Biological Science, Canadian Edition, 3rd by Scott Freeman Test Bank.pdf (12) by alltestanswers

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Resource:

Edition:

Author(s):

3rd Edition

Scott Freeman

Kim Quillin

Lizabeth A. Allison

Michael Black

Greg Podgorski

Emily Taylor

Jeff Carmichael

Michael Harrington

Joan C. Sharp

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition (Freeman et al.)

Chapter 1 Biology and the Tree of Life

1) Which of the following observations demonstrates the fundamental characteristic of life known as energy?

A) Organisms are made of membrane-bound units called cells.

B) A bacterium replicates to become two bacteria.

C) Plants absorb sunlight to stay alive and reproduce.

D) The gene that specifies skin colour in frogs is passed from parent to offspring.

E) The use of antibiotics has increased the frequency of bacteria populations that are resistant to those antibiotics.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

LO: 1-1. Name five fundamental characteristics shared by all living organisms.

2) How does a scientific theory differ from a scientific hypothesis?

A) There is no difference the terms are interchangeable.

B) A theory is an explanation for a very general phenomenon or observation; hypotheses treat more specific observations.

C) A hypothesis is an explanation for a very general phenomenon; theories treat more specific issues.

D) Theories define scientific laws; hypotheses are used to set up experiments.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 1-2 Describe the two components of the cell theory

3) Algae in the genus Caulerpa typically grow to a length of over half a meter and have structures similar to stems, leaves, and roots Reproduction occurs when adults produce sperm and eggs that fuse to form offspring Each adult Caulerpa, however, consists of just a single cell Which of the following statements is true?

A) Caulerpa violate the pattern component of the cell theory—that all organisms consist of cells.

B) Caulerpa violate the process component of the cell theory—that all cells come from preexisting cells.

C) Caulerpa violate both the pattern and process components of the cell theory.

D) The existence of Caulerpa is consistent with the cell theory.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 1-2. Describe the two components of the cell theory.

4) Which statement about spontaneous generation is FALSE?

A) Pasteur demonstrated that it does not occur under normal laboratory conditions.

B) It apparently occurred at least once–when life on Earth began.

C) It occurs every time a new species evolves from a preexisting species.

D) It addresses the formation of living cells from previously nonliving material.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 1-2. Describe the two components of the cell theory.

5) Recall Pasteur's experiment on spontaneous generation. Originally, he used sealed and unsealed flasks instead of swan-necked and unsealed flasks. Critics claimed that the experiment was inconclusive. Which of the following criticisms would be addressed by using a swan-necked flask instead of the sealed flask?

A) The broth was heated too intensively.

B) There had not been enough time for spontaneous generation to occur.

C) Fresh air is required for spontaneous generation.

D) The broth was not nutritious enough.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 1-2. Describe the two components of the cell theory.

6) Which of the following is the best example of a heritable variation?

A) skin cancer

B) amputation

C) red hair

D) love for music

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 1-3. Briefly explain the theory of natural selection, and clarify the two conditions that are necessary and sufficient for natural selection to bring about evolutionary change in a population.

7) How does artificial selection differ from natural selection?

A) Artificial selection occurs only in computer simulations, not with actual organisms.

B) Artificial selection is based on conscious choices by humans.

C) Artificial selection occurs only with plants.

D) Artificial selection is not based on heritable variation, but on new mutations.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 1-3. Briefly explain the theory of natural selection, and clarify the two conditions that are necessary and sufficient for natural selection to bring about evolutionary change in a population.

8) Over the past several decades, natural selection has caused populations of Staphylococcus aureus (an infectious wound bacterium) to evolve resistance to most antibiotics. If antibiotic use were stopped, what would you predict would happen to these S. aureus populations?

A) They will go extinct without the antibiotic.

B) The populations will begin colonizing new environments.

C) The frequency of nonresistant forms will increase in these populations.

D) The frequency of resistant forms will definitely increase in these populations.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

LO: 1-3. Briefly explain the theory of natural selection, and clarify the two conditions that are necessary and sufficient for natural selection to bring about evolutionary change in a population.

9) Environments all over the world are changing as a result of global warming Could this influence natural selection?

A) No The environment is always changing Global warming is nothing new

B) Yes Traits that help individuals produce more offspring in warmer environments will increase in frequency

C) No The only change will be that species from hot environments will expand their ranges

D) Yes. Mutations occur more frequently in hot environments.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

LO: 1-3. Briefly explain the theory of natural selection, and clarify the two conditions that are necessary and sufficient for natural selection to bring about evolutionary change in a population.

10) The "heat" in chili peppers is due to a molecule called capsaicin. Suppose you breed chili peppers that have low amounts of capsaicin over many generations in order to make them milder (have less capsaicin). What process is occurring?

A) heritable variation

B) environmental change

C) natural selection

D) artificial selection

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 1-3. Briefly explain the theory of natural selection, and clarify the two conditions that are necessary and sufficient for natural selection to bring about evolutionary change in a population.

11) The "heat" in chili peppers is due to a molecule called capsaicin. Suppose you breed only the hottest chili peppers over many generations–predict the characteristics of the resulting individuals.

A) larger fruits

B) smaller fruits

C) less capsaicin

D) more capsaicin

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

LO: 1-3 Briefly explain the theory of natural selection, and clarify the two conditions that are necessary and sufficient for natural selection to bring about evolutionary change in a population

12) Starting from the wild mustard Brassica oleracea, breeders have created the strains known as Brussel sprouts, broccoli, kale, and cabbage Which of the following statements is supported by this observation?

A) In this species, there is enough heritable variation to create a variety of features

B) Heritable variation is low–otherwise the wild strain would have different characteristics.

C) Natural selection has not occurred very frequently in the wild populations.

D) In this species, most of the variation present is due to differences in soil, nutrition, amount of sunlight, or other aspects of the environment.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

LO: 1-3. Briefly explain the theory of natural selection, and clarify the two conditions that are necessary and sufficient for natural selection to bring about evolutionary change in a population.

13) The structure of double helical DNA A) serves as a template for protein synthesis. B) is used to synthesize messenger RNA. C) contains two identical single strands of DNA. D) must be accurately copied to ensure variation in organisms. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 1.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 1-4. Explain the chromosome theory of inheritance. 14) Which of the following describes the flow of genetic information in cells according to the central dogma? A) DNA codes for RNA, which codes for protein. B) DNA codes for protein, which codes for RNA. C) RNA codes for DNA, which codes for protein. D) RNA codes for protein, which codes for DNA. E) Protein codes for RNA, which codes for DNA. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 1.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 1-4. Explain the chromosome theory of inheritance. 15) Which of the following best reflects a phylogenetic conclusion regarding chimpanzees and baboons? A) They are grouped together because they both have opposable thumbs. B) They are grouped together because they both feed their young breast milk. C) They are grouped together because they have a common ancestor in recent history. D) They are grouped together because they live in similar habitats. Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 1.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 1-5. Read a phylogenetic tree, and understand the role of similarities and differences in constructing phylogenetic trees.

16) One aspect of Darwin's theory of natural selection is that adaptations not useful to fitness are lost faster if they have a greater cost. With this in mind, which of the following explanation is most likely true?

A) Our little toe is not going away in the near future.

B) The human appendix must currently serve an essential function or it would not be in our bodies.

C) It is a mystery why we do not have tails.

D) Humans are relatively hairless because we look better without hair.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

LO: 1-3. Briefly explain the theory of natural selection, and clarify the two conditions that are necessary and sufficient for natural selection to bring about evolutionary change in a population.

17) Many phylogenetic trees are based on DNA sequence similarities. What is the practical result of this similarity?

A) Closely related species will not look similar to each other.

B) Artificial selection can bring closely related species even closer to each other.

C) Species with very similar DNA will have similar structures, enzymes, and appearance.

D) Mitochondrial DNA might be different from nuclear DNA.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 1-5 Read a phylogenetic tree, and understand the role of similarities and differences in constructing phylogenetic trees

18) Which of the following would not be a good reason for studying SSU RNA to understand the major branches in the evolutionary history of life?

A) This molecule is found in every species

B) It is passed on through evolutionary history with only minor modifications

C) It is a necessary part of the cellular machinery for reproduction and other purposes.

D) It mutates very frequently.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 1-5. Read a phylogenetic tree, and understand the role of similarities and differences in constructing phylogenetic trees.

19) Which taxon would generally include the largest number of species?

A) species

B) phylum

C) domain

D) genus

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 1-5. Read a phylogenetic tree, and understand the role of similarities and differences in constructing phylogenetic trees.

20) Why did the five-kingdom system of classification fall out of favor?

A) It was too complex Linnaeus' original two-kingdom system was more useful.

B) It was too difficult to distinguish plants from fungi and animals from protistans.

C) There were too few monerans to justify their classification at the kingdom level.

D) It did not reflect the actual evolutionary relationships among organisms very well.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 1-5 Read a phylogenetic tree, and understand the role of similarities and differences in constructing phylogenetic trees

21) What do the nodes and branch points on a phylogenetic tree represent?

A) species

B) new kingdoms or domains

C) ancestral groups that split into two descendant groups

D) groups that got new names

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 1-5. Read a phylogenetic tree, and understand the role of similarities and differences in constructing phylogenetic trees.

22) On an evolutionary tree, any group that includes a common ancestor and all of its descendants is called monophyletic ("one-tribe"). Draw the tree for Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya. Are prokaryotes monophyletic?

A) yes

B) no

Answer: B

Explanation: This is an important and sometimes difficult-to-grasp concept that can be emphasized by class discussion.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Analyzing

LO: 1-5. Read a phylogenetic tree, and understand the role of similarities and differences in constructing phylogenetic trees.

23) On an evolutionary tree, any group that includes a common ancestor and all of its descendants is called monophyletic ("one-tribe"). Draw the tree for Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya that we think best represents the current data. According to this tree, are all organisms alive today monophyletic?

A) yes

B) no

Answer: A

Explanation: This is an important and sometimes difficult-to-grasp concept that can be emphasized by class discussion.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Analyzing

LO: 1-5 Read a phylogenetic tree, and understand the role of similarities and differences in constructing phylogenetic trees

24) On the tree of life, the branch leading to animals is closer to fungi than it is to the branch leading to land plants Which of the following statements is correct?

A) Animals and plants do not have a common ancestor

B) Animals and land plants are more closely related to each other than either is to fungi.

C) Fungi and animals do not have a common ancestor.

D) Animals and fungi are more closely related to each other than animals are to land plants.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 1-5. Read a phylogenetic tree, and understand the role of similarities and differences in constructing phylogenetic trees.

25) On the tree of life, branches that lead to several groups of green algae branch off from the one that leads to land plants. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A) Green algae and land plants are not related.

B) Green algae are very closely related to the fungi.

C) Land plants appeared first in the fossil record.

D) Land plants and algae have a common ancestor.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 1-5. Read a phylogenetic tree, and understand the role of similarities and differences in constructing phylogenetic trees.

26) Louis Pasteur's experiment had a good design because

A) simple equipment was used.

B) a major question, spontaneous generation, was tested.

C) the possible outcomes led to distinct, unambiguous conclusions.

D) the experiment was a success.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1 6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 1-6 Describe what biologists do that is, how they approach problems and why they do experiments

27) Which of the following is the best description of a control for an experiment?

A) The control group is kept in an unchanging environment.

B) The control group is left alone by the experimenters.

C) The control group is matched with the experimental group except for one experimental variable.

D) The control group is exposed to only one variable rather than several.

E) Only the experimental group is tested or measured.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 1-6 Describe what biologists do that is, how they approach problems and why they do experiments

28) Recall the experiment on ant navigation. To run a controlled experiment, what parameters were held constant for the test group of 75 ants?

A) stride number

B) leg length

C) stride number, leg length, and environmental temperature

D) all variables except leg length

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 1-6. Describe what biologists do that is, how they approach problems and why they do experiments.

29) Why was it important that researchers use large sample sizes?

A) It holds the experimental conditions constant.

B) It controls for all variables except for one.

C) It reduces the amount of distortion or "noise" in the data caused by unusual individuals or circumstances.

D) It allows the researchers to create a null hypothesis.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 1-6. Describe what biologists do that is, how they approach problems and why they do experiments.

30) Which of the following is a powerful way to test a hypothesis?

A) Incorporate the hypothesis into a more general theory

B) Formulate a competing or alternative hypothesis

C) Formulate a null hypothesis

D) Perform an experiment that tests a prediction that follows from the hypothesis

Answer: D

Explanation: This is an excellent in-class question to stimulate discussion on the relevance of science.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 1-6. Describe what biologists do that is, how they approach problems and why they do experiments.

31) A friend of yours calls to say that his car would not start this morning. He asks for your help. You say that you think the battery must be dead, and that if so, then jump-starting the car from a good battery will solve the problem. In doing so, you are

A) only stating a hypothesis for why the car won't start.

B) searching for observations that might inspire a hypothesis for why the car won't start.

C) stating both a specific hypothesis about why the car won't start and a prediction of the hypothesis.

D) performing an experimental test of a hypothesis for why the car won't start.

Answer: C

Explanation: This question, along with some obvious permutations, would make good classroom discussions.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

LO: 1-6. Describe what biologists do that is, how they approach problems and why they do experiments.

Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s).

In 1668, Francesco Redi did a series of experiments on spontaneous generation. He began by putting similar pieces of meat into eight identical jars. Four jars were left open to the air, and four were sealed. He then did the same experiment with one variation: Instead of sealing four of the jars completely, he covered them with gauze (the gauze excluded flies while allowing the meat to be exposed to air). In both experiments, he monitored the jars and recorded whether or not maggots (young flies) appeared in the meat.

32) What hypothesis was being tested in the initial experiment with open versus sealed jars?

A) Spontaneous generation is more likely during the long days of summer

B) The type of meat used affects the likelihood of spontaneous generation

C) Maggots do not arise spontaneously, but from eggs laid by adult flies

D) Spontaneous generation can occur only if meat is surrounded by air

Answer: C

Explanation: These questions pertaining to the Redi experiments could be used together or individually on an exam.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 1-6. Describe what biologists do that is, how they approach problems and why they do experiments.

33) In both experiments, flies appeared in all of the open jars and only in the open jars. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A) The experiment was inconclusive because Redi used only one kind of meat.

B) The experiment was inconclusive because it did not run long enough.

C) The experiment supports the hypothesis that spontaneous generation occurs in rotting meat.

D) The experiment supports the hypothesis that maggots arise only from eggs laid by adult flies.

Answer: D

Explanation: These questions pertaining to the Redi experiments could be used together or individually on an exam.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 1-6. Describe what biologists do that is, how they approach problems and why they do experiments.

34) Why was it important that Redi replicate each treatment four times in each experiment?

A) to reduce the likelihood of getting an accidental result

B) to practice his technique and make sure the experiment was done correctly

C) to make sure that there was enough meat to attract flies

D) to make sure that he made efficient use of his lab equipment

Answer: A

Explanation: These questions pertaining to the Redi experiments could be used together or individually on an exam.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 1-6 Describe what biologists do that is, how they approach problems and why they do experiments

35) Fireflies are nocturnal beetles that emit flashes of light to attract mates A scientist studying the firefly population over the past 5 years observes that the firefly population has declined significantly as the area that she has been studying has become more developed (more buildings). The scientist proposes a series of hypotheses to explain the decline. Which of her hypotheses is most likely to be correct?

A) Due to excess amounts of artificial light, the firefly is now active during the day; the scientist is trying to study them at the wrong time leading to incorrect counts of the number of fireflies.

B) Excess amounts of artificial light prevent the female fireflies from seeing the male's flashing mating signal.

C) Excess amounts of artificial light resulted in the evolution of a different mechanism in the male firefly for attracting females and the females no longer recognize this signal.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 1.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 1-6. Describe what biologists do that is, how they approach problems and why they do experiments.

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition (Freeman et al.)

Chapter 2 Water and Carbon: The Chemical Basis of Life

1) How many electrons are involved in a single covalent bond? A) one B) two C) three D) four Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 2.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 2-1. Describe how and why atoms interact to form molecules. Sketch examples of how electron pairs are shared in nonpolar covalent bonds, polar covalent bonds, and ionic bonds. 2) How many electrons are involved in a double covalent bond? A) one B) two C) three D) four Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 2.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 2-1. Describe how and why atoms interact to form molecules. Sketch examples of how electron pairs are shared in nonpolar covalent bonds, polar covalent bonds, and ionic bonds. 3) How many electrons are involved in a triple covalent bond? A) two B) three C) six D) nine Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 2.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 2-1. Describe how and why atoms interact to form molecules. Sketch examples of how electron pairs are shared in nonpolar covalent bonds, polar covalent bonds, and ionic bonds.

4) If an atom has a charge of +1, which of the following must be true?

A) It has two more protons than neutrons.

B) It has the same number of protons as electrons.

C) It has one more electron than it has protons.

D) It has one more proton than it has electrons.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 2-1. Describe how and why atoms interact to form molecules. Sketch examples of how electron pairs are shared in nonpolar covalent bonds, polar covalent bonds, and ionic bonds.

5) If an atom has a charge of -2, which of the following must be true?

A) It has two more electrons than protons.

B) It has two more protons than electrons.

C) It has two more protons than neutrons.

