of squirrels C) the effect of a red tide outbreak on sea birds in the area D) the effect of a hormone on the rate of blood vessel formation Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Conceptual 3) Which activity could be best considered an example of an ecological study?

A) measuring monthly ocean temperature changes B) developing a medication to treat kidney failure in cats C) comparing the effects of varying water temperature on fish egg development D) calculating the age of a giant redwood tree by counting its annual rings Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Conceptual 4) An ecological population of organisms would include all A) chipmunks in a wood lot.

B) plants in a garden.

C) animals in a zoo.

D) plants and animals in a rainforest.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Conceptual

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5) Students studying a population of salamanders in a vernal pool mark each salamander caught as it's entering the pool. During the first spring migration to the pool, the students mark 200 salamanders. The following year, they again capture 200 salamanders. Of these, 20 were from the previous year. Students use this information to calculate that they captured ________ of the total population and that the total salamander population in their pool is about ________.

A) 20%; 200 B) 10%; 2000 C) 20%; 2000 D) 10%; 200 Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Applied 6) The evenly spaced distribution of stalks of corn planted in an agricultural field is considered A) a clumped distribution.

B) a uniform distribution.

C) a random distribution.

D) no distribution.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Factual 7) Driving along a rural two-lane highway, you notice a kestrel perched on a telephone line approximately every mile or so. This pattern continues for quite a few miles. This is an example of a ________ distribution.

A) clumped B) uniform C) random D) normal Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Factual 8) Walking along a mile-long path in the woods, you notice a stand of your favorite wildflower, the cardinal flower, three different times. You find each stand of cardinal flower, including many flowers in each stand, on a stream bank. This is an example of a ________ distribution.

A) clumped B) uniform C) random D) normal Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Factual

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9) Red maple tree seeds are dispersed by the wind. This species of tree can be found in fields, woods, and even wetlands. This is an example of a ________ distribution.

A) clumped B) uniform C) random D) normal Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Factual 10) A population that's exhibiting exponential growth A) will have growth proportional to the current total.

B) shows a decreased growth rate over time.

C) doubles every year.

D) has as many individuals being born as are dying.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Factual 11) In a particular county, there are 30 births and 20 deaths for every 1000 residents. What is the annual growth rate of this population?

A) 3.0% B) 10% C) 1.0% D) 30% Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Applied 12) Over the past two centuries, the growth of human population has A) leveled off slowly.

B) increased steadily.

C) exhibited "boom and bust" growth.

D) increased exponentially.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Factual

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13) As the Industrial Revolution took place, there was a decrease in infant mortality, resulting in A) a decrease in the population growth rate.

B) an increase in the population growth rate.

C) a stabilization of the population growth rate.

D) boom and bust cycles of the population growth rate.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Factual 14) In some situations, the death rate of a population declines before the birth rate begins to decline.

This is an example of A) the carrying capacity being reached.

B) demographic transition.

C) a density-dependent factor in action.

D) what occurs in industrialized nations.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Factual 15) True or false: Nearly all developed countries in the world are beginning a demographic transition in the 21st century.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Factual 16) True or false: Human population growth has always been exponential.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Factual 17) True or false: Most developed countries have passed through a demographic transition and currently have low population growth rates.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Conceptual

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18) When considering the growth of the human population, how is the annual growth rate determined?

A) the number of deaths averaged over the population as a whole minus the number of births averaged over the population as a whole B) the number of births averaged over the population as a whole minus the number of deaths averaged over the population as a whole C) the number of births averaged over the population as a whole for the entire year D) the number of births averaged over the population as a whole as well as the number of immigrants into the population during the year Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Conceptual 19) True or false: In general, developed countries have lower population growth rates than less developed countries.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Factual 20) Population density is called A) distribution.

B) demographics.

C) abundance.

D) carrying capacity.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Factual 21) All the bacteria of the species E. coli that live inside a cow's intestine represent a(n) A) community.

B) population.

C) ecosystem.

D) demographic transition.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Factual 22) Which of the following must be an assumption of the mark-recapture method?

A) marked individuals become "trap-happy," relative to unmarked individuals B) marked individuals avoid recapture, relative to unmarked individuals C) few individuals enter or leave the study area during the period between mark and recapture D) the population size changes dramatically between the time of mark and recapture Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Conceptual

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23) When you look at the spacing of humans on a global level, the population follows a(n) ________ distribution.

A) clumped B) uniform C) random D) indescribable Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Factual 24) Which of the following explains a uniform distribution of individuals in a population?

A) soil nutrients available to a species of plant B) territoriality in a species of bird C) oxygen levels in a pond, where an oxygen-dependent bacterial species lives D) food availability for humans living in a certain geographic area Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Conceptual 25) True or false: A population can be clumped at one scale and uniform at another.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Conceptual 26) Exponential growth, when graphed, appears as a(n) A) straight line.

B) "S" curve.

C) "J" curve.

D) wavy line that goes up and down regularly.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Conceptual 27) Approximately how many people are on Earth today?

A) 7,000,000 B) 70,000,000 C) 700,000,000 D) 7,000,000,000 Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Factual

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28) The global human population increases by ________ people per day. A) 1000 B) 12,500 C) 250,000 D) 2,500,000 Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Factual 29) What is the birth rate in a population in which 35 babies are born per every 1000 people in the population each year?

A) 0.35 B) 35% C) 3.5% D) 0.35% Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Applied 30) A death rate of 2.1% would represent 21 deaths per ________ individuals in a population per year.

A) 100 B) 1000 C) 10,000 D) 1,000,000 Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Applied 31) Developed countries are characterized by A) industrial economies and low individual incomes.

B) agricultural economies and high individual incomes.

C) agricultural economies and low individual incomes.

D) industrial economies and high individual incomes.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Factual 32) Which of the following has dramatically decreased infant mortality in human populations?

A) a shift from an agricultural to an industrial economy B) the use of pesticides to reduce mosquito populations C) the choice made by educated women to have fewer children D) an increase in poverty in developed countries Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Conceptual

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33) According to this plot, growth rate and doubling time are A) directly proportional.

B) inversely proportional.

C) not related to one another.

D) equally proportional to one another.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 14.1 Skill: Conceptual 34) Which of the following is a population unaffected by density-dependent factors?

A) elk in Yellowstone National Park in the 1970s B) Norway lemmings C) yeast that ferment grape juice into wine D) bacteria kept in a culture that has its nutrients constantly replenished Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 14.2 Skill: Factual 35) True or false: The carrying capacity of a given geographic region for a single population can change over time.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Topic: 14.2 Skill: Conceptual 36) The carrying capacity of a population is represented as A) K. B) r.

C) J. D) S. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 14.2 Skill: Factual

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37) Increased mortality in a population due to increased competition for water is the effect of a(n) A) demographic transition. B) density-dependent factor. C) density-independent factor. D) increase in carrying capacity. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 14.2 Skill: Factual 38) The principle of a carrying capacity corresponds to a pattern of population growth that's A) J-shaped.

B) logistic.

C) a straight line.

D) bell-shaped.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 14.2 Skill: Conceptual 39) Based on estimates that consider the NPP of Earth and human use of these resources, scientists calculate the carrying capacity is nearly ________ people.

A) 6.6 billion B) 10.6 billion C) 21 billion D) 40 billion Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 14.2 Skill: Factual 40) When a population of spotted salamanders in an area of vernal pools remains stable for many years and the population has stabilized because of resource limits, then A) density dependence is not involved.

B) predation has decreased.

C) carrying capacity has been reached.

D) density independence occurs.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 14.2 Skill: Conceptual

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41) A population has reached the carrying capacity of the environment when A) the environment can't support a further increase in the population. B) the environment can't support the current population. C) it has entered an extended period of exponential growth. D) the food supply in that particular environment begins to decrease. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 14.2 Skill: Conceptual 42) As the size of a population approaches the carrying capacity of its environment, which of following is true?

A) the growth rate increases B) a graph of population growth resembles a "J" C) the population stabilizes at its maximum size D) birth rates become proportionally much greater than the death rates Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 14.2 Skill: Conceptual 43) Which of the following is a density-dependent factor?

A) decrease in temperature B) increase in waste production C) decrease in frequency of hurricanes D) increase in rainfall Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 14.2 Skill: Conceptual 44) Which of the following is a population-limiting, density-dependent factor?

A) a heavy flood that destroys a large area around a river B) a heat wave in which some organisms can't survive C) a drought that limits food availability D) the rapid spread of tuberculosis in heavily populated areas Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 14.2 Skill: Conceptual 45) Growth rates appear to be declining in many human populations because A) families are choosing to have fewer children.

B) death rates are increasing due to disease epidemics and famines.

C) birth rates are decreasing due to famine.

D) the carrying capacity has been reached.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 14.2 Skill: Conceptual

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46) New England salt marshes experience a greater amount of plant growth in a given area in one year than any other temperate ecosystem. These salt marshes have A) low net primary productivity.

B) high biodiversity.

C) high net primary productivity.

D) an unlimited carrying capacity.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 14.2 Skill: Conceptual 47) Which of the following is directly involved in calculating net primary productivity?

A) the change in growth of the human population B) the amount of solar energy converted to chemical energy by plants C) the amount of chemical energy required by plants to support themselves D) the number of births and deaths in a population over one year Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 14.2 Skill: Applied 48) One problem associated with using NPP to calculate the carrying capacity for humans is that A) it fails to take into account our need for other resources, such as water, clean air, and fuel.

B) NPP isn't important when considering the human population.

C) humans grow their own food, which isn't a part of the NPP. D) it overestimates the effects of humans on the ecosystem.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: 14.2 Skill: Applied 49) Human populations may surpass the carrying capacity of their environment due to A) temporary reliance on stored or nonrenewable resources.

B) sudden population crashes.

C) increases in death rates as the population growth approaches carrying capacity.

D) decreases in birth rates as resources are depleted.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: 14.2 Skill: Applied

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50) The actual carrying capacity of our planet may be lower than initially calculated due to which of the following factors?

A) the average American uses more resources than someone from another country B) modern food production relies on nonrenewable resources C) net primary productivity has been decreasing D) the human population is growing much faster than was previously thought Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 14.2 Skill: Conceptual 51) Although the carrying capacity of a population is determined by food availability, it's also dependent on which of the following?

A) the energy fluctuations of the sun B) clean air and water C) the prevalence of war D) a woman's choice to not have children Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 14.2 Skill: Conceptual 52) Which of the following is a nonrenewable resource?

A) solar energy B) hydrogen fuel cell C) wind power D) natural gas Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 14.2 Skill: Factual 53) If everyone on the planet used resources and lived the average lifestyle of an American, then A) the Earth would have the carrying capacity to sustain the human population.

B) the population growth rate would immediately decrease.

C) we would need multiple Earths for this to be possible.

D) there would be same number of people in less-developed countries as there are Americans.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 14.2 Skill: Applied 54) True or false: The average American uses as many resources in one day as 370 Ethiopians.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Topic: 14.2 Skill: Factual

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55) True or false: The human population may continue to increase even though it surpasses carrying capacity. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Topic: 14.2 Skill: Conceptual 56) True or false: Net primary productivity refers to all the energy in the plants and animals in a food chain at any particular time.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Topic: 14.2 Skill: Conceptual 57) True or false: The human population growth rate is higher now than ever before.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Topic: 14.2 Skill: Conceptual 58) True or false: Global human population growth rates have declined since the 1960s by about 1%.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Topic: 14.2 Skill: Factual 59) True or false: Net primary productivity (NPP) is a measure of plant growth in a region during a single year.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Topic: 14.2 Skill: Factual 60) True or false: Scientists agree on the size of the carrying capacity of Earth for the human population.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Topic: 14.2 Skill: Factual 61) Americans make up less than ________ of the total human population, yet use close to ________ of the world's resources.

A) 1%; 50% B) 5%; 25% C) 0.1%; 75% D) 0.01%; 80% Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 14.2 Skill: Factual

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62) Species of oak trees periodically have years of large acorn production, followed by years of lower acorn amounts. In years of plenty, squirrel populations will experience an increase due to increased food availability of acorns. Then, squirrel populations will decrease after lower acorn abundance.

This is an example of A) a population cycle. B) net primary productivity. C) a renewable resource.

D) a density-independent factor. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 14.3 Skill: Conceptual 63) When a population grows larger than the carrying capacity, then A) food becomes abundant. B) birth rates remain stable. C) death rates rise. D) the carrying capacity increases. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 14.3 Skill: Factual

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64) Based on the population pyramid of the United States in 2010, as seen in this figure, you can predict that the population will A) be in a demographic transition.

B) experience a decrease.

C) experience a decrease after a period of high demographic momentum.

D) remain relatively stable due to low demographic momentum.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: 14.3 Skill: Applied 65) True or false: A woman with a college education is more likely to have a large family than a woman with an eighth-grade education.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Topic: 14.3 Skill: Factual 66) True or false: Human populations don't generally follow the "boom and bust" cycle of some animal populations.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Topic: 14.3 Skill: Factual

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67) The steep and sudden decline in a population size as birth rates plummet and death rates soar is called A) carrying capacity.

B) a "boom and bust" cycle.

C) demographic momentum.

D) a population crash.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 14.3 Skill: Factual 68) Which of the following is represented by a completely "columnar" population pyramid?

A) proportionally more young than middle-aged or elderly B) equal proportions of young, middle-aged, and elderly C) proportionally more middle-aged and elderly than young D) proportionally more middle-aged than elderly and/or young Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 14.3 Skill: Conceptual 69) Which of the following would most likely result in a population represented by an "inverted triangular" population pyramid, which is heaviest at the top?

A) rapid population growth B) population stabilization C) a "boom and bust" cycle D) a population decline Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: 14.3 Skill: Conceptual

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Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk) Chapter 15 Conserving Biodiversity: Community and Ecosystem Ecology 1) Although most biologists believe that many species are becoming extinct each year because of the activities of humans, relatively few species actually appear on compiled lists of extinct species. What is one reason why so few species are listed as extinct?

A) Many species are unknown to science and go extinct before they've been described.

B) There really aren't that many species that have become extinct.

C) Many species aren't listed because they aren't considered important.

D) Only extinctions that are naturally caused are listed.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Conceptual 2) Life on Earth has experienced several mass extinctions. One or more of these extinctions was most likely caused by A) an asteroid impact.

B) worldwide drought.

C) genetic drift.

D) an increase in large predatory mammals.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Factual 3) Approximately 200 of the 300 native species of fish in Lake Victoria haven't been observed since the 1960s and are therefore probably extinct. Using the estimate of the background extinction rate, how many species of Lake Victoria fish would one expect to have naturally become extinct during the last 50 years?

A) less than 1 B) 1-10 C) 11-50 D) more than 50 Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Conceptual 4) The current rapid loss of species is considered by many scientists to be another mass extinction. This increase in extinction rate, beyond background extinction, is thought to be due to A) a recent increase in earthquakes worldwide.

B) human population growth and the resulting habitat changes worldwide.

C) global climate change.

D) changes in the number of solar flares observed recently.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Factual

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5) Scientists have used the fossil record to estimate the average length of time that a species inhabits the Earth. This estimate is useful for assessing the impact of humans on the Earth's biological diversity because it can A) help determine how long the human species might survive.

B) determine which species might become extinct soon, even if humans aren't involved.

C) estimate how many species extinctions are caused by human activity.

D) assure us that human activity is not the cause of most species extinctions.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Conceptual 6) Fenway Park, home of the Boston Red Sox, is situated on land that was once a fen, a kind of wetland.

The replacement of the fen is an example of A) pollution.

B) overexploitation.

C) habitat destruction.

D) competition.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Conceptual 7) Purple loosestrife, Lythrum salicaria, is a beautiful, long-stemmed wetlands species brought to the United States from Europe as an ornamental plant. In the United States, it has no predators and crowds out cattails, Typha latifolia, another wetlands plant that's a valuable resource for many species. Purple loosestrife is an example of A) an introduced species.

B) a parasite.

C) a predator.

D) overexploitation Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Conceptual 8) The North Atlantic Right Whale, Eubalaena glacialis, was called the "right whale" because they were the best whale for early whalers to kill. They have long baleen and lots of blubber and oil. When killed, they could be towed back to land for processing because they float. They once numbered in the millions, but the entire population of the species is now less than 400. The history of the right whale is an example of A) pollution.

B) overexploitation.

C) habitat destruction.

D) competition.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Conceptual

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9) Global climate change is likely to increase the rate of extinction worldwide. The pollutant most implicated in this problem is A) nitrous oxides.

B) carbon dioxide.

C) sulfur dioxides.

D) chlorofluorocarbons.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Factual 10) The current rate of extinction is estimated to be ________ times greater than the calculated background rate.

A) 100 B) 50 C) 10 D) 2 Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Factual 11) The estimated 10 million species that exist today are thought to represent approximately ________ of the species that have ever existed on Earth.

A) 80% B) 10% C) 1% D) 0.0001% Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Factual 12) There have been ________ mass extinctions experienced on a global scale before the alarming mass extinction that's now occurring.

A) six B) five C) two D) no Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Factual

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13) North America is currently experiencing an unprecedented and rapid loss of species. What is believed to be the main trigger of such events, either directly or indirectly?

A) continental drift B) increased human population C) climate change D) increased predation by wild carnivores Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Conceptual 14) What law was passed to address the problem of rapid species loss in the United States?

A) the Endangered Species Act of 1973 B) the Wilson-Biophilia Act of 1994 C) the Biodiversity Act of 1975 D) the Human Intervention Act of 1979 Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Factual 15) The variety of species in an area of interest is called A) biomass.

B) biodiversity.

C) the trophic pyramid.

D) the ecological niche.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Factual 16) Which of the following is an example of a nearly extinct animal in the United States?

A) black-footed ferret B) mourning dove C) striped skunk D) coyote Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Factual 17) How does the rate of extinction today compare to the rates in the past?

A) The rate is much lower today than it has been, on average, in the past.

B) The rate is about the same today as it has been, on average, in the past.

C) The rate is much higher today than it has been, on average, in the past.

D) The extinction rate today can't be estimated or calculated.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Factual 4 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

18) What is the estimated "background rate" of extinction, as calculated by scientists?

A) 10% per year B) 1% per year C) 0.1% per year D) 0.0001% per year Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Factual 19) How many species "normally" go extinct each year, as estimated by scientists?

A) 1 species per thousand per year B) 1 species per million per year C) 1 species per billion per year D) 1 species per year Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Factual 20) In order to be considered extinct, a species can't be found A) at all, in the wild or in captivity at the present time.

B) at all, presently or during the past 10 years.

C) at all, presently or during the past 50 years.

D) in the wild presently but may exist in captivity.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Conceptual 21) The average lifespan of a species on Earth is estimated to be around ________ years.

A) 1000 B) 100,000 C) 1,000,000 D) 100,000,000 Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Factual 22) Over the past 580 million years, biodiversity has A) smoothly and steadily increased.

B) smoothly and steadily increased until the past hundred years or so.

C) generally increased but with punctuations in the pattern.

D) rapidly increased until it started to rapidly decrease in the past hundred years or so.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Factual

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23) The lifespan of a species is the A) span during which a living species is observed in the wild. B) duration of time that a species doesn't change. C) span over which fossils of a species occur. D) period of time that it takes for an individual to mature to adulthood, reproduce, and die. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Factual 24) Which group of organisms has the greatest percentage of species in danger of extinction, according to the IUCN? A) plants B) mammals C) birds D) reptiles Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Factual 25) According to the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), which of the following sequences shows groups with the highest percentage of species in danger of extinction, from most endangered (on the left) to least endangered (on the right)?

A) plants → amphibians → birds B) amphibians → birds → plants C) birds → plants → amphibians D) plants → birds → amphibians Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Factual 26) Which of the following presents the greatest threat to biodiversity?

A) habitat loss or degradation B) introduction of nonnative species C) overharvesting D) pollution Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Factual

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27) Which of the following threats to biodiversity isn't directly due to humans?

A) loss of habitat due to volcanic activity B) introduction of non-native species C) overexploitation D) pollution Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Conceptual 28) A graph depicting the relationship between the size of a region and the biodiversity that it can support is called a(n) ________ curve.

A) habitat loss B) biomass C) overexploitation D) species-area Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Conceptual

29) According to this species-area curve for reptiles and amphibians on a West Indian archipelago, a 50% decrease in area will change the number of species living in the remaining area by A) +50% B) -50% C) -90% D) -10% Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Applied

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30) At the current rate of habitat destruction, tropical rainforests will be reduced to ________ of their original size within 35 years, and ________ of species living there will go extinct. A) 10%; 50% B) 1%; 90% C) 50%; 50% D) 90%; 95% Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Factual 31) At the current rate of habitat destruction, nearly ________ of all living species will be extinct in 50 years.

A) 1% B) 10% C) 25% D) 50% Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Factual 32) Which of the following would be most threatened by habitat fragmentation?

A) songbirds B) lizards C) mountain lions D) antelopes Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Applied 33) Which of the following is at the "bottom" of a trophic pyramid?

A) sunlight B) producers C) primary consumers D) secondary consumers Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Factual

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34) An owl eating a seed-eating mouse is an example of a A) producer.

B) primary consumer.

C) secondary consumer.

