Biological Science Third Canadian Edition Test Bank.pdf (22)

21) Root hairs on a root develop A) on the entire root surface.

B) before the cells elongate.

C) after the cells elongate.

D) on the root cap.

Answer: C Explanation: Root hairs must form after cells elongate, or they would be scraped off during growth through the soil.

Type: MC Reference: Section 34.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 34-5. Describe the process of primary growth, including the differentiation of tissues specialized for protection, storage, and transport.

22) The surface area of a plant's root system is substantially larger than the surface area of its shoot system. Which hypothesis best explains the extensive surface area of roots?

A) needed for contact with soil particles for mineral and water absorption B) provides structure for vascular tissue in the roots C) provides good anchoring ability of the root system D) needed to store sugars for overwintering capability Answer: A Explanation: The key to the answer is "surface area." The other foils are also functions of root systems.

Type: MC Reference: Section 34.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 34-1 & 2. Compare surface area/volume relationships among different shapes and explain the significance of these relationships. Describe the main functions of the root and shoot systems.

23) What is present in a shoot apical meristem region?

A) the region of cell division B) immature buds and leaves C) protoderm, ground meristem, and procambium D) all of the above Answer: D Explanation: This question should tie together the meaning of a region of cell division and the products of the cell division.

Type: MC Reference: Section 34.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 34-5. Describe the process of primary growth, including the differentiation of tissues specialized for protection, storage, and transport.

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24) Apical meristems of dicots are at the tips of stems. Apical meristems of grasses are at ground level or slightly below, concealed by the leaves. The leaves also have an intercalary meristem at their bases. What does this mean when considering care of a lawn or soccer field?

A) If you mow right at ground level, the apical meristems are activated, thereby inducing grass growth.

B) Grass mowed 2 inches above ground level grows at a slower rate compared to grass mowed 3 inches above the ground level.

C) If you mow 2 inches above ground level, most apical meristems will be cut down.

D) If you mow 2 inches above ground level, both the apical and intercalary meristems can keep producing new cells.

Answer: D Explanation: Grasses are thought to have evolved with grazing animals; they are adapted to grazing animals as well as to lawn mowers.

Type: MC Reference: Section 34.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 34-5. Describe the process of primary growth, including the differentiation of tissues specialized for protection, storage, and transport.

25) In a meristematic region, the cell plate during mitosis is perpendicular to the side of the stem.

In what direction will the stem grow?

A) laterally in width B) vertically in height Answer: B Explanation: If the cell plate during mitosis is parallel to the side of the stem, growth will be lateral (as in the vascular cambium). If the cell plate is perpendicular, growth will be vertical (as in basal meristems and parts of apical meristems).

Type: MC Reference: Section 34.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 34-5. Describe the process of primary growth, including the differentiation of tissues specialized for protection, storage, and transport.

26) You find a plant unfamiliar to you and observe that it has vascular bundles scattered throughout the stem cross section. What do you conclude about the plant?

A) It is probably an herbaceous eudicot.

B) It will probably get annual rings of wood.

C) It is probably a monocot.

D) It could be either a young eudicot or a monocot.

Answer: C Explanation: Dicots (eudicots) have vascular bundles in a ring around the outside of the stem; these bundles have a vascular cambium that becomes continuous and produces rings of wood.

Type: MC Reference: Section 34.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 34-5. Describe the process of primary growth, including the differentiation of tissues specialized for protection, storage, and transport.

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27) Growth and development of plant parts involves A) division of apical meristem cells.

B) cells taking up water.

C) specialization of meristimatic cells into xylem.

D) all of the above.

Answer: D Explanation: Cell division and enlargement always seem to be emphasized, and specialization is left hanging.

Type: MC Reference: Section 34.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 34-5 & 6. Describe the process of primary growth, including the differentiation of tissues specialized for protection, storage, and transport. Describe the process and function of secondary growth.

28) The veins of leaves are A) composed of xylem and phloem.

B) continuous with vascular bundles in the stem and roots.

C) finely branched to be in close contact with photosynthesizing cells.

D) all of the above.

Answer: D Explanation: Making longitudinal connections with structure is not easy for some students.

Veins are xylem and phloem (not always made clear), which are continuous with vascular bundles in the stem and roots. Looking at leaf veins shows their tiny, branched structures (in many monocots too).

Type: MC Reference: Section 34.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 34-5. Describe the process of primary growth, including the differentiation of tissues specialized for protection, storage, and transport.

29) Which of these actions describes secondary growth?

A) growth in height B) development of leaves and flowers C) growth of herbaceous tissue D) development of wood and bark E) development of fruit Answer: D Explanation: Primary growth is generally nonwoody (although sclerenchyma cells can have lignin), and it produces growth in height, leaves, flowers, and fruit. Wood and bark are formed from the vascular cambium (and cork cambium in the bark), which is secondary growth.

Type: MC Reference: Section 34.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 34-6. Describe the process and function of secondary growth.

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30) Monocot vascular bundles do not have a vascular cambium between the xylem and phloem.

This means that A) monocots are much less efficient at conducting water and sugars.

B) monocots have very thin stems.

C) monocots do not produce wood in annual rings.

D) monocots produce secondary xylem and phloem.

Answer: C Explanation: Palms and bamboo are woody, and monocots are at least as efficient as dicots in transporting water and sugars. If students visualize the scattered vascular bundles in monocots and make the connection of vascular cambium in vascular bundles, a ring structure is not possible. Wood formation in monocots occurs; but not in rings, as in gymnosperms and dicots.

Type: MC Reference: Section 34.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 34-6. Describe the process and function of secondary growth.

31) What best describes the shape of the entire vascular cambium system in trees? Visualizing a pine tree helps with this question.

A) hollow cylinder with a smaller diameter at the base of the tree B) hollow cylinder with a smaller diameter at the top of the tree C) solid column of cells with a smaller diameter at the base of the tree D) solid column of cells with a smaller diameter at the top of the tree Answer: B Explanation: Vascular cambium is continually produced in primary growth and each year adds width to the stem. The vascular cambium is active up and down the entire height of a tree. The oldest part of the tree is its base, which means the vascular cambium has accumulated layers of wood and bark over a longer period of time, so the cylinder has the largest diameter at the base.

The vascular cambium produces secondary xylem to the inside, so it is not a solid column.

Type: MC Reference: Section 34.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 34-6. Describe the process and function of secondary growth.

32) Wood is an accumulation of A) primary xylem.

B) secondary xylem.

C) vascular bundles.

D) primary phloem.

E) secondary phloem.

Answer: B Explanation: This is just a terminology question. Primary and secondary phloem are in the bark.

Type: MC Reference: Section 34.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 34-6. Describe the process and function of secondary growth.

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33) Two lateral meristems in plants are A) vascular cambium, producing cork; cork cambium, producing secondary phloem.

B) vascular cambium, producing secondary xylem; cork cambium, producing secondary phloem.

C) vascular cambium, producing secondary xylem; cork cambium, producing cork.

D) vascular cambium, producing secondary phloem; cork cambium, producing secondary xylem.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 34.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 34-6. Describe the process and function of secondary growth.

34) In 2005, a spot 1 centimeter from the center of a woody stem is in the bark. In what tissue will the same spot (1 cm from the center) be in 2050?

A) bark B) secondary phloem C) vascular cambium D) secondary xylem E) impossible to tell Answer: D Explanation: The vascular cambium physically moves outward with the accumulation of secondary xylem. An accumulation of 44—45 annual rings might be assumed to occur between 2005 and 2050, which would establish a considerable width of secondary xylem in the center of the stem (or trunk).

Type: MC Reference: Section 34.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 34-6. Describe the process and function of secondary growth.

35) Explain why it is possible for big old hollow trees to live and grow for many years, still producing green leaves.

Answer: The center of a tree has accumulated many secondary compounds and is no longer active in transport of water and sugars. Only the outermost wood and innermost bark are still transporting water and sugars.

Explanation: Secondary xylem actively conducts for only 4-5 years; secondary phloem is active for about the same period, sometimes less.

Type: SA Reference: Section 34.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 34-6. Describe the process and function of secondary growth.

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36) In an annual ring, the first-formed cells in the spring are large; the ring looks light because you are seeing open cavities of the tracheids (and vessel elements). The darker part of the annual ring is wood formed in the summer, and the diameter of the cells formed is smaller. Which kind of wood is probably stronger? Why? Where is the fall and winter wood?

Answer: Summer wood is probably stronger, because it has more cell walls. Trees are dormant in fall and winter and produce no wood.

Explanation: Spring wood is formed when there is adequate water and the days are longer. As summer progresses in temperate and northern climates, water is limiting and days get shorter (after June 21). Hormone balances in the tree change.

Type: SA Reference: Section 34.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 34-6. Describe the process and function of secondary growth.

37) Where are the youngest wood and the youngest bark in a tree trunk?

A) The youngest wood is in the center of a tree; the youngest bark is the outside of the bark.

B) The youngest wood is in the center of a tree; the youngest bark is the inner part, next to the vascular cambium.

C) The youngest wood is toward the outside, near the vascular cambium; youngest bark is the outside of the bark.

D) The youngest wood is toward the outside, near the vascular cambium; youngest bark is the inner part, next to the vascular cambium.

Answer: D Explanation: This question ties in with the question about the big hollow tree. The only living part of a tree trunk is the area adjacent to the vascular cambium.

Type: MC Reference: Section 34.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 34-6. Describe the process and function of secondary growth.

38) Where is primary growth occurring in an old tree?

A) nowhere; trees have only secondary growth B) closest to ground level at the base of the tree C) in young branches where leaves are forming D) where the vascular cambium and cork cambium are Answer: C Explanation: Apical meristems in trees are at the tips of the youngest branches and roots. The youngest branches are producing the leaves. Primary growth produces the tree's annual growth in height.

Type: MC Reference: Section 34.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 34-5 & 6. Describe the process of primary growth, including the differentiation of tissues specialized for protection, storage, and transport. Describe the process and function of secondary growth.

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39) The most effective way to kill a tree is to remove a ring of bark from the circumference.

Why does the tree die? A) No water can be transported from the roots to the leaves. B) No water can be transported from the leaves to the roots. C) No sugars can be transported from the leaves to the roots. D) Both water and sugars are prevented from being transported.

Answer: C Explanation: Girdling the tree leaves the xylem intact, but interrupts the flow of sugars through the phloem. Type: MC Reference: Section 34.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 34-5 & 6. Describe the process of primary growth, including the differentiation of tissues specialized for protection, storage, and transport. Describe the process and function of secondary growth.

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Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition (Freeman et al.) Chapter 35 Water and Sugar Transport in Plants 1) Hypothetical plant cells A and B are adjacent to each other. The solute potential (ψS) of cell A is -0.35 MPa, and its pressure potential (ψP) is +0.15 MPa. The solute potential (ψS) of cell B is -0.30 MPa, and its pressure potential (ψP) is +0.05 MPa. In which direction will net water movement occur? A) Neither; cells A and B are in equilibrium with each other. B) from cell A to cell B C) from cell B to cell A Answer: B Explanation: Values can be changed from year to year or to accommodate different versions of exams. The two lead-in sentences can be deleted if desired. Type: MC Reference: Section 35.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 35-1 & 2. Explain the concept of water movement in terms of water potential. Describe the two components of water potential in plants. 2) When an animal cell is placed in a hypotonic solution and water enters the cell via osmosis, the volume of the cell increases until it bursts. This does not happen to plant cells, because A) they have large central vacuoles, which provide abundant space for storage of incoming water. B) the composition of their plasma membranes differs from that of animalcell plasma membranes in a way that provides much greater strength. C) they have cell walls, which prevent the entry of water by osmosis. D) they have cell walls, which provide pressure to counteract the pressure of the incoming water. E) certain proteins embedded in their plasma membranes act as "check valves," releasing excess water before it can cause the cell to burst. Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 35.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 35-1. Explain the concept of water movement in terms of water potential.

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3) Compared to plants from other environments, the cells of many desert plants contain high concentrations of solutes. This helps them survive in their arid surroundings because the high solute concentrations create relatively ________, which help reduce water loss.

A) low solute potentials B) high pressure potentials C) low pressure potentials D) high solute potentials Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 35.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 35-1 & 4. Explain the concept of water movement in terms of water potential. List and describe structural and physiological plant features that reduce water loss in dry habitats.

4) Loss of water from the aerial parts of plants is called A) pressure flow.

B) cohesion-tension.

C) respiration.

D) evaporation.

E) transpiration.

Answer: E Explanation: This question hinges on the definition of transpiration presented in the text.

Although answer D is a correct descriptor of the process, it isn't the best answer. Some instructors may wish to delete or replace answer D. Type: MC Reference: Section 35.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 35-3. Explain how water potential, surface tension, cohesion, and adhesion contribute to the process of transpiration.

5) Water potential in plants consists mainly of A) solute potential and osmotic potential.

B) solute potential and membrane potential.

C) pressure potential and solute potential.

D) pressure potential and membrane potential.

E) solute potential only.

Answer: C Explanation: Strictly speaking, gravity potential and matric potential also are components of plant water potential. Responses should be modified accordingly if these additional components are covered in lecture.

Type: MC Reference: Section 35.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 35-2. Describe the two components of water potential in plants.

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6) Cell-to-cell water movement always occurs from A) higher to lower pressure potential.

B) higher to lower solute potential.

C) lower to higher solute potential.

D) higher to lower water potential.

E) lower to higher water potential.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 35.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 35-1. Explain the concept of water movement in terms of water potential.

7) How does a flaccid cell differ from a turgid cell?

A) Flaccid cell has higher pressure potential.

B) Flaccid cell has lower pressure potential.

C) Flaccid cell has higher solute potential.

D) Flaccid cell has lower solute potential.

Answer: B Explanation: This question tests students' understanding of the terms flaccid and turgid.

Type: MC Reference: Section 35.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 35-1 & 2. Explain the concept of water movement in terms of water potential. Describe the two components of water potential in plants.

8) Water potential of plants during night is ________ compared to day water potential due to ________.

A) increased; open stomata B) increased; closed stomata C) decreased; open stomata D) decreased; closed stomata Answer: B Explanation: If this subject is not discussed in the class, the question becomes conceptual.

Type: MC Reference: Section 35.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 35-3. Explain how water potential, surface tension, cohesion, and adhesion contribute to the process of transpiration.

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9) If you cut a stalk (petiole) of celery and place it in a beaker of water that has food colouring dissolved in it, coloured water will move up the stalk and into the leaf blades. This provides evidence against which of the following theories of xylem transport?

A) pressure flow B) root pressure C) capillarity D) proton pump E) cohesion-tension Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 35.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 35-1. Explain the concept of water movement in terms of water potential.

10) Root pressure can result in the early morning appearance of water droplets on leaves and flowers of low-growing plants. Which of the following does not contribute to the development of root pressure?

A) creation of tension in the xylem water column that leads to short-distance water movement B) closed stomata C) accumulation of ions from the soil by root epidermal cells D) movement of ions from epidermis to xylem E) creation of a water potential gradient between the xylem (lower ψ) and surrounding cells (higher ψ) in the root Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 35.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 35-1 & 3. Explain the concept of water movement in terms of water potential. Explain how water potential, surface tension, cohesion, and adhesion contribute to the process of transpiration.

11) Which of the following observations provides the strongest evidence against root pressure being the principal mechanism of water transport in the xylem?

A) Not all plants have roots.

B) Not all soils have high concentrations of ions.

C) The movement of water into the xylem from surrounding cells in the roots.

D) Shoots with roots removed can transport water when placed in a container of water.

E) A water potential gradient between roots and shoots.

Answer: D Explanation: Another correct answer that could be used in exams is, "Shoots with roots removed can transport water when placed in a container of water." However, D still describes the strongest evidence.

Type: MC Reference: Section 35.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 35-1 & 3. Explain the concept of water movement in terms of water potential. Explain how water potential, surface tension, cohesion, and adhesion contribute to the process of transpiration.

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12) Which of the following features of plant cells allows for symplastic movement of water?

A) porous cell walls B) cytoskeleton C) plasmodesmata D) large central vacuole E) aquaporins Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 35.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 35-1. Explain the concept of water movement in terms of water potential.

13) Which of the following features of plant cells allows for apoplastic movement of water?

A) porous cell walls B) cytoskeleton C) plasmodesmata D) large central vacuole E) semipermeable plasma membrane Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 35.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 35-1. Explain the concept of water movement in terms of water potential.

14) Which cells in a root form a protective barrier to the vascular system where all materials must move through the symplast?

A) pericycle B) cortex C) epidermis D) endodermis E) exodermis Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 35.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 35-1. Explain the concept of water movement in terms of water potential.

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15) Which theory of water transport in xylem can also be used to explain the movement of water in nonvascular plants such as mosses?

A) cohesion-tension B) capillarity C) proton pump D) pressure flow E) root pressure Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 35.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 35-3. Explain how water potential, surface tension, cohesion, and adhesion contribute to the process of transpiration.

16) Which of the following does not support the cohesion-tension theory of xylem transport?

A) Dendrograph measurements detect small daily changes in the diameter of tree trunks.

B) Following cutting of a petiole, the xylem sap withdraws from the cut edge toward the blade of the leaf.

C) Following application of a respiration inhibitor to a plant, xylem transport decreases substantially.

D) Measurements using a root bomb and xylem pressure probe detect negative pressures in xylem tissue.

E) Pressure bomb measurements detect daily changes in the water potential of leaf tissue.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 35.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 35-3. Explain how water potential, surface tension, cohesion, and adhesion contribute to the process of transpiration.

17) What drives the flow of water through the xylem?

A) passive transport by the endodermis B) the number of companion cells in the phloem C) the evaporation of water from the leaves D) active transport by parenchyma cells within xylem tissue E) active transport by tracheid and vessel elements Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 35.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 35-3. Explain how water potential, surface tension, cohesion, and adhesion contribute to the process of transpiration.

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18) In which plant cell or tissue would the pressure component of water potential most often be negative?

A) leaf mesophyll cell B) stem xylem C) stem phloem D) root cortex cell E) root epidermis Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 35.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 35-1, 2, & 3. Explain the concept of water movement in terms of water potential. Describe the two components of water potential in plants. Explain how water potential, surface tension, cohesion, and adhesion contribute to the process of transpiration.

19) As an undergraduate research assistant in the lab of the famous Dr. S. Nameerf, your duties involve measuring water potential in experimental soil-plant-atmosphere systems. Assume you make a series of measurements in a system under normal daylight conditions, with stomata open and photosynthesis occurring. Which of the following correctly depicts the trend your measurement data should follow if the cohesion-tension mechanism is operating?

A) ψsoil < ψroots = ψleaves < ψatmosphere B) ψatmosphere < ψleaves = ψroots < ψsoil C) ψsoil < ψroots < ψleaves < ψatmosphere D) ψatmosphere < ψleaves < ψroots < ψsoil Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 35.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 35-1 & 3. Explain the concept of water movement in terms of water potential. Explain how water potential, surface tension, cohesion, and adhesion contribute to the process of transpiration.

20) Cavitation is defined as the formation of bubbles within a liquid. Based on this definition, which mechanism of water transport in xylem can contribute to recovery from cavitation?

A) cohesion-tension B) capillarity C) proton pump D) pressure flow E) root pressure Answer: E Explanation: Cavitation is not covered in the text, so this question could not be included on an exam unless an in-class discussion of cavitation occurred.

Type: MC Reference: Section 35.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 35-2. Describe the two components of water potential in plants.

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21) Which of the following would not be expected to contribute to high rates of transpiration?

A) high atmospheric CO2 concentration B) bright sunlight C) warm air temperature D) brisk wind E) high soil moisture Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 35.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 35-3. Explain how water potential, surface tension, cohesion, and adhesion contribute to the process of transpiration.

22) Which of the following adaptations are least likely to be found in plants that regularly experience dry, hot conditions?

A) CAM plants that grow rapidly B) small, thick leaves with stomata on the lower surface C) a thick cuticle on fleshy leaves D) large, fleshy stems with the ability to carry out photosynthesis E) plants that do not produce abscisic acid and have a short, thick taproot Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 35.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating LO: 35-4. List and describe structural and physiological plant features that reduce water loss in dry habitats.

23) Which of the following structural features of plants would not be expected to reduce transpiration?

A) thick cuticle on leaves and stems B) abundant epidermal hairs on leaves and stems C) sunken stomata D) stomata on upper and lower surfaces of the leaves E) reduced leaf size Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 35.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 35-4. List and describe structural and physiological plant features that reduce water loss in dry habitats.

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24) Most biologists consider loss of water from plant tissues to be a negative thing, and, in fact, many plants have features that reduce water loss. Yet, plants still transpire. Which of the following is the least likely explanation for the fact that plants continue to transpire? A) Transpiration drives water flow through the plant, which is necessary for uptake and distribution of essential nutrients. B) Transpiration must be occurring for photosynthesis to take place. C) It is difficult to produce a means of gas exchange that doesn't also allow water loss. D) Evaporative cooling during transpiration may help prevent leaves from overheating.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 35.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 35-3. Explain how water potential, surface tension, cohesion, and adhesion contribute to the process of transpiration.

25) CAM and C4 plants conduct photosynthesis in ways that allow them to live in drier areas than most C3 plants can tolerate. The effectiveness of different plants in restricting water loss while still allowing for influx of adequate CO2 can be compared using the transpiration ratio, which is calculated by dividing the amount of water transpired by the amount of CO2 fixed by photosynthesis. If a typical transpiration ratio for a C3 plant is 500, then possible values for CAM and C4 plants could be A) 750-1000.

B) 500.

C) 50-250.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 35.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: in 35-4. List and describe structural and physiological plant features that reduce water loss dry habitats.

26) CAM plants perform photosynthesis during the day even though their stomata are closed.

How do these plants obtain carbon dioxide in order to carry out photosynthesis?

A) CAM plants use glucose as their main source of carbon dioxide during periods of drought.

B) for Carbon dioxide is stored within specialized bundle sheath cells during mild temperatures use during drought.

C) of CAM plants transport carbon dioxide from the soil through the phloem to offset the loss carbon dioxide uptake in the leaves.

D) CAM plants open their stomata at night to obtain carbon dioxide.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 35.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 35-4. List and describe structural and physiological plant features that reduce water loss in dry habitats.

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27) J. A. Milburn and R. P. C. Johnson developed an acoustic method for detecting cavitation (formation of air bubbles) in plants. This involves "listening" for characteristic clicks produced during air-bubble formation, using sensitive microphones and amplifiers. In one experiment with the castor bean plant (Ricinus communis), they detached leaves by cutting the petioles and subjected them to various treatments. Which of the following would be least likely to be observed in such an experiment?

A) as the leaf is allowed to wilt, recording many clicks that approximately equal the estimated number of vessels in the cut petiole B) after increasing transpiration by blowing warm air across the leaf, recording an increased rate of clicking C) after adding water to the cut end of the petiole, recording an increased rate of clicking Answer: C Explanation: Cavitation is not covered in the text, so this question could not be included on an exam unless an in-class discussion of cavitation occurred. Different versions of the question can be created by changing the relationships between treatments and observed results. The essential point is that factors that increase xylem tension, increase cavitation, and vice versa.

Type: MC Reference: Section 35.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 35-1. Explain the concept of water movement in terms of water potential.

28) Which of the following is not a net sink for products of photosynthesis in a deciduous angiosperm tree?

A) leaves in early spring B) flowers in summer C) fruits in summer D) roots in early spring E) roots in early autumn Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 35.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 35-5. Describe the movement of phloem in terms of sources and sinks.

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29) Which of the following supports the finding that sugar translocation in phloem is an active (energy-requiring) process?

A) Sucrose occurs in higher concentrations in companion cells than in the mesophyll cells where it is produced.

B) Movement of water occurs from xylem to phloem and back again.

C) Strong pH differences exist between the cytoplasm of the companion cell and the mesophyll cell.

D) H+-ATPases are abundant in the plasma membranes of the mesophyll cells.

E) Sugar is translocated in a bi-directional manner.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 35.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 35-5. Describe the movement of phloem in terms of sources and sinks.

30) Which of the following cross-membrane transport mechanisms requires the expenditure of energy?

A) direct diffusion B) channel C) symporter D) facilitated diffusion E) carrier Answer: C Explanation: Other correct answers that could be substituted in different years or exam versions are cotransporter (= symporter) and pump.

Type: MC Reference: Section 35.4, Figure 35.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 35-5. Describe the movement of phloem in terms of sources and sinks.

31) Which of the following cross-membrane transport mechanisms occur without expenditure of energy?

A) channel B) antiporter C) symporter D) cotransporter E) pump Answer: A Explanation: Other correct answers that could be substituted in different years or exam versions are carrier (= facilitated diffusion), channel, and direct diffusion.

Type: MC Reference: Section 35.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 35-5. Describe the movement of phloem in terms of sources and sinks.

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32) The pressure-flow mechanism for sugar translocation you have learned about is based on research on angiosperms, and thus might not occur in other vascular plants. Which of the following real or hypothetical observations on gymnosperms would suggest they possess a different mechanism?

A) Pores in the sieve areas of their sieve-tube members are filled with numerous membranes.

B) Gymnosperms do not possess vessels.

C) Bidirectional phloem transport occurs in gymnosperms.

D) Asymmetric annual growth rings occur in gymnosperms.

E) Formation of buds is supported by products of photosynthesis primarily from leaves on the same branch.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 35.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 35-5. Describe the movement of phloem in terms of sources and sinks.

33) The mechanisms that regulate the loading of sucrose from the apoplast to the sieve-tube members by sucrose-H+ symporters are not well understood. Of the following possible regulatory factors, which is least likely to be of direct importance?

A) turgor pressure of sieve-tube members B) sucrose concentration in the apoplast C) density of direct cytoplasmic connections between companion cells and sieve-tube members D) number of available symporter protein molecules in the plasma membranes of sieve-tube members Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 35.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 35-5. Describe the movement of phloem in terms of sources and sinks.

34) In the pressure-flow mechanism, loading of sucrose from companion cells to sieve-tube elements takes place through A) plasmodesmata.

B) facilitated diffusion.

C) sucrose-H+ symporters.

D) sucrose-H+ antiporters.

E) carriers.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 35.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 35-5. Describe the movement of phloem in terms of sources and sinks.

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35) Researchers have investigated bidirectional transport in phloem by applying different radioisotope tracers to two source leaves and monitoring a point between the two sources for the presence of the tracers. Which of the following observations would not support the pressure-flow hypothesis? Appearance of the two tracers in A) sieve-tube members of different vascular bundles.

B) a single sieve-tube member.

C) adjacent sieve-tube members of the same vascular bundle.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 35.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 35-4. List and describe structural and physiological plant features that reduce water loss in dry habitats.

36) Which of the following statements about phloem unloading at sinks is not consistent with our current understanding?

A) Active and passive transport play a role.

B) Regardless of the type of sink, the conversion of sucrose to storage compounds, such as starch, is a major part of the process.

C) The mechanisms of sucrose movement and the membrane proteins involved vary among different plant species.

D) The mechanisms of sucrose movement and the membrane proteins involved vary among different sinks within a plant.

E) Water moves by osmosis from phloem to xylem.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 35.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 35-5. Describe the movement of phloem in terms of sources and sinks.

37) As an undergraduate research assistant, you are assisting with a radioisotope tracer experiment. You expose a mature leaf on one side of the lower shoot of a sugar beet plant to 14CO2 and then track the movement of the 14C atoms by radiography. Where are you least likely to detect 14C? A) the treated leaf B) the shoot apical meristem C) the roots D) a mature upper leaf on the opposite side of the plant from the treated leaf E) a young leaf directly above the treated leaf Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 35.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 35-5. Describe the movement of phloem in terms of sources and sinks.

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38) Which of the following is a similarity between xylem and phloem transport?

A) Many cells in both tissues have sieve plates.

B) Expenditure of energy from ATP is required.

C) Transpiration is required for both processes.

D) Bulk flow of water is involved.

Answer: D Explanation: Alternate correct answers for different exam versions include "The cells through which transport occurs are 'dead' at maturity"; and "Transport can occur in opposite directions."

Type: MC Reference: Section 35.2, 35.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 35-1 & 5: Explain the concept of water movement in terms of water potential. Describe the movement of phloem in terms of sources and sinks.

39) The processes of water flow in xylem and sugar translocation in phloem differ in many respects. Which of the following is not a difference between xylem and phloem transport?

A) Water potential gradients are required for xylem transport to occur, but not for phloem transport.

B) Xylem transport is a wholly passive process; phloem transport includes active (energyrequiring) processes.

C) Cells through which xylem transport occurs are "dead" at maturity; those in phloem transport are "alive."

D) Xylem transport always occurs in the same direction; phloem transport does not.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 35.2, 35.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 35-1 & 5: Explain the concept of water movement in terms of water potential. Describe the movement of phloem in terms of sources and sinks.

40) The research by Natalie De Witt and Michael Sussman showed that proton pump AHA3 is localized in the membrane of companion cells of the source tissue. What is the function of this pump?

A) to move protons from inside of a companion cell to outside B) to move protons from outside of a companion cell to inside C) to move protons from inside of a companion cell to a source cell D) to move protons and sucrose from inside of a companion cell to outside E) to move protons and sucrose from outside of a companion cell to inside Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 35.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 35-1. Explain the concept of water movement in terms of water potential.

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41) The researchers discovered a new proton pump that is involved in phloem unloading in the sugar storage tissue. Predict the movement of ions carried out by this pump.

A) active transport of protons from cytoplasm to vacuole B) active transport of protons from vacuole to tonoplast C) active transport of protons from vacuole to cytoplasm D) active transport of sugar from cytoplasm to vacuole E) passive transport of sugar from cytoplasm to vacuole Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 35.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 35-5. Describe the movement of phloem in terms of sources and sinks.

42) Irrigation reduces soil quality and rains usually don't. Why? A) Rains deliver more water to soil than irrigation does.

B) Water used for irrigation contains pesticides that affect soil quality.

C) Rainwater contains less inorganic material.

D) The fast water flow during irrigation removes organic material from soil.

E) The fast water flow during rains is able to remove toxic materials from topsoil.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 35.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 35-2. Describe the two components of water potential in plants.

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Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition(Freeman et al.)

Chapter 36 Plant Nutrition 1) Which of the following is not true about an essential nutrient?

A) It is necessary for plant growth and reproduction.

B) It is required for a specific structure or metabolic function.

C) It cannot be synthesized by a plant.

D) It is produced by symbiotic bacteria.

E) All of the above are correct.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 36.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 36-1. Identify the essential micronutrients and macronutrients that plants require to support growth.

2) Which elements are responsible for the greater part of plant wet weight?

A) carbon, nitrogen, oxygen B) carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus C) carbon, oxygen, hydrogen D) oxygen, hydrogen, phosphorus E) oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 36.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 36-1. Identify the essential micronutrients and macronutrients that plants require to support growth.

3) Which criteria allow biologists to divide chemicals into macronutrients and micronutrients?

A) their availability in the soil B) the amounts in which plants need them C) the way they are used by plants D) whether or not they are essential for plant growth E) all of the above Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 36.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 36-1. Identify the essential micronutrients and macronutrients that plants require to support growth.

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4) Which elements are most often the limiting nutrients for plant growth? A) nitrogen, potassium, phosphorus B) nitrogen, phosphorus, sulfur C) nitrogen, sodium, phosphorus D) phosphorus, potassium, carbon E) calcium, nitrogen, phosphorus Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 36.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 36-1. Identify the essential micronutrients and macronutrients that plants require to support growth. 5) Which of the following experiments is able to determine if an element is essential for plant growth? A) chemical analysis of plant ash B) measuring the amount of the element in the soil before and after plant growth C) measuring the weight of the plant and soil before and after plant growth D) growth of a plant by hydroponics without an element E) all of the above Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 36.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 36-1. Identify the essential micronutrients and macronutrients that plants require to support growth. 6) To understand the role of zinc in plant growth and development, you are growing a tomato plant using hydroponics. Which plant organs do you expect to have defects if you provide the plant with a solution devoid of zinc? A) leaves B) stems C) roots D) all organs E) aboveground organs Answer: D Explanation: Although a reduced amount of an essential element can affect only part of the plant, complete absence of any essential element will affect all plant organs.

Type: MC Reference: Section 36.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 36-1. Identify the essential micronutrients and macronutrients that plants require to support growth.

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7) To determine the requirement of chlorine for plant growth, you decided to perform a hydroponic experiment. What solution are you going to use to grow control plants for comparison with chlorine-derived plants?

A) pure water B) water with chlorine C) water with macronutrients and chlorine D) water with micronutrients and chlorine E) water with essential elements Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 36.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 36-1. Identify the essential micronutrients and macronutrients that plants require to support growth.

8) A scientist observed a plant where only the young leaves are deteriorating. What nutrient is likely in short supply?

A) phosphorous B) iron C) nitrogen D) potassium E) a mobile nutrient Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 36.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 36-1. Identify the essential micronutrients and macronutrients that plants require to support growth.

9) What type of soil contains the highest amount of oxygen?

A) clay B) sand C) gravel D) silt Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 36.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 36-1 & 2. Identify the essential micronutrients and macronutrients that plants require to support growth. Explain how nutrients are absorbed into the plant.

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10) What type of soil is most difficult for roots to penetrate?

A) gravel B) humus C) clay D) sand E) silt Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 36.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 36-2 & 5. Explain how nutrients are absorbed into the plant. Describe the specialized methods of certain plants for obtaining nutrients.

11) The ability for a plant's roots to obtain nutrients and oxygen from the soil is partly determined by a soil's texture. Texture describes which of the following soil components?

A) moisture level B) proportions of gravel, sand, clay, and silt C) decaying organic material D) the amount of added fertilizer E) dissolved oxygen Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 36.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 36-2. Explain how nutrients are absorbed into the plant.

12) Humus is comprised of which of the following components?

A) inorganic material B) clay C) biotic and decaying organic material D) loams E) gravel, sand, and silt Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 36.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 36-1. Identify the essential micronutrients and macronutrients that plants require to support growth.

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13) You want to grow a plant that prefers neutral pH in a limestone soil. What should you add to the soil to improve plant growth?

A) sulfur (S + H2O + 3/2 O2 ↔ 2 H+ + SO42-) B) calcium carbonate (CaCO3 + H2O ↔ HCO3- + Ca2+ + OH-) C) aluminum hydroxide [Al(OH)3 + 2H+ ↔ Al(OH)2+ + 2H2O] D) potassium nitrate (KNO3 ↔ K+ + NO3-) Answer: A Explanation: Mentioning that limestone soils are basic could make this question easier for students.

Type: MC Reference: Section 36.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 36-2. Explain how nutrients are absorbed into the plant.

14) Which of the following binds to clay particles?

A) potassium ions B) nitrate ions C) phosphoric acid D) carbon dioxide E) potassium and nitrate ions Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 36.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 36-2. Explain how nutrients are absorbed into the plant.

15) Soil leaching is usually A) beneficial for plants.

B) neutral for plants.

C) harmful for plants.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 36.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 36-2. Explain how nutrients are absorbed into the plant.

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16) The micronutrient iron is abundant in soil, but often unavailable to plants due to insolubility.

Knowing that the reaction Fe(OH)3 + 3H+ ↔ Fe3+ + 3H2O occurs, and assuming all soil samples have same total amount of iron in them, which type of soil would you predict to have the highest amount of soluble iron?

A) neutral B) acidic C) alkaline D) The amount of iron in soil does not depend on pH. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 36.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 36-2. Explain how nutrients are absorbed into the plant.

17) How would you expect the root system of a plant grown by hydroponics to compare to the root system of a plant grown in soil?

A) more developed B) less developed C) the same D) absent Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 36.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 36-1. Identify the essential micronutrients and macronutrients that plants require to support growth.

18) What is the function of proton pumps localized in the plant plasma membrane?

A) to create ATP B) to transfer phosphorous groups from ATP to proteins C) to transfer metal ions across the plasma membrane D) to transfer anions across the plasma membrane E) to create a membrane potential Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 36.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 36-2. Explain how nutrients are absorbed into the plant.

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19) What is the charge on the inside of a plant cell plasma membrane?

A) positive B) negative C) neutral Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 36.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 36-2. Explain how nutrients are absorbed into the plant.

20) Why do plants use cotransporters instead of ion channels to transfer anions into cells?

A) Cotransporters are able to transfer anions against the membrane potential gradient, but ion channels cannot.

B) Cotransporters are able to transfer anions against the concentration gradient, but ion channels cannot.

C) Cotransporters are able to transfer anions against the proton gradient, but ion channels cannot.

D) Anions are too bulky to be transported by ion channels.

Answer: A Explanation: Although both cotransporters and ion channels can transfer ions against the concentrations gradient (thus B is incorrect), only cotransporters are able to transfer ions against membrane potential.

Type: MC Reference: Section 36.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 36-2. Explain how nutrients are absorbed into the plant.

21) Where are ion channels localized?

A) in the cytoplasm B) inside the nucleus C) spanning plasma membranes D) on the extracellular surface of plasma membranes E) on the intracellular surface of plasma membranes Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 36.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 36-2. Explain how nutrients are absorbed into the plant.

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22) What major benefits do plants and mycorrhizal fungi receive from their symbiotic relationship?

A) Plants receive sugars, and fungi receive nitrogen.

B) Plants receive micronutrients, and fungi receive sugars.

C) Plants receive macronutrients, and fungi receive micronutrients.

D) Plants receive nitrogen and phosphorus, and fungi receive sugars.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 36.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 36-5. Describe the specialized methods of certain plants for obtaining nutrients.

23) In an experiment, you find that the addition of arbuscular mycorrhizal fungi to the soil improves the growth rate of tomato plants. Which of the following conclusions are supported by your experiment?

A) Hyphae of fungi were able to penetrate the walls of the tomato root cells.

B) The soil used was deficient in nitrogen or phosphorus.

C) Tomato plants associate with mycorrhizal fungi.

D) Arbuscular mycorrhizal fungi can supply tomato plants with nutrients and water.

E) All of the above answers apply.

Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 36.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 36-5. Describe the specialized methods of certain plants for obtaining nutrients.

24) After mutagenesis and screening, you have found a mutant that is able to grow in soil with high salt content. Chemical analysis showed that this plant has a decreased amount of Na+ relative to normal plants. What kind of mutation do you predict this plant contains?

A) mutation in the plasma membrane sodium channel B) mutation in the metallothioneins C) mutation in the tonoplast sodium channel D) mutation in the tonoplast antiporter E) mutation within the Casparian strip Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 36.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 36-3. Describe the active and passive systems that plants utilize for excluding toxic ions.

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25) After mutagenesis and screening take place, you have found a mutant that is able to grow in soil with high copper content. Protein analysis shows that the concentration of metallothioneins in the mutant is different from that in normal plants. How does the concentration of metallothioneins likely differ in the mutant relative to the normal plant?

A) Metallothioneins are absent in the mutant.

B) The concentration of metallothioneins is greater in the mutant.

C) The concentration of metallothioneins is lower in the mutant.

D) Metallothioneins are the most abundant proteins in the mutant.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 36.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 36-3. Describe the active and passive systems that plants utilize for excluding toxic ions.

26) Both ectomycorrhizal fungi and rhizobia are able to supply plants with usable forms of nitrogen. From what sources do rhizobia and ectomycorrhizal fungi that are associated with plants obtain nitrogen?

A) Fungi absorb N2 from the atmosphere, and rhizobia obtain nitrogen by decomposition of organic material.

B) Fungi obtain nitrogen by decomposition of organic material, and rhizobia absorb N2 from the atmosphere.

C) They both absorb ammonia from soil, which they nitrify to NO2-.

D) They both absorb N2 from the atmosphere.

E) They both obtain nitrogen by decomposition of organic material.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 36.3, 36.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 36-2 & 4. Explain how nutrients are absorbed into the plant. Describe the mutualistic association between nitrogen-fixing bacteria and the roots of certain plants.

27) Why is nitrogen fixation an essential process?

A) Nitrogen fixation can only be done by certain prokaryotes.

B) Fixed nitrogen is often the limiting factor in plant growth.

C) Nitrogen fixation is very expensive in terms of metabolic energy.

D) Nitrogen fixers are sometimes symbiotic with legumes.

E) Nitrogen-fixing capacity can be genetically engineered.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 36.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 36-4. Describe the mutualistic association between nitrogen-fixing bacteria and the roots of certain plants.

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28) After mutagenesis, the bacteria Sinorhizobium meliloti became unable to colonize Medicago truncatula plants due to the absence of recognition by the host plant. Which of the following genes is most likely the site of mutation?

A) nitrogenase B) flavonoid-synthesizing enzyme C) Nod factors D) leghemoglobin E) peptidoglycans of the bacterial cell wall Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 36.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 36-4. Describe the mutualistic association between nitrogen-fixing bacteria and the roots of certain plants.

29) What is the right sequence of steps during infection of plants by nitrogen-fixing bacteria?

A) Rhizobia release Nod factors; roots release flavonoids; rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair; infection thread grows into the root cortex; nodule forms.

B) Rhizobia release flavonoids; roots release Nod factors; rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair; infection thread grows into the root cortex; nodule forms.

C) Roots release flavonoids; rhizobia release Nod factors; rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair; nodule forms; infection thread grows into the root cortex.

D) Roots release flavonoids; rhizobia release Nod factors; rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair; infection thread grows into the root cortex; nodule forms.