D) It has two more neutrons than electrons.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 2-1 Describe how and why atoms interact to form molecules Sketch examples of how electron pairs are shared in nonpolar covalent bonds, polar covalent bonds, and ionic bonds

6) If an atom is electrically neutral, which of the following must be true?

A) It has the same number of protons as neutrons.

B) It has the same number of protons as electrons.

C) It has the same number of neutrons as electrons.

D) It has at least one more electron than it has protons.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 2-1. Describe how and why atoms interact to form molecules. Sketch examples of how electron pairs are shared in nonpolar covalent bonds, polar covalent bonds, and ionic bonds.

7) An atom has six electrons in its valence shell. How many single covalent bonds would you expect it to form in most circumstances?

A) one

B) two

C) three

D) six

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 2-1. Describe how and why atoms interact to form molecules. Sketch examples of how electron pairs are shared in nonpolar covalent bonds, polar covalent bonds, and ionic bonds.

8) An atom has four electrons in its valence shell. What types of covalent bonds is it capable of forming?

A) single, double, or triple

B) single and double only

C) four single bonds only

D) two double bonds only

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 2-1. Describe how and why atoms interact to form molecules. Sketch examples of how electron pairs are shared in nonpolar covalent bonds, polar covalent bonds, and ionic bonds.

9) When are atoms most stable?

A) when they have the fewest possible valence electrons

B) when they have the maximum number of unpaired electrons

C) when all of the electron orbitals in the valence shell are filled

D) when all electrons are paired

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 2-1. Describe how and why atoms interact to form molecules. Sketch examples of how electron pairs are shared in nonpolar covalent bonds, polar covalent bonds, and ionic bonds.

10) What holds electrons in a covalent bond? A) It is the fact that two electrons are paired in the same orbital. B) The electron sharing that occurs makes the atoms involved smaller and more compact. C) An increase in potential energy, caused by electrical repulsion of the electrons in the bond, holds the electrons. D) The negative charges on the electrons are attracted by the positive charges on both nuclei. Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 2.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 2-1. Describe how and why atoms interact to form molecules. Sketch examples of how electron pairs are shared in nonpolar covalent bonds, polar covalent bonds, and ionic bonds.

11) How can you determine the approximate mass of an atom in atomic mass units?

A) Add up the number of protons, electrons, and neutrons.

B) Add up the number of protons and neutrons.

C) Add up the number of protons and electrons.

D) Take the number of protons minus the number of electrons.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 2-1. Describe how and why atoms interact to form molecules. Sketch examples of how electron pairs are shared in nonpolar covalent bonds, polar covalent bonds, and ionic bonds.

12) When one of the atoms involved in a covalent bond has a much higher electronegativity than the other atom, what type of bond results?

A) a double bond

B) a hydrogen bond

C) a nonpolar covalent bond

D) a polar covalent bond

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 2-1. Describe how and why atoms interact to form molecules. Sketch examples of how electron pairs are shared in nonpolar covalent bonds, polar covalent bonds, and ionic bonds.

13) When the atoms involved in a covalent bond have the same electronegativity, what type of bond results?

A) an ionic bond

B) a hydrogen bond

C) a nonpolar covalent bond

D) a polar covalent bond

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 2-1. Describe how and why atoms interact to form molecules. Sketch examples of how electron pairs are shared in nonpolar covalent bonds, polar covalent bonds, and ionic bonds.

14) The difference between a polar covalent bond and an ionic bond is that electrons are shared unequally in a polar covalent bond, but are completely transferred (i.e., not shared) in an ionic bond.

A) true

B) false

Answer: A

Explanation: This would be a good classroom discussion question to drive home this important but subtle point.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 2-1. Describe how and why atoms interact to form molecules. Sketch examples of how electron pairs are shared in nonpolar covalent bonds, polar covalent bonds, and ionic bonds

15) Nitrogen (N) normally forms only three covalent bonds because it has a valence of five However, ammonium has four covalent bonds, each to a different hydrogen (H) atom (H has a valence of one) Make a sketch of this molecule Count the number of electrons in your sketch Compare this number to the number of valence electrons in one N and four H's What is the charge on this molecule most likely to be?

A) +1

B) -1

C) +2

D) -2

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

LO: 2-1. Describe how and why atoms interact to form molecules. Sketch examples of how electron pairs are shared in nonpolar covalent bonds, polar covalent bonds, and ionic bonds.

16) The structural formula for a certain molecule includes a group symbolized -O. The dash next to the oxygen atom means that a single bond exists to another atom, such as a carbon. Based on the valence of oxygen and the number of bonds it normally forms, what is the charge on the oxygen atom in this case?

A) +1

B) -1

C) +2

D) -2

Answer: B

Explanation: This question is rather difficult, and easy to misinterpret. Instructors should use it as an exam question only if they have emphasized this concept in class. Otherwise, it would make an excellent in-class question to promote discussion on why certain atoms in molecules have a charge and others do not.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

LO: 2-1. Describe how and why atoms interact to form molecules. Sketch examples of how electron pairs are shared in nonpolar covalent bonds, polar covalent bonds, and ionic bonds.

17) You need to write down information about a molecule, but need to indicate only which atoms it contains and how many of each. Which representation would work best?

A) molecular formula

B) structural formula

C) ball-and-stick model

D) space-filling model

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2 1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 2-1

Describe how and why atoms interact to form molecules Sketch examples of how electron pairs are shared in nonpolar covalent bonds, polar covalent bonds, and ionic bonds

18) You need to write down information about a molecule that gives the most accurate picture of the relative sizes of the atoms involved and their relationship in space. Which representation would work best?

A) molecular formula

B) structural formula

C) ball-and-stick model

D) space-filling model

Answer: D

Explanation: In-class discussion could be accompanied by pictures of ball-and-stick and spacefilling models to stress the advantages of space-filling models.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 2-1. Describe how and why atoms interact to form molecules. Sketch examples of how electron pairs are shared in nonpolar covalent bonds, polar covalent bonds, and ionic bonds.

19) There are four elements that make up 95% of all matter found in organisms. Which of the following is not one of these?

A) nitrogen

B) calcium

C) hydrogen

D) oxygen

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 2-1. Describe how and why atoms interact to form molecules. Sketch examples of how electron pairs are shared in nonpolar covalent bonds, polar covalent bonds, and ionic bonds.

20) Why is water capable of forming hydrogen bonds?

A) The hydrogen atoms carry partial positive charges.

B) The oxygen atom carries a partial negative charge.

C) It is highly polar.

D) All of the above apply.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 2-2 List the unique properties of water Explain how these properties relate to the structure of water molecules

21) Why is water such a good solvent?

A) Most polar and charged substances dissolve in it.

B) It is highly polar.

C) It can participate in hydrogen bonds.

D) All of the above apply.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 2-2. List the unique properties of water. Explain how these properties relate to the structure of water molecules.

22) Water molecules are able to form hydrogen bonds with which of the following? A) compounds that are not soluble in water B) compounds that have nonpolar covalent bonds

C) oxygen gas (O2) molecules

D) methane gas (CH4) molecules E) compounds that have polar covalent bonds Answer: E

Type: MC Reference: Section 2.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying LO: 2-2. List the unique properties of water. Explain how these properties relate to the structure of water molecules.

23) Which of the following effects is produced by the high surface tension of water?

A) Lakes don't freeze solid in winter despite low temperatures

B) A water strider can walk across the surface of a small pond

C) Organisms resist temperature changes, although they give off heat due to chemical reactions.

D) Evaporation of sweat from the skin helps to keep people from overheating.

E) Water flows upward from the roots to the leaves in plants.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying LO: 2-3. Explain how the structure of water explains its biologically important properties.

24) Which of the following unique properties of water is responsible for explaining how water

can move from the roots of plants to their leaves against gravity?

A) Water is an excellent solvent.

B) Water is cohesive.

C) Water is denser as a liquid than a solid.

D) Water spontaneously dissociates into hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions.

E) Water can dissociate into H+ and OH-.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

LO: 2-3. Explain how the structure of water explains its biologically important properties.

25) The cities of Portland, Oregon, and Minneapolis, Minnesota, are at about the same latitude, but Minneapolis has much hotter summers and much colder winters than Portland. Why?

(Portland is near the Pacific Ocean; Minneapolis is near a number of large lakes.)

A) They are not at exactly the same latitude.

B) The ocean is so large that it has a highly moderating influence on temperature.

C) Freshwater is more likely to freeze than saltwater.

D) Minneapolis is much windier, due to its location in the middle of a continent.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 2-2. List the unique properties of water. Explain how these properties relate to the structure of water molecules.

26) The slight negative charge at one end of one water molecule is attracted to the slight positive charge of another water molecule. What is this attraction called?

A) a covalent bond

B) a hydrogen bond

C) an ionic bond

D) a hydrophilic bond

E) a van der Waals interaction

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

LO: 2-2 List the unique properties of water Explain how these properties relate to the structure of water molecules

27) In a single molecule of water, two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by what type of bond or interaction?

A) hydrogen bonds

B) nonpolar covalent bonds

C) polar covalent bonds

D) ionic bonds

E) van der Waals interaction

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

LO: 2-1. Describe how and why atoms interact to form molecules. Sketch examples of how electron pairs are shared in nonpolar covalent bonds, polar covalent bonds, and ionic bonds.

28) While water has many exceptional and useful properties, which is the rarest property among compounds?

A) Water is a solvent.

B) Solid water is less dense than liquid water.

C) Water has a high heat capacity.

D) Water has surface tension.

Answer: B

Explanation: This question appears simple, and is. But the biological importance of bodies of water freezing from the top down, and cells rupturing from inside out due to water freezing, are important and worth noting now.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 2-2. List the unique properties of water. Explain how these properties relate to the structure of water molecules.

29) A pH of 7 is neutral due to the dissociation of water molecules in pure water. How many molecules of water have broken down into a hydroxide ion and a hydronium ion at pH 7?

A) 1 in 1 million

B) 1 in 10 million

C) 1 in 100 million

D) 1 in 1 billion

Answer: B

Explanation: No other questions on pH, this questions makes student recast the information in different units

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 2-2 List the unique properties of water Explain how these properties relate to the structure of water molecules

30) A solution with a pH of 5 has how many more protons in it than a solution with a pH of 7?

A) 5 times

B) 10 times

C) 100 times

D) 1,000 times

Answer: C

Explanation: Introduces log nature of pH scale

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 2-2. List the unique properties of water. Explain how these properties relate to the structure of water molecules.

31) Consider the following reaction at equilibrium: CO2 + H2O ↔ H2CO3. What would be the effect of adding additional H2CO3?

A) It would drive the equilibrium dynamics to the right.

B) It would drive the equilibrium dynamics to the left.

C) Nothing would happen, because the reactants and products are in equilibrium.

D) The amounts of CO2 and H2O would decrease.

Answer: B

Explanation: This would be a good question to stimulate discussion on equilibrium and starting dynamics, ratios, and absolute quantities

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 2-2 List the unique properties of water Explain how these properties relate to the structure of water molecules

32) Which of the following is a violation of the first law of thermodynamics?

A) The amount of energy stored in a plant's cell as sugars after undergoing photosynthesis is less than the amount of sunlight it absorbed.

B) A hydrogen bomb can destroy a large city with only a few pounds of explosive material.

C) All of the energy in the universe today was present when the Big Bang occurred.

D) The universe will eventually die, and it will have no energy left in it.

Answer: D

Explanation: This question could generate a lot of classroom discussion.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 2-4 Define energy, and describe the major forms it can take Explain why chemical bonds can be considered a form of potential energy

33) Which reaction is most spontaneous?

A) a reaction that is slightly exothermic and leads to a slight increase in entropy

B) a reaction that is slightly endothermic and leads to a huge decrease in entropy

C) a reaction that is highly exothermic and leads to a huge decrease in entropy

D) a reaction that is slightly exothermic and leads to a huge increase in entropy

Answer: D

Explanation: This would be a good Classroom Response System (CRS) question. Wrong answers on this question can be very instructive.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 2-4 Define energy, and describe the major forms it can take Explain why chemical bonds can be considered a form of potential energy

34) Why are some reactions exothermic?

A) The products have lower potential energy than the reactants.

B) They are spontaneous.

C) They are nonspontaneous.

D) The products have higher entropy (are more disordered) than the reactants.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 2-4. Define energy, and describe the major forms it can take. Explain why chemical bonds can be considered a form of potential energy.

35) Ice melts spontaneously at room temperature, even though the process is endothermic. How is this possible?

A) ΔH is small, so melting still obeys the second law of thermodynamics.

B) The Gibbs free-energy relationship does not apply to phase changes such as melting.

C) There is an increase in free energy when ice melts.

D) There is a large increase in entropy.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 2-4 Define energy, and describe the major forms it can take Explain why chemical bonds can be considered a form of potential energy

36) What does it mean to say a system has a ∆G equal to zero?

A) The system does not release or absorb heat.

B) The system is perfectly ordered (no entropy).

C) The total amount of potential energy in the system is zero.

D) The system is at equilibrium.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 2-4 Define energy, and describe the major forms it can take Explain why chemical bonds can be considered a form of potential energy

37) In the Gibbs free-energy relationship, why is the T term necessary?

A) The free-energy change caused by a change in entropy is a function of temperature.

B) The free-energy change caused by a change in potential energy is a function of temperature.

C) The free-energy change caused by a change in electrical charge is a function of temperature.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 2-4. Define energy, and describe the major forms it can take. Explain why chemical bonds can be considered a form of potential energy.

38) Which statement best summarizes the essence of chemical evolution?

A) Energy in the form of sunlight or heat was transformed into chemical energy.

B) Instead of being radiated back to space, energy in the form of sunlight or heat was retained in the oceans and atmosphere.

C) Entropy increased.

D) An increasing number of exothermic reactions occurred.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 2-5. Explain in simple terms how changes in entropy and potential energy determine whether or not a reaction is spontaneous.

39) Why do chemical reactions tend to speed up when the reactants are heated?

A) The reactants move faster.

B) The reactants collide more often.

C) The reactants have greater energy.

D) All of the above apply.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 2-5 Explain in simple terms how changes in entropy and potential energy determine whether or not a reaction is spontaneous

40) Why do chemical reactions tend to speed up when the concentration of the reactants is increased?

A) The reactants move faster.

B) The reactants collide more often.

C) The reactants have greater energy.

D) All of the above apply.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 2-5. Explain in simple terms how changes in entropy and potential energy determine whether or not a reaction is spontaneous

41) During chemical evolution, which of the following occurred in the molecules involved?

A) Entropy decreased while potential energy increased.

B) Entropy increased while potential energy increased.

C) Entropy stayed constant while potential energy increased.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 2-5. Explain in simple terms how changes in entropy and potential energy determine whether or not a reaction is spontaneous.

42) Chemical evolution refers to which of the following?

A) Large molecules tended to break apart because of the intense sunlight and heat from volcanoes.

B) Water condensed to form the first oceans.

C) Small molecules reacted to form larger, more complex molecules.

D) Earth's crust solidified, even as massive bombardment from outer space continued.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 2-5. Explain in simple terms how changes in entropy and potential energy determine whether or not a reaction is spontaneous.

43) You've been asked to analyze a reaction that took place at 300°K. ∆H was -150 and ∆S was +0.4. Is the reaction endothermic or exothermic?

A) endothermic

B) exothermic

C) You cannot tell unless you know the potential energy of the reactants and products

D) You cannot tell unless you know the amount of disorder in the reactants and products

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 2-5. Explain in simple terms how changes in entropy and potential energy determine whether or not a reaction is spontaneous.

44) The Q10 rule states that, within their survivable range, the rates of biochemical processes of many ectothermic organisms approximately double with every 10-degree (C) rise in temperature. Why would this be true?

A) Warmer molecules interact faster.

B) There are more vibrational harmonics with greater temperature.

C) Organisms move faster when they are warmer.

D) Sunlight warms all organisms.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 2-5. Explain in simple terms how changes in entropy and potential energy determine whether or not a reaction is spontaneous.

45) Why would the spontaneous formation of formaldehyde and hydrogen cyanide not take place on Earth today as much as on the prebiotic Earth?

A) Microorganisms break these down immediately.

B) The sun has changed its output.

C) Atmospheric conditions on Earth, such as the presence of oxygen, have changed.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 2-5. Explain in simple terms how changes in entropy and potential energy determine whether or not a reaction is spontaneous.

46) The first chemicals that provided potential energy on Earth may have been formaldehyde and hydrogen cyanide While these were produced by sunlight-driven reactions, they also occur around deep-sea vents If the first organisms on Earth evolved around these vents, the first life on Earth was

A) photosynthetic and obtained energy from the sun

B) chemosynthetic and obtained energy from chemicals

C) herbivorous and obtained energy from plants.

D) carnivorous and obtained energy from animals.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 2-5. Explain in simple terms how changes in entropy and potential energy determine whether or not a reaction is spontaneous.

47) Experiments by Stanley Miller in the 1950s demonstrated that the first organic molecules on Earth

A) were nucleic acids such as RNA and DNA.

B) most likely formed in an extraterrestrial environment and were deposited on Earth via asteroids.

C) could have formed abiotically in a reducing atmosphere containing hydrogen, methane, ammonia, and water vapour.