D) tertiary consumer.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Conceptual 35) Most of the energy contained in one trophic level is "lost" when it gets to the next trophic level. The lost energy takes the form of A) free electrons.

B) metabolic heat.

C) potential energy, in chemical bonds.

D) kinetic energy, in the motion of consumers.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Factual

36) According to this graph, when did the extinction rate in mammals exceed that of birds, if at all?

A) 1600-1649 B) 1700-1749 C) 1800-1849 D) 1900-1949 Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Applied

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37) The runoff of fertilizers from agricultural and residential areas can cause the aquatic algae in bodies of water to grow prolifically, resulting in a phenomenon called A) competitive exclusion.

B) habitat fragmentation.

C) eutrophication.

D) overexploitation.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 15.1 Skill: Factual 38) The role a species plays in an ecosystem is called its A) niche.

B) trophic level.

C) biophilia.

D) biomass.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 15.2 Skill: Factual 39) All individuals of all species living within an area of interest represent a(n) A) ecosystem.

B) community.

C) population.

D) trophic level.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 15.2 Skill: Factual 40) The sudden loss of a ________ would necessarily cause the loss of most or all of a food web.

A) producer B) secondary consumer C) mutualistic species D) keystone species Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 15.2 Skill: Conceptual 41) "Colony collapse disorder" is thought to be due to an increase in ________ of honeybees.

A) predators B) overexploitation C) parasites D) genetic variability Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 15.2 Skill: Factual 10 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

42) Which of the following can be considered a predator? A) dandelion B) wood warbler C) honey bee D) cow Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 15.2 Skill: Conceptual 43) Ants from the genus Pseudomyrmex live in bull's horn acacia trees, Acacia cornigera. The ants will attack any predators of the tree. In return, the ants live protected in the thorns of the tree and eat the nectar and protein-rich secretions of the tree. This is an example of A) parasitism. B) mutualism. C) competition. D) commensalism.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 15.2 Skill: Conceptual 44) Cattle egrets hitch a ride on domestic cows and eat insects that are stirred up by their activity. This is an example of A) commensalism. B) competition. C) predation. D) parasitism. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 15.2 Skill: Conceptual 45) A woman is more susceptible to vaginal yeast infections when taking antibiotics because A) the antibiotic serves as nutrition for the infectious yeast. B) the normal bacteria in the vagina are also killed by the antibiotic and can't competitively exclude the yeast. C) her immune system is already not functioning well due to previous infections. D) antibiotics are lethal to most types of yeast.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 15.2 Skill: Conceptual

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46) Teosinte is a wild grass in Mexico from which corn (maize) was originally domesticated. Corn that is grown commercially is probably A) less genetically diverse than teosinte.

B) more genetically diverse than teosinte.

C) a threat to teosinte populations.

D) about as genetically diverse as teosinte.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 15.2 Skill: Factual 47) Extracts of the rosy periwinkle, Catharus roseus, have provided medicine with vincristine and vinblastine, drugs now available for treating cancer. The ability to find this species of plant and discover these drugs is a strong argument for A) genetic engineering.

B) overexploitation.

C) preserving biodiversity.

D) supporting pharmaceutical industries.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 15.2 Skill: Conceptual 48) Why is the preservation of ancestor species, such as Mexican teosinte (Zea diploperennis), important in the context of human welfare?

A) Edible species, such as Z. diploperennis, can be used for food if all our food crops become extinct.

B) Species such as Z. diploperennis can be used to manufacture anticancer drugs.

C) Genes from species such as Z. diploperennis can be transferred to domestic food crops to confer pest resistance.

D) Genes from species such as Z. diploperennis can be inserted into imperiled livestock varieties to help prevent them from becoming extinct.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 15.2 Skill: Conceptual 49) During the 1980s, wolves were reintroduced to Yellowstone National Park after decades of absence due to attempted extermination in the early part of the 20th century. Within 20 years, not only had the wolf population increased, but there was also a dramatic increase in other species, such as aspen, cottonwood, and willow trees, beavers, warblers, insects, and fish. These changes in Yellowstone Park are examples of how important a(n) ________ can be to an ecosystem.

A) keystone species B) competitor C) herbivore D) parasite Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 15.2 Skill: Conceptual

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50) The "psychological need" that many humans have for nature is called A) mutualism.

B) commensalism.

C) community.

D) biophilia.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 15.2 Skill: Factual 51) Salmonella enteritidis causes a food-borne illness that kills 400 to 600 Americans each year. It is found mainly in poultry products. Rather than give large doses of antibiotics to poultry, some poultry producers infect the intestinal tract of hens with a harmless bacteria, resulting in a dramatic decrease of S. enteritidis found in the chickens. In this case, the producers have used the principle of A) mutualism.

B) predation.

C) competitive exclusion.

D) parasitism.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 15.2 Skill: Factual 52) Many species have innate preferences for the habitat to which they're most adapted. These species show signs of stress when placed in a habitat different from that in which they naturally occur. Is there any evidence that humans might have innate habitat preferences that match the environment in which humans evolved?

A) No: Humans can adapt to any environment due to their ability to manipulate their surroundings.

B) No: Humans can live in any environment; we live on every continent in the world.

C) Yes: Patients who can view nature from hospital windows have been documented to recover more quickly.

D) Yes: It's well known that people who spend more time outside live longer lives.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 15.2 Skill: Factual 53) The U.S. Endangered Species Act that mandates decisions about the management of endangered species can be based on A) political concerns only.

B) economic concerns only.

C) biological concerns only.

D) political, economic, and biological concerns.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 15.4 Skill: Factual

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54) During the 19th century, sea otters were hunted almost to the point of extinction. When the number of sea otters became very low, it was noticed that the ecosystem of kelp bed "forests" was also disappearing. It was discovered that the sea otters were predators of sea urchins, which were, in turn, predators of the kelp. When sea otters declined, the sea urchin populations grew, destroying the kelp ecosystem and the many species that depended on it. It was then understood that sea otters were ________ in this ecosystem.

A) competitors B) producers C) a keystone species D) parasites Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 15.2 Skill: Conceptual 55) There is an article in your local newspaper about an upcoming "Biodiversity Day" event at your university. Because you understand why it's important to conserve biodiversity after studying biology, you plan to attend. Your younger brother tells you he doesn't understand how the loss of a few species or habitats in town can have any impact on anyone's life. You could tell him A) a decrease in biodiversity could result in a loss of species that could provide humans with new drugs to cure disease.

B) directly or indirectly, every species on Earth is necessary for human existence.

C) humans are not part of the web of life, but we must respect it.

D) the loss of even one species will cause the collapse of important systems that humans rely on.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 15.2 Skill: Applied 56) The heath hen, found off the east coast of North America in the 18th century, is now extinct. What finally caused its extinction?

A) overexploitation B) pollution C) natural disasters D) habitat loss Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 15.3 Skill: Factual

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57) In the heart of Costa Rica there's a private reserve called Rara Avis. Here, one can hike high into the mountains of a tropical cloud forest to take guided nature hikes and learn about this unique ecosystem. This is an example of how habitats can be preserved through A) critical habitat designation. B) ecotourism. C) regulations. D) exploitation. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 15.3 Skill: Conceptual 58) During the last decade, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service has worked to reestablish the critically endangered California condor in its last stronghold, the mountains of southern California. Recently, the service has also tried to establish a second population in the Grand Canyon region of Arizona. Why would the Fish and Wildlife Service consider it a high priority to establish two populations that are geographically distant from each other?

A) Multiple condor populations reduce inbreeding.

B) Multiple condor populations provide more opportunities for people to view the endangered species, which may cause more people to be concerned with its fate.

C) Multiple condor populations reduce genetic drift within each population.

D) Multiple condor populations reduce the risk of extinction due to localized catastrophes.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 15.3 Skill: Conceptual 59) A species that has a high number of alleles for many genes that are distributed throughout the population is said to have A) low genetic variability.

B) high genetic drift.

C) high genetic variability.

D) a large amount of inbreeding depression.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 15.3 Skill: Factual

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60) The entire species of North American right whales currently consists of less than 400 individuals.

Through genetic testing, it has been determined that at some point in the past, probably around the time they were first protected in the beginning of the 20th century, the population had only three reproducing females. All individuals that exist today are thought to be descendants of those females. As a result, this species is vulnerable because of A) deleterious genes.

B) low genetic variability.

C) habitat loss.

D) increased hunting pressure.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 15.3 Skill: Conceptual 61) Is a species that has few individuals at greater risk of extinction than a species with a large population size? Why or why not?

A) Yes. A species with few individuals is more likely to be eliminated by a reduction in population size caused by a chance environmental event like bad weather or a fire.

B) Maybe. However, there's no risk to a small population as long as genetic diversity is high.

C) Yes. A species with few individuals is likely to have a high percentage of heterozygotes. This can reduce the likelihood that the species can adaptively evolve in response to environmental changes.

D) No. Genetic drift allows small populations to avoid the loss of advantageous alleles from the population.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 15.3 Skill: Conceptual 62) In certain areas of the world where there's a high incidence of malaria, there's also a high incidence of sickle-cell anemia. Sickle-cell anemia results from a mutation in the gene that codes for hemoglobin.

Malaria is an infectious disease carried by mosquitoes. Both malaria and sickle-cell anemia can be fatal.

If an individual is homozygous for normal hemoglobin, they're more prone to malaria. If an individual is homozygous for sickle-cell hemoglobin, they'll develop sickle-cell anemia. However, if an individual is heterozygous and possesses one allele for normal hemoglobin and one allele for sickle-cell hemoglobin, they're less prone to malaria and won't develop sickle-cell disease. This is an example of how A) being heterozygous can result in greater fitness for an individual.

B) inbreeding depression can result in reduced rates of survival.

C) genetic drift can occur in small populations.

D) homozygous individuals are often unhealthy.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: 15.3 Skill: Applied

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63) A researcher returns from the Amazon River with 10 individuals of a species of fish and establishes a small breeding colony in her laboratory. She maintains the colony for several years (many fish generations), always maintaining the number of adult fish between 10 and 30. She notices that as generations of fish are bred, the reproductive rate decreases. What is the most likely reason for this?

A) inbreeding depression B) increased genetic variability C) random mutations D) heterozygote advantage Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 15.3 Skill: Conceptual 64) Each breed of dog is known to be susceptible to certain illnesses, such as heart problems, eye disorders, or thyroid problems. Often, dog breeders will go to great lengths to breed a dog that's unrelated to a dog they want to breed. This is because A) individuals closely related are more likely to have the same deleterious genes.

B) individuals closely related are less likely to want to mate.

C) breeding individuals that are closely related may produce an interesting new set of characteristics.

D) breeding individuals that are closely related will result in greater fitness for the offspring.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 15.3 Skill: Factual 65) A population of snakes lives in a valley. This population of snakes is 30% black and 70% brown in coloration. A dam is built to flood part of the valley, separating the snakes into two populations. West of the human-made lake, there's a very small population of all black snakes, while east of the lake, the population is much larger and retains the same percentage of black and brown coloration as before the dam was built. This is an example of A) a homozygous population.

B) genetic drift.

C) inbreeding.

D) competitive exclusion.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 15.3 Skill: Factual 66) In 1846, the failure of "Lumper" potato crops in Ireland was due to A) habitat loss and degradation.

B) pollution.

C) inbreeding depression.

D) lack of genetic diversity.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 15.3 Skill: Conceptual

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67) The greater fitness of individuals who carry one copy of the sickle-cell allele in areas where malaria is common is called A) low genetic variability.

B) heterozygote advantage.

C) the benefit of mutualism.

D) competitive exclusion.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 15.3 Skill: Factual 68) To address the problem of preserving biodiversity, biologist Norman Myers and colleagues have identified various "hotspots" around the world. What exactly is a hotspot?

A) geographic areas that are warm year-round and never experience freezing temperatures B) geographic regions where endangered species and humans come in contact with one another on a regular basis C) areas of the world where extinction rates are significantly higher than "background" rates of extinction D) areas around the globe where the climate and geologic events have resulted in a large number of species Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 15.3 Skill: Factual 69) The loss of heath hens in North America was an example of A) competitive exclusion.

B) an extinction vortex.

C) a mutualism.

D) the negative effect of heterozygosity on fitness.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 15.3 Skill: Factual 70) The best strategy for preserving biodiversity is to A) depend on the Endangered Species Act to produce its intended consequences.

B) prevent inbreeding in small populations.

C) use genetic engineering to create new combinations of genes.

D) prevent species from becoming endangered in the first place.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 15.4 Skill: Factual

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71) Not everyone can travel to a remote area of the world to protect a rare habitat, but there are choices each of us can make each day to reduce habitat destruction and slow the rate of species extinction.

Which of the following could you do to reduce habitat destruction caused by the mining, drilling, and transport of fossil fuels?

A) eat lower on the food chain B) only buy products that are sustainably harvested C) carpool or use public transportation D) keep the thermostat turned to warmer levels in winter and cooler levels in summer Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 15.4 Skill: Conceptual

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Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk) Chapter 16 Where Do You Live? Climate and Biomes 1) On August 8, 2005, the temperature in New Haven, Connecticut, was 82° F with partly cloudy skies.

This is a description of New Haven's A) climate.

B) weather.

C) biome.

D) ecosystem.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Conceptual 2) Los Angeles, California, has an average daily temperature between 70° F and 80° F throughout most of the year. There's very little rainfall except for during a rainy season beginning in the fall. This describes the city's A) climate.

B) weather.

C) biome.

D) ecosystem.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Conceptual 3) To determine a geographic area's climate, one must take into account the variability of A) distance from the equator and available sunlight.

B) altitude and bodies of water.

C) temperature and precipitation.

D) air quality and urbanization.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Conceptual 4) The average temperature of a region depends on A) the amount of cloud cover that exists.

B) the amount of light energy per unit area hitting it.

C) whether there's an El Niño that year.

D) the amount of precipitation it receives .

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Conceptual

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5) Earth's axis is tilted away from the sun during ________ and toward the sun during ________ in the Northern Hemisphere. A) winter; summer B) summer; winter C) spring; fall D) fall; spring Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Factual 6) In the Northern Hemisphere, the summer solstice occurs when A) the sun reaches its northern maximum. B) the South Pole is closest to the sun. C) solar irradiance is at its minimum. D) lengths of day and night are equal at all latitudes. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Conceptual 7) Earth's axis tilts ________ from perpendicular. A) 10° B) 90° C) 23.5° D) 0° Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Factual 8) Which city would have the largest variation in daylight hours between the summer solstice and the winter solstice? A) New York, New York B) Los Angeles, California C) Miami, Florida D) Montreal, Canada Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Conceptual

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9) The temperature of a city is often warmer than the temperature in its surrounding suburbs. This is the result of an urban heat island effect. What is one reason why this effect occurs? A) The pavement and buildings absorb heat. B) There are more parks in the city. C) Fewer people drive in the suburbs.

D) Fewer buildings use air conditioning in the suburbs. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Factual 10) The moist air of tropical rainforests is due to A) warm air rising at the equator, cooling and condensing, and falling to Earth.

B) warm air sinking, moving to the equator, and raining.

C) cool air rising, evaporating, and forming cloud cover.

D) cool air sinking, condensing, and falling as rain.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Factual 11) The dry deserts of Nevada are most influenced by A) the hot desert sun.

B) the Pacific Ocean.

C) overgrazing by livestock.

D) the rain shadow from a California mountain range.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Factual 12) Why does Dallas, Texas, have a higher yearly average temperature than Chicago, Illinois?

A) Dallas is at a higher latitude than Chicago.

B) Chicago experiences more prevailing westerly winds than Dallas.

C) Dallas receives more solar irradiance than Chicago.

D) Dallas is closer to a large body of water, than is Chicago.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Conceptual 13) Which city is more likely to experience the largest temperature changes throughout an average year?

A) Chicago, Illinois B) Houston, Texas C) Albuquerque, New Mexico D) Nashville, Tennessee Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Conceptual

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14) In summer, why is the air around a large body of water cooler than nearby inland areas? A) Water temperature changes slowly in response to solar irradiation when compared to the rate of temperature change of land surfaces. B) Water temperature isn't affected by solar irradiation, whereas the temperature of land surfaces is affected. C) It's not actually cooler; the breezes associated with the water only make it seem cooler. D) Air molecules are farther away from each other over water, so they do not generate as much heat. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Conceptual 15) France is at almost the same latitude as Nova Scotia. Why is France's climate so much milder?

A) France is surrounded by mountains that buffer it from all severe weather conditions.

B) Nova Scotia isn't near a large body of water, but France is located adjacent to the ocean.

C) There are more people in France than Nova Scotia, thus human activity warms up the former region during colder periods of the year.

D) The Gulf Stream brings warm water from the tropical Atlantic to France, modifying its climate.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Conceptual 16) The Gulf Stream is part of what scientists call the "great conveyor belt" that circulates water throughout the world's oceans. There is cause for concern that the increase in global warming might stop the conveyor belt. Would this scenario change Europe's climate?

A) is Yes: The Gulf Stream brings cold water from the arctic to Europe. Without this, Europe's climate expected to be much warmer.

B) Yes: The Gulf Stream brings warm water from the tropics to Europe. Without this, Europe's climate is expected to be much cooler.

C) No: The climate of Europe is unaffected by ocean currents.

D) No: There are other currents that will take over if the Gulf Stream stops functioning.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Applied 17) Buffalo, New York, experiences a "lake effect" when wind blowing across the warm water accumulates water vapor that condenses when reaching cooler land. Boston's climate is moderated by the warmer ocean water that lies to the east. Assuming similar winter temperatures, one would expect ________ snowfall accumulation in Boston.

A) less B) more C) about the same D) It is impossible to predict.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Applied

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18) In a general sense, ________ refers to short term environmental conditions, and ________ refers to long term environmental conditions.

Answer: weather; climate Diff: 1 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Factual 19) The typical pattern of temperature and rainfall/snowfall in a region, established over a long period of time, is called A) climate.

B) weather.

C) precipitation.

D) solar irradiance.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Factual

20) As depicted in this illustration, where does the most rainfall generally occur?

A) on the windward side of a body of water B) on the leeward side of a body of water C) on the leeward side of a mountain D) at high altitudes on a mountain Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Conceptual

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21) The amount of light received by a given unit area over time is called A) solar precipitation.

B) solar irradiance.

C) solar flare.

D) solar convergence.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Factual 22) Temperature variation among geographic locations is NOT affected by A) latitude.

B) proximity to water.

C) elevation.

D) longitude.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Factual 23) Which of the following locations would be expected to exhibit the greatest variation in temperatures throughout the seasons?

A) a small town at sea level in Panama B) San Diego, California C) a city in Finland D) Rome, Italy Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Conceptual 24) The most precipitation is expected on the ________ of a mountain.

A) very top B) leeward side C) windward side D) north slope Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Factual

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25) In the Northern Hemisphere, the apparent position of the sun on the horizon at sunrise moves from ________ as summer turns to winter. A) north to south B) south to north C) east to west D) west to east Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Conceptual 26) Regions that have ________ levels of solar irradiance have ________ average temperatures.

A) low; varying B) high; low C) low; low D) high; varying Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Conceptual 27) The length of day is always greatest at the A) equator.

B) south pole.

C) winter solstice.

D) summer solstice.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Factual 28) In New York, the warmest days of the year usually occur A) around the summer solstice.

B) about one month after the summer solstice.

C) about one month before the summer solstice.

D) in mid-September.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Factual 29) What is generally the warmest time of day in Houston, Texas?

A) 10 a.m.

B) noon C) 2 p.m.

D) 5 p.m.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Conceptual

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30) Valleys are usually ________ than nearby hilltops because ________.

A) warmer; they receive more solar irradiance B) cooler; they usually hold a body of cool water C) cooler; cool air is heavier than warm air D) warmer; warm air is heavier than cool air Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Conceptual 31) Compared to the air above a nearby land mass, the air above a large body of water is A) cooler in winter.

B) warmer in summer.

C) cooler in summer.

D) the same, unless wind is blowing.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Factual 32) Hypothetically, scientists could lower Earth's temperature by ________, in order to combat global warming.

A) moving ice from the Arctic to the tropical oceans B) forcibly melting more glaciers and polar ice caps C) reflecting more light from land masses D) decreasing the reflectance of cities Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Applied 33) Prevailing winds coming from the north and south collide A) at the intertropical convergence zone.

B) on the leeward side of a mountain.

C) on the windward side of a mountain.

D) within hurricanes.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Factual

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34) Hot-air balloons are able to fly for the same reason that A) precipitation falls on the leeward side of a mountain.

B) water droplets can freeze inside clouds.

C) very little rain falls at 30° north and south of the equator.

D) the tops of hills are warmer than the valleys below.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Conceptual 35) Where would you expect a "rain shadow" to occur in the United States?

A) on the western side of the Cascade Mountains, in the Pacific Northwest B) on the western side of the Appalachian Mountains, in the eastern United States C) on the eastern side of Lake Ontario, in upstate New York D) on the eastern side of the Sierra Nevada mountains, in Utah Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Factual

36) In which general direction do the prevailing winds blow between 30° North and the equator?

A) from south to north B) from east to west C) from north to south D) from southwest to northeast Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 16.1 Skill: Factual 9 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

37) The major deserts of the world are located at A) 30° north and south of the equator.