E) Roots release Nod factors; rhizobia release flavonoids; rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair; nodule forms; infection thread grows into the root cortex.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 36.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 36-4. Describe the mutualistic association between nitrogen-fixing bacteria and the roots of certain plants.

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30) Researchers are interested in improving crop plants to enable them to form a symbiotic relationship with nitrogen-fixing bacteria. What genes would you need to transfer to a plant that does not associate with rhizobia to enable it to do so? A) genes responsible for the synthesis of flavonoids and receptor for Nod factors B) genes responsible for the synthesis of Nod factors and receptor for flavonoids C) receptor for Nod factors and leghemoglobin gene D) genes responsible for the synthesis of Nod factors and receptor for flavonoids and leghemoglobin gene E) None of the above is sufficient, since many more genes need to be transferred. Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 36.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 36-4. Describe the mutualistic association between nitrogen-fixing bacteria and the roots of certain plants. 31) Spanish moss, an epiphyte, obtains nutrients from which possible source? A) soil B) the oak tree it lives on C) dust D) humus E) insects Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 36.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 36-5. Describe the specialized methods of certain plants for obtaining nutrients. 32) What is a typical habitat for carnivorous plants? A) mangrove B) woodlands C) bog D) desert E) tundra Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 36.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 36-5. Describe the specialized methods of certain plants for obtaining nutrients.

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33) While hiking in a forest, you notice an unusual plant growing on the branches of a tree. What will help you to determine if this plant is epiphytic or parasitic?

A) If the plant is green, it is epiphytic; if not, then it is parasitic.

B) The root of an epiphytic plant will be in the soil, but a parasitic plant will grow from the trunk of a tree.

C) The roots of a parasitic plant will penetrate under the bark into the tree xylem, and the roots of an epithetic plant will not.

D) The epithetic plant will have leaves forming tanks collecting water, and the parasitic plant will not.

Answer: C Explanation: Most parasitic plants are green because they use other plants mostly for nutrients and water. Roots of epithetic plants do not reach soil, and not all epithetic plants have leaves forming tanks.

Type: MC Reference: Section 36.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 36-5. Describe the specialized methods of certain plants for obtaining nutrients.

34) Give two reasons that relatively few plants thrive in bogs.

Answer: (1) Concentrations of available nutrients are low because decomposition is slow in bogs; and (2) concentration of oxygen is too low for most plants.

Type: SA Reference: Section 36.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 36-5. Describe the specialized methods of certain plants for obtaining nutrients.

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Figure 36.1 35) Iron shortage is the most common human nutritional deficiency in the world. Plants are the major source of iron in most diets, so researchers are interested in understanding their mechanism of iron intake and in developing iron-rich crops. Recently, researchers showed (Vert et al., IRT1, an Arabidopsis transporter essential for iron uptake from the soil and for plant growth. Plant Cell 14 [2002]:1223-33) that under iron-deficient conditions, the IRT1 gene is responsible for most of the iron uptake activity in roots. To demonstrate the importance of IRT1 for iron accumulation, researchers measured leaf iron content in irt1-1 mutants containing deactivated IRT1. Mutant plants were grown in iron-poor soil (irt1-1 in graph) and soil rich with iron (irt1-1 +Fe in graph). Wild-type (WT) plants grown in iron-poor soil were used as a control.

Which of the graphs represent the data researchers might have received in their experiment?

Answer: C Type: SA Reference: Section 36.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 36-1. Identify the essential micronutrients and macronutrients that plants require to support growth.

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Figure 36.2 36) The IRT1 gene is responsible for most of the iron uptake activity in roots (Vert et al., Plant Cell 14 [2002]:1223-33). To determine the specificity of the IRT1 transporter in Arabidopsis plants, researchers measured the concentration of manganese, zinc, copper, and cobalt contained in wild-type and irt1-1 mutant plants. What conclusions about IRT1 specificity can you draw from the above data?

A) Under iron-deficient conditions, IRT1 is highly specific for Fe. B) Under iron-deficient conditions, IRT1 is important for the transport of iron and copper.

C) IRT1 is important for the transport of iron and copper independent of iron concentration.

D) Under iron-deficient conditions, IRT1 is necessary for the transport of iron, zinc, manganese, and cobalt.

E) IRT1 participates in the transport of iron, zinc, manganese, and cobalt independent of iron concentration.

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Answer: D Explanation: The original figure is published in Vert et al., IRT1, an Arabidopsis transporter essential for iron uptake from the soil and for plant growth. Plant Cell 14 (2002):1223—33, as Figure 6. Some data is deleted from the figure as unrelated to the question.

Type: MC Reference: Section 36.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 36-1 & 2. Identify the essential micronutrients and macronutrients that plants require to support growth. Explain how nutrients are absorbed into the plant.

37) Which of the following is being replenished when carnivorous plants trap and digest small animals?

A) energy B) carbohydrates C) lipids and steroids D) nitrogen and other minerals E) water Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 36.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 36-5. Describe the specialized methods of certain plants for obtaining nutrients.

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Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition (Freeman et al.)

Chapter 37 Plant Sensory Systems, Signals, and Responses 1) An increase in girth and decrease in height of a shoot is in response to which of the following environmental stimuli?

A) gravity B) wind C) pressure D) pathogen-inflicted wound E) presence of water Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 37.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 37-1. Describe how plants detect and respond to sensory information.

2) Which of the following events would be initially triggered by a signal transduction cascade?

A) change in ion flow through a membrane channel B) activation of transcription C) activation of translation D) change in the receptor protein's shape Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 37.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 37-1. Describe how plants detect and respond to sensory information.

3) The addition of a phosphate group to a protein is called ________, and it usually results in ________.

A) dephosphorylation; mutation B) phosphorylation; protein activation or inactivation C) signal transduction; changes in gene transcription D) oxidation; changes in growth patterns Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 37.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 37-1. Describe how plants detect and respond to sensory information.

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4) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events after a receptor perceives a signal?

A) The receptor is phosphorylated and then changes its shape. This leads to activation of gene transcription and finally to hormone release from the cell.

B) The receptor is phosphorylated and then changes its shape. This leads to hormone release from the cell, which activates gene transcription.

C) The receptor changes its shape and then becomes phosphorylated. This leads to hormone release from the cell, which activates gene transcription.

D) The receptor changes its shape and then becomes phosphorylated. This leads to activation of gene transcription and finally to hormone release from the cell.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 37.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 37-2. Explain the connection between signal transduction and hormone production in plants in response to light, gravity, and touch.

5) Which of the following is not a characteristic of plant hormones?

A) They exist in plant in very tiny amounts.

B) They change their shape in response to stimulus.

C) They are able to move from one cell to another cell through extracellular spaces.

D) They affect only cells with an appropriate receptor.

E) They can be transported by xylem or phloem sap.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 37.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 37-2. Explain the connection between signal transduction and hormone production in plants in response to light, gravity, and touch.

6) To find the gene that encodes for the blue-light receptor, researchers inserted the gene for the PHOT1 protein into insect cells growing in culture. When they exposed the transgenic cells to blue light, they found that the PHOT1 protein became phosphorylated. No other plant proteins were present in the insect cells. Which of the following is a reasonable conclusion from this result?

A) The PHOT1 protein enabled the insect cells to photosynthesize.

B) The PHOT1 protein phosphorylated itself in the presence of blue light.

C) The PHOT1 protein is not responsive to blue light.

D) The PHOT1 protein is photoreversible.

E) The PHOT1 protein is not functional in insect cells.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 37.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 37-1. Describe how plants detect and respond to sensory information.

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7) When Charles and Francis Darwin first documented phototropism, why was it important that they germinated the grass seeds in the dark before beginning the experiment? A) so the young shoots would grow slowly B) so the young shoots would grow quickly C) so the young shoots would grow straight D) so the young shoots would be soft enough to bend Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 37.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 37-2. Explain the connection between signal transduction and hormone production in plants in response to light, gravity, and touch. 8) Upon exposure to blue light, plants not only begin to grow toward the light, but move their chloroplasts to the sunny side of each cell. Why would it be advantageous to move chloroplasts within cells? A) to maximize light absorption by the chloroplasts for photosynthesis B) to add weight to the sunny side of the plant so the plant will bend C) to maximize heat absorption by the chloroplasts for cellular respiration D) to reduce stomatal opening on the sunny side of the plants E) moving chloroplasts is not advantageous because it requires an input of energy Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 37.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 37-3. Explain how cells respond to hormonal stimulation and how this response leads to improved survival and reproduction. 9) The cells that have phosphorylated phototropin receptors elongate in response to blue light. A) true B) false Answer: B Explanation: Phototropins are phosphorylated in response to blue light. As a result, auxin moves out of these cells to cells on the other side of the stem. The cells on the other side of the stem elongate. Type: MC Reference: Section 37.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 37-3. Explain how cells respond to hormonal stimulation and how this response leads to improved survival and reproduction.

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10) To understand how plant phototropic responses are regulated, a researcher performed the following experiment. He exposed oat seedlings to light and then cut off tips of coleoptiles and placed them on agar blocks. Later, the agar blocks were placed on decapitated coleoptiles of other individuals. Some seedlings were kept in darkness, while others were exposed to light.

Based on your knowledge of auxin synthesis and mode of action, predict in what cases the decapitated coleoptiles would bend to the right. A) when the block was placed on the left side of the coleoptiles in both dark and light treatments B) when the block was placed on the right side of the coleoptiles in both dark and light treatments C) when the block was placed on the left side of the coleoptiles in dark only D) when the block was placed on the right side of the coleoptiles in dark only E) as long as light was coming from the right, decapitated coleoptiles bent to the right independently of agar block placement Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 37.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 37-3. Explain how cells respond to hormonal stimulation and how this response leads to improved survival and reproduction. 11) How does auxin binding to the auxin receptor trigger cell elongation? A) A signal transduction cascade causes additional proton pumps to be made, and those proteins pump protons up their concentration gradient and out of the cell. B) A signal transduction cascade causes proton channels to open, and protons to flow down their concentration gradient and out of the cell. C) The auxin receptor is a proton channel that opens in response to auxin binding, allowing protons to flow down their concentration gradient and into the cell. D) The auxin receptor begins phosphorylating proton pumps, activating them to pump protons up their concentration gradient and out of the cell. E) A signal transduction cascade results in the opening of a water pore that allows water into the cell, causing it to swell.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 37.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 37-2. Explain the connection between signal transduction and hormone production in plants in response to light, gravity, and touch.

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12) An eccentric millionaire botanist has offered a $25,000 scholarship to anyone who can successfully get a plant to grow through a vertical maze in complete darkness. The maze is not in a box; the maze is simply drawn on the wall, and the contestants must get their plant to grow in a pattern that matches the path through the maze. You need the money and feel confident that you can accomplish this task. Which of the following techniques will help you succeed?

A) Apply auxin directly to the shoot tip on the side to which you want the tip to bend.

B) Apply auxin directly to the lower part of the stem opposite from the direction you want the stem to bend.

C) Inject compounds that block auxin receptors into the part of the stem opposite from the direction you want the stem to bend.

D) Plant the roots in two different pots, and apply auxin to the root bucket that is on the same side as the direction you want the plant to bend.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 37.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 37-3. Explain how cells respond to hormonal stimulation and how this response leads to improved survival and reproduction.

13) Put the following events of the acid growth hypothesis in order.

1. Cell wall softens and expands.

2. Sugar enters the cell via proton cotransporters.

3. Protons are pumped out of the cell by H+-ATPases.

4. Positively charged ions enter the cell.

5. New cellulose microfibrils are produced to extend cell length.

6. Water enters the cell via osmosis, and the cell swells.

A) 1, 3, 5, 6, 2 B) 3, 6, 4, 3, 2, 1 C) 6, 4, 3, 1, 2, 5 D) 3, 4, 2, 6, 1, 5 E) 6, 1, 2, 4, 3, 5 Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 37.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 37-3. Explain how cells respond to hormonal stimulation and how this response leads to improved survival and reproduction.

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14) You grew reed canary grass seedlings in the dark and cut off their tips. You then placed the tips on agar blocks, one in dark and one in light. Based on your knowledge of auxin movement and stability in light, predict the concentration of auxin in the agar blocks. A) The block in the light should have more auxin; the one in the dark will have less. B) The block in the dark should have more auxin; the one in the light will have less. C) The block in the light should have some auxin; the one in the dark will have none. D) The block in the dark should have some auxin; the one in the light will have none. E) Both blocks will have an equal amount of auxin. Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 37.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 37-4. Explain how hormones regulate plant dormancy and growth, especially in response to changes in environmental conditions. 15) Mammalian eyes sense light because they have cells containing molecules called opsins, which change structure when exposed to light. Which of the following plant molecule(s) would be analogous to mammalian opsins in their light-sensing ability? A) auxin B) statoliths C) phytochromes D) cytokinins E) gibberellins Answer: C Explanation: Another correct answer is phototropins. Type: MC Reference: Section 37.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 37-1. Describe how plants detect and respond to sensory information. 16) Lettuce seeds need full sunlight to germinate; therefore, germination is inhibited when their phytochrome molecules are in the Pfr conformation. A) true B) false Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 37.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 37-4. Explain how hormones regulate plant dormancy and growth, especially in response to changes in environmental conditions.

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Plant A

B

C

Result (Flowers or no flowers) No flowers

Growth Conditions 14 hours of darkness 14 hours of darkness, interrupted by 10 minutes of light during the fifth hour No flowers 14 hours of light, interrupted by 10 minutes of darkness during the fifth hour Flowers Table 37.1

17) Refer to the table above. How would Plant A be classified?

A) long day B) short day C) day-neutral Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 37.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 37-4. Explain how hormones regulate plant dormancy and growth, especially in response to changes in environmental conditions.

18) Refer to the table above. Why did plant B fail to flower?

A) It sensed a nine-hour night.

B) It sensed a nine-hour day.

C) Flowering was inhibited by the excess of far-red light.

D) There was not enough blue-light exposure to trigger flowering.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 37.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 37-4. Explain how hormones regulate plant dormancy and growth, especially in response to changes in environmental conditions.

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19) Plant C is a long-day plant.

A) true B) false Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 37.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 37-4. Explain how hormones regulate plant dormancy and growth, especially in response to changes in environmental conditions.

20) Which of the following signals indicates shade to a plant?

A) lower temperature B) blue light C) far-red light D) green light Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 37.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 37-4. Explain how hormones regulate plant dormancy and growth, especially in response to changes in environmental conditions.

21) Suppose a plant had a photosynthetic pigment that absorbed far-red wavelengths of light. In which of the following environments could that plant thrive?

A) on the floor of a lake, whose water contains abundant green algae B) on the forest floor, beneath a canopy of taller plants C) on the ocean floor, in very deep waters D) on mountaintops, closer to the Sun Answer: B Explanation: The best answer is B, but an argument could be made for A (especially if it were a shallow lake) because algae are photosynthetic, and far-red light would likely pass through them as it does through plant leaves. This question could initiate a discussion about photosynthetic pigments and why far-red light signals shade to a plant.

Type: MC Reference: Section 37.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 37-4. Explain how hormones regulate plant dormancy and growth, especially in response to changes in environmental conditions.

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Figure 37.1 22) The data in the figure above were taken from a study on the effects of far-red light on stem elongation. The data indicate that plants from shady habitats do not respond to far-red light by growing taller. Which of the following would be a logical hypothesis for why these plants do not respond to far-red light?

A) The shade plants do not have phototropin.

B) The shade plants do not have protein kinases.

C) The shade plants do not have cryptochromes.

D) The shade plants do not have phytochrome.

E) All of these are reasonable hypotheses.

Answer: D Explanation: This question can be used to get students to realize that every good experiment leads to more hypotheses and experiments. After posing this question, instructors could ask students to design an experiment to test the hypothesis that plants from shady habitats are not responsive to far-red light because they lack phytochromes. Instructors could also ask students to formulate alternative hypotheses regarding why these plants do not grow taller in response to farred light, should further study find that these plants do have phytochrome.

The figure is from the second edition of Biological Sciences (Fig 38.2). While the figure is not used in the third edition, the subject of the question is covered.

Type: MC Reference: Section 37.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 37-4. Explain how hormones regulate plant dormancy and growth, especially in response to changes in environmental conditions.

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23) Why does Arabidopsis have 5 genes that code for phytochrome?

A) They mediate different types of responses to red/far-red light.

B) Several of them sense red light and the others sense far-red light.

C) All 5 phytochrome absorb different types of light, maximizing sensitivity of plant to it.

D) Some of the phytochromes do not function in light absorption, but regulate other processes.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 37.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 37-4. Explain how hormones regulate plant dormancy and growth, especially in response to changes in environmental conditions.

Figure 37.2 24) Suppose you laid a seedling on its side so that the root was parallel to the ground.

Immediately after the change in position, where in the root cells (position A, B, or C in the figure above) would you find the amyloplasts? The answer should be one of the positions show in Figure 37.2.

A) A B) B C) C Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 37.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 37-4. Explain how hormones regulate plant dormancy and growth, especially in response to changes in environmental conditions.

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25) Suppose you laid a seedling on its side so that the root was parallel to the ground. Several hours after the change in position, where in the root cells (position A, B, or C in Figure 37.2 above) would you find the amyloplasts?

A) A B) B C) C Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 37.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 37-4. Explain how hormones regulate plant dormancy and growth, especially in response to changes in environmental conditions.

26) If cells in the ________ are removed, roots will no longer respond to gravity.

A) root hairs B) zone of elongation C) root cap D) secondary meristem E) statoliths Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 37.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 37-4. Explain how hormones regulate plant dormancy and growth, especially in response to changes in environmental conditions.

27) Shoots that grow vertically toward the sun can be characterized as A) positively phototropic and negatively gravitropic.

B) positively phototropic and positively gravitropic.

C) negatively phototropic and negatively gravitropic.

D) negatively phototropic and positively gravitropic.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 37.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 37-4. Explain how hormones regulate plant dormancy and growth, especially in response to changes in environmental conditions.

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28) ________ in concentration of auxin in shoot cells and ________ in concentration of auxin in root cells lead to cell elongation.

A) An increase; an increase B) An increase; a decrease C) A decrease; an increase D) A decrease; a decrease Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 37.3, 37.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 37-3. Explain how cells respond to hormonal stimulation and how this response leads to improved survival and reproduction.

29) What will a plant sensitive to touch or vibration look like when it is repeatedly touched or exposed to wind?

A) It will be tall and spindly.

B) It will be tall and stocky.

C) It will be shorter and stockier.

D) It will be short and spindly.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 37.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 37-1. Describe how plants detect and respond to sensory information.

30) Which of the following will occur when sensory hairs in a Venus flytrap are stimulated?

A) Venus flytrap sensory cells will become depolarized.

B) Positive ions will enter the Venus flytrap sensory cells.

C) The cytoplasm of the Venus flytrap sensory cells will become more negative.

D) A and B E) A and C Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 37.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 37-1. Describe how plants detect and respond to sensory information.

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31) If a Venus flytrap were treated with a drug that inhibited the H+-ATPase, which of the following would likely happen?

A) Its cells would become depolarized.

B) It would not be able to close its flytraps.

C) It would not be able to reopen its flytraps once closed.

Answer: B Explanation: This question is designed to stimulate discussion of the role of the H+-ATPase in generating resting membrane potential in Venus flytrap cells. A case could be made for any of the three answers being correct. If the H+-ATPase were inhibited, then the membrane potential would slowly become more positive (depolarize) as protons and other cations diffused through leak channels in the membrane. If a touch stimulus were applied to the flytrap immediately after application of the drug, then the flytrap may still be able generate an action potential to close. If the flytrap did close, the cells of the flytrap would not be able to reestablish resting membrane potential to reverse the process that led to the flytrap closing.

Type: MC Reference: Section 37.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 37-1. Describe how plants detect and respond to sensory information.

32) You have a bush in your yard that is the height that you want it, but not as bushy as you want it to be. How can you prune it to trigger it to get bushier?

A) Cut off the leaves at the ends of several branches.

B) Cut off the tips of the main shoots.

C) Cut off lower branches.

D) Cut some of the higher branches off at the stem.

E) Cut off the leaves at the base of most of the branches.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 37.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 37-3. Explain how cells respond to hormonal stimulation and how this response leads to improved survival and reproduction.

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33) Antisense gene sequences can be used to block the transcription of specific genes in a cell or group of cells. Suppose you took a cutting from a plant and treated it with an antisense gene that would block the transcription of an enzyme involved in auxin production. What would happen to your cutting?

A) Photosynthesis would decrease.

B) It would grow to be very tall and thin.

C) Adventitious root growth would be greatly reduced.

D) It would not be able to initiate a hypersensitive response.

E) Further differentiation of xylem and phloem would occur.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 37.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 37-3. Explain how cells respond to hormonal stimulation and how this response leads to improved survival and reproduction.

34) Why does auxin move through the plant slower than sucrose does?

A) Auxin transport is active (requires energy) while sucrose transport is passive.

B) Auxin is transported by diffusion while cotransporters are involved in sucrose transport.

C) Auxin transport through phloem is slower than sucrose transport through parenchyma cells.

D) Auxin transport through parenchyma cells is slower than sucrose transport through phloem.

E) Both auxin and sucrose are transported through phloem and parenchyma cells, but auxin is a bigger molecule and moves slower by diffusion.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 37.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 37-7. Explain the connection between signal transduction and hormone production in plants in response to light, gravity, and touch.

35) Which of the following is the strongest evidence that cytokinins regulate cell divisions?

A) increase of cyclin gene expression in tissues exposed to cytokinin B) decrease of cyclin gene expression in tissues exposed to cytokinin C) induction of shoot growths in tissues exposed to cytokinin D) induction of root growths in tissues exposed to cytokinin E) ability of cytokinin to interact with auxin at the molecular level and change auxin biosynthesis and transport Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 37.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 37-3. Explain how cells respond to hormonal stimulation and how this response leads to improved survival and reproduction.

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36) What hormones are necessary for maintenance of plant tissue culture?

A) gibberellins and auxin B) gibberellins and cytokinin C) gibberellins and ABA D) auxin and ABA E) auxin and cytokinin Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 37.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 37-3. Explain how cells respond to hormonal stimulation and how this response leads to improved survival and reproduction.

37) ________ prevents seeds from germinating until conditions are favourable for the growth of the plant.

A) Ethylene B) Auxin C) Salicylic acid D) Gibberellin E) Abscisic acid Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 37.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 37-3. Explain how cells respond to hormonal stimulation and how this response leads to improved survival and reproduction.

38) Suppose a plant had a nonsense mutation in a gene that encodes for an enzyme required for the synthesis of gibberellic acid. If the plant is homozygous at this locus, what will its phenotype be?

A) tall B) bushy C) short D) large fruit E) underdeveloped seeds Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 37.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 37-3. Explain how cells respond to hormonal stimulation and how this response leads to improved survival and reproduction.

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39) In lettuce seeds, blue light initiates germination. If you measured hormone levels within the seed, which hormone would be produced upon exposure to blue light?

A) gibberellin B) ethylene C) abscisic acid D) salicylic acid E) alpha amylase Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 37.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 37-3. Explain how cells respond to hormonal stimulation and how this response leads to improved survival and reproduction.

40) Antisense gene sequences can be used to block the transcription of specific genes in a cell or group of cells. Suppose you treated a seed with an antisense sequence that blocked the transcription of GAMyb transcription factor. What would happen to the seed?

A) It would germinate too soon.

B) It would not be responsive to gibberellins.

C) It would not make abscisic acid.

D) It would not grow a hypocotyl during germination.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 37.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 37-3. Explain how cells respond to hormonal stimulation and how this response leads to improved survival and reproduction.

41) A population of plants experiences several years of severe drought. Much of the population dies due to lack of water, but a few individuals survive. You set out to discover the physiological basis for their adaptation to such an extreme environmental change. You hypothesize that the survivors have the ability to synthesize higher levels of ________ than their siblings do.

A) ethylene B) auxin C) gibberellin D) cytokinin E) abscisic acid Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 37.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 37-4. Explain how hormones regulate plant dormancy and growth, especially in response to changes in environmental conditions.

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42) What do abscisic acid and gibberellins have in common?

A) They work together to induce germination by triggering the metabolism of endosperm nutrients.

B) They both induce the formation of transcription factors that bind to the α-amylase promoter.

C) They are both released from roots to signal drought to the leaves and stimulate the opening of stomata.

D) They bind to the same cell-surface receptor on cells of the aleurone layer in seeds.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 37.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 37-2. Explain the connection between signal transduction and hormone production in plants in response to light, gravity, and touch.

Figure 37.3 43) Figure 37.3 is a Northern blot showing the expression of Myb mRNA in cultured aleurone layer cells that were treated with gibberellin versus control cells that were not treated with gibberellin. Only the gibberellin-treated cells expressed the Myb mRNA, but the Myb mRNA was not detectable until 6-12 hours after gibberellin application. Why did it take so long?

A) Gibberellin had to bind to a receptor and initiate a signal transduction cascade that, in turn, had to activate a transcription factor that triggered the transcription of the Myb gene.

B) Gibberellin had to diffuse into the aleurone layer cells and be metabolized in order to trigger activation of a transcription factor that triggered transcription of the Myb gene.

C) Gibberellin had to enter the cells and find the Myb gene among the large plant genome.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 37.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 37-2. Explain the connection between signal transduction and hormone production in plants in response to light, gravity, and touch.

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44) What do phototropin and ABA have in common?

A) They induce stomata closing.

B) They regulate opening and closing of water pores in the plasma membrane.

C) They regulate activity of H+-ATPases.

D) They are localized in the plasma membrane.

E) They are blue light photoreceptors.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 37.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 37-1 & 3. Describe how plants detect and respond to sensory information. Explain how cells respond to hormonal stimulation and how this response leads to improved survival and reproduction.

45) You buy some fresh fruit at the grocery store. When you get home, you are in a hurry, and you put the fresh fruit in the crisper with some overripe fruit. At the end of the week you are disappointed to find that your new fruit has already become overripe. What happened?

A) The refrigerator was probably set too high. As a result, the production of auxin was induced in overripe fruit and caused production of ethylene in the fresh fruit.

B) The fresh fruit was not washed before refrigerating, so ethylene was still present on the surface of the fruit, causing the fresh fruit to overripe.

C) The overripe fruit released ethylene that increased the rate of ripening in the fresh fruit.

D) The fresh fruit was damaged, producing ethylene that sped up the ripening process.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 37.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 37-3. Explain how cells respond to hormonal stimulation and how this response leads to improved survival and reproduction.

46) You discover a chemical that inhibits the conversion of starch to sugar and inhibits the breakdown of chlorophyll and cellulose in fruit. Who might be interested in buying this chemical?

A) grocers, to spray on fruit to enhance ripening in the store B) farmers, to spray on fruit after picking to stall ripening C) consumers, to spray on fruit before eating to enhance taste Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 37.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 37-3. Explain how cells respond to hormonal stimulation and how this response leads to improved survival and reproduction.

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47) In the fall, the leaves of some trees change colour. This happens because chlorophyll breaks down and the accessory pigments become visible. What hormone is responsible for this? A) gibberellin B) abscisic acid C) cytokinin D) ethylene E) salicylic acid Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 37.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 37-4. Explain how hormones regulate plant dormancy and growth, especially in response to changes in environmental conditions. 48) You are out working in your garden, and you notice that one of your favorite flowering plants has black, dead spots on the leaves. You immediately suspect that the plant has been invaded by a pathogen and has initiated a A) avirulence response. B) pathogenic response. C) hypersensitive response. D) resistance response. E) virulence response. Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 37.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 37-5. Explain how plants defend against pathogens and herbivores. 49) For a plant to initiate chemical responses to herbivory before it is directly attacked by herbivores, which of the following must have occurred? A) A plant must have flowered at least once. B) Volatile "signal" compounds must be perceived. C) Systemin must be produced.

D) The hypersensitive response must be induced. E) Vibrations must be sensed through the plant's leaves and stems. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 37.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 37-5. Explain how plants defend against pathogens and herbivores.

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50) The transduction pathway that activates systemic acquired resistance in plants is initially signalled by which of the following?

A) herbivory B) phytochrome production C) methyl salicylate D) systemin release E) proteinase inhibitors Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 37.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 37-5. Explain how plants defend against pathogens and herbivores.

51) Which of the following is the most likely plant response to an attack by herbivores?

A) leaf abscission to prevent further loss of tissue B) early flowering to reproduce before being eaten C) production of chemical compounds for defence or to attract predators of the herbivores D) production of physical defences, such as thorns E) production of thicker bark and cuticle to make it more difficult to eat Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 37.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 37-5. Explain how plants defend against pathogens and herbivores.

52) A certain bacterium infects a plant's upper leaves. A few days later, bacteria of the same species attempt to infect the same plant's roots but are unsuccessful. What process is responsible for the plant's ability to prevent this infection?

A) antivirulence response B) pathogenesis resistance C) systemic acquired resistance D) sequential immunity E) none of the above Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 37.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 37-5. Explain how plants defend against pathogens and herbivores.

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53) A caterpillar eats a leaf of a plant. The next day it crawls to a nearby leaf to eat. But after eating the second leaf, the caterpillar gets very sick and falls off the plant. Which of the following molecules were involved in the plant's ability to defend itself against the second attack?

A) proteinase inhibitors B) systemin C) jasmonic acid D) all of the above E) A and C only Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 37.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 37-5. Explain how plants defend against pathogens and herbivores.

54) If you wanted to genetically engineer a plant to be more resistant to attack by pathogenic bacteria and viruses, which of the following hormones would you manipulate?

A) auxin B) gibberellins C) abscisic acid D) ethylene E) salicylic acid Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 37.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 37-5. Explain how plants defend against pathogens and herbivores.

55) A particular parasitoid is heterozygous for a gene that binds plant pheromones. Which of the following is true of that parasitoid?

A) It will be particularly successful at infecting plants.

B) It will be responsive to the signals released from several plants.

C) It will be unable to respond to a plant's distress call.

D) It will be unable to infect its insect host.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 37.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 37-5. Explain how plants defend against pathogens and herbivores.

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56) You have discovered a previously unidentified plant, and you cultivate it in your lab. You notice that its flowers close when people are talking, yet are open when the lab is relatively quiet. You suspect that this plant may have the ability to hear! Based on what you know about plant sensation, which of the following hypotheses is the most reasonable to explain this phenomenon? A) There is a cell-surface protein on the epidermal cells that becomes phosphorylated in response to vibration by sound waves. B) There are tiny hairs on epidermal cells that bend in response to the vibration of sound waves, triggering an action potential in epidermal cells. C) There is a cell-surface receptor on root cells that becomes phosphorylated when the soil vibrates in response to sound waves. D) All of the above answers are correct.

Answer: D Explanation: Answers A, B, and C are all plausible hypotheses. This question could be used to review the molecular mechanisms of plant sensation presented in the chapter.

Type: MC Reference: Section 37.1, 37.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 37-7. Explain the connection between signal transduction and hormone production in plants in response to light, gravity, and touch. Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s). Researchers found that high doses of nitric oxide were not lethal to soybean cells. Likewise, high doses of reactive oxygen intermediates were not lethal to soybean cells. However, when combined, nitric oxide and reactive oxygen intermediates were very lethal to soybean cells. (M. Delledonne et al. 2001. Signal interactions between nitric oxide and reactive oxygen intermediates in the plant hypersensitive response. Proceedings of the National Academy of Science, USA 98(23):13454-59.) 57) Why would the researchers study the association between cell death, nitric oxide, and reactive oxygen intermediates? A) to gain insight into how R genes are inherited B) to gain insight into how R proteins recognize avr proteins C) to gain insight into what happens after R-avr protein binding D) to gain insight into how pathogens kill plant cells Answer: C Explanation: This question is based on M. Delledonne et al., Signal interactions between nitric oxide and reactive oxygen intermediates in the plant hypersensitive response, Proceedings of the National Academy of Science, USA 98(23) 2001:13454—59. Type: MC Reference: Section 37.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 37-5. Explain how plants defend against pathogens and herbivores.

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58) Based on the findings presented above, combined with what you have learned about the hypersensitive response, which sequence of events occurs when a pathogen infects a plant cell?

(Only some of the events will be used) 1. The R protein binds to the avr protein.

2. The pathogen releases avr proteins.

3. The plant cell produces nitric oxide.

4. The pathogen produces reactive oxygen intermediates.

5. A signal transduction cascade occurs.

6. The plant cell and the pathogen die.

7. The pathogen dies, the plant cell lives.

8. The plant cell produces both nitric oxide and reactive oxygen intermediates.

A) 1, 5, 8, 2, 7 B) 2, 1, 5, 8, 6 C) 2, 3, 4, 5, 7 D) 2, 5, 4, 3, 6 E) 1, 5, 4, 3, 7 Answer: B Explanation: This question is based on M. Delledonne et al., Signal interactions between nitric

oxide and reactive oxygen intermediates in the plant hypersensitive response, Proceedings of the National Academy of Science, USA 98(23) 2001:13454—59.

Type: MC Reference: Section 37.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 37-5. Explain how plants defend against pathogens and herbivores.

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Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s).

The shade avoidance response is a plant's way of changing its growth pattern when it is being shaded by another plant. Upon exposure to shade, many plants will grow taller, flatten their leaf angle, and extend their leaves further from their stems in order to reach full sunlight. Research performed by Pierik et al. (Interactions between ethylene and gibberellins in phytochromemediated shade avoidance responses in tobacco. 2004. Plant Physiology 136:2928-36; online at http://www.plantphysiol.org/cgi/content/full/136/2/2928) examined the role of ethylene and gibberellins on the shade avoidance response in tobacco plants. The shade avoidance response is known to involve phytochromes.

59) When tobacco plants were exposed to far-red light, they exhibited increased stem length, petiole length, and petiole angle. These three responses are part of the shade avoidance response.

When the same plants were exposed to small concentrations of ethylene while being exposed to far-red light, they exhibited even greater increases in stem length, petiole length, and petiole angle. In a subsequent experiment, tobacco plants showed an increase in ethylene production in response to far-red light. Moreover, mutant plants that are insensitive to ethylene did not show a shade avoidance response when exposed to far-red light. Taken together, these data suggest that ethylene A) inhibits growth when tobacco plants are shaded by other plants.

B) stimulates growth when tobacco plants are shaded by other plants.

C) triggers leaf abscission when tobacco plants are shaded by other plants.

D) is not involved in the shade avoidance response.

Answer: B Explanation: This question is based on Figures 1—3 from R. Pierik et al., Interactions between ethylene and gibberellins in phytochrome-mediated shade avoidance responses in tobacco, Plant Physiology 136 (2004):2928—36 (available online at http://www.plantphysiol.org/cgi/content/full/136/2/2928).

Type: MC Reference: Section 37.2, 37.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 37-4. Explain how hormones regulate plant dormancy and growth, especially in response to changes in environmental conditions.

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60) When the researchers inhibited the synthesis of gibberellins in the tobacco plants, neither ethylene nor far-red light could trigger a shade avoidance response. Taken together with the data presented above, these data suggest that gibberellins A) act in concert with ethylene to generate the shade avoidance response.

B) antagonize the effects of ethylene on the shade avoidance response.

C) are not involved in the shade avoidance response.

Answer: A Explanation: This question is based on Figures 4—5 from R. Pierik et al., Interactions between ethylene and gibberellins in phytochrome-mediated shade avoidance responses in tobacco," Plant Physiology 136 (2004):2928—36 (available online at http://www.plantphysiol.org/cgi/content/full/136/2/2928).

Type: MC Reference: Section 37.3, 37.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 37-4. Explain how hormones regulate plant dormancy and growth, especially in response to changes in environmental conditions.

61) Ethylene's role in the shade avoidance response in tobacco plants is related to its role in fruit ripening, leaf abscission, and senescence.

A) true B) false Answer: B Explanation: This question is based on the research article by R. Pierik et al., Interactions between ethylene and gibberellins in phytochrome-mediated shade avoidance responses in tobacco, Plant Physiology 136 (2004):2928—36 (available online at http://www.plantphysiol.org/cgi/content/full/136/2/2928).

Type: MC Reference: Section 37.3, 37.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 37-4. Explain how hormones regulate plant dormancy and growth, especially in response to changes in environmental conditions.

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Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s).

Some plants continually produce secondary defense compounds. Other plants are induced to form secondary defense compounds when they are injured. Corn seedling leaves that are chewed on by the caterpillars of a type of cutworm moth emit immediate volatile chemicals (LOX products), and, after six hours, large amounts of terpenoid compounds are released into the air.

The terpenoids are released not only from the leaf being chewed, but from all leaves of the plant.

The terpenoid compounds attract a parasitoid wasp female that lays her eggs on the caterpillar.

When the wasp larvae hatch, they eat and kill the moth caterpillar. (T.C.J. Turlings, J. H. Loughrin, P. J. McCall, U. S. R. Rose, W. J. Lewis, and J. H. Tumlinson. 1995. How caterpillardamaged plants protect themselves by attracting parasitic wasps. Proceedings of the National Academy of Science 92:4169-74.)

62) What can you conclude based only on the information in the preceding paragraph?

A) The attracting terpenoid compounds are always present in the corn seedling.

B) Physical injury by the caterpillar mouthparts causes the production of terpenoids.

C) Chemical signals from the caterpillar saliva attract the parasitic wasp.

D) The parasitoid wasp is attracted by compounds produced by an injured corn plant.

E) LOX products and terpenoids are the same kinds of chemical compounds.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 37.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 37-5. Explain how plants defend against pathogens and herbivores.

63) How could you test the hypothesis that compounds from the caterpillar alone do not attract parasitoid wasps?

A) Have caterpillars feed on different kinds of plants in the presence of the wasps.

B) Place non-feeding caterpillars in an enclosure with the wasps.

C) Place intact corn seedlings in an enclosure with the wasps.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 37.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 37-5. Explain how plants defend against pathogens and herbivores.

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64) How could you test the hypothesis that caterpillar saliva and a wound are both necessary to attract the parasitoid wasps? A) Slash the corn leaves with a razor blade. B) Put caterpillar saliva on a leaf wound. C) Put caterpillar saliva on an intact leaf. D) All of the above actions are necessary for testing the hypothesis. Answer: D Explanation: Answer A, slashing with a razor blade, would test for straight physical damage to the leaf. Answer B tests for both saliva and wound, and C tests for just saliva on a leaf. Type: MC Reference: Section 37.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 37-5. Explain how plants defend against pathogens and herbivores.

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Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition (Freeman et al.)

Chapter 38 Plant Reproduction and Development 1) Most plants are adept at asexual reproduction. What is the probable explanation for the energy spent for sexual reproduction?

A) Sexual reproduction produces robust clones that are able to withstand disease.

B) Sexual reproduction ensures that the same genes will be passed on to offspring.

C) Sexual reproduction mixes up genes, contributing to variation in a species.

D) Sexual reproduction is a sign of good health of the organism.

Answer: C Explanation: This question is straightforward: students should know that asexual reproduction results in genetically identical (theoretically) individuals; sexual reproduction mixes up the genes via meiosis, crossover, and recombination.

Type: MC Reference: Section 38.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 38-1. Explain the concept of alternation of generations.

2) What is an essential part of alternation of generations in plants?

A) meiosis to produce gametes B) meiosis to produce zygotes C) mitosis to produce gametes D) fertilization to produce spores E) fertilization to produce gametes Answer: C Explanation: This question usually needs illustration and explanation. Meiosis produces spores; in seed plants, these are microspores and megaspores. Fertilization produces zygotes. Mitosis in the gametophyte produces gametes.

Type: MC Reference: Section 38.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 38-1. Explain the concept of alternation of generations.

3) What is the similarity between spores and gametes?

A) They are produced by meiosis.

B) They are haploid.

C) They divide by mitosis.

D) They can fuse with another cell to form a new organism.

E) They are made by a sporophyte.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 38.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 38-1. Explain the concept of alternation of generations.

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4) How are the life cycles of liverworts and angiosperms alike?

A) In both groups, the sporophyte is the dominant generation.

B) In both groups, the gametophyte is the dominant generation.

C) In both groups, the gametophyte is smaller than the sporophyte.

D) In both groups, the sporophyte is smaller than the gametophyte.

E) In both groups, the sporophyte produces spores.

Answer: E Explanation: Drawings in texts are never to scale. We frequently have students graph sizes of the generations in various plants.

Type: MC Reference: Section 38.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 38-1. Explain the concept of alternation of generations.

5) Plants in crop fields such as corn are genetically very similar. What are benefits of this phenomenon? What are pitfalls of that phenomenon?

Answer: Benefits–Harvest is synchronized; consistent, dependable crops. Pitfalls–Entire crop is genetically susceptible to diseases, insects, and weather problems.

Type: SA Reference: Section 38.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 38-1. Explain the concept of alternation of generations.

6) During self-fertilization, which of the following is absent?

A) pollination B) transfer of pollen from one plant to the other C) transfer of pollen from anther to stigma D) formation of gametes E) less genetically diverse offspring Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 38.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 38-1 & 3. Explain the concept of alteration of generations. Describe how flowers are adapted to being pollinated by animals or wind.

7) Within which structure does meiosis and spore production occur?

A) zygote B) gametangia C) sporangia D) embryo E) filament Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 38.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 38-1. Explain the concept of alternation of generations.

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8) While looking at a flower in your garden, you notice that it has carpels with very long styles and stamens with very short filaments. This plant is most likely to reproduce by A) cross-pollination.

B) selfing.