D) were catalysts composed of simple amino acids and most likely formed in an extraterrestrial environment and were deposited on Earth via asteroids.

E) were simple carbohydrates like glucose.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

LO: 2-6. Describe the current models for chemical evolution on the early Earth.

48) Which of the following models is described by the idea that dissolved gases came in contact with minerals lining the walls of deep-sea vents and formed more complex organic molecules?

A) the surface metabolism model

B) the prebiotic soup model

C) the extraterrestrial model

D) the atmospheric model

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2 4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

LO: 2-6. Describe the current models for chemical evolution on the early Earth.

49) Consider the experiment that Stanley Miller did to simulate chemical evolution. Recall that a glass flask held the reduced gases NH3, CH4, and H2 and that the gases were exposed to electrical sparks. What is the null hypothesis in the experiment?

A) Chemical evolution does not occur.

B) Chemical evolution requires the presence of reduced molecules.

C) Chemical evolution requires continuous heating.

D) Chemical evolution requires a source of kinetic energy.

E) Chemical evolution occurs only on Earth.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2 4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

LO: 2-6 Describe the current models for chemical evolution on the early Earth

50) Which of the following tends to make chemical reactions spontaneous?

A) The reactants have lower potential energy than the products.

B) The reactants are more ordered than the products.

C) The temperature is low.

D) The pressure is low.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 2-5. Explain in simple terms how changes in entropy and potential energy determine whether or not a reaction is spontaneous.

51) Why is carbon so important in biology?

A) It is a common element on Earth.

B) It has very little electronegativity, making it a good electron donor.

C) It bonds to only a few other elements.

D) It forms up to four covalent bonds.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 2-7 Know why carbon is a key element for life List the six major functional groups, their structural formulas, and their basic characteristics

52) Carbon is an important element for biology because

A) of the variety of carbon skeletons and functional groups that can be built on them.

B) it has very high electronegativity and forms highly stable bonds.

C) carbon is so rare, organisms conserve it highly.

D) it has the ability to form six covalent bonds.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 2-7. Know why carbon is a key element for life. List the six major functional groups, their structural formulas, and their basic characteristics.

53) How many times can humans be sure the switch from nonlife to life has happened in the universe?

A) once

B) twice

C) four times

D) 42 times

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 2-7. Know why carbon is a key element for life. List the six major functional groups, their structural formulas, and their basic characteristics.

54) Many scientific probes sent to other parts of the solar system are looking for signs of something so far known to exist only on Earth, namely

A) carbon.

B) gold.

C) nitrogen.

D) life.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 2.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 2-7. Know why carbon is a key element for life. List the six major functional groups, their structural formulas, and their basic characteristics.

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition (Freeman et al.)

Chapter 3 Protein Structure and Function

1) Which is not a role proteins play in organisms?

A) store genetic information

B) movement and shape changes

C) chemical signaling

D) structural support

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 3-1. Provide examples of why proteins are essential to cell function.

2) Three important functions of proteins are cell

A) wall composition, cushioning, and membrane fluidity.

B) movement, signaling, and reaction catalysis.

C) information coding, conversion, and transfer.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 3-1. Provide examples of why proteins are essential to cell function.

3) Which of the following is not a major functional class of proteins?

A) hereditary proteins

B) enzymes

C) motility proteins

D) regulatory proteins

E) structural proteins

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3 4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

LO: 3-1. Provide examples of why proteins are essential to cell function.

4) An amino acid has an R-group that is negatively charged at cellular pH. Which of the following categories would best describe it?

A) acidic

B) basic

C) uncharged and polar

D) nonpolar

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

LO: 3-2. Sketch the basic structure of an amino acid, and describe why and how the side chains affect the function and structure of each amino acid.

5) An amino acid has an R-group that is positively charged at cellular pH. Which of the following categories would best describe it?

A) acidic

B) basic

C) uncharged and polar

D) nonpolar

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

LO: 3-2. Sketch the basic structure of an amino acid, and describe why and how the side chains affect the function and structure of each amino acid.

6) An amino acid has an R-group that is composed of only carbon and hydrogen atoms Which of the following categories would best describe it?

A) acidic

B) basic

C) uncharged and polar

D) nonpolar

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

LO: 3-2. Sketch the basic structure of an amino acid, and describe why and how the side chains affect the function and structure of each amino acid.

7) An amino acid has an R-group that does not have a positive or a negative charge but has an oxygen atom. Which of the following categories would best describe it?

A) acidic

B) basic

C) uncharged and polar

D) nonpolar

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

LO: 3-2. Sketch the basic structure of an amino acid, and describe why and how the side chains affect the function and structure of each amino acid.

8) Which of the following statements about the peptide-bonded backbone is correct?

A) Both ends of the backbone have a free carboxyl group.

B) Both ends of the backbone have a free amino group.

C) The orientation of the side chains in the backbone does not allow them to interact with each other or water.

D) One end of the backbone has a free amino group while the other has a free carboxyl group.

E) Interactions only take place between C=O and N H groups in the different peptide-bonded backbones.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

LO: 3-2 Sketch the basic structure of an amino acid, and describe why and how the side chains affect the function and structure of each amino acid

9) Which of the following statements about peptides is correct?

A) As a whole, the structure of the peptide-bonded backbone is flexible

B) The peptide bond is capable of rotating

C) Joining two amino acids together through a peptide bond results in the formation of a carboxyl group.

D) A peptide bond is formed by a condensation reaction between two carboxyl groups.

E) A peptide bond is formed by a condensation reaction between the carboxyl and amino group of the same amino acid.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

LO: 3-2. Sketch the basic structure of an amino acid, and describe why and how the side chains affect the function and structure of each amino acid.

10) Which one of the following is not a component of each monomer used to make proteins?

A) a phosphorous atom, P

B) an amino functional group, NH2

C) a side chain, R

D) a carboxyl group, COOH

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 3-2. Sketch the basic structure of an amino acid, and describe why and how the side chains affect the function and structure of each amino acid.

11) Amino acid side chains (R groups) with what characteristic(s) dissolve best in water?

A) small sizes and simple structures

B) at least one ring structure

C) polarity or charged structures

D) the presence of sulfur

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 3-2. Sketch the basic structure of an amino acid, and describe why and how the side chains affect the function and structure of each amino acid.

12) Why are polymerization reactions endergonic?

A) They reduce entropy

B) They release heat, making the reactant monomers move faster

C) Because the condensation and hydrolysis reactions are equally spontaneous

D) Because polymers are energetically more stable and have lower potential energy than monomers do.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 3-2. Sketch the basic structure of an amino acid, and describe why and how the side chains affect the function and structure of each amino acid.

13) At the pH found in cells (about 7.0), what happens to the amino group on an amino acid?

A) It acts as a base and gains a proton, giving it a positive charge.

B) It acts as an acid and loses a proton, giving it a negative charge.

C) It is reduced and tends to act as an electron donor in redox reactions.

D) It remains neutral, like water, and does not have a charge.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 3-2. Sketch the basic structure of an amino acid, and describe why and how the side chains affect the function and structure of each amino acid.

14) At the pH found in cells (about 7.0), what happens to the carboxyl group on an amino acid?

A) It acts as a base and gains a proton, giving it a positive charge.

B) It acts as an acid and loses a proton, giving it a negative charge.

C) It is oxidized and tends to act as an electron acceptor in redox reactions.

D) It remains neutral, like water, and does not have a charge.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 3-2 Sketch the basic structure of an amino acid, and describe why and how the side chains affect the function and structure of each amino acid

15) How does the structure of an amino acid enable it to play its most important roles in cells?

A) It can serve a wide variety of functions in a cell, because it contains the atoms most commonly found in organisms (C, H, N, and O).

B) Because both carboxyl and amino groups are present, polymerization is exergonic. In addition, the presence of a side chain makes the molecule water soluble.

C) The presence of carboxyl and amino groups gives it the ability to form peptide bonds, and its side chain gives it unique chemical properties.

D) Because each amino acid contains a variety of functional groups, they can participate in a wide variety of chemical reactions.

Answer: C

Explanation: Some may prefer to use this question in class only, because it involves consideration of a great deal of information.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3 1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 3-2 Sketch the basic structure of an amino acid, and describe why and how the side chains affect the function and structure of each amino acid

16) Which of the following involves an increase in entropy?

A) hydrolysis

B) condensation

C) polymerization

D) chemical evolution

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 3-2. Sketch the basic structure of an amino acid, and describe why and how the side chains affect the function and structure of each amino acid.

17) In solution, why do hydrolysis reactions occur more readily than condensation reactions?

A) Hydrolysis increases entropy and is exothermic.

B) Hydrolysis raises G, or Gibbs free energy.

C) Hydrolysis decreases entropy and is exothermic.

D) Hydrolysis increases entropy and is endothermic.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 3-2 Sketch the basic structure of an amino acid, and describe why and how the side chains affect the function and structure of each amino acid

18) Suppose you discovered a new amino acid. Its R-group contains only hydrogen and carbon atoms. Predict the behavior of this amino acid.

A) It is hydrophobic.

B) It is hydrophilic.

C) Relative to the amino acids found in organisms, its interactions with water will be intermediate.

D) Relative to the amino acids found in organisms, its interactions with water will be very high.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

LO: 3-2. Sketch the basic structure of an amino acid, and describe why and how the side chains affect the function and structure of each amino acid

19) A peptide bond is

A) an ionic bond, not a covalent one.

B) a triple covalent bond.

C) a particularly stable, planar covalent bond.

D) a particularly unstable covalent bond.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 3-2. Sketch the basic structure of an amino acid, and describe why and how the side chains affect the function and structure of each amino acid.

20) When polymerization of a protein is complete, but the protein is still completely linear, what is the highest level of structure that has been completed?

A) primary

B) secondary

C) tertiary

D) quaternary

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 3-3 Describe the four levels of protein structure, and give examples of each level

21) Which of the following best describes primary structure in proteins?

A) It is the number of amino acids present in the complete protein.

B) It is the number of peptide bonds in the complete protein.

C) It is the sequence of amino acids in the complete protein.

D) It is the number of α-helices and β-pleated sheets in the complete protein.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 3-3. Describe the four levels of protein structure, and give examples of each level.

22) You are studying a protein that is shaped like a doughnut. The shape is a function of which level(s) of protein structure?

A) primary only

B) secondary only

C) tertiary only

D) secondary and tertiary only

E) primary, secondary, and tertiary

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 3-3. Describe the four levels of protein structure, and give examples of each level.

23) An enzyme has a total of four active sites. When you denature the molecule and study its composition, you find that each active site occurs on a different polypeptide. Which of the following hypotheses does this observation support?

A) The enzyme is subject to allosteric regulation.

B) The enzyme requires a cofactor to function normally.

C) The protein's structure is affected by temperature and pH.

D) The protein has quaternary structure.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 3-4. Explain what an enzyme is, why enzymes are needed to help chemical reactions proceed in living cells, and the role of the active site.

24) Which of the following observations is the strongest argument in favor of the hypothesis that protein structure and function are correlated?

A) Proteins function best at certain temperatures.

B) Proteins have four distinct levels of structure and many functions.

C) Enzymes tend to be globular in shape.

D) Denatured (unfolded) proteins do not function normally.

Answer: D

Explanation: This is a good in-class discussion question to get students to apply their knowledge about protein structure and function.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 3-2 Sketch the basic structure of an amino acid, and describe why and how the side chains affect the function and structure of each amino acid

25) You've just sequenced a new protein found in mice and observe that sulfur-containing cysteine residues occur at regular intervals What is the significance of this finding?

A) Cysteine residues are required for the formation of α-helices and β-pleated sheets

B) It will be important to include cysteine in the diet of the mice.

C) Cysteine residues are involved in disulfide bridges that help form tertiary structure.

D) Cysteine causes bends, or angles, to occur in the tertiary structure of proteins.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 3-2. Sketch the basic structure of an amino acid, and describe why and how the side chains affect the function and structure of each amino acid.

26) Interactions between side chains (R-groups) in a polypeptide are most important in stabilizing which of the following?

A) the primary structure of a protein

B) an α-helix

C) a β-sheet

D) the tertiary structure of a protein

E) the secondary structure of a protein

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

LO: 3-3. Describe the four levels of protein structure, and give examples of each level.

27) Recent technological advances have made it more feasible than ever to work out the threedimensional structure of proteins. There is intense interest in this research field, called structural biology. Why?

A) Understanding structure should help us understand function.

B) Understanding structure can help in the design of drugs that alter the function of certain proteins.

C) Solving a protein's 3-D structure can lead to a better understanding of how the molecule works–for example, by identifying the active site and determining if there are regulatory sites.

D) All of the above apply.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 3-3 Describe the four levels of protein structure, and give examples of each level

28) What type of interaction is directly responsible for the formation of secondary structure?

A) peptide bonds between adjacent amino acids

B) peptide bonds between nonadjacent amino acids

C) hydrogen bonds between sections of the polypeptide backbone

D) hydrogen bonds between side chains of amino acids

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 3-3. Describe the four levels of protein structure, and give examples of each level.

29) A series of hydrophobic side chains will congregate together as a protein folds in an aqueous solution and be stabilized by

A) disulfide bonds.

B) van der Waals interaction.

C) hydrogen bonds.

D) quaternary structure bonds.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 3-3. Describe the four levels of protein structure, and give examples of each level.

30) If the primary structure of a protein is incorrect

A) the secondary structure will be correct.

B) the tertiary structure will be correct.

C) any quaternary structure will be correct.

D) any higher-level folding of the protein will be incorrect.

Answer: D

Explanation: This question goes to the hierarchical structure of protein folding (purple thematic text) and introduces prion discussion–folding probability, etc.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 3-3

Describe the four levels of protein structure, and give examples of each level

31) You have isolated a previously unstudied protein, identified its complete structure in detail, and determined that it catalyzes the breakdown of a large substrate. You notice it has two binding sites. One of these is large, apparently the bonding site for the large substrate; the other is small, possibly a binding site for a regulatory molecule. What do these findings tell you about the mechanism of this protein?

A) It is probably a structural protein that is involved in cell-to-cell adhesion.

B) It is probably an enzyme that works through allosteric regulation.

C) It is probably an enzyme that works through competitive inhibition

D) It is probably a cell membrane transport protein, like an ion channel

E) It is probably a structural protein found in cartilage or skeletal tissue

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3 4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

LO: 3-4. Explain what an enzyme is, why enzymes are needed to help chemical reactions proceed in living cells, and the role of the active site.

32) Consider the HIV enzyme called protease. The amino acid residues at the active site are highly hydrophobic. In designing a drug that would bind to the active site and jam it, researchers should use which type of molecule? A) hydrophobic B) polar C) charged D) acidic Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 3.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 3-4. Explain what an enzyme is, why enzymes are needed to help chemical reactions proceed in living cells, and the role of the active site.

33) When, and by whom, was the lock-and-key model of enzyme specificity developed?

A) 1894 by Fischer B) 1894 by Miller C) 1936 by Fischer D) 1956 by Fischer

E) 1974 by Haldane and Oparin

Answer: A

Explanation: Gives a sense of history

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 3-4. Explain what an enzyme is, why enzymes are needed to help chemical reactions proceed in living cells, and the role of the active site.

34) Which one of the following is not a component of each monomer used to make proteins?

A) an iron atom, Fe

B) an amino functional group, NH2

C) a side chain, R D) a carboxyl group, COOH

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 3-2. Sketch the basic structure of an amino acid, and describe why and how the side chains affect the function and structure of each amino acid.

Refer to the following paragraph and Figure 3.1 to answer the following question(s).

Figure 3.1

Since structure correlates so well with function, biochemists are constantly looking for new ways to probe the complex structure of proteins in order to understand what they do and how they do it. One of the most powerful techniques in existence today is X-ray crystallography. The main difficulty with this technique is getting the protein to crystallize. Once crystallized, the protein is bombarded with X-rays to create a pattern that can be analyzed mathematically to determine the three-dimensional structure of the protein. This analysis has been performed by Krzysztof Palczewski on the protein rhodopsin, which is a light-sensitive protein found in species ranging from ancient bacteria (archaea) to humans. The structure (schematically shown above, where each letter represents an amino acid) is characterized by a single polypeptide chain with several α-helical segments that loop back and forth across the cell membrane. Another notable feature is the disulfide bond (-S-S-) that can be seen at the bottom of the third transmembrane segment. [Figure adapted from K. Palczewski et al., Science 289 (2000): 739.]

35) How many times does the protein in Figure 3.1 cross the cell membrane?

A) 1

B) 3

C) 4

D) 7

Answer: D Explanation: Can the student decipher a two-dimensional drawing of a threedimensional structure? Students of biology will be presented with a variety of formats for analysis, and their success depends upon their being able to interpret schematic representations. This question is probably too simple for an exam, but could stimulate some class discussion. For example, why would there need to be seven transmembrane segments? Are there other proteins with multiple transmembrane segments? Type: MC Reference: Section 3.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 3-3. Describe the four levels of protein structure, and give examples of each level.

36) If you were reading off the sequence of amino acids in Figure 3.1 to a biologist friend, what should the first three letters be?

A) M-N-G

B) A-P-A

C) It doesn't matter, since the protein has no polarity or directionality.