B) 23.5° north and south of the equator.

C) 45° north and south of the equator.

D) the equator.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 16.2 Skill: Factual 38) Which of the following terrestrial biomes is dominated by woody plants?

A) desert B) tundra C) tropical grassland D) chapparal Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 16.2 Skill: Factual 39) Which major biome type contains most of Earth's biodiversity?

A) desert B) tundra C) grasslands D) forests Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 16.2 Skill: Conceptual 40) Which of the following has the most biomass per unit area?

A) boreal forest B) tundra C) temperate forest D) tropical forest Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 16.2 Skill: Factual 41) "Swidden" is another term for A) tundra.

B) slash-and-burn agriculture.

C) the boreal forest.

D) biome.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 16.2 Skill: Factual 10 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

42) When all living organisms are included, ________ contain about 70% of the biomass found on Earth's land surface.

A) forests B) grasslands C) tundras D) deserts Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 16.2 Skill: Factual 43) The biodiversity of a tropical rainforest is very high because of the A) high temperature found year-round.

B) low amount of solar irradiance.

C) high amount of solar irradiance.

D) high levels of nutrients in the soil.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 16.2 Skill: Factual 44) When a patch of land is cleared in a tropical rainforest, the vegetation is often burned to enrich the soil with nutrients from the burned plant material. This A) works well because so many nutrients are trapped in tropical plants.

B) works for a few years, but the soil is soon depleted of nutrients.

C) isn't necessary because tropical soils are filled with nutrients.

D) helps to promote long-term sustainable agriculture.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 16.2 Skill: Factual 45) Both tropical and temperate forests have A) rainy and dry seasons.

B) seasonal changes in temperature.

C) enough precipitation to support large trees.

D) the same species of trees.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 16.2 Skill: Factual

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46) Broadleaf deciduous trees of temperate forests A) drop their leaves as they freeze solid.

B) reabsorb chlorophyll, resulting in the colorful autumn pigments becoming visible.

C) grow slower than narrow-leaved trees during summer months.

D) are the only type of plant life found in this biome.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 16.2 Skill: Factual 47) Coniferous trees are most abundant in A) tropical forests.

B) temperate forests.

C) deciduous forests.

D) boreal forests.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 16.2 Skill: Factual 48) An adaptation of evergreen trees in boreal forests includes A) a thick waxy coat on leaves.

B) lower levels of chlorophyll in leaves.

C) the ability to shed leaves when water availability is low in winter.

D) flower production in early spring.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 16.2 Skill: Factual 49) Plants that are adapted to frequent fires are part of the A) boreal forest.

B) temperate forest.

C) chaparral.

D) desert.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 16.2 Skill: Factual 50) The fragrant oils found in rosemary and thyme A) encourage humans to pick them and spread their seeds.

B) protect the plants from fire.

C) help fuel fires, to which they've become adapted.

D) discourage humans from consuming the plants.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 16.2 Skill: Factual 12 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

51) A biome that contains few shrubs or trees and has limited rainfall is called A) grassland.

B) chaparral.

C) boreal forest.

D) tundra.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 16.2 Skill: Factual 52) Grazing animals that eat the tops of plants have resulted in the selection of plants that A) don't reproduce via flowers.

B) grow from the tip of the plant.

C) grow from the base of the plant.

D) can grow only after a fire burns the top of the plant.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 16.2 Skill: Factual 53) Introducing large numbers of grazing livestock to a savanna in the Sahel region of Africa has led to A) an increase in the savanna.

B) the destruction of the biome.

C) more food in times of famine.

D) another form of sustainable agriculture.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 16.2 Skill: Factual 54) If you were to buy land in order to plant crops, which type of biome would you prefer?

A) savanna B) prairie C) tropical forest D) chaparral Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 16.2 Skill: Conceptual 55) Rainfall in a desert is A) negligible (essentially 0 inches per year).

B) less than 1 inch per year.

C) less than 20 inches per year.

D) more than 20 inches per year.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 16.2 Skill: Factual 13 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

56) Which of the following is one evolutionary adaptation of a typical desert plant?

A) shallow roots to quickly capture water B) broad leaves to capture the bright sunlight C) long-blooming flowers to attract pollinators D) deep roots to capture all available moisture Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 16.2 Skill: Factual 57) Annual plants germinate, reproduce, and die in one season. These plants often evolved in A) deserts.

B) tundra.

C) deciduous forests.

D) chaparral.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 16.2 Skill: Factual 58) An environment where the plants are low to the ground and many boggy areas are found is called A) a boreal forest.

B) a savanna.

C) a tundra.

D) a prairie.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 16.2 Skill: Conceptual 59) During the last few years, scientists have observed that caribou have had difficulty migrating due to the melting of the ________, creating impassable wetlands where there was once solid ground.

A) glaciers B) ice caps C) icebergs D) permafrost Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 16.2 Skill: Conceptual 60) Tropical rainforests exist in soils that are nutrient-poor because A) there is a low rate of decomposition, and plants cannot absorb the "undigested" nutrients.

B) there is a low rate of decomposition, and plants quickly absorb the nutrients as they are available.

C) there is a high rate of decomposition, and plants quickly absorb the nutrients as they are available.

D) The plants cannot use the types of nutrients produced by tropical decomposers.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 16.2 Skill: Conceptual 14 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

61) Why do the deciduous leaves on temperate forest trees turn from green to orange, red, and/or yellow before falling?

A) The chlorophyll changes color as it's broken down.

B) The chlorophyll is absorbed by the tree, leaving the other pigments visible.

C) New photosynthetic pigments are created as the amount of daylight becomes limited.

D) New pigments are created in response to colder temperatures.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 16.2 Skill: Factual 62) The gradual replacement of plant species in a rainforest over time (for example, as it progresses from an old agricultural field back to a forest) is called A) intertropical convergence.

B) desertification.

C) succession.

D) deforestation.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 16.2 Skill: Factual 63) By definition, fresh water contains ________ salt.

A) less than 0.0001% B) less than 0.1% C) about 1% D) absolutely no Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 16.3 Skill: Factual 64) At least half of the oxygen in Earth's atmosphere was created by A) burning fossil fuels.

B) trees in the boreal forest.

C) phytoplankton in the ocean.

D) plants, algae, and phytoplankton in the intertidal zone.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 16.3 Skill: Factual

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65) In order to reproduce, certain species of salamanders must migrate to a ________, where their aquatic eggs can develop free of predatory fish, which can't survive the annual drying up of this type of wetland.

A) vernal pond B) intertidal zone C) marsh D) swamp Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 16.3 Skill: Conceptual 66) On a warm summer day in August, you decide to go for a walk through a new housing development that was built near your home a few years ago. As you walk by the pond that's in the center of this development, you notice an unpleasant smell. Then, you see that the pond is full of green algae, and there are dead fish floating on the surface. This is a pond that used to be clean and clear, and you used to play in it as a child. What could have most likely caused this change?

A) Too many people are discarding food and other wastes in the pond, causing increased algal growth.

B) Lawns are being overfertilized, causing excess fertilizer to wash into the pond, stimulating algal growth.

C) The low reflectance of the surrounding area is heating up the pond, causing increased algal growth.

D) The salting of the roads during icy conditions in the winter has resulted in the runoff of salt and thus stimulated algal growth.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 16.3 Skill: Applied 67) The benefits of wetlands include A) protection from flooding.

B) storage of drinking water.

C) increasing rate of water flow to bodies of water.

D) production of sediment that is useful for fertilizer.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 16.3 Skill: Factual 68) A food chain in the open ocean, from the base up, would be A) zooplankton, phytoplankton, tuna, cod.

B) phytoplankton, zooplankton, sand lance, humpback.

C) shark, cod, phytoplankton, zooplankton.

D) albatross, cod, zooplankton, phytoplankton.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 16.3 Skill: Factual

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69) Coral reefs are built of A) the limestone skeletons of dead coral.

B) rock formations on the ocean floor.

C) inactive volcanoes.

D) the skeletal remains of fish.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 16.3 Skill: Factual 70) Coral animals harbor ________ inside their bodies to provide them with nutrition.

A) bacteria B) dinoflagellates C) photosynthetic algae D) hydras Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 16.3 Skill: Factual 71) How can the amount of yard waste produced by people be reduced?

A) through recycling B) through composting C) by having people bring their own waste to dumps D) through burning.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 16.4 Skill: Factual 72) Burning fossil fuels can result in A) a decrease in ground-level ozone levels.

B) a decrease in carbon dioxide levels.

C) an increase in mercury levels.

D) a decrease in acid rain.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 16.4 Skill: Factual 73) Treatment of wastewater in industrial plants of developed countries includes A) removing excess nutrients, such as phosphates and nitrates.

B) removing semisolid wastes.

C) discharging untreated wastewater into waterways.

D) burning semisolid wastes for energy.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 16.4 Skill: Conceptual 17 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk) Chapter 17 Organ Donation: Tissues, Organs, and Organ Systems 1) Which tissue type lines the intestines and helps in the absorption of nutrients?

A) muscle B) connective C) epithelial D) nervous Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Factual 2) Similar cells that are grouped together and perform a common function are called A) tissues.

B) organs.

C) organ systems.

D) accessory organs.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Factual 3) Which tissue type in the human body is often exposed to air?

A) muscle B) connective C) epithelial D) nervous Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Conceptual 4) Fat and blood are classified as ________ tissues.

A) muscle B) connective C) epithelial D) nervous Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Factual

1 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

5) What type of matrix does adipose (fat) tissue exhibit?

A) liquid B) viscous C) solid D) fibrous Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Factual 6) The cells that make up loose connective tissue are called A) fibroblasts.

B) osteocytes.

C) chondrocytes.

D) hepatocytes.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Factual 7) What is a function of loose connective tissue?

A) to hold organs in place B) to store energy-rich reserves of fat C) to move substances throughout the body D) to contract when signaled by nerve cells Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Factual 8) When stored fat is used for energy, adipose cells in the body A) grow larger.

B) become smaller.

C) multiply.

D) are converted into fibroblasts.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Factual 9) Which cellular component of blood helps in clotting?

A) red blood cells B) white blood cells C) plasma D) platelets Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Factual 2 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

10) The cells that make up cartilage are called A) fibroblasts.

B) osteocytes.

C) chondrocytes.

D) hepatocytes.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Factual 11) Why does cigarette smoke cause a smoker's skin to wrinkle over time?

A) The fibroblast cells that secrete proteins to the skin are degraded.

B) The collagen and elastin matrix that holds skin to muscle is broken down.

C) The ground substance in skin is converted to protein fibers.

D) The nervous tissue that makes skin tighten is destroyed.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Conceptual 12) Which of these connective tissues has a liquid matrix?

A) cartilage B) blood C) adipose tissue D) fibrous connective tissue Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Factual 13) Besides structural support for the body, what function do bones serve?

A) They synthesize fat, a source of energy.

B) They provide sites for the storage of water.

C) They are compressible and flexible enough to act as shock absorbers.

D) They donate certain minerals when dietary levels are insufficient.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Factual 14) How do striated and smooth muscles differ?

A) Striated muscle is involuntary, but smooth muscle is voluntary.

B) Striated muscle has a banding pattern under the microscope, but smooth muscle doesn't.

C) Striated muscle can contract for a long period, but smooth muscle contracts very briefly.

D) Striated muscle cells have nuclei, but smooth muscle cells do not.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Conceptual 3 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

15) Over time, how do skeletal muscle cells respond to regular weight-lifting exercise? A) They get larger, making the overall muscle bigger. B) They multiply, making the overall muscle bigger. C) They are able to contract for longer periods of time. D) They contain more actin and less myosin.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Conceptual 16) What type of tissues can be transplanted from one person to another to reconstruct damaged joints?

A) cartilage B) epithelium C) bone D) blood Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Factual 17) The tissue type that protects the body from water loss is ________.

Answer: epithelial Diff: 1 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Factual 18) Osteocytes are cells that secrete substances to make the connective tissue called ________.

Answer: bone Diff: 1 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Factual 19) How do the protein fibers in the matrix ground substance compare between loose and fibrous connective tissues?

A) In loose connective tissues, the protein fibers are loosely woven, but in fibrous connective tissues, the fibers are densely packed.

B) In fibrous connective tissues, the protein fibers are loosely woven, but in loose connective tissues, the fibers are densely packed.

C) The protein fibers are dark red in fibrous connective tissue but are white in loose connective tissues.

D) The protein fibers are white in fibrous connective tissue but are dark red in loose connective tissues.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Conceptual

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20) Which tissue type in the human body is exposed directly to the bloodstream?

A) muscle B) connective C) epithelial D) nervous Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Conceptual 21) Which type of body tissue acts as padding under the skin?

A) nervous B) muscle C) epithelial D) connective Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Factual 22) Which type of cells protects the body from the potentially harmful effects of ultraviolet radiation?

A) nervous B) muscle C) epithelial D) connective Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Conceptual 23) The replacement of the epidermis occurs A) only once in a person's lifetime.

B) every 4-6 years.

C) every 4-6 weeks.

D) every 4-6 days.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Factual 24) The proteins that make up the matrix of loose connective tissue are secreted by ________.

A) hepatocytes B) fibroblasts C) chondrocytes D) osteocytes Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Factual 5 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

25) Fibroblasts are to fibrous connective tissue as ________ are to cartilage. A) osteoblasts B) chondrocytes C) osteocytes D) hepatocytes Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Factual 26) Platelets are cells found in a type of A) epithelial tissue.

B) muscle tissue.

C) nervous tissue.

D) connective tissue.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Factual 27) The material that provides the internal, flexible support of the ear is an example of A) epithelial tissue.

B) muscle tissue.

C) nervous tissue.

D) connective tissue.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Factual 28) Which of the following represent the main components of "red meat"?

A) osteocytes B) fibroblasts C) collagen and elastin D) actin and myosin Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Conceptual 29) Voluntary movement relies upon A) conscious thought and cardiac muscle.

B) conscious thought and striated muscle.

C) conscious thought and smooth muscle.

D) unconscious thought and smooth muscle.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Factual

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30) Which of the following is an example of voluntary muscle contraction? A) a push-up B) peristalsis C) a heartbeat D) stomach churning Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Applied 31) Most donated tissues can be stored in a freezer up to A) a week. B) a month. C) a year.

D) 5 years. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Factual

32) In which connective tissue type are the collagen fibers arranged parallel with one another in a very organized, layered fashion?

A) bone B) blood C) adipose tissue D) fibrous connective tissue Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 17.1 Skill: Factual

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33) If a car is similar to an organism, then what is similar to an organ system?

A) a valve in the engine B) the steering wheel C) the electrical system D) gasoline Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 17.2 Skill: Factual 34) The liver filters which of the following from the blood?

A) toxins B) chyme C) hepatocytes D) glycogen Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 17.2 Skill: Conceptual 35) What activity of the liver makes it act as an accessory organ?

A) production of bile B) synthesis of blood-clotting factors C) destruction of old blood cells D) detoxification Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 17.2 Skill: Conceptual 36) Emulsification is the A) digestion of food inside vacuoles.

B) breaking up of fat molecules.

C) secretion of digestive enzymes in the stomach.

D) involuntary movement of a bolus through the alimentary canal.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 17.2 Skill: Factual 37) Unlike most organs, the ________ of a donor can be cut into smaller sections and transplanted, then grow back to full size in both the donor and recipient.

A) gallbladder B) stomach C) pancreas D) liver Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 17.2 Skill: Conceptual 8 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

38) Which of the following diseases affects the liver and could be transferred by an organ transplant? A) hepatitis C B) diabetes C) gonorrhea D) tuberculosis Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 17.2 Skill: Factual 39) In a(n) ________ digestive system, a single structure serves as both the mouth and the anus.

Answer: incomplete Diff: 1 Topic: 17.2 Skill: Factual 40) Up to ________ of the energy supplied by the digestion of food is needed to maintain a complete digestive system.

A) 1% B) 10% C) 30% D) 75% Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 17.2 Skill: Factual 41) Gallstones result when the gallbladder A) doesn't function at all.

B) removes too much water from bile.

C) converts bile into crystallized calcium propionate.

D) fills with dead hepatocytes.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 17.2 Skill: Conceptual 42) A digested nutrient enters the bloodstream via A) a series of large pores in the duodenum.

B) tiny blood vessels inside the microvilli.

C) the liver.

D) small openings in the epithelium of the stomach.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 17.2 Skill: Conceptual

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43) Which of the following is a hormone that is involved in digestion?

A) bile B) hydrochloric acid C) gastrin D) amylase Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 17.2 Skill: Factual 44) What is the correct sequence of bodily organization, from simple to complex?

A) cells - tissues - organs - organ systems - organism B) organs - organ systems - tissues - cells - organism C) tissues - cells - organs - organ systems - organism D) cells - tissues - organ systems - organs - organism Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 17.2 Skill: Conceptual 45) The cells that make up the liver are called A) fibroblasts.

B) osteocytes.

C) chondrocytes.

D) hepatocytes.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 17.2 Skill: Factual 46) Which of the following is a true statement about organs?

A) Each organ has a single function within the body.

B) An organ always contains at least three different tissue types.

C) Failure of an individual organ can affect an entire organ system.

D) Most organs function to provide the body with energy.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 17.2 Skill: Factual 47) A person can live a normal life without which of these digestive system organs?

A) liver B) gallbladder C) pancreas D) small intestine Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 17.2 Skill: Factual/Conceptual 10 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

48) A person born without an epiglottis couldn't A) digest fats.

B) digest proteins.

C) absorb the products of digestion.

D) swallow food without a high risk of choking.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 17.2 Skill: Applied 49) Accessory organs A) aren't included in organ systems.

B) secrete enzymes required for digestion.

C) don't contain connective tissue.

D) assist other organs in the circulatory system.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 17.2 Skill: Factual 50) Just before entering the small intestine, what is the pH of chyme?

A) very basic (very high pH) B) slightly basic (high pH) C) neutral (pH near 7) D) acidic (low pH) Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 17.2 Skill: Conceptual

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51) Which of the following secretes a buffer that neutralizes the acidity of stomach acid?

A) gall bladder B) liver C) pancreas D) pharynx Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 17.2 Skill: Factual 52) What part of the digestive system has the most surface area for the absorption of nutrients?

A) esophagus B) stomach C) small intestine D) large intestine Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 17.2 Skill: Factual/Conceptual

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53) What function does the gallbladder serve?

A) nutrient absorption B) bile storage and concentration C) sugar digestion D) fat storage Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 17.2 Skill: Factual 54) Which organ in the digestive system can be transplanted to help certain diabetic patients?

A) stomach B) gallbladder C) liver D) pancreas Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 17.2 Skill: Conceptual 55) Which organ system acts upon substances contained in the alimentary canal?

A) circulatory system B) digestive system C) integumentary system D) excretory system Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 17.2 Skill: Applied 56) The enzyme in saliva that breaks down sugars is called ________ (two words).

Answer: salivary amylase Diff: 1 Topic: 17.2 Skill: Factual 57) The contraction of smooth muscles that moves a bolus of food down the esophagus is called A) emulsification.

B) elimination.

C) peristalsis.

D) detoxification.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 17.2 Skill: Factual

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58) The simplest eukaryotes, such as protozoans, rely upon A) digestion within food vacuoles. B) food production within specialized cells. C) an incomplete digestive system.

D) a complete digestive system. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 17.2 Skill: Conceptual 59) Homeostasis is an organism's ability to A) obtain energy from food.

B) interact with its specific environment.

C) maintain a constant internal environment.

D) survive without water for long periods of time.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 17.3 Skill: Factual 60) Which of the following is an endotherm?

A) a mouse B) an insect C) a salmon D) a frog Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 17.3 Skill: Applied 61) Ectotherms primarily regulate their body temperature by A) adjusting their rate of metabolism.

B) absorbing or releasing heat.

C) eating more or less, depending on their need for body heat.

D) panting when it gets too hot and shivering when it gets too cold.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 17.3 Skill: Conceptual 62) During thermoregulation, how does an endotherm respond to a high body temperature?

A) Blood vessels near the skin dilate.

B) Blood vessels near the skin constrict.

C) The brain shuts down to prevent damage.

D) Blood glucose levels increase to stimulate metabolism.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 17.3 Skill: Applied

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63) The maintenance of blood glucose levels by the liver is an example of A) diabetes.

B) thermoregulation.

C) positive feedback.

D) negative feedback.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 17.3 Skill: Factual 64) After a large meal is digested, the liver reduces blood glucose levels by A) converting glucose to glycogen.

B) breaking down glucose into waste products.

C) stimulating the pancreas to store excess glucose.

D) releasing hormones that inhibit the pancreas.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 17.3 Skill: Factual 65) Why are there more tissues available for transplant than organs?

A) Tissues can be transplanted regardless of blood type, but the blood types must match between organ donors and recipients.

B) Nonhuman animals are the source of most tissue transplants, but organs for transplant must come from humans.

C) Tissues can be removed from living donors, whereas organs can only be removed from dead bodies.

D) Tissues can be frozen and preserved, but organs deteriorate quickly without nourishment from oxygen and blood.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: 17.3 Skill: Conceptual 66) Insulin, which is released by the pancreas, stimulates the ________ to convert glucose into glycogen.