C) asexually.

Answer: A Explanation: In selfing, plant carpels and stamens are usually similar in size so pollen can be easily transferred.

Type: MC Reference: Section 38.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 38-3. Describe how flowers are adapted to being pollinated by animals or wind.

9) Which of the following correctly identifies the function of the flower part named?

A) Sepals protect the flower bud.

B) Petals attract seed-dispersing animals.

C) The stigma produces pollen.

D) The carpel attracts pollinators.

E) The ovule produces carpels.

Answer: A Explanation: Students habitually mix up pollination and seed dispersal when thinking about flower parts and fruits.

Type: MC Reference: Section 38.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 38-2. Describe the structure and function of gametophyte structures in angiosperms.

10) Male gametophytes are derived from which of the following via mitosis?

A) microsporocytes B) microspores C) spores D) pollen grains E) macrospores Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 38.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 38-2. Describe the structure and function of gametophyte structures in angiosperms.

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11) A summer occupation in the Corn Belt states is de-tasseling the corn: removing unwanted male flowers so that female flowers on the same plant are pollinated by the desired pollen for the hybrid corn. What does this tell you about corn? A) The flowers are perfect and the plant is dioecious. B) The flowers are perfect and the plant is monoecious. C) The flowers are imperfect and the plant is dioecious. D) The flowers are imperfect and the plant is monoecious. Answer: D Explanation: The key phrase here is "flowers on the same plant."

Type: MC Reference: Section 38.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 38-2. Describe the structure and function of gametophyte structures in angiosperms. 12) The sperm and egg each contribute 50% of the nuclear genetic material to the zygote that becomes the embryo and the new plant. Mitochondria and plastids that become chloroplasts are passed primarily from the female parent. What feature of the male or female gametophytes accounts for this? A) The female gametophyte is small and mobile and can pack a lot of cytoplasm into a tiny space. B) The female gametophyte is larger and formed from one surviving megaspore. C) The male gametophyte is formed in the anthers. D) Meiosis is not involved in the formation of the female gametophyte. Answer: B Explanation: This process is similar to the formation of polar bodies and the resultant egg in animals. Type: MC Reference: Section 38.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 38-2.

Describe the structure and function of gametophyte structures in angiosperms. 13) Which of the following is another name for the female gametophyte? A) megaspores B) carpel C) embryo sac D) polar nuclei E) egg Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 38.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 38-2. Describe the structure and function of gametophyte structures in angiosperms.

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14) What is the male gametophyte made of?

A) polar nuclei and embryo sac B) polar nuclei and tube cell C) generative cell and two gametes D) generative cell and tube cell E) microspores Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 38.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 38-2. Describe the structure and function of gametophyte structures in angiosperms.

15) What is not true about the carpel of a flower?

A) The stigma receives the pollen.

B) The style provides the pathway for the growth of the pollen tube.

C) Meiosis of the megaspore forms the eight nuclei of the embryo sac.

D) The ovary encloses one or more ovules, which contain the embryo sac.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 38.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 38-2. Describe the structure and function of gametophyte structures in angiosperms.

16) Cottonwood, aspen, and willow trees have drab-coloured flowers with no petals that appear before the tree's leaves are out in the spring; they are dioecious. What does that indicate about these trees?

A) Their insect pollinators are probably colour blind.

B) Early spring birds are probably the pollinators.

C) Their pollen is dispersed by wind.

D) Flower colour or shape is not related to pollinators.

Answer: C Explanation: This phenomenon is perhaps most familiar in pussy willows.

Type: MC Reference: Section 38.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 38-3. Describe how flowers are adapted to being pollinated by animals or wind.

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17) It is estimated that animal- or insect-pollinated plants produce 1000 pollen grains for each ovule; wind-pollinated plants produce 1,000,000 pollen grains for each ovule. What does that indicate about pollination systems?

A) Wind-pollinated plants rarely produce seeds.

B) Wind pollination is more efficient than animal-assisted pollination.

C) Wind pollination is less efficient than animal-assisted pollination.

D) Wind pollination is costlier to the plant than animal-assisted pollination.

Answer: C Explanation: It is less energetically expensive to make pollen than to make ovules; this is because pollen grains are smaller, though more numerous. There must be a discussion of energy investment by a plant for these structures. There also is a cost in feeding animal pollinators, because many animal-pollinated flowers have nectaries.

Type: MC Reference: Section 38.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 38-3. Describe how flowers are adapted to being pollinated by animals or wind.

18) Which theory have biologists associated with the occurrence of pollination syndrome?

A) convergent evolution B) coevolution C) parallel evolution D) divergent evolution Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 38.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 38-3. Describe how flowers are adapted to being pollinated by animals or wind.

19) If an ovary contains 50 ovules, what is the minimum number of pollen grains that must land in order to form 50 mature seeds?

A) 25 B) 50 C) 100 D) It is impossible to tell.

Answer: B Explanation: This can be a difficult question. The students get mixed up on the meaning of double fertilization and two sperm and one egg. Students then need to make the connection between zygote formation, and seed formation from the ovule. The question asks about a minimum number of pollen grains, not the exact number of pollen grains actually required.

Type: MC Reference: Section 38.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 38-4. Explain the process and importance of double fertilization in angiosperms.

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20) A population of flowers varies from deep blue to nearly white. Bees are active during the day and prefer colour. Moths are active at night, when colours are not very visible and white is more conspicuous. Design a scenario in which the blue and white flowers form two species where there once was one species. You must end with a conclusion that the two new species cannot interbreed (a definition of a species).

Answer: Example–Blue flowers are pollinated by the bees and produce seeds that produce more blue flowers. White flowers are more visible at night and tend to produce seeds that produce more white flowers. A day/night (temporal) separation can occur with blue flowers pollinated by bees, and white flowers pollinated by moths. If specific structures are selected for that exclude the bee pollinators on white flowers, or moth pollinators are excluded from blue flowers, two populations can result. The two new species cannot interbreed because of specialization with their different pollinators.

Explanation: Questions like this make excellent take-home problems. When they are done in class as a break from lecture, for example, the students' thinking is sometimes too shallow.

Type: SA Reference: Section 38.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 38-3. Describe how flowers are adapted to being pollinated by animals or wind.

21) Angiosperms are unique in having double fertilization that forms endosperm. What is true about double fertilization in angiosperms?

A) Two sperm combine with a polar nucleus to form endosperm.

B) Two sperm combine with two eggs to form the zygote and endosperm.

C) One sperm combines with the polar nuclei to form the zygote, and one sperm combines with the egg to form endosperm.

D) One sperm combines with the egg to form the zygote, and one sperm combines with the polar nuclei to form endosperm.

Answer: D Explanation: The presence of two sperm and the term double fertilization seem to produce confusion in the minds of many students.

Type: MC Reference: Section 38.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 38-4. Explain the process and importance of double fertilization in angiosperms.

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22) The egg of a plant has a haploid chromosome number of 12 (n = 12). What is true about the number of chromosomes in the cells of other tissues of this plant?

A) The sperm has 6 chromosomes.

B) The leaves and stems have 12 chromosomes.

C) The zygote has 12 chromosomes.

D) The endosperm has 36 chromosomes.

E) All of these answers apply.

Answer: D Explanation: If n = 12 (gametophyte tissues), then 2n = 24 (sporophyte tissues) and 3n = 36 (triploid endosperm).

Type: MC Reference: Section 38.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 38-4. Explain the process and importance of double fertilization in angiosperms.

23) Mosses and ferns tend to be most abundant in warm, moist climates. Why do mosses and ferns have problems with reproduction in deserts?

A) Their pollen is not resistant to desiccation.

B) Their seeds are not resistant to desiccation.

C) Their sperm must swim for fertilization to occur.

D) Their ovules must swim for fertilization to occur.

Answer: C Explanation: Mosses and ferns do not have pollen or seeds.

Type: MC Reference: Section 38.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 38-4. Explain the process and importance of double fertilization in angiosperms.

24) Suppose that 100 pollen grains land on a stigma, and 50 mature seeds are formed in the fruit.

What does this indicate about the pollination process and success?

A) 50% success: 100 pollen grains grew to 50 ovules, and double fertilization occurred B) 50% success: evidently, only 50 sperm pollinated 50 anthers C) 50% success: 50 sperm fertilized 50 eggs, and 50 sperm fused with 50 polar nuclei D) 50% success: 50 sperm fertilized 50 eggs, and 50 sperm fused with 100 polar nuclei Answer: D Explanation: In double fertilization, each pollen grain has two sperm. For mature seeds, one sperm unites with the egg and one sperm combines with two polar nuclei.

Type: MC Reference: Section 38.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 38-4. Explain the process and importance of double fertilization in angiosperms.

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25) After double fertilization in angiosperms, what development sequence is correct?

A) The embryo in the seed develops into endosperm.

B) The ovary wall becomes the fruit.

C) The ovule becomes the fruit.

D) The entire carpel dries up and falls off the plant.

Answer: B Explanation: This question deals with another connection between flower parts and fruits.

Type: MC Reference: Section 38.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 38-5. Explain the structure and function of the seed and the fruit.

26) It is possible to make seedless tomatoes by removing the anthers of the flower and putting a hormone (auxin) on the stigma of the tomato flower. Weekly applications are required. Over the course of development, the stigma and style fall off, and the ovary develops into a normallooking tomato with no seeds. Normally, seed and fruit formation are coordinated using hormone signaling. What does the application of auxin indicate?

A) The stigma of a tomato flower produces auxin that is necessary for pollination.

B) Pollen is not usually required to make fruits.

C) Applied auxin must substitute for an auxin source in a developing seed.

D) The anthers of the tomato flower produce auxin that is necessary for pollination.

Answer: C Explanation: Students should know that pollen lands on the stigma, and the pollen tube containing sperm grows down the style to the embryo sac. It should be established that seeds and fruits mature simultaneously (usually). How is the maturation coordinated? By hormone communication between seed (embryo) and fruit (ovary wall).

Type: MC Reference: Section 38.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 38-5. Explain the structure and function of the seed and the fruit.

27) Which of these is not a step in the formation of an embryo from a zygote in the seed?

A) The root and shoot systems emerge from the seed.

B) Basal cells form a connection between the parent plant and the developing embryo.

C) Mitosis produces a mass of cells that become the young embryo.

D) Cells differentiate to form the basic plant tissue types.

E) The early root-shoot axis is formed.

Answer: A Explanation: This is a simple tracing of the events of early growth from one cell to the embryo.

The order is B, C, D = E. Event A occurs after the embryo is formed.

Type: MC Reference: Section 38.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 38-6. Describe the process of plant embryogenesis.

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28) Endosperm is a major part of monocot seeds. In most dicots, A) the same thing is true; there is a substantial amount of endosperm.

B) endosperm never even starts to form after double fertilization.

C) endosperm nutrients are repackaged into the cotyledons.

D) endosperm replaces cotyledons in the seed.

Answer: C Explanation: Endosperm in monocots (grains, grasses: corn, wheat, oats, rice, etc.) is a major food for the world's people and their animals.

Type: MC Reference: Section 38.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 38-6. Describe the process of plant embryogenesis.

29) Unripe fruits protect seeds from predation and early germination. What is the major function of ripe fruits?

A) attracting pollinators B) dispersing seed C) deterring predators D) keeping the seed hydrated before germination Answer: B Explanation: Again, students frequently confuse pollinators with seed dispersal agents. Flower petals attract pollinators, and ripe fruits attract dispersers.

Type: MC Reference: Section 38.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 38-5. Explain the structure and function of the seed and the fruit.

30) Gardeners purchase packets of seeds that are put in the ground and germinate. Native plant seeds usually need a scarification treatment or a real or simulated winter (stratification), some seeds need light, and others need a smoke treatment. What do these adaptations to the environmental conditions reveal about where the plants grow?

Answer: Commercial seeds have been selected for immediate germination when planted. Seeds that depend on animal fruit dispersal or abrasion for making the seed coat able to imbibe water and oxygen usually need scarification. Plants of higher latitudes need a winter before they germinate; this protects them from germinating just as cold weather approaches. Plants from areas that regularly burn are sensitive to ingredients in smoke, apparently as a signal that competition is reduced. Small seeds with little stored nutrition usually need light, so that the seedlings reach sunlight before their reserves are gone.

Explanation: This question is a repetition of the seed germination discussion from the text.

Type: SA Reference: Section 38.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 38-5. Explain the structure and function of the seed and the fruit.

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31) In which type of biome would the occurrence of seed dormancy be rare?

A) grasslands B) tundra C) desert D) tropical rain forest E) taiga Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 38.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 38-5. Explain the structure and function of the seed and the fruit.

32) Before plowing a field, a farmer thought the bare field looked weed-free. Three days after plowing and turning over the soil, he was amazed to see thousands of tiny seedlings. What kinds of seeds did the plowing help with germination?

A) large seeds that need winter in order to germinate B) small seeds that need light in order to germinate C) seeds that need smoke from the tractor in order to germinate D) large seeds that need less water in order to germinate Answer: B Explanation: Many seeds in the soil don't germinate until they have the proper conditions. Many small seeds stay ungerminated until there is adequate light for their little seedlings.

Type: MC Reference: Section 38.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 38-5. Explain the structure and function of the seed and the fruit.

33) Which of these events occurs first in seed germination?

A) Cell division occurs in the embryo, and growth starts.

B) Mitochondria multiply and provide energy for growth processes.

C) Water is taken up.

D) Oxygen is produced and proteins are synthesized.

E) New mRNAs and proteins are produced.

Answer: C Explanation: Imbibing water is the first step in any seed germination. If seeds do not imbibe water, they do not germinate.

Type: MC Reference: Section 38.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 38-5. Explain the structure and function of the seed and the fruit.

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34) Which of these events happens first in nearly all seed germination? A) The cotyledons appear aboveground, turn green, and photosynthesize. B) The radicle emerges from the seed to obtain water and nutrients from the soil. C) The hypocotyl elongates to lift cotyledons aboveground. D) The cotyledons disappear as their stored nutrition is used. Answer: B Explanation: It is essential that roots obtain water from the soil, so that germination and early growth can continue. Type: MC Reference: Section 38.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 38-5. Explain the structure and function of the seed and the fruit. 35) Charles Darwin experimented with reactions of grass seedlings (monocots) relative to applied auxin (a plant hormone) and light. He used the youngest seedlings with a structure that dicots do not have. What is the name of that structure? A) coleoptile B) cotyledons C) radicle D) seed coat Answer: A Explanation: Monocots and dicots have cotyledons, the radicle, and seed coats; the coleoptile is unique to monocots. Type: MC Reference: Section 38.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 38-5. Explain the structure and function of the seed and the fruit. 36) If a hypocotyl does not elongate during seed germination and early seedling growth, where will the cotyledons be? A) aboveground and above the seed B) aboveground and below the seed C) in the ground with the seed coat Answer: C Explanation: If the hypocotyl elongates, it lifts cotyledons above the ground level. The first green structures seen are cotyledons (dicots), either fleshy as in beans or leafy as in most dicots. Type: MC Reference: Section 38.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 38-5.

Explain the structure and function of the seed and the fruit.

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37) You find a fruit that has little hooks around the outside of the pericarp. You can assume that ________ is/are the pollinator. A) wind B) birds C) mammals D) cannot answer based on the information given Answer: D Explanation: This is a trick question—you don't know what the pollinator of the flower is by looking at the fruit. Mixing up pollinators and seed dispersal agents is common. Type: MC Reference: Section 38.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 38-5. Explain the structure and function of the seed and the fruit. 38) Hammer orchids resemble female thyranide wasps and release a chemical signal called pheromone to deceive male thyranide wasps and accomplish pollination. Compared to fooddeceiving orchids, is it more or less likely that pollen of the hammer orchid will be transferred to the flower of the same species than to the flower of a different species? A) more likely B) less likely C) similar probability Answer: A Explanation: Food-deceiving orchids grow in close proximity to plants that do not deceive their pollinators. Often, pollen of these orchids is delivered to flowers of other species. Transfer of hammered orchid pollen is very specific.

Type: MC Reference: Section 38.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 38-3. Describe how flowers are adapted to being pollinated by animals or wind. 39) In the early plant embryo, cells divide asymmetrically. Which structure does not result from divisions of the apical (terminal) cell? A) the suspensor B) the cotyledons C) the hypocotyls D) the shoot Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 38.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 38-6. Describe the process of plant embryogenesis.

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40) The MONOPTEROS gene in Arabidopsis encodes a protein that is similar in its function to which animal protein?

A) MyoD in frog embryos B) Bicoid in fruit fly embryos C) keratin in human embryos Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 38.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating LO: 38-7. Explain the function and importance of meristems and the role of regulatory genes in controlling leaf shape.

41) Meristematic tissue cells in plants are most similar to which kind of cells in animals?

A) somite cells B) ectodermal cells C) embryonic stem cells D) mesodermal cells E) endodermal cells Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 38.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating LO: 38-7. Explain the function and importance of meristems and the role of regulatory genes in controlling leaf shape.

42) If the expression of the PHAN gene is blocked in plants, what will be the likely result?

A) Plants will fail to develop leaves.

B) Plants will develop more leaves than usual.

C) Plants will develop leaves in very simple shapes.

D) Plants will develop leaves in inappropriate places.

E) Plant leaves will fall off prematurely.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 38.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 38-7. Explain the function and importance of meristems and the role of regulatory genes in controlling leaf shape.

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43) The ABC genes in Arabidopsis are considered homeotic genes. What could be a reason for this classification?

A) Each of the three genes codes for a different flower organ.

B) Each gene codes for regulatory transcription factors.

C) Each gene is similar in sequence to homeotic genes in Drosophila.

D) Each gene codes for proteins similar to Hox genes in mice.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 38.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 38-8. Evaluate evidence from flower homeotic mutants in support of the ABC model of flower formation.

44) According to the ABC model of floral development, which genes would be expressed in a showy ornamental flower with multiple sepals and petals but no stamens or carpels?

A) A genes only B) B genes only C) C genes only D) A and B genes only E) A and C genes only Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 38.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 38-8. Evaluate evidence from flower homeotic mutants in support of the ABC model of flower formation.

45) Based on the ABC model, what would be the structure of a flower from the outermost whorl that had normal expression of genes A and C and expression of gene B in all four whorls?

A) carpel–petal–petal–carpel B) petal–petal–stamen–stamen C) sepal–carpel–carpel–sepal D) sepal–sepal–carpel–carpel E) carpel–carpel–carpel–carpel Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 38.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 38-8. Evaluate evidence from flower homeotic mutants in support of the ABC model of flower formation.

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Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition (Freeman et al.)

Chapter 39 Animal Form and Function 1) Natural selection involves energetic trade-offs between which of the following?

A) choosing how many offspring to produce over the course of a lifetime and how long to live B) producing large numbers of gametes when employing internal fertilization versus fewer numbers of gametes when employing external fertilization C) the emigration of individuals when they are no longer reproductively capable or committing suicide D) increasing the number of individuals produced during each reproductive episode and a corresponding decrease in parental care E) high survival rates of offspring and the cost of parental care Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 39.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 39-2. Distinguish between adaptation and acclimatization.

2) Salmon are born in freshwater environments and then migrate to the sea. Near the end of their lives, they return to the freshwater stream where they were born to spawn. In freshwater, water constantly diffuses into the body and ions are lost from the body. In salt water, body water diffuses out of the body and excess ions are gained from the water. A salmon's gills have special cells to pump salt in or out of the body to maintain homeostasis. In response to the salmon's moves between freshwater and salt water, some cells in the gills are produced and others are destroyed. These changes made in the cells of the gills during the lifetime of an individual salmon are an example of which of the following?

A) natural selection B) trade-off C) acclimatization D) adaptation Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 39.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 39-2. Distinguish between adaptation and acclimatization.

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3) Your professor announces he has discovered a new species of bird that feeds mostly on worms and soft-bodied insects picked up from the ground and off of leaves. Based on this information, what shape of beak would you predict for this bird?

A) wide and curved like a scoop B) long and narrow like tweezers C) medium-sized and very strong D) deep and powerful Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 39.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 39-1. Describe the relationship between the form and function of animal tissues, organs, and systems.

4) What is the stratified epithelium composed of?

A) a single layer of cells of variable height B) squamous cells overlying cuboidal cells C) a tight layer of square cells attached to a basement membrane D) alternating layers of thick and thin cells E) multiple layers of cells, stacked from the basolateral side to the apical side Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 39.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 39-1. Describe the relationship between the form and function of animal tissues, organs, and systems.

5) Epithelial tissues have polarity, with an apical side that faces the environment and a basolateral side that faces the interior of the animal. Because of the harsh environmental exposure on the apical side, epithelial cells have a short life span of 2-6 days. Which of the following is the most likely reason that the tissue as a whole does not wear away, despite the short life spans of the cells?

A) The epithelial tissue is unusually thick.

B) The degraded tissue is recycled and restored to its original site.

C) The tissue has cells that actively undergo mitosis and cytokinesis to replace the lost cells.

D) New cells are transported in the blood to the site where old cells have worn away.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 39.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 39-1. Describe the relationship between the form and function of animal tissues, organs, and systems.

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6) What does the large surface area in the small intestine directly facilitate?

A) secretion B) absorption C) elimination D) filtration E) temperature regulation Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 39.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 39-4. Describe how the relationship between surface area and volume changes as body size increases.

7) Epithelial cells have multiple functions. They may have different structures on one of their surfaces compared to their opposite surface. What property of these cells allows them to undergo these various functions?

A) Epithelial cells are polar.

B) Epithelial cells have an apical membrane and a basolateral membrane.

C) Epithelial cells have different proteins in different parts of their cell membrane.

D) Only A and B are true.

E) A, B, and C are all true.

Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 39.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 39-1. Describe the relationship between the form and function of animal tissues, organs, and systems.

8) A behavioural physiologist is studying the homeostatic control of blood pH. In a trial, a lizard runs on a treadmill for a set amount of time and the blood pH is measured. The blood pH drops as carbon dioxide is released into the bloodstream. Which component of the homeostatic feedback system is responsible for determining whether the blood pH is far enough from normal that a response is necessary?

A) effector B) sensor C) integrator D) assimilator Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 39.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 39-5. Describe how feedback loops are used to maintain homeostasis.

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9) Which class of tissue has many different types and functions in humans dictated by the unique extracellular matrix surrounding that tissue?

A) connective B) muscle C) epithelial D) nervous E) none of the above Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 39.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 39-1. Describe the relationship between the form and function of animal tissues, organs, and systems.

10) Which of the following is a true statement about body size and physiology?

A) The amount of food and oxygen an animal requires and the amount of heat and waste it produces are inversely proportional to its mass.

B) The rate at which an animal uses nutrients and produces waste products is independent of its volume.

C) Small and large animals face different physiological challenges because an animal's body mass increases cubically while its surface area increases as a squared function.

D) The wastes produced by an animal double as its volume doubles, and triple as its surface area triples.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 39.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 39-4. Describe how the relationship between surface area and volume changes as body size increases.

11) An elephant and a mouse are both running in full sunlight, and both overheat by the same amount above their normal body temperatures. When they move into the shade and rest, which animal will cool down faster?

A) The elephant will because it has the higher surface area/volume ratio.

B) The elephant will because it has the lower surface area/volume ratio.

C) The mouse will because it has the lower surface area/volume ratio.

D) They will cool at the same rate because they overheated by the same amount.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 39.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 39-4. Describe how the relationship between surface area and volume changes as body size increases.

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12) Some animals have no gills when young, but then develop gills that grow larger as the animal grows larger. What is the reason for this trend? A) The young of these animals are much more active than the adult. B) Relative to their volume, the young have more surface area across which they can transport all the oxygen they need. C) The young have a higher basal metabolic rate. D) Relative to their surface area, the young have more volume in which they can store oxygen for long periods of time. Answer: B Explanation: Answers A and C are typically true but do not explain the trend mentioned in the question. Type: MC Reference: Section 39.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 39-4. Describe how the relationship between surface area and volume changes as body size increases. 13) A researcher is setting up an experiment to measure basal metabolic rate in prairie voles (a small mouse-like mammal). Which of the following would be the best set of conditions for the voles immediately before and during the measurement? A) House in a cage with plenty of food and water to avoid stress; conduct measurements in a warmer room than the room where housed. B) House in a cage with plenty of food and water to avoid stress; conduct measurements in a room the same temperature as the room where housed. C) House in a cage with no food for a few hours before measurement; conduct measurements in a colder room than the room where housed, and exercise the voles. D) House in a cage with no food for a few hours before measurement; conduct measurements in a room the same temperature as the room where housed. Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 39.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 39-4. Describe how the relationship between surface area and volume changes as body size increases.

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14) Which one of the following is not a good strategy for increasing the surface area relative to the volume?

A) Increase the amount of branching.

B) Increase the amount of folding.

C) Enlarge and make more spherical.

D) Make flatter.

E) None of these are good strategies.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 39.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 39-4. Describe how the relationship between surface area and volume changes as body size increases.

15) How do the epithelial tissues covering organisms contribute to the maintenance of homeostasis?

A) They act as a barrier to create an internal environment different from the external environment.

B) They regulate the exchange of ions between the body and the environment.

C) They help to prevent water loss from the body in a terrestrial environment.

D) All of the above answers apply.

E) Only A and C apply.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 39.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 39-5. Describe how feedback loops are used to maintain homeostasis.

16) Which of the following is not a function of an effector in the homeostatic regulation of temperature in mammals?

A) constriction of skin blood vessels to decrease heat loss B) shivering to generate heat in muscles C) comparing sensory input to the set point D) stimulating sweat glands to increase evaporation E) both A and D Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 39.4, 39.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 39-5 & 6. Describe how feedback loops are used to maintain homeostasis. Compare and contrast the different methods by which animals thermoregulate.

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17) You begin exercising vigorously. This will, in a short time, cause your blood pH to begin dropping due to the release of carbon dioxide into your bloodstream. Which component of your homeostatic feedback system is responsible for deciding if your blood pH is far enough from normal that a response is necessary? A) effector B) sensor C) integrator D) assimilator Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 39.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 39-5.

Describe how feedback loops are used to maintain homeostasis. 18) You discover a new species of bacteria that grows in aquatic environments with high salt levels. While studying these bacteria, you note that their internal environment is similar to the salt concentrations in their surroundings. You also discover that the internal salt concentrations of the bacteria change as the salt concentration in their environment changes. The new species can tolerate small changes in this way, but dies from large changes because it has no mechanism for altering its own internal salt levels. What type of homeostatic mechanism is this species using to regulate its internal salt levels? A) conformation B) regulation C) integration D) assimilation E) all of the above Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 39.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 39-5. Describe how feedback loops are used to maintain homeostasis. 19) A woman standing and watching the stars on a cool, calm night will lose most of her body heat by which mechanism? A) radiation B) convection C) conduction D) evaporation E) A and B only Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 39.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 39-6. Compare and contrast the different methods by which animals thermoregulate.

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20) Wading birds in northern climates are able to walk in pools of water on ice without dying of hypothermia because they have countercurrent heat exchangers in their legs. These exchangers allow heat in warm blood going to the feet to be transferred to cool blood returning from the feet.

Why are such countercurrent heat exchangers so efficient at conserving heat?

A) The gradient between the two currents is maintained even as one current cools and the other current heats.

B) There is a large temperature differential from one end of each current to the other.

C) Blood in the arteries and veins flow in the same direction, so there is no loss to friction.

D) All of the above apply.

E) A and B only apply.

Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 39.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 39-6. Compare and contrast the different methods by which animals thermoregulate.

21) What is the main reason that a person sitting on the beach with an air temperature of 15°C loses heat less rapidly than when immersed in lake water at 15°C? A) Water conducts heat more efficiently than air does.

B) Water evaporates, and heat is lost to evaporation.

C) Metabolic heat production is greater in air than in water.

D) Air is a poor insulator.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 39.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 39-6. Compare and contrast the different methods by which animals thermoregulate.

22) Many types of ectothermic animals can be seen lying out in the sun on a warm, sunny day.

What is the primary mechanism by which the animal warms itself during this activity?

A) conduction B) convection C) radiation D) evaporation Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 39.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 39-6. Compare and contrast the different methods by which animals thermoregulate.

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23) Which term best describes an animal that, although generating a significant amount of heat through metabolism, nonetheless does not maintain a constant body temperature?

A) homeothermic endotherm B) heterothermic ectotherm C) homeothermic ectotherm D) heterothermic endotherm Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 39.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 39-6. Compare and contrast the different methods by which animals thermoregulate.

24) Which of the following statements comparing endotherms and ectotherms is FALSE? A) Mitochondrial density and enzyme activity are 3-4 times higher in the cells of endotherms than in the cells of ectotherms of similar size.

B) Ectotherms can use more of their energy intake for reproduction than endotherms can.

C) Endotherms and ectotherms have about the same mass-specific metabolic rate.

D) Both endotherms and ectotherms exchange heat with the environment through convection, conduction, radiation, and evaporation.

E) B, C, and D are all false.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 39.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 39-6. Compare and contrast the different methods by which animals thermoregulate.

25) Which of the following explanations for brown adipose tissue explains why infant humans and some small mammals have this tissue type?

A) This tissue allows for the conversion of fats directly into heat without the production of ATP. B) This tissue can convert ATP into heat energy instead of using it for muscle contraction and other energy-requiring processes.

C) This tissue stores more heat than other types of fat because of its darker colour.

D) This tissue type has less water than other adipose tissues and thus has less evaporative cooling.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 39.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 39-6. Compare and contrast the different methods by which animals thermoregulate.

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26) Which principle of heat exchange is the most important explanation for why birds look larger in colder weather because they fluff their feathers?

A) Fluffing feathers results in less cooling by radiation since feathers emit less infrared radiation than other tissues do.

B) Fluffing decreases the amount of heat lost by conduction when the bird makes contact with cold objects in its environment.

C) Fluffing creates a pocket of air near the bird that acts as insulation.

D) Fluffing decreases the surface area/volume ratio, thus decreasing the amount of heat lost to the environment.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 39.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 39-6. Compare and contrast the different methods by which animals thermoregulate.

Use the following information when answering the question below.

The crucian carp (Carassius carassius) is a Northern European freshwater fish often inhabiting ponds that become hypoxic (have reduced oxygen levels) and even anoxic (have no oxygen) when the surface freezes during the winter. Surprisingly, when oxygen levels are normal, these fish lack the lamellae that provide a large surface area for gas exchange between water and blood: their gills are smooth. Yet when the level of oxygen in the water falls, the gill morphology undergoes a change: packing cells stop dividing and programmed cell death is induced, exposing gill lamellae that were buried in other tissue. With lamellae exposed, the gills have increased surface area for gas exchange. These changes in gill lamellar profile are reversible: investigators observed that the gills return to their normal structure within 7 days after returning the fish to well-oxygenated water. (Jørund Sollid, Paula De Angelis, Kristian Gundersen, and Göran E. Nilsson. 2003. Hypoxia induces adaptive and reversible gross morphological changes in crucian carp gills. Journal of Experimental Biology 206:3667-73.)

27) Gills serve multiple functions in fish in addition to gas exchange. Given the large surface area of gills with lamellae, what is the most likely explanation for why crucian carp cover protruding lamellae in their gills when levels of oxygen are normal?

A) to prevent loss of heat to the surrounding water B) to prevent loss of ions to the surrounding water C) to prevent protein loss to the surrounding water D) to prevent loss of oxygen to the surrounding water Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 39.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 39-1 & 4. Describe the relationship between the form and function of animal tissues, organs, and systems. Describe how the relationship between surface area and volume changes as body size increases.

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28) Torpor has evolved in several high-latitude species even though it is energetically expensive.

Why does this adaptation require a large energy input for those species that utilize this function?

A) These animals expend a great deal of metabolic energy to maintain their body temperature as the ambient temperatures drop.

B) It takes a great deal of energy to stay alive when the body temperature drops to near ambient levels.

C) During torpor, animals undergo excessive shivering to maintain their body temperature.

D) Animals in torpor lower their body temperature dramatically and require a great deal of energy to bring the body temperature back up to normal.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 39.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 39-6. Compare and contrast the different methods by which animals thermoregulate.

29) Scientists have performed studies to show that having a fever is adaptive. Which of the following observations in an ectotherm would be consistent with this conclusion?

A) An ectotherm with a fever will tend to stay warm by covering with a blanket.

B) An ectotherm with a fever will seek out cooler environments, like a tub of cool water.

C) An ectotherm with a fever will tend to decrease overall activity levels in order to keep from overheating.

D) An ectotherm will develop a fever after an infectious organism has been destroyed in order to speed healing.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 39.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 39-5. Describe how feedback loops are used to maintain homeostasis.

30) You are a doctor and you are given the files of two patients who are identical twin brothers: Patient #1: 25 year old male, 30% muscle mass, 70% fat content, 37 degrees C internal temperature Patient #2: 25 year old male, 70 % muscle mass, 30% fat content, 37 degrees C internal temperature If you are told that both patients are equally active and are completely healthy, which of the following assumptions can we make regarding the metabolic rates of the brothers?

A) Patient # 1 and Patient # 2 likely have the same metabolic rate.

B) Patient # 1 likely has a higher metabolic rate than Patient # 2.

C) Patient # 1 likely has a lower metabolic rate than Patient # 2.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 39.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 39-2. Distinguish between adaptation and acclimatization.

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31) Natural selection has contributed to the wide variety of beak morphologies exhibited by the Galápagos Island finches. A correlation exists whereby beak morphology suggests the primary food source of the finch. Which physiological response listed below best describes the variety of beak morphologies seen in these finches?

A) adaptation B) acclimation C) acclimatization Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 39.1, 39.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 39-2. Distinguish between adaptation and acclimatization.

32) Which of the following scenarios illustrates the physiological response of acclimatization?

A) Genetic changes have occurred in populations that have lived high in the Alps for many generations that allow individuals in these populations to cope with an environment with low oxygen.

B) Desert-dwelling plants such as the cactus have developed long root systems to ensure that they get enough water.

C) A dog sheds its thick winter fur for a lighter coat of fur when the temperature warms in the spring and summer.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 39.1, 39.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying LO: 39-2. Distinguish between adaptation and acclimatization.

33) Structure-function correlations exist throughout nature at all levels of organization, from the cellular level to systems level. Keeping this in mind, you visualize a cell under a microscope and it contains a lot of rough endoplasmic reticulum. What might you hypothesize the primary function of the cell to be?

A) energy storage B) hormone (protein) synthesis and release C) conduction of electrical signals D) participation in the immune response Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 39.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 39-1. Describe the relationship between the form and function of animal tissues, organs, and systems.

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34) Multicellular organisms are limited by size and, thus, ways to increase surface area of a structure are often advantageous. Which of the following pairs of words best describes ways to increase the surface area of a structure?

A) folding and branching B) shortening and converging C) flattening and converging D) shortening and flattening Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 39.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 39-4. Describe how the relationship between surface area and volume changes as body size increases.

35) Which of the following is an example of a structure that has an increased surface area for absorption?

A) a cow's digestive tract consisting of 3 stomachs B) an earthworm's segmented body C) a cheetah's large nostrils D) a human's lungs with many thin-walled alveoli Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 39.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 39-4. Describe how the relationship between surface area and volume changes as body size increases.

36) Which of the following is an example of negative feedback?

A) During birthing contractions, the hormone oxytocin is released and acts to stimulate further contractions.

B) When a baby is nursing, suckling leads to the production of more milk and a subsequent increase in the secretion of prolactin, which in turn stimulates lactation.

C) After a blood vessel is damaged, signals are released by the damaged tissues that activate platelets in the blood. These activated platelets release chemicals that activate more platelets.

D) When blood glucose concentration increases, the pancreas produces and releases the hormone insulin. Insulin acts to decrease blood glucose. As blood glucose decreases, the rate of production and release of insulin decreases.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 39.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 39-5. Describe how feedback loops are used to maintain homeostasis.

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37) Countercurrent multiplier systems are common in animals. Which of the following schematics best represents a countercurrent exchanger?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 39.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 39-6. Compare and contrast the different methods by which animals thermoregulate.

38) After you eat a meal, blood glucose concentration increases. Insulin is released from the pancreas to restore blood glucose concentration by facilitating the uptake of glucose by cells and stimulating the conversion of glucose to glycogen. What homeostatic mechanism is this an example of?

A) positive feedback B) negative feedback C) neutralizing feedback D) feedback inhibition Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 39.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 39-5. Describe how feedback loops are used to maintain homeostasis.

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Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition (Freeman et al.)

Chapter 40 Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals 1) The force driving simple diffusion is A) ATP. B) a concentration gradient.

C) transmembrane pumps.

D) phosphorylated protein carriers.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 40.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 40-1. Describe the relationship between osmoregulation and excretion.

2) A necropsy (postmortem analysis) of a marine sea star that died after it was mistakenly placed in freshwater would likely show that it died because A) it was stressed and needed more time to acclimate to the new conditions.

B) it was so hypertonic to the freshwater that it could not osmoregulate.

C) the sea star's kidneys could not handle the change in ionic content presented by the freshwater.

D) its contractile vacuoles ruptured.

E) its cells dehydrated and lost the ability to metabolize.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 40.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 40-1. Describe the relationship between osmoregulation and excretion.

3) The body fluids of an osmoconformer would be ________ with its ________ environment.

A) hyperosmotic; freshwater B) isoosmotic; freshwater C) hyperosmotic; saltwater D) isoosmotic; saltwater E) hypoosmotic; saltwater Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 40.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 40-2. Describe how cells, tissues, and organs in marine fishes function to remove salts from internal fluids.

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4) Which of the following affects the osmolarity of a solution? A) glucose concentration B) water concentration C) salt concentration D) all of the above Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 40.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 40-1. Describe the relationship between osmoregulation and excretion. 5) Which of the following is an example of osmoregulation? A) two solutions that are isotonic B) the contractile vacuole of a Paramecium C) type 2 diabetes mellitus D) all of the above Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 40.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 40-1. Describe the relationship between osmoregulation and excretion. 6) Marine vertebrates live in a(n) ________ environment. A) isotonic B) hypotonic C) hypertonic D) osmotonic Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 40.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 40-1. Describe the relationship between osmoregulation and excretion. 7) Freshwater fish live in a hypotonic environment. To maintain homeostasis in this environment, they must A) excrete large quantities of electrolytes. B) consume large quantities of water. C) excrete large quantities of water. D) take in electrolytes through simple diffusion. Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 40.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 40-1. Describe the relationship between osmoregulation and excretion.

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8) Which of the following mechanisms contributes to osmoregulation in both marine and freshwater bony fish?

A) gain of water through the gills via osmosis B) gain of salt through the gills via active transport C) loss of salt through the gills via diffusion D) excretion of hyperosmotic urine E) gain of water through food Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 40.2, 40.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 40-2 & 3. Describe how cells, tissues, and organs in marine fishes function to remove salts from internal fluids. Describe how cells, tissues, and organs in freshwater fishes function to gain salts from the environment.

9) Sharks live in seawater. Their tissues are isotonic to seawater, but their concentrations of sodium ions, potassium ions, and chloride ions in cells and extracellular fluids are similar to those of freshwater fishes. How is that possible?

A) There are other compounds contributing to intra- and extracellular osmolarity in shark tissues.

B) Metabolic intermediates of sharks tie up intracellular chloride and potassium ions.

C) Their blood is hypotonic to their tissues.

D) They excrete large quantities of electrolytes.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 40.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 40-2. Describe how cells, tissues, and organs in marine fishes function to remove salts from internal fluids.

10) Which of the following are soluble compounds that contribute to intracellular osmolarity in shark tissues?

A) excessively high levels of sodium and chloride B) glucose and amino acids C) a proton pump D) urea and trimethylamine oxide Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 40.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 40-2. Describe how cells, tissues, and organs in marine fishes function to remove salts from internal fluids.

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11) Tissues of sharks are isotonic to seawater, but their concentrations of sodium ions, potassium ions, and chloride ions in cells and extracellular fluids are similar to those of freshwater fishes.

What can you infer about the movement of sodium and chloride in these animals?

A) To maintain homeostasis of sodium and chloride levels, the shark must take up additional sodium and chloride from seawater.

B) Sodium and chloride will diffuse through shark gills from seawater down their concentration gradient.

C) Sharks conserve sodium and chloride, limiting excretion.

D) Sodium and chloride must be eliminated through the gills.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 40.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 40-2. Describe how cells, tissues, and organs in marine fishes function to remove salts from internal fluids.

12) What is the function of the shark rectal gland?

A) It is involved in osmoregulation.

B) It is responsible for excretion of undigested residue.

C) It secretes a hypotonic solution.

D) It concentrates electrolytes necessary for homeostasis in a hypertonic environment.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 40.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 40-2. Describe how cells, tissues, and organs in marine fishes function to remove salts from internal fluids.

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Ion Na+ K+ Cl—

Osmoregulation in the Shark Intercellular Concentration of Fluid Eliminated Concentration, mM from Rectal Gland, mM 280 449 5 12 270 446 Table 40.1

13) The intercellular concentration of three electrolytes is compared with the concentration of these electrolytes in fluid eliminated from the shark rectal gland in Table 40.1. Based on the data, which of the following is a likely function of the rectal gland?

A) The rectal gland eliminates metabolic waste.

B) The rectal gland is able to concentrate Na+, K+, and Cl-.

C) Chloride levels in seawater are similar to those in shark tissues.