Answer: A

Explanation: Does the student know that protein sequences are typically read from aminoterminus to carboxy-terminus?

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 3-3. Describe the four levels of protein structure, and give examples of each level.

37) Identify the location of the disulfide bond in Figure 3.1. What is the name of the amino acids that are forming this bond?

A) cytosine

B) aspartic acid

C) cysteine

D) glycine

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Applying

LO: 3-3. Describe the four levels of protein structure, and give examples of each level.

38) What is the location of the C-terminus of the protein in Figure 3.1?

A) extracellular

B) cytoplasm

C) embedded within the membrane

D) nucleus

Answer: B

Explanation: Does the student know that protein sequences are typically read from aminoterminus to carboxy-terminus?

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Applying

LO: 3-3. Describe the four levels of protein structure, and give examples of each level.

39) Refer to Figure 3.1. Which level of structure is being maintained by the disulfide bond?

A) primary

B) secondary

C) tertiary

D) quaternary

Answer: C

Explanation: Student should realize from the opening paragraph that this protein has no quaternary structure and that disulfide bonds most often contribute to tertiary structure.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 3-3. Describe the four levels of protein structure, and give examples of each level.

40) The aquaporin family of proteins plays a major role in the transport of water all over the body During the folding process of these proteins, α-helices start forming as

A) part of the primary structure of the protein

B) part of the secondary structure of the protein

C) part of the tertiary structure of the protein

D) part of the quaternary structure of the protein

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 3.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 3-3. Describe the four levels of protein structure, and give examples of each level.

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition (Freeman et al.)

Chapter 4 Nucleic Acids and the RNA World

1) Nucleic acids are polymers made up of which of the following monomers?

A) nucleotides

B) sugars

C) amino acids

D) nitrogenous bases

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 4-1. Sketch a nucleotide, label its three basic components, and identify the 2', 3', and 5' carbon in a five-carbon sugar.

2) What is the difference between a ribonucleotide and a deoxyribonucleotide?

A) Ribonucleotides contain a phosphate group.

B) Ribonucleotides have a hydroxyl group on the 2 carbon of their sugar subunit.

C) Ribonucleotides contain a sugar with five carbon atoms.

D) Ribonucleotides have a hydrogen atom on the 1 carbon of their sugar subunit.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 4-3. Describe the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures of RNA, and explain how RNA and DNA differ.

3) Which of the following nitrogenous bases are purines?

A) cytosine and uracil

B) cytosine and thymine

C) cytosine, uracil, and thymine

D) adenine and guanine

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 4-1. Sketch a nucleotide, label its three basic components, and identify the 2', 3', and 5' carbon in a five-carbon sugar.

4) Which of the following includes all of the pyrimidines found in RNA and/or DNA?

A) cytosine and uracil

B) cytosine and thymine

C) cytosine, uracil, and thymine

D) cytosine, uracil, and guanine

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 4-3. Describe the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures of RNA, and explain how RNA and DNA differ.

5) Which of the following nitrogenous bases is found in RNA, but not DNA?

A) thymine

B) adenine

C) uracil

D) guanine

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 4-3 Describe the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures of RNA, and explain how RNA and DNA differ

6) A nucleotide is made up of which of the following subunits?

A) a 5-carbon sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base

B) a 5-carbon sugar and a phosphate group

C) a 5-carbon sugar and a nitrogenous base

D) a 5-carbon sugar, an amino group, and an "R-group"

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 4-1. Sketch a nucleotide, label its three basic components, and identify the 2', 3', and 5' carbon in a five-carbon sugar.

7) By convention, the sequence of bases in a nucleic acid is always written in which direction?

A) amino to carboxyl

B) carboxyl to amino

C) 3' → 5'

D) 5' → 3'

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 4-2. Make another sketch showing the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures of DNA.

8) What is the difference (if any) between the structure of ATP and the structure of the precursor of the A nucleotide in RNA?

A) The sugar molecule is different.

B) The nitrogen-containing base is different.

C) The number of phosphates is three instead of one.

D) The number of phosphates is three instead of two.

E) There is no difference.

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 4-1. Sketch a nucleotide, label its three basic components, and identify the 2', 3', and 5' carbon in a five-carbon sugar.

9) What forms the "backbone" of a nucleic acid?

A) a chain of sugar and phosphate groups, linked through phosphodiester bonds

B) purine and pyrimidine pairs, hydrogen-bonded to each other

C) a chain of amino and carboxyl groups, linked via peptide bonds

D) a double helix of antiparallel strands

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 4-2. Make another sketch showing the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures of DNA.

10) Nucleic acids have a definite polarity, or directionality. Stated another way, one end of the molecule is different from the other end How are these ends described?

A) One end has a hydroxyl group on the 2 carbon; the other end has a hydrogen atom on the 2 carbon

B) One end contains a nitrogenous base; the other end lacks it

C) One end has an unlinked 3 carbon; the other end has an unlinked 5 carbon

D) One end has one phosphate group; the other end has two phosphate groups

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 4-2. Make another sketch showing the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures of DNA.

11) What feature of mononucleotides provides the energy needed for polymerization when nucleic acids are formed?

A) their methyl groups

B) their sugar groups

C) their nitrogenous bases

D) their phosphate groups

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 4-2. Make another sketch showing the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures of DNA.

12) If one strand of a DNA molecule has the sequence of bases 5'ATTGCA3', the other complementary strand would have the sequence

A) 5'TAACGT3'.

B) 5'TGCAAT3'.

C) 5'UAACGU3'.

D) 3'UAACGU5'.

E) 5'UGCAAU3'.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

LO: 4-2 Make another sketch showing the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures of DNA

13) Which of the following statements about the 5' end of a polynucleotide strand of RNA is correct?

A) The 5' end has a hydroxyl group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose.

B) The 5' end has a phosphate group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose.

C) The 5' end has phosphate attached to the number 5 carbon of the nitrogenous base.

D) The 5' end has a carboxyl group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose.

E) The 5' end is the fifth position on one of the nitrogenous bases.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 4-3 Describe the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures of RNA, and explain how RNA and DNA differ

14) Which of the following statements best summarizes the differences between DNA and RNA?

A) DNA encodes hereditary information, whereas RNA does not.

B) The bases in DNA contain sugars, whereas the bases in RNA do not contain sugar.

C) DNA nucleotides contain a different sugar than RNA nucleotides.

D) DNA contains the base uracil, whereas RNA contains the base thymine.

E) The bases in DNA contain sulfur, whereas the bases in RNA do not contain sulfur.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 4-3. Describe the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures of RNA, and explain how RNA and DNA differ.

15) Which of these scientists was not directly involved in the discovery of DNA's structure?

A) James Watson

B) Rosalind Franklin

C) Sidney Altman

D) Francis Crick

E) Maurice Wilkins

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 4-2 Make another sketch showing the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures of DNA

16) Which of the following best describes DNA's secondary structure?

A) β-pleated sheet

B) double parallel helical strands

C) turn-loop-turn

D) double antiparallel helical strands

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 4-2. Make another sketch showing the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures of DNA.

17) Why is DNA said to be antiparallel?

A) The two strands of DNA are joined together via complementary base pairing such that AT run in the 3'5' direction and CG run in the 5'3' direction.

B) The DNA strands twist into a helix conformation once the bases have joined to form major and minor grooves.

C) Each strand of the double helix is made up of a sugar phosphate backbone which runs in the 5'3' direction.

D) DNA has polarity such that one strand runs in the 3'5' direction and the other in the 5'3' direction.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 4-2. Make another sketch showing the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures of DNA.

18) Which of the following did Watson and Crick already know when they were trying to determine the structure of DNA?

A) The number of purines is always larger than the number of pyrimidines.

B) The number of pyrimidines is always larger than the number of purines.

C) The number of cytosines is always the same as the number of adenines.

D) The number of guanines is always the same as the number of thymines.

E) The number of purines is always the same as the number of pyrimidines.

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 4-2 Make another sketch showing the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures of DNA

19) In the secondary structure of DNA, the α-helical twists are organized into

A) major and minor grooves

B) large and small grooves

C) major and small grooves

D) large and minor grooves.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 4-2. Make another sketch showing the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures of DNA.

20) Franklin and Wilkins analyzed DNA by bombarding DNA crystals with X-rays. Their analysis yielded two numbers that sparked interest, 3.4 nm and 0.34 nm. What is the significance of these numbers?

A) It turned out to be just a coincidence.

B) DNA molecules are 3.4 nm long and 0.34 nm wide.

C) The width of a DNA molecule is 3.4 nm, whereas the width of a nucleotide monomer is 0.34m.

D) These numbers tell us there are 10 rungs, or steps, on the DNA "ladder" for every turn of the helix.

E) The 10-to-1 ratio signifies that DNA molecules are ten times longer than they are wide.

Answer: D

Explanation: This question would make a good in-class assessment.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 4-2. Make another sketch showing the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures of DNA.

21) What is the structural feature that allows DNA to replicate?

A) sugar-phosphate backbone

B) complementary pairing of the nitrogenous bases

C) disulfide bonding (bridging) of the two helixes

D) twisting of the molecule to form an α-helix

E) three-component structure of the nucleotides

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 4-4 Explain why and how the secondary structure of DNA allows organisms to store and copy information

22) If DNA is heated to 95°C, the bonds between complementary strands break, resulting in two single strands of DNA In this process, which bases will separate first because they have less hydrogen bonds between them?

A) adenine and cytosine

B) adenine and thymine

C) guanine and cytosine

D) guanine and thymine

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 4-2. Make another sketch showing the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures of DNA.

23) If a molecule of DNA contains 10% cytosine, it has guanine and adenine respectively. A) 10%; 40% B) 10%; 45% C) 40%; 40% D) 40%; 10% E) 10%; 80% Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 4.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 4-2. Make another sketch showing the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures of DNA.

24) What is responsible for holding the two strands together in the DNA double helix?

A) phosphodiester bonds

B) hydrogen bonds

C) ionic bonds

D) covalent bonds

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 4-2. Make another sketch showing the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures of DNA.

25) In the context of chemical evolution, DNA's structure is interesting because it suggests a possible copying mechanism. What about DNA's structure facilitates copying?

A) It has the same number of purines and pyrimidines.

B) The nitrogenous bases are located on the inside of the double helix.

C) The strands of the double helix are complementary.

D) DNA always goes from 5 to 3.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 4-4. Explain why and how the secondary structure of DNA allows organisms to store and copy information.

26) Although DNA is the main hereditary material in all life-forms, it lacks one important characteristic to make it a candidate for the first life-form. Why have researchers rejected the idea that DNA was found in the first life-form? A) It does not function as a catalyst. B) It is not stable enough to have withstood early Earth's harsh atmosphere. C) Because it has only four different bases, it does not carry enough information; therefore, it cannot adapt and evolve. D) The type of sugar found in DNA is much too complicated to have been present early in Earth's history. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 4.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 4-5. Explain why RNA, and not DNA, was probably the first self-replicating molecule. Describe one piece of experimental evidence that supports this hypothesis. 27) The "information system" of the cell involves stable genetic information being stored as , which can be used to make a "disposable" (relatively shortlived) copy of this information as . A) RNA; DNA B) DNA; DNA C) DNA; RNA D) RNA; RNA Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 4.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 4-2. Make another sketch showing the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures of DNA. 28) Why do many researchers consider RNA to be the best candidate for the first life-form? A) It is simple in structure. B) It is capable of self-replication and catalysis. C) It carries more information than any other molecule. D) All of its nucleotide components have been created under laboratory conditions that mimic early Earth. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 4.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 4-5. Explain why RNA, and not DNA, was probably the first self-replicating molecule. Describe one piece of experimental evidence that supports this hypothesis.

29) Which of the following is not a difference between RNA and DNA?

A) One is typically single stranded and the other is typically double stranded.

B) One contains uracil and the other does not.

C) One contains ribose sugar and the other contains deoxyribose sugar.

D) One is made from nucleotide monomers and the other is not.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 4-3. Describe the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures of RNA, and explain how RNA and DNA differ.

30) Why is DNA more appropriate than RNA as the information storing molecule of the cell?

A) RNA is more stable than DNA and has the ability to catalyze reactions.

B) DNA has the ability to catalyze reactions and make proteins.

C) RNA has only four different bases and thus cannot carry enough information.

D) DNA is far less reactive than RNA, and thus the information sequence is more stable.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4.2, 4.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 4-3 Describe the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures of RNA, and explain how RNA and DNA differ

31) Hairpins and stem-and-loop patterns make up what part of RNA's structure?

A) primary

B) secondary

C) tertiary

D) quaternary

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 4-3. Describe the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures of RNA, and explain how RNA and DNA differ.

32) The term ribozyme describes what property of RNA molecules?

A) single-stranded

B) catalytic

C) its shape

D) the fact that part of RNA molecules can be double-stranded similar to DNA

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 4-3. Describe the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures of RNA, and explain how RNA and DNA differ.

33) Which one of the following is not a way that RNA is seen as intermediate between DNA and proteins?

A) RNA contains genetic information like DNA, but is not as stable.

B) RNA can catalyze reactions, but not as well as proteins.

C) RNA is composed of nucleotides, but forms tertiary and quaternary structures like a protein.

D) RNA has 5 and 3 termini like DNA, but it also has amino and carboxy termini like protein.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 4-3. Describe the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures of RNA, and explain how RNA and DNA differ.

34) Bartel's research group showed that an RNA replicase ribozyme could be created by A) carefully synthesizing a novel ribozyme monomer by monomer based on the sequence of known ribozymes.

B) creating large numbers of random RNA segments and testing each one to see if any replicase activity was present.

C) starting with random components and allowing natural selection to evolve molecules that were better and better at replicating.

D) examining protein replicases and reverse-engineering an RNA molecule capable of doing the same job.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 4-5 Explain why RNA, and not DNA, was probably the first self-replicating molecule

Describe one piece of experimental evidence that supports this hypothesis

35) The work of Bartel's group on the ribozyme RNA replicase supports which conclusion?

A) An RNA world could produce molecules that could self-replicate

B) Natural selection does not work unless humans are present to help it

C) DNA must have come before RNA.

D) Life cannot come from nonlife.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 4-5. Explain why RNA, and not DNA, was probably the first self-replicating molecule. Describe one piece of experimental evidence that supports this hypothesis.

Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s).

Shuichi Nakano reported in Science in February 2000 that, "The RNA enzyme (ribozyme) from hepatitis delta virus catalyzes self-cleavage of a . . . [chemical] . . . bond." This reaction is inherently slow due to the formation of an unfavorable negative charge on the ribozyme. The author goes on to show that this self-cleavage is made faster by joining it with an acid-base reaction that neutralizes the negative charge. Nakano's model describes a positively charged cytosine base on the ribozyme acting as the acid, and magnesium hydroxide acting as the base. Specifically, the cytosine donates its proton (H+) to neutralize the unstable negative charge that would have formed on the ribozyme.

36) Is Nakano's quote consistent with the textbook's claim that RNA is a good candidate for the first life-form?

A) yes

B) no

Answer: A

Explanation: This study describes another catalytic mechanism for RNA polymers.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 4-5. Explain why RNA, and not DNA, was probably the first self-replicating molecule. Describe one piece of experimental evidence that supports this hypothesis.

37) Which of the following chemical bonds do you think Nakano is referring to in his quote?

A) peptide

B) glycosidic

C) phosphodiester

D) ionic

Answer: C

Explanation: Answer is C since ribozymes are RNA polymers, and the reaction is described as a self-cleavage

Type: MC

Reference: Section 4 4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 4-5. Explain why RNA, and not DNA, was probably the first self-replicating molecule. Describe one piece of experimental evidence that supports this hypothesis.

38) What can be inferred about the free-energy profile for the self-cleavage reaction from the information provided in the paragraph? A) It must be endergonic. B) It must be exergonic. C) It must be endothermic. D) It must be exothermic. Answer: B Explanation: The answer is implied in the Nakano quote by the word catalyzes. Type: MC Reference: Section 4.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 4-5. Explain why RNA, and not DNA, was probably the first self-replicating molecule. Describe one piece of experimental evidence that supports this hypothesis. 39) If the cytosine is positively charged (+) before self-cleavage, what would its charge be after self-cleavage? A) + (positive) B) - (negative) C) 0 (neutral) D) no way to predict Answer: B Explanation: The cytosine is normally positive because one of its nitrogens is protonated. This is easily accomplished because the structure of the ribozyme perturbs the cytosine just enough to give it a pKa near 7. Thus, it can readily gain or lose a proton at physiological pHs. Type: MC Reference: Section 4.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 4-1. Sketch a nucleotide, label its three basic components, and identify the 2', 3', and 5' carbon in a five-carbon sugar. 40) In the acidbase reaction described in the preceding paragraph, a proton (H+) is being transferred. What is acting as the proton acceptor? A) cytosine B) magnesium hydroxide C) the virus D) A, B, or C. Any one of these can act as the acceptor. Answer: B Explanation: This answer is implied in the statement that magnesium hydroxide is acting as the base. In reality, there are two proton transfers: one from cytosine to a guanine base at position 1 on the ribozyme; the other from a uracil to magnesium hydroxide. Type: MC Reference: Section 4.1, 9.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Applying LO: 4-1. Sketch a nucleotide, label its three basic components, and identify the 2', 3', and 5' carbon in a five-carbon sugar.