A) stomach B) gallbladder C) liver D) brain Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 17.3 Skill: Factual

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67) Which organ isn't able to be transplanted from a donor to a recipient? A) a kidney B) a heart C) a liver D) a brain Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 17.3 Skill: Factual 68) The maintenance of constant internal body temperature is an example of homeostasis called ________.

Answer: thermoregulation Diff: 1 Topic: 17.3 Skill: Factual 69) In order to increase blood glucose levels, the pancreas secretes the hormone ________, which stimulates the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose.

A) insulin B) gastrin C) glucagon D) cholesystokinin Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 17.3 Skill: Factual 70) In nature, an ectothermic animal maintains a constant body temperature on a cold day by A) basking in a sunny location.

B) increasing its rate of metabolism without basking.

C) eating more food, which creates heat as it's burned for energy.

D) shivering.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 17.3 Skill: Conceptual

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Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk) Chapter 18 Clearing the Air: Respiratory, Cardiovascular, and Excretory Systems 1) Secondhand smoke emitted by a lit cigarette combined with the smoke exhaled by active smokers is more accurately referred to as A) passive smoke.

B) environmental tobacco smoke.

C) active smoke.

D) dirty air.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 18.1 Skill: Factual 2) During exhalation, when the diaphragm relaxes and the volume of the chest cavity decreases, air pressure ________ inside the lungs.

A) increases B) decreases C) decreases, then increases D) is unchanged Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 18.1 Skill: Factual 3) The brain stem regulates breathing and will signal the diaphragm to contract in response to A) levels of oxygen in the blood.

B) levels of carbon dioxide in the blood.

C) levels of carbon monoxide in the blood.

D) levels of hemoglobin in the blood.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 18.1 Skill: Factual 4) Although children believe that "holding my breath until I die" is possible, parents know this to not be true because A) as a child holds his or her breath, oxygen levels build, stimulating breathing by the brain stem.

B) as a child holds his or her breath, oxygen levels decrease, stimulating breathing by the brain stem.

C) as a child holds his or her breath, carbon dioxide levels decrease, stimulating breathing by the brain stem.

D) as a child holds his or her breath, carbon dioxide levels increase, stimulating breathing by the brain stem.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: 18.1 Skill: Conceptual

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5) As air is inhaled, which of the four following structures is the last to be encountered?

A) larynx B) trachea C) bronchiole D) bronchi Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 18.1 Skill: Factual 6) The respiratory surface where gas exchange occurs is in the A) trachea.

B) bronchioles.

C) pharynx.

D) alveoli.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 18.1 Skill: Applied 7) What is the order of passage as air is inhaled into the human lungs?

A) nasal cavity, trachea, larynx, bronchiole, alveolus B) nasal cavity, larynx, bronchiole, trachea, alveolus C) nasal cavity, bronchiole, larynx, trachea, alveolus D) nasal cavity, larynx, trachea, bronchiole, alveolus Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 18.1 Skill: Factual 8) In the alveoli and lung capillaries, carbon dioxide and oxygen are exchanged by means of A) endocytosis.

B) osmosis.

C) diffusion.

D) phagocytosis.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 18.1 Skill: Factual 9) Smoking affects the surfactant in the lungs, thereby A) increasing the respiratory surface area.

B) decreasing gas exchange in the alveoli.

C) reducing the ability of hemoglobin to carry oxygen.

D) increasing concentrations of carbon monoxide.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 18.1 Skill: Conceptual

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10) Which of the following statements about respiration is true?

A) Inhalation is a passive process.

B) Exhalation is an active process during intense exercise.

C) During exhalation, the pressure in the lung decreases.

D) During inhalation, the diaphragm relaxes.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 18.1 Skill: Applied 11) Most of the oxygen in the blood is A) bound to hemoglobin.

B) in white blood cells.

C) combined with carbon dioxide.

D) dissolved in the plasma.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 18.1 Skill: Factual 12) What is the advantage of having grape-like clusters called alveoli as part of the respiratory system?

A) Alveoli allow for an increase in surface area, which maximizes gas exchange.

B) Alveoli are circular in structure, which is ideal for maximal gas exchange.

C) Because alveoli are shaped like grapes, this allows for thinner walls, thereby facilitating gas exchange in the lungs.

D) The shape of alveoli allows capillaries to be in closer proximity to gases, which facilitates gas exchange.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 18.1 Skill: Applied 13) Respiratory pigments are specialized proteins in blood that A) contain metal ions.

B) occur only in insects.

C) increase the efficiency of carbon dioxide transport.

D) turn the blood blue when oxygen is bound.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 18.1 Skill: Applied

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14) Why is carbon monoxide deadly?

A) It binds to hemoglobin in white blood cells in place of oxygen.

B) It binds to hemoglobin in red blood cells in place of oxygen.

C) It binds to hemoglobin in red blood cells in place of carbon dioxide.

D) It binds to hemoglobin in white blood cells in place of carbon dioxide.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 18.1 Skill: Factual 15) What is one consequence of long-term exposure to carbon monoxide, found in environmental tobacco smoke?

A) damage to hemoglobin B) protection from bronchitis C) higher-than-average birth weights of babies born to smoking mothers D) diminished brain function in infants and children Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 18.1 Skill: Factual 16) Chronic smoking can lead to the formation of scar tissue in the lungs, permanently damaging alveoli. This process is termed A) bronchitis.

B) asthma.

C) emphysema.

D) lung cancer.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 18.1 Skill: Factual

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17) Refer to the figure to answer the following question: Which of the following structures will give rise to alveoli, where gas exchange will occur?

A) larynx B) trachea C) bronchi D) bronchioles Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 18.1 Skill: Factual 18) True or false: The emerging and scientific consensus about "secondhand smoke" supports the conclusion that, while airborne particles emitted by the lit end of cigarettes pose a health risk to those who are exposed, the gases released by a cigarette are relatively harmless.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Topic: 18.1 Skill: Factual 19) True or false: As you're sitting in your chair reading this test question, the process of breathing out (termed exhalation) is an active process.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Topic: 18.1 Skill: Conceptual

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20) True or false: Of the 170,000 new cases of lung cancer diagnosed in the United States each year, greater than 90% of these patients are current smokers or former smokers.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Topic: 18.1 Skill: Factual 21) True or false: Highly controlled clinical experiments have determined that nonsmokers exposed to ETS have a 20% to 30% higher risk of lung cancer than unexposed nonsmokers.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Topic: 18.1 Skill: Factual 22) ________ is the most abundant gas in environmental tobacco smoke, and the effects of exposure to elevated levels of this gas along with other health problems can lead to serious consequences.

Answer: Carbon monoxide (CO) Diff: 2 Topic: 18.1 Skill: Factual 23) Many of the components of tobacco smoke are ________, meaning these chemicals are known to cause cancer.

Answer: carcinogens Diff: 1 Topic: 18.1 Skill: Factual 24) What does bright red blood indicate?

A) that oxygen is no longer bound to hemoglobin B) that copper is bound to hemoglobin C) that oxygen is bound to hemoglobin D) that carbon monoxide is bound to hemoglobin Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 18.1 Skill: Conceptual 25) True or false: The blood in veins becomes bluish in color when it has become deoxygenated.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Topic: 18.1 Skill: Applied

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26) Which of the following compounds provides a slippery consistency in the lungs preventing the alveoli walls from sticking together?

A) oxygen B) carbon dioxide C) surfactant D) respiratory pigments Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 18.1 Skill: Factual 27) True or false: The presence of known carcinogens in ETS supports the argument that ETS can cause lung cancer in nonsmokers.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Topic: 18.1 Skill: Factual 28) Airborne particles can damage ________, which are structures lining the tissue surface of the respiratory tract.

A) cilia B) alveoli C) bronchi D) capillaries Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 18.1 Skill: Applied 29) The respiratory system depends on the nervous system for signals to A) enhance the amount of available oxygen in the lungs.

B) coordinate muscles controlling breathing.

C) release enzymes to increase the exchange of gases.

D) exchange gases with the circulatory system.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 18.1 Skill: Conceptual 30) Closed circulatory systems A) have capillaries.

B) lack veins.

C) lack a heart.

D) lack blood.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Applied

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31) You hear that horsehair worms don't have any respiratory system. Which of the following would you conclude to be most likely true of horsehair worms?

A) They have thick bodies.

B) They have a dry skin surface.

C) They use large amounts of energy.

D) They have a large surface area compared with their volume.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Applied 32) Why is the countercurrent gas exchange that occurs in fish an effective system for extracting oxygen from water?

A) Because water flows in one direction and blood in the opposite direction, oxygen can be removed from the gills efficiently.

B) Oxygen is able to diffuse out of water over the entire surface of the gills, because the blood always contains a lower concentration of oxygen than the water.

C) The hemolymph in this system delivers oxygen to the body efficiently after it enters the gills.

D) Countercurrent exchange is an active process, so it is able to move more oxygen into the blood than can simple diffusion.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Conceptual 33) Which of these allows mammals to maintain a regular body temperature?

A) countercurrent gas exchange B) open circulatory system C) four-chambered heart D) hemolymph and spiracles Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Conceptual 34) Which respiratory organ is most often found only in fully aquatic animals?

A) trachea B) lung C) skin surface D) gill Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Applied

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35) During evolutionary refinements that led from fish to mammals, why was a shift from gills to lungs necessary?

A) Gills aren't as efficient as lungs in picking up oxygen.

B) Gills are too small to service a mammal's need for oxygen.

C) Gills work only in water; lungs work only on land.

D) Protecting gas-exchange surfaces from drying out is difficult in gills when on land.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Conceptual 36) Which of the following return blood to the heart?

A) capillaries B) veins C) arteries D) spiracles Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Factual 37) Some athletes use "blood doping," adding additional red blood cells to the blood, to achieve a competitive edge. The extra red blood cells will A) make the heart beat faster.

B) increase O2 delivery to muscles.

C) decrease blood pressure.

D) change the blood type.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Conceptual 38) In Southern Copperhead snake venom, you'll find a protein called a disintegrin. Disintegrins bind to a class of membrane receptors called integrins. Platelets use integrin receptors to aggregate at a site of tissue damage. What effect do you think disintegrin has on the snake's prey?

A) After the snake bites its prey, the molecule helps in wound healing.

B) The molecule helps kill the snake's prey by producing large clots that travel in the body and produce heart attacks and strokes.

C) The molecule interferes with clot formation so that the venom can travel more efficiently from the site of the bite to the rest of the body.

D) By binding to the platelets, the molecule increases the formation of fibrin.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Applied

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39) Smoking may increase your risk for stroke and heart attack because substances in tobacco smoke A) promote the production of fibrinogen.

B) decrease platelet aggregation.

C) decrease the probability of clot formation.

D) decrease the risk for hypertension.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Applied 40) The contraction phase of the cardiac cycle is known as A) contractstole.

B) diastole.

C) vastole.

D) systole.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Factual 41) The region of the heart that acts as the heart's pacemaker is called the A) SA node.

B) AV node.

C) semilunar valve.

D) ventricle.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Factual 42) "Diver's reflex" is a response to diving in many aquatic mammals and also occurs in humans upon submersion in water. It is characterized by physiological changes that decrease oxygen consumption, such as a slowed heart rate. Which region of the heart would be directly affected by the nervous system to allow for the slowing of heart rate?

A) SA node B) AV node C) left ventricle D) right ventricle Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Applied

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43) Which of the following best describes an artery? A) Arteries carry blood away from the heart. B) Arteries carry oxygenated blood. C) Arteries contain valves. D) Arteries have thinner walls than veins. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Applied 44) In which of these blood vessels do the exchange of gases and other materials occur?

A) arteries B) veins C) capillaries D) right atrium Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Factual 45) Blood pressure is lowest in A) arteries.

B) capillaries.

C) veins.

D) left ventricle.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Factual 46) Which of the following have valves to prevent blood from flowing backwards?

A) arteries B) capillaries C) veins D) SA node Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Factual 47) Which of the following correctly traces a drop of blood through the vascular system?

A) right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle, body, right atrium B) left ventricle, lungs, right atrium, right ventricle, body, left atrium C) right ventricle, lungs, right atrium, left ventricle, body, left atrium D) left ventricle, lungs, left atrium, right ventricle, body, right atrium Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Applied

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48) Which chamber of the heart receives the deoxygenated blood from the systemic system first?

A) left ventricle B) left atrium C) right atrium D) right ventricle Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Conceptual 49) A small mass of specialized muscle on the back wall of the right atrium, also known as the pacemaker, is medically known as what?

A) atrioventricular node B) cardiopulmonary node C) bundle of His D) sinoatrial node Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Factual 50) An important cell type within human blood is the platelets, which A) provide glucose to tissues.

B) carry oxygen to body cells.

C) help form a clot at the site of a wound.

D) carry antibodies against infections.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Factual 51) Economy-class syndrome is a condition that develops after long plane rides in which individuals are seated in a cramped position with little leg room. Based on your knowledge of the cardiovascular system, which of the following might be a consequence of this syndrome?

A) increased risk for heart attack B) increased risk for thrombosis C) increased risk for developing hypertension D) increased risk for swelling in the brain Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Conceptual

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52) Blood stem cells originate in the A) heart.

B) bloodstream.

C) bone marrow.

D) liver.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Factual 53) Which region of the circulatory system allows passage of nutrients and other small molecules to service nearby tissues?

A) veins B) arteries C) capillaries D) aterioles Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Factual

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54) Refer to the figure to answer the following question: In which of the labeled regions would blood pressure be the highest?

A) Region 5 B) Region 6 C) Region 7 D) Region 8 Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Applied 55) What is the physiological cause of a heart attack?

A) rupture of coronary arteries B) a blood clot moving through the heart C) a blood clot lodging in a blood vessel supplying the heart D) scar tissue in the heart muscle Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Applied 14 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

56) About how many years after quitting smoking does it take for the risk of heart disease and death to return to the levels similar to those seen in people who never smoked? A) 1 B) 5 C) 10 D) 15 Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Factual 57) True or false: The majority of deaths due to smoking result from cardiovascular disease, not lung cancer or other lung diseases.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Applied 58) ________ is the chemical in tobacco smoke that's able to activate the brain's reward pathways, thus making smoking a very addictive process.

Answer: Nicotine Diff: 1 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Factual 59) In the human cardiovascular system, what's the difference between the pulmonary circuit and the systemic circuit?

Answer: The pulmonary circuit transports blood between the heart and lungs, while the systemic circuit transports blood between the heart and body tissues.

Diff: 2 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Factual 60) Which of these is a potential consequence of smoking on the cardiovascular system?

A) an increase in the production of HDL B) a decrease in the production of LDL C) a higher risk of atherosclerosis D) an increase in the risk for lung cancer Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 18.2 Skill: Factual

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61) The process by which nephrons in the kidney remove toxins and other wastes via active transport is called A) filtration. B) secretion. C) reabsorption. D) urination. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 18.3 Skill: Applied 62) Smoking is most likely to cause damage to which process in the kidneys?

A) filtration B) reabsorption C) secretion D) excretion Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 18.3 Skill: Conceptual 63) By which process is the majority of water that's filtered reabsorbed in the nephrons during urine formation?

A) active transport B) exocytosis C) osmosis D) pinocytosis Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 18.3 Skill: Applied 64) True or false: Filtration is the process by which plasma is forced through tiny holes in the capillary walls by blood pressure and into the upstream end of the nephron.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Topic: 18.3 Skill: Conceptual 65) True or false: Scientific studies suggest that of the many organs susceptible to cancer as a result of smoking, the kidneys and bladder are exceptions, showing no differences in cancer rates as compared to nonsmokers.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Topic: 18.3 Skill: Factual

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66) Valuable substances in filtrate are returned to the blood through what process?

A) filtration B) reabsorption C) secretion D) excretion Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 18.3 Skill: Factual 67) The functional units of the kidneys are called ________.

Answer: nephrons Diff: 1 Topic: 18.3 Skill: Factual 68) The duct within the kidney that collects urine is called the A) ureter.

B) renal vein.

C) bladder.

D) renal pelvis.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 18.3 Skill: Factual 69) The process by which urine is released from the bladder is called A) filtration.

B) excretion.

C) micturition.

D) nephronation.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 18.3 Skill: Factual

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Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk) Chapter 19 Vaccinations: Protection and Prevention or Peril? Immune System, Bacteria, Viruses, and Other Pathogens 1) Disease-causing organisms are called A) microbes.

B) parasites.

C) contagious.

D) pathogens.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Factual 2) A disease-causing organism that can spread from one organism to another is said to be A) contagious.

B) infectious.

C) parasitic.

D) microscopic.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Factual 3) A research scientist is trying to design a new antibiotic that would break down the gelatinous capsule that surrounds each bacterial cell. This antibiotic would be effective in preventing human illness by preventing the bacteria from doing which of the following actions?

A) passing genes to each other B) swimming away from cells of the immune system C) attaching to body cells in order to cause infection D) reproducing using binary fission Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Applied 4) Many bacteria carry plasmids containing bacterial genes that are easily and rapidly spread through an entire bacterial colony. Why are plasmids of particular concern to humans?

A) They carry genes for antibiotic resistance.

B) They carry genes that code for substances that are toxic to humans.

C) They carry genes that code for flagellae.

D) They carry genes that enable bacteria to metabolize glucose.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Factual

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5) Why is it important to keep your leftover chicken salad in the refrigerator? A) Potential viruses in the chicken salad thrive under warm conditions. B) Spores released by harmful bacteria only germinate at room temperature. C) Infectious bacteria like Salmonella reproduce more quickly at room temperature. D) Chicken salad loses its flavor if stored at room temperature. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Applied 6) Which of the following is a disease caused by bacteria that can paralyze respiratory muscles?

A) E. coli infection B) botulism C) staph infection D) tuberculosis Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Conceptual 7) Where would you be most likely to encounter E. coli bacteria?

A) in bulging canned foods B) on the surface of the skin C) in unpasteurized milk D) in the walls of the lungs Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Conceptual 8) You have developed an antibiotic that inhibits a bacterial enzyme critical for the formation of the cell wall. longerHowever, after only a short time, the bacteria become resistant to the antibiotic, and it's no effective. Which of the following may be a mechanism by which the bacteria are no longer sensitive to your antibiotic?

A) Over time, your antibiotic selected for bacteria containing a gene that codes for an enzyme capable of metabolizing your antibiotic.

B) The bacteria learned to avoid taking up the antibiotic in their surroundings.

C) The immune system of bacteria recognized the antibiotic as being foreign and quickly remove any antibiotic before it could accumulate to toxic levels.

D) wasThrough the use of plasmids, bacteria communicated with other bacteria that a noxious chemical present in the environment.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Conceptual

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9) One of the reasons that viruses are such effective infectious organisms is their ability to gain entry into host cells. Which component of a virus is primarily responsible for this feat?

A) flagellae B) reverse transcriptase C) single stranded RNA D) viral envelope Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Applied 10) Viruses aren't classified as living organisms because A) viruses don't possess a nucleus.

B) viruses aren't capable of replicating themselves without a host cell.

C) viruses don't always contain DNA as their genetic material.

D) viruses don't contain any proteins.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Factual 11) Which of the following is a common feature of a virus?

A) cell wall B) nucleus C) capsid D) plasmid Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Factual 12) AZT is an effective drug for treating HIV-infected individuals because it prevents the replication of new viral particles. The HIV virus has a genome made of RNA. Of the following, which represents the most likely target for the action of AZT? A) DNA in the host cell B) cell wall of the virus C) reverse transcriptase in the virus D) DNA ligase in the host cell Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Applied

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13) Why are latent viruses more likely to be transmitted to unsuspecting hosts than other types of viruses?

A) Because latent viruses have the ability to infect host cells better than most types of viruses.

B) Latent viruses lack a capsid, which enables them to infect host cells more readily.

C) Latent viruses reproduce slowly and steadily, allowing them to gain a foothold in the host.

D) Latent viruses can undergo long periods of dormancy, enabling infected hosts to transmit them to others unknowingly.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Applied 14) True or false: Infectious diseases differ from genetic diseases in that infectious diseases are usually contagious.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Factual 15) The Epstein-Barr virus causes A) the common cold.

B) rabies.

C) tuberculosis.

D) mononucleosis.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Factual 16) What would be an action that public health officials could take to reduce the risk of West Nile virus infection?

A) provide people with low-cost vaccines for the virus B) encourage people to wash their hands frequently and cover their cough C) require pet owners to vaccinate their dogs and cats D) work with natural resource managers to spray areas where mosquitoes breed Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Conceptual 17) True or false: The relationship between the protist, Plasmodium, that causes malaria and its host is beneficial to both of them.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Factual

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18) Some RNA viruses, such as HIV, require the enzyme ________ (two words) to convert the viral RNA genome into a DNA version.

Answer: reverse transcriptase Diff: 2 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Factual 19) Which of the following requires a host cell because they aren't able to make proteins on their own?

A) blue-green algae B) bacteria C) protozoans D) viruses Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Factual 20) A young woman with rhinovirus goes to the doctor to see if she can get a prescription for antibiotics.

How would the antibiotics affect the rhinovirus?

A) Most rhinovirus cells would be killed by the antibiotics.

B) The rhinovirus would spread more quickly, because the antibiotics would eliminate competing pathogens.