D) There is very little potassium in sharks.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 40.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 40-2. Describe how cells, tissues, and organs in marine fishes function to remove salts from internal fluids.

14) Refer to Table 40.1: Because the shark rectal gland functions only when ATP molecules are present, what can you infer about the movement of Na+, K+, and Cl-?

A) Movement of these ions from circulation into the rectal gland is an active process.

B) Movement of these ions takes place from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.

C) These ions move into the rectal gland with their osmotic gradient.

D) The rectal gland is unable to concentrate these ions.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 40.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 40-2. Describe how cells, tissues, and organs in marine fishes function to remove salts from internal fluids.

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15) What role does Na+/K+-ATPase play in salt excretion by the shark rectal gland?

A) Na+/K+-ATPase pumps sodium out and potassium into cells across the apical membrane.

B) Na+/K+-ATPase pumps sodium into and potassium out of cells across the apical membrane.

C) Na+/K+-ATPase pumps sodium out and potassium into cells across the basolateral membrane.

D) Na+/K+-ATPase pumps sodium into and potassium out of cells across the basolateral membrane.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 40.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 40-2. Describe how cells, tissues, and organs in marine fishes function to remove salts from internal fluids.

16) What role do chloride cells play in osmoregulation of marine fish with bony skeletons?

A) They actively transport chloride into the gills.

B) They mediate the movement of salt from seawater through their gills.

C) They are involved in excretion of excess salt.

D) They actively transport salt across the basolateral membrane of the rectal gland.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 40.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 40-2. Describe how cells, tissues, and organs in marine fishes function to remove salts from internal fluids.

17) Freshwater fish reside in hypotonic environments. They do not drink water, and they excrete large volumes of hypotonic urine in an effort to osmoregulate. How do they obtain an adequate supply of electrolytes?

A) The rectal gland is specialized to produce the dilute (hypotonic urine) and conserve ions.

B) Chloride cells transport additional electrolytes into the circulation of these organisms.

C) Gill lamellae take up additional electrolytes from freshwater.

D) There is an increase in Na+/K+-ATPase activity across the basolateral membrane.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 40.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 40-3. Describe how cells, tissues, and organs in freshwater fishes function to gain salts from the environment.

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18) Salmon eggs hatch in freshwater. The fish then migrate to the ocean (a hypertonic solution) and, after several years of feeding and growing, return to freshwater to breed. How can these organisms make the transition from freshwater to ocean water and back to freshwater?

A) The rectal gland functions in the ocean water, and chloride cells function in freshwater.

B) Different gill cells are involved in osmoregulation in freshwater than in salt water.

C) Salmon surface to breathe oxygen, so there is no need for more than one mechanism of osmoregulation.

D) Their metabolism changes in salt water to degrade electrolytes.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 40.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 40-3. Describe how cells, tissues, and organs in freshwater fishes function to gain salts from the environment.

19) Terrestrial organisms lose water through evaporation. Why are desert locusts and flour beetles good organisms to use in studying mechanisms to regulate water loss?

A) They have a relatively large surface area/volume relationship.

B) They live in environments where little to no water is available.

C) They are unable to ingest adequate amounts of sodium and chloride.

D) They have stoma that regulate water loss.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 40.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 40-4. Explain how terrestrial insects maintain water and electrolyte balance.

20) African lungfish, which are often found in small, stagnant pools of freshwater, produce urea as a nitrogenous waste. What is the advantage of this adaptation?

A) Urea takes less energy to synthesize than ammonia.

B) Small, stagnant pools do not provide enough water to dilute the toxic ammonia.

C) The highly toxic urea makes the pool uninhabitable to potential competitors.

D) Urea forms an insoluble precipitate.

E) Urea makes lungfish tissue hypoosmotic to the pool.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 40.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 40-3. Describe how cells, tissues, and organs in freshwater fishes function to gain salts from the environment.

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21) Water loss from insect surface is minimal due to which of the following structures?

A) chitin and the cuticle B) tracheae and spiracles C) a proteinaceous epidermis D) a small surface area/volume relationship Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 40.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 40-4. Explain how terrestrial insects maintain water and electrolyte balance.

22) Freshwater fish dilute ammonia and excrete it in a watery urine. Both freshwater and saltwater fish get rid of ammonia through diffusion across the gills. Humans convert ammonia to urea and excrete it in the urine. Birds convert ammonia to uric acid and excrete it. Why is it important for birds to get rid of ammonia?

A) It is insoluble in water.

B) Ammonia interferes with water loss.

C) It is toxic.

D) It is used to synthesize nonessential amino acids.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 40.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 40-5. Explain how terrestrial vertebrates maintain water and electrolyte balance.

23) Insects maintain water and electrolyte balance through which anatomical structures?

A) kidneys B) Malpighian tubules C) rectal gland D) chloride cells Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 40.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 40-4. Explain how terrestrial insects maintain water and electrolyte balance.

24) Malpighian tubules form pre-urine, which is further processed by which of the following anatomical structures?

A) hindgut B) hemolymph C) rectal gland D) chloride cells Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 40.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 40-4. Explain how terrestrial insects maintain water and electrolyte balance.

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25) Through studies on the Malpighian tubules, researchers found that K+ accumulated on the inner face of the tubule, against its concentration gradient. What can you infer about the mechanism of transport?

A) Potassium transport is a passive process.

B) Movement of potassium into the lumen of the Malpighian tubules is an energy-requiring process.

C) Potassium moves out of the tubules at a faster rate than it moves into the lumen of the tubules.

D) Sodium ions will follow potassium ions.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 40.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 40-4. Explain how terrestrial insects maintain water and electrolyte balance.

26) A potassium ion gradient is set up in the Malpighian tubules through an active transport process. As a result, potassium concentration is higher in the lumen of the tubules than in hemolymph. How would the potassium gradient affect water movement?

A) Water would be forced out of the lumen of the Malpighian tubules through an osmotic gradient.

B) The potassium gradient would have no effect on water movement.

C) There would be a net movement of water into the lumen of the tubules.

D) Water would be conserved, forming a hypertonic solution in the Malpighian tubules.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 40.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 40-4. Explain how terrestrial insects maintain water and electrolyte balance.

27) In flour beetles and desert locusts, how is water conserved?

A) The pre-urine formed in the Malpighian tubules is hypertonic.

B) Urine that is formed is isotonic to hemolymph, but the muscle cells surrounding spiracles of these organisms are able to significantly limit water loss due to respiration.

C) Water is transported into hindgut cells through endocytosis.

D) Sodium and chloride are actively transported out of pre-urine, and water follows, forming a hypertonic urine.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 40.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 40-4. Explain how terrestrial insects maintain water and electrolyte balance.

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28) How does ion composition of pre-urine differ from hemolymph?

A) Pre-urine is significantly higher in osmolarity (especially with respect to Na+ and K+).

B) Hemolymph is higher in osmolarity, conserving its Cl-.

C) Pre-urine is similar to hemolymph in ion composition.

D) The protein pumps and channels of the Malpighian tubules concentrate Cl- in the pre-urine.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 40.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 40-4. Explain how terrestrial insects maintain water and electrolyte balance.

29) Reabsorption of water in the hindgut of insects is controlled by which of the following?

A) osmotic gradients created by ion pumps B) selective absorptive processes that take place in the Malpighian tubules C) ion concentration of hemolymph D) osmoregulators in the rectal gland Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 40.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 40-4. Explain how terrestrial insects maintain water and electrolyte balance.

30) What is the organ responsible for regulating water and electrolyte balance in terrestrial vertebrates?

A) chloride cells B) Malpighian tubules C) rectal glands D) kidneys Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 40.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 40-5. Explain how terrestrial vertebrates maintain water and electrolyte balance.

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Figure 40.1 31) Where does filtration take place in the figure above?

Answer: A Type: SA Reference: Section 40.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 40-5. Explain how terrestrial vertebrates maintain water and electrolyte balance.

32) The functional unit of the kidney is A) the renal corpuscle.

B) the nephron.

C) the loop of Henle.

D) the ureters.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 40.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 40-5. Explain how terrestrial vertebrates maintain water and electrolyte balance.

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33) The products of filtration in the renal corpuscle enter the renal tubule through which of the following structures?

A) the proximal convoluted tubule B) the loop of Henle C) the collecting duct D) Bowman's capsule Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 40.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 40-5. Explain how terrestrial vertebrates maintain water and electrolyte balance.

34) Why do birds secrete uric acid as their nitrogenous waste? Because uric acid A) is readily soluble in water, permitting its release in dilute urine.

B) is metabolically intermediate to synthesize than other excretory products, balancing metabolic costs and water loss.

C) requires little water for nitrogenous waste disposal, thus conserving water and reducing body mass.

D) is produced from their low-protein diet.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 40.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 40-5. Explain how terrestrial vertebrates maintain water and electrolyte balance.

35) For filtration to take place through the fenestrated capillaries of the renal corpuscle, A) concentration of ions must be greater in the capillaries (the glomerulus) than in the renal tubule.

B) there must be a greater pressure inside the glomerulus than in the renal tubules.

C) there must be a larger concentration of proteins in the renal tubule than in the glomerulus.

D) there must be more than one capillary bed in the renal corpuscle.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 40.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 40-5. Explain how terrestrial vertebrates maintain water and electrolyte balance.

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36) There are microvilli on the luminal (apical) surface of the epithelium that lines the lumen of the proximal tubule. Microvilli are structural features designed to A) maximize surface area available to pump ions into the renal tubule.

B) maximize surface area available for reabsorption of solutes from the renal tubule.

C) accommodate membrane proteins involved in active transport of substances into the rental tubule.

D) provide adequate space to house membrane proteins involved in active transport of solutes out of the renal tubule.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 40.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 40-5. Explain how terrestrial vertebrates maintain water and electrolyte balance.

37) Which of the following is a function of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?

A) ADH decreases the reabsorption of urea, creating a higher urea content in the urine.

B) ADH triggers the insertion of water channels called aquaporins, thereby reducing the amount of water reabsorbed by the collecting duct.

C) ADH improves the reabsorption of glucose by the proximal convoluted tubule.

D) ADH triggers the insertion of water channels called aquaporins, thereby increasing the amount of water reabsorbed by the collecting duct.

E) ADH alters the ion reabsorption by the loop of Henle.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 40.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 40-5. Explain how terrestrial vertebrates maintain water and electrolyte balance.

38) The loop of Henle dips into the renal cortex. This is an important feature of osmoregulation in terrestrial vertebrates because A) absorptive processes taking place in the loop of Henle are hormonally regulated.

B) differential permeabilities of ascending and descending limbs of the loop of Henle are important in establishing an osmotic gradient.

C) the loop of Henle plays an important role in detoxification.

D) additional filtration takes place along the loop of Henle.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 40.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 40-5. Explain how terrestrial vertebrates maintain water and electrolyte balance.

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39) Different habitats pose certain challenges to animal survival. For instance, terrestrial insects must maintain water balance by minimizing evaporation. How do insects minimize water loss?

A) Keep the spiracles open.

B) Eat more plant material that is high in water content.

C) Have a cuticle covered by a waxy hydrophobic layer.

D) Excrete nitrogenous waste as urea.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 40.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 40-4. Explain how terrestrial insects maintain water and electrolyte balance.

40) Proper functioning of body cells and processes requires solute concentrations to be maintained within a narrow range. Which of the following solutes would be absorbed by the proximal tubule of the kidney nephron?

A) triglyceride B) urea C) sodium D) carbon dioxide Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 40.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 40-5. Explain how terrestrial vertebrates maintain water and electrolyte balance.

41) Urine formation is involved in water and electrolyte balance in vertebrates. Which of the following statements is the most correct regarding urine formation?

A) Reabsorption is highly selective so that only ions that are needed are reabsorbed.

B) The Malpighian tubules form the pre-urine.

C) Water is actively pumped across cell membranes to create osmotic gradients.

D) The formation of the pre-urine is selective.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 40.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 40-5. Explain how terrestrial vertebrates maintain water and electrolyte balance.

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Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition(Freeman Chapter 41 et Animal al.)

Nutrition 1) What is the importance of consuming an adequate amount of proteins in a diet? A) They are most commonly used to meet cell energy demands. B) Proteins serve a variety of functions, and the body does not store excess quantities of protein. C) They are used as cofactors for metabolic reactions and are required in minute quantities. D) Proteins are necessary to produce urea and other important metabolites. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 41.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 41-1. Identify the major groups of nutrients that animals require to complete their lifecycle. 2) Food labels provide nutrient information and express the amount of a given nutrient as A) a percentage of the Recommended Dietary Allowances. B) International Units. C) percent composition of the food product. D) calories. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 41.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 41-1. Identify the major groups of nutrients that animals require to complete their lifecycle.

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Refer to the following nutrition label for the corresponding question(s). Apple juice has the following nutrition label: Contains 100% Juice Nutrition Facts Serving Size 8 fl oz (240 ml) Servings Per Container 8 Amount Per Serving Calories 120 % RDA Total Fat 0 g 0% Sodium 10 mg 0% Potassium 240 mg 6% Total Carbohydrate 29 g 10% Sugars 28 g Protein 0 g Vitamin A 0% Vitamin C 20% Calcium 2% Iron 6% Not a significant source of other nutrients RDA is based on a 2000 calorie diet 3) From the information contained on the label above, you can infer that apple juice is a good source of which of the following?

A) vitamin A B) vitamin C C) calcium D) sodium Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 41.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 41-1. Identify the major groups of nutrients that animals require to complete their lifecycle.

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4) If the person consumes 2500 calories daily to maintain body weight, what percentage of the RDA for iron would this person receive from a serving of apple juice? A) 20% B) less than 20% C) more than 20% Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 41.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 41-1. Identify the major groups of nutrients that animals require to complete their lifecycle. 5) How many food calories does the jug of apple juice contain? A) 120 B) 240 C) 480 D) 960 Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 41.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 41-1. Identify the major groups of nutrients that animals require to complete their lifecycle.

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Figure 41.1 6) How would you, as an athlete or trainer, interpret the data portrayed in the graph above?

A) A high-carbohydrate diet is deleterious to all individuals because carbohydrates contain empty calories.

B) A high-carbohydrate diet consumed before an endurance event improves endurance.

C) The protein-fat diet resulted in the longest endurance.

D) It is highly probable that muscle cells involved in exercise use fatty acids as a fuel source.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 41.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 41-1. Identify the major groups of nutrients that animals require to complete their lifecycle.

7) What are the molar teeth of herbivorous mammals especially effective at?

A) cutting B) ripping C) grinding D) splitting E) piercing Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 41.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 41-2. Explain how the structure of an animal's mouthparts corresponds with the function of capturing and processing food.

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8) What can the mouthparts of an animal tell you about its diet?

A) Mouthparts of animals are specialized to obtain desired food items efficiently.

B) Mouthparts provide clues about the type of digestion that goes on in the stomach.

C) Mouthparts are important in mating rituals and provide few clues about diet.

D) Mouthparts of all animals are designed to reduce the size of the food particles ingested.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 41.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 41-2. Explain how the structure of an animal's mouthparts corresponds with the function of capturing and processing food.

Figure 41.2 9) Refer to Figure 41.2. Which of the mouthparts shown in the figure above are specialized for crushing and grinding?

Answer: A Type: SA Reference: Section 41.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 41-2. Explain how the structure of an animal's mouthparts corresponds with the function of capturing and processing food.

10) Fangs, like those found in wolves, are designed to A) grind and chew.

B) tear flesh.

C) swallow the prey whole.

D) filter feed.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 41.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 41-2. Explain how the structure of an animal's mouthparts corresponds with the function of capturing and processing food.

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11) The process of obtaining is known as ________ and requires specialized mouthparts. A) ingestion B) digestion C) absorption D) excretion Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 41.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 41-2. Explain how the structure of an animal's mouthparts corresponds with the function of capturing and processing food.

12) The process of breaking down food particles into molecules that can be transported into circulation is known as A) ingestion.

B) digestion.

C) absorption.

D) excretion.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 41.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 41-3. Explain how digestion occurs, including the specialized functions of each section of the digestive tract.

13) Which of the following molecules are absorbed from the lumen of the small intestine into epithelial cells through simple diffusion?

A) monosaccharides B) disaccharides and trisaccharides C) lipids D) amino acids Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 41.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 41-3. Explain how digestion occurs, including the specialized functions of each section of the digestive tract.

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14) Protein digestion begins where?

A) in the mouth B) in the stomach C) in the small intestine D) in the bloodstream Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 41.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 41-3. Explain how digestion occurs, including the specialized functions of each section of the digestive tract.

15) Starch digestion begins where?

A) in the mouth B) in the stomach C) in the small intestine D) in the bloodstream Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 41.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 41-3. Explain how digestion occurs, including the specialized functions of each section of the digestive tract.

16) A major enzyme involved in protein digestion is A) lipase.

B) amylase.

C) pepsin.

D) facilitated diffusion.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 41.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 41-3. Explain how digestion occurs, including the specialized functions of each section of the digestive tract.

17) If you chew a salted cracker long enough, it begins to taste sweet. Why? A) The taste buds for "salty" become fatigued and cease to fire.

B) Salivary amylase degrades the starch from the cracker into glucose.

C) The contents of the cracker become soluble in saliva.

D) Sugar that remained in the mouth from previous meals becomes soluble in saliva.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 41.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 41-3. Explain how digestion occurs, including the specialized functions of each section of the digestive tract.

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18) What is the importance of the mucins that are released by salivary glands?

A) They aid in degradation of triglycerides to fatty acids and monoglycerides.

B) They are beginning the process of starch digestion.

C) They are hormonal molecules that stimulate the release of gastric juice by the stomach in anticipation of receipt of the contents of the mouth.

D) They are glycoproteins that make food slippery enough to slide easily through the esophagus.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 41.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 41-3. Explain how digestion occurs, including the specialized functions of each section of the digestive tract.

19) Food and its products of degradation move through the alimentary canal by means of peristalsis. What is peristalsis?

A) movements of the muscular layer surrounding the alimentary canal that are under voluntary control B) rhythmic waves of contraction of the muscular layer surrounding the alimentary canal that are responsible for moving contents of the lumen along the length of the digestive tract C) movement of nerve impulses from the central nervous system to the autorhythmic smooth muscle cells D) rhythmic lengthening and shortening of epithelial cells lining the lumen of the alimentary canal Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 41.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 41-3. Explain how digestion occurs, including the specialized functions of each section of the digestive tract.

20) If you found a vertebrate skull in the woods and the teeth were sharp and scissor-like, what type of food would you expect this animal to eat?

A) grass B) flesh of another animal C) nectar D) blood Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 41.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 41-2. Explain how the structure of an animal's mouthparts corresponds with the function of capturing and processing food.

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21) The stomach is highly acidic, creating a hostile environment for invading bacteria.

Another function of the acidic environment is to activate the enzyme that initiates protein digestion in the stomach. What proteolytic enzyme is activated by the acidic environment? A) trypsin B) chymotrypsin C) insulin D) pepsin Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 41.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 41-3. Explain how digestion occurs, including the specialized functions of each section of the digestive tract. 22) Why did scientists originally hypothesize that proteolytic enzymes like pepsin and trypsin are secreted in inactive form? A) These proteolytic enzymes, in active form, would digest the very tissues that synthesize them.

B) They identified the hormone that activates pepsin and trypsin. C) The stomach is too acidic to maintain these enzymes in their active form. D) Upon study of chief cells, they were able to isolate active forms of pepsin and trypsin. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 41.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 41-3. Explain how digestion occurs, including the specialized functions of each section of the digestive tract. 23) The stomach releases hydrochloric acid to create an acidic environment. Which cells release acid?

A) goblet cells B) chief cells C) parietal cells D) smooth muscle cells Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 41.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 41-3. Explain how digestion occurs, including the specialized functions of each section of the digestive tract.

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24) Coprophagy benefits animals by allowing them to A) hide their feces from predators.

B) absorb more nutrients from food.

C) ferment their feces in their stomachs.

D) digest starches in their stomach.

E) All of the above are benefits of coprophagy.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 41.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 41-3. Explain how digestion occurs, including the specialized functions of each section of the digestive tract.

25) Helicobacter pylori is a bacterial organism that causes ulcers and digestive disturbances.

How might they survive the acid pH of the stomach?

A) They secrete a buffer to neutralize acid.

B) They burrow under the mucus layer that covers the stomach epithelium.

C) They hook up to the blood supply of the stomach.

D) They release chemicals that decrease acid production in the stomach.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 41.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 41-3. Explain how digestion occurs, including the specialized functions of each section of the digestive tract.

26) The parietal cells that line the stomach secrete hydrogen ions into the stomach against a concentration gradient. Based on that knowledge, which of the following transport processes is most likely involved in hydrogen ion secretion?

A) diffusion B) facilitated diffusion C) active transport D) endocytosis Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 41.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 41-3. Explain how digestion occurs, including the specialized functions of each section of the digestive tract.

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27) Ruminants have a multi-compartmented stomach. They have a symbiotic relationship with bacterial organisms resident in the first of four compartments (the rumen). How do the bacteria help ruminant digestion?

A) They break down cellulose, a complex polysaccharide that would be indigestible without the assistance of bacterial organisms.

B) They increase the rate of movement of contents through the alimentary canal.

C) They maintain a basic pH in the rumen.

D) They do not help with digestion, but benefit from foods eaten by the ruminant.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 41.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 41-3. Explain how digestion occurs, including the specialized functions of each section of the digestive tract.

28) Which of the following is a major function of the small intestine?

A) to initiate protein digestion B) to absorb the end-products of digestion C) to produce and release bile to aid in fat absorption D) to store bile Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 41.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 41-3. Explain how digestion occurs, including the specialized functions of each section of the digestive tract.

29) Bile, which is synthesized in the liver and stored in the gallbladder, is important in lipid digestion. What feature/function of bile makes it an effective emulsifying agent?

A) Bile is an amphipathic molecule, having both hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions.

B) Bile adds hydroxyl groups to the hydrocarbon tails of fatty acids, making them more soluble in water.

C) Bile stimulates the transport processes involved in movement of triglycerides into intestinal epithelial cells.

D) Its enzymatic activity removes fatty acids from triglycerides, making them more soluble in water.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 41.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 41-3. Explain how digestion occurs, including the specialized functions of each section of the digestive tract.

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30) Amino acids, dipeptides, and sugars are transported from intestinal epithelial cells into circulation. Lipids are transported from the intestinal epithelium into A) smooth muscles that make up the core of the villi of the intestinal epithelium.

B) the lymph system.

C) the liver.

D) the gall bladder.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 41.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 41-3. Explain how digestion occurs, including the specialized functions of each section of the digestive tract.

31) Villi and microvilli that are associated with the luminal surface of the intestinal epithelium are important in that they A) increase the surface area available for absorption.

B) contain stratified (layered) epithelial cells for protection against pathogens entering with food.

C) transport substances from the epithelial cells into the circulatory system.

D) contain cilia that facilitate movement of the contents of the alimentary canal toward the anus.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 41.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 41-3. Explain how digestion occurs, including the specialized functions of each section of the digestive tract.

32) Glucose is transported from the intestinal lumen into epithelial cells through ________ and from the intestinal epithelium into circulation by ________.

A) facilitated diffusion; primary active transport B) cotransport with sodium; cotransport with sodium C) cotransport with sodium; facilitated diffusion D) active transport; active transport Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 41.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 41-3. Explain how digestion occurs, including the specialized functions of each section of the digestive tract.

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33) What should individuals who have their gallbladders removed reduce their consumption of?

A) proteins B) carbohydrates C) fats D) proteins and carbohydrates Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 41.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 41-3. Explain how digestion occurs, including the specialized functions of each section of the digestive tract.

Figure 41.3 34) Based on the graph in the Figure 41.3, what can you infer about the incidence of type II diabetes mellitus?

A) Obesity is a risk factor for development of type II diabetes mellitus.

B) If you maintain a normal body weight (BMI < 25), you will not get type II diabetes mellitus.

C) The incidence of type II diabetes mellitus has increased in the past 10 years.

D) People who develop type II diabetes mellitus are typically diagnosed in childhood or adolescence.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 41.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 41-4. Describe the causes, symptoms, and consequences of Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes mellitus.

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35) Following a meal high in starch, digestive processes break the starch into ________, which when absorbed into circulation cause a release of the hormone ________.

A) amino acids; glucagon B) free fatty acids; cholecystokinin C) glucose; glucagon D) glucose; insulin Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 41.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 41-4. Describe the causes, symptoms, and consequences of Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes mellitus.

36) If there is a strong genetic link for type II diabetes mellitus in your family, how might you minimize your risk of developing the disorder?

A) Monitor your blood glucose levels daily.

B) Take oral insulin daily.

C) Diet and exercise.

D) Eat carbohydrates like starch instead of sweets.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 41.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 41-4. Describe the causes, symptoms, and consequences of Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes mellitus.

37) Cattle are able to survive on a diet consisting almost entirely of plant material because cattle A) are autotrophic.

B) re-ingest their feces.

C) manufacture all 15 amino acids out of sugars in the liver.

D) saliva has enzymes capable of digesting cellulose.

E) have cellulose-digesting, symbiotic microorganisms in their stomach chambers.

Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 41.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 41-3. Explain how digestion occurs, including the specialized functions of each section of the digestive tract.

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38) Which of the following words best completes this sentence? The human body cannot ________ essential nutrients.

A) excrete B) make C) secrete D) absorb Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 41.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 41-1. Identify the major groups of nutrients that animals require to complete their lifecycle.

39) Vitamin D is indirectly responsible for calcium uptake in the intestine. What is the mechanism by which Vitamin D and its receptor affect the calcium transporter gene?

A) gene expression B) gene repression C) gene translation D) gene initiation Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 41.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 41-1. Identify the major groups of nutrients that animals require to complete their lifecycle.

40) Cholecystokinin (CCK) stimulates the release of numerous digestive enzymes. Which of the following digestive enzymes is NOT released by CCK? A) chymotrypsin B) pancreatic amylase C) elastase D) pepsin Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 41.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 41-3. Explain how digestion occurs, including the specialized functions of each section of the digestive tract.

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41) What is the role of HCl in the human stomach?

A) breaks down lipids B) activates pepsin into pepsinogen C) denatures proteins D) denatures carbohydrates Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 41.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 41-3. Explain how digestion occurs, including the specialized functions of each section of the digestive tract.

42) What condition may arise in an individual who has defective pancreatic cells?

A) diabetes mellitus type I B) diabetes mellitus type II C) diabetes insipidus D) gestational diabetes Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 41.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 41-4. Describe the causes, symptoms, and consequences of Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes mellitus.

43) What condition may arise if an individual has defective insulin receptors?

A) diabetes mellitus type I B) diabetes mellitus type II C) diabetes insipidus D) gestational diabetes Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 41.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 41-4. Describe the causes, symptoms, and consequences of Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes mellitus.

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Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition (Freeman et al.)

Chapter 42 Gas Exchange and Circulation 1) Which of the following best describes the process of ventilation?

A) the movement of oxygen gas through the blood of the circulatory system B) the movement of carbon dioxide gas through the blood of the circulatory system C) the movement of air through lungs or gills D) the diffusion of gases into and out of the circulatory system E) the diffusion of gases into and out of tissues where cellular respiration occurs Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 42.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 42-1. Explain the relationship between respiratory and circulatory systems.

2) The sun shining on a tidal pool during a hot day heats the water. As some water evaporates, the pool becomes saltier, causing which of the following?

A) an increase in the water's carbon dioxide content B) a decrease in the water's oxygen content C) an increase in the water's ability to sustain aerobic organisms D) a decrease in the water's density E) an increase in photosynthesis by the tidal pool plants Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 42.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 42-2. Describe the different challenges terrestrial and aquatic animals face in performing gas exchange.

3) In midsummer, you are fishing at a lake. You catch the most fish at the inlet of a stream into the lake, where logs and branches are creating turbulent flow and mixing deep water with the shallow water near the surface of the lake. What is the probable reason the fish are congregating in this area?

A) This area has higher oxygen content, aiding gill oxygen uptake.

B) This area is warmer, which stimulates metabolism.

C) This area is cooler, which stimulates metabolism.

D) This area has a lower oxygen content, which helps to transfer oxygen into the fish's gills.

E) None of the above apply.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 42.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 42-2. Describe the different challenges terrestrial and aquatic animals face in performing gas exchange.

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4) A rabbit taken from a meadow near sea level and moved to a meadow high on a mountainside would have some trouble breathing. Why? A) The percentage of oxygen in the air at high elevations is lower than at sea level.

B) The percentage of oxygen in the air at high elevations is higher than at sea level.

C) The partial pressure of oxygen in the air at high elevations is lower than at sea level.

D) The partial pressure of oxygen in the air at high elevations is higher than at sea level.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 42.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 42-2. Describe the different challenges terrestrial and aquatic animals face in performing gas exchange.

5) If other factors are equal, which of the following environments would have the highest level of dissolved oxygen?

A) warm, salty water at low elevation B) cool, salty water at low elevation C) warm, fresh water at high elevation D) cool, fresh water at high elevation E) cool, fresh water at low elevation Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 42.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 42-2. Describe the different challenges terrestrial and aquatic animals face in performing gas exchange.

6) Why is it more difficult to obtain enough oxygen via respiration from water than from air?

A) The density of water makes ventilating the respiratory tissues more difficult.

B) The viscosity of water is less than that of air.

C) The solubility of oxygen in water is less than in air.

D) All of the above answers apply.

E) Only A and C apply.

Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 42.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 42-2. Describe the different challenges terrestrial and aquatic animals face in performing gas exchange.

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7) The air pressure in Denver, Colorado, is about 83% of the air pressure in Miami Beach, which is about sea level. Given that the air pressure in Miami Beach is 760 mm Hg and oxygen makes up 21% of the air in Miami Beach, what is the percentage of oxygen and the partial pressure of oxygen in Denver, respectively?

A) 21%; 21 mm Hg B) 21%; 132 mm Hg C) 17.4%; 132 mm Hg D) 17.4%; 21 mm Hg Answer: B Explanation: 760 * 0.21 * 0.83 = 132 Type: MC Reference: Section 42.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 42-2. Describe the different challenges terrestrial and aquatic animals face in performing gas exchange.

8) Fick's law of diffusion describes the factors that influence the diffusion of respiratory gases across biological membranes like gills and lungs. Diffusion rate = k × A × (P2 - P1)/D. Natural selection is least likely to act upon which variable in Fick's law?

A) A B) k C) P2 - P1 D) D Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 42.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 42-3. Describe how diffusion of gases is maximized in gas-exchange organs.

9) What is the rate of diffusion in the gas-exchange organ of an air-breathing animal where the area for gas exchange in the lung is 200 mm2, the diffusion constant is 0.08, the PO2 (partial pressure of oxygen) of the air in the lung is 140 mm Hg, the PO2 in blood flowing into the lung is 90 mmHg, and the thickness of the gas exchange membrane is 0.001 mm?

A) 800,000 B) 125 C) 00032 D) 10,000,000 Answer: A Explanation: rate = 0.08 * 200 * (140 - 90) / 0.001 Type: MC Reference: Section 42.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 42-3. Describe how diffusion of gases is maximized in gas-exchange organs.

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10) Marine crabs have internal gills covered by an exoskeleton, and, because their whole body is covered by exoskeleton, they cannot expand their body enough to generate much negative pressure within the gill chambers to draw water in over their gills. Which of the following would serve to increase the efficiency of gas exchange by marine crabs?

A) a countercurrent exchange system B) oxygen-carrying molecules in the blood C) movement of limbs or other structures to create a current over the gills D) all of the above E) only B and C Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 42.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 42-3. Describe how diffusion of gases is maximized in gas-exchange organs.

11) You prop open the gill covers of a fish, tie a string around its tail, and tow it backward through the water. This action forces water to flow in the back of the gill covers, from back to front over the gills, and out through the fish's mouth. What effect would this backward movement have on gas exchange?

A) It would reduce efficiency of gas exchange.

B) It would increase efficiency of gas exchange.

C) The only effect would be the fish's discomfort from this treatment.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 42.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying LO: 42-3. Describe how diffusion of gases is maximized in gas-exchange organs.

12) What is the main difference between respiration in terrestrial insects and in terrestrial vertebrates?

A) Insects rely on the blood in their circulatory system to deliver oxygen from the air to their tissues, whereas terrestrial vertebrates rely on their lungs to deliver oxygen in air to their tissues.

B) Insects rely on their tracheal system to deliver oxygen in air to their tissues, whereas terrestrial vertebrates rely on their lungs to deliver oxygen to their tissues through the blood in their circulatory system.

C) Insects have a lower metabolic rate than terrestrial vertebrates do, so they tend to rely more heavily on their circulatory system than their tracheal system for oxygen transport.

D) Insects use their tracheal system to transfer oxygen from air into blood, whereas terrestrial vertebrates use their lungs to transfer oxygen from air into blood.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 42.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 42-3. Describe how diffusion of gases is maximized in gas-exchange organs.

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13) Which of the following is NOT a feature of gas exchange in the respiratory system of birds?

A) The exchange of gases between parabronchi and blood is in a countercurrent direction.

B) The flow of air through the lungs is one way.

C) The dead space within the respiratory system is small compared to that in mammals.

D) Gas exchange occurs during both inhalation and exhalation.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 42.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 42-3. Describe how diffusion of gases is maximized in gas-exchange organs.

14) Carbon dioxide levels in the blood and in cerebrospinal fluid affect the pH of these fluids.

Which of the following mechanisms does an organism use to sense a disturbance in gas?

A) The brain directly measures and monitors oxygen levels and causes breathing changes accordingly.

B) Neurons in contact with cerebrospinal fluid monitor pH and use this measure to control breathing.

C) The brain alters the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid to force the animal to retain more or less carbon dioxide.

D) Stretch receptors in the lungs cause the medulla oblongata to speed up or slow breathing.

E) The medulla oblongata is able to control the concentration of bicarbonate ions in the blood.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 42.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 42-4. Explain how gases are transported in the blood.

15) When you are jogging, your muscles are using more oxygen and releasing more carbon dioxide into the blood than when you are at home on the couch. Which of the following would occur during your jog?

A) Blood pH would increase by at least 1 pH unit.

B) The concentration of bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) in the blood would decrease.

C) The medullary respiratory center would increase the rate of breathing.

D) All of the above answers apply.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 42.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 42-3. Describe how diffusion of gases is maximized in gas-exchange organs.

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16) Which of the following statements supports the hypothesis that the bidirectional gas flow occurring in humans (air goes in and out through the same passages) is less efficient than the unidirectional flow in fish?

A) Bidirectional flow in humans does not take advantage of countercurrent exchange.

B) About one-third of the air in human lungs is trapped in "dead space" where gas exchange with the circulation cannot occur.

C) None of the above are true.

D) Both A and B are true.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 42.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 42-3. Describe how diffusion of gases is maximized in gas-exchange organs.

17) A mutation results in a form of hemoglobin with binding sites for four molecules of oxygen but does not exhibit cooperative binding. Which of the following would result?

A) Each hemoglobin molecule would bind only one molecule of oxygen.

B) Oxygen would be delivered to the tissues more readily than in a normal individual.

C) The oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve would be unaffected.

D) Both A and C would occur.

E) None of the above would result.

Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 42.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 42-4. Explain how gases are transported in the blood.

18) Which of the following events would be predicted by the Bohr shift effect as the amount of carbon dioxide released from your tissues into the blood capillaries increases?

A) The amount of oxygen in arterial blood would increase.

B) The amount of oxygen in arterial blood would decrease.

C) The amount of oxygen in venous blood would increase.

D) The amount of oxygen in venous blood would decrease.

E) More than one of the above is true.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 42.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 42-4. Explain how gases are transported in the blood.

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19) In what way does hemoglobin act as a buffer against changes in blood pH? A) Subsequent binding of oxygen is drastically reduced after the first one is bound.

B) Hemoglobin binds some of the excess protons released by carbonic acid.

C) Hemoglobin produces protons or hydroxide ions as needed to alter the blood pH. D) Hemoglobin removes excess protons from the red blood cells so that they can be excreted through the kidneys.

E) All of the above answers apply.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 42.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 42-4. Explain how gases are transported in the blood.

20) The oxygen content of water increases linearly with an increase in oxygen partial pressure, while the oxygen content of blood increases in a sigmoidal (S-shaped) fashion. Why? A) Carbonic anhydrase contributes to CO2 release in blood, but not water.

B) The Bohr shift is stronger in water than in blood.

C) Hemoglobin shows cooperative oxygen binding.

D) All of the above answers apply.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 42.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 42-4. Explain how gases are transported in the blood.

21) You are a physician, and see a patient who complains of abnormal fatigue during exercise.

You find that the immediate problem is a buildup of carbon dioxide in the tissues. What is the most likely cause?

A) abnormally shaped platelets B) abnormal carbonic anhydrase C) abnormal hemoglobin D) not enough hemoglobin Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 42.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 42-4. Explain how gases are transported in the blood.

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22) Which of the following result, either directly or indirectly, when carbonic anhydrase is functioning properly?

A) The amount of oxygen released by hemoglobin decreases.

B) The amount of carbon dioxide diffusing into red blood cells increases.

C) The pH of capillary blood decreases.

D) Only A and B are true.

E) Only B and C are true.

Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 42.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 42-4. Explain how gases are transported in the blood.

23) In a cross section through an artery and vein running parallel in your leg, which would be the artery?

A) The vessel with the largest interior diameter.

B) The vessel with more muscle tissue in the wall.

C) The vessel lined with endothelium.

D) The vessel with valves to prevent backflow.

E) All of the above answers apply.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 42.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 42-5. Distinguish between open and closed circulatory systems.

24) Which of the following conditions would be the most likely result of an abnormally high blood pressure in an animal, like a reptile, possessing a closed circulatory system?

A) hemorrhage in the capillary beds B) hemorrhage in the aorta C) reversal of normal blood flow direction in the veins D) all of the above Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 42.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 42-5. Distinguish between open and closed circulatory systems.

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25) Which of the following mechanisms are used to regulate blood pressure in the closed circulatory system of vertebrates?

A) changing the force of heart contraction B) constricting and relaxing sphincters in the walls of arterioles C) adjusting the volume of blood contained in the veins D) all of the above Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 42.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 42-5. Distinguish between open and closed circulatory systems.

26) Some animals have no gills when young but then develop gills that grow larger as the animal grows larger. What is the reason for this increase in gill size?

A) The young of these animals are much more active than the adult, which leads to a higher BMR (basal metabolic rate) and, therefore, a higher need for oxygen.

B) Relative to their volume, the young have more surface area across which they can transport all the oxygen they need.

C) The young have a higher basal metabolic rate.

D) Relative to their surface area, the young have more body volume in which they can store oxygen for long periods of time.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 42.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 42-3. Describe how diffusion of gases is maximized in gas-exchange organs.

27) A significant increase in the amount of interstitial fluid surrounding the capillary beds of a human's lungs will cause A) an increase in the amount of carbon dioxide moving from the blood to the lungs.

B) an increase in the amount of oxygen moving from the lungs into the blood.

C) a decrease in the amount of oxygen moving from the lungs into the blood.

D) an increase of pressure that would cause the capillary beds to burst.

E) a decrease in the amount of work needed for effective ventilation of the lungs.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 42.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating LO: 42-3. Describe how diffusion of gases is maximized in gas-exchange organs.

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28) Which of the four muscular chambers of the human heart directly propels blood into the pulmonary circulation? A) right atrium B) right ventricle C) left atrium D) left ventricle Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 42.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 42-6.

Compare the pattern of blood flow in "2-chambered", "3-chambered", and "4- chambered" vertebrate hearts.

29) Which of the following mechanisms play a role in regulating heart rate?

A) chemical messengers in the blood, such as epinephrine B) nerves originating from the medulla (lower part of the brain) C) pacemaker cells within the heart D) all of the above (A to C) E) only A and C Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 42.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 42-5. Distinguish between open and closed circulatory systems.

30) Which of the following is the normal sequence of signal conduction in the human heart?

A) neural and chemical messengers → SA node → atria → AV node → ventricles B) neural but not chemical messengers → AV node → ventricles → SA node → atria C) chemical but not neural messengers → atria → SA node → ventricles → AV node D) neural and chemical messengers → ventricles → SA node → atria → AV node E) neural and chemical messengers → AV node → atria → SA node → ventricles Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 42.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 42-8. Describe the patterns of blood pressure and blood flow within vertebrate circulatory systems.

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31) Blood is pumped at high pressures in arteries from the heart to ensure that all parts of the body receive adequate blood flow. Capillary beds, however, would hemorrhage under direct arterial pressures. How does the design of the circulation network contribute to reducing blood pressure to avoid this scenario?

A) Blood flow through the capillaries is essentially frictionless, and this reduces the amount of pressure on their walls.

B) The total cross-sectional diameter of the arterial circulation increases with progression from artery to arteriole to capillary, leading to a reduced blood pressure.

C) Fluid loss from the arteries is high enough that pressure drops off significantly by the time blood reaches the capillaries.

D) All of the above answers apply.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 42.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 42-8. Describe the patterns of blood pressure and blood flow within vertebrate circulatory systems.

32) Baroreceptors are specialized pressure-sensing nerve cells that are important in circulatory homeostasis. Where are these nerve cells located in humans?

A) cells in brain B) arteries entering the neck region C) arteries leaving the heart D) all of the above E) only B and C Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 42.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 42-8. Describe the patterns of blood pressure and blood flow within vertebrate circulatory systems.