41) As Nakano states in the final sentences of his report, "The catalytic strategies described herein . . . could allow RNA to catalyze . . . peptide bond formation. Such features [of the ribozyme] would enhance the ability of RNA to evolve and make the transition from an RNA world to a ribonucleoprotein world." Explain what Nakano means in this statement, and discuss whether this statement agrees with claims in your textbook regarding the chemical evolution of RNA and the first life-forms.

Answer: Essay

Type: SA

Reference: Section 4.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing LO: 4-5. Explain why RNA, and not DNA, was probably the first self-replicating molecule. Describe one piece of experimental evidence that supports this hypothesis.

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition (Freeman et al.)

Chapter 5 An Introduction to Carbohydrates

1) How do the α and β forms of glucose differ? A) Their ring structures differ in the location of a hydroxyl group. B) Their linear structures differ in the location of a hydroxyl group. C) The α form can be involved in 1,4 and 1,6 glycosidic linkages; the β form can participate only in 1,4 linkages. D) The oxygen atom inside the ring is located in a different position.

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 5.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 5-2. Sketch several representative monosaccharides, illustrating three ways in which monosaccharides can differ from one another. 2) Which of the following linkages would you expect to find at a branch point in glycogen or amylopectin? A) α-1,4-glycosidic linkage B) β-1,4-glycosidic linkage C) α-1,6-glycosidic linkage D) β-1,6-glycosidic linkage

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 5.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 5-3. Describe the type of monomer, the type of linkage, the branching (if any), and the major functions of the following polysaccharides: starch, glycogen, cellulose, chitin, and peptidoglycan. 3) Which of the following can vary among monosaccharides? A) the number of carbon atoms B) the presence of a carbonyl group C) the presence of hydroxyl groups D) all of the above Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 5.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 5-3. Describe the type of monomer, the type of linkage, the branching (if any), and the major functions of the following polysaccharides: starch, glycogen, cellulose, chitin, and peptidoglycan.

4) What is the difference between an aldose sugar and a ketose sugar?

A) the number of carbons

B) the position of the hydroxyl groups

C) the position of the carbonyl group

D) one is a ring form, the other is a linear chain

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 5.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 5-2. Sketch several representative monosaccharides, illustrating three ways in which monosaccharides can differ from one another.

5) Which of the following sugars might have the formula C6H12O6?

A) triose

B) pentose

C) hexose

D) heptose

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 5.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 5-2 Sketch several representative monosaccharides, illustrating three ways in which monosaccharides can differ from one another

6) The term carbohydrate is appropriate because of which of the following characteristics of sugars?

A) They all have the general formula (CH2O)n.

B) They all have the general formula (C2H2O2)n

C) They all have the general formula (C2HO)n.

D) They all have the general formula (CHO2)n.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 5.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 5-1. List the features shared by all carbohydrates.

7) Carbohydrates have been shown to form

A) only in biotic conditions (inside living cells).

B) in biotic and abiotic conditions, but only if nucleotides and RNA have already formed.

C) in biotic and abiotic conditions, including outer space.

D) only in biotic conditions, when enough free energy is available to allow their formation.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 5.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 5-1. List the features shared by all carbohydrates.

8) Given that individuals with phenylketonuria are unable to metabolize phenylalanine, which of the following is most likely to be true in terms of what food items they should avoid?

A) all food with phenylalanine

B) all foods containing aspartame because it is artificial

C) all foods containing any artificial sweeteners because they are not natural

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Canadian Issues 5.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 5-4. Name and give an example of each of the three major functions that carbohydrates perform in cells.

9) Why do artificial sweeteners have less calories than sucrose and fructose, but still taste sweet?

A) They bind to specific taste receptor, but are quickly metabolized by the body.

B) They do not bind to any receptors and are quickly eliminated from the body.

C) They bind to a specific taste receptor, but do not have any ATP.

D) They bind to ATP, which then binds to the taste receptor.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Canadian Issues 5.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 5-4 Name and give an example of each of the three major functions that carbohydrates perform in cells

10) You like to add sugar to your coffee. Why would you need 1 teaspoon of table sugar to make it as sweet as only 1/8 of a teaspoon of an artificial sweetener?

A) Artificial sweeteners bind to a wider variety of receptors that detect sweetness, whereas table sugar only binds to one.

B) Artificial sweeteners have a greater affinity for the receptor that detects sweetness relative to table sugar.

C) Artificial sweeteners expand in the body once they encounter certain enzymes.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Canadian Issues 5.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 5-4. Name and give an example of each of the three major functions that carbohydrates perform in cells

11) Synthesis of larger sugars has allowed us to study them more in depth. Which of the following are potential benefits/reasons why we would want to study oligosaccharides in detail? A) Oligosaccharides are present on cell surfaces and are part of cell identity mechanisms. B) Oligosaccharides are embedded in the cell membrane and help transport molecules across the membrane. C) Oligosacchrides are one of the information molecules of the cell. D) Oligosaccharides form the part of the membrane bilayer that controls membrane permeability. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Canadian Research 5.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 5-4. Name and give an example of each of the three major functions that carbohydrates perform in cells. 12) Which of the following carbohydrates contains a peptide bond? A) Carbohydrates don't contain peptide bonds; only proteins do. B) cellulose C) chitin D) peptidoglycan E) glycogen Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 5.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 5-3. Describe the type of monomer, the type of linkage, the branching (if any), and the major functions of the following polysaccharides: starch, glycogen, cellulose, chitin, and peptidoglycan. 13) Scientists believe polysaccharides played little role, if any, in chemical evolution. Which of the following is not true of polysaccharides, leading scientists to discount them as the first life- forms? A) They are incapable of catalyzing chemical reactions. B) Because there is no complementary pairing between monosaccharides, they cannot provide the information for copying themselves. C) The formation of glycosidic linkages between monosaccharides has been observed only with complex enzymes that would have come after chemical evolution during biological evolution. D) Polysaccharides are polymers, meaning they contain many monomer subunits. Polymers have never been observed to form, in any type of molecule, under laboratory conditions. Answer: D Explanation: The amount of material addressed in this question could make it useful for in-class discussion. Type: MC Reference: Section 5.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 5-3 Describe the type of monomer, the type of linkage, the branching (if any), and the major functions of the following polysaccharides: starch, glycogen, cellulose, chitin, and peptidoglycan

14) What is the major structural difference between starch and glycogen?

A) the types of monosaccharide subunits in the molecules

B) the type of glycosidic linkages in the molecule

C) whether glucose is in the α or β form

D) the amount of branching that occurs in the molecule

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 5.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 5-3. Describe the type of monomer, the type of linkage, the branching (if any), and the major functions of the following polysaccharides: starch, glycogen, cellulose, chitin, and peptidoglycan.

15) Which of the following do starch and cellulose have in common?

A) the type of glycosidic linkage used

B) the size of their monosaccharide subunits

C) the amount of hydrogen bonding that occurs between parallel strands

D) their main function in plants

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 5.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 5-3. Describe the type of monomer, the type of linkage, the branching (if any), and the major functions of the following polysaccharides: starch, glycogen, cellulose, chitin, and peptidoglycan.

16) Which of the following structural features is common to cellulose, chitin, and peptidoglycan?

A) They are all composed of glucose in either the α or β form

B) They all contain peptide bonds

C) They can all form bonds between polymer chains that create parallel strands

D) They all form highly branched fibers

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 5.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 5-3. Describe the type of monomer, the type of linkage, the branching (if any), and the major functions of the following polysaccharides: starch, glycogen, cellulose, chitin, and peptidoglycan.

17) A glycosidic linkage is analogous to which of the following in proteins?

A) an amino group

B) a peptide bond

C) a disulfide bond

D) a β-pleated sheet

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 5.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 5-3. Describe the type of monomer, the type of linkage, the branching (if any), and the major functions of the following polysaccharides: starch, glycogen, cellulose, chitin, and peptidoglycan.

18) Which of these best reflects the following relationship: monosaccharide versus polysaccharide?

A) glucose versus glycogen

B) glucose versus fructose

C) 1,4-glycosidic linkage versus 1,6-glycosidic linkage

D) α-linkage versus β-linkage

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 5.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 5-3. Describe the type of monomer, the type of linkage, the branching (if any), and the major functions of the following polysaccharides: starch, glycogen, cellulose, chitin, and peptidoglycan

19) Enzymes that readily break starch apart cannot hydrolyze the glycosidic linkages found in cellulose Why is this logical?

A) The geometry of the bonds is different, and the shapes of enzyme active sites are highly specific

B) Starch is held together by hydrogen bonding, not covalent bonding

C) Cellulose molecules are highly branched, and enzymes are too bulky to fit.

D) Starch is held together by peptide bonds, not glycosidic linkages.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 5.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 5-3. Describe the type of monomer, the type of linkage, the branching (if any), and the major functions of the following polysaccharides: starch, glycogen, cellulose, chitin, and peptidoglycan.

20) Peptidoglycan forms sheets that stiffen the cell walls of bacteria. How is the formation of sheets possible? A) The polysaccharides in peptidoglycan are highly branched and form a network. B) The glycosidic linkages between monosaccharides in peptidoglycan are extraordinarily strong. C) Individual strands are joined by peptide bonds a type of covalent bond. D) The polysaccharides in peptidoglycan form helical structures, as in cellulose. Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 5.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 5-3. Describe the type of monomer, the type of linkage, the branching (if any), and the major functions of the following polysaccharides: starch, glycogen, cellulose, chitin, and peptidoglycan. 21) Lactose, a sugar in milk, is composed of one glucose molecule joined by a glycosidic linkage to one galactose molecule. How is lactose classified? A) as a pentose B) as a hexose C) as a monosaccharide D) as a disaccharide E) as a polysaccharide Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 5.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 5-3. Describe the type of monomer, the type of linkage, the branching (if any), and the major functions of the following polysaccharides: starch, glycogen, cellulose, chitin, and peptidoglycan. 22) Which polysaccharide is an important component in the structure of many animals and fungi? A) chitin B) cellulose C) peptidoglycan D) amylose Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 5.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 5-3. Describe the type of monomer, the type of linkage, the branching (if any), and the major functions of the following polysaccharides: starch, glycogen, cellulose, chitin, and peptidoglycan.

23) Glucose (C6H12O6) has a single carbonyl group (-C=O) in its linear form. Based on the number of oxygen atoms in glucose, how many hydroxyl groups (-OH) would you expect glucose to have? A) 6 B) 5 C) 3 D) 1 Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 5.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 5-1. List the features shared by all carbohydrates.

24) Compare the molecular formula of a carbohydrate (CH2O)n with that of carbon dioxide (CO2). What does the presence of hydrogen atoms in carbohydrates indicate?

A) Carbohydrates are more reduced than carbon dioxide.

B) Carbohydrates are more oxidized than carbon dioxide.

C) Every carbon atom in a carbohydrate is bonded to four different atoms.

D) Carbohydrates contain a carbonyl functional group.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 5.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 5-4. Name and give an example of each of the three major functions that carbohydrates perform in cells.

25) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the hydrolysis of α-glycosidic linkages in glycogen?

A) amylase

B) phosphorylase

C) glycolase

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 5.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 5-3. Describe the type of monomer, the type of linkage, the branching (if any), and the major functions of the following polysaccharides: starch, glycogen, cellulose, chitin, and peptidoglycan.

26) Why do endurance athletes practice "carbohydrate loading," meaning to eat massive amounts of starch in the days leading up to a long race?

A) Starch is used as a building block for the synthesis of many other molecules.

B) Starch provides dietary fiber or "roughage" that aids digestion.

C) Carbohydrates are reduced molecules that can provide the chemical energy required during exercise.

D) Starch can be used to synthesize cellulose and build up the cell walls of muscles.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 5.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 5-4. Name and give an example of each of the three major functions that carbohydrates perform in cells.

27) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the hydrolysis of α-glycosidic linkages in starch?

A) amylase

B) phosphorylase

C) glycolase

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 5.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 5-4. Name and give an example of each of the three major functions that carbohydrates perform in cells.

28) Which of the following polysaccharides is made up of parallel strands joined together by peptide bonds?

A) glycogen

B) starch

C) cellulose

D) peptidoglycan

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 5.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 5-3. Describe the type of monomer, the type of linkage, the branching (if any), and the major functions of the following polysaccharides: starch, glycogen, cellulose, chitin, and peptidoglycan.

29) Which of the following polysaccharides is made up of parallel strands joined together by hydrogen bonds?

A) glycogen

B) starch

C) chitin

D) peptidoglycan

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 5.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 5-3. Describe the type of monomer, the type of linkage, the branching (if any), and the major functions of the following polysaccharides: starch, glycogen, cellulose, chitin, and peptidoglycan.

30) Which of the following best explains why "carbs" (carbohydrates) are advertised by manufacturers of candy bars and sports drinks as a "quick energy boost"?

A) The energy in them can be stored as fat, which has high energy per unit weight.

B) The carbons in carbs are rich in energy because they are highly oxidized.

C) Carbs are reduced molecules that have high-energy electrons.

D) This is an advertising gimmick that has no scientific evidence to support it.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 5.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 5-4. Name and give an example of each of the three major functions that carbohydrates perform in cells

31) Which of the following molecules would you expect to have the most free energy per gram?

A) one with carbon and hydrogen atoms only

B) one with carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms only

C) one with a variety of atoms that are found in cells

D) one with hydrogen and oxygen atoms only

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 5.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 5-4. Name and give an example of each of the three major functions that carbohydrates perform in cells.

32) Which of the following polysaccharides is made up of highly branched helices?

A) glycogen

B) chitin

C) cellulose

D) peptidoglycan

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 5.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 5-3. Describe the type of monomer, the type of linkage, the branching (if any), and the major functions of the following polysaccharides: starch, glycogen, cellulose, chitin, and peptidoglycan.

33) Why do plants require sunlight?

A) Sunlight helps plants break down their food products so they can extract the energy stored in them.

B) Sunlight energy can be used by plants to reduce the carbon atoms in carbon dioxide.

C) Sunlight oxidizes carbon dioxide and water to form glucose.

D) Sunlight can be used directly by plants to perform a number of physiological processes.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 5.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 5-4. Name and give an example of each of the three major functions that carbohydrates perform in cells.

34) An important step in utilizing complex carbohydrates as an energy source is to break their glycosidic linkages This is necessary because the digestive system cannot absorb any carbohydrates larger than a monosaccharide Using information in your textbook (Chapter 5 and the chapters on digestion), compile a list of at least five enzymes that can accomplish this Identify each enzyme's substrate and reaction products You may include enzymes found in any organism

Answer: Essay

Explanation: This is an essay question that can be used as a homework assignment before or after the material is presented in class. It can also be used either as an assessment tool to determine if students understand the difference between polysaccharides, disaccharides, and monosaccharides or as a take-home assessment.

Type: SA

Reference: Section 5.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 5-4. Name and give an example of each of the three major functions that carbohydrates perform in cells.

35) When an insect is crushed, it creates a crunching sound. What carbohydrate is the most likely source of this sound?

A) glycogen

B) chitin

C) peptidoglycan

D) cellulose

E) starch

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 5.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 5-3. Describe the type of monomer, the type of linkage, the branching (if any), and the major functions of the following polysaccharides: starch, glycogen, cellulose, chitin, and peptidoglycan.

36) If you were going to develop a new antibiotic, you would probably need to become an expert on which of these carbohydrates?

A) glycogen

B) chitin

C) peptidoglycan

D) cellulose

E) starch

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 5.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 5-3 Describe the type of monomer, the type of linkage, the branching (if any), and the major functions of the following polysaccharides: starch, glycogen, cellulose, chitin, and peptidoglycan

37) Cell walls are used by many different organisms for protection from their environment and structural support These cell walls must obviously be insoluble in water, otherwise, they would dissolve the first time the organism got wet. Which of the following carbohydrates would you expect to be the most soluble in water?

A) starch

B) peptidoglycan

C) cellulose

D) chitin

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 5.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 5-4. Name and give an example of each of the three major functions that carbohydrates perform in cells.

Use the following paragraph to answer to the corresponding question(s).

Masatomo Kawakubo et al. reported in Science in August 2004 that the human stomach contains a natural, carbohydrate-based antibiotic that probably protects a large portion of the population from various diseases caused by the bacterium Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium has been linked to peptic ulcers, gastritis, and stomach cancer. This naturally occurring antibiotic is described by Kawakubo as having a terminal α1,4-linked N-acetylglucosamine (NAG), and it acts by inhibiting the biosynthesis of a major component of the cell wall in H. pylori. [: M. Kawakubo et al., Science 305 (2004): 1003.]

38) Which of the following structures is most consistent with Kawakubo's description of this antibiotic?

Answer: A

Explanation: Can the student identify some of the common linkages found in carbohydrates that were discussed in this chapter?

Type: MC

Reference: Section 5 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 5-3. Describe the type of monomer, the type of linkage, the branching (if any), and the major functions of the following polysaccharides: starch, glycogen, cellulose, chitin, and peptidoglycan.