C) Rhinovirus reproduction would be slowed by the antibiotics, allowing the immune system to attack the virus.

D) The rhinovirus would not be affected by the antibiotics.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Applied 21) Which of the following pathogens is a eukaryote?

A) Giardia B) rabies virus C) E. coli D) Staphylococcus Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Conceptual 22) Bacteria reproduce by a process known as A) competitive fusion.

B) meiosis.

C) plasmid replication.

D) binary fission.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Factual

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23) An antibiotic kills 99.9% of a bacterial population. What will be the result of the continued application of this antibiotic?

A) Every time the antibiotic is given, it will kill 99.9% of the bacterial population.

B) Through time, the antibiotic will become less effective at killing the bacteria.

C) Eventually, the entire bacterial population will be wiped out.

D) The bacterial population will reach an equilibrium point at which the antibiotic is 50% effective.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Applied 24) Which of the following has contributed to widespread antibiotic resistance?

A) doctors under-prescribing antibiotics that would eradicate cold-causing bacteria B) patients finishing their antibiotic prescription even though they feel better C) farmers using an abundance of antibiotics to treat feedlot animals D) chefs cooking meat thoroughly in restaurants Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Conceptual 25) What does the DPT vaccine protect against?

A) whooping cough B) bacterial meningitis C) human papillomavirus D) influenza Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Factual

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26) Refer to the figure to answer the following question: Which of the following statements about viruses is correct?

A) Viruses are composed of cells.

B) Viruses have no genome.

C) Viruses can make their own enzymes.

D) The genes of a virus code for proteins necessary to make more viruses.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Factual

27) Refer to the figure to answer the following question: Which of the following steps in replication is the virus dependent upon the use of its own reverse transcriptase?

A) Step 1 B) Step 2 C) Step 3 D) Step 4 Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Applied

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28) What does the HPV vaccine provide protection against?

A) cervical cancer B) hepatitis B C) pertussis D) tetanus Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Factual 29) The pathogen Mycobacterium tuberculosis can remain dormant in the ________ for an extended period of time.

A) blood B) lungs C) soil D) intestines Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Factual 30) Ingestion of foods is a major route of transmission for which of the following?

A) Salmonella enteritidis B) Staphylococcus bacteria C) rhinovirus D) the bacterium that causes Lyme disease Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Factual 31) An individual contracts Lyme disease. In this case, transmission occurred through A) inhalation.

B) exposure to infected body fluids.

C) an intermediate host.

D) ingestion.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Factual 32) A(n) ________ is a contagious disease that spreads rapidly and extensively among a population.

Answer: epidemic Diff: 1 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Factual

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33) Which of the following may be an effective method to prevent the spread of botulism?

A) Do not eat food that has been sitting at room temperature for hours.

B) Avoid contact with infected individuals who are regularly sneezing.

C) Thoroughly boil or cook all food products.

D) Thoroughly wash hands before eating any food.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Applied 34) An individual suffers a bite from a bat, resulting in the transmission of the virus that causes rabies.

In this case, infection occurred through A) direct contact.

B) inhalation.

C) vector-borne transmission.

D) ingestion.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 19.1 Skill: Factual 35) Which of the following represents a first line of defense against pathogens?

A) skin B) inflammation C) lymphocytes D) phagocytosis by macrophages Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Factual 36) Which of the following would be an example of a specific line of defense against an infectious agent?

A) The skin acts as a barrier to infection by the agent.

B) Macrophages engulf the invading agent in the affected tissue.

C) Mucus membranes in the lungs trap the invading pathogens.

D) B cells stick to the invading pathogen's surface.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Factual

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37) T cells undergo further maturation in the ________ gland.

A) adrenal B) thyroid C) thymus D) pituitary Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Factual 38) Individuals with HIV sometimes contract a pneumonia infection that's rare, in the rest of the population, because people with HIV A) lack helper T cells.

B) produce too many antibodies to the virus.

C) possess more antigen diversity.

D) lack B lymphocytes.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Applied 39) Which of the following are important elements that comprise cell-mediated immunity?

A) B cells B) cytotoxic T cells C) plasma cells D) complement proteins Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Factual 40) ________ cells of the immune system will help the body respond more quickly if the infectious agent is encountered again.

A) Complement B) Cytotoxic C) Helper D) Memory Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Factual

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41) Which of the following are important elements that comprise antibody-mediated immunity?

A) B cells B) cytotoxic T cells C) helper T cells D) macrophages Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Factual 42) HIV causes disease in people because it A) produces a toxin.

B) destroys helper T cells.

C) stimulates the growth of memory cells.

D) causes the loss of plasma nutrients.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Factual 43) An individual receives a flu vaccine and is well protected for the current flu season. The following flu season, the individual fails to get another flu vaccine and comes down with the flu. What is the most likely explanation for vaccine ineffectiveness in the subsequent flu season?

A) Antibiotic-resistant bacteria were able to overcome the effects of the vaccine.

B) The immune system becomes weaker when continually exposed to the same virus contained in the vaccine.

C) The flu virus mutated, leading to a new strain of virus that could escape detection by the immune system.

D) Most vaccines have a limited lifetime and eventually break down and become ineffective.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Applied 44) A vaccine is usually composed of A) macrophages that fight infection.

B) a hormone that boosts immunity.

C) inactivated disease-causing microbes.

D) antibodies that recognize invading microbes.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Factual

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45) The Sabin vaccine is a liquid containing weakened polio viruses. Vaccinated individuals become protected against polio because the weakened viruses A) prevent further viral invasion.

B) induce an inflammatory response.

C) promote production of antibodies.

D) are too weak to cause illness.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Applied 46) Mucus traps pathogens that are later coughed or sneezed away. This is an example of activity from the body's A) first line of defense.

B) second line of defense.

C) third line of defense.

D) antibody-mediated immunity.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Conceptual 47) True or false: Both first- and second-line defenses are specific defense mechanisms that are able to distinguish one pathogen from another.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Factual 48) Injecting a person with a killed-bacteria vaccine can protect that individual from a disease because the proteins of the killed bacteria A) remain in the body, and live bacteria later prey on them instead of live tissues.

B) bind with receptors in the body so that live bacteria can't bind with them later.

C) stimulate the production of antibodies, which can be utilized later in response to infection.

D) give the person a mild form of the disease, which conditions the body not to respond to later infection.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Conceptual 49) True or false: Every antigen receptor synthesized by lymphocytes is encoded by a separate gene.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Applied

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50) Molecules such as viruses and bacteria that are foreign to the host and stimulate the immune system to react are called ________.

Answer: antigens Diff: 1 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Factual 51) Developing lymphocytes are tested in the ________ to determine whether they'll bind to selfproteins.

Answer: thymus Diff: 2 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Factual 52) Both B cells and T cells make up the third line of defense against pathogens but do so in different ways. B cells A) attack and kill infected body cells.

B) make and secrete antibodies.

C) detect invaders and alert T cells.

D) present antigens to T cells.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Conceptual 53) Which of the following things happen during an autoimmune disease such as multiple sclerosis?

A) B cells are no longer able to make antibodies B) Helper T cells are no longer produced C) Infectious agents are able to hide in immune system cells D) Immune system cells attack healthy body cells Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Conceptual 54) What causes fever?

A) Macrophages release pyrogens which cause body temperature to increase.

B) Complementary proteins coat the surfaces of microbes and cause an increase in their temperature.

C) The activity of B cells and T cells causes the body to give off more heat.

D) Damaged cells release histamine which increases body temperature.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Factual

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55) Which is a part of the body's nonspecific defense mechanism? A) skin B) T cells C) B cells D) antibodies Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Factual 56) An immune system cell that binds to an antigen is called a(n) A) antibody. B) immunoglobulin. C) T cell. D) macrophage. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Factual 57) Which specific defense mechanism defends primarily against antigens in body fluids? A) cell-mediated immune system B) antibody-mediated immune system C) inflammatory response D) fever Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Applied 58) Which specific defense mechanism protects against foreign organisms that have managed to infect body cells by destroying these cells? A) cell-mediated immune system B) antibody-mediated immune system C) pyrogens D) inflammatory response Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Factual

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59) A strategy currently in clinical trials to treat Alzheimer's disease is to infuse patients with antibodies, which then target the pathological protein produced in the disease, leading to its removal. This technique, which does not require exposure to antigens, is an example of A) an autoimmune response.

B) active immunization.

C) passive immunization.

D) cell-mediated immunity.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Conceptual

60) Refer to the figure to answer the following question: A disease that prevented the continued development of lymphocytes in the bone might cause which action?

A) lead to a reduced cell-mediated response B) lead to an incomplete development of T cells C) prevent the formation of T4 cells D) lead to a reduced antibody-mediated response Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Applied 61) Which immune system protects the body from its own cancerous cells?

A) cell-mediated immune system B) antibody-mediated immune system C) enzyme immune system D) inflammatory immune system Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Factual 15 Email: richar d@qwconsultancy.com

62) Cells that directly terminate antigens are called A) suppressor T cells.

B) helper T cells.

C) cytotoxic T cells.

D) cytotoxic B cells.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Applied 63) U.S. health officials are considering different ways of preparing for a future worldwide epidemic of human influenza that could be derived from a form of the disease that infects birds (avian flu). Which of the following actions would be useful in preventing a future influenza epidemic?

A) Inject helper T cells into healthy people to boost immune systems.

B) Inoculate infected people with a vaccine against the pathogen.

C) Give antibiotics to people with mild symptoms.

D) Ask people with flu symptoms to stay at home.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Applied 64) Which of the following are not normally involved in the functioning of the immune system in humans?

A) white blood cells B) red blood cells C) lymphocytes D) B cells Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Factual 65) You suffer a bee sting that leaves a red mark and is warm as well as itchy. The best type of medication to treat this would be drugs that block the actions of A) interferons.

B) complement proteins.

C) pyrogens.

D) histamine.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Applied

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66) When individuals are first infected with HIV, early symptoms are flu-like, but when the immune system responds, people recover from these flu-like symptoms and then can become asymptomatic for as long as 10 years. However, HIV eventually wins its battle with the immune system, and individuals will eventually show symptoms of AIDS. Why does HIV eventually win its battle with the immune system? A) HIV is a latent virus and only actively reproduces when conditions are perfect. B) HIV is constantly reproducing but doesn't produce the vital toxins necessary to kill T4 cells until a certain period of time has passed. C) During the asymptomatic period, new variants of HIV arise, and antibodies produced against earlier variants don't recognize the new variants. D) The population of HIV doesn't change during the asymptomatic period, and therefore, antibodies that were produced originally against it are destroyed by the spleen. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Conceptual 67) Which of the following is a mode of transmission for the HIV virus in humans?

A) sneezing B) blood transfusion C) tears D) insect bite Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Factual 68) What can happen when a complement protein encounters an antibody-antigen complex marking a pathogen?

A) The protein can mark the pathogen for destruction by T cells.

B) The protein can destroy the pathogen.

C) The protein can coat the pathogen to inactivate it.

D) The protein can remove the antibody for use elsewhere.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Conceptual 69) A mother, father, and son live together in the same house. The mother passes a cold to her son.

The son then passes the cold to his father. If the virus has not mutated, should the mother be worried about catching the cold again from her husband?

A) No, memory cells will help the mother's immune system to quickly eliminate the virus.

B) Yes, although the mother has produced some antibodies to the cold virus, it can still overwhelm her immune system.

C) No, the T cells that are left from the previous infection can kill off any virus.

D) Yes, the immune system will treat the cold virus like a new infectious agent.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Conceptual 17 Email: r ichard@qwconsultancy.com

70) What happens during an allergic reaction?

A) Immune cells attack the body's healthy cells.

B) The body mounts an immune reaction to a harmless substance.

C) Substances that were previously harmless become pathogenic.

D) The immune system overreacts to a mild pathogen.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 19.2 Skill: Conceptual

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Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk) Chapter 20 Sex Differences and Athleticism: Endocrine, Skeletal, and Muscular Systems 1) You're treating a patient who is abnormally short and find normal blood levels of growth hormone.

Based on this evidence, you determine that A) the patient has a tumor in the pituitary gland.

B) the patient lacks a functional pituitary gland.

C) the patient lacks receptors for growth hormone.

D) the patient lacks a functional circulatory system.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 20.1 Skill: Applied

2) Consider the figure illustrating the two major classes of hormones and their actions. Which class of hormones would you expect to be ideally suited for long-term processes such as growth and development?

A) Protein hormones, because they can relay messages.

B) Steroid hormones, because they can turn specific genes on or off.

C) Protein hormones, because they cannot cross cell membranes.

D) Steroid hormones, because they can diffuse across cell membranes.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 20.1 Skill: Conceptual 3) Which of the following endocrine glands is involved in producing immune cells?

A) thyroid gland B) parathyroid glands C) thymus D) pancreas Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 20.1 Skill: Factual

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4) A skydiving instructor and student jump out of an airplane. Which one will have higher blood levels of glucocorticoids?

A) instructor B) student C) Neither will because glucocorticoid release is inhibited by high altitudes.

D) Both will have equal blood concentrations of corticosteroids.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 20.1 Skill: Applied 5) Diabetes insipidus is an inherited endocrine malfunction in which the kidneys fail to reabsorb normal amounts of water. Treatment of this disease involves replacing a missing hormone. Which of the following is the correct hormone to administer to this patient?

A) glucagon B) insulin C) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) D) prolactin Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 20.1 Skill: Applied 6) A young person suffered a head injury that damaged her pituitary. As this person got older, she and her doctors found that the only thing that was unaffected by the injury was her A) growth.

B) menstrual cycle.

C) metabolic rate.

D) blood sugar level.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 20.1 Skill: Conceptual 7) Unlike most steroid-based hormones, protein hormones will typically A) bind to receptors on the surface of target cells.

B) bind to receptors inside the target cells.

C) bind to receptors in the nucleus of target cells.

D) cause target cells to turn specific genes on and off.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 20.1 Skill: Factual

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8) Cells that respond to a particular hormone are referred to as ________ cells.

A) glandular B) target C) receptive D) endocrine Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 20.1 Skill: Factual 9) It takes much longer for sex hormones and other steroids to produce their effects than it takes nonsteroid hormones. Why? A) Steroids are bigger, slower molecules.

B) Steroids must usually be carried longer distances by the blood.

C) Steroids must relay their messages via relay molecules.

D) Steroids cause target cells to make new proteins, which takes time.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: 20.1 Skill: Conceptual 10) A patient is exhibiting symptoms that include lethargy, weight gain, and abnormal blood levels of calcium. Where does the patient potentially have a tumor?

A) pancreas B) thyroid gland C) thymus D) parathyroid glands Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 20.1 Skill: Factual 11) You have just eaten a candy bar and your blood glucose levels are rising. This will activate which organ of the endocrine system?

A) pancreas B) thyroid gland C) thymus D) parathyroid gland Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 20.1 Skill: Factual

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12) Which of the following controls the activity of all the others?

A) ovaries B) testes C) hypothalamus D) pituitary gland Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 20.1 Skill: Applied 13) An adult man lacking the hormone ________ would most likely exhibit a low sperm count and be infertile.

A) LH B) FSH C) adrenaline D) estrogen Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 20.1 Skill: Factual 14) Suddenly, you find yourself in a situation in which someone is shooting live ammunition at you.

Which of these hormones is likely to be one of the first secreted as a direct response to this situation?

A) LH B) FSH C) epinephrine D) testosterone Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 20.1 Skill: Applied 15) Which of the following is a sign of puberty occurring in males?

A) increased fat deposition B) breast development C) underarm hair growth D) widening of hips Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 20.1 Skill: Factual

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16) You are a famous endocrinologist and are presented with a case in which a genetically determined male (XY) exhibits secondary female characteristics, including breast development and lack of facial hair growth. You hypothesize that this patient may A) lack receptors for testosterone.

B) have a tumor in his testes causing an overproduction of testosterone.

C) be abusing steroids.

D) actually be perfectly healthy and normal.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: 20.1 Skill: Conceptual 17) True or false: Studies have shown that a woman's athletic performance is diminished during menstruation.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Topic: 20.1 Skill: Factual 18) True or false: In general, the first signs of puberty occur earlier in life for girls than for boys.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Topic: 20.1 Skill: Factual 19) True or false: Steroid-based hormones are able to move across cell membranes easily because they are water soluble.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Topic: 20.1 Skill: Applied 20) The ________ system is an internal system of regulation and communication involving hormones, glands, and target cells.

Answer: endocrine Diff: 1 Topic: 20.1 Skill: Factual 21) The ________ produces immune cells and is part of the lymphatic system.

Answer: thymus Diff: 1 Topic: 20.1 Skill: Factual

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22) How is it that antidiuretic hormone (ADH) only exerts its actions on a small set of cells within the kidney?

A) Only kidney cells have receptors for ADH. B) ADH does not encounter other body cells.

C) Special proteins attach to ADH to prevent its action.

D) ADH is made within the kidney, so it only acts locally.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 20.1 Skill: Conceptual 23) You (assume you are male) were told by your mom not to wear tight briefs, as this could make you sterile and infertile. What did she mean by this statement?

A) Testosterone does not act at body temperature.

B) Testosterone cannot be produced at body temperature.

C) Sperm production is reduced by excess pressure.

D) Sperm production is reduced at body temperature.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: 20.1 Skill: Conceptual 24) You're treating a patient who experienced a fracture to her appendicular skeleton. Treatment of which of the following bones is indicated?

A) skull B) vertebral column C) spine D) hip Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 20.2 Skill: Factual 25) Which of the following skeletal systems is ideally suited for organisms that live underground or float in water?

A) hydrostatic B) endoskeleton C) exoskeleton D) appendicular Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 20.2 Skill: Factual

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26) A tumor in an endocrine gland caused Jane to have weakened bones and unusually high levels of blood calcium. Which of the following was affected? A) parathyroid glands B) thyroid glands C) bone marrow D) pituitary gland Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 20.2 Skill: Applied 27) Marble bone disease is a disease in which bone increases in mass and becomes abnormally hard.

This disorder is most likely caused by the inactivity of which part of the body? A) bone marrow B) osteoblasts C) osteoclasts D) hinge joints Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 20.2 Skill: Applied

28) Refer to the figure to answer the following question: Which component of bone is responsible for producing blood cells?

A) cartilage B) marrow C) spongy bone D) compact bone Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 20.2 Skill: Factual

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29) A young athletic woman competing in the Olympics develops a pituitary tumor, which results in an excessive release of growth hormone. She experiences rapid linear growth, particularly with regards to her leg length. Which of the following sporting events would most likely be compromised as a result of this condition?

A) soccer B) balance beam C) running D) long jump Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 20.2 Skill: Applied 30) Which of the following is an important function of the skeletal system?

A) providing support for the body B) allowing communication between organs C) excreting waste substances D) utilizing energy from food Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 20.2 Skill: Factual 31) Which of the following is part of the axial skeleton?

A) skull B) legs C) arms D) hips Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 20.2 Skill: Factual 32) The joint that allows us to shake our head "no" must be a ________ joint.

A) hinge B) ball-and-socket C) pivot D) hinge and pivot Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 20.2 Skill: Applied

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33) Which is a ball-and-socket joint?

A) lower jaw with skull B) skull with first vertebra C) elbow D) shoulder Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 20.2 Skill: Conceptual 34) What might be a major disadvantage of having a ball-and-socket joint, rather than a hinge joint, in the human knee?

A) decreased strength B) decreased joint stability C) decreased joint flexibility D) decreased jumping ability Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 20.2 Skill: Applied 35) Which of the following components of bone tissue forms the hard outer shell of bones?

A) bone marrow B) compact bone C) spongy bone D) cartilage Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 20.2 Skill: Factual 36) The endocrine glands involved in calcium homeostasis are A) thyroid and parathyroid.

B) hypothalamus and pituitary.

C) thyroid and pancreas.

D) hypothalamus and adrenal gland.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 20.2 Skill: Factual

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37) What is a correct statement about the function of the hormones involved in blood calcium homeostasis?

A) Parathyroid hormone stimulates calcium deposit in bones and increases calcium uptake in the kidneys.

B) A falling blood calcium level causes the thyroid to release calcitonin.

C) Calcitonin acts to lower blood calcium levels, and parathyroid hormone acts to raise blood calcium.

D) Both parathyroid hormone and calcitonin act to raise blood calcium levels.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 20.2 Skill: Applied 38) Men bring more power to activities than women because A) men have a greater center of balance.

B) men have longer legs and arms and therefore can generate more force.

C) men have shorter legs than woman.

D) men have a higher center of gravity.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 20.2 Skill: Applied 39) Which of the following represents bones that do not differ between males and females of similar sizes?

A) mandible B) temporal bones C) vertebral column D) frontal bone Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 20.2 Skill: Factual 40) True or false: Because women have a broader pelvis, their Q angle is smaller than the Q angle in men.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Topic: 20.2 Skill: Applied 41) True or false: Because of generally larger Q angles, women may be more susceptible to knee injuries than men.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Topic: 20.2 Skill: Applied

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42) True or false: From infancy to adulthood, a large proportion of human growth occurs in the extremities as compared to the torso.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Topic: 20.2 Skill: Factual 43) A human's soft internal organs are protected by the ________ skeleton.