33) An animal has a cardiac output of 40 mL/min and a stroke volume of 5 mL. What is its heart rate?

A) 8 beats/minute B) 200 beats/minute C) 12.5 beats/minute D) Heart rate cannot be determined with only these two variables.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 42.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 42-8. Describe the patterns of blood pressure and blood flow within vertebrate circulatory systems.

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34) Birds generate a lot of heat, especially during flight. Yet the adipose tissue under their skin and the feathers atop their skin make it difficult to eliminate excess heat across the skin. Which of the following can absorb body heat and eliminate it from the bird most effectively?

A) air in the air sacs B) lymph in the lymphatic vessels C) blood in the vessels D) blood in the heart E) urine in the bladder Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 42.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating LO: 42-3. Describe how diffusion of gases is maximized in gas-exchange organs.

35) Complete the statement correctly. Fetal hemoglobin A) binds more carbon dioxide molecules than adult hemoglobin.

B) is better able to release oxygen than is adult hemoglobin.

C) has a higher affinity for oxygen than does adult hemoglobin.

D) is better able to release carbon dioxide than is adult hemoglobin.

E) has a higher affinity for carbon dioxide than does adult hemoglobin.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 42.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 42-4. Explain how gases are transported in the blood.

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Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s).

Lymph hearts are pumping structures that drive lymph through the lymphatic system, returning it to the circulatory system at the large veins entering the heart. Researchers examined rate and strength of pumping of lymph hearts in two species of amphibians, a toad (Bufo marinus) and a frog (Rana catesbiana). During hemorrhage or dehydration, the volume of blood in the circulatory system falls. A hormone, arginine vasotocin (AVT), is released in these situations.

The researchers examined the effect of AVT on lymph heart function. They found that AVT increased pressure at the lymph heart, but did not affect the rate of lymph heart pumping. They also examined the effect of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP), a hormone that is released when blood volume is higher than normal. (E. A. DeGrauw and S. S. Hillman. 2004. General function and endocrine control of the posterior lymph hearts in Bufo marinus and Rana catesbiana.

Physiological and Biochemical Zoology 77(4):594-600.)

36) What effect would increasing lymph heart pressure have?

A) Blood volume would increase.

B) Blood volume would decrease.

C) Hemorrhage would increase.

D) Hemorrhage would decrease.

E) None of the above answers apply.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 42.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 42-8. Describe the patterns of blood pressure and blood flow within vertebrate circulatory systems.

37) What is a diagnosis of hypertension in adults based on?

A) measurement of fatty deposits on the endothelium of arteries B) measurement of the LDL/HDL ratio in peripheral blood C) percentage of blood volume made up of platelets D) blood pressure being greater than 140/90 mm Hg (systolic/diastolic) E) number of leukocytes per cubic millimetre of blood Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 42.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 42-9. List the major risk factors for cardiovascular disease.

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38) Many organs have adaptations to increase the rate of diffusion of a gas or solute. How are fish gills adapted to optimize oxygen absorption? A) Bidirectional flow of water across the gills B) Co-current flow of water across the gills and blood within the gill capillaries C) Continual flow of water across the gills D) Countercurrent flow of water across the gills and blood within the gill capillaries Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 42.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 42-3. Describe how diffusion of gases is maximized in gas-exchange organs.

39) Insect trachea come in direct contact with the internal organs to which they deliver oxygen.

What parameter of Fick's Law does this optimize?

A) A B) K C) P D) D Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 42.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 42-3. Describe how diffusion of gases is maximized in gas-exchange organs.

40) Which of the following functions is not a function of insect hemolymph?

A) transport of hormones B) transport of wastes C) transport of carbon dioxide D) transport of cells involved in the immune response Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 42.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 42-4. Explain how gases are transported in the blood.

41) Which of the following is a function of the insect tracheal system?

A) transport of hormones B) transport of wastes C) transport of carbon dioxide D) transport of cells involved in the immune response Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 42.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 42-4. Explain how gases are transported in the blood.

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42) Where does the blood within the pulmonary vein travel next?

A) alveolar capillaries B) left atrium of the heart C) right atrium of the heart D) pulmonary artery Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 42.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 42-8. Describe the patterns of blood pressure and blood flow within vertebrate circulatory systems.

Figure 42.1 43) On the ECG above, which waveform represents ventricular relaxation? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 42.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 428. Describe the patterns of blood pressure and blood flow within vertebrate circulatory systems. 44) On the ECG above, which waveform represents electrical activity within the atria? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 42.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 42-8. Describe the patterns of blood pressure and blood flow within vertebrate circulatory systems.

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45) On the ECG above, which waveform represents ventricular electrical activity? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 42.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 42-8. Describe the patterns of blood pressure and blood flow within vertebrate circulatory systems. 46) On the ECG above, within which waveform would atrial relaxation occur? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 42.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 42-8. Describe the patterns of blood pressure and blood flow within vertebrate circulatory systems.

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Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition(Freeman Chapter 43 et Animal al.)

Nervous Systems 1) If the activity of the sodium—potassium pump was completely stopped, what would happen to the neuron's membrane potential? A) immediate loss of resting potential B) immediate loss of action potentials C) slow rise in membrane potential D) no effect Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 43.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 43-1.

Describe how a membrane potential is created and maintained in a plasma membrane.

2) What type of neuron can exist entirely within the central nervous system (CNS)?

A) interneuron B) motor neuron C) sensory neuron D) A and B E) all of the above Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 43.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 43-1. Describe how a membrane potential is created and maintained in a plasma membrane.

3) What would be a consequence of a person having Na+ levels in the blood and interstitial fluids that are well below normal?

A) Neurons would all be depolarized.

B) Neurons would not be able to undergo normal action potentials.

C) Action potentials would occur with greater frequency.

D) Neurons would remain refractory following closure of voltage-gated sodium channels.

E) K+ channels would open to compensate for changes in membrane potential.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 43.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 43-1. Describe how a membrane potential is created and maintained in a plasma membrane.

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4) The concentrations of ions are very different inside and outside a nerve cell due to A) osmosis.

B) diffusion.

C) sodium-potassium pumps.

D) symports and antiports.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 43.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 43-1. Describe how a membrane potential is created and maintained in a plasma membrane.

5) Which of the following types of ions are most likely to cross the plasma membrane of a resting neuron?

A) K+ B) Na+ C) Ca++ D) ClE) Mg++ Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 43.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 43-1. Describe how a membrane potential is created and maintained in a plasma membrane.

6) The depolarization phase of an action potential requires A) opening of K+ channels in the membrane.

B) opening of Na+ channels in the membrane.

C) a K+ concentration gradient across the membrane.

D) a Na+ concentration gradient across the membrane.

E) both B and D Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 43.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 43-1. Describe how a membrane potential is created and maintained in a plasma membrane.

7) If you experimentally increase the concentration of K+ inside a cell, while maintaining other ion concentrations as they were, what would happen to the cell's membrane potential?

A) The membrane potential would become more negative.

B) The membrane potential would become less negative.

C) The membrane potential would remain the same.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 43.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 43-1. Describe how a membrane potential is created and maintained in a plasma membrane.

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8) A toxin that binds specifically to voltage-gated sodium channels in axons would be expected to A) prevent the hyperpolarization phase of the action potential. B) prevent the depolarization phase of the action potential. C) prevent graded potentials. D) increase the release of neurotransmitter molecules. E) have most of its effects on the dendritic region of a neuron. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 43.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 43-2. Explain the mechanism of an action potential.

9) If the sodium-potassium pump were inactivated by a drug, what would happen to the neuron's membrane potential?

A) immediate loss of resting potential B) immediate loss of action potentials C) slow decrease of resting potential D) no effect Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 43.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 43-1. Describe how a membrane potential is created and maintained in a plasma membrane.

10) Which of the following statements about action potentials is FALSE? A) All action potentials for a given neuron are identical in magnitude.

B) All action potentials for a given neuron are identical in duration.

C) Action potentials are propagated down the length of the axon.

D) Movement of ions during the action potential occurs mostly through the sodium pump.

E) The frequency of action potentials, not their size, is the meaningful signal.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 43.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 43-2. Explain the mechanism of an action potential.

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11) Why do Na+ ions enter the cell when voltage-gated Na+ channels are opened in neurons?

A) because the Na+ concentration is much higher outside the cell than it is inside B) because the Na+ ions are attracted to the negatively charged interior C) because the Na+ ions are actively transported by the sodium-potassium pump into the cell D) both A and B E) both A and C Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 43.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 43-2. Explain the mechanism of an action potential.

12) What would probably happen if a long neuron had one continuous myelin sheath down the length of the axon with no nodes of Ranvier?

A) The action potential would be propagated nearly instantaneously to the synapse.

B) There could be no action potential generated at the axon hillock.

C) The signal would fade because it is not renewed by the opening of more sodium channels.

D) None of the above could happen.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 43.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 43-2. Explain the mechanism of an action potential.

13) A neurophysiologist is investigating nerve reflexes in two different animals—a crab and a fish. Action potentials are found to pass more rapidly along the fish's neurons. What is the most likely explanation?

A) The fish's axons are smaller in diameter; small axons transmit action potentials faster than large axons do.

B) Unlike the crab, the fish's axons are wrapped in myelin.

C) There are more ion channels in the axons of the crab compared with fish axons.

D) Answers A and B are both correct.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 43.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 43-2. Explain the mechanism of an action potential.

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Figure 43.1 14) Which letter in Figure 43.1 corresponds to a large efflux of K+ ions from the cell?

A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 43.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 43-2. Explain the mechanism of an action potential.

15) Which letter on Figure 43.1 corresponds to a large influx of Na+ ions into the cell?

A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 43.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 43-2. Explain the mechanism of an action potential.

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16) Which letter on Figure 43.1 corresponds to the action of the sodium-potassium pump and potassium leak channels?

A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 43.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 43-2. Explain the mechanism of an action potential.

17) How do myelin sheaths increase the speed with which action potentials are propagated along an axon?

A) They increase the permeability of Na+ ions in the plasma membrane.

B) They amplify the action potential by increasing sodium influx along the entire distance of the neuron.

C) They cause action potentials to "jump" down the axon rather than travel in a continuous path along every site on the axon.

D) All of the above answers apply.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 43.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 43-2. Explain the mechanism of an action potential.

18) Tetrodotoxin blocks voltage-gated sodium channels and ouabain blocks sodium-potassium pumps. If you added both tetrodotoxin and ouabain to a solution containing neural tissue, what responses would you expect?

A) immediate loss of resting potential B) immediate loss of action potential with gradual loss of resting potential C) slow decrease of resting potential and action potential amplitudes D) no effect; the substances counteract each other Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 43.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 43-2. Explain the mechanism of an action potential.

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19) Why are action potentials usually conducted in one direction?

A) The nodes of Ranvier conduct potentials in one direction.

B) The brief refractory period prevents reopening of voltage-gated Na+ channels.

C) The axon hillock has a higher membrane potential than the terminals of the axon.

D) Ions can flow along the axon in only one direction.

E) Voltage-gated channels for both Na+ and K+ open in only one direction.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 43.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 43-2. Explain the mechanism of an action potential.

20) The squid giant axon is approximately 500 μm in diameter (compared to 2μm for a typical human axon). Due to the size of the axon, A) it can transmit action potentials much faster than small axons can.

B) it can transmit action potentials at a higher frequency (i.e., fire faster) than small axons can.

C) It can generate larger amplitude action potentials than small axons can.

D) It can generate longer duration action potentials than small axons can.

E) Answers A and C are both correct.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 43.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 43-2. Explain the mechanism of an action potential.

21) How could you increase the magnitude of inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) generated at a synapse?

A) Increase sodium-potassium pump activity.

B) Increase K+ permeability.

C) Increase the influx of calcium.

D) All of the above apply.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 43.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 43-3. Describe how a chemical synapse works and how it changes the membrane potential on the cell across the synapse.

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22) Action potentials are normally generated at the axon hillock and propagated down the axon away from the cell body. If you experimentally depolarized an axon to the threshold level at a point halfway down the axon, what would happen?

A) An action potential would be generated that would travel to the synapse with the next neuron.

B) An action potential would be generated that would travel back towards the cell body.

C) No action potential could be generated at this location.

D) Answers A and B both apply.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 43.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 43-3. Describe how a chemical synapse works and how it changes the membrane potential on the cell across the synapse.

23) Which of the following manipulations would reduce the release of neurotransmitter from a presynaptic neuron terminal?

A) reduction in extracellular calcium ion concentration at the axon terminal B) increase in extracellular sodium and potassium ion concentrations at the axon terminal C) addition of tetrodotoxin to the extracellular fluid at the axon terminal D) All of the above manipulations would reduce the release of neurotransmitter.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 43.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 43-3. Describe how a chemical synapse works and how it changes the membrane potential on the cell across the synapse.

24) If twice as many inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) as excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) arrive at a postsynaptic neuron in close proximity, is the integration of signals by the postsynaptic neuron likely to produce an action potential?

A) yes B) no Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 43.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 43-3. Describe how a chemical synapse works and how it changes the membrane potential on the cell across the synapse.

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25) Neurotransmitter is released A) in response to an action potential depolarizing the presynaptic membrane.

B) when threshold potential is reached.

C) when enough voltage-gated sodium channels open.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 43.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 43-3. Describe how a chemical synapse works and how it changes the membrane potential on the cell across the synapse.

26) Neurotransmitters categorized as inhibitory are expected to A) act independently of their receptor proteins.

B) close potassium channels.

C) open sodium channels.

D) close chloride channels.

E) hyperpolarize the membrane.

Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 43.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 43-3. Describe how a chemical synapse works and how it changes the membrane potential on the cell across the synapse.

27) Most synapses found so far in the mammalian central nervous system (CNS) are classified as chemical rather than electrical.

A) true B) false Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 43.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 43-3. Describe how a chemical synapse works and how it changes the membrane potential on the cell across the synapse.

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28) If a disease or disorder interferes with learning and memory, which of the following should the mechanism of the disease should involve? A) changes in the concentration of ions in the extracellular fluid surrounding neurons B) changes in myelination of axons C) changes to the chemical structure of neurotransmitters D) molecular and structural changes at synapses E) structural changes to ion channels in axon Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 43.1, 43.2, 43.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 43-1, 2 & 3. Describe how a membrane potential is created and maintained in a plasma membrane. Explain the mechanism of an action potential. Describe how a chemical synapse works and how it changes the membrane potential on the cell across the synapse. 29) The autonomic nervous system does NOT control A) airway diameter. B) contraction of skeletal muscle. C) heart rate. D) pupil dilation and constriction. E) stomach activity. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 43.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 43-4. Explain the structural and functional relationships of the vertebrate central nervous system and peripheral nervous system. 30) Upon witnessing a robber hold up a convenience store at gunpoint, which of the following reactions would your nervous system initiate? A) increased heartbeat B) constriction of airways C) dilation of pupils D) all of the above E) only A and C Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 43.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 43-4. Explain the structural and functional relationships of the vertebrate central nervous system and peripheral nervous system.

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31) A large meal is likely to result in activity in which set of nerves?

A) parasympathetic nerves B) somatic nerves C) sympathetic nerves D) both B and C Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 43.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 43-4. Explain the structural and functional relationships of the vertebrate central nervous system and peripheral nervous system.

32) Functional studies of the human brain have involved A) lesion studies of individuals with damage to particular brain regions.

B) direct electrical stimulation of regions of cerebral cortex.

C) recording from single neurons during memory tasks.

D) both A and B. E) all of the above.

Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 43.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 43-4. Explain the structural and functional relationships of the vertebrate central nervous system and peripheral nervous system.

33) Stem cell transplants may someday be used to treat Parkinson's disease. Researchers are hopeful that these cells would alleviate the symptoms of Parkinson's disease by A) preventing temporal lobe seizures.

B) repairing sites of traumatic brain injury.

C) replenishing missing ion channels.

D) secreting the neurotransmitter dopamine.

E) both A and D. Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 43.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 43-4. Explain the structural and functional relationships of the vertebrate central nervous system and peripheral nervous system.

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34) Where are the sodium channels that trigger an action potential located? A) axon hillock B) axon dendrite C) axon terminal D) axon cell body Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 43.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 43-2. Explain the mechanism of an action potential. 35) If an action potential is triggered in a neuron, what must have happened? A) resting potential was reached B) threshold potential was reached C) membrane potential was reached Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 43.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 43-2. Explain the mechanism of an action potential. 36) If a person were to have a stroke in the occipital lobe of the cerebrum, which of the following functions would most likely be affected? A) sense of touch B) sense of taste C) sense of sight D) sense of hearing Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 43.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 43-4. Explain the structural and functional relationships of the vertebrate central nervous system and peripheral nervous system. 37) The corpus callosum is a network of axons that connects the two hemispheres of the cerebrum. What do you hypothesize the primary function of the corpus callosum is? A) structural support for both hemispheres B) communication between the hemispheres C) transport of proteins between the hemispheres D) source of nutrients for both hemispheres Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 43.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 43-4. Explain the structural and functional relationships of the vertebrate central nervous system and peripheral nervous system.

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38) You are walking your dog at night in the forest. Your dog barks at a strange noise and you are startled. Which of the following physiological responses are most likely to occur?

A) the gallbladder is stimulated to release bile B) digestive activity is stimulated C) heartbeat is slowed D) pupils dilate Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 43.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 43-4. Explain the structural and functional relationships of the vertebrate central nervous system and peripheral nervous system.

39) Neurotransmitters can be either excitatory or inhibitory. Which of the following neurotransmitters usually have an inhibitory effect on the post-synaptic cell?

A) acetylcholine B) gamma-aminobutyric acid C) glutamate D) dopamine Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 43.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 43-3. Describe how a chemical synapse works and how it changes the membrane potential on the cell across the synapse.

40) Which nervous pathway does sensory information travel through to elicit a response in the effector cells?

A) CNS afferent division CNS interneuron PNS efferent division effector B) PNS efferent division CNS interneuron PNS afferent division effector C) CNS efferent division CNS interneuron PNS afferent division effector D) PNS afferent division CNS interneuron PNS efferent division effector Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 43.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 43-4. Explain the structural and functional relationships of the vertebrate central nervous system and peripheral nervous system.

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Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition(Freeman et al.)

Chapter 45 Animal Movement 1) What is the contraction of skeletal muscles based on?

A) actin filaments coiling up to become shorter B) myosin filaments coiling up to become shorter C) actin and myosin filaments both coiling up to become shorter D) actin cross-bridges binding to myosin and undergoing a power stroke E) myosin cross-bridges binding to actin and undergoing a power stroke Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 45.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 45-1. Draw a diagram that illustrates what is happening in a muscle cell on a molecular level when the muscle contracts and when it relaxes.

2) What do the calcium ions released into the cytosol during excitation of skeletal muscle bind to?

A) troponin complex B) transverse tubules C) actin D) myosin Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 45.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 45-1. Draw a diagram that illustrates what is happening in a muscle cell on a molecular level when the muscle contracts and when it relaxes.

3) What is the myosin head bound to when the muscle is at rest?

A) ATP B) tropomyosin C) ADP plus an associated phosphate D) troponin E) actin Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 45.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 45-1. Draw a diagram that illustrates what is happening in a muscle cell on a molecular level when the muscle contracts and when it relaxes.

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4) In a relaxed skeletal muscle A) thick and thin filaments overlap to the greatest extent possible. B) sarcomeres are at their shortest length. C) calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. D) the Z lines are farthest apart. E) calcium is bound to tropinin.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 45.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 45-1. Draw a diagram that illustrates what is happening in a muscle cell on a molecular level when the muscle contracts and when it relaxes. 5) Skeletal muscle contraction begins when calcium ions bind to A) energized cross-bridges. B) myosin.

C) actin. D) acetylcholine receptors. E) troponin. Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 45.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 45-1. Draw a diagram that illustrates what is happening in a muscle cell on a molecular level when the muscle contracts and when it relaxes. 6) Which of the following is the correct sequence that describes the excitation and contraction of a skeletal muscle fibre?

1. Tropomyosin shifts and unblocks the cross-bridge binding sites.

2. Calcium is released and binds to the troponin complex.

3. The sarcoplasmic reticulum is depolarized when a wave of depolarization moves from the neuromuscular junction into the cell's interior by way of the transverse tubules.

4. The thin filaments are ratcheted across the thick filaments by the heads of the myosin molecules using energy from ATP. 5. An action potential in a motor neuron causes the axon to release acetylcholine, which depolarizes the muscle cell membrane at the neuromuscular junction. A) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 → 5 B) 2 → 1 → 3 → 5 → 4 C) 3 → 4 → 2 → 1 → 5 D) 5 → 3 → 1 → 2 → 4 E) 5 → 3 → 2 → 1 → 4 Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 45.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 45-1. Draw a diagram that illustrates what is happening in a muscle cell on a molecular level when the muscle contracts and when it relaxes.

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7) During the contraction of a vertebrate skeletal muscle fibre, calcium ions A) break crossbridges by acting as a cofactor in the hydrolysis of ATP. B) bind with troponin, causing its shape to change so that the myosin-binding sites on actin are exposed. C) transmit action potentials from the motor neuron to the muscle fibre. D) spread action potentials through the T tubules. E) reestablish the polarization of the plasma membrane following an action potential. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 45.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 45-1. Draw a diagram that illustrates what is happening in a muscle cell on a molecular level when the muscle contracts and when it relaxes. 8) All skeletal muscle fibres are A) smooth and under involuntary control. B) smooth and operate independently of other skeletal muscle fibres. C) striated and under voluntary control. D) smooth and under voluntary control. E) striated and electrically coupled to neighbouring fibres. Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 45.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 45-1. Draw a diagram that illustrates what is happening in a muscle cell on a molecular level when the muscle contracts and when it relaxes. 9) Motor neurons release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh), and acetylcholinesterase degrades ACh in the synapse. If a neurophysiologist applies onchidal (a naturally occurring acetylcholinesterase inhibitor produced by the mollusk Onchidella binneyi) to a synapse, what would you expect to happen? A) paralysis of muscle tissue B) gradual loss of resting potential C) convulsions due to constant muscle stimulation D) decrease in the frequency of action potentials E) no effect Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 45.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 45-1. Draw a diagram that illustrates what is happening in a muscle cell on a molecular level when the muscle contracts and when it relaxes.

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10) Which muscle type(s) is/are composed of multinucleate cells resulting from the fusion of many embryonic cells?

A) smooth muscle B) cardiac muscle C) skeletal muscle D) smooth and cardiac muscle E) cardiac and skeletal muscle Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 45.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 45-2. Compare and contrast the structure and function of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and skeletal muscle.

11) Which muscle type(s) is/are involuntary?

A) smooth muscle B) cardiac muscle C) skeletal muscle D) smooth and cardiac muscle E) cardiac and skeletal muscle Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 45.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 45-2. Compare and contrast the structure and function of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and skeletal muscle.

12) Cardiac muscle cells are both A) striated and interconnected by intercalated discs.

B) striated and operate independently of other cardiac cells.

C) smooth and under voluntary control.

D) striated and under voluntary control.

E) smooth and under involuntary control.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 45.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 45-2. Compare and contrast the structure and function of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and skeletal muscle.

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13) Food moves along the digestive tract as the result of contractions by which muscle type? A) cardiac muscle B) smooth muscle C) voluntary muscle D) striated muscle E) skeletal muscle Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 45.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 45-2. Compare and contrast the structure and function of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and skeletal muscle.

14) Compared with parallel muscles, pennate muscles A) produce more force and undergo greater shortening.

B) produce more force and undergo less shortening.

C) produce less force and undergo greater shortening.

D) produce less force and undergo less shortening.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 45.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 45-2. Compare and contrast the structure and function of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and skeletal muscle.

15) Which of the following join muscles to bones?

A) ligaments B) tendons C) loose connective tissue D) Haversian systems E) spindle fibres Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 45.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 45-3. Compare and contrast the structure and function of hydrostatic skeletons, endoskeletons, and exoskeletons.

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16) The hydrostatic skeleton of the earthworm allows it to move around in its environment by A) walking on its limbs.

B) crawling with its feet.

C) swimming with its setae.

D) using peristaltic contractions of its circular and longitudinal muscles.

E) alternating contractions and relaxations of its flagella.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 45.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 45-3. Compare and contrast the structure and function of hydrostatic skeletons, endoskeletons, and exoskeletons.

17) An endoskeleton is the primary body support for which type of animal?

A) annelids, including earthworms B) insects, including beetles C) cartilaginous fishes, including sharks D) bivalves, including clams E) crustaceans, including lobsters Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 45.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 45-3. Compare and contrast the structure and function of hydrostatic skeletons, endoskeletons, and exoskeletons.

18) Chitin is a major component of the A) skeleton of mammals.

B) hydrostatic skeletons of earthworms.

C) exoskeleton of insects.

D) body hairs of mammals.

E) skeleton in birds.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 45.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 45-3. Compare and contrast the structure and function of hydrostatic skeletons, endoskeletons, and exoskeletons.

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19) Against which structure do the circular and longitudinal muscles of annelids work?

A) bristles B) cuticle C) shell D) endoskeleton E) hydrostatic skeleton Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 45.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 45-3. Compare and contrast the structure and function of hydrostatic skeletons, endoskeletons, and exoskeletons.

20) The functions of the vertebrate skeleton include which of the following?

I. maintenance of body posture II. calcium homeostasis III. transfer of muscle forces A) I and II B) II and III C) III D) I and III E) I, II, and III Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 45.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 45-3. Compare and contrast the structure and function of hydrostatic skeletons, endoskeletons, and exoskeletons.

21) What cell types within bone are responsible for the breakdown of bone tissue to permit reabsorption of calcium?

A) osteoblasts B) fibroblasts C) osteoclasts D) myocytes Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 45.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 45-3. Compare and contrast the structure and function of hydrostatic skeletons, endoskeletons, and exoskeletons.

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22) Among these choices, the most energetically efficient locomotion per unit mass is likely to be which of the following?

A) running by a 50-gram rodent B) running by a 40-kilogram ungulate C) flying by a 100-gram bird D) swimming by a 10-gram minnow (bony fish) E) swimming by a 100-kilogram tuna (bony fish) Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 45.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 45-4. Describe the processes by which animals move.

23) Which forces are most important during terrestrial locomotion?

A) buoyancy and drag forces B) lift and drag forces C) gravity and inertial forces D) inertial forces and buoyancy E) gravity and drag forces Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 45.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 45-5. Compare and contrast animal locomotion on land, in water, and in air.

24) What is the best explanation for why elephants stand with a more upright posture and have relatively thicker bones than cats?

A) Cats and elephants are from different taxonomic groups and therefore differ in appearance.

B) Cats eat meat and elephants eat plants, requiring different bodies.

C) Cats are smaller and need to run faster; therefore, they have smaller bones and a crouching posture.

D) Because they have a much greater volume, elephants require a disproportionately larger cross-sectional area of their bones than cats.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 45.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 45-3. Compare and contrast the structure and function of hydrostatic skeletons, endoskeletons, and exoskeletons.

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25) R. McNeill Alexander demonstrated that tendons improve the efficiency of running by A) connecting bones to bones and keeping the skeleton intact.

B) storing and releasing energy like a spring with each step.

C) generating force to relengthen muscle once it relaxes.

D) acting like a stiff rod and communicating force without stretching.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 45.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 45-4. Describe the processes by which animals move.

26) Why do horses tend to move at only limited ranges of speeds?

A) They are only capable of one speed for each of their gaits–walk, trot, gallop.

B) Walking is the most energetically costly form of locomotion for horses.

C) Because of their size, horses have limited gaits and, therefore, limited speeds.

D) They locomote using the most energy-efficient combinations of gait and speed.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 45.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 45-4. Describe the processes by which animals move.

27) What would happen to people exposed to a chemical warfare agent that blocked acetylcholine from binding to muscle receptors?

A) Action potentials would be continuously generated, causing convulsive muscle contractions.

B) Muscle contractions would be prevented, causing paralysis.

C) Muscle contractions could still occur, but relaxation of the muscle would be impaired.

D) Answers A and B both apply.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 45.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 45-1. Draw a diagram that illustrates what is happening in a muscle cell on a molecular level when the muscle contracts and when it relaxes.

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28) What would be the effect on muscle contraction if troponin were experimentally altered to no longer interact with tropomyosin, so the complex could no longer bind to actin? A) Muscle contraction could no longer occur. B) Muscles could not relax after contraction. C) Muscle contraction would be weakened, but would still occur as long as tropomyosin is functional.

D) ATP could not be hydrolyzed by enzymes in the muscle. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 45.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 45-1. Draw a diagram that illustrates what is happening in a muscle cell on a molecular level when the muscle contracts and when it relaxes.

29) What is the function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A) to store and release ATP B) to store and release ACh C) to store and release Ca++ D) to store and release myosin E) to store and release troponin Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 45.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 45-1. Draw a diagram that illustrates what is happening in a muscle cell on a molecular level when the muscle contracts and when it relaxes.

30) When an action potential from a motor neuron arrives at the neuromuscular junction (NMJ), a series of events occurs that leads to muscle contraction. Which of the following events will occur last (i.e., after all of the others)?

A) ACh release B) action potential propagation down the T-tubules C) conformational change in troponin D) depolarization of the muscle cell E) release of Ca++ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 45.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 45-1. Draw a diagram that illustrates what is happening in a muscle cell on a molecular level when the muscle contracts and when it relaxes.

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31) A patient is hospitalized with muscle spasms caused by failure of back muscles to relax after contraction. Which of the following would be most likely to help?

A) Inject calcium into the muscle cell because it is not being released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

B) Induce tropomyosin and troponin to bind to the myosin binding sites on actin.

C) Increase the amount of acetylcholine at the synapses between motor neurons and muscle cells.

D) Depolarize the motor neurons to send an action potential to the muscle cells.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 45.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 45-1. Draw a diagram that illustrates what is happening in a muscle cell on a molecular level when the muscle contracts and when it relaxes.

32) How does skeletal muscle return to its starting length after a contraction?

A) It lengthens itself by reversing the contraction process.

B) It undergoes recoil due to the elastic properties of tendons.

C) Antagonistic muscles work to lengthen a given muscle once it relaxes.

D) Ligaments bind muscles together.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 45.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 45-4. Describe the processes by which animals move.

33) What causes rigor mortis?

A) exhaustion of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum B) lack of ATP in dead tissue C) lack of acetylcholine (ACh) in dead tissue D) cessation of action potentials after death Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 45.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 45-1. Draw a diagram that illustrates what is happening in a muscle cell on a molecular level when the muscle contracts and when it relaxes.

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34) Why are the muscles used for movement in insects often pennate?

A) The limited space within insect exoskeletons requires muscle that generates high force without changing size significantly.

B) Insects moult to grow their skeleton.

C) The internal muscle includes both flexor and extensor muscles.

D) Insects require muscle that generates large length changes to compensate for lack of joints in the skeleton.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 45.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 45-4. Describe the processes by which animals move.

Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s).

"Marine cone snails from the genus Conus are estimated to consist of up to 700 species. These predatory molluscs have devised an efficient venom apparatus that allows them to successfully capture polychaete worms, other molluscs or, in some cases, fish as their primary food sources. … conotoxins from Australian species of Conus … have the capacity to inhibit specifically the nicotinic acetylcholine receptors in higher animals." (B. G. Livett, K. R. Gayler, and Z. Khalil.

2004. Drugs from the sea: Conopeptides as potential therapeutics. Current Medicinal Chemistry 11:1715—23.)

35) This particular conotoxin inhibits acetylcholine receptors that are located A) along the motor neuron axon.

B) on motor neuron dendrites.

C) on the presynaptic membrane of the neuromuscular junction.

D) on the postsynaptic membrane, on the muscle cell.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 45.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 45-1. Draw a diagram that illustrates what is happening in a muscle cell on a molecular level when the muscle contracts and when it relaxes.

36) What effect would this conotoxin have on the prey?

A) It would cause muscle spasms in the prey.

B) It would result in paralysis of the skeletal muscle.

C) It would stimulate digestive tract smooth muscle to cause nausea and vomiting.

D) Either B or C, or both B and C. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 45.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 45-1. Draw a diagram that illustrates what is happening in a muscle cell on a molecular level when the muscle contracts and when it relaxes.

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37) The marathon is a 26.2-mile endurance running race. Successful marathon runners will benefit from having leg muscles with a relatively high amount of A) slow muscle fibres. B) intermediate muscle fibres. C) smooth muscle fibres. D) cardiac muscle fibres. E) fast muscle fibres. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 45.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 45-2. Compare and contrast the structure and function of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and skeletal muscle. 38) What is the effect of the release of norepinephrine by the sympathetic nervous system? A) Smooth muscle and cardiac muscle relax. B) Smooth muscle and cardiac muscle are activated and increase the force of their muscle contractions. C) Smooth muscle relaxes while cardiac muscle has increased contractile force. D) Cardiac muscle relaxes while smooth muscle is stimulated to increase activity. Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 45.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 45-2. Compare and contrast the structure and function of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and skeletal muscle. 39) Compared with slow oxidative muscle fibres, those classified as fast glycolytic fibres typically have A) a higher concentration of myoglobin. B) a higher density of mitochondria. C) a darker visual appearance. D) a smaller diameter. E) less resistance to fatigue. Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 45.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 45-2.

Compare and contrast the structure and function of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and skeletal muscle.

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40) What is an explanation for the pectoral or breast meat of ducks being very dark in colour?

A) Ducks use their wings for very short flights and need fast muscle fibres to power their takeoffs.

B) Ducks are primarily swimmers and therefore do not need breast muscles full of "white meat."

C) Ducks employ intermediate muscle fibres for swimming and flying.

D) Ducks fly long distances and need myoglobin-rich slow muscle fibres to power highendurance flights.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 45.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 45-2. Compare and contrast the structure and function of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and skeletal muscle.

41) You work in a lab and are given a slide with a stained specimen on it, but your colleague forgot to label the slide. You look at the specimen under the microscope and notice that the cells are branched, striated, and contain one or two nuclei. Based on these characteristics, what type of tissue would you hypothesize the specimen is?

A) muscle B) nervous C) connective D) epithelial Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 45.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 45-2. Compare and contrast the structure and function of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and skeletal muscle.

42) You work in a lab and are given a slide with a stained specimen on it, but your colleague forgot to label the slide. You look at the specimen under the microscope and notice that the cells are branched, striated, and contain one or two nuclei. Based on these characteristics, what type of muscular tissue would you hypothesize the specimen is?

A) smooth B) visceral C) cardiac D) skeletal Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 45.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 45-2. Compare and contrast the structure and function of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and skeletal muscle.

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Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition (Freeman et al.) Chapter 46 Chemical Signals in Animals 1) A cluster of tumor cells that produces and secretes growth factors to induce surrounding cells to grow and divide are showing which type of cell-to-cell signalling? A) autocrine B) paracrine C) endocrine D) neuroendocrine Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 46.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 46-1. List the major categories of chemical signals in animals and describe their source, targets, and functions. 2) You are dissecting a fish in your biology laboratory section. Your teaching assistant points out a long oval structure and tells you it is an endocrine gland. Which of the following is true about this structure? A) It secretes a product that is carried in the bloodstream or other fluids to target cells. B) The gland's product will interact with receptors on the cell membrane or inside target cells. C) The gland's product is secreted into the cavity of some organ, outside of the circulatory system. D) Only answers A and B apply. E) Only answers B and C apply.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 46.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 46-1.

List the major categories of chemical signals in animals and describe their source, targets, and functions. 3) If a portion of the pancreas is surgically removed from a rat and the rat subsequently loses its appetite, one explanation is that the removed portion contains cells that secrete a chemical signal that somehow stimulates appetite. Given this scenario, what type of chemical signalling is occurring? A) autocrine B) paracrine C) endocrine D) neuroendocrine Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 46.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 46-1. List the major categories of chemical signals in animals and describe their source, targets, and functions.

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4) Which of the following statements is not true of hormones? A) All are organic molecules. B) All are secreted from the cells where they are synthesized. C) Some have only local effects on nearby cells. D) Some are derived from amino acids. E) They have large effects on target tissues relative to their concentrations. Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 46.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 46-1. List the major categories of chemical signals in animals and describe their source, targets, and functions.

5) Which of the following is similar in structure to cholesterol? A) testosterone B) estradiol C) cortisol D) all of the above E) only A and B Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 46.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 46-2. Compare and contrast how lipid-soluble and water-soluble hormones act on target tissues. 6) Polypeptides can have which of the following types of effects? A) autocrine B) paracrine C) endocrine D) all of the above E) only A and C Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 46.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 46-1. List the major categories of chemical signals in animals and describe their source, targets, and functions.

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7) In experiments where researchers suspect that a hormone may be responsible for a certain physiological effect, they may cut the neurons leading to the organ where the effect being studied occurs. What is the purpose of cutting these neurons?

A) To make sure that the effect is not occurring through actions in the nervous system.

B) To make sure that the organ being effected cannot function unless the researchers stimulate it with an external electrical probe.

C) To impair the normal functions of the organ so that the hormonal effect can be more easily studied.

D) To numb the organ so that it can be probed without inducing pain in the lab animal.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 46.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 46-1. List the major categories of chemical signals in animals and describe their source, targets, and functions.

8) Analysis of a blood sample from an individual who had fasted for 24 hours would be expected to reveal high levels of which of the following?

A) insulin B) glucagon C) secretin D) gastrin E) glucose Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 46.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 46-1. List the major categories of chemical signals in animals and describe their source, targets, and functions.

9) What do steroid and peptide hormones typically have in common?

A) the building blocks from which they are synthesized B) their solubility in cell membranes C) their requirement for travel through the bloodstream D) the location of their receptors E) their reliance on signal transduction in the cell Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 46.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 46-2. Compare and contrast how lipid-soluble and water-soluble hormones act on target tissues.

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10) Which of these glands lies closest to the throat region?

A) thyroid B) adrenal C) hypothalamus D) pituitary E) pancreas Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 46.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 46-2. Compare and contrast how lipid-soluble and water-soluble hormones act on target tissues.

11) When partially digested food enters the small intestine from the stomach, several events must occur to protect the intestine and allow for the continued digestion of the food. One hormone in particular performs two of these functions. What intestinal hormone is responsible for causing the pancreas to release digestive enzymes and the gall bladder to release bile salts into the intestine?

A) secretin B) cholecystokinin C) insulin D) epinephrine E) corticosterone Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 46.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 46-2. Compare and contrast how lipid-soluble and water-soluble hormones act on target tissues.

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12) People with type II diabetes mellitus have defective insulin receptors that cannot respond to insulin properly. Relative to normal individuals, what would be the effect on blood glucose levels of chronic stress that kept blood cortisol levels high?

A) There would be a greater increase in blood glucose levels in individuals with type II diabetes mellitus than in normal individuals.

B) There would be less increase in blood glucose levels in individuals with type II diabetes mellitus than in normal individuals.

C) There would be a greater decrease in blood glucose levels in individuals with type II diabetes mellitus than in normal individuals.

D) There would be less decrease in blood glucose levels in individuals with type II diabetes mellitus than in normal individuals.

E) There would be about the same effect on blood glucose levels in both types of individuals.

Answer: B Explanation: Individuals with type II diabetes mellitus are already insulin resistant. Therefore, the resistance of adipocytes to insulin that is brought about by glucocorticoids would be irrelevant and would not result in blood glucose increase. Glucocorticoids would still stimulate the liver to convert glycogen to glucose.

Type: MC Reference: Section 46.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 46-4. Give specific examples of how animal hormones affect embryonic development, sexual maturation, homeostasis, and response to stress.

13) Coffee drinkers urinate more frequently than those who do not drink coffee or other caffeinated beverages. Which of the following is a reasonable hypothesis for the effect of caffeine on your body?

A) Caffeine stimulates the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

B) Caffeine inhibits the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

C) Caffeine stimulates the release of erythropoietin.

D) Caffeine inhibits the release of erythropoietin.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 46.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 46-4. Give specific examples of how animal hormones affect embryonic development, sexual maturation, homeostasis, and response to stress.

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14) In human embryonic development, which of the following pairs of hormones are released by the developing testes and result in development of the male reproductive tract and inhibition of the female reproductive tract?

A) testosterone and estrogen B) estrogen and progesterone C) testosterone and Mullerian inhibitory substance D) estradiol and estrogen E) testosterone and estradiol Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 46.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 46-4. Give specific examples of how animal hormones affect embryonic development, sexual maturation, homeostasis, and response to stress.

15) After drinking alcoholic beverages, increased urine excretion is the result of which of the following?

A) increased aldosterone production B) increased blood pressure C) inhibited secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) D) increased reabsorption of water in the proximal tubule E) the osmoregulator cells of the brain increasing their activity Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 46.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 46-5. Explain how hormone production and secretion are regulated by input from the nervous system, other hormones, and negative feedback.

16) You have three strains of mice: A, B, and C. You experimentally manipulate each strain and find that all three show increased secretion of molecule X. Now you perform a parabiosis experiment with the three combinations of these mice: AB, AC, and BC. You perform the same experimental manipulation as above on one mouse of each pair without directly affecting the other mouse and look for effects on the other mouse. You find no detectable effect on the unmanipulated partner in any of the combinations. What is the logical conclusion based on these results?

A) The effect on molecule X is not mediated by hormones.

B) The effect on molecule X is not mediated by nerves.

C) The effect on molecule X was just an artifact of the first experiment.

D) The effect on molecule X is controlled by higher integrative centers of the brain.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 46.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 46-5. Explain how hormone production and secretion are regulated by input from the nervous system, other hormones, and negative feedback.