39) Kawakubo's group created a glycoprotein with a terminal NAG (i.e., a protein with NAG attached to its end). Their hypothesis is that the terminal NAG and not the protein component is responsible for the damage to the cell wall in H. pylori. What would be the most appropriate control for testing this hypothesis?

A) Grow H. pylori in a test tube (in vitro) with no glycoprotein.

B) Destroy the H. pylori by exposing them to a hypotonic solution. Then add the glycoprotein and observe.

C) Expose other species of bacteria to the glycoprotein.

D) Grow H. pylori in a test tube with glycoprotein that has its terminal NAG removed.

Answer: D

Explanation: This question includes concepts from Chapter 1. If the instructor has not yet discussed experimental controls, this question would make an excellent introduction to the subject.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 5.3, 1.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

LO: 5-3. Describe the type of monomer, the type of linkage, the branching (if any), and the major functions of the following polysaccharides: starch, glycogen, cellulose, chitin, and peptidoglycan.

40) In animals, the role of carbohydrate polymers is primarily

A) body protection.

B) information storage.

C) energy storage.

D) enzymes.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 5 4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 5-4 Name and give an example of each of the three major functions that carbohydrates perform in cells

41) Which of the following categories includes all others in the list?

A) monosaccharide

B) disaccharide

C) starch

D) carbohydrate

E) polysaccharide

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 5.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 5-1. List the features shared by all carbohydrates.

42) You isolate an organic molecule that contains C, H, O, N, and S. This molecule A) is a disaccharide. B) could be a glycoprotein. C) is a nucleic acid. D) could be cellulose. E) could be glycogen. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 5.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 5-4. Name and give an example of each of the three major functions that carbohydrates perform in cells. 43) How do carbohydrates contain and/or display information for cells? A) Carbohydrates store information in the nucleus. B) Carbohydrates contain and display information at the cell surface. C) Carbohydrates display information used by mitochondria to bond to substrates and catalyze reactions. D) Carbohydrates display information by moving throughout the cell. E) Carbohydrates have no role in containing or displaying information for cells. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 5.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 5-4. Name and give an example of each of the three major functions that carbohydrates perform in cells.

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition (Freeman et al.)

Chapter 6 Lipids, Membranes, and the First Cells

1) The term phospholipid can best be described by which of the following?

A) a nonpolar lipid molecule that is made polar by the addition of a phosphate

B) a nonpolar lipid molecule that is made amphipathic by the addition of a phosphate

C) a polar lipid molecule that fully interacts with water

D) a polar lipid molecule that fully repels water

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-1. Sketch a phospholipid's molecular structure, and explain why phospholipids spontaneously form bilayers in water.

2) What region of a steroid is hydrophilic?

A) the methyl (-CH3) groups

B) the terminal hydroxyl group

C) the ring structures

D) the long hydrocarbon chain

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6 1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-1

Sketch a phospholipid's molecular structure, and explain why phospholipids spontaneously form bilayers in water

3) What most distinguishes lipids from other biomolecules is

A) that only lipids contain hydrogen atoms.

B) their molecular weight (size).

C) their chemical properties.

D) where they are found in the body.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-1. Sketch a phospholipid's molecular structure, and explain why phospholipids spontaneously form bilayers in water

4) Cooking oil and gasoline (a hydrocarbon) are not amphipathic molecules. Why?

A) They do not have a polar or charged region.

B) They do not have a hydrophobic region.

C) They are highly reduced molecules.

D) They spontaneously form micelles or liposomes in solution.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 6-1. Sketch a phospholipid's molecular structure, and explain why phospholipids spontaneously form bilayers in water.

5) You make a phospholipid bilayer with short, saturated hydrocarbon tails. You measure the permeability of this membrane to oxygen. You then double the length of the hydrocarbon tails and remeasure membrane permeability. You then double the length of the hydrocarbon tails again and make a third measurement of membrane permeability. You graph membrane permeability as a function of hydrocarbon tail length. Which of the following graphs best represents the data you expect?

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 6-1. Sketch a phospholipid's molecular structure, and explain why phospholipids spontaneously form bilayers in water.

6) In marshes and other wet areas where vegetation is rotting, the water surface often has an oily sheen due to insoluble compounds. What are these molecules?

A) nucleic acids

B) proteins

C) lipids

D) carbohydrates

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-1. Sketch a phospholipid's molecular structure, and explain why phospholipids spontaneously form bilayers in water.

7) You want to view the surface of a particular cell or tissue (group of related cells) at magnifications above 1000x. What tool would you use?

A) scanning electron microscope

B) transmission electron microscope

C) light microscope

D) confocal microscope

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-4. Describe at least three ways in which membrane proteins can help substances cross a cell membrane.

8) Which characteristic would be expected in the plasma membranes of a plant that can survive winters in Northern Ontario, compared to a plant growing in a warmer region?

A) a higher percentage of saturated fatty acids

B) a higher percentage of unsaturated fatty acids

C) higher levels of cholesterol

D) additional glycerol molecules packed in between fatty acid tails

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

LO: 6-1. Sketch a phospholipid's molecular structure, and explain why phospholipids spontaneously form bilayers in water.

9) Steroids are

A) a class of lipid with a four-ring structure.

B) a class of transmembrane transport proteins.

C) a portion of all phospholipids.

D) powered by ATP.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-1. Sketch a phospholipid's molecular structure, and explain why phospholipids spontaneously form bilayers in water.

10) Phospholipids can form all of the following structures in water EXCEPT which one?

A) micelles

B) bilayers

C) monolayers

D) vesicles

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-1 Sketch a phospholipid's molecular structure, and explain why phospholipids spontaneously form bilayers in water

11) Phospholipid bilayer membranes are selectively permeable. What does that mean?

A) They allow everything but water to cross.

B) They allow only water to cross.

C) They allow everything nonpolar to cross.

D) They allow some things to cross while restricting others.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-2. Predict which way a certain substance will diffuse, given its concentration on either side of a selectively permeable membrane.

12) Which of the following substances would most likely require a protein to facilitate its diffusion across a cell membrane?

A) water

B) glycerol

C) fatty acid

D) oxygen gas (O2)

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-2. Predict which way a certain substance will diffuse, given its concentration on either side of a selectively permeable membrane.

13) If you mechanically shook a mixture of amphipathic lipids and water, what would you expect to see when the solution is observed with an electron microscope?

A) The lipids and water will have separated into two distinct layers because the lipids are partially nonpolar.

B) The lipids will have formed tiny vesicles filled with water.

C) The lipids will have formed planar bilayer membranes.

D) The lipids will have completely dissolved in the solution because they are partially polar.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-1. Sketch a phospholipid's molecular structure, and explain why phospholipids spontaneously form bilayers in water.

14) What do phospholipids and triglycerides have in common?

A) They both contain serine or some other organic compound

B) They both have three fatty acids.

C) They both have a glycerol backbone.

D) They both have a phosphate.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-1. Sketch a phospholipid's molecular structure, and explain why phospholipids spontaneously form bilayers in water.

15) What type of functional group results when the alcohol group on glycerol reacts with the carboxylic acid group on a fatty acid?

A) ester

B) hydrocarbon

C) peptide bond

D) glycosidic bond

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-1. Sketch a phospholipid's molecular structure, and explain why phospholipids spontaneously form bilayers in water.

16) In an experiment involving planar bilayers, a solution of table salt (sodium and chloride ions in water) is added on the left side of the membrane, while pure water is added on the right side. After 30 minutes, the researchers test for the presence of ions on each side of the membrane. The right side tests negative for ions. What can you conclude?

A) The experiment failed.

B) The water somehow blocked the movement of ions across the membrane.

C) The left side would probably also test negative for ions.

D) Ions cannot cross planar bilayers.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 6-2 Predict which way a certain substance will diffuse, given its concentration on either side of a selectively permeable membrane

17) Which of the following phospholipid membranes would be most permeable to glycerol?

A) one with long and saturated fatty-acid tails

B) one with long and unsaturated tails

C) one with short and saturated tails

D) one with short and unsaturated tails

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 6-2. Predict which way a certain substance will diffuse, given its concentration on either side of a selectively permeable membrane.

18) Which of the following is the best explanation for why vegetable oil is a liquid at room temperature, while animal fats are solid?

A) Vegetable oil has more double bonds than animal fats.

B) Vegetable oil has fewer double bonds than animal fats.

C) Animal fats have no amphipathic character.

D) Vegetable oil has longer fatty-acid tails than animal fats have.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 6-1. Sketch a phospholipid's molecular structure, and explain why phospholipids spontaneously form bilayers in water.

19) Which of the following is the best explanation for why cholesterol decreases the permeability of biological membranes?

A) Cholesterol binds to the outside surface of a membrane, thus blocking the movement of solutes.

B) Because cholesterol is amphipathic, it forms tiny vesicles that trap solutes.

C) Because cholesterol is amphipathic, it fits in between the phospholipids and blocks diffusion through the membrane.

D) Cholesterol has four rings in its structure that can sequester (trap) solutes.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-1 Sketch a phospholipid's molecular structure, and explain why phospholipids spontaneously form bilayers in water

20) You make a phospholipid bilayer with short, saturated hydrocarbon tails. You measure the permeability of this membrane to oxygen. You are going to change the length of the hydrocarbon tails and remeasure membrane permeability, but first your boss asks you to graph the data you expect if there is no effect of hydrocarbon tail length on membrane permeability (your null hypothesis). Which of the following graphs best represents the data you expect if your null hypothesis is correct? A)

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 6-1. Sketch a phospholipid's molecular structure, and explain why phospholipids spontaneously form bilayers in water.

21) Which aspect of phospholipids is most important to the formation of bilayers?

A) They are amphipathic.

B) Their size is large, relative to cholesterol.

C) Their size is small, relative to fats.

D) Their hydrocarbon tails can consist of fatty acids or isoprene subunits.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-1. Sketch a phospholipid's molecular structure, and explain why phospholipids spontaneously form bilayers in water.

22) Which of the following increases the strength of the hydrophobic interactions in lipid bilayers and thus makes them less permeable to polar molecules?

A) the presence of double bonds

B) increasing temperature

C) removing cholesterol

D) increasing length of the hydrocarbon chains

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-1 Sketch a phospholipid's molecular structure, and explain why phospholipids spontaneously form bilayers in water

23) Why do lipid bilayers form spontaneously?

A) The process is endergonic.

B) The process is exergonic.

C) The process leads to a huge decrease in entropy and no change in potential energy.

D) The process is endothermic.

Answer: B

Explanation: This would be a good question to use at the start of a class period because it ties the material to previous chapters and reinforces vocabulary

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-1 Sketch a phospholipid's molecular structure, and explain why phospholipids spontaneously form bilayers in water

24) Which of the following crosses lipid bilayers the fastest?

A) a sodium ion

B) a small, polar molecule like water

C) a large, polar molecule like glucose

D) a small, nonpolar molecule like oxygen (O2)

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-2. Predict which way a certain substance will diffuse, given its concentration on either side of a selectively permeable membrane.

25) Which of the following crosses lipid bilayers the slowest?

A) a sodium ion

B) a small, polar molecule like water

C) a large, polar molecule like glucose

D) a small, nonpolar molecule like oxygen (O2)

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-2. Predict which way a certain substance will diffuse, given its concentration on either side of a selectively permeable membrane.

26) Why does cholesterol lower membrane permeability?

A) It is polar.

B) It fills gaps in membranes and increases hydrophobic interactions.

C) It participates in hydrogen bonding in the membrane interior.

D) It is small relative to most phospholipids.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-2. Predict which way a certain substance will diffuse, given its concentration on either side of a selectively permeable membrane.

27) You have just discovered an organism that lives in extremely cold environments. Which of the following would you predict to be true about the phospholipids in its membranes, compared to phospholipids in the membranes of organisms that live in warmer environments?

A) The membrane phospholipids of cold-adapted organisms will have longer hydrocarbon tails.

B) The membrane phospholipids of cold-adapted organisms will have more saturated hydrocarbon tails.

C) The membrane phospholipids of cold-adapted organisms will have more unsaturated hydrocarbon tails.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 6-2. Predict which way a certain substance will diffuse, given its concentration on either side of a selectively permeable membrane.

28) You have a planar bilayer with equal amounts of saturated and unsaturated phospholipids. After testing the permeability of this membrane to glucose, you increase the proportion of unsaturated phospholipids in the bilayer. What will happen to the membrane's permeability to glucose?

A) You can't predict the outcome. You simply have to make the measurement.

B) Permeability to glucose will increase.

C) Permeability to glucose will decrease.

D) Permeability to glucose will stay the same.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 6-2 Predict which way a certain substance will diffuse, given its concentration on either side of a selectively permeable membrane

29) You have a planar bilayer at a relatively warm temperature After testing the permeability of this membrane to glucose, you increase the quantity of cholesterol in the bilayer What will happen?

A) You can't predict the outcome. You simply have to make the measurement.

B) Permeability to glucose will increase.

C) Permeability to glucose will decrease.

D) Permeability to glucose will stay the same.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 6-2. Predict which way a certain substance will diffuse, given its concentration on either side of a selectively permeable membrane.

30) The text states that ribonucleotides can diffuse through some types of liposomes. It's likely that the lipids present early in chemical evolution had short chains. Would liposomes formed from these types of lipids be more or less permeable to ribonucleotides than if early cells formed from long-chained lipids?

A) more permeable

B) less permeable

C) same permeability

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 6-2. Predict which way a certain substance will diffuse, given its concentration on either side of a selectively permeable membrane.

31) What will happen to a red blood cell (rbc), which has an internal ion concentration of about 0.9 percent, if it is placed into a beaker of pure water?

A) Nothing.

B) The cell would shrink because the water in the beaker is hypotonic relative to the cytoplasm of the rbc.

C) The cell would shrink because the water in the beaker is hypertonic relative to the cytoplasm of the rbc.

D) The cell would swell because the water in the beaker is hypotonic relative to the cytoplasm of the rbc.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 6-3 Predict which way water will move, given the overall solute concentration on either side

32) Under what circumstances does membrane transport always require energy?

A) whenever molecules are moved that are too large to pass through the phospholipid bilayer membrane

B) whenever a solute needs to be moved from low concentration to high concentration through a phospholipid bilayer membrane

C) whenever a solute is charged, such as an ion, and is moved through a phospholipid bilayer membrane

D) whenever a molecule is polar and is moved through a phospholipid bilayer membrane

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-5. Define the difference between passive transport and active transport, and give an example of each.

33) What is the most important factor in explaining why diffusion occurs spontaneously? A) It leads to an increase in entropy. B) It leads to a decrease in entropy. C) The process is exothermic. D) The process is endothermic. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 6.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 6-5. Define the difference between passive transport and active transport, and give an example of each. 34) You make two sucrose solutions, one 0.5M and one of 2M and go out for lunch. When you return, you realize that you forgot to label the beakers! You remake the solutions, but give the undergrads in your lab an experiment to determine which beaker holds which solution. They fill two balloons, which are semi-permeable to water, but not to sucrose, with a 0.75M sucrose solution. One balloon is then placed in each of the unknown sucrose solution beakers. After several hours, they observe that the balloon in beaker 1 has swelled, while the balloon in beaker 2 has shriveled. This indicates that the solution in beaker 1 was relative to the solution in the balloon, while beaker 2's solution was relative to the solution in the balloon. A) hypertonic, hypotonic B) hypotonic, hypertonic C) hypotonic, isotonic D) hypertonic, isotonic Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 6.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying LO: 6-3. Predict which way water will move, given the overall solute concentration on either side.

35) You make two sucrose solutions, one of 0.5M and one of 2M and go out for lunch. When you return, you realize that you forgot to label the beakers! You remake the solutions, but give the undergrads in your lab an experiment to determine which beaker holds which solution. They fill two balloons, which are semi-permeable to water, but not to sucrose, with a 0.75M sucrose solution. One balloon is then placed in each of the unknown sucrose solution beakers. After several hours, they observe that the balloon in beaker 1 has swelled, while the balloon in beaker 2 has shrivelled. This indicates that beaker one contained the sucrose solution, while beaker 2 contained the sucrose solution. A) 0.5M; 2M B) 2M; 0.5M C) unable to determine given the information provided. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 6.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying LO: 6-3. Predict which way water will move, given the overall solute concentration on either side. 36) What is the most important factor in explaining why osmosis occurs spontaneously? A) It leads to an increase in entropy. B) It leads to a decrease in entropy. C) The process is exothermic. D) The process is endothermic. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 6.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 6-3. Predict which way water will move, given the overall solute concentration on either side. 37) Which of the following is not true of osmosis? A) It is a special case of diffusion. B) It is an energy-demanding or "active" process. C) Water moves from areas of high water concentration to areas of low water concentration. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 6.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 6-3. Predict which way water will move, given the overall solute concentration on either side.

38) Suppose some blood cells were in an isotonic solution. What would happen to them?

A) They would shrink.

B) They would expand.

C) They would remain the same size.

D) The outcome is not predictable.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 6-3. Predict which way water will move, given the overall solute concentration on either side.

39) Valine, a nonpolar amino acid, shows up in the wrong place in the hemoglobin of sickle-cell anemia, causing the disease. This is due to a genetic mutation. The result of this mutation is that hemoglobin molecules which transport oxygen in red blood cells stick together, causing the red blood cells to become distorted, but without having any significant effect on oxygen binding. Based on what you know about protein structure and the polarity of amino acids, predict where the mutated valine would most likely be found.