Answer: axial Diff: 1 Topic: 20.2 Skill: Factual 44) While ________ are involved in bone deposition, ________ are involved in the breakdown of bone tissue.

Answer: Diff: 2 Topic: 20.2 osteoblasts, osteoclasts Skill: Factual 45) Why are women more proficient than men on the balance beam apparatus used in gymnastics?

A) Women have a higher center of gravity because their legs are long relative to their torsos.

B) Women have a lower center of gravity because their arms are long relative to their legs.

C) Women have a higher center of gravity because their arms are long relative to their torsos.

D) Women have a lower center of gravity because their torsos are long relative to leg length.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 20.2 Skill: Applied

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46) Label the parts of the human skeleton.

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Answer:

Diff: 2 Topic: 20.2 Skill: Factual 47) Earthworms and sea anemones do not have bones. They move by the actions of muscles on a fluidfilled compartment. This system is called a(n) A) endoskeleton.

B) hydrostatic skeleton.

C) circular skeleton.

D) longitudinal skeleton.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 20.2 Skill: Factual

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48) Which of the major types of muscle in humans has a primary function in movement?

A) smooth B) cardiac C) skeletal D) endothelial Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 20.3 Skill: Factual 49) A pitcher throws a baseball by lowering the forearm to straighten the arm. During this movement, the biceps muscle ________ and the triceps muscle ________.

A) contracts; relaxes B) relaxes; contracts C) relaxes; relaxes D) contracts; contracts Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 20.3 Skill: Factual 50) A person who excels at weight lifting but does NOT do well at running marathons probably has leg muscles containing a large percentage of ________ fibers.

A) slow-twitch B) fast-twitch C) intermediate D) high-density Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 20.3 Skill: Applied 51) Which of the following statements best describes the way that a sarcomere shortens using the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction?

A) Actin and myosin filaments shorten and slide past each other.

B) As they slide past each other, actin filaments shorten, while myosin filaments do not shorten.

C) Actin and myosin filaments do not shorten, but they do slide past each other.

D) As they slide past each other, myosin filaments shorten, while actin filaments do not shorten.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 20.3 Skill: Applied

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52) The striated appearance of skeletal muscle is due to the A) dark color of myosin.

B) dense array of microtubules.

C) dense packing of ATP molecules.

D) regular arrangement of myofibrils.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 20.3 Skill: Applied 53) True or false: The larger muscle fibers found in males account for the fact that males tend to be, on average, stronger than females.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Topic: 20.3 Skill: Applied 54) Which of the following types of muscle in humans is involved in voluntary body movements?

A) skeletal B) cardiac C) smooth D) endothelial Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 20.3 Skill: Factual 55) Arm and leg muscles are arranged in antagonistic pairs. How does this affect their functioning?

A) It provides a backup if one of the muscles is injured.

B) One muscle of the pair pushes while the other pulls.

C) It allows the muscles to produce opposing movements.

D) It allows one group of muscles to be composed of fast-twitch fibers and the other to have slow-twitch fibers.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 20.3 Skill: Applied 56) Which muscle component is smallest?

A) myofibril B) myosin filament C) sarcomere D) muscle fiber Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 20.3 Skill: Factual

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57) The myofibrils of skeletal muscle are organized into units called A) A discs.

B) sarcomeres.

C) Z discs.

D) antagonistic pairs.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 20.3 Skill: Factual 58) Without the protein myosin, a muscle would lack A) ribosomes.

B) mitochondria.

C) thin filaments.

D) thick filaments.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 20.3 Skill: Factual 59) Muscle contraction occurs when a sarcomere A) shortens.

B) lengthens.

C) remains the same.

D) lengthens then shortens.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 20.3 Skill: Factual 60) In general, males have a greater muscle mass than females because they produce greater quantities of A) adrenaline.

B) testosterone.

C) estrogen.

D) growth hormone.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 20.3 Skill: Factual

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61) When a person dies, muscles become rigid and fixed in position. This is a condition known as rigor mortis. Rigor mortis occurs because A) ATP is not available to release myosin heads from actin filaments.

B) muscle fibers break down quickly in the absence of oxygen.

C) ATP is not available to cause sarcomeres to shorten.

D) the human skeletal system locks together after death.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: 20.3 Skill: Conceptual 62) Studies have demonstrated that in some cases, female marathon runners don't exhibit a normal menstrual cycle. This could be explained by the fact that such women A) have too much body fat.

B) have low levels of growth hormone.

C) release too much testosterone.

D) do not have enough body fat.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: 20.4 Skill: Conceptual 63) Due to body fat differences, which of the following sports gives women an advantage over men?

A) soccer B) hurdles C) swimming D) weight lifting Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 20.4 Skill: Applied 64) When working out with his wife, Ed has noticed he has to drink much more Gatorade than his wife does following their workouts. This could be explained by the fact that during exercise, females A) utilize glucose more efficiently than males.

B) utilize more fat to produce energy than males.

C) effectively increase their glucose metabolism during exercise compared to males.

D) store more body sugars than males.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 20.4 Skill: Conceptual

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65) Which of the following statements could account for the reason males may have an advantage over females when it comes to events requiring a high level of intensity over a short-time period?

A) Women have smaller hearts than men.

B) Men are generally taller than women.

C) Men have higher blood pressure than women.

D) Women have a greater percentage of body fat than men.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 20.4 Skill: Factual 66) When studying the differences between various human groups, it's often found that the differences within a group (individual-based) are ________ the differences between two groups (group-based).

A) less than B) greater than C) the same as D) negligible to Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 20.4 Skill: Factual 67) True or false: Studies have shown that in addition to the physiological benefits of exercising, an additive benefit may be decreased anxiety and depression.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Topic: 20.4 Skill: Factual 68) Mary is a long-distance runner and trains regularly. Recently, Mary and her husband have unsuccessfully tried to conceive a child. To improve her chances of getting pregnant, her doctor suggests she should stop training because excessive exercise may A) lengthen the menstruation cycle.

B) cause menstruation to cease.

C) lead to excessive levels of estrogen and progesterone.

D) increase fat deposition, thereby decreasing fertility.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 20.4 Skill: Applied

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69) Teri brings her husband, Liam, with her to the gym and signs them both up for a one-hour aerobics class. After 20 minutes, Liam is visibly fatigued, even though he is a regular at the gym, lifting weights and playing basketball. What might explain why he is fatigued while his wife, although working hard, is not struggling?

A) Females use more fat for energy and endurance exercises.

B) Males have very little fat from which to obtain energy during endurance exercises.

C) Males are better at team sports than at individual exercise programs.

D) Teri's husband must not have eaten before coming to the gym.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: 20.4 Skill: Applied 70) Beth has trained extensively to get ready for a big swimming event. She has developed her muscle mass to increase her strength so she can surpass those male competitors who have longer arms and legs than she does. To keep those muscles working in top form, she must supply them with enough oxygen to help them produce energy. Why does Beth have an additional physical obstacle to overcome before she can beat her male competitors?

A) Her heart and lungs are most likely smaller than her male competitors' and have to work harder.

B) Beth's athletic ability changes with her menstrual cycle.

C) No matter what Beth does, she will always be physically inferior to men.

D) If the swim event is an endurance race, her fat metabolism differences put her at a disadvantage.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: 20.4 Skill: Applied 71) If healthy men have a range of body fat from 3-29% and healthy women have a range of body fat from 12-32%, what would you predict for the sex of an individual having 20% body fat?

A) The individual is male.

B) The individual is female.

C) The individual's sex can't be predicted from body fat percentage.

D) No one has 20% body fat.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 20.4 Skill: Applied 72) True or false: To truly understand the whole story of athleticism and gender, one must consider cultural factors.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Topic: 20.4 Skill: Applied

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73) True or false: Studies have shown that children of both sexes who participate in sports are less likely to drop out of high school, smoke, or drink.

Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Topic: 20.4 Skill: Factual

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Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk) Chapter 21 Is There Something in the Water?

Reproductive and Developmental Biology 1) Asexual reproduction A) requires the genetic contributions of two individuals. B) requires two types of sex cells. C) results in offspring that are clones of the parent. D) results in fertilization. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 21.1 Skill: Factual 2) The form of reproduction used by E. coli, a type of bacteria found in your digestive tract, is A) budding.

B) vegetative reproduction. C) binary fission. D) meiosis. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 21.1 Skill: Conceptual 3) A stand of aspen trees on a mountainside in Colorado is composed of genetic clones of a parent tree. Each new tree emerges from a root stock of the parent tree. This type of reproduction is referred to as A) vegetative reproduction. B) budding. C) fission. D) sexual reproduction. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 21.1 Skill: Conceptual 4) Which of the following reproductive processes will result in genetically unique individuals? A) budding B) sexual reproduction C) vegetative reproduction D) binary fission Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 21.1 Skill: Factual

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5) If a diploid cell with 18 chromosomes undergoes meiosis, the resulting gametes will each have ________ chromosomes.

A) 18 B) 16 C) 9 D) 36 Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 21.1 Skill: Applied 6) One type of cell that contains half the genetic information of an individual is a A) zygote.

B) gonad.

C) sperm.

D) fertilized egg.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 21.1 Skill: Conceptual 7) A zygote is A) haploid.

B) diploid.

C) 2n.

D) 4n.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 21.1 Skill: Conceptual 8) An animal that can both donate and receive sperm A) reproduces asexually.

B) has only male gonads.

C) is called a hermaphrodite.

D) undergoes copulation.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 21.1 Skill: Factual 9) A human skin cell is ________, while a human sperm cell is ________.

A) diploid; haploid B) haploid; diploid C) diploid; diploid D) 1n; 2n Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 21.1 Skill: Factual 2 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

10) Atrazine is a widely-used pesticide hypothesized to be an endocrine disruptor that results in A) increased metabolism in animals. B) the conversion of testosterone into estrogen. C) the masculinization of female ovaries. D) the loss of all sexual organs in frogs. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 21.1 Skill: Factual 11) The most successful gamete production strategies observed in nature consist of A) 100% small gametes and 0% large gametes.

B) 100% large gametes and 0% small gametes.

C) 50% small gametes and 50% large gametes.

D) 75% large gametes and 25% small gametes.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 21.1 Skill: Applied 12) Most fish use ________ as a means of reproduction.

A) copulation B) external fertilization C) internal fertilization D) binary fission Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 21.1 Skill: Factual 13) You perform an experiment whereby you place a compound into a pond, and after some time, you find that increased numbers of "masculinized" females from all species of fish. You correctly predict this compound A) must have a similar structure to that of estrogen.

B) may activate the enzyme aromatase.

C) binds to and activates estrogen receptors.

D) may be structurally similar to testosterone.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: 21.1 Skill: Conceptual

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14) You have identified a new single-celled organism in the laboratory and have observed that new daughter cells remain attached to the parent and then break away. You correctly hypothesize that this new organism reproduces by A) budding.

B) binary fission.

C) copulation.

D) external fertilization.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 21.1 Skill: Applied 15) True or false: Hermaphrodites are organisms that are genetically male but physically resemble both males and females.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Topic: 21.1 Skill: Factual 16) One disadvantage of asexual reproduction is A) there's no need to find a partner to reproduce.

B) organisms that are isolated from other organisms can use this method of reproduction.

C) there's not much ability to adapt to environmental change.

D) organisms that don't move can use this method of reproduction.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 21.1 Skill: Applied 17) The ________ system allows survival of different species.

Answer: reproductive Diff: 2 Topic: 21.1 Skill: Conceptual 18) The primary female reproductive organs are the ________, which are responsible for producing egg cells.

Answer: ovaries Diff: 1 Topic: 21.1 Skill: Factual

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19) Sperm production takes place in the A) seminiferous tubules. B) Leydig cells. C) epididymis. D) vas deferens. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Factual 20) In a vasectomy, the vas deferens is cut and tied to block the release of ________ during ejaculation.

A) semen B) testosterone C) sperm D) nutritional secretions for sperm Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Conceptual 21) What structures inside the human penis are responsible for an erection?

A) columns of erectile tissue that fill with blood B) a series of small bones that push out of the pelvic cavity and into the penis during arousal C) small balloon-like glands that fill with air D) one large bone that pushes out of the pelvic cavity and into the penis during arousal Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Applied 22) The pathway of sperm from production to ejaculation is A) seminiferous tubules, epididymis, vas deferens, urethra.

B) epididymis, vas deferens, urethra, seminiferous tubules.

C) epididymis, urethra, seminiferous tubules, vas deferens.

D) epididymis, seminiferous tubules, vas deferens, urethra.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Factual 23) The hormone-producing cells of the male reproductive tract are A) in the seminal vesicles.

B) the Leydig cells.

C) in the bulbourethral glands.

D) in the prostate gland.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Factual

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24) In males, the urethra A) provides passage from the body for sperm. B) produces sugars that sperm use for energy. C) contains the testes. D) fills with blood during sexual arousal. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Factual 25) Why are the testicles kept outside of the body?

A) They lower the temperature for sperm production.

B) The testicles cushion the penis and stop it from hanging too low.

C) There's no reason for this.

D) Earlier in human evolution, visible testicles helped males to sexually attract females.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Factual 26) A disease of the bulbourethral glands could lead to A) insufficient levels of sugar available for sperm to use for energy.

B) semen lacking any sperm.

C) damaged sperm due to exposure to acidic urine.

D) semen lacking the thin, milky white fluid.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Conceptual 27) The three structures that add secretions to the sperm to make up semen are the A) seminal vesicles, Leydig cells, and prostate gland.

B) prostate gland, seminal vesicles, and seminiferous tubules.

C) bulbourethral glands, Leydig cells, and seminal vesicles.

D) seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and bulbourethral gland.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Factual 28) The process of sperm formation takes approximately A) 24 hours.

B) 20 days.

C) 60 days.

D) 6 months.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Factual

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29) Eggs mature and are released from the A) oviduct. B) uterus. C) vagina. D) follicle. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Factual 30) Estrogen and progesterone are produced by the A) endometrium.

B) uterus.

C) corpus luteum.

D) oviduct.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Factual 31) Eggs first develop in a woman A) prior to birth.

B) at puberty.

C) throughout her lifetime.

D) every 60 days.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Factual 32) The passage of an unfertilized egg from production to leaving the body is A) ovary, oviduct, uterus, and vagina.

B) oviduct, uterus, vagina, and ovary.

C) uterus, vagina, ovary, and oviduct.

D) vagina, ovary, oviduct, and uterus.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Factual

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33) Some women suffer from severe cramps during their menstrual cycles, requiring medical attention. This is a condition called dysmenorrhea. Based on your knowledge of the female reproductive tract, which of the following structures is the most likely cause of this condition? A) vagina B) cervix C) uterus D) labia majora Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Conceptual 34) The shedding of the endometrium occurs during A) menstruation.

B) intercourse.

C) ovulation.

D) fertilization.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Factual 35) A woman is more likely to experience bladder infections than a man because A) the urethra and vagina are separate openings into the body.

B) the urethra is shorter in a woman than in a man.

C) the urethra is longer in a woman than in a man.

D) the acidity of the urine makes women more susceptible to infections.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Factual 36) Infertility is defined as A) the inability to conceive after one month of unprotected sex.

B) the inability to conceive after one year of unprotected sex.

C) the inability to conceive after five years of unprotected sex.

D) the inability to conceive after one attempt of unprotected sex.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Factual

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37) The drug diethylstylbestrol, or DES, mimics estrogen and interferes with the development of the fetal uterus. This drug is considered to be A) a hormone. B) as good as estrogen. C) an endocrine disruptor. D) a good form of birth control. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Factual 38) The process of gametogenesis A) results in diploid gametes.

B) results in human sperm with 46 chromosomes.

C) allows fertilization to result in a cell with the correct number of chromosomes for that species.

D) only occurs in males.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Conceptual 39) Fertilization takes place in the A) uterus.

B) ovary.

C) oviduct.

D) cervix.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Factual 40) Ovulation A) is the process in males that produces sperm.

B) occurs on the first day of the menstrual cycle.

C) results in the release of a mature egg.

D) occurs in the oviducts.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Conceptual 41) The corpus luteum produces and releases ________ following ovulation.

A) FSH and LH B) estrogen C) progesterone D) both estrogen and progesterone Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Factual

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42) Which place should you choose to avoid living in if you were concerned about male infertility and low sperm count?

A) a farm in North Dakota B) Los Angeles C) Boston D) Miami Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Applied 43) The hormones that function in both the male and female reproductive systems are A) estrogen and progesterone.

B) gonadotropin-releasing hormones and progesterone.

C) luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone.

D) luteinizing hormone and progesterone.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Factual 44) The hormone that is detected in a pregnancy test is A) human chorionic gonadotropin hormone made by the early embryo.

B) progesterone made by the corpus luteum.

C) luteinizing hormone made by the pituitary.

D) estrogen made by the ovary.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Factual 45) Which of these methods of birth control prevents follicle development?

A) diaphragm B) birth control pill C) female condom D) intrauterine device Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Factual 46) True or false: All sexually transmitted diseases have symptoms.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Conceptual

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47) True or false: All sexually transmitted diseases can be cured if medical treatment is sought early enough.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Conceptual 48) True or false: The major cause of infertility in males occurs as a result of physical blockages or obstructions to the ducts that sperm pass through.

Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Factual 49) When does spermatogenesis first occur in males?

A) in the womb B) at birth C) during childhood D) at puberty Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Conceptual 50) What is the function of the midpiece on a sperm cell?

A) to contain the haploid nucleus B) to propel the sperm forward C) to aid the sperm's penetration of the egg D) to provide energy for movement Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Conceptual 51) What is the final product after a primary oocyte goes through meiosis?

A) four secondary oocytes B) three secondary oocytes and one polar body C) two secondary oocytes and polar bodies D) one secondary oocyte and polar bodies Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Conceptual

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52) Which of the following conception control methods is most effective? A) diaphragm B) condom C) minipill D) vaginal ring Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Factual 53) A surge in which of the following hormones is responsible for ovulation? A) estrogen B) FSH C) LH D) progesterone Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Applied 54) During the menstrual cycle, what is the main source of progesterone in females? A) placenta B) pituitary gland C) developing follicle D) corpus luteum Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Applied

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55) In the graph depicting the levels of various hormones, what event would prevent the decline in estrogen and progesterone seen toward the end of the 28-day menstrual cycle?

A) a subsequent ovulation event B) the maturation of another follicle C) fertilization D) degeneration of the corpus luteum Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Conceptual

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56) Label the external and internal components of the male reproductive system.

Answer:

Diff: 3 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Factual

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57) Label the parts of the female reproductive anatomy.

Answer:

Diff: 3 Topic: 21.2 Skill: Factual

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58) Which of the following decreases the probability that fertilization will take place?

A) Cervical mucus is less viscous and thinner following ovulation.

B) The oviducts contract during ovulation.

C) Enzymes are present within the acrosome of sperm.

D) The upper vagina is an acidic environment.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 21.3 Skill: Conceptual 59) The zona pellucida A) allows quick passage of the egg down the oviduct.

B) bathes the egg in estrogen.

C) is another term for the fertilized egg.

D) acts as a binding site for the sperm head.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 21.3 Skill: Factual 60) The tissue in the gastrula that gives rise to muscle is the A) ectoderm.

B) mesoderm.

C) gaendoderm.

D) gastrula.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 21.3 Skill: Factual 61) The hormone responsible for milk production and secretion during and after pregnancy is A) prolactin.

B) estrogen.

C) progesterone.

D) human chorionic gonadotropin.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 21.3 Skill: Factual 62) During labor, oxytocin stimulates the uterus to contract, and these contractions stimulate the release of more oxytocin in a ________ feedback mechanism, resulting in ever stronger contractions.

Answer: positive Diff: 1 Topic: 21.3 Skill: Factual

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63) The process of ________ occurs in cells that become more specialized in their function.

A) cleavage B) gastrulation C) differentiation D) fertilization Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 21.3 Skill: Factual 64) The three layers of tissue that form the ________ are the endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm.

A) zygote B) blastocyst C) gastrula D) fetus Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 21.3 Skill: Factual 65) Which of the following is mismatched?

A) mesoderm → muscles B) endoderm → lungs C) ectoderm → nervous system D) mesoderm → eye Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 21.3 Skill: Applied 66) The presence or absence of ________ is critical in determining the development of either male or female reproductive structures in an embryo.

A) androgens B) estrogen C) gonadotropin-releasing hormone D) progesterone Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 21.3 Skill: Conceptual

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67) Jane is a 20-year-old individual who externally resembles a female but who is actually genetically a male (XY). Based on your knowledge of human development, how could this be possible?

A) Although Jane is genetically a male, she has produced an abnormal amount of estrogen since birth.

B) During development, Jane's body produced an excessive amount of testosterone, leading to the development of female external genitalia.

C) Jane's embryonic gonads did not produce androgens, or they lacked functional testosterone receptors.

D) Due to a genetic defect, Jane lacks sufficient aromatase activity, the enzyme that converts testosterone into estrogen.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 21.3 Skill: Applied 68) Exposure to which of the following chemicals is correlated with low-birth weight and premature birth?

A) the plasticizer DEHP B) bisphenol A (BPA) C) synthetic estrogen (DES) D) polychlorinated biphenols (PCBs) Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 21.3 Skill: Applied 69) A common practice during delivery of a baby is to induce labor by giving pregnant women A) estrogen.