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17) Removing which of the following glands would have the most wide-reaching effect on bodily functions of an adult human? A) adrenal glands B) pituitary gland C) thyroid gland D) ovaries (in female) or testes (in male) Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 46.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 46-4. Give specific examples of how animal hormones affect embryonic development, sexual maturation, homeostasis, and response to stress. 18) Predict the effects of a drug that increases adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) synthesis. A) increase in glucocorticoid production B) increase in release of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) C) decrease in cortisol release D) decrease in release of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) E) all of the above Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 46.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 46-5. Explain how hormone production and secretion are regulated by input from the nervous system, other hormones, and negative feedback. 19) The regulation of blood sugar levels and our stress responses are controlled in part by a negative feedback loop involving cortisol, ACTH, and CRH. What would likely be the result during times of stress if cortisol receptors in the hypothalamus were nonfunctional? A) Blood sugar levels would rise to dangerous levels. B) Blood sugar levels would be unaffected. C) ACTH production would cease. D) CRH production would cease. E) Cortisol production would cease. Answer: A Explanation: Since the negative feedback system would not be working in this scenario, CRH and ACTH levels would not be turned off by cortisol. Type: MC Reference: Section 46.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 46-5. Explain how hormone production and secretion are regulated by input from the nervous system, other hormones, and negative feedback.

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20) All of the following are examples of amplification of a hormone signal EXCEPT A) epinephrine initiates an enzyme cascade.

B) steroids bind hormone-response elements in the cell and initiate gene transcription.

C) 0.09 mg of growth hormone leads to a 10,000-mg weight gain in a cow.

D) different cell types have different receptors capable of binding the same hormone.

Answer: D Explanation: Answer D really just diversifies the activity of the hormone.

Type: MC Reference: Section 46.3, 46.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 46-5. Explain how hormone production and secretion are regulated by input from the nervous system, other hormones, and negative feedback.

21) The posterior pituitary is anatomically and developmentally an extension of the hypothalamus. Which of the following is a true statement about the posterior pituitary?

A) The posterior pituitary's many hormone products and their diverse functions have led to it being called by the term master gland.

B) The posterior pituitary's hormones are actually produced in neurosecretory cells that originate in the hypothalamus.

C) None of the above answers apply.

D) Both answers A and B apply.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 46.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 46-5. Explain how hormone production and secretion are regulated by input from the nervous system, other hormones, and negative feedback.

22) Which of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between the hypothalamus (H) and the anterior (AP) and posterior (PP) lobes of the pituitary?

A) The H is the neural system that releases hormones directly into the AP and communicates with the PP only through the circulation.

B) The AP regulates the H through negative feedback mechanisms while the PP regulates the H through positive feedback.

C) The H communicates directly with the PP and indirectly with the AP through the circulatory system.

D) The H regulates secretions from the PP, which then regulates all secretions from the AP. Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 46.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 46-5. Explain how hormone production and secretion are regulated by input from the nervous system, other hormones, and negative feedback.

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23) Which of the following best describes the neuroendocrine-to-endocrine pathway of hormone action?

A) a neural organ that produces hormones regulates another gland through the release of hormones into the circulation that travel to the effected gland B) a neural organ that produces hormones releases its hormones directly into another gland that it regulates C) a gland that releases hormones directly into a neural structure, thus regulating neural functions D) a gland that exhibits negative feedback on the nervous system by releasing hormones into neural tissue both directly and indirectly through the circulation Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 46.3, 46.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 46-5. Explain how hormone production and secretion are regulated by input from the nervous system, other hormones, and negative feedback.

24) How can the body prevent a hormone with different effects on different tissues from acting on inappropriate cells at inappropriate times?

A) Shunt blood supply to the desired tissues.

B) Internalize receptors on nontargeted cells.

C) Change the conformation of receptors on nontargeted cells.

D) All of the above answers apply.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 46.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 46-5. Explain how hormone production and secretion are regulated by input from the nervous system, other hormones, and negative feedback.

25) How can a single hormone can have multiple effects?

A) There could be different types of receptors in different target tissues.

B) There could be different second messengers in different target tissues.

C) There could be different signaling cascades in different target tissues.

D) All of the above answers apply.

E) Only answers A and B apply.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 46.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 46-3 & 5. Draw diagrams illustrating the two major mechanisms of hormone action: changes in gene expression and changes in protein activation. Explain how hormone production and secretion are regulated by input from the nervous system, other hormones, and negative feedback.

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26) Which of the following is not considered a second messenger?

A) cAMP B) IP3 C) norepinephrine D) DAG Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 46.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 46-5. Explain how hormone production and secretion are regulated by input from the nervous system, other hormones, and negative feedback.

27) Signal transduction occurs when a chemical message at the cell surface elicits a response inside the cell. Which one of the following events is not associated with signal transduction?

A) protein phosphorylation B) cell-surface receptor binding C) internal receptor binding D) second messenger activation Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 46.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 46-3. Draw diagrams illustrating the two major mechanisms of hormone action: changes in gene expression and changes in protein activation.

28) Of the following types of molecules, which can function as both neurotransmitters and hormones?

A) glucocorticoids B) second messengers C) catecholamines D) adipocytes Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 46.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 46-5. Explain how hormone production and secretion are regulated by input from the nervous system, other hormones, and negative feedback.

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29) Which of the following is true during a typical cAMP-type signal transduction event?

A) The second messenger is the last part of the system to be activated.

B) The hormone activates the second messenger by directly binding to it.

C) The second messenger amplifies the hormonal response by attracting more hormones to the cell being affected.

D) Adenylyl cyclase is activated after the hormone binds to the cell and before phosphorylation occurs.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 46.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 46-3. Draw diagrams illustrating the two major mechanisms of hormone action: changes in gene expression and changes in protein activation.

30) Tadpoles must undergo a major metamorphosis to become frogs. This change includes reabsorption of the tail, growth of limbs, calcification of the skeleton, increase in rhodopsin in the eye, development of lungs, change in hemoglobin structure, and reformation of the gut from the long gut of an herbivore to the short gut of a carnivore. Amazingly, all of these changes are induced by thyroxine. What is the most likely explanation for such a wide array of effects of thyroxine?

A) There are many different forms of thyroxine, each specific to a different tissue.

B) Different tissues have different types of receptors.

C) Some tissues have membrane receptors for thyroxine, while other tissues have thyroxine receptors within the nucleus.

D) Different releasing hormones release thyroxine to different tissues.

E) Answers B and C both apply.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 46.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 46-3 & 5. Draw diagrams illustrating the two major mechanisms of hormone action: changes in gene expression and changes in protein activation. Explain how hormone production and secretion are regulated by input from the nervous system, other hormones, and negative feedback.

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31) What property of steroid hormones allows them to cross the phospholipid bilayer?

A) Steroid hormones are lipid soluble and easily cross the phospholipid bilayer.

B) Steroid hormones can act in very small concentrations, and very few molecules of steroids need to cross the lipid bilayer.

C) Steroid hormones act on cells close to where they were produced, and very few molecules are required to travel such a short distance to cross the lipid bilayer.

D) Steroid hormones act on the same cells in which they are produced and, therefore, are within the cell they are acting upon.

E) Steroid hormone transporters exist in most cell types.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 46.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 46-2. Compare and contrast how lipid-soluble and water-soluble hormones act on target tissues.

32) Which of the following are examples of amplification of a hormone signal?

I. Epinephrine initiates an enzyme cascade.

II. Steroids bind hormone-response elements in the cell and initiate the transcription of many genes.

III. A quantity of 0.09 mg of growth hormone leads to a 10 000-mg weight gain in a cow.

IV. Different cell types have different receptors capable of binding the same hormone.

A) only I and III B) only II and IV C) only I, II, and III D) only II and III E) I, II, III, and IV Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 46.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 46-5. Explain how hormone production and secretion are regulated by input from the nervous system, other hormones, and negative feedback.

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33) What changes might you predict/expect if a mutation caused a change in the timing of juvenile hormone, such that it remained high throughout the lifetime of the organism?

A) The organism would undergo metamorphosis at an earlier time.

B) The organism would maintain its juvenile state for the remainder of its life.

C) The organism would mature reproductively.

D) The organism would form structures that allowed it to respond to stress.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 46.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 46-4. Give specific examples of how animal hormones affect embryonic development, sexual maturation, homeostasis, and response to stress.

34) You spend two months in the mountains of Peru at ~ 3500 m altitude. After returning to Toronto, you notice that you can run your regular 10 km route significantly more easily than before you left. What is the reason for this burst of fitness?

A) You were in the mountains, so you must have been hiking every day and got in better shape.

B) Due to lower oxygen concentrations at high altitudes, low blood oxygen levels stimulated release of EPO, which stimulated the production of red blood cells. This increased the oxygen binding capacity of your blood.

C) The time you spent at a high altitude resulted in an increased lung capacity and therefore extra oxygen intake. This extra oxygen stimulated the release of EP and in turn the production of red blood cells.

D) The time spent at a high altitude resulted in an increased active metabolic rate and therefore increased ATP production.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 46.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 46-4. Give specific examples of how animal hormones affect embryonic development, sexual maturation, homeostasis, and response to stress.

35) Which of the following is an example of negative feedback?

A) During birthing contractions, oxytocin is released and acts to stimulate further contractions.

B) When a baby is nursing, suckling leads to the production of more milk and a subsequent increase in the secretion of prolactin.

C) A stressful stimulus leads to the release of epinephrine, which increases fatty acid and glucose in the blood and cardiovascular activity.

D) When the level of glucose in the blood increases, the pancreas produces and releases the hormone insulin. Insulin acts to decrease blood glucose. As blood glucose decreases, the rate of production and release of insulin decreases.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 46.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 46-5. Explain how hormone production and secretion are regulated by input from the nervous system, other hormones, and negative feedback.

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36) A weightlifter decides to try taking steroids to improve his performance level. Following a month of use, he notes that the steroids have had no effect on his performance. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this?

A) The steroid hormone did not bind to the receptors at the cell surface and no signal transduction cascade was initiated.

B) The steroid hormone did not enter the nucleus and could not bind to the hormone response element.

C) The protein needed to transport the steroid hormone into the cell was not present at the cell membrane.

D) The steroid hormone did no bind to the hormone receptor and the hormone response element was not activated.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 46.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 46-2. Compare and contrast how lipid-soluble and water-soluble hormones act on target tissues.

37) Oxytocin helps initiate labour in mammals. During labour and delivery, the contraction of uterine muscles increases the release of oxytocin. This is an example of A) a negative feedback system.

B) a hormone that acts in an antagonistic way with another hormone.

C) a hormone that is involved in a positive feedback loop.

D) signal transduction immediately changing gene expression in its target cells.

E) the key role of the anterior pituitary gland in regulating uterine contraction.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 46.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 46-5. Explain how hormone production and secretion are regulated by input from the nervous system, other hormones, and negative feedback.

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38) The release of hormones by the posterior pituitary is the result of what process?

A) The anterior pituitary regulates the activity of the posterior pituitary gland.

B) The release of regulatory hormones increases activity in the adrenal medulla, altering the activity of the posterior pituitary.

C) Neurosecretory cells of the hypothalamus directly release hormones into blood vessels within the posterior pituitary.

D) Hypothalamic neurons form synapses on the adrenal gland, which in turn regulates the pituitary.

E) Releasing hormones from the hypothalamus directs the production and release of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 46.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 46-1. List the major categories of chemical signals in animals and describe their source, targets, and functions.

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Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition (Freeman et al.)

Chapter 48 The Immune System in Animals 1) Which of the following best describes what an antigen is?

A) a molecule, such as a polypeptide or carbohydrate, that initiates a response from the immune system B) a protein in the immune system that is used to identify potential pathogens C) a molecule that is used during an immune response to enhance the binding of antibodies to damaged cells D) all of the above Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 48.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 48-1. Compare and contrast the innate and adaptive immune responses.

2) You and a friend are in line for a movie when you notice the woman in front of you sneezing and coughing. Both of you have been equally exposed to the woman's virus, but over the next few days, only your friend acquires flu-like symptoms and is ill for almost a week before recovering. Which one of the following is a logical explanation for this?

A) You have an innate immunity to that virus.

B) You have an acquired immunity to that virus.

C) Your friend does not have the ability to fight off that particular virus.

D) Answers B and C are both correct.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 48.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 48-1. Compare and contrast the innate and adaptive immune responses.

3) A newborn who is accidentally given a drug that destroys the thymus would most likely A) lack class I major histocompatability (MHC) molecules on cell surfaces.

B) lack innate immunity.

C) be unable to genetically rearrange antigen receptors.

D) be unable to differentiate and mature T cells.

E) have a reduced number of B cells and be unable to form antibodies.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 48.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 48-2. Explain how the innate immune responses defend animals against broad groups of pathogens.

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4) Mast cells can both constrict and dilate blood vessels after injury. Which of the following best explains why both of these events occur shortly after tissue is injured?

A) Different blood vessels respond to the same messenger from mast cells in different ways—for example, larger vessels constrict to reduce blood loss while smaller ones dilate to promote blood flow to the injured tissue.

B) Mast cells release different chemical messengers, one that causes constriction in the region of blood loss, and another that causes dilation away from the injury to promote quicker healing.

C) Mast cells release one chemical messenger immediately after injury that constricts vessels to promote clotting; after bleeding has stopped, they release another messenger that causes those same vessels to dilate, which increases blood flow to promote healing.

D) Mast cells release different chemical messengers, one that causes vessels away from the site of the injury to constrict to control blood loss, and another that causes vessels near the injury to dilate to promote quicker healing.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 48.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 48-1. Compare and contrast the innate and adaptive immune responses.

5) Which of the following would put you at increased risk of pathogens entering your body?

A) a mutation preventing you from making lysozyme B) cleaning the wax out of your ears on a daily basis C) a mutation that causes your mucus secretions to be extremely watery D) all of the above E) A and C only Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 48.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 48-1. Compare and contrast the innate and adaptive immune responses.

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6) You are playing a new video game that is based on the human immune system. The player is inside a human, and you must successfully fend off invading pathogens in a quest to find the "Golden Antibody." At level 1, your arsenal for fighting off pathogens consists only of the innate immunity leukocytes and their various secretions. If the enemy has killed off most of your neutrophils and macrophages, which of the following should you utilize to recruit more of these leukocytes to the battle?

A) histamine B) platelets C) reactive oxygen species D) cytokines E) bone marrow Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 48.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 48-2. Explain how the innate immune responses defend animals against broad groups of pathogens.

7) Arrange in the correct sequence each of the following components of the mammalian immune system as it first responds to a pathogen.

I. Pathogen is destroyed.

II. Lymphocytes secrete antibodies. III. Antigens from the pathogen bind to receptors on lymphocytes. IV. Lymphocytes specific to antigens from the pathogen become numerous.

V. Only memory cells remain. A) I → III → II → IV → V B) III → II → I → V → IV C) II → I → IV → III → V D) IV → II → III → I → V E) III → IV → II → I → V Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 48.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 48-2.

Explain how the innate immune responses defend animals against broad groups of pathogens.

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8) You cut your finger, and after putting pressure on the wound for several minutes, you notice that it is still bleeding profusely. What may be the problem?

A) Platelets are not functioning properly, or there are too few to be effective.

B) Mast cells are not releasing their chemical messengers.

C) There are too many antigens to allow clotting.

D) Answers A and B are both correct.

E) Answers B and C are both correct.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 48.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 48-2. Explain how the innate immune responses defend animals against broad groups of pathogens.

9) What do neutrophils and macrophages have in common?

A) Both ingest and kill bacteria.

B) Both arrive simultaneously at a wound site.

C) Both secrete cytokines.

D) Both secrete lysozymes.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 48.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 48-2. Explain how the innate immune responses defend animals against broad groups of pathogens.

10) Differences in the B-cell receptors of two different B cells are due to A) mutation in the genes of that B cell, induced by exposure to the antigen.

B) the rearrangement of C-region genes in that clone of responsive B cells.

C) a switch in the kind of antigen-presenting cell that is involved in the immune response.

D) a patient's reaction to the first kind of antibody made by the plasma cells.

E) the recombination of variable regions of the light-chain and heavy-chain genes.

Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 48.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 48-3. Compare and contrast the steps required for activating B and T cells.

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11) Mucous occurs in both the respiratory and digestive tracts. What is its main immunological function?

A) sweeping away debris B) physically trapping pathogens C) destruction of pathogens because it is acidic D) increasing oxygen absorption Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 48.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 48-2. Explain how the innate immune responses defend animals against broad groups of pathogens.

12) A small child falls down and cuts his knee. A few days later a scab forms over the wound.

After a few weeks, the wound does not appear to be healing, but it is not infected. Which of the following could explain this?

A) The child has a neutrophile deficiency.

B) The child has a platelet deficiency.

C) The child has a cytokine deficiency.

D) The child has a mast cell deficiency.

E) Answers C or D are possible.

Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 48.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 48-2. Explain how the innate immune responses defend animals against broad groups of pathogens.

13) Lymphocytes are formed in what organ(s)?

A) spleen B) thymus C) bone marrow D) both A and C E) both B and C Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 48.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 48-2. Explain how the innate immune responses defend animals against broad groups of pathogens.

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14) It is commonly know that breast milk provides many benefits to a newborn baby because it provides immune benefits. Which of the following immunoglobulins play a role in this?

A) IgG B) IgA C) IgE D) IgM Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 48.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 48-2. Explain how the innate immune responses defend animals against broad groups of pathogens.

15) If you were developing artificial B-cell receptors (BCRs) based on the natural version and wanted to change the BCRs' ability to bind certain antigens, which region of the natural receptor would you alter?

A) transmembrane domain B) amino terminus of light and heavy chains C) carboxy terminus of light and heavy chains D) the region projecting into the cytoplasm of the cell Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 48.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 48-3. Compare and contrast the steps required for activating B and T cells.

16) Which of the following statements is not fundamental to the clonal-selection theory of how the acquired immune system functions?

A) Each lymphocyte has a unique membrane receptor that recognizes one antigen.

B) When the lymphocyte binds an antigen, it is activated and begins dividing to form many identical copies of itself.

C) Cloned lymphocytes have slight differences and are selected by the spleen for removal if they do not bind an antigen.

D) Cloned cells descend from an activated lymphocyte and persist even after the pathogen is eliminated.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 48.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 48-4. Describe how a specific antigen can elicit an adaptive immune response.

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17) Which of the following statements about epitopes is FALSE? A) B-cell receptors bind to epitopes.

B) T-cell receptors bind to epitopes.

C) There can be 10 or more different epitopes on each antigen.

D) There is a one-to-one correspondence between antigen and epitope.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 48.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 48-2. Explain how the innate immune responses defend animals against broad groups of pathogens.

18) Which of the following pairs of proteins shares the most overall similarity in structure?

A) B-cell receptors and T-cell receptors B) B-cell receptors and antibodies C) T-cell receptors and antibodies D) antibodies and antigens Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 48.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 48-2. Explain how the innate immune responses defend animals against broad groups of pathogens.

19) What major advantage is conveyed by having a system of acquired immunity?

A) It enables a rapid defence against an antigen that has been previously encountered.

B) It enables an animal to counter most pathogens almost instantly.

C) It allows for extremely precise specificity for defence against antigens.

D) All of the above answers are correct.

E) Answers A and C are both correct.

Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 48.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 48-1. Compare and contrast the innate and adaptive immune responses.

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20) Which of the following is the best definition of autoimmune disease? A) a condition in which B cells and T cells respond independently to antigens and do not interact correctly B) a condition in which the acquired immune system fails to recognize the second infection by the same antigen C) a condition in which a molecule belonging to the host is treated like an antigen and triggers an immune response D) a condition in which the immune system creates random antibodies without being triggered by an antigen Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 48.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 48-5. Use examples to explain the problems that can arise when human immune systems function improperly. 21) All of the following are differences between a B-cell receptor and an antibody produced by a B-cell EXCEPT that A) B-cell receptors belong to the immunoglobulin protein family while antibodies produced by B-cells do not. B) B-cell receptors are inserted into the plasma membrane while antibodies produced by B-cells are secreted. C) B-cells receptors have transmembrane domains while antibodies produced by B-cells do not. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 48.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 48-4.

Describe how a specific antigen can elicit an adaptive immune response. 22) What would be the consequence(s) of a mutation that did not allow for selection against self- responding lymphocytes (those that respond against self)? A) The immune system would fail and the individual would catch many illnesses. B) This would likely be a fatal condition as the lymphocytes would attack all self cells. C) The lymphocytes would be more likely to recognize antigens they had previously been exposed to. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 48.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 48-3. Compare and contrast the steps required for activating B and T cells.

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23) Which of the following is a difference between B cells and T cells?

A) One has a major role in antibody production, while the other has a major role in cytotoxicity.

B) One uses a receptor called BCR, while the other recognizes a receptor called TCR. C) One is activated by membrane bound antigens, while the other is activated by free-floating antigens in blood or lymph.

D) All of the above are differences.

E) Only A and B are differences.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 48.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 48-2. Explain how the innate immune responses defend animals against broad groups of pathogens.

24) Which of the following is crucial to activation of the acquired immune response?

A) memory cells B) presentation of MHC-antigen complex on a cell surface C) somatic hypermutation D) phagocytosis of antibody-antigen complex by macrophages in the blood (the humoral response) Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 48.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 48-3. Compare and contrast the steps required for activating B and T cells.

25) Which of the following is a difference between Class I and Class II major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins?

A) Class I MHC proteins can be found on most cell types and signals that this cell has been compromised, while Class II proteins are found on cells of the immune system and are designed to activate immune responses.

B) Class I MHC proteins are added to antigens in the cytoplasm, while Class II proteins are added to antigens in the Golgi apparatus.

C) Class I MHC proteins signal the immune system to activate the cell displaying the message, while Class II proteins signal the immune system to destroy a particular cell.

D) Class I and Class II MHC proteins have the same basic role, but individuals with particularly strong immune systems will have both types while most individuals have just one or the other.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 48.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 48-4. Describe how a specific antigen can elicit an adaptive immune response.

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26) Your sister-in-law never gets sick, while her male neighbour seems to be sick all the time.

Although there are several explanations for this, one is that they are genetically different.

Which of the following hypotheses concerning genetic inheritance of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is consistent with this observation and your understanding of the immune system as described in the text? A) MHC inheritance works like normal Mendelian genetics in the sense that there are dominant traits and recessive traits, and in the case of MHC, those with the dominant trait (including both those who are heterozygous and homozygous dominant) produce more normal MHC proteins and are healthier than those with the recessive trait (homozygous recessive). B) In the case of MHC, it is beneficial to have as many different alleles as possible, so heterozygous individuals are healthier than homozygous dominant or recessive individuals. C) MHC proteins are often closely associated with small antigen particles that have been broken off the main pathogen, so that individuals who are recessive for MHC don't normally have many illnesses because they don't produce these MHC-antigen complexes. D) MHC inheritance is X-linked and thus males will have a higher percentage of weak immune systems than females do. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 48.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 48-5. Use examples to explain the problems that can arise when human immune systems function improperly.

27) Which of the following is true of the humoral immune response and NOT true of the cellmediated immune response?

A) involves T cells at some level B) require CD8+ cells for activation C) involves destroying entire cells and not just the pathogen D) uses antibodies as its main weapon E) All of these answers are true of the humoral immune response and not true of the cellmediated immune response.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 48.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 48-3. Compare and contrast the steps required for activating B and T cells.

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28) Home blood typing kits reveal an individual's blood type by interpreting how blood reacts when exposed to antibodies. Which of the following is studied to interpret the results using these types of kits?

A) complementation B) agglutination C) hypersensitivity D) autoimmunity Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 48.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 48-2. Explain how the innate immune responses defend animals against broad groups of pathogens.

29) Which of the following is a difference between a primary and a secondary immune response?

A) The secondary response comes immediately after the primary response.

B) The secondary response involves memory cells, the primary does not.

C) The primary response involves immunological memory whereas the secondary response does not.

D) The primary response generates an allergy, which the body uses in the secondary response.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 48.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 48-2. Explain how the innate immune responses defend animals against broad groups of pathogens.

30) What is the difference between a secondary immune response occurring without a vaccine compared to the same response occurring after a vaccine?

A) A person who has received a vaccine does not have a secondary response, while someone without a vaccine does.

B) A person who has received a vaccine may have a secondary immune response on the first exposure to the normal, living pathogen.

C) Even with a vaccine, someone must still go through development of memory cells before they can have a secondary response.

D) All of the above answers apply.

E) Only answers B and C apply.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 48.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 48-2. Explain how the innate immune responses defend animals against broad groups of pathogens.

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31) What causes rejection by the body's immune system after a transplant of an improperly matched organ?

A) non-self proteins in the tissue B) the presence of foreign MHC proteins on the donor tissue C) antibodies and cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs) responding to foreign tissue D) all of the above E) A and C only Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 48.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 48-4. Describe how a specific antigen can elicit an adaptive immune response.

32) A certain cell type has existed in the blood and tissue of its vertebrate host's immune system for over 20 years. One day, it recognizes a newly arrived antigen and binds to it, subsequently triggering a secondary immune response in the body. Which of the following cell types most accurately describes this cell?

A) B cell B) T cell C) memory cell D) secondary cell Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 48.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 48-4. Describe how a specific antigen can elicit an adaptive immune response.

33) Which of the following components of the immune system destroys bacteria in a way similar to an antitank weapon destroying armored military tanks by punching holes in the wall of the bacteria?

A) complement protein B) macrophages C) plasma cells D) major histocompatibility complex proteins Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 48.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 48-2. Explain how the innate immune responses defend animals against broad groups of pathogens.

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34) Which of the following statements are fundamental to the clonal-selection theory of how the adaptive immune system functions? I. Each mature lymphocyte has a unique membrane receptor that recognizes one antigen. II. When the lymphocyte binds an antigen, the lymphocyte is activated and begins dividing to form many identical copies of itself. III. Cloned lymphocytes have slight differences and are selected by the spleen for removal if they do not bind an antigen. IV. Cloned cells descend from an activated lymphocyte and persist even after the pathogen is eliminated. A) only I and III B) only II and IV C) only I, II, and IV D) only II, III, and IV E) I, II, III, and IV Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 48.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 48-3. Compare and contrast the steps required for activating B and T cells. 35) Which of the following are effective treatments for some allergic reactions? A) antihistamines B) epinephrine C) corticosteroids D) all of the above E) both A and B Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 48.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 48-5. Use examples to explain the problems that can arise when human immune systems function improperly. 36) Which of the following is true of the allergic response? A) Sufferers produce the IgE class of gamma globulins in response to allergens. B) Upon the very first exposure to an allergen, an allergy sufferer will probably experience a runny nose, watery eyes, and mild wheezing. C) It is a normal, healthy, adaptive response to an allergen. D) All of the above answers are true. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 48.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 48-5. Use examples to explain the problems that can arise when human immune systems function improperly.

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37) Although the number of major histocompatibility (MHC) protein isoforms possible in a given human population is enormous, why does each individual have a limited array of MHC molecules?

A) because the MHC proteins are made from several different gene regions that are capable of rearranging in a number of ways B) because the MHC proteins from one individual can only be of class I or class II C) because each of the MHC genes has a large number of alleles, but each individual inherits only two for each gene D) because once a B cell has matured in the bone marrow, it is limited to two MHC response categories E) because once a T cell has matured in the thymus, it can only respond to two MHC categories Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 48.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating LO: 48-4. Describe how a specific antigen can elicit an adaptive immune response.

38) If a patient is missing B and T cells, what would be absent from the immune response?

A) memory B) lysozymes C) cytokines D) defence against bacteria E) the innate immune response Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 48.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 48-4. Describe how a specific antigen can elicit an adaptive immune response.

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Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition (Freeman et al.)

Chapter 49 An Introduction to Ecology 1) Which level of ecological study focuses the most on abiotic factors?

A) speciation ecology B) population ecology C) community ecology D) ecosystem ecology Answer: D Explanation: Students must first know what abiotic factors are and then link them to the area of study using these factors the most in research.

Type: MC Reference: Section 49.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 49-1. Identify five levels of ecological study and give an example of a question that could be asked at each level.

2) Which abiotic factor would have the most significant physiological effect on migrating salmon?

A) water solute content B) competition for resources C) water temperature D) human-built structural interferences Answer: A Explanation: Students must first know what abiotic factors are and then link them to migrating salmon. They must also know that although water temperatures can change during migration, it is the water solute content (salinity) that changes more and significantly affects salmon physiology.

Type: MC Reference: Section 49.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 49-2. Explain how species' abundance and distribution are constrained by historical, biotic, and abiotic factors.

3) In deep water, which of the following abiotic factors would most limit productivity?

A) temperature B) light availability C) solute concentration D) all of the above Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 49.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 49-2. Explain how species' abundance and distribution are constrained by historical, biotic, and abiotic factors.

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4) Wetlands are standing bodies of freshwater, just like lakes and ponds. However, wetlands are different from lakes and ponds because A) wetlands have shallow water.

B) wetlands have emergent vegetation.

C) wetlands have oxygen-poor water.

D) answers A and B both apply.

E) answers B and C both apply.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 49.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 49-4. List and describe the major terrestrial and aquatic biomes.

5) Which of the following statements regarding turnover is true?

A) In fall turnover, dense water at 4°C sinks and disturbs sediments in the benthic zone.

B) In fall turnover, dense water at 4°C rises and disturbs sediments in the benthic zone.

C) The surface water gets to 4°C only by cooling.

D) Fall turnovers and spring turnovers are exactly the same.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 49.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 49-4. List and describe the major terrestrial and aquatic biomes.

6) A fish swimming into a bog environment in Ontario would likely have which of the following as its greatest physiological challenge?

A) The low oxygen content would make it difficult for the fish to swim aerobically.

B) The low nitrogen content would make it difficult for the fish to synthesize proteins.

C) The high temperature would stress the fish by denaturing its proteins.

D) The high water flow would make the fish expend more energy.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 49.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 49-4. List and describe the major terrestrial and aquatic biomes.

7) A fish swimming into an estuary from a river would have which of the following as its greatest physiological challenge?

A) The high water flow would make the fish expend more energy.

B) The low oxygen content would give the fish difficulty in swimming aerobically.

C) The temperature change would stress the fish by denaturing its proteins.

D) The change in water solute content would challenge the osmotic balance of the fish.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 49.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 49-4. List and describe the major terrestrial and aquatic biomes.

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8) As climate changes because of global warming, plant species' ranges in the Northern Hemisphere may move northward. The trees that are most likely to avoid extinction in such an environment are those that A) have seeds that are easily dispersed by wind or animals. B) have thin seed coats. C) produce well-provisioned seeds. D) have seeds that become viable only after a forest fire. E) disperse many seeds in close proximity to the parent tree. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 49.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 49-3.

Explain how climate varies with latitude, elevation, and other factors. 9) A certain species of pine tree survives only in scattered locations at elevations above 2800 metres in the western United States. To understand why this tree grows only in these specific places, an ecologist should A) conclude that lower elevations are limiting to the survival of this species. B) study the anatomy and physiology of this species. C) investigate the various biotic and abiotic factors that are unique to high altitude. D) analyze the soils found in the vicinity of these trees, looking for unique chemicals that may support their growth. E) collect data on temperature, wind, and precipitation at several of these locations for a year. Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 49.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 49-2. Explain how species' abundance and distribution are constrained by historical, biotic, and abiotic factors.

10) A fish species known for its success in the aphotic zone would likely NOT have which of the following characteristics? A) symbioses with photosynthetic organisms B) highly developed chemoreception C) adaptations for burrowing D) adaptations for sit-and-wait predation Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 49.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 49-4. List and describe the major terrestrial and aquatic biomes.

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11) The specific abiotic factors defining a biome are A) maximum annual temperature and moisture levels.

B) average annual temperature and moisture levels.

C) annual variation in temperature and precipitation.

D) maximum annual temperatures, moisture levels, and average annual temperature.

E) average annual temperature, moisture levels, and annual variation in temperature and precipitation.

Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 49.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 49-4. List and describe the major terrestrial and aquatic biomes.

Figure 49.1 12) Looking at the figure above, which number would designate the tropical wet forest biome? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 49.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 49-4. List and describe the major terrestrial and aquatic biomes.

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13) In the figure above, which number would designate the biome with the highest variation in annual precipitation? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 49.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 49-4. List and describe the major terrestrial and aquatic biomes.

14) In Figure 49.1, which number would designate the biome with the highest variation in annual temperature?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 49.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 49-4. List and describe the major terrestrial and aquatic biomes.

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Figure 49.2 15) Based on the data in Figure 49.2, which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Area 1 has more average precipitation than area 2. B) Area 1 would be considered a desert because of its high average temperature. C) Area 2 would be considered a desert because of its low average precipitation. D) Area 2 has a large annual temperature variation. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 49.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Applying LO: 49-3. Explain how climate varies with latitude, elevation, and other factors. 16) Based on the data in Figure 49.2, which of the following statements is true? A) Area 1 could be called a boreal forest. B) Area 2 could be called a temperate grassland. C) Area 1 could be called a tropical wet forest. D) Area 2 could be tundra. Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 49.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Applying LO: 49-3. Explain how climate varies with latitude, elevation, and other factors.

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Figure 49.3 17) Based on the data in the figure above, which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Area 1 has more average precipitation than area 2.

B) Area 1 has a higher average temperature than area 2.

C) Both areas have variation in monthly precipitation.

D) Area 2 has a smaller annual temperature variation compared to area 1.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 49.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Applying LO: 49-3. Explain how climate varies with latitude, elevation, and other factors.

18) Based on the data in Figure 49.3, which of the following statements is true?

A) Area 1 could be called a subtropical desert.

B) Area 2 could be called tundra.

C) Area 1 could be called a tropical wet forest.

D) Area 2 could be called a boreal forest.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 49.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Applying LO: 49-3. Explain how climate varies with latitude, elevation, and other factors.

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19) Which of the following terms does NOT describe how much all of the plants in a biome grow?

A) productivity B) net primary productivity C) aboveground biomass D) photosynthetic quotient Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 49.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 49-4. List and describe the major terrestrial and aquatic biomes.

20) Which of the following statements regarding temperate grasslands is FALSE? A) Prairie fires can result from lightening strikes.

B) Grassland soils are not very fertile.

C) Grasslands are lower in productivity than tropical forest communities.

D) Grasslands have too little precipitation to support tree growth.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 49.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 49-4. List and describe the major terrestrial and aquatic biomes.

21) According to the latest hypotheses, why do evergreens predominate in cold environments?

A) Evergreens begin photosynthesizing in early spring, even before the snow melts.

B) Evergreens do not shed their leaves and thus do not need as many soil nutrients.

C) Evergreens photosynthesize all year round.

D) Answers A and B are both correct.

E) Answers B and C are both correct.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 49.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 49-4. List and describe the major terrestrial and aquatic biomes.

22) What is the main reason that polar regions are cooler than the equator?

A) There is more ice at the poles.

B) Sunlight strikes the poles at a lower angle.

C) The poles are farther from the Sun. D) The polar atmosphere is thinner and contains fewer greenhouse gases.

E) The poles are permanently tilted away from the Sun. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 49.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 49-3. Explain how climate varies with latitude, elevation, and other factors.

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23) What is the main difference between climate and weather? A) Weather typically describes a larger area than climate. B) Climate typically describes longer-term conditions.

C) Climate typically describes shorter-term conditions. D) Weather includes temperature and climate does not. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 49.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 49-3. Explain how climate varies with latitude, elevation, and other factors. 24) Besides sunlight, which would be the next most important climatic factors for plants? A) wind and fire B) moisture and wind C) temperature and wind D) temperature and moisture Answer: D Explanation: Typically, students might think sunlight is the most important factor for plant success; but without water and moderate temperatures, even a lot of sunlight will not produce high plant biomass. Type: MC Reference: Section 49.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 49-3. Explain how climate varies with latitude, elevation, and other factors. 25) What is the main reason that climatic conditions on Mercury differ from those on Earth? A) planet size B) existence of plant life C) average distance from the Sun D) existence of an atmosphere Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 49.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 49-3. Explain how climate varies with latitude, elevation, and other factors.

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26) Every place on Earth receives the same number of hours of sunlight each year—an average of 12 hours per day. Why do different areas of the Earth receive different amounts of solar radiation?

A) The height of the place above sea level is an important determinant of the amount of solar energy received.

B) The angle of the sunlight is an important determinant of the amount of solar energy received.

C) The density of the vegetation affects how much solar radiation a place will receive—the more grassland, the less solar radiation.

D) The density of the vegetation affects how much solar radiation a place will receive—the more tall trees, the less solar radiation.

E) Because of the curvature of the Earth, winds of the upper stratosphere can blow solar radiation away from an area before it reaches the ground.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 49.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 49-3. Explain how climate varies with latitude, elevation, and other factors.

27) If the Earth were to reorient such that the North Pole always received direct sunlight (always faced the Sun), how would that change Earth's climate?

A) The equators would not change in climate.

B) The South Pole would get colder.

C) The equators would get warmer.

D) The North Pole would get more wind.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 49.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 49-3. Explain how climate varies with latitude, elevation, and other factors.

28) Theoretically, which would be the most effective way to disrupt a Hadley cell?

A) Remove all equatorial moisture and convection.

B) Extensively water the deserts.

C) Heat the poles.

D) Shift the Sun to apply direct rays 30 degrees south latitude.

Answer: A Explanation: Theoretically, shifting the Sun's direct rays would keep the Hadley cell operational, but if you remove equatorial land-locked moisture, you could disrupt the portion of the cell that keeps the equatorial areas moist.

Type: MC Reference: Section 49.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 49-3. Explain how climate varies with latitude, elevation, and other factors.

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29) What would happen to the seasons if the Earth were tilted 35 degrees off its orbital plane instead of the usual 23.5 degrees? A) The seasons would disappear. B) Winters and summers would be more severe. C) Winters and summers would be less severe. D) The seasons would be shorter. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 49.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 49-3. Explain how climate varies with latitude, elevation, and other factors. 30) Which of the following statements regarding altitude and climate is FALSE? A) The presence of mountain ranges tends to produce extremes in precipitation. B) Rain shadows may appear on one side of a mountain range. C) The higher the altitude, the cooler the climate. D) Both sides of a mountain range always receive equal amounts of precipitation.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 49.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 49-3.

Explain how climate varies with latitude, elevation, and other factors. 31) In which terrestrial area is global warming most likely to allow coniferous trees to encroach? A) tropical wet forests B) arctic tundra C) temperate forests D) boreal forests Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 49.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 49-4. List and describe the major terrestrial and aquatic biomes. 32) You are measuring the effect of increased sunlight on a tropical wet forest biome. Which of the following would you measure? A) NPP as it indicates the biomass available for other organisms to use. B) Species diversity as it indicates the number of species present and their relative numbers. C) The number of parasites in the area as it indicates the health of the biome. D) All of A, B, and C. E) Both A and B. Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 49.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 49-4. List and describe the major terrestrial and aquatic biomes.

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33) For a species to be called "invasive," it must A) be introduced to a new area.

B) spread rapidly in a new area.

C) eliminate native species.

D) Answers A and B both apply.

E) All of the above answers apply.

Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 49.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 49-2. Explain how species' abundance and distribution are constrained by historical, biotic, and abiotic factors.

Figure 49.4 34) Based on the figure above, and knowing what you know about cattle, what is the most logical conclusion?

A) Cattle distribution is primarily affected by temperature.

B) Tsetse flies somehow negatively affect cattle.

C) Cattle distribution is primarily affected by grass distribution.

D) Cattle somehow affect the reproduction of the tsetse fly.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 49.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 49-2. Explain how species' abundance and distribution are constrained by historical, biotic, and abiotic factors.

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35) Which is a likely biotic factor limiting songbird distribution in Hawaii to alpine habitats?

A) temperature B) oxygen content C) moisture D) insects causing fatal diseases in songbirds at lower altitudes Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 49.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 49-2. Explain how species' abundance and distribution are constrained by historical, biotic, and abiotic factors.

36) Which of the following statements best describes the effect of climate on biome distribution?

A) Average annual temperature and precipitation are sufficient to predict which biome will be found in an area.

B) Seasonal fluctuation of temperature is not a limiting factor in biome distribution if areas have the same annual temperature and precipitation means.

C) The average climate and pattern of climate are important in determining biome distribution.

D) Temperate forests and grasslands are different biomes because they receive a different quality and quantity of sunlight, even though they have essentially the same annual temperature and precipitation.

E) Correlation of climate with biome distribution is sufficient to determine the cause of biome patterns.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 49.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 49-3. Explain how climate varies with latitude, elevation, and other factors.

37) Which of the following correctly describes light in aquatic environments?

A) Water selectively reflects and absorbs certain wavelengths of light.

B) Photosynthetic organisms that live in deep water probably use red light.

C) Longer wavelengths penetrate to greater depths.

D) Light penetration seldom limits the distribution of photosynthetic species.

E) Most photosynthetic organisms avoid the surface where the light is too intense.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 49.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 49-5. Describe how global climate change and human activity are altering terrestrial and aquatic biomes.

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Use the following abstract from the International Journal of Climatology to answer the corresponding question(s).