A) on the surface of hemoglobin

B) in the deep interior of hemoglobin

C) in the oxygen binding site of hemoglobin

D) along a nonpolar region of a β-pleated sheet

Answer: A

Explanation: This would make an excellent discussion starter.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6 4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 6-4 Describe at least three ways in which membrane proteins can help substances cross a cell membrane

40) The cell membrane is often referred to as asymmetrical or "mosaic" This means that A) both layers of the phospholipid bilayer are not identical in terms of protein type or number and phospholipid type.

B) only certain substances can pass through the phospholipid bilayer freely, while others require the help of membrane proteins.

C) the phospholipids of the membrane can flip-flop such that phospholipids from the inner layer are exchanged with those from the outer layer.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-4. Describe at least three ways in which membrane proteins can help substances cross a cell membrane.

41) What is the name of the currently accepted model of membrane structure, and where does it place membrane proteins?

A) fluid-mosaic; on the surfaces of the membrane only

B) fluid-mosaic; embedded within the membrane and on the surfaces of the membrane

C) sandwich; on the outside and inside surfaces of the membrane only

D) sandwich; embedded within the membrane and on the surfaces of the membrane

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-4. Describe at least three ways in which membrane proteins can help substances cross a cell membrane.

42) Which of the following observations made with freeze-fracture electron microscopy provides evidence for the fluid-mosaic model of membrane structure?

A) The middle of the membrane viewed under the electron microscope was smooth and regular.

B) The exterior surface of the membrane contained pits and mounds.

C) The inner surfaces of the membrane contained pits and mounds.

D) The exterior surface of the membrane contained pits only.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-4. Describe at least three ways in which membrane proteins can help substances cross a cell membrane.

43) Integral membrane proteins stay in membranes because of

A) osmotic pressure from proteins outside the cell

B) diffusion of proteins from the cytoplasm to the membrane

C) the locations of their polar and nonpolar amino acids

D) their small size, which does not allow them to pass through the membrane

Answer: C

Explanation: This is a general question on form and function of proteins and their charge and polarity interactions with membranes. It can also be viewed as an opposite logic to the discussion and illustration in the text of the detergent effect on breakup of proteins (6.21).

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-4. Describe at least three ways in which membrane proteins can help substances cross a cell membrane.

44) Where would you most likely find an integral membrane protein?

A) on the inside surface of the cell membrane

B) on the outside surface of the cell membrane

C) floating freely in the cytoplasm

D) spanning the cell membrane, with parts of the protein visible from both the inside and the outside of the cell

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-4. Describe at least three ways in which membrane proteins can help substances cross a cell membrane.

45)

Based on the figure provided, which of the following experimental treatments would increase the rate of sucrose transport into the cell?

A) decreasing extracellular sucrose concentration

B) decreasing extracellular pH

C) decreasing cytoplasmic pH

D) adding an inhibitor that blocks the regeneration of ATP

E) adding a substance that makes the membrane more permeable to hydrogen ions

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 6-5. Define the difference between passive transport and active transport, and give an example of each.

46) Which of the following means of transport would most likely be used for moving a mediumsized molecule (like a monosaccharide or an amino acid) from a low concentration on the outside of a cell to a high concentration on the inside of a cell?

A) facilitated diffusion through an ion channel protein

B) facilitated diffusion through a transporter protein

C) active transport through a "pump" protein

D) passive transport

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 6-5. Define the difference between passive transport and active transport, and give an example of each.

47) Which of the following best describes how CFTR functions?

A) It acts by active transport.

B) It causes membranes to fuse with one another.

C) It forms a channel in the membrane.

D) It removes electrical charges from solutes.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 6-5. Define the difference between passive transport and active transport, and give an example of each.

48) Which of the following is not a difference between passive facilitated transport and active transport?

A) Active transport requires energy input in the form of ATP, while facilitated transport does not

B) Active transport moves substances against their concentration gradient, while facilitated transport moves substances down their concentrations gradient

C) Active transport requires a membrane protein to move molecules across the plasma membrane, while facilitated transport does not.

D) Active transport and facilitated transport both play a role in maintaining proper concentrations of substances in the intra- and extracellular environments.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-5. Define the difference between passive transport and active transport, and give an example of each.

49) In secondary active transport

A) two molecules are simultaneously moved across the cell membrane down their concentration gradients with the help of transport proteins.

B) water is moved across the cell membrane based on solute concentration.

C) a gradient is set up by a pump which then provides the potential energy to move a different molecule against its concentration gradient.

D) Molecules are able to cross the plasma membrane unassisted with the help of ATP.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 6-5. Define the difference between passive transport and active transport, and give an example of each.

Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s).

Rhodopsins are light-sensitive molecules composed of a protein (opsin) and retinal (derivative of vitamin A). Opsin is a membrane protein with several α-helical segments that loop back and forth through the plasma membrane. There are two classes of rhodopsins. According to Oded Beje, one class has relatively slow dynamics (a photocycle of approximately 0.5 second) and is well suited for light detection. The second class has faster dynamics (a photocycle of approximately 0.02 seconds) and is well suited for chemiosmosis pumping of protons or chloride ions across cell membranes. Oded Beje was the first, in September 2000, to report on a rhodopsin (proteorhodopsin) found in the domain Bacteria. [Source: O. Beje et al., Science 289 (2000): 1902.]

50) Which of the following best describes this particular protein?

A) integral

B) peripheral

C) external

D) internal

Answer: A

Explanation: Does the student recognize an integral membrane protein from a schematic representation?

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-4. Describe at least three ways in which membrane proteins can help substances cross a cell membrane.

51) Proteorhodopsin consists of a single polypeptide chain. What is the highest level of structure found in this protein?

A) primary

B) secondary

C) tertiary

D) quaternary

Answer: C

Explanation: This question ties in Chapter 3 on protein structure.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-4. Describe at least three ways in which membrane proteins can help substances cross a cell membrane.

52) GLUT-1 is an example of what?

A) a membrane-bound pump that moves large molecules against a gradient by using ATP

B) a protein that is toxic to cells because it opens channels in membranes

C) a recognition protein that identifies cells as belonging to the body

D) a transport protein that facilitates diffusion of a large molecule across cell membranes

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-5. Define the difference between passive transport and active transport, and give an example of each.

53) Sodium-potassium pumps

A) move three potassium ions and two sodium ions while producing an ATP for each cycle

B) move two potassium ions and three sodium ions while consuming an ATP for each cycle

C) produce ATP for cells while making the outside of cell membranes negatively charged D) use ATP molecules to move protons to the inner side of cell membranes

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-4. Describe at least three ways in which membrane proteins can help substances cross a cell membrane.

54) Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a membrane-transport disease that is caused by an allele found primarily in Caucasian populations. What mechanism fails in CF patients?

A) production of ATP

B) movement of sodium and potassium across cell membranes

C) movement of chloride ions across cell membranes

D) phospholipids in the cell membrane that are not formed properly

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 6-4. Describe at least three ways in which membrane proteins can help substances cross a cell membrane.

55) Glucose diffuses slowly through artificial phospholipid bilayers. The cells lining the small intestine, however, rapidly move large quantities of glucose from the glucose-rich food into their glucose-poor cytoplasm. Using this information, which transport mechanism is most probably functioning in the intestinal cells?

A) simple diffusion

B) phagocytosis

C) active transport pumps

D) exocytosis

E) facilitated diffusion

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 6.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 6-5 Define the difference between passive transport and active transport, and give an example of each

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition

(Freeman et al.)

Chapter 7 Inside the Cell

1) What is the most likely role of a cell that contains an extensive smooth ER?

A) It plays a role in storage.

B) It synthesizes large quantities of lipids.

C) It actively exports protein molecules.

D) It plays a role in immune function.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 7-1. Describe the structure and function of individual cell components in prokaryotes and eukaryotes

2) The small intestine is the site of digestion and absorption of nutrients A single layer of epithelial cells lines the small intestine In the duodenum (the first section of the small intestine), these epithelial cells secrete large quantities of digestive enzymes Which of the following features would be typical of these epithelial cells?

A) They contain large numbers of lysosomes

B) They have more smooth endoplasmic reticulum than rough endoplasmic reticulum.

C) They contain large quantities of rough endoplasmic reticulum.

D) They have larger nuclei than cells that secrete large quantities of lipids.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 7-2. Explain how organelles are functionally integrated and how they vary among specialized cells in a multicellular eukaryotic organism.

3) One function of peroxisomes is alcohol detoxification. In which of the following locations would you expect to find large quantities of peroxisomes?

A) in liver tissue of people who drink large quantities of alcohol

B) in the stomach of people who drink large quantities of alcohol

C) in liver tissue of people who consume high-fat diets

D) in heart muscle of all people

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 7-1. Describe the structure and function of individual cell components in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

4) Why are lysosomes considered part of the endomembrane system?

A) They deposit end-products of digestion in the endoplasmic reticulum.

B) They facilitate movement between stacks of the Golgi.

C) They are formed from products synthesized by the endoplasmic reticulum and processed by the Golgi.

D) Lysosomes are not part of the endomembrane system.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 7-1. Describe the structure and function of individual cell components in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

5) Mitochondria are separated into two compartments, the matrix and the intermembrane space, by their inner and outer membranes. How does the presence of two compartments contribute to the function of mitochondria?

A) It enables mitochondrial DNA and ribosomes to remain separated from the functional compartment of the mitochondria.

B) The two compartments permit different but complementary functions to be accomplished in the organelle.

C) The double-membrane feature of mitochondria is what enables them to glycosylate proteins.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Table 7.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 7-1 Describe the structure and function of individual cell components in prokaryotes and eukaryotes

6) How is the nuclear membrane related to the endoplasmic reticulum?

A) Ribosomes that exit the nucleus through the nuclear pore complex attach to ribosome receptor locations on the endoplasmic reticulum, thus providing a means of communication between the two structures

B) The inner and outer bilayers of the nuclear envelope are separated by a space that is continuous with the space inside the endoplasmic reticulum, thus providing direct contact between the two structures.

C) The nucleolus is present in the nucleus, but communicates directly with the endoplasmic reticulum.

D) The nuclear lamina anchors the endoplasmic reticulum, providing structural support and communication through direct contact.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 7-1. Describe the structure and function of individual cell components in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

7) What is the site of synthesis of proteins for export (secretion from the cell)?

A) free ribosomes

B) ribosomes that attach to the endoplasmic reticulum

C) ribosomes that attach to the Golgi complex

D) ribosomes that attach to the outer mitochondrial membrane

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 7-1. Describe the structure and function of individual cell components in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

8) Which of the following is not a characteristic that chloroplasts and mitochondria share?

A) They both have their own DNA.

B) They both have multiple membranes.

C) They are both part of the endomembrane system.

D) They are capable of reproducing themselves.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 7-1 Describe the structure and function of individual cell components in prokaryotes and eukaryotes

9) Which of the following represents a major difference between prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells?

A) Prokaryotes, not eukaryotes, have cell walls.

B) Eukaryotic cells tend to have much more extensive inner membrane systems and larger numbers of intracellular organelles than prokaryotes.

C) Prokaryotes are unable to carry out aerobic respiration, a process that requires a complex inner-membrane system.

D) Prokaryotes are a more homogenous group of organisms than eukaryotes, which include protozoa, plants, and animals.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 7-1 Describe the structure and function of individual cell components in prokaryotes and eukaryotes

10) You have a distant cousin, age 4, who is always tired and fatigued and is not able to play games and sports like other healthy children. He is most likely to have an enzyme deficiency or defect associated with which intracellular organelle?

A) lysosomes

B) Golgi stacks

C) peroxisomes

D) mitochondria

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 7-1. Describe the structure and function of individual cell components in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

11) What is a purpose of the cell wall for both prokaryotes and plant cells?

A) to provide a means of cell-cell interaction

B) to enable the cell to obtain nutrients from its environment

C) to regulate the passage of solutes into and out of the cell

D) to protect the cell from the effects of a hypotonic environment

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7.1, 7.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 7-1. Describe the structure and function of individual cell components in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

12) Mitochondrial DNA codes for about 13 proteins (depending on the species of organism) These 13 proteins account for a small proportion of the proteins present in mitochondria The remaining proteins are coded for by nuclear DNA What is the most likely explanation for how these proteins find their way to the mitochondria?

A) signal sequences

B) random transport vesicles

C) attachment of ribosomes to outer mitochondrial pores and direct deposition into the inner mitochondrial compartment

D) mRNAs that are manufactured in the nucleus, but translated by mitochondrial ribosomes

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

LO: 7-3. Explain what molecular "postal codes" are and how they function.

13) Which of the following components would you expect to find in any type of living organism?

A) nucleus

B) chromosome

C) mitochondria

D) lysosome

E) microtubule

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7.1, 7.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 7-1. Describe the structure and function of individual cell components in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

14) What can you infer about high-molecular-weight proteins that cannot be transported into the nucleus?

A) They are foreign proteins.

B) They lack nuclear localization signals (NLS).

C) They are defective proteins.

D) They have been tagged for destruction.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

LO: 7-3. Explain what molecular "postal codes" are and how they function.

15) What is the function of the nuclear pore complex?

A) It regulates movement of materials across the nuclear envelope

B) It assembles ribosomes from raw materials that are synthesized in the nucleus

C) It synthesizes components of the endomembrane system

D) It synthesizes and repairs DNA

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 7-3. Explain what molecular "postal codes" are and how they function.

16) Which of the following is present in a prokaryotic cell? A) mitochondrion B) ribosome C) nuclear envelope D) chloroplast E) endoplasmic reticulum Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 7.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 7-1. Describe the structure and function of individual cell components in prokaryotes and eukaryotes. 17) You arrive late to lecture and your professor is describing a feature of the nucleus that provides it with structural support. You are not sure which feature is being discussed, but because you read the book before you came to class, you are fairly certain that it is A) the nucleus pore. B) the nucleoplasm. C) the nuclear lamina. D) the nucleolus. Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 7.4, 7.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 74. Describe the structural and functional importance of the cytoskeleton. 18) As part of our immune system, neutrophil cells engulf micro-organisms or foreign particles. The process by which the neutrophil does this is known as A) exocytosis. B) pinocytosis. C) phagocytosis. D) receptor-mediated endocytosis. Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 7.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 7-5. Explain the dynamic nature of the cell.

19) Which of the following organelles is involved in the oxidation of fatty acids or ethanol?

A) Golgi apparatus B) peroxisomes C) mitochondria D) rough endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 7.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 7-1. Describe the structure and function of individual cell components in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

20) You are studying an organism and note that its proteins fail to be glycosylated. A deficiency in which of the following organelles is likely the cause?

A) Golgi apparatus

B) peroxisomes

C) mitochondria

D) rough endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 7-1. Describe the structure and function of individual cell components in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

21) A cell is found to contain a series of damaged organelles. Which process will play a role in

removal of these damaged organelles from the cytosol?

A) phagocytosis

B) exocytosis

C) autophagy

D) pinocytosis

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7 5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 7-5 Explain the dynamic nature of the cell

22) Scientists found that polypeptides that are normally synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum are about 20 amino acids longer when they are synthesized by ribosomes not attached to the endoplasmic reticulum. What is/are possible explanations for the greater length of these polypeptides?

A) The ribosomes that function as free ribosomes function differently than the ribosomes that are attached to the endoplasmic reticulum.

B) The 20 amino acids serve as a signal sequence that directs the forming polypeptide to the endoplasmic reticulum, where they are cleaved off during processing.

C) The 20-amino-acid sequence helps the endoplasmic reticulum package these proteins for shipping to the Golgi.

D) The protein has a different function in the cytosol than in the endoplasmic reticulum.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 7-3. Explain what molecular "postal codes" are and how they function.

23) Which of the following would be true for lysosomes that lack mannose-6-phosphate receptors?

A) They function equally as well as those that possess mannose 6-phosphate receptors.

B) They do not receive enzyme shipments from the Golgi apparatus.

C) They have unstable membranes.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 7-3 Explain what molecular "postal codes" are and how they function

24) Eukaryotic cells manufacture cytoskeletal proteins that help to maintain the cells' shapes and functions What would you predict about these proteins?

A) They would initially contain signal sequences that would allow their entrance into the endoplasmic reticulum

B) They would be manufactured on free ribosomes in the cytoplasm.

C) They would be glycosylated in the Golgi apparatus.

D) They might travel to the nucleus in a transport vesicle with a specific zip code.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 7-4. Describe the structural and functional importance of the cytoskeleton.

25) Actin filaments have polarity. This means that the two ends can be identified due to structural differences. The plus end is the end to which subunits are added more rapidly or the end of polymerization. Which of the following would enable you to identify the plus end of actin filaments?

A) Add radio labeled actin subunits to a mixture of actin filaments in which conditions are favorable for polymerization.

B) Add radiolabeled actin subunits to a mixture of actin filaments in which conditions favor depolymerization.

C) Determine the ionic charge of the ends of the actin filaments.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 7-4. Describe the structural and functional importance of the cytoskeleton.

26) Amoeba move by crawling over a surface (amoeboid movement). Which one of the following processes is part of amoeboid movement?