B) progesterone.

C) oxytocin.

D) prolactin.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 21.3 Skill: Applied 70) Laboratory studies have shown that endocrine disruptors A) decrease the ability of human sperm to fertilize eggs.

B) cause human birth defects.

C) cause reproductive problems in nonhuman animals.

D) cause endometriosis in women.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 21.4 Skill: Conceptual

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71) The evidence that endocrine disruptors in the water supply can cause human reproductive problems is A) correlative.

B) definitive.

C) statistically significant.

D) entirely absent.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 21.4 Skill: Factual

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Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk) Chapter 22 Attention Deficit Disorder: Brain Structure and Function 1) Which of the following are specialized cells that receive and respond to stimuli?

A) effectors B) neurotransmitters C) neurons D) nerve impulses Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 22.1 Skill: Factual 2) Which of the following is a general sense?

A) pressure B) smell C) hearing D) vision Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 22.1 Skill: Factual 3) Which of the following is a special sense?

A) temperature B) pain C) touch D) taste Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 22.1 Skill: Factual 4) The basic functional units of the nervous system are A) muscle fibers.

B) heart cells.

C) neurons.

D) fibroblasts.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 22.1 Skill: Factual

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5) Of the following general categories of neurons, which carry information to the CNS? A) inhibitory neurons B) sensory neurons C) motor neurons D) interneurons Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 22.1 Skill: Factual 6) The sudden withdrawal of one's hand from a hot stove is an example of A) learning.

B) common sense.

C) an instinct.

D) a reflex.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 22.1 Skill: Factual 7) What are sensory receptors?

A) cells that create action potentials and thresholds B) localized areas of the CNS C) chemicals that cross a synapse between two nerve cells D) specialized neurons for detecting the world around you Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 22.1 Skill: Applied 8) Which of the following are parts of the central nervous system?

A) sensory neurons B) interneurons C) motor neurons D) effectors Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 22.1 Skill: Factual 9) What is a nerve?

A) a bundle of neurons B) a chain of neurons C) a sensory synapse D) a series of impulses Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 22.1 Skill: Factual

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10) The expression "knee-jerk reaction" refers to someone doing something automatically without thinking. In biological terms, which of the following statements is true regarding this expression? A) In the nervous system, this expression implies the involvement of higher brain regions before executing a spinal reflex. B) In the nervous system, this expression implies the lack of brain input when executing a spinal reflex. C) This expression implies that the knee-jerk reaction will be shortened in duration following input from higher brain regions. D) This expression implies that only children exhibit this type of unthinking behavior. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 22.1 Skill: Conceptual 11) Arrange the following neurons into the correct sequence for information flow during the withdrawal reflex following touching a hot burner on a stove.

A) interneuron, motor neuron, sensory neuron B) motor neuron, sensory neuron, interneuron C) sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron D) motor neuron, interneuron, sensory neuron Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 22.1 Skill: Applied 12) Which of the following would allow you to move your hand away from a hot burner after touching it?

A) sensory neuron B) interneuron C) motor neuron D) glial cell Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 22.1 Skill: Factual 13) The network of nerves that radiates out from the brain and the spinal cord is part of A) the central nervous system.

B) interneurons.

C) the peripheral nervous system.

D) neurotransmitters.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 22.1 Skill: Factual

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14) A disease that led to the degeneration and death of nerves composed of the peripheral nervous system would lead to which the following symptoms?

A) inability to memorize names and faces B) severe dementia (loss of intellectual capacity) C) impaired vision D) loss of voluntary muscle control Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: 22.1 Skill: Conceptual 15) Which of the following would be classified as effectors?

A) sensory neurons B) interneurons C) body tissues D) neurotransmitters Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 22.1 Skill: Factual 16) What is proprioception?

A) the sense of pressure on the body B) the sense of the position of the body C) the sense of smell D) the sense of the body's temperature Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 22.1 Skill: Factual 17) The spinal cord and brain compose the ________.

Answer: central nervous system Diff: 1 Topic: 22.1 Skill: Factual 18) Where are the sensory receptors for equilibrium located?

A) on the surface of the skin B) in the inner ear C) in the joints D) in the retina of the eye Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 22.1 Skill: Factual

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19) Refer to the diagram to answer the following question: A blow to the ________ of the head could lead to loss of vision.

A) front B) top C) back D) side Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 22.2 Skill: Applied 20) It's known that teenagers and young adults are impulsive in nature, take unnecessary risks, and are, therefore, more susceptible to drug addiction. Scientists hypothesize that the reason for this could be the fact that the ________ lobe doesn't fully develop until the early twenties.

A) temporal B) occipital C) parietal D) frontal Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: 22.2 Skill: Conceptual 21) Scientists have known for centuries that we "speak" with the left hemisphere of the brain. You perform an experiment in which your subject was presented with an apple only to the left visual field.

When asked to identify what he saw, the subject denied seeing anything. However, when asked to point to the correct object, he was able to see and identify the apple. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this deficit?

A) The subject has a brain lesion in the frontal lobes.

B) The subject suffered head trauma to the back of his head.

C) The subject has a tumor in the left parietal lobe.

D) The subject had his corpus callosum severed to control epileptic seizures.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: 22.2 Skill: Applied

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22) Glial cells A) carry messages.

B) protect and cushion the brain.

C) support neurons by supplying nutrients.

D) move waste products out of the brain.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 22.2 Skill: Factual 23) The visual centers are located in the A) temporal lobes of the cerebral cortex.

B) occipital lobes of the cerebral cortex.

C) frontal lobes of the cerebral cortex.

D) parietal lobes of the cerebral cortex.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 22.2 Skill: Factual 24) Which part of the brain is responsible for controlling muscle movement, balance, and coordination?

A) cerebellum B) thalamus C) hypothalamus D) cerebrum Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 22.2 Skill: Factual 25) Following a medical examination, an individual discovers that she has a large tumor located in the area of the brain known as the reticular formation, located in the lower part of the brain stem. This person would most likely suffer from which of the following symptoms as a consequence?

A) difficulty swallowing and breathing B) inability to feel pain C) inability to maintain balance D) difficulty concentrating in a noisy room Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 22.2 Skill: Applied

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26) Higher brain functions, such as creativity and analytical skills, are centered in the A) corpus callosum.

B) hypothalamus.

C) spinal cord.

D) cerebrum.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 22.2 Skill: Factual 27) Damage to which of the following brain structures is most likely to be fatal?

A) caudate nuclei B) cerebellum C) brain stem D) cerebrum Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 22.2 Skill: Applied 28) Which word best describes the hypothalamus?

A) processor B) reflexor C) regulator D) transmitter Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 22.2 Skill: Conceptual 29) Which word best describes the thalamus?

A) processor B) reflexor C) regulator D) transmitter Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: 22.2 Skill: Conceptual 30) What part of the brain is highly developed in animals that have finely tuned balance and complex coordination?

A) cerebellum B) medulla C) thalamus D) temporal lobe Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 22.2 Skill: Applied 7 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

31) Huntington's disease is a fatal disorder characterized by abnormal muscle movements called chorea. Based on your knowledge of the nervous system, which brain region below represents the area of the brain disrupted by Huntington's disease? A) thalamus B) midbrain C) caudate nucleus D) corpus callosum Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 22.2 Skill: Applied 32) A person you know has been in an automobile accident. After the accident, you notice a dramatic personality change. Before the accident, he was industrious and well liked; after the accident, he is profane, impetuous, and incapable of working toward a goal. Which portion of the brain was most likely damaged?

A) occipital lobe B) temporal lobe C) frontal lobe D) parietal lobe Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 22.2 Skill: Applied 33) Neurobiologists have detected which of the following differences in the brains of people with ADD? A) increased folding in the cerebral cortex B) enlarged caudate nucleus in the left hemisphere C) enlarged cerebellum D) decreased volume of the cerebral cortex Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 22.2 Skill: Conceptual 34) What does the corpus callosum connect?

A) cerebellum and spinal cord B) right and left cerebral hemispheres C) pituitary and the hypothalamus D) gray and white matter of the spinal cord Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 22.2 Skill: Factual

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35) The part of the neuron that receives nerve impulses and acts as an "antenna" is called the A) axon.

B) cell body.

C) dendrite.

D) nerve.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Factual 36) Why is it important that you take care of your neurons?

A) They are able to divide rapidly and can be turned into cancer cells.

B) They only undergo mitosis after the brain has obtained enough sleep.

C) They are unable to divide by mitosis.

D) They are very susceptible to mutations of their DNA. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Applied 37) Decreased myelination of an axon would ________ the speed at which the electrochemical impulse travels down the axon.

A) decrease B) increase C) maximize D) have no effect on Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Factual 38) Which of the following best describes the movement of a nerve impulse?

A) the change in the magnetic field along a neuron B) the passage of ions through the membrane of a neuron C) the movement of tiny filaments inside a neuron D) the change in a neuron so that the inside becomes more negatively charged Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Applied

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39) ________ occurs when potassium ions diffuse out of a nerve cell and the inside of the cell again becomes more negative than the outside.

A) Depolarization B) Polarization C) Repolarization D) Threshold Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Factual 40) When a neuron is at rest, what maintains the high concentration gradients of potassium ions inside the cell and sodium ions outside the cell?

A) diffusion B) osmosis C) active transport D) ion channels Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Applied 41) The part of the neuron that houses the nucleus is the A) axon.

B) cell body.

C) dendrite.

D) nerve.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Factual 42) An individual has been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS), which is a disease that leads to deterioration of the myelin sheath that covers some neurons. What is a likely physical symptom of this disease?

A) inability to control muscle movements B) progressive memory loss C) feeling of euphoria D) inability to concentrate in chaotic situations Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Applied

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43) The impulse that travels down a neuron's axon is called a(n) A) shock signal. B) action potential. C) currenter. D) resistor. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Factual 44) When a neuron is at rest before an action potential, A) the membrane is depolarized.

B) membrane ion channels are open.

C) potassium is diffusing out of the cell.

D) the inside of the neuron is negative relative to just outside the neuron.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Factual 45) Polarization refers to the A) electrical signal generated by neurons.

B) lack of concentration gradient for sodium.

C) decrease in charge difference across a membrane.

D) difference in charge across a membrane.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Applied 46) Action potential begins when which of the following occurs?

A) the inside of the neuron becomes more negative relative to the outside B) sodium channels open sequentially C) the membrane becomes depolarized D) potassium ions diffuse to allow repolarization of the cell Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Applied 47) A drug that caused sodium to leak into a neuron would A) cause the outside of the neuron to become more positive.

B) trigger an action potential in the neuron.

C) cause the inside of the neuron to become more negative.

D) cause potassium to move into the neuron as well.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Applied

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48) A nerve poison that blocked neurotransmitter receptors on the dendrites would A) cause continued stimulation of the membrane of the receiving neuron.

B) prevent transmission across the synaptic cleft.

C) inhibit the regeneration of neurotransmitter for use by the synaptic knobs.

D) inactivate the enzyme that degrades the neurotransmitter.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Applied 49) A drug called ouabain specifically inhibits the sodium-potassium pump present in neuron cells. Over time, this action of ouabain would cause A) the inside of the neuron to become more negative.

B) repolarization.

C) elimination of a concentration gradient.

D) more potassium to be transported into the neuron.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Applied 50) You suspect that your roommate may be abusing drugs. He exhibits the following symptoms: aggressiveness, bursts of extreme energy followed by "crash" periods, and delusions. Which of the following drugs may be responsible?

A) amphetamines B) LSD C) marijuana D) heroin Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Applied 51) Which of the following drugs, when taken by an adult, will produce similar symptoms as the symptoms of a child with ADD? A) alcohol B) ecstasy C) marijuana D) nicotine Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Applied

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52) During synaptic transmission across a typical synapse, which of the following occurs?

A) sodium ions flow into the membrane of the presynaptic neuron B) the binding of neurotransmitters triggers the release of potassium ions by the presynaptic neuron C) vesicles containing neurotransmitter molecules diffuse to the receiving neuron's plasma membrane D) neurotransmitter molecules bind to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Factual 53) Prozac is used as an antidepressant and acts by inhibiting the reuptake of which of the following neurotransmitters in neuronal synapses?

A) dopamine B) serotonin C) acetylcholine D) glutamate Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Factual 54) Ritalin, like cocaine and amphetamines, acts by increasing the concentration of which of the following neurotransmitters in neuronal synapses?

A) dopamine B) serotonin C) acetylcholine D) GABA Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Factual 55) Which of the following causes the release of neurotransmitter molecules?

A) the reception of a signal from the postsynaptic neuron B) an electrical signal reaching the end of the cell body C) an electrical signal reaching the terminal bouton D) an electrical signal reaching the beginning of the dendrite Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Factual

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56) Refer to the figure for the following question: Drug addiction is characterized by tolerance, in which the user must ingest more of the drug to obtain the same effect. Cellularly, tolerance can be explained by the fact that prolonged use of a drug such as cocaine leads to ________ in the number of receptor proteins present in the postsynaptic neuron.

A) an increase B) a decrease C) no change D) a regulation Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Conceptual 57) Which of the following neurotransmitters is a target for therapeutic treatment in Alzheimer's disease?

A) dopamine B) serotonin C) acetylcholine D) glutamate Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Factual 58) Which of the following provides a connection between two neurons?

A) a synapse B) a cell body C) an axon D) dendrites Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Factual

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59) Neurotransmitters are released by A) terminal boutons. B) the cell body. C) dendrites. D) myelin sheaths. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Factual 60) Where in the nerve pathway do drugs have their primary effect? A) axons B) dendrites C) synapses D) myelin sheaths Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Factual 61) What substances in the body are most closely associated with a drug's influence on the nervous system? A) endorphins B) sodium and potassium ions C) neurotransmitters D) proteins Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Applied 62) True or false: Recent studies indicate that about 15% of college students use Ritalin to improve learning and the ability to focus for exams. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Factual 63) True or false: Electrical signals travel faster down unmyelinated axons than myelinated axons. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Conceptual

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64) Abnormal levels of the neurotransmitter ________ may be involved in producing the symptoms of ADD. A) acetylcholine B) dopamine C) serotonin D) GABA Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Factual 65) The loss of dopamine leading to motor symptoms, including tremors, rigidity, and slowed movements, is thought to underlie A) Alzheimer's disease.

B) Huntington's disease.

C) Parkinson's disease.

D) depression.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Factual 66) Which of the following neurotransmitters is involved in both Parkinson's disease and ADD? A) acetylcholine B) dopamine C) serotonin D) GABA Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Factual 67) Which of the following disorders is characterized by mental deterioration and loss of bodily functions?

A) Parkinson's disease B) Alzheimer's disease C) attention deficit disorder (ADD) D) depression Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Factual

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68) The function of which of the following household appliances accurately describes the removal of neurotransmitters from the synapse?

A) blender B) toaster C) vacuum cleaner D) coffee grinder Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Applied 69) Which of the following is directly associated with synaptic transmission?

A) axon B) vesicles C) nodes of Ranvier D) cell body Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 22.3 Skill: Conceptual

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Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk) Chapter 23 Feeding the World: Plant Structure and Growth 1) When did humans begin the practice of agriculture? A) 400,000 years ago B) 240,000 years ago C) 11,000 years ago D) 2000 years ago Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Factual 2) Almost all agricultural plants are classified as A) angiosperms. B) gymnosperms.

C) legumes. D) dicots. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Factual 3) Which of these is evidence that has allowed scientists to deduce the climate conditions that existed thousands of years ago?

A) plant remains trapped in sediments B) fossilized fruits and seeds C) DNA in crop plants D) deep layers in soils Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Conceptual 4) Plants that grow from a seed and produce new seeds within the course of one year are classified as A) monocots. B) dicots.

C) annuals. D) perennials. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Factual

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5) What types of plants are in the class known as monocots and the family Poaceae?

A) peas B) grasses C) palm trees D) maple trees Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Factual 6) The embryonic leaves emerging from the seed of a plant are called A) monocots.

B) dicots.

C) cotyledons.

D) anthers.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Factual 7) Most of the calories in a typical American diet come from A) meat.

B) cereal grains.

C) legumes.

D) plant leaves.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Factual 8) Cereal grains come from which types of plants?

A) dicots B) monocots C) legumes D) tubers Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Conceptual

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9) The diagram shows flowers, seeds, and fruits. All the following make up a seed EXCEPT a(n) A) embryo.

B) food source for embryo.

C) seed coat.

D) stamen.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Factual 10) Which of the following has seeds that are the richest in protein?

A) wheat B) rice C) barley D) soybean Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Factual 11) Staple crops are the A) major agricultural sources of calories in a society.

B) plants in which the gametophyte stage is dominant.

C) manioc plants eaten by people in Europe.

D) vegetative organs of grasses.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Factual

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12) What is the staple crop of Asia?

A) wheat B) rice C) corn D) yams Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Factual 13) Which of the following are the reproductive organs of a plant?

A) roots B) stems C) flowers D) leaves Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Factual 14) Monocot plants often exhibit A) no roots at all.

B) one large taproot.

C) fibrous, broadly spread roots.

D) roots that extend deep into the ground.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Conceptual 15) The tiny, absorptive structures on the root cells near the root tip are called A) taproots.

B) rhizomes.

C) root hairs.

D) root buds.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Factual 16) Which of the following is the growing tip of a plant stem?

A) apical meristem B) axillary bud C) rhizome D) internode Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Conceptual 4 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

17) As shown here, a bean/bean pod is actually a(n) A) stem.

B) fruit.

C) axillary bud.

D) petiole.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Factual 18) A white potato is a modified A) stem.

B) root.

C) leaf.

D) flower.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Conceptual 19) A tuber is A) an enlargement of an underground stem.

B) a root that's modified for nutrient storage.

C) the reproductive organ of a gymnosperm.

D) a modified leaf that serves as a nutrient storage structure.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Conceptual 5 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

20) The tissue that conducts water through a plant is known as A) phloem.

B) xylem.

C) meristematic tissue.

D) epidermal tissue.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 23.2 Skill: Factual 21) In plants, the mature ovaries containing seeds are called A) bulbs.

B) fruits.

C) tubers.

D) rhizomes.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Factual 22) Which of the following is the female reproductive organ of a flower?

A) anther B) stamen C) carpel D) petal Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Factual 23) Pollination in corn occurs via A) wind.

B) insects.

C) birds.

D) bats.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Applied

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24) White wheat flour is made from the tissue within the wheat kernel that nourishes the developing wheat embryo. This tissue is called the A) endosperm.

B) embryo.

C) carpel.

D) stamen.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Factual 25) The triploid cells that make up endosperm of a typical plant contain how many copies of each plant chromosome?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Conceptual 26) Pollination occurs when the pollen of a flower lands on a structure called the ________.

Answer: stigma Diff: 1 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Factual 27) The sperm of a flowering plant is contained in the A) stigma.

B) carpel.

C) pollen.

D) spore.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Factual 28) Fertilization occurs in flowering plants when A) pollen grains land on the anthers of the female flower parts.

B) the female carpels and male anthers are united.

C) sperm join with eggs inside the ovules.

D) pollen joins with eggs inside the stigma.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Conceptual

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29) In the life cycle of plants the spore is a A) diploid structure.

B) nonreproductive structure.

C) haploid structure.

D) triploid endosperm.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Factual 30) The human race relied upon hunting and gathering, with no agriculture, for its first A) 1,500,000 years.

B) 1,000,000 years.

C) 500,000 years.

D) 250,000 years.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Factual 31) Almost all modern crop plants are A) gymnosperms.

B) annual plants.

C) dicots.

D) legumes.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Factual 32) The number of embryonic leaves, or ________, differentiate the two main classes of crop plants.

A) cotyledons B) anthers C) carpels D) rhizomes Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Factual 33) Domesticated plants, which make up most of today's crops, are the result of A) biomagnification.

B) artificial selection.

C) advantageous evolution.

D) eutrophication.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Conceptual 8 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

34) Sugars that are formed by photosynthesis in leaves can travel to underground storage structures via A) xylem. B) phloem. C) meristem. D) ground tissue. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Conceptual 35) Starch-storing tissues in a plant, such as white potatoes, are a type of A) xylem.

B) phloem.

C) meristematic tissue.

D) ground tissue.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Factual 36) Which type of plant would most likely be the most nutritionally valuable to a human?

A) a plant that has no ground tissue B) a plant with 10% ground tissue and 90% vascular tissue C) a plant with minimal reproductive organs D) a plant with 90% ground tissue and 10% vascular tissue Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Applied 37) The roots of monocots are generally ________, whereas the roots of dicots are generally ________.

A) thick taproots; thin and fibrous B) spread out laterally; deep C) deep; spread out laterally D) covered in root hairs; lacking root hairs Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Conceptual 38) Root hairs are extensions of ________ cells.

A) meristematic B) vascular C) ground D) epidermal Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Factual

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39) Which of the following crops are perennial plants?

A) rice B) wheat C) white potatoes D) sweet potatoes Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Factual 40) The "eyes" of a white potato are actually A) apical meristems.

B) rhizomes.

C) axillary buds.

D) petioles.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Conceptual 41) A leaf blade is attached to a stem by a stalk-like structure called a(n) A) internode.

B) stoma.

C) petiole.