Abstract: The rainfall associated with the Indian summer monsoon shows large intraseasonal and interannual viability. Break-monsoon conditions are one of the important epochs of the monsoon, and they contribute significantly to the intraseasonal variability of the monsoon. The National Centers for Environmental Prediction-National Center for Atmospheric Research reanalysis data sets are used to investigate the significant energy budget terms during the pre-break (5 days prior to the commencement of the break), break and post-break (5 days after the cessation of the break) periods. In the present study, certain dynamic and thermodynamic characteristics of the monsoon circulation during break-monsoon conditions are investigated. The important terms in the various energy budget equations are analysed between the surface and 100 hPa for the break and its departures from pre- and post-break for the period 1968-96. The statistical significance of these departures is also examined by Student's t-test at the 95% confidence level. The volume integral of the budget terms is also examined in four sectors, i.e. the Arabian Sea, Bay of Bengal, northern India and central India. Significant changes in the wind field and vorticity at 850 hPa take place in the monsoon trough zone, coastal regions of the western coast of India and the southwestern Bay of Bengal of the southern Indian coast. The vertically upward rising arm of the Hadley cell weakens during the break phase. The strong flux convergence of kinetic energy in the central Arabian Sea and flux divergence in the northeastern Bay of Bengal weakens during pre- and post-break periods. Significant changes in the diabatic heating horizontal flux of heat and moisture are observed in the monsoon trough zone, central and northwestern Bay of Bengal.

The Bay of Bengal and central India sectors show higher magnitudes and changes in respect of dynamic and thermodynamic parameters compared with the Arabian Sea and northern India.

Copyright © 2004 Royal Meteorological Society. Reproduced with permission. Permission is granted by John Wiley & Sons Ltd on behalf of RMETS. (Bhatla et al. 2004. A study on dynamic and thermodynamic aspects of breaks in the summer monsoon over India. International Journal of Climatology 24:341-60.)

38) The rainfall associated with the Indian summer monsoon shows a large intraseasonal and interannual variability. Break-monsoon conditions are one of the most important epochs of the monsoon, and they contribute significantly to the intraseasonal variability of the monsoon. Given what you know about the Hadley cell, how would it have to change to produce this break phase in the monsoon (Bhatla et al., 2004)?

A) The downward arm of Hadley cell strengthens.

B) The upward arm of Hadley cell strengthens.

C) The downward arm of Hadley cell weakens.

D) The upward arm of Hadley cell weakens.

E) No change is needed in the Hadley cell to produce the break phase.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 49.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 49-3. Explain how climate varies with latitude, elevation, and other factors.

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39) Using the Bhatla et al. (2004) reference and your knowledge about the Hadley cell, would you expect a difference in thermodynamic parameters with monsoon magnitude and variability with latitude?

A) yes B) no Answer: A Explanation: This could also be used as a short answer (if so, specify that students should support their answer). From the paper: "The Bay of Bengal and central India sectors show higher magnitudes and changes in respect to dynamic and thermodynamic parameters compared with the Arabian Sea and northern India."

Type: MC Reference: Section 49.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 49-3. Explain how climate varies with latitude, elevation, and other factors.

40) On Earth, the general trend is that with decreasing latitude and increased solar radiation, there is ________ produced by photosynthesis (by plants, etc).

A) an increase in biodiversity because of increased oxygen supplies B) a decrease in biodiversity because of increased oxygen supplies C) an increase in biodiversity because of increased biomass (food) D) a decrease in biodiversity because of increased biomass (food) Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 49.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 49-3 & 4. Explain how climate varies with latitude, elevation, and other factors. Explain how species' abundance and distribution are constrained by historical, biotic, and abiotic factors.

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Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition(Freeman et al.)

Chapter 50 Behavioural Ecology 1) Lobsters can navigate back home at night using Earth's magnetic field. Is this statement a proximate cause or an ultimate cause?

A) proximate cause B) ultimate cause Answer: A Explanation: This in-class question can be used for any behaviour and can be quite challenging.

Type: MC Reference: Section 50.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 50-1. Distinguish between proximate and ultimate causes of behaviour.

Figure 50.1 2) In Figure 50.1, in which quadrant would the egg-rolling behaviour of a goose be plotted?

A) quadrant A B) quadrant B C) quadrant C D) quadrant D Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 50.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 50-1. Distinguish between proximate and ultimate causes of behaviour.

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3) In which quadrant of the figure above would bird migration be plotted?

A) quadrant A B) quadrant B C) quadrant C D) quadrant D Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 50.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 50-1. Distinguish between proximate and ultimate causes of behaviour.

4) In testing a hypothesis that "territorial defence in European robins is a fixed action pattern that is released by the sight of orange feathers," researchers found that robins defended their territory by attacking anything that was of similar size and had an orange patch. How would you show that it was indeed colour that initiated the defence responses?

A) Repeat the experiment using live specimens.

B) Repeat the experiment using other shapes.

C) Repeat the experiment removing the orange patch.

D) Repeat the experiment with giant specimens.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 50.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 50-1. Distinguish between proximate and ultimate causes of behaviour.

5) How would you classify the genetic basis for most behavioural traits in the animal kingdom?

A) One gene typically codes for one behaviour.

B) One gene typically codes for many behaviours.

C) Many genes typically code for one behaviour.

D) Behaviours are learned, not coded by genes.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 50.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 50-1. Distinguish between proximate and ultimate causes of behaviour.

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6) A cage containing male mosquitoes has a small earphone placed on top, through which the sound of a female mosquito is played. All the males immediately fly to the earphone and go through all the steps of copulation. What is the best explanation for this behaviour?

A) The males learn to associate the sound with females.

B) Copulation is a fixed action pattern, and the female flight sound is a sign stimulus that initiates it.

C) The sound from the earphone irritates the male mosquitoes, causing them to attempt to sting it.

D) The reproductive drive is so strong that when males are deprived of females, they will attempt to mate with anything that has even the slightest female characteristic.

E) Through classical conditioning, the male mosquitoes have associated the inappropriate stimulus from the earphone with the normal response of copulation.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 50.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 50-1. Distinguish between proximate and ultimate causes of behaviour.

7) Based on your knowledge of cost-benefit analysis, why would you expect some white-fronted bee-eaters to fly very far away from the nests to forage when there are food sources nearby?

A) There might be some plentiful food sources further away.

B) Competition for food is too intense near the nest.

C) Food near the nest is usually of lower quality.

D) Predation is highest closest to the nest.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 50.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 50-2. Use examples to explain how foraging decisions maximize energy gain and minimize costs.

8) How would self-sacrifice of male redback spiders be an adaptive behaviour?

A) Males only use self-sacrificing behaviour once they have mated with several females and have exhausted their sperm supplies.

B) The chance of a male meeting more than one female is quite low; self-sacrifice maximizes mating time with and sperm transfer to any female the male finds.

C) Males are able to mate with one female, then mate with another female nearby, before being devoured by the first female.

D) When males meet a female and self-sacrifice, it activates enzymes that make his sperm more fit and able to fertilize more eggs.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Canadian Research 50.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 50-3. Contrast the proximate and ultimate causes of mate choice.

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9) In the case of the redback spider, would males be better off, in terms of fitness, looking for another female to mate with instead of provoking his mate to eat him? A) Yes, this would greatly increase his fitness, as he would be able to produce more offspring and with a variety of mates increasing the chance that some of his offspring would survive. B) No, this would decrease his fitness as he would likely not find a second mate and would decrease his sperm transfer to the female he has found. C) Yes, this would increase his fitness, as it would provoke the first female to allow him to mate more, and he would get a second mating opportunity with another female. D) No, this would decrease his fitness, as his first mate would expel his sperm once he left the area. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Canadian Research 50.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 50-3. Contrast the proximate and ultimate causes of mate choice. 10) Which one of the following examples best illustrates classical conditioning? A) geese following the first thing they see upon hatching B) cats running into the kitchen when they hear a food can being opened C) birds hatching in isolation and singing their species-specific song D) cats seeing a mouse and chasing it Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 50.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 50-1.

Distinguish between proximate and ultimate causes of behaviour. 11) Which of the following statements about imprinting is FALSE? A) Imprinting only occurs during a critical period.

B) Imprinting is fast and irreversible. C) Imprinting only occurs on a specific colour/shape.

D) Imprinting is a type of learning. Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 50.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 50-1. Distinguish between proximate and ultimate causes of behaviour.

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12) You observe a species of bird that, upon hatching, has contact with its parents only while being fed. You also never hear the parents sing during the feeding process. What would you propose about song learning in this species of bird?

A) Song learning in this species is most likely learned.

B) The period of imprinting is likely later in the bird's life.

C) This species does not hear.

D) Song learning in this species is most likely innate.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 50.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 50-1. Distinguish between proximate and ultimate causes of behaviour.

13) The recognition and manipulation of facts about the world is termed A) cognition.

B) learning.

C) imprinting.

D) conditioning.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 50.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 50-1. Distinguish between proximate and ultimate causes of behaviour.

14) Which would be the best way to obtain evidence of a bird's cognitive abilities?

A) Observe the bird solving problems in the wild.

B) In captivity, have the bird solve problems like those it would face in the wild.

C) In captivity, have the bird attempt to solve novel problems.

D) All of the above would obtain equal evidence toward thinking ability.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 50.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 50-1. Distinguish between proximate and ultimate causes of behaviour.

15) You see young spiders hatch from eggs, and, within 5 hours, they are dispersing far from their parents and forming webs. What can you hypothesize about their behaviour?

A) Web-building is innate since there is no parental involvement.

B) Web-building is learned by observation.

C) Web-building is a random behaviour.

D) Web-building is an inflexible behaviour.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 50.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 50-1. Distinguish between proximate and ultimate causes of behaviour.

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16) Learning has the most influence on behaviour when A) making mistakes does not result in death. B) animals have parents or other sources to learn from. C) animals have enormous cognitive ability. D) making mistakes does not result in death, and when animals have parents or other sources to learn from. E) animals have parents or other sources to learn from, and when animals have enormous cognitive ability. Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 50.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 50-1. Distinguish between proximate and ultimate causes of behaviour. 17) You have captured a number of rats from a wild population and quickly surmise with tests that they are very good at avoiding food with poisons. What would best explain this observation? A) Rats are probably just intelligent enough to avoid poison. B) Rats may experience a large variety of toxins in their environment and learn to avoid them. C) Rats may learn this behaviour from their parents or siblings. D) Rats may be able to tolerate large amounts of poison. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 50.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 50-1. Distinguish between proximate and ultimate causes of behaviour. 18) You observe scrub jays hiding food and notice that one particular individual only pretends to hide food. What kind of experiment could you perform to test whether this was random or in response to another signal? A) Observe more of these behaviours in the wild and try to determine if the behaviour is random. B) Hypothesize a set of signals that could produce this behaviour and try to match the behaviours with the signals.

C) Attempt to reproduce the behaviour in captivity by using bird models and a computer simulation. D) All of the above would be excellent experiments. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 50.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 50-2. Use examples to explain how foraging decisions maximize energy gain and minimize costs.

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19) You observe scrub jays hiding food and notice that one particular individual only pretends to hide food. Your experiments associate the presence of other siblings with the frequency of pretending to cache food. A colleague shows you animals of the same species that do not perform this pretend caching. How does this information affect your conclusions about this behaviour?

A) It suggests that this behaviour might be learned.

B) It prevents you from making conclusions.

C) It suggests that your experimental design is flawed.

D) It does not affect anything.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 50.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 50-2. Use examples to explain how foraging decisions maximize energy gain and minimize costs.

Figure 50.2 20) Which of the following conclusions is most logical based on the data above?

A) Females produce more eggs more quickly when exposed to breeding males.

B) Females produce eggs more quickly when exposed to many males.

C) All non-isolated females do just as well as isolated females.

D) All of the above answers apply.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 50.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 50-3. Contrast the proximate and ultimate causes of mate choice.

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21) In the figure above, do the data support the hypothesis that females need spring-like light conditions to produce mature follicles? A) yes B) no C) cannot be determined Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 50.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 50-3. Contrast the proximate and ultimate causes of mate choice. 22) How could you test whether male dewlaps (a colourful flap of skin hanging from an anole lizard's throat) were an important cue for female egg production? A) Remove dewlaps from females and measure corresponding egg production. B) Relate size of male dewlap to female dewlap. C) Remove dewlaps from courting males and measure corresponding female egg production. D) All of the above answers apply. Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 50.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying LO: 50-3. Contrast the proximate and ultimate causes of mate choice. 23) In house sparrows (Passer domesticus), it is generally found that both males and females care for the eggs and young. However, some male house sparrows do not provide parental care.

In addition, it is known that young that receive parental care from both the male and female are more likely to survive to fledging (leaving the nest). Which of the following activities by males that do not provide parental care would represent the most beneficial trade-off for the reduced survival of their offspring? A) attacking the nests of neighbouring males B) mating with additional females and fathering more eggs C) eating to build up energy stores for migration D) grooming to eliminate parasites from their feathers Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 50.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 50-3. Contrast the proximate and ultimate causes of mate choice.

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24) Any process in which a signal from one individual modifies the behaviour of a recipient individual is termed A) cognition. B) communication. C) reflex. D) perception. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 50.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 50-5. Describe the various ways in which animals communicate.

25) A lizard's bobbing dewlap (a colourful flap of skin hanging from an Anolis lizard's throat) is an example of a A) stimulus.

B) reflex.

C) signal.

D) communication.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 50.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 50-5. Describe the various ways in which animals communicate.

26) In red-winged blackbirds, which of the following stimuli elicited the greatest territorial defence response?

A) playing a recording of a blackbird call in the territory B) presenting a model of a male in the territory C) presenting both the model of a male, and playing the recording D) All of the above elicited equal responses.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 50.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 50-5. Describe the various ways in which animals communicate.

27) What was the main reason the honeybees would switch from the "round dance" to the "waggle dance"?

A) The ratio of females to males in the hive shifted.

B) The preferred food source was farther away.

C) The original food source was exhausted.

D) An intruder approached the hive.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 50.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 50-5. Describe the various ways in which animals communicate.

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Figure 50.3 28) What does the figure above show about the nature of the "waggle dance"? A) The waggle dance is random in relation to the food source. B) The vigor of the waggle dance indicates the size of the food source. C) The direction of the waggle dance indicates the location of the food relative to the Sun. D) The direction of the waggle dance indicates the location of the hive relative to the Sun. E) The vigor of the waggle dance indicates the location of the food relative to the Sun. Answer: C

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Type: MC Reference: Section 50.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 50-5. Describe the various ways in which animals communicate.

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Figure 50.4 29) In the diagrams shown in the figure above, which dance is indicating that the food is the farthest from the hive? A) dance A B) dance B C) dance C D) All of the above indicate the same distance from the hive. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 50.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 50-5. Describe the various ways in which animals communicate.

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30) You observe that by flashing a small light in a particular sequence, you can attract male fireflies of a certain species. You begin to think how this signal may be used against these males.

Which of the hypotheses seems to be the most logical?

A) This particular signal will be used commonly by other firefly species as a way to lure males and prey on them.

B) This particular signal will be used only by this species of firefly.

C) This particular signal will be used widely by males of this species in territorial disputes.

D) This particular signal will be used rarely by other firefly species as a way to lure males and prey on them.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 50.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 50-5. Describe the various ways in which animals communicate.

31) Migration in birds is guided in part by A) celestial navigation.

B) temperature changes.

C) olfactory cues.

D) day-length changes caused by latitude.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 50.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 50-4. Describe the various cues that animals use to navigate.

32) Homing pigeons' ability to always return to their home, no matter where they are released, is an excellent example of A) piloting.

B) compass orientation.

C) true navigation.

D) all of the above.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 50.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 50-4. Describe the various cues that animals use to navigate.

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33) If phototaxis is orientation toward light, what would be the proper term to describe ants following a trail of their own pheromones?

A) chemotaxis B) pheromotaxis C) hormotaxis D) stereotaxis Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 50.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 50-4. Describe the various cues that animals use to navigate.

34) How do altruistic behaviours arise through natural selection?

A) By his or her actions, the altruist increases the likelihood that some of its genes will be passed on to the next generation.

B) The altruist is appreciated by other members of the population because its survivability has been enhanced by virtue of its risky behaviour.

C) Animals that perform altruistic acts are allowed by their population to breed more, thereby passing on their behaviour genes to future generations.

D) Altruistic behaviours lower stress in populations, which increases the survivability of all the members of the population.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 50.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 50-6. Explain why animals might behave altruistically.

35) It is rather easy to understand why relatives help each other in the animal kingdom—they share some of the same genes, and some self-sacrificing behaviour will help the greater sum of their genes. What would be a reason for self-sacrificing behaviour to have evolved in animals that are unrelated?

A) This behaviour might elicit a benefit at some future point in time.

B) This behaviour might have aided groups of unrelated animals.

C) This behaviour might have arisen due to genetic drift.

D) Answers A and B both apply.

E) Answers A and C both apply.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 50.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 50-6. Explain why animals might behave altruistically.

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Figure 50.5 36) In the figure above, which is the most logical conclusion from the data?

A) Young children are more at risk when living with a stepparent.

B) Older children are more at risk when living with a stepparent.

C) Older children will not die of homicide when living with biological parents.

D) All stepparents are unfit to raise nonbiological children.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 50.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 50-6. Explain why animals might behave altruistically.

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37) Which of the following has greatest coefficient of relatedness? A) black bear siblings B) human fraternal twins C) worker honey bees D) tiger siblings Answer: C Explanation: Could substitute "armadillo littermates" for answer C to increase difficulty, since they are always genetically identical. Type: MC Reference: Section 50.6, Box 50.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 50-6. Explain why animals might behave altruistically. 38) A pied kingfisher in its first year of life helps in the feeding of three full siblings that would not have survived without the helper's efforts. What is its indirect fitness in its first year? A) 0.25 B) 0.50 C) 0.75 D) 1.00 E) 1.50 Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 50.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 50-6. Explain why animals might behave altruistically.

39) With regard to understanding the evolution of cooperation, what is the principal prediction that can be made from the expression Br > C? A) Natural selection will favour cooperation among close relatives. B) Cooperation evolves because it benefits all members of a species. C) Cooperation evolves because it enhances the species' fitness. D) Selection favours self-sacrifice in reproduction. E) Natural selection will favour cooperation among any individuals. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 50.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 50-6. Explain why animals might behave altruistically.

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Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition(Freeman Chapter 51 et Population al.)

Ecology 1) The study of factors that determine the size and structure of populations through time is called A) population ecology. B) immigration. C) demography. D) populations. Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 51.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 51-1. Describe how individuals within populations are distributed geographically. 2) The definition of a generation is A) 20 years. B) the average time between a mother's first offspring and her daughter's first offspring. C) the average time between a father's first offspring and his son's first offspring. D) the average time between parents' first offspring and their child's first offspring. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 51.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 51-1. Describe how individuals within populations are distributed geographically. 3) During the Lacerta vivipara lizard study, researchers monitored individuals on a daily basis to document the number of young produced by each female in the wild. What would be the best way to obtain the same type of data but not have to visit the site every day? A) Capture animals and implant tracking devices. B) Install cameras on site to monitor lizard movement.

C) Capture animals twice per year and count them. D) Try the study in an isolated population in the lab. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 51.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 51-4. Calculate the growth rate of a population from life table data or from direct observation of changes in population size over time.

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Figure 51.1 4) In the figure above, which of the following survivorship curves implies that an animal may lay thousands of eggs, of which only a few will survive to reproduce?

A) curve A B) curve B C) curve C D) none of the above Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 51.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 51-2. Graph and describe three general types of survivorship curves.

5) In the figure above, which of the following survivorship curves implies that an animal may lay thousands of eggs, of which a regular number die each year?

A) curve A B) curve B C) curve C D) none of the above Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 51.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 51-2. Graph and describe three general types of survivorship curves.

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6) In the figure above, which of the following survivorship curves most applies to humans living in developed countries?

A) curve A B) curve B C) curve C D) none of the above Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 51.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 51-2. Graph and describe three general types of survivorship curves.

Figure 51.2 7) Looking at the data in the figure above, what can be said about survival and clutch size?

A) Animals with low survival tend to have low clutch sizes.

B) High clutch sizes tend to produce animals with low survival.

C) Animals with high fecundity tend to live longer.

D) Animals with high fecundity tend not to live as long as animals with low fecundity.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 51.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 51-2. Graph and describe three general types of survivorship curves.

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8) What is the primary limiting factor that determines why no female animal can produce a very large number of very large eggs?

A) time B) energy stores C) temperature D) male availability Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 51.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 51-3. Describe the trade-off between survivorship and fecundity due to the limited availability of resources.

9) Which of these terms defines how the organism allocates resources to growth, reproduction, and activities or structures related to survival?

A) resource allocation B) life history C) energy budget D) demography Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 51.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 51-3. Describe the trade-off between survivorship and fecundity due to the limited availability of resources.

10) Why can't a female lizard have both high fecundity and high survival?

A) Only in rare cases do lizards have both high fecundity and high survival.

B) Female lizards are able to produce only one set of offspring.

C) Competition for resources prevents this.

D) The more energy the female devotes to offspring, the less that can be devoted to her survival.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 51.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 51-3. Describe the trade-off between survivorship and fecundity due to the limited availability of resources.

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11) You observe two female fish of the same species breeding. One female lays 100 eggs and the other female lays 1000 eggs. Which one of the following statements does not agree with the concept of fitness trade-offs?

A) The female laying 100 eggs should be able to breed more often compared to the female laying 1000 eggs.

B) The female laying 100 eggs should live longer than the female laying 1000 eggs.

C) The eggs from the female laying 1000 eggs should have larger yolks compared to the yolks of the eggs from the female laying 100 eggs.

D) The female laying 1000 eggs should be larger than the female laying 100 eggs.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 51.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 51-3. Describe the trade-off between survivorship and fecundity due to the limited availability of resources.

Figure 51.3 12) Looking at figure above, the white rhinoceros [more than 1000 kg (2200 lb)] is likely to exhibit which of the following?

A) survivorship curve A and a SHORT generation time.

B) survivorship curve C and a SHORT generation time.

C) survivorship curve A and a LONG generation time.

D) survivorship curve B and a LONG generation time.

E) survivorship curve C and a LONG generation time.

Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 51.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 51-2. Graph and describe three general types of survivorship curves.

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13) An ecologist recorded 12 white-tailed deer, Odocoileus virginianus, per square kilometre in one woodlot and 20 per square kilometre in another woodlot. What was the ecologist comparing?

A) density B) dispersion C) carrying capacity D) cohorts E) range Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 51.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 51-1. Describe how individuals within populations are distributed geographically.

Figure 51.4 14) In the figure above, which of the lines represents the highest per-capita rate increase (r)?

A) line A B) line B C) line C D) line D Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 51.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 51-5. Compare and contrast exponential and logistic population growth.

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15) In the figure above, which of the lines represents exponential growth?

A) line A B) line B C) line C D) line D E) all of the above Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 51.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 51-5. Compare and contrast exponential and logistic population growth.

16) Assuming that these populations are density dependent, what is the likely outcome if the system depicted in the figure above were allowed to continue?

A) Population growth would continue to be discontinuous.

B) Individual growth would continue to be indeterminate.

C) Population growth would likely decrease.

D) Populations would go extinct.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 51.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 51-5. Compare and contrast exponential and logistic population growth.

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Figure 51.5 17) In the figure above, which of the arrows represents the carrying capacity? A) arrow A B) arrow B C) arrow C Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 51.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 51-5.

Compare and contrast exponential and logistic population growth. 18) In the figure above, which of the arrows represents the most rapid growth? A) arrow A B) arrow B C) arrow C Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 51.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 51-5. Compare and contrast exponential and logistic population growth.

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19) If 60 snow geese were alive in 1926 and 856 existed in 2001, what is r? A) 0.070 B) 0.035 C) 0.094 Answer: B Explanation: The difficulty of this question will depend on whether you include the equation. Type: MC Reference: Section 51.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 51-4. Calculate the growth rate of a population from life table data or from direct observation of changes in population size over time.

20) It is estimated that snow geese will be able to sustain an r of 0.088 indefinitely. If the flock currently contains 3000 individuals, how long will it take to double?

A) 7.9 years B) 34.1 years C) 264 years Answer: A Explanation: The difficulty of this question will depend on whether you include the equation.

Type: MC Reference: Section 51.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 51-5. Compare and contrast exponential and logistic population growth.

21) Conservationists will take snow geese off the endangered species list when the population hits 300010,000. If populations are sustaining growth at r = 0.088 and the population in 2001 is individuals, in what year will snow geese be taken off the endangered species list?

A) 2014 B) 2617 C) 2003 Answer: A Explanation: The difficulty of this question will depend on whether you include the equation.

Type: MC Reference: Section 51.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 51-4. Calculate the growth rate of a population from life table data or from direct observation of changes in population size over time.

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Figure 51.6 22) Based on the figure above, which of the following statements correctly interprets the data? A) Female density is affected by clutch size. B) Clutch size is affected by female density. C) Survivorship is affected by female density. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 51.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 51-5. Compare and contrast exponential and logistic population growth. 23) Which statement about K is FALSE? A) K varies among populations. B) K varies in space. C) K varies in time. D) K is specific for a given species. Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 51.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 51-5. Compare and contrast exponential and logistic population growth.

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Figure 51.7 24) Using information from the table above, calculate the net reproductive rate (R0) for this population.

A) 2.00 B) 3.26 C) 1.30 D) 1.00 Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 51.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 51-4. Calculate the growth rate of a population from life table data or from direct observation of changes in population size over time.

25) Using information from the table above, how would you describe the population dynamics of L. vivipara?

A) The population is increasing.

B) The population is decreasing.

C) The population is stable.

D) The figure does not provide this information.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 51.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 51-4. Calculate the growth rate of a population from life table data or from direct observation of changes in population size over time.

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26) Using information from the table above, which year was the most successful for the population? A) year 0 B) year 1 C) year 5 D) The figure does not provide this information.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 51.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 51-4. Calculate the growth rate of a population from life table data or from direct observation of changes in population size over time. 27) Which of the following is the most important assumption for the mark—recapture method to estimate the size of wildlife populations? A) All females in the population have the same litter size. B) More individuals emigrate from, as opposed to immigrate into, a population. C) More than 50 percent of the marked individuals need to be trapped during the recapture phase. D) There is a 50:50 ratio of males to females in the population before and after trapping and recapture.

E) Marked individuals have the same probability of being recaptured as unmarked individuals during the recapture phase. Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 51.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 51-1. Describe how individuals within populations are distributed geographically. 28) Why can't a female lizard have both high fecundity and high survival? A) In only rare cases, do lizards have both high fecundity and high survival. B) Female lizards are able to produce only one set of offspring. C) Competition for resources prevents this. D) The more energy the female devotes to offspring, the less that can be devoted to her survival. E) The female is already maximizing the number of eggs she lays, and if she attempts to nest later in the season, there will not be enough food for her young. Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 51.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 51-2. Graph and describe three general types of survivorship curves.

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Figure 51.8 29) Park Grass study in Rothamstead, UK is the longest-running biological experiment. A series of plots (~1/3 ha each) with uniform soil and vegetation have been treated either with fertilizer, lime, or left as controls. Annually, researchers record plant species present. Based on the graphs above, which species increased and maintained high population size?

A) Tragopogon pratensis B) Trifolium pratense C) Conopodium majus Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 51.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 51-5. Compare and contrast exponential and logistic population growth.

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30) Based on the graphs in the figure above from the Park Grass study, which species declines in population over time?

A) Tragopogon pratensis B) Trifolium pratense C) Conopodium majus D) All species populations decline at some point in time.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 51.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 51-5. Compare and contrast exponential and logistic population growth.

31) The regular fluctuations in size of animal populations are termed A) population cycles.

B) population dynamics.

C) growth factors.

D) all of the above.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 51.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 51-6. Describe the factors that drive population cycles in snowshoe hares.

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Figure 51.9 32) Which of the two graphs in the figure above shows a population of organisms that has a strong population cycle? A) (a) B) (b) C) both show identical cycles Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 51.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 51-6. Describe the factors that drive population cycles in snowshoe hares.

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33) Assuming graph (b) in Figure 51.8 is the result of some experimental treatment, what can be concluded?

A) The experimental treatment exacerbated the population cycling.

B) The experimental treatment did not affect population cycling in this species.

C) The experimental treatment has most likely identified the cause of population cycling.

D) None of the above answers applies.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 51.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 51-6. Describe the factors that drive population cycles in snowshoe hares.

34) Natural selection involves energetic trade-offs between A) choosing how many offspring to produce over the course of a lifetime and how long to live.

B) producing large numbers of gametes when employing internal fertilization versus fewer numbers of gametes when employing external fertilization.

C) the emigration of individuals when they are no longer reproductively capable or are committing suicide.

D) increasing the number of individuals produced during each reproductive episode and a corresponding decrease in parental care.

E) high survival rates of offspring and the cost of parental care.

Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 51.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 51-3. Describe the trade-off between survivorship and fecundity due to the limited availability of resources.

35) Which statements about K are correct?

I. K varies among populations.

II. K varies in space.

III. K varies in time.

IV. K is constant for any given species.

A) only I and III B) only II and IV C) only I, II, and III D) only II, III, and IV E) only I, II, and IV Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 51.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 51-5. Compare and contrast exponential and logistic population growth.

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36) What can we NOT determine from examining age pyramids of human populations?

A) the future population size B) how populations reproduce C) the success of future generations D) the fecundity of a future population E) the age structure of the population Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 51.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 51-7. Explain the impact of population age structure on human population growth.

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Figure 51.10 37) Based on the diagrams in the figure above and on the large population of baby boomers in Canada, what graph best reflects Canadian population in 20 years?

A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 51.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 51-7. Explain the impact of population age structure on human population growth.

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38) Projections for Earth's human population by 2050 that were made in 1992 were much higher than those made in 2002. Which of the following did NOT likely contribute to this change in projection?

A) Human fertility rates in developing countries have significantly decreased since 1992.

B) Deaths from AIDS have significantly increased since 1992.

C) The number of developed countries has significantly increased since 1992.

D) The birth rates in developed countries have decreased since 1992.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 51.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 51-7. Explain the impact of population age structure on human population growth.

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Figure 51.11 39) The figure above represents the dynamics of A) metapopulations.

B) extinction.

C) emigration.

D) both metapopulations and extinction.

E) both extinction and emigration.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 51.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 51-8. Explain the link between understanding population dynamics and applying the data to design effective management strategies for endangered species.

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40) Suppose researchers marked 800 turtles and later were able to trap a total of 300 individuals in that population, of which 150 were marked. What is the estimate for total population size? A) 1600 B) 530 C) 1000 D) 6000 Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Box 51.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 51-1. Describe how individuals within populations are distributed geographically.

41) Which of the following statements regarding the future of populations in developing countries is FALSE? A) Overall population size will increase dramatically.

B) Survivorship will increase.

C) The fecundity is predicted to increase.

D) The number of offspring each year is predicted to remain high.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 51.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 51-8. Explain the link between understanding population dynamics and applying the data to design effective management strategies for endangered species.

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Figure 51.12 42) What conclusion can you draw from the figure above?

A) Hares control lynx population size.

B) Lynx control hare population size.

C) Lynx and hare populations are independent of each other.

D) The relationship between the populations cannot be determined from this graph.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 51.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 51-6. Describe the factors that drive population cycles in snowshoe hares.

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Figure 51.13 43) Looking at the data in the figure above from the hare/lynx experiment, what conclusion can you draw?

A) Hares control lynx population size.

B) Lynx control hare population size.

C) Lynx and hare populations are independent of each other.

D) Hare populations are limited by both predation and food availability.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 51.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 51-6. Describe the factors that drive population cycles in snowshoe hares.

44) In 1987, there were only 22 condors (birds) in the wild because of habitat destruction ; all were brought to zoos and breeding centres for captive breeding. In 1991, the first condors were re-introduced into the wild. To determine if the population of wild California condors is increasing, which methods would best be suited to gathering condor population size/density information?

A) capture-mark-recapture B) direct counts from boats or planes C) quadrat sampling D) dispersal sampling Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Box 51.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 51-1. Describe how individuals within populations are distributed geographically.

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45) As N approaches K for a certain population, which of the following is predicted by the logistic equation?

A) The growth rate will not change.

B) The growth rate will approach zero.

C) The population will show an Allee effect.

D) The population will increase exponentially.

E) The carrying capacity of the environment will increase.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 51.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 51-5. Compare and contrast exponential and logistic population growth.

46) Which of the following could be a density-independent factor limiting human population growth?

A) Ebola infections B) earthquakes C) epidemic of measles D) famines Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 51.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 51-7. Explain the impact of population age structure on human population growth.

47) When the birth rate is equal to each woman producing exactly enough offspring to replace herself and her offspring's father, and the birth rate is sustained for a generation, then which of the following is correct?

A) r = 0, and there is zero population growth.

B) 0 < r < 1 C) r = 1 D) r > 1 E) Population size is at carrying capacity.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 51.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 51-7. Explain the impact of population age structure on human population growth.

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Use the following abstract from Theoretical Population Biology to answer the corresponding question(s).

Abstract: We derive measures for assessing the value of an individual habitat fragment for the dynamics and persistence of a metapopulation living in a network of many fragments. We demonstrate that the most appropriate measure of fragment value depends on the question asked. Specifically, we analyse four alternative measures: the contribution of a fragment to the metapopulation capacity of the network, to the equilibrium metapopulation size, to the expected time to metapopulation extinction and the long-term contribution of a fragment to colonization events in the network.

The latter measure is comparable to density-dependent measures in general matrix population theory, though some differences are introduced by the fact that "density dependence" is spatially localized in the metapopulation context. We show that the value of a fragment depends not only on the properties of the landscape but also on the properties of the species. Most importantly, variation in fragment values between the habitat fragments is greatest in the case of rare species that occur close to the extinction threshold, as these species are likely to be restricted to the most favorable parts of the landscape. We expect that the measures of habitat fragment described and analysed here have applications in landscape ecology and in conservation biology. Copyright © 2003 Elsevier Inc. All rights reserved. (Otso Ovaskainen and Ilkka Hanski. 2003. How much does an individual habitat fragment contribute to metapopulation dynamics and persistence?

Theoretical Population Biology 64:481-95.)

48) One measure for the value of the patch was given by the long-term contribution of a fragment to colonization events in the network. How do the properties of a landscape and the properties of a species affect the value of a patch?

A) The value of the fragment depends on the properties of the landscape and the properties of the species.

B) The value of the fragment depends only on the properties of the landscape and not on the properties of the species.

C) The value of the fragment depends not on the properties of the landscape but only on the properties of the species.

D) The value of the fragment depends on neither the properties of the landscape nor on the properties of the species.

Answer: A Explanation: The full article can be found at www.sciencedirect.com.

Type: MC Reference: Section 51.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 51-8. Explain the link between understanding population dynamics and applying the data to design effective management strategies for endangered species.

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49) Based on the information in the abstract, which of the following statements is the most correct?

A) If long-term contribution to colonization of a fragment increases, the metapopulation would destabilize.

B) If long-term contribution to colonization of a fragment decreases, the metapopulation would stabilize.

C) If long-term contribution to colonization of a fragment increases, the metapopulation would have more fragments.

D) If long-term contribution to colonization of a fragment decreases, the metapopulation would disappear.

E) If long-term contribution to colonization of a fragment increases, the metapopulation would grow exponentially.

Answer: C Explanation: The full article can be found at www.sciencedirect.com.

Type: MC Reference: Section 51.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 51-8. Explain the link between understanding population dynamics and applying the data to design effective management strategies for endangered species.

26

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition(Freeman Chapter 52 et Community al.)

Ecology 1) Some birds follow moving swarms of army ants in the tropics. As the ants march along the forest floor hunting insects and small vertebrates, birds follow and pick off any insects or small vertebrates that fly or jump out of the way of the ants. This is an example of what kind of species interaction? A) competition B) consumption C) commensalism D) parasitism E) mutualism Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 52.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 52-1. Describe and distinguish among various interactions among species, including commensalism, competition, consumption, and mutualism. 2) Some birds follow moving swarms of army ants in the tropics. As the ants march along the forest floor hunting insects and small vertebrates, birds follow and pick off any insects or small vertebrates that fly or jump out of the way of the ants. What is the specific benefit relationship? A) Birds benefit from the association, but have no impact on the ants. B) Birds benefit from the association and harm the ants. C) Birds and ants benefit from the association. D) Birds do not benefit from the association, but the ants do. E) Neither birds nor ants benefit from the association. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 52.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 52-1. Describe and distinguish among various interactions among species, including commensalism, competition, consumption, and mutualism.

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3) Refer to the grids below to answer the following question.

According to the Shannon Diversity Index, which of the five grids provided, with each one containing 36 squares, would show the greatest diversity?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 52.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 52-5. Compare several hypotheses for why species richness is higher in the tropics and lower toward the poles and explain the evidence that supports or challenges each hypothesis.

4) What is a likely reason for the observation that there are more species in tropical areas than in places more distant from the equator?

A) fewer predators B) more intense annual solar radiation C) more frequent ecological disturbances D) fewer agents of disease Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 52.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 52-5. Compare several hypotheses for why species richness is higher in the tropics and lower toward the poles and explain the evidence that supports or challenges each hypothesis.

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Figure 52.1 5) In looking at the figure above, what conclusions can be drawn? A) Both species eat all sizes of seeds. B) Both species compete for seeds of intermediate size. C) Both species compete for all sizes of seeds. D) Both species compete for all sizes of seeds other than those of intermediate size. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 52.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 52-2. Explain the importance of the niche concept to ecology. 6) According to the figure above, which species is more successful in competing for seeds? A) species 1 B) species 2 C) These species do not compete for seeds. D) This figure does not illustrate which species is more successful.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 52.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 52-2. Explain the importance of the niche concept to ecology.

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7) What is the main difference between asymmetric competition and symmetric competition?

A) One species is outcompeted completely in asymmetric competition.

B) Competition is barely measurable in symmetric competition.

C) The fitness reduction is roughly equal between each species in symmetric competition.

D) None of the above answers applies.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 52.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 52-1. Describe and distinguish among various interactions among species, including commensalism, competition, consumption, and mutualism.

8) The competitive exclusion principle states that A) it is not possible for two species with the same niche to coexist.

B) it is possible for two species with the same niche to coexist.

C) it is not possible for two species with different niches to coexist.

D) it is possible for two species with different niches to coexist.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 52.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 52-2. Explain the importance of the niche concept to ecology.

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Figure 52.2 9) What is the term used to describe the process shown in the panels in the figure above?

A) competition B) species interaction C) niche differentiation D) niche realization Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 52.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 52-2. Explain the importance of the niche concept to ecology.

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Figure 52.3 10) In the figure above, which species is the stronger competitor?

A) species 1 B) species 2 C) Both species compete equally.

D) It is not possible to tell from this figure.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 52.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 52-2. Explain the importance of the niche concept to ecology.

11) Which would be the best way to directly test the hypothesis that C. stellatus (a species of barnacle) is competitively excluded from the lower intertidal zone by B. balanoides (another species of barnacle)?

A) Place individuals of each species in a jar and see which species survives.

B) Remove all B. balanoides from the lower intertidal zone.

C) Transplant B. balanoides to the upper intertidal zone.

D) Clear rocks in an entire area and document recolonization events.

E) Remove all C. stellatus from the upper tidal zone.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 52.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 52-1. Describe and distinguish among various interactions among species, including commensalism, competition, consumption, and mutualism.

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12) In the hypothesis that C. stellatus (a species of barnacle) is competitively excluded from the lower intertidal zone by B. balanoides (another species of barnacle), what could be concluded about the two species? A) The fundamental and realized niches of B. balanoides and C. stellatus are both identical. B) The fundamental and realized niches of B. balanoides and C. stellatus are both different. C) The fundamental and realized niches of B. balanoides are different, but the fundamental and realized niches of C. stellatus are identical. D) The fundamental and realized niches of B. balanoides are identical, but the fundamental and realized niches of C. stellatus are different. Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 52.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 52-1. Describe and distinguish among various interactions among species, including commensalism, competition, consumption, and mutualism. 13) Which of the following is not a type of consumption? A) predation B) mutualism C) herbivory D) parasitism Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 52.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 52-1. Describe and distinguish among various interactions among species, including commensalism, competition, consumption, and mutualism. 14) While traveling in Texas, you stumble across a snake with red, yellow, and black bands. You somehow remember that this could be a poisonous coral snake or a harmless milk snake, but you forget how to differentiate them because they both have similar colours and banding patterns. You wisely decide not to pick up the snake. What defence was successful in preventing you from grabbing the snake? A) constitutive defence B) Müllerian mimicry C) Batesian mimicry D) inducible defences E) none of the above Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 52.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 52-1.

Describe and distinguish among various interactions among species, including commensalism, competition, consumption, and mutualism.

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Figure 52.4

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15) What conclusion can you draw from the figure above?

A) Without direct contact, mussels can sense the presence of crabs.

B) Mussels can sense the presence of crabs only visually.

C) Mussels are increasing their shell thickness in response to water current.

D) Shell thickness is a non-inducible defense.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 52.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 52-1. Describe and distinguish among various interactions among species, including commensalism, competition, consumption, and mutualism.

16) Based on the figure above, what result would you expect if you replaced the crabs with broken mussel shells?

A) the same result as the experiment with crabs B) no difference in shell thickness C) a higher degree of difference than the crab experiment D) impossible to hypothesize Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 53.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 52-1. Describe and distinguish among various interactions among species, including commensalism, competition, consumption, and mutualism.

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Figure 52.5 17) In the figure above, the labelled groups, which group is displaying Batesian mimicry? A) group A B) group B C) both groups A and B D) none of the above groups Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 52.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 52-1. Describe and distinguish among various interactions among species, including commensalism, competition, consumption, and mutualism. 18) In the figure above, which of the following statements is true? A) All of the species of insects shown are in the order Hymenoptera. B) There are no true mimics in the insects shown. C) All of the insects are displaying Batesian mimicry. D) Half of the insects shown are harmless. Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 52.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 52-1. Describe and distinguish among various interactions among species, including commensalism, competition, consumption, and mutualism.

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19) Which hypothesis supports the observation that herbivores do not generally eat all of the available plants?

A) top-down control hypothesis B) poor nutrition hypothesis C) plant-defence hypothesis D) a combination of all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 52.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 52-3. Distinguish between top-down and bottom-up factors affecting community structure.

20) Snails typically avoid sunlit areas, but some snails infected with certain parasites become attracted to light and prefer sunlit areas. Which of the following is the most likely hypothesis given the life cycles of many parasites?

A) The parasite itself must be exposed to light in order to survive in the snail.

B) The parasite manipulates the behaviour of the snail so that it gets eaten more readily, which allows the parasite to complete its life cycle.

C) The snail is behaving differently in order to rid itself of the parasite.

D) The snail is dying from the parasite and is therefore looking for the light.

E) The parasite must exit the snail in a sunlit area in order to move and find its next host.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 52.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 52-1. Describe and distinguish among various interactions among species, including commensalism, competition, consumption, and mutualism.

21) Which of the following is not an example of a mutualism?

A) fungi residing in plant roots, such as endomycorrhizae B) bacteria fixing nitrogen in plants C) rancher ants that protect aphids in exchange for sugar-rich honeydew D) birds eating insects jumping out of the path of army ants Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 52.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 52-1. Describe and distinguish among various interactions among species, including commensalism, competition, consumption, and mutualism.

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Figure 52.6 22) Treehoppers (a type of insect) produce honeydew, which ants use for food. Treehoppers have a major predator, the jumping spider. Researchers hypothesized that the ants would protect the treehoppers from the spiders. In an experiment, researchers followed study plots with ants removed from the system and compared them to a control plot. In the figure above, what can you conclude?

A) Ants do somehow protect the treehoppers from spiders.

B) Ants do not protect the treehoppers from spiders.

C) Ants reduce the numbers of treehoppers.

D) No specific conclusions can be drawn from this figure.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 52.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 52-1. Describe and distinguish among various interactions among species, including commensalism, competition, consumption, and mutualism.

23) During a one year study, researchers found no difference in treehopper populations in any of their control and experimental groups. What could they measure during the second year to gain information about why this might have occurred?

A) Measure the number of ant females.

B) Measure the relative sizes of the treehoppers.

C) Measure the relative abundance of jumping spiders.

D) Measure the success of treehoppers with a different ant species.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 52.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 52-1. Describe and distinguish among various interactions among species, including commensalism, competition, consumption, and mutualism.

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24) Which are the only two interaction types to depend on density and effective defence to determine the short-term impact?

A) competition and consumption B) consumption and parasitism C) parasitism and mutualism D) mutualism and commensalism Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 52.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 52-1. Describe and distinguish among various interactions among species, including commensalism, competition, consumption, and mutualism.

Figure 52.7 25) What does the graph in the figure above tell you about the definition of a keystone species?

A) A keystone species has little interaction with other species in an environment.

B) A keystone species removed from a community could have drastic effects.

C) A keystone species can be any species.

D) A keystone species added to a community can make it more robust.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 52.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 52-3. Distinguish between top-down and bottom-up factors affecting community structure.

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26) Clements's view of biological communities is that of a highly predictable and interrelated structure, while Gleason's view of biological communities is that individual species operate independently. If we set up many identical sterilized ponds in the same area and allowed them to be colonized, what should we predict if Gleason's hypothesis is the one we believe is correct?

A) Identical plankton communities will develop in all ponds.

B) Similar plankton communities will develop in all ponds.

C) Different plankton communities will develop in all ponds.

D) Limited plankton communities will develop in all ponds.

Answer: C Explanation: This question can be revised to describe a different experiment to make it more challenging.

Type: MC Reference: Section 52.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 52-4. Explain why a biological community is primarily a function of climate and chance historical events.

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Figure 52.8 27) Clements's view of biological communities is that of a highly predictable and interrelated structure, while Gleason's view of biological communities is that individual species operate independently. Looking at the results in the figure above, which hypothesis (by Clements or Gleason) is supported by the data?

A) Clements B) Gleason C) both D) neither Answer: C Explanation: This question can also be used with a different experimental setup and results.

Type: MC Reference: Section 52.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 52-4. Explain why a biological community is primarily a function of climate and chance historical events.

15 ..

28) What is the main difference between a disturbance and a disturbance regime? A) A disturbance regime includes defining the predictable frequency and severity of the disturbance. B) A disturbance regime includes defining the length of the disturbance. C) A disturbance regime is a more specific type of disturbance. D) They are essentially the same thing. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 52.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 52-4. Explain why a biological community is primarily a function of climate and chance historical events.

29) Which one of the following animals would most likely be defined as a keystone species?

A) sea otter B) housefly C) fathead minnow D) nauplii (a species of zooplankton) Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 52.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 52-3. Distinguish between top-down and bottom-up factors affecting community structure.

30) A measure of how much a community is affected by a disturbance is termed A) resilience.

B) resistance.

C) stability.

D) primary productivity.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 52.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 52-4. Explain why a biological community is primarily a function of climate and chance historical events.

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31) During succession, tall canopies of maple trees form allowing chipmunks to be better hidden against hawks. This is an example of A) interaction.

B) tolerance.

C) inhibition.

D) facilitation.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 52.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 52-4. Explain why a biological community is primarily a function of climate and chance historical events.

Figure 52.9 32) In the figure above, which community has the highest species richness? A) community 1 B) community 2 C) community 3 D) community 4 Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 52.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 52-5. Compare several hypotheses for why species richness is higher in the tropics and lower toward the poles and explain the evidence that supports or challenges each hypothesis.

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33) In the figure above, which community has the highest species diversity? A) community 1 B) community 2 C) community 3 D) community 4 Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 52.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 52-5.

Compare several hypotheses for why species richness is higher in the tropics and lower toward the poles and explain the evidence that supports or challenges each hypothesis.

Figure 52.10 34) In figure above, what can be stated about species diversity and latitude?

A) As latitude increases, diversity decreases.

B) As latitude decreases, diversity decreases.

C) Species diversity is independent of latitude.

D) Species diversity and latitude cannot be compared using this figure.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 52.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 52-5. Compare several hypotheses for why species richness is higher in the tropics and lower toward the poles and explain the evidence that supports or challenges each hypothesis.

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Figure 52.11 35) Which of the following statements regarding the figure above is true?

A) Immigration rates are higher on smaller islands.

B) Extinction rates are highest on large islands close to the mainland.

C) Species richness should be higher on larger islands close to mainland.

D) Species diversity should be highest on larger islands away from mainland.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 52.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 52-6. Explain why species richness is higher on large islands near a mainland than on small, isolated islands.

36) According to Figure 52.11, a species has the highest chance of extinction when A) the island is large and close to the mainland.

B) the island is small and close to the mainland.

C) the island is large and remote.

D) the island is small and remote.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 52.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 52-6. Explain why species richness is higher on large islands near a mainland than on small, isolated islands.

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37) In a particular case of secondary succession, three species of wild grass all invaded a field.

By the second season, a single species dominated the field. What is a possible factor in this secondary succession?

A) equilibrium B) facilitation C) immigration D) inhibition E) parasitism Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 52.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 52-4. Explain why a biological community is primarily a function of climate and chance historical events.

38) According to bottom-up and top-down control models of community organization, which of the following expressions would imply that an increase in the size of a carnivore (C) population would negatively impact its prey (P) population, but not vice versa?

A) P ← C B) P → C C) C ↔ P D) P ← C → P E) C ← P → Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 52.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 52-3. Distinguish between top-down and bottom-up factors affecting community structure.

39) Elephants are not the most dominant species in African grasslands, yet they influence community structure. The grasslands contain scattered woody plants, but they are kept in check by the uprooting activities of the elephants. Take away the elephants, and the grasslands convert to forests or to shrublands. The newly growing forests support fewer species than the previous grasslands. Which of the following describes why elephants are the keystone species in this scenario?

A) Elephants exhibit a disproportionate influence on the structure of the community relative to their abundance.

B) Grazing animals depend upon the elephants to convert forests to grasslands.

C) Elephants prevent drought in African grasslands.

D) Elephants are the biggest herbivore in this community.

E) Elephants help other populations survive by keeping out many of the large African predators.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 52.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 52-3. Distinguish between top-down and bottom-up factors affecting community structure.

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Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition (Freeman et al.)

Chapter 53 Ecosystems and Global Ecology

Figure 53.1 1) How are the components in the figure above linked by the flow of energy?

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A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 53.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 53-1. Explain how energy flows from producers to consumers to decomposers in a food web.

2) When primary producers expend energy to build new tissue, this is A) net primary productivity.

B) the amount of energy available to consumers.

C) maintenance costs.

D) Both A and B E) Both B and C Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 53.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 53-1. Explain how energy flows from producers to consumers to decomposers in a food web.

3) Which of the following consume other living organisms?

A) primary producers B) herbivores C) carnivores D) decomposers E) Both B and C Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 53.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 53-1. Explain how energy flows from producers to consumers to decomposers in a food web.

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Figure 53.3 4) In the figure above, how is net primary productivity represented?

A) organized by biome B) organized by geography C) organized by region D) randomly organized Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 53.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 53-3. Describe the factors that limit productivity in aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems.

5) Which habitat type in the figure above covers the largest area on Earth?

A) tropical wet forest B) open ocean C) algal beds and reefs D) wetlands Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 53.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 53-3. Describe the factors that limit productivity in aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems.

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6) Which habitat type in the figure above makes available the most new tissue to consumers?

A) tropical wet forest B) open ocean C) algal beds and reefs D) wetlands Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 53.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 53-1 & 3. Explain how energy flows from producers to consumers to decomposers in a food web. Describe the factors that limit productivity in aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems.

7) Which category in the figure above makes available the highest productivity per square meter?

A) tropical wet forest B) open ocean C) algal beds and reefs D) wetlands Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 53.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 53-1 & 3. Explain how energy flows from producers to consumers to decomposers in a food web. Describe the factors that limit productivity in aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems.

8) Which terrestrial category in the figure above has the highest economic impact on Earth's ecosystem?

A) tropical wet forest B) rock, sand, and ice C) tropical seasonal forest D) bogs Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 53.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 53-1 & 3. Explain how energy flows from producers to consumers to decomposers in a food web. Describe the factors that limit productivity in aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems.

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9) What is the leading hypothesis as to why terrestrial productivity is higher in equatorial climates?

A) Productivity increases with temperature.

B) Productivity increases with water availability.

C) Productivity increases with available sunlight.

D) Hypothesis is most likely a combination of the other answers.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 53.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 53-3. Describe the factors that limit productivity in aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems.

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Figure 53.4 10) After looking at the experiment in the figure above, what can be said about productivity in marine ecosystems?

A) Nothing can be said based on this information.

B) Marine organisms break down iron for energy and thus for productivity.

C) Iron can be a limiting nutrient in productivity.

D) Productivity increases when chlorophyll a is added.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 53.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 53-3. Describe the factors that limit productivity in aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems.

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11) Detritus can be consumed by which of the following primary decomposers?

A) bacteria B) archaea C) fungi D) earthworms E) all of the above Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 53.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 53-1. Explain how energy flows from producers to consumers to decomposers in a food web.

12) What is the main reason for using food webs instead of food chains in analyzing ecosystems?

A) Most organisms eat more than one type of food.

B) Most organisms feed at several trophic levels.

C) The decomposition cycle needs to be shown.

D) Answers A and B both apply.

E) All of the above answers apply.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 53.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 53-1. Explain how energy flows from producers to consumers to decomposers in a food web.

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Figure 53.5 13) After looking at the figure above, what can be said about productivity in this ecosystem? A) Nothing can be said based on this information. B) Between 80 and 90% of the energy is lost at the next highest trophic level. C) Between 10 and 20% of the energy is lost at the next highest trophic level. D) Productivity increases with each trophic level.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 53.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 53-1. Explain how energy flows from producers to consumers to decomposers in a food web. 14) Why is energy lost when herbivores eat primary producers? A) Primary producers have energy stored in indigestible substances.

B) Primary producers cannot produce once eaten. C) Digestion takes place so rapidly that very little energy is absorbed. D) Most primary producers contain no usable energy for herbivores. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 53.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 53-1. Explain how energy flows from producers to consumers to decomposers in a food web.

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15) Which statement best describes what ultimately happens to the chemical energy that is NOT converted to new biomass in the process of energy transfer between trophic levels in an ecosystem?

A) It is undigested and winds up in the feces and is not passed on to higher trophic levels.

B) It is used by organisms to maintain their life processes through the reactions of cellular respiration.

C) Heat produced by cellular respiration is used by heterotrophs for thermoregulation.

D) It is eliminated as feces or is dissipated into space as heat, consistent with the second law of thermodynamics.

E) It is recycled by decomposers to smaller and smaller forms until it finally breaks down to form soil.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 53.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 53-1. Explain how energy flows from producers to consumers to decomposers in a food web.

16) If the flow of energy in an arctic ecosystem goes through a simple food chain, perhaps involving humans, starting from phytoplankton to zooplankton to fish to seals to polar bears, then which of the following could be true?

A) Polar bears can provide more food for humans than seals can.

B) The total biomass of the fish is lower than that of the seals.

C) Seal meat probably contains the lowest concentrations of fat-soluble toxins.

D) Seal populations are larger than fish populations.

E) Fish can potentially provide more food for humans than seal meat.

Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 53.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 53-1. Explain how energy flows from producers to consumers to decomposers in a food web.

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17) Which of the following is a consequence of biomagnification?

A) Toxic chemicals in the environment pose greater risk to top-level predators than to primary consumers.

B) Populations of top-level predators are generally smaller than populations of primary consumers.

C) The biomass of producers in an ecosystem is generally higher than the biomass of primary consumers.

D) Only a small portion of the energy captured by producers is transferred to consumers.

E) The amount of biomass in the producer level of an ecosystem decreases if the producer turnover time increases.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 53.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 53-2. Describe the process of biomagnification and explain how persistent toxins can increase in concentration at higher trophic levels.

18) Why are changes in the global carbon cycle important?

I. Burning reduces available carbon for primary producers and, therefore, primary consumers.

II. Deforestation and suburbanization reduce an area's net primary productivity.

III. Increasing atmospheric concentrations of carbon dioxide could alter Earth's climate.

IV. By using fossil fuels, we are destroying a nonrenewable resource.

A) only I and III B) only II and IV C) only I, II, and IV D) only II, III, and IV E) only I, II, III, and IV Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 53.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 53-4. Describe the major reservoirs of various nutrient cycles and the processes that move elements from one reservoir to another.

19) At the Hubbard Brook Experimental Forest in New Hampshire, how did large amounts of energy leave the decomposer food web?

A) Energy was lost through incomplete decomposition.

B) Detritus was washed away into streams during heavy rain.

C) Detritus was sublimated by increased solar radiation.

D) Large numbers of decomposers emigrated from the area.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 53.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 53-1. Explain how energy flows from producers to consumers to decomposers in a food web.

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20) You own 300 acres of patchy temperate forest. Which one of the following actions would increase the net primary productivity of the area the most?

A) adding fertilizer to the entire area B) introducing 100 rabbits into the area C) planting 500 new trees D) relocating all the deer found in the area Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 53.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 53-1 & 3. Explain how energy flows from producers to consumers to decomposers in a food web. Describe the factors that limit productivity in aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems.

21) What do researchers typically focus on when they study a particular biogeochemical cycle?

A) the nature and size of the reservoirs B) the rate of element movement between reservoirs C) interaction of the current cycle with other cycles D) Both A and B E) Both B and C Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 53.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 53-4. Describe the major reservoirs of various nutrient cycles and the processes that move elements from one reservoir to another.

22) Regarding soil and organic matter in humus, which of the following statements is true?

A) Humus is composed of inorganic nutrients, and organic matter is composed only of organic matter.

B) Soil organic matter is completely decayed.

C) Completely decayed soil organic matter is called humus.

D) Eventually, the nutrients in soil organic matter are converted to organic form.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 53.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 53-4. Describe the major reservoirs of various nutrient cycles and the processes that move elements from one reservoir to another.

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23) Which of the following most often controls the rate of nutrient cycling in ecosystems?

A) rate of decomposition of detritus B) primary productivity C) secondary productivity D) Both B and C Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 53.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 53-5. Explain how nutrient addition by humans is causing pollution.

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Figure 53.6 24) After looking at the experiment in the figure above, what can be said about nutrient export in ecosystems?

A) Nutrient export is typically 10 times lower in a clear-cut watershed.

B) Nutrient export is typically 10 times higher in a clear-cut watershed.

C) Nutrient export is typically 10 times higher in an uncut watershed.

D) Nutrient export is not affected by any form of cutting.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 53.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 53-4. Describe the major reservoirs of various nutrient cycles and the processes that move elements from one reservoir to another.

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25) Based on the experiment in the figure above, all of the following are plausible reasons for the result EXCEPT that A) nutrients evaporate now that vegetation is absent.

B) nutrients dissolve in the water running through the watershed.

C) nutrients are attached to small particles of sand or clay that leave the watershed.

D) plant roots that held soil particles in place are no longer there.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 53.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 53-4. Describe the major reservoirs of various nutrient cycles and the processes that move elements from one reservoir to another.

Figure 53.7 26) Considering the global water cycle depicted in the figure above, where does one find the largest amount of water changing phases?

A) groundwater runoff to oceans B) movement of water vapor from ocean to land C) evaporation/transpiration and precipitation over land D) evaporation and precipitation over the oceans Answer: A Explanation: Instructors may want to omit the figure to make this question harder.

Type: MC Reference: Section 53.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 53-4. Describe the major reservoirs of various nutrient cycles and the processes that move elements from one reservoir to another.

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27) Which of the following human activities is impacting the water cycle the least?

A) increase in asphalt and concrete surfaces B) conversion of grasslands and forests into agricultural fields C) increased processing of salt water to freshwater D) increases in irrigated agriculture Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 53.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 53-5. Explain how nutrient addition by humans is causing pollution.

28) Considering the global carbon cycle, where is the largest reservoir of carbon?

A) terrestrial ecosystems B) oceans C) atmosphere D) beneath the surface of the Earth Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 53.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 53-4. Describe the major reservoirs of various nutrient cycles and the processes that move elements from one reservoir to another.

29) Considering the global carbon cycle, where are humans having a large impact?

A) terrestrial ecosystems B) oceans C) atmosphere D) beneath the surface of the Earth E) Both A and C Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 53.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 53-5. Explain how nutrient addition by humans is causing pollution.

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30) Why are changes in the global carbon cycle important?

A) Carbon is the chief source of food, and burning it reduces available food for primary consumers.

B) Global carbon availability is directly related to the water cycle.

C) Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas, and increasing atmospheric concentrations could alter Earth's climate.

D) Carbon can be recycled only a limited number of times.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 53.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 53-4. Describe the major reservoirs of various nutrient cycles and the processes that move elements from one reservoir to another.

Figure 53.8 31) Considering the global nitrogen cycle depicted in the figure above, what is the limiting portion of the cycle for plants?

A) industrial nitrogen fixation B) nitrogen lost to the atmosphere C) internal nitrogen cycling in the oceans D) nitrogen fixation by bacteria Answer: D Explanation: Instructors may want to omit the figure to make this question harder.

Type: MC Reference: Section 53.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 53-4. Describe the major reservoirs of various nutrient cycles and the processes that move elements from one reservoir to another.

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32) Considering the global nitrogen cycle, how are humans altering this cycle?

A) industrial nitrogen fixation B) nitrogen lost to the atmosphere C) reduction of nitrogen available to terrestrial ecosystems D) reduction of nitrogen fixation by bacteria Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 53.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 53-5. Explain how nutrient addition by humans is causing pollution.

33) Which of the following is not a source of human-fixed nitrogen?

A) industrially produced fertilizers B) cultivation of soybeans C) combustion of fossil fuels D) irrigation agriculture Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 53.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 53-5. Explain how nutrient addition by humans is causing pollution.

34) How much nitrogen is fixed from human processes?

A) It is equal to the amount fixed by natural means.

B) It is about half that fixed by natural means.

C) It is about double that fixed by natural means.

D) We cannot calculate this value.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 53.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 53-5. Explain how nutrient addition by humans is causing pollution.

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Figure 53.9 35) Upon looking at the figure above, what can be concluded?

A) Residents in colder climates use more energy per person.

B) Residents of industrialized countries use more energy per person.

C) Residents of more populated countries use more energy per person.

D) English-speaking countries tend to use more energy per person.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 53.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 53-6. Explain how burning of fossil fuels has led to rapid global warming.

36) Based on the figure above, and given the populations of the following countries, which country uses the most oil overall?

A) United States (population = 300 million) B) Canada (population = 33 million) C) China (population = 1.32 billion) D) Russia (population = 142 million) E) United Kingdom (population = 60 million) Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 53.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 53-6. Explain how burning of fossil fuels has led to rapid global warming.

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37) Considering the current scientific literature on global warming, which statement best summarizes the most recent findings?

A) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change concluded that carbon dioxide is the sole cause of global warming.

B) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change concluded that the evidence for global warming is unequivocal and that it is very likely due to human-induced changes in greenhouse gases.

C) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change concluded that current evidence suggests that most of the warming over the past 50 years is attributable to human activities.

D) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change concluded that current evidence suggests no link between human activity and climate change.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 53.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 53-6. Explain how burning of fossil fuels has led to rapid global warming.

38) Which of the following could be a cause of eutrophication?

A) adding a large amount of a limiting resource to an aquatic ecosystem B) adding a large amount of a limiting resource to a terrestrial ecosystem C) removing a limiting resource from an aquatic ecosystem D) removing a limiting resource from a terrestrial ecosystem Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 53.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 53-5. Explain how nutrient addition by humans is causing pollution.

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39) Use the following graph and information to answer the question below.

Flycatcher birds that migrate from Africa to Europe feed their nestlings a diet that is almost exclusively moth caterpillars. The graph shows the mean dates of arrival, bird hatching, and peak caterpillar season for the years 1980 and 2000.

What is the shift in the peak of caterpillar season most likely due to?

A) pesticide use B) earlier migration returns of flycatchers C) an innate change in the biological clock of the caterpillars D) global warming E) acid precipitation in Europe Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 53.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 53-7. Describe several ways that climate change affects organisms, citing examples.

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Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s).

Abstract: Increased radiative forcing is an inevitable part of global climate change, yet little is known of its potential effects on the energy fluxes in natural ecosystems. To simulate the conditions of global warming, we exposed peat monoliths (depth, 0.6 cm; surface area, 2.1 m2) from a bog and fen in northern Minnesota, USA, to three infrared (IR) loading (ambient, +45, and +90 W m-2) and three water table (-16, -20, and -29 cm in bog and -1, -10 and -18 cm in fen) treatments, each replicated in three mesocosm plots. Net radiation (Rn) and soil energy fluxes at the top, bottom, and sides of the mesocosms were measured in 1999, five years after the treatments had begun.

Soil heat flux (G) increased proportionately with IR loading, comprising about 3%-8% of Rn. In the fen, the effect of IR loading on G was modulated by water table depth, whereas in the bog, it was not. Energy dissipation from the mesocosms occurred mainly via vertical exchange with air, as well as the deeper soil layers through the bottom of the mesocosms, whereas lateral fluxes were 10- to 20-fold smaller and independent of IR loading and water table depth. The exchange with deeper soil layers was sensitive to water table depth, in contrast to G, which responded primarily to IR loading. The qualitative responses in the bog and fen were similar, but the fen displayed wider seasonal variations and greater extremes in soil energy fluxes. The differences of G in the bog and fen are attributed to differences in the reflectance in the long waveband as a function of vegetation type, whereas the differences in soil heat storage may also depend on different soil properties and different water table depth at comparable treatments. These data suggest that the ecosystem-dependent controls over soil energy fluxes may provide an important constraint on biotic response to climate change. Copyright © 2004 Springer-Verlag (A. Noormets et al. 2004. The effects of infrared loading and water table on soil energy fluxes in northern peatlands. Ecosystems 7:573-582.)

40) The Noormets et al. study (2004) shows that there was an ecosystem-specific control over soil energy fluxes, and this constrained the biotic response to climate change. How do you think radiative heat would affect the water table in a wetland versus a temperate forest?

A) The wetland would likely absorb less heat than the temperate forest and therefore not significantly change water table depth.

B) The wetland would likely absorb more heat than the temperate forest and significantly change water table depth.

C) The temperate forest would likely absorb more heat than the wetland and significantly change water table depth.

D) Both areas would absorb similar amounts of radiative heat and therefore affect the water table equally.

Answer: B Explanation: More background material from the paper could be used to set up the question and reduce the amount of interpretation and difficulty.

Type: MC Reference: Section 53.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 53-6. Explain how burning of fossil fuels has led to rapid global warming.

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41) Once heat is transferred to the soil, where does it go afterward (Noormets et al. 2004)?

A) The heat is emitted back to the atmosphere.

B) The heat is transferred to other soil layers.

C) The heat stored in the soil.

D) The heat is both emitted back to the atmosphere and transferred to other soil layers.

E) The heat is emitted back to the atmosphere, transferred to other soil layers, and stored in the soil.

Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 53.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 53-6. Explain how burning of fossil fuels has led to rapid global warming.

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Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition (Freeman et al.)

Chapter 54 Biodiversity and Conservation Biology 1) If the last remaining population of a particular bird species were all highly related, which type of diversity would be of greatest concern when planning to keep the species from going extinct?

A) genetic diversity B) species diversity C) ecosystem diversity D) Both A and B E) Both B and C Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 54.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 54-1. Describe the three levels at which biodiversity is quantified.

2) Which of the following is the true statement regarding species diversity and taxonomic diversity?

A) Species diversity measures the relative frequency of all alleles present in a species.

B) In taxonomic diversity, the evolutionary relationships of species in a lineage are important.

C) In species diversity, the numbers of animals in a particular lineage is important.

D) The variety of species in a given area represents taxonomic diversity.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 54.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 54-1. Describe the three levels at which biodiversity is quantified.

3) In a debate about the destruction of tropical wet forests, the arguments keep focussing on biodiversity and how this affects the animals themselves, as well as the ecosystem. What is one direct benefit of biodiversity to humans that you can argue to help people understand why these forests need to be preserved?

A) This diversity could contain undocumented insect species.

B) The areas could be visited by tourists for profit.

C) The diversity could contain novel drugs for consumers.

D) The diversity could contain a new crop plant for agriculture.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 54.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 54-1. Describe the three levels at which biodiversity is quantified.

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4) How can biodiversity affect the way we decontaminate industrial sites?

A) Bacteria have been found to be able to detoxify certain chemicals; perhaps there are more.

B) Trees produce sawdust, which can be used to soak up chemicals.

C) Species evolving in contaminated areas could adapt and detoxify the area.

D) None of the answers given is correct.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 54.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 54-1. Describe the three levels at which biodiversity is quantified.

5) Ecosystems services include processes that increase the quality of the abiotic environment.

Which of the following processes would not fall under this category?

A) Keystone predators have a marked effect on species diversity.

B) Green plants produce the oxygen we breathe.

C) The presence of land plants builds soil.

D) The presence of diverse wetlands helps in flood control.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 54.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 54-3. Define the term ecosystem services and explain how humans are dependent on biodiversity.

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Figure 54.1 Dogs ~43 Bears ~19 Seals ~36 Red Panda ~1 Skunks ~13 Raccoons ~15 Badgers ~10 Weasels ~38 Otters ~8 6) According to the figure above, which of the following groups is particularly important to preserve? A) Dogs B) Red Panda C) Raccoons D) Weasels Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 54.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 54-1. Describe the three levels at which biodiversity is quantified. 7) Why is it important to preserve the tuataras (see Figure 54.1)? A) The group has very few representatives of its lineage. B) The group is particularly sensitive to environmental disturbances. C) The group has low genetic diversity. D) The group is economically important. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 54.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 54-1. Describe the three levels at which biodiversity is quantified.

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8) Environmental sequencing has brought to light what crucial finding?

A) Genetic diversity is highest in the most complex ecosystems.

B) Genetic diversity is very difficult to detect in small ecosystems.

C) Even the world's simplest ecosystems contain an enormous amount of genetic diversity.

D) Individual diversity is as important as ecosystem diversity.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 54.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 54-1. Describe the three levels at which biodiversity is quantified.

9) Approximately how many species have we described out of the species alive today?

A) We have described about half of the species on Earth.

B) We have described almost all of the species on Earth.

C) Apart from the tropics, we have described almost all the species on Earth.

D) We have described only a small fraction of the species on Earth.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 54.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 54-1. Describe the three levels at which biodiversity is quantified.

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Figure 54.2 10) By knowing the interrelatedness of various snake species, the type of antivenom can be chosen depending on the species involved in the bite. Based on Figure 54.2, which snake antivenom would you administer to a person bitten by an Australian copperhead?

A) taipan B) common brown snake C) red-bellied black snake D) death adder E) tiger snake Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 54.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 54-1. Describe the three levels at which biodiversity is quantified.

11) Based on Figure 54.2, what snake antivenom would you administer to a person bitten by a king brown snake?

A) taipan B) common brown snake C) red-bellied black snake D) death adder E) tiger snake Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 54.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 54-1. Describe the three levels at which biodiversity is quantified.

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12) Based on how you would go about measuring biodiversity, which of the following is true?

A) Bacteria are among the easiest to count regarding numbers of different species.

B) Species in the tropics are much easier to study than species in other biomes.

C) The easiest animals to study are the insects.

D) The most intensively studied lineages are vertebrates.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 54.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 54-1. Describe the three levels at which biodiversity is quantified.

13) During the inventory of bacterial genes present in the Sargasso Sea, a research team concluded that at least 1800 bacterial species were discovered. Based on what you know about this area, what would expect to see in coral reef waters?

A) slightly greater genetic diversity B) slightly smaller genetic diversity C) equal genetic diversity D) markedly greater genetic diversity E) markedly smaller genetic diversity Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 54.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 54-1. Describe the three levels at which biodiversity is quantified.

14) Philippe Bouchet and colleagues conducted a massive survey of marine molluscs on the west coast of New Caledonia. Twenty percent of the species found were represented by a single specimen. What does that suggest about the diversity of molluscs in this area?

A) There are only a few species of molluscs in the area.

B) They did not look very hard for those 20 percent.

C) Many of the species from this 20 percent are probably rare.

D) Most of the species from this 20 percent are quite common.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 54.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 54-1. Describe the three levels at which biodiversity is quantified.

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15) Erwin and Scott used an insecticidal fog to knock down insects from the top of a L. seemannii tree. The researchers identified over 900 species of beetles among the individuals that fell. Erwin also projected that this entire tree is host to about 600 specialist arthropods. There are approximately 50,000 species of tropical trees. Although it could not be entirely accurate, what would be the best way to estimate the total number of arthropod species?

A) Estimate the species density and then multiply by 50,000.

B) Multiply 900 by 50,000.

C) Multiply 600 by 50,000.

D) Divide 900 by 600 and then multiply by 50,000.

Answer: C Explanation: Numbers could be changed as well as the insect order to increase the difficulty, although this would make the question more fictional unless data were actually looked up.

Type: MC Reference: Section 54.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 54-1. Describe the three levels at which biodiversity is quantified.

16) While travelling in the Alps, you come across a butterfly that you cannot identify. You quickly find out that it is a new species. Which of the following is NOT a step in understanding the biodiversity of this new species?

A) naming and describing the species B) measuring general physiology of the species C) looking at what other species are related to the new species D) assessing the species' geographic range E) understanding the species' ecology Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 54.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 54-1. Describe the three levels at which biodiversity is quantified.

17) With regard to the destruction of tropical forests, the focus is often on biodiversity and the impact on these ecosystems. What is a direct compelling benefit to humans that helps explain why these forests need to be preserved?

A) This diversity could contain undocumented insect species.

B) Natural and undisturbed areas are important wildlife habitats.

C) The diversity could contain novel drugs for consumers.

D) The plant diversity provides shade, which reduces the impact of global warming.

E) These forests produce goods for consumers such as avocado and macadamia nuts.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 54.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 54-3. Define the term ecosystem services and explain how humans are dependent on biodiversity.

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Figure 54.3 18) Upon looking at Figure 54.3 regarding Tilman's experiments, what can you conclude about the data?

A) As species richness changes, plant biomass remains consistent.

B) As species richness increases, plant biomass increases.

C) As species richness increases, plant biomass increases and then levels off.

D) As species richness decreases, plant biomass increases.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 54.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 54-1. Describe the three levels at which biodiversity is quantified.

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Figure 54.4 19) Hypothesis: Productivity increases with species richness because certain species or functional groups facilitate the growth of other species by providing them with nutrients, partial shade, or other benefits. In looking at the data in Figure 54.4, how would you relate it to this hypothesis?

A) The hypothesis is supported.

B) The hypothesis is partially supported.

C) The hypothesis is rejected.

D) The hypothesis is proven.

E) The data do not relate to the hypothesis given.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 54.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 54-1. Describe the three levels at which biodiversity is quantified.

20) Which one of the following is likely not a hotspot for birds?

A) Amazon River basin B) East Africa C) Southwest China D) Southwest United States Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 54.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 54-1. Describe the three levels at which biodiversity is quantified.

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21) Which of the following statements regarding species diversity is FALSE? A) More than 99% of the species known to science are now extinct.

B) As much as 20% of the world's biodiversity will be lost during the next 50 years.

C) Through agriculture, humans have actually increased the number of plant species.

D) About 85 mammal species and 113 species of birds have become extinct in the last 400 years.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 54.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 54-1. Describe the three levels at which biodiversity is quantified.

Figure 54.5 22) According to the figure above, what is occurring after 1985?

A) The population is increasing exponentially.

B) The population is increasing.

C) The population growth rate is increasing.

D) The sheep are climbing a hill.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 54.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 54-1. Describe the three levels at which biodiversity is quantified.

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23) According to the figure above, what is the least likely explanation for the data after 1985?

A) emigration B) immigration C) introduction of new individuals to the population D) increased resources in the area Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 54.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 54-1. Describe the three levels at which biodiversity is quantified.

24) Which of the following statements regarding extinction is FALSE? A) Only certain species are immune from extinction.

B) Species are vanishing today faster than at any other time in Earth's history.

C) Extinction occurs whether humans interfere or not.

D) Extinctions can even be caused indirectly by humans.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 54.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 54-2. Identify the major threats to biodiversity and evaluate the evidence suggesting loss is occurring on a wide scale.

25) During the inventory of bacterial genes present in the Sargasso Sea in the middle of the Atlantic Ocean, a research team concluded that at least 1800 bacterial species were discovered.

Based on what you know about this area, what would you expect to see in coral reef waters?

A) slightly greater genetic diversity B) slightly smaller genetic diversity C) equal genetic diversity D) markedly greater genetic diversity E) markedly smaller genetic diversity Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 54.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 54-2. Identify the major threats to biodiversity and evaluate the evidence suggesting loss is occurring on a wide scale.

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26) Which of the following is a cultural service of ecosystems?

A) soil formation B) climate moderation C) nutrient cycling D) providing genetic resources E) education Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 54.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 54-3. Define the term ecosystem services and explain how humans are dependent on biodiversity.

27) A land developer is arguing with a group of ecologists. Of course the land developer wants the most land possible for building houses, but has to compromise by saving some land for animal habitat. The land developer offers 20 hectares in evenly distributed but isolated 1-hectare portions. The ecologists keep arguing for one 20 hectare area to remain intact. Why are the ecologists making this proposal?

A) There really is no difference; they should both work equally well.

B) The isolated hectare plots are better because they spread out the habitat.

C) The isolated plots are more vulnerable to edge effects.

D) The large plot will create more inbreeding in many species.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 54.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 54-2. Identify the major threats to biodiversity and evaluate the evidence suggesting loss is occurring on a wide scale.

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Figure 54.6 28) In looking at the figure above, what can be said about edge effects?

A) Biomass declines sharply along edges of forest fragments.

B) Biomass increases along the edges of forest fragments.

C) Species diversity decreases along the edges of forest fragments.

D) Fragmentation does not affect biomass.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 54.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 54-2. Identify the major threats to biodiversity and evaluate the evidence suggesting loss is occurring on a wide scale.

29) The main focus in combating loss of biodiversity is A) habitat fragmentation.

B) habitat destruction.

C) industrialization.

D) transportation.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 54.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 54-2. Identify the major threats to biodiversity and evaluate the evidence suggesting loss is occurring on a wide scale.

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Figure 54.7 30) In looking at the species-area plot in the figure above, what can be concluded?

A) Number of bird species increases linearly with island area.

B) Number of bird species is different on various islands.

C) Diversity is independent from island area.

D) Number of bird species increases exponentially with island area.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 54.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 54-2. Identify the major threats to biodiversity and evaluate the evidence suggesting loss is occurring on a wide scale.

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31) Based on the species-area plot in the figure above, if habitable area on an island were reduced from 10,000 km2 to 1,000 km2, roughly what percentage of the species would disappear?

A) 0.3% B) 3% C) 30% D) 60% Answer: C Explanation: Different graphs and different numbers can be substituted to increase the variety of calculations.

Type: MC Reference: Section 54.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 54-2. Identify the major threats to biodiversity and evaluate the evidence suggesting loss is occurring on a wide scale.

32) Researchers have been studying a rare population of 87 voles in an isolated area. Ten voles from a larger population were added to this isolated population. Besides having 10 additional animals, what benefits are there to importing individuals?

A) Additional animals from a distant population will likely bring genetic diversity and reduce inbreeding depression.

B) Additional animals will bring additional competition and could hurt the population.

C) Additional animals would increase beneficial genetic drift.

D) There is no benefit other than increasing the overall population size.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 54.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 54-2. Identify the major threats to biodiversity and evaluate the evidence suggesting loss is occurring on a wide scale.

33) Which of the following have an impact on decisions about humans mitigating the extinctions and damages to ecosystem services?

I. moral issues II. economic problems III. biological problems A) I and II only B) II and III only C) III only D) I, II, and III Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 54.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 54-3. Define the term ecosystem services and explain how humans are dependent on biodiversity.

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34) You discover, in your massive 2000-hectare forest, a species of bat that is not found anywhere else. The habitat of your bat population is designated as a protected area. What, if any, would be an advantage of removing a small number of bats and placing them in a zoo?

A) Removing bats would do too much harm to the original population.

B) Some animals in the zoo could breed more readily and maybe repopulate another area.

C) It is better to isolate bats into breeding groups in the wild than to put them in a zoo.

D) Zoos offer no advantage at all to the population.

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 54.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 54-4. Discuss strategies for preserving or restoring biodiversity and ecosystem function.

35) What is true concerning the high consumption of fossil fuels?

A) It has no effect on biodiversity.

B) It affects biodiversity by directly harming species.

C) It affects biodiversity indirectly via climate change.

D) It affects biodiversity both directly and indirectly via climate change.

E) It affects biodiversity indirectly via decreases in CO2 emissions.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 54.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 54-4. Discuss strategies for preserving or restoring biodiversity and ecosystem function.

36) What is the main purpose of the wildlife corridor?

A) to slow down the introduction of new individuals of a species B) to slowly introduce a species to a new preserve C) to facilitate the transfer of individuals back and forth between populations D) to connect two otherwise isolated populations Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 54.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 54-4. Discuss strategies for preserving or restoring biodiversity and ecosystem function.

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Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s).

Abstract: Recognition of the importance of land-use legacies in most ecological systems has been a major factor driving the recent focus on human activity as a legitimate and essential subject of environmental science. Ecologists, conservationists, and natural resource policy makers now recognize that the legacies of land-use activities continue to influence ecosystem structure and function for decades or centuries—or even longer—after those activities have ceased. Copyright © 2003 American Institute of Biological Sciences. (Foster, D.R., F. Swanson, J. Aber, D. Tilman, N. Brockaw, I. Burke and A Knapp. 2003. The importance of land-use and its legacies to ecology and environmental management. BioScience 53:77-88.)

Figure 54.8 37) Based on the figure above, what can you conclude about land-use legacy in the southern Yucatán?

A) Massive soil erosion caused the Mayan population to crash.

B) Reduction in forest cover caused the Mayan population to crash.

C) As Mayan population increased, deforestation increased, leading to increased soil erosion.

D) All of the above answers are correct.

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 54.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 54-2. Identify the major threats to biodiversity and evaluate the evidence suggesting loss is occurring on a wide scale.

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Figure 54.9 38) Based on Figure 54.9, what can you conclude about land-use legacy in New England?

A) Population growth has increasingly devastated the forests.

B) A spike in lake sediments caused massive deforestation due to loss of soil nutrients.

C) Sediment spikes correlate with massive population growth.

D) Lake sediments reflect deforestation and despite reforestation, do not recover.

E) All of the above answers apply.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 54.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 54-2. Identify the major threats to biodiversity and evaluate the evidence suggesting loss is occurring on a wide scale.

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