D) node.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Factual 42) Which of these would NOT be considered a fruit?

A) tomatoes B) apples C) oat grains D) sweet potatoes Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Applied 43) Over time the general trend in the evolution of terrestrial plants has been A) a decrease in the gametophyte generation.

B) a decrease in mitosis in the sporophyte generation.

C) a decrease in the sporophyte generation.

D) a shortening of the plant lifecycle in general.

Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Conceptual 10 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

44) Gametophytes produce sperm and eggs by mitosis. In which of the following groups of plants is the gametophyte generation most dominant?

A) gymnosperms B) angiosperms C) mosses D) ferns Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Conceptual 45) To which of the following groups of plants are insect pollinators most important?

A) gymnosperms B) angiosperms C) mosses D) ferns Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Conceptual 46) In flowering plants, eggs are to ovules as A) sperm are to pollen.

B) sperm are to anthers.

C) pollen is to carpels.

D) pollen is to sepals.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 23.1 Skill: Conceptual 47) In a dicot stem, xylem is part of a ring of cells called the A) apical meristem.

B) vascular cambium.

C) cork cambium.

D) epidermal tissue.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 23.2 Skill: Factual 48) If a nail is pounded into the trunk of a tree, what plant structure would it encounter first?

A) phloem B) xylem C) cork D) cork cambium Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 23.2 Skill: Conceptual 11 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

49) Which of the following is part of the wood of a tree, NOT the bark?

A) cork B) cork cambium C) xylem D) phloem Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 23.2 Skill: Factual 50) A waste product of photosynthesis, of no value to the plant, is A) carbon dioxide.

B) light.

C) carbohydrates (sugars).

D) oxygen.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 23.2 Skill: Factual 51) As the guard cells ________, the stomata become ________.

A) swell; open B) shrink; open C) swell; closed D) shrink; larger Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 23.2 Skill: Factual 52) What type of growth does a plant exhibit when its trunk gets thicker?

A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) determinate Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 23.2 Skill: Factual 53) The ability of a plant to continue to grow throughout its lifetime is called A) determinate growth.

B) indeterminate growth.

C) secondary growth.

D) vernalization.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 23.2 Skill: Factual 12 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

54) Primary growth can result in a plant that A) is short and bushy.

B) is tall with a wide stem.

C) has an extensive root system.

D) has cork and wood.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 23.2 Skill: Conceptual 55) Which of the following is a true statement regarding secondary growth in plants?

A) Monocots can undergo true secondary growth to increase the width of their stems.

B) Cork, cork cambium, and vascular cambium make up the bark of a woody plant.

C) Xylem cells make up the wood of a tree, whereas phloem cells are located in the bark of a tree.

D) True secondary growth in coconut palm trees makes them woody yet incredibly flexible.

Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 23.2 Skill: Conceptual 56) Modern farmers use irrigation to deliver which of the following to their plants?

A) light B) water C) nutrients D) carbon dioxide Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 23.2 Skill: Factual 57) Which of the following applications, used by farmers to control weeds, relies upon turning the soil over?

A) tilling B) mulching C) spraying herbicides D) irrigation Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 23.2 Skill: Factual

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58) When the guard cells of a leaf shrink, the stomata A) open. B) close. C) perform photosynthesis.

D) die. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 23.2 Skill: Conceptual 59) Plants need both macronutrients and micronutrients to grow. Which of the following is a plant micronutrient?

A) nitrogen B) iron C) magnesium D) sulfur Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 23.2 Skill: Factual 60) The middle layer of healthy soil, between the top and base layers, is A) composed entirely of recently eroded rock.

B) composed entirely of decomposing animal wastes.

C) composed entirely of dead plants, animals, and other organisms.

D) a mixture of eroded rock and decaying matter.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 23.2 Skill: Conceptual 61) Why do plants containing nitrogen-fixing bacteria in their roots need less nitrogen-based fertilizer than others?

A) The plants break down the bacteria as a source of nitrogen-rich nutrients.

B) The bacteria convert nitrogen in the air into a form that can be taken up by the plants.

C) The plants and bacteria work together to attract birds, which deposit nitrogen-rich droppings near the plant.

D) The bacteria kill and digest earthworms and other animals in the soil, providing excess nitrogen to the plants.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 23.2 Skill: Factual

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62) Which of the following is a form of cultural control to minimize pest populations?

A) crop rotation B) monoculture C) irrigation D) pesticide use Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 23.2 Skill: Factual 63) The emergence of a plant embryo from a seed is called ________.

Answer: germination Diff: 1 Topic: 23.2 Skill: Factual 64) When farmers plant a single crop over a large area of land, it's called ________.

Answer: monoculture Diff: 1 Topic: 23.2 Skill: Factual 65) What is the difference between organic and inorganic fertilizers?

A) Organic fertilizers are carbon-based and are made from decomposed plant and animal wastes; inorganic fertilizers lack carbon and are produced by an industrial chemical process.

B) Inorganic fertilizers are carbon-based and are made from decomposed plant and animal wastes; organic fertilizers lack carbon and are produced by an industrial chemical process.

C) Organic fertilizers are carbon-based and are produced by an industrial chemical process; inorganic fertilizers lack carbon and are made from decomposed plant and animal wastes.

D) Inorganic fertilizers are carbon-based and are produced by an industrial chemical process; organic fertilizers lack carbon and are made from decomposed plant and animal wastes.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 23.2 Skill: Conceptual 66) Plants grow taller from their growing tips, or ________. This form of growth is also known as ________ growth.

A) apical meristem; primary B) apical meristem; secondary C) axillary buds; primary D) axillary buds; secondary Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 23.2 Skill: Conceptual

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67) What evidence is there that modern agriculture is unsustainable?

A) Fresh water is used for irrigating crops.

B) Large amounts of nonrenewable fossil fuels are required.

C) Fertilizers and pesticides are inexpensive and easy to obtain.

D) More food is produced than can be used.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 23.3 Skill: Factual 68) The loss of fertilizer and pesticides from soil by water moving through it is called A) the pesticide treadmill.

B) biomagnification.

C) soil erosion.

D) runoff.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 23.3 Skill: Factual 69) Which of the following would make agricultural practices more sustainable?

A) monoculture B) salinization C) integrated pest management D) irrigation Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 23.3 Skill: Factual 70) The concentration of persistent toxic chemicals within higher levels of a food chain or food web is called ________.

Answer: biomagnification Diff: 1 Topic: 23.3 Skill: Factual 71) The two most "precious liquids" needed for modern agricultural practices in developed countries are A) water and liquid fertilizer.

B) water and oil.

C) oil and pesticides.

D) liquid fertilizer and pesticides.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 23.3 Skill: Factual

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72) The water in the ________ aquifer in the central United States is apparently being depleted more rapidly that it is being replenished, thus threatening the future of farming in certain regions.

A) Ogallala B) Texarkana C) Legumino D) Nebraskan Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 23.3 Skill: Factual 73) What percentage of corn grown in the United States is used to feed hogs, chickens, and turkeys?

A) 10% B) 50% C) 80% D) 95% Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 23.3 Skill: Factual 74) In 2005, the amount of animal waste produced by factory farms was ________ times the amount of waste produced by the human population of the United States.

A) 50 B) 95 C) 100 D) 130 Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 23.3 Skill: Factual

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Biology: Science for Life with Physiology, 4e (Belk) Chapter 24 Growing a Green Thumb: Plant Physiology 1) What is contained within the xylem sap of a plant?

A) water only B) water and dissolved minerals only C) water and sugars produced from photosynthesis only D) water, dissolved minerals, and sugars Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Factual 2) The flow of water through a plant, from the soil to the leaves, is due to A) translocation.

B) transpiration.

C) respiration.

D) an internal pump.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Factual 3) The tendency of water molecules to stick together is called A) cohesion.

B) adhesion.

C) tension.

D) transpiration.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Factual 4) Why DON'T water molecules located within a column of xylem sap move apart?

A) Cohesion holds the water molecules to each other; adhesion holds water molecules to the cellulose in plant cell walls.

B) Adhesion holds the water molecules to each other; tension holds water molecules to the cellulose in plant cells walls.

C) Tension holds the water molecules to each other; cohesion holds water molecules to the cellulose in plant cell walls.

D) Adhesion holds the water molecules to each other; cohesion holds water molecules to the cellulose in plant cell walls.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Factual

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5) What type of force moves water up a tree, from its roots to its leaves? A) pushing B) pulling C) pumping D) positive pressure Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Conceptual 6) The negative water pressure resulting from water evaporating from the stomata of a leaf creates A) cohesion.

B) adhesion.

C) tension.

D) pressure flow.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Factual 7) Which of the following is most similar to the way in which water is moved through the xylem sap of a plant?

A) a person drinking through a straw B) a vaccine being ejected out of a syringe C) water gushing up from a fountain D) a dart being blown out the end of a blowgun Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Conceptual 8) Plants can change rates of transpiration by A) changing the size of stomata openings.

B) making a cellulose plug in the xylem tubes.

C) promoting flowering.

D) reducing cohesion.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Factual 9) Which of the following allows a plant to conserve water?

A) increasing photosynthesis during the day B) opening stomata only at night C) possessing large leaves D) developing wide vessel elements Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Conceptual

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10) Whereas vessel elements produce ________ friction on the flow of water than tracheids, they result in ________.

A) more; a reduced risk of an embolism B) less; a greater risk of an embolism C) more; reduced rates of water loss from leaves during a drought D) less; the prevention of water loss from leaves during a drought Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Factual 11) Which of the following is a C4 plant?

A) pineapple B) sugarcane C) jade plant D) oak tree Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Factual

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12) Which of the following plants store CO2 in the form of malic acid and close their stomata during the day?

A) C3 plants B) C4 plants C) CAM plants D) hornworts and liverworts Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Factual 13) The leaves of cacti A) don't exist.

B) are dropped during periods of drought.

C) have been modified into spines.

D) are very large to absorb plenty of sunlight.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Conceptual 14) Which type of plant would have the greatest rate of transpiration during the day?

A) a cactus B) a plant with many large leaves C) a plant with few and small leaves D) a C4 plant that grows in a hot, sunny, dry environment Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Conceptual 15) Plants that drop their leaves on an annual basis are called A) annuals.

B) perennials.

C) deciduous.

D) biennials.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Factual 16) Which of the following plants is best adapted to prevent an embolism in their xylem tubes?

A) a banana plant in a very warm climate B) a spruce tree with narrow, tapering tracheids C) a maple tree with wide, perforated vessel elements D) a cattail in a marsh Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Applied

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17) What will happen to a houseplant that's overwatered?

A) The leaves will burst.

B) The leaves will wilt.

C) The flowers will leak excess water.

D) It will grow faster than usual.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Factual

18) The overall process illustrated by this diagram is A) C4 adaptations.

B) CAM adaptations.

C) apical dominance.

D) transpiration.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Factual 5 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

19) Ice formation can destroy plant cells when A) water flows into cells via osmosis as the temperature drops.

B) adhesion increases inside xylem tubes.

C) jagged ice crystals puncture cell membranes.

D) cells are poisoned by dissolved "antifreeze" solutes.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Conceptual 20) The cold tolerance of a plant is called its A) photoperiodism.

B) persistence.

C) hardiness.

D) apical dominance.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Factual 21) Plants that have undergone a gradual cooling period and are able to resist cold environmental temperatures are referred to as ________.

Answer: hardened Diff: 1 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Factual 22) The ancestors of land plants were green ________.

Answer: algae Diff: 1 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Factual 23) The xylem tubes of drought-adapted plant species have narrow, tapering cells called ________.

Answer: tracheids Diff: 1 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Factual 24) Both C4 and CAM pathways of photosynthesis allow plants to A) perform photosynthesis in the absence of carbon dioxide.

B) outcompete C3 plants in cool, dry conditions.

C) keep stomata partially or completely closed during the hottest parts of the day.

D) take up carbon dioxide at night and then store it as an acid until the day.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Conceptual

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25) Which of the following are the water-conducting cells in mosses? A) xylem cells B) vessel elements C) tracheids D) hydroids Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Factual 26) The oldest group of plants possessing true xylem and phloem is the A) liverworts.

B) mosses.

C) ferns.

D) conifers.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Factual 27) Gymnosperms are also called A) liverworts.

B) mosses.

C) ferns.

D) conifers.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Factual 28) The tallest living tree, standing 112 meters (367 feet) tall, is a redwood (Sequoia sempervirens) located because in California. The tallest trees in the world, such as redwoods, are gymnosperms A) only gymnosperms have xylem cells, which assist in transpiration.

B) their very stiff xylem cells support the increase in height and weight.

C) only gymnosperms can transport water so high off the ground via negative water pressure.

D) deciduous trees possess cohesion but lack the adhesion necessary for water tension.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Applied 29) The time from the final frost in the spring to the first frost in the fall is called A) transpiration.

B) hardiness.

C) a growing season.

D) translocation.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Factual

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30) The "pulling" of a water column from the soil to the leaves is due to A) hydrogen bonds. B) gravity. C) hardiness. D) active transport. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Factual 31) Negative water pressure in the xylem of a plant is called A) torsion.

B) cohesion.

C) adhesion.

D) tension.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Factual 32) Which of the following phenomena drives transpiration in a terrestrial woody plant?

A) evaporation B) gravitropism C) translocation D) photoperiodism Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Conceptual 33) Florists and horticulturists often cut stems while they're holding a plant underwater in order to A) avoid transpiration.

B) prevent dormancy.

C) disrupt apical dominance.

D) avoid formation of an embolism.

Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Applied 34) Which of the following is an example of a CAM plant?

A) sugarcane B) corn C) crabgrass D) aloe plant Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Factual

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35) Which of these plants closes its stomata during the day and conducts photosynthesis using chemically stored carbon?

A) moss B) Kentucky bluegrass C) jade plant D) oak tree Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Applied 36) Where would you expect a plant with the largest leaves to grow?

A) in sunny conditions B) in shady sites C) in dry conditions D) in very sandy soils Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Conceptual 37) Many deciduous plants are adapted to drop their leaves A) when overwatered.

B) during summer.

C) during droughts.

D) whenever daylight cycles shorten.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Factual 38) In plants, embolisms are A) toxic acids produced when stomata are closed and it's sunny.

B) formations of ice crystals when a plant is subjected to below-freezing temperatures.

C) hormones that result in apical dominance.

D) air bubbles that form within xylem.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Factual

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39) Plants living in areas with moist soils are most likely to have A) many narrow, tapering tracheids.

B) lots of wide, perforated vessel elements.

C) frequent embolisms and loss of tension.

D) reduced transpiration rates.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Conceptual 40) The most simple terrestrial plants, in terms of plant structure, include A) ferns.

B) mosses.

C) gymnosperms.

D) liverworts.

Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Factual 41) The overwatering of houseplants and garden plants results in A) an increase in chlorophyll within the leaves.

B) decreased rates of transpiration.

C) dormancy due to loss of leaves.

D) the formation of hydroids.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Factual 42) Cytosol leaks into plant cell vacuoles when A) water freezes outside a plant cell.

B) water freezes inside a plant cell.

C) severe drought conditions shut down normal rates of transpiration.

D) the critical night length isn't met.

Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Conceptual 43) Which of the following has the greatest hardiness (can tolerate the lowest temperature)?

A) a tomato plant B) a cabbage plant C) an apple tree D) a houseplant that evolved in the tropics Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 24.1 Skill: Factual 10 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

44) The sugars in a peach tree move A) only toward the fruit. B) only toward the sugar source. C) only toward a sugar sink. D) either toward or away from sugar sources. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 24.2 Skill: Conceptual 45) The process of deadheading A) decreases the duration of flowering in an annual plant. B) removes fruits and seeds from plants when they're mature. C) allows the plant to produce and support more flowers than normal. D) reduces the amount of water needed by the plant. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 24.2 Skill: Conceptual 46) Many garden plants that are grown for leaves or roots, such as parsley and carrots, produce vegetative growth the first year and reproductive structure growth the second year. Thus, parsley and carrots are A) annuals. B) biennials. C) perennials. D) woody plants. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: 24.2 Skill: Applied 47) If the sugary phloem sap in a fruit tree is divided into many sugar sinks, then each individual fruit will be relatively A) small and sugary. B) large and sugary. C) small and diluted. D) large and diluted.

Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: 24.2 Skill: Applied

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48) In plants, the sugars produced from photosynthesis are moved around via A) phloem sap.

B) xylem sap.

C) stomata.

D) embolisms.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 24.2 Skill: Factual 49) Translocation always occurs in a pine tree from the A) roots to the needles.

B) pinecones to the roots.

C) sugar source to the sink.

D) sugar sink to the source.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 24.2 Skill: Factual 50) What is the first step in the pressure flow mechanism of translocation?

A) Sugar is loaded into the xylem at the source.

B) Sugar is loaded into the phloem at the source.

C) Water is loaded into the phloem at the source.

D) Water is loaded into the phloem at the sink.

Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: 24.2 Skill: Conceptual 51) Which of the following is a perennial?

A) peony B) morning glory C) petunia D) pansy Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 24.2 Skill: Factual 52) What effect does pruning flowers have on a plant?

A) The plant will make more flowers than normal.

B) The new flowers that grow will be larger.

C) The plant will produce more leaves.

D) The plant will produce fruits instead of flowers.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 24.2 Skill: Factual 12 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

53) Plants that live for one year are called A) annuals.

B) biennials.

C) perennials.

D) woody plants.

Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 24.2 Skill: Factual 54) Dormancy is A) the ability of a plant to produce fruits.

B) a plant's annual rest period.

C) the period of time between flowering and fruiting.

D) another term for translocation.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 24.2 Skill: Factual 55) What will happen after a gardener cuts off all the developing flowers on a tomato plant, with the exception of 12 of the flowers that have already been pollinated and set fruit?

A) The tomato plant will drop the 12 previously pollinated flowers.

B) The tomato plant will become dormant until next year and then 12 tomatoes will ripen.

C) The 12 tomatoes will develop fully on the plant, but they will be small and not very sweet.

D) The 12 tomatoes will develop, and they will be larger and sweeter than if the other flowers remained.

Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: 24.2 Skill: Applied 56) Plants that flower only if day length is less than a critical value are called A) short-day plants.

B) long-day plants.

C) biennial plants.

D) perennial plants.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 24.2 Skill: Factual 57) Which of the following is a photosensitive chemical that allows plants to "measure" day length?

A) abscisic acid B) malic acid C) cytokinin D) phytochrome Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: 24.2 Skill: Factual 13 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

58) The response of a plant to the proportion of light and dark in a day is called ________. Answer: photoperiodism Diff: 2 Topic: 24.2 Skill: Factual 59) Plants that live for many years and produce flowers every year are called ________.

Answer: perennials Diff: 1 Topic: 24.2 Skill: Factual 60) Photoperiodic plants react to a certain amount of darkness, referred to as ________ (three words).

Answer: critical night length Diff: 2 Topic: 24.2 Skill: Factual 61) A greenhouse manager wants to encourage long-term, productive flowering instead of shortterm rapid that flowering in annual garden plants that are for sale. Which of these actions would accomplish goal?

A) pruning away early flowers B) limiting water and fertilizer C) moving the plants to the shadiest part of the greenhouse D) allowing any flowers to become fruits and seeds Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 24.2 Skill: Applied 62) The tendency of a plant's uppermost bud to limit the growth of lower buds is called ________ (two words).

Answer: apical dominance Diff: 1 Topic: 24.3 Skill: Factual 63) Which of the following occurs when a grapevine wraps around a trellis or another supporting structure?

A) photoperiodism B) thigmotropism C) gravitropism D) phototropism Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 24.3 Skill: Factual 14 Email: r ichard@qwconsultancy.com

64) The roots emerging from germinating seeds exhibit A) positive gravitropism. B) negative gravitropism. C) positive phototropism. D) negative phototropism. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 24.3 Skill: Conceptual 65) Plant hormones A) are produced in small amounts but have great effects.

B) break down quickly after they are produced.

C) act only at the location where they are produced.

D) generally have one limited effect on the plant.

Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: 24.3 Skill: Conceptual 66) Which plant hormone is responsible for apical dominance?

A) auxin B) ethylene C) cytokinin D) gibberellin Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 24.3 Skill: Factual 67) Abscission of leaves and fruits is promoted by the hormone A) auxin.

B) ethylene.

C) cytokinin.

D) gibberellin.

Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: 24.3 Skill: Factual 68) Deciduous plants drop their leaves through a process called A) thigmotropism.

B) gravitropism.

C) abscission.

D) photoperiodism.

Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 24.3 Skill: Factual 15 Email: richard@qwconsultancy.com

69) The tendency for plants that live on other plants (epiphytes) to send shoots upward while sending roots down towards the ground is an example of ________, respectively. A) positive and negative gravitropism B) positive and negative thigmotropism C) negative and positive gravitropism D) negative and positive thigmotropism Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 24.3 Skill: Conceptual 70) The hormone ________ plays an "anti-abscission role" in plants. A) auxin B) ethylene C) gibberellin D) cytokinin Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: 24.3 Skill: Factual 71) To make a shrub bushier, a person can ________ the topmost leaves and buds, resulting in reduced apical dominance. A) deadhead B) harden C) pinch back D) translocate Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: 24.3 Skill: Factual

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