A) polymerization or extension of actin filaments to form bulges in the plasma membrane

B) setting up microtubule extensions that vesicles can follow in the movement of cytoplasm

C) reinforcing the pseudopod with intermediate filaments

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 7-4. Describe the structural and functional importance of the cytoskeleton.

27) Which of the following cytoskeletal proteins are important in changing cell shape or location (any type of cell movement)?

A) Microfilaments are the only cytoskeletal proteins important in cell movement

B) Microfilaments and myosin are among the cytoskeletal proteins important in cell movement

C) Microfilaments, microtubules, and intermediate filaments are equally important in cell movement

D) Intermediate filaments are the only cytoskeletal proteins important in cell movement.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 7-5. Explain the dynamic nature of the cell.

28) What is the function of keratin, an important intermediate filament?

A) imparts impermeability to the skin and the ability to withstand mechanical stress

B) reinforces moveable joints

C) enables the heart to contract as a unit

D) provides nutrients to neural cells of the brain and spinal cord

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 7-4. Describe the structural and functional importance of the cytoskeleton.

29) Researchers tried to explain how vesicular transport occurs in cells by attempting to assemble the transport components. They set up microtubular tracks along which vesicles could be transported, and they added vesicles and ATP (because they knew the transport process requires energy). Yet, when they put everything together, there was no movement or transport of vesicles. What were they missing?

A) an axon

B) contractile microfilaments

C) endoplasmic reticulum

D) motor proteins

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 7-4. Describe the structural and functional importance of the cytoskeleton.

30) How is the structure of kinesin related to its function?

A) Kinesin has two intertwined polypeptides that make up the stalk and enable it to contract and shorten

B) Kinesin has a tail region that binds to vesicles and two heads that can attach to microtubules

C) The kinesin tail has an ATP binding site to fuel its activities

D) Kinesin has two heads to attach to the vesicle being moved, and a tail region that attaches to microtubules.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 7-5. Explain the dynamic nature of the cell.

31) Motor proteins require energy in the form of ATP. ATP hydrolysis results in a conformational change that allows the protein to move along microtubular tracks (pathways). What structural component of the motor protein contains the ATP binding site and, therefore, changes shape to enable movement? A) the portion of the molecule that binds to the vesicle being transported B) the stalk C) the portion of the molecule that binds to the microtubular track along which the vesicle is being transported D) a location midway between the vesicle binding site and the portion of the molecule that binds to microtubular tracks Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 7.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 7-5. Explain the dynamic nature of the cell. 32) Flagella and cilia bend or move, imparting mobility to cells. How do these structures move? A) The basal body at the base of the structure hydrolyzes ATP, causing a conformational change that results in movement of the cilium or flagellum. B) Two microtubules at the core of the structure serve as motor proteins. C) Axonemes are structured such that movement is constant. D) Dynein is a motor protein that hydrolyzes ATP and is responsible for movement of the cilium or flagellum. Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 7.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 7-5. Explain the dynamic nature of the cell. 33) Flagella are found in both eukaryotic cells and prokaryotic cells. Despite the functional similarities of all flagella, scientists suspect that eukaryotic and prokaryotic flagella have evolved independently. Why don't they think there is a common evolutionary origin for prokaryotic and eukaryotic flagella? A) Prokaryotic flagella move by rotating, whereas eukaryotic flagella undergo an undulating motion. Furthermore, eukaryotic flagella are covered by a plasma membrane and prokaryotic flagella are not. B) Prokaryotic flagella do not protrude outside the cell wall, whereas eukaryotic flagella are membrane-bound extensions of cytoplasm. C) Prokaryotic flagella are an adaptation to scarce nutrient supply, whereas eukaryotic flagella are designed to protect D) Prokaryotic flagella do not require energy in the form of ATP Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 7 6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 7-5 Explain the dynamic nature of the cell

34) To what does the 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules, typical of cilia and eukaryotic flagella, refer?

A) the arrangement of dynein arms with respect to each microtubule

B) the arrangement of microtubules within the axoneme

C) the length of the structures

D) the relationship between the basal body and the axoneme

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 7-3. Explain what molecular "postal codes" are and how they function.

35) The evolution of eukaryotic cells most likely involved

A) endosymbiosis of an aerobic bacterium in a larger host cell–the endosymbiont evolved into mitochondria.

B) anaerobic archaea taking up residence inside a larger bacterial host cell to escape toxic oxygen–the anaerobic bacterium evolved into chloroplasts.

C) an endosymbiotic fungal cell evolving into the nucleus.

D) acquisition of an endomembrane system and subsequent evolution of mitochondria from a portion of the Golgi apparatus.

E) evolutionary processes independent from prokaryotic cells, as the eukaryotic cells were found in an environment richer in oxygen.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 7-1 Describe the structure and function of individual cell components in prokaryotes and eukaryotes

36) Spherocytosis is a defect associated with a defective cytoskeletal protein in red blood cells What do you suspect is one consequence of defective cytoskeletal proteins in red blood cells?

A) abnormal cell shape

B) insufficient energy supply in the cell

C) a lack of oxygen-transporting proteins in the cell

D) adhering of blood cells to blood-vessel walls, causing the formation of plaque

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 7-4. Describe the structural and functional importance of the cytoskeleton.

37) Which of the following is a basic structural difference between plant cells and animal cells?

A) Plant cells contain chloroplasts, but animal cells do not.

B) Animal cells contain lysosomes, but plant cells do not.

C) Plants have cell walls, and animal cells do not.

D) The cell wall plays a major role in determining plant cell shape, but the cytoskeleton plays a major role in determining animal cell shape.

E) All of the above apply.

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 7-1. Describe the structure and function of individual cell components in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

38) You are sitting in lecture and you decide to leave the room for a minute. When you return, the professor is describing a cytoskeletal component and states that these fibres are thin and consist of two rows of protein subunits wound around each other in a long spiral. Since you left the room, you did not hear which cytoskeletal component is being referred to, but, since you read the book before you came to class, you know that it is

A) the microtubules.

B) the intermediate filaments.

C) microfilaments.

D) none of the above.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7 6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 7-1 & 4 Describe the structure and function of individual cell components in prokaryotes and eukaryotes Describe the structural and functional importance of the cytoskeleton

39) In a plant cell, where is DNA found?

A) only in the nucleus

B) only in the nucleus and mitochondria

C) only in the nucleus and chloroplasts

D) in the nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts

E) in the nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts, and peroxisomes

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 7.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 7-1. Describe the structure and function of individual cell components in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

40) The liver is involved in the detoxification of many poisons and drugs. Which of the following structures is primarily involved in this process and therefore abundant in liver cells? A) rough endoplasmic reticulum B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) Golgi apparatus D) nuclear envelope E) transport vesicles Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 7.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 7-2. Explain how organelles are functionally integrated and how they vary among specialized cells in a multicellular eukaryotic organism. 41) What is the primary objective of cell fractionation (including differential centrifugation)? A) to view the structure of cell membranes B) to sort cells based on their size and weight C) to determine the size of various organelles D) to separate the major organelles E) to separate lipid-soluble from water-soluble molecules Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 7.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 7-2. Explain how organelles are functionally integrated and how they vary among specialized cells in a multicellular eukaryotic organism.

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition

Chapter 8 Energy and Enzymes

(Freeman et al.)

1) Which of the following is a statement of the first law of thermodynamics?

A) Energy cannot be created or destroyed.

B) The entropy of the universe is decreasing.

C) The entropy of the universe is constant.

D) Kinetic energy is stored energy that results from the specific arrangement of matter.

E) Energy cannot be transferred or transformed.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 8-1 Explain how enthalpy, entropy, temperature, and concentration affect the rate of a chemical reaction

2) For living organisms, which of the following is an important consequence of the first law of thermodynamics?

A) The energy content of an organism is constant

B) The organism ultimately must obtain all of the necessary energy for life from its environment

C) The entropy of an organism decreases with time as the organism grows in complexity.

D) Organisms grow by converting energy into organic matter.

E) Life does not obey the first law of thermodynamics.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 8-1. Explain how enthalpy, entropy, temperature, and concentration affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

3) Living organisms increase in complexity as they grow, resulting in a decrease in the entropy of an organism. How does this relate to the second law of thermodynamics?

A) Living organisms do not obey the second law of thermodynamics, which states that entropy must increase with time.

B) Living organisms are able to transform entropy into energy.

C) Living organisms do not follow the laws of thermodynamics.

D) As a consequence of growing, organisms cause a greater increase in entropy in their environment than the decrease in entropy associated with their growth.

E) Living organisms are able to transform energy into entropy.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating

LO: 8-1. Explain how enthalpy, entropy, temperature, and concentration affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

4) Whenever energy is transformed, there is always an increase in the A) free energy of the system.

B) free energy of the universe.

C) entropy of the system.

D) entropy of the universe.

E) enthalpy of the universe.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 8-1. Explain how enthalpy, entropy, temperature, and concentration affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

5) Which of the following statements is a logical consequence of the second law of thermodynamics?

A) If the entropy of a system increases, there must be a corresponding decrease in the entropy of the universe.

B) If there is an increase in the energy of a system, there must be a corresponding decrease in the energy of the rest of the universe.

C) Every energy transfer requires activation energy from the environment.

D) Every chemical reaction must increase the total entropy of the universe.

E) Energy can be transferred or transformed, but it cannot be created or destroyed.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating LO: 8-1 Explain how enthalpy, entropy, temperature, and concentration affect the rate of a chemical reaction

6) Which of the following statements is representative of the second law of thermodynamics?

A) Conversion of energy from one form to another is always accompanied by some gain of free energy

B) Heat represents a form of energy that can be used by most organisms to do work.

C) Without an input of energy, organisms would tend toward decreasing entropy.

D) Cells require a constant input of energy to maintain their high level of organization.

E) Every energy transformation by a cell decreases the entropy of the universe.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 8-1. Explain how enthalpy, entropy, temperature, and concentration affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

7) Which of the following is an example of potential rather than kinetic energy?

A) the muscle contractions of a person mowing grass

B) water rushing over Niagara Falls

C) light flashes emitted by a firefly

D) a molecule of glucose

E) a crawling beetle foraging for food

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 8-1. Explain how enthalpy, entropy, temperature, and concentration affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

8) The mathematical expression for the change in free energy of a system is ΔG =ΔH TΔS.

Which of the following is (are) correct?

A) ΔS is the change in enthalpy, a measure of randomness.

B) ΔH is the change in entropy, the energy available to do work.

C) ΔG is the change in free energy.

D) T is the temperature in degrees Celsius.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 8-1. Explain how enthalpy, entropy, temperature, and concentration affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

9) A system at chemical equilibrium

A) consumes energy at a steady rate

B) releases energy at a steady rate

C) consumes or releases energy, depending on whether it is exergonic or endergonic

D) has zero kinetic energy

E) can do no work

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 8-1. Explain how enthalpy, entropy, temperature, and concentration affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

10) A chemical reaction that has a positive ΔG is best described as A) endergonic.

B) entropic.

C) enthalpic.

D) spontaneous.

E) exergonic.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 8-1. Explain how enthalpy, entropy, temperature, and concentration affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

11) Enthalpy (H) is the

A) total kinetic energy of a system.

B) total energy in biological systems.

C) system's entropy.

D) cell's energy equilibrium.

E) condition of a cell that is not able to react.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 8-1. Explain how enthalpy, entropy, temperature, and concentration affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

12) Biological evolution of life on Earth, from simple prokaryote-like cells to large, multicellular eukaryotic organisms,

A) has occurred in accordance with the laws of thermodynamics

B) has caused an increase in the entropy of the planet

C) has been made possible by expending Earth's energy resources

D) has occurred in accordance with the laws of thermodynamics, by expending Earth's energy resources and causing an increase in the entropy of the planet

E) violates the laws of thermodynamics because Earth is a closed system

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 8-1. Explain how enthalpy, entropy, temperature, and concentration affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

13) Which of the following is true for all exergonic reactions?

A) The products have more total energy than the reactants.

B) The reaction proceeds with a net release of free energy.

C) The reaction goes only in a forward direction: All reactants will be converted to products, but no products will be converted to reactants.

D) A net input of energy from the surroundings is required for the reactions to proceed.

E) The reactions are rapid.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 8-1. Explain how enthalpy, entropy, temperature, and concentration affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

14) Why is ATP an important molecule in metabolism?

A) Its hydrolysis provides an input of free energy for exergonic reactions.

B) It provides energy coupling between exergonic and endergonic reactions.

C) Its terminal phosphate group contains a strong covalent bond that, when hydrolyzed, releases free energy.

D) Its terminal phosphate bond has higher energy than the other two phosphate bonds.

E) It is one of the four building blocks for DNA synthesis

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 8-2 Provide examples of energetic coupling based on redox reactions and ATP hydrolysis

15) When 10 000 molecules of ATP are hydrolyzed to ADP andi in a test tube, about half as much heat is liberated as when a cell hydrolyzes the same amount of ATP. Which of the following is the best explanation for this observation?

A) Cells are open systems, but a test tube is an isolated system.

B) Cells are less efficient at heat production than nonliving systems.

C) The hydrolysis of ATP in a cell produces different chemical products than does the reaction in a test tube.

D) The reaction in cells must be catalyzed by enzymes, but the reaction in a test tube does not need enzymes.

E) Reactant and product concentrations in the test tube are different from those in the cell.

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 8-1 Explain how enthalpy, entropy, temperature, and concentration affect the rate of a chemical reaction

16) Catabolic pathways

A) combine molecules into more energy-rich molecules.

B) supply energy, primarily in the form of ATP, for the cell's work.

C) are endergonic.

D) are spontaneous and do not need enzyme catalysis.

E) build up complex molecules such as protein from simpler compounds.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.2, 8.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 8-1. Explain how enthalpy, entropy, temperature, and concentration affect the rate of a chemical reaction.

17) When chemical, transport, or mechanical work is done by an organism, what happens to the heat generated?

A) It is used to power yet more cellular work.

B) It is used to store energy as more ATP.

C) It is used to generate ADP from nucleotide precursors.

D) It is lost to the environment.

E) It is transported to specific organs such as the brain.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.1, 8.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 8-1. Explain how enthalpy, entropy, temperature, and concentration affect the rate of a chemical reaction

Use the figure below to answer the following question(s).

18) Which of the following is the most correct interpretation of the figure provided?

A) Inorganic phosphate is created from organic phosphate.

B) Energy from catabolism can be used directly for performing cellular work.

C) ADP + Pi are a set of molecules that store energy for catabolism.

D) ATP is a molecule that acts as an intermediary to store energy for cellular work.

E) Pi acts as a shuttle molecule to move energy from ATP to ADP.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 8-2. Provide examples of energetic coupling based on redox reactions and ATP hydrolysis.

19) How do cells use the ATP cycle shown in the figure above?

A) Cells use the cycle to recycle ADP and phosphate.

B) Cells use the cycle to recycle the energy released by ATP hydrolysis.

C) Cells use the cycle to recycle ADP, phosphate, and the energy released by ATP hydrolysis.

D) Cells use the cycle to generate or consume water molecules as needed.

E) Cells use the cycle primarily to generate heat.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 8-2. Provide examples of energetic coupling based on redox reactions and ATP hydrolysis.

20) Which of the following is true when comparing an uncatalyzed reaction to the same reaction with a catalyst?

A) The catalyzed reaction will be slower.

B) The catalyzed reaction will have the same ∆G.

C) The catalyzed reaction will have higher activation energy.

D) The catalyzed reaction will consume all of the catalyst.

E) The catalyzed reaction will only be limited by the amount of substrate.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 8-3. Describe the structure and function of enzymes and their importance in living systems.

21) You have discovered an enzyme that can catalyze two different chemical reactions. Which of the following is most likely to be correct?

A) The enzyme contains α-helices and β-pleated sheets.

B) The enzyme is subject to competitive inhibition and allosteric regulation.

C) Two types of allosteric regulation occur: the binding of one molecule activates the enzyme while the binding of a different molecule inhibits it.

D) Either the enzyme has two distinct active sites or the reactants involved in the two reactions are very similar in size and shape.

E) The enzyme must be flexible and composed of two different subunits.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.3, 8.4, 8.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 8-3 Describe the structure and function of enzymes and their importance in living systems

22) Consider the HIV enzyme called protease The amino acid residues at the active site are highly hydrophobic In designing a drug that would bind to the active site and jam it, researchers should use a molecule that is

A) hydrophobic

B) polar.

C) charged.

D) acidic.

E) basic.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.3, 8.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 8-3. Describe the structure and function of enzymes and their importance in living systems.

23) The lock-and-key analogy for enzymes applies to the specificity of enzymes A) as they form their tertiary structure. B) as they form their tertiary and quaternary structure. C) binding to their substrate. D) interacting with water. E) interacting with ions. Answer: C

Type: MC Reference: Section 8.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 83. Describe the structure and function of enzymes and their importance in living systems.

24) Which of the following statements is true about enzyme-catalyzed reactions?

A) The reaction is faster than the same reaction in the absence of the enzyme.

B) The free-energy change of the reaction is opposite from the reaction that occurs in the absence of the enzyme.

C) An enzyme catalyzes a reaction by raising the activation energy.

D) Enzyme-catalyzed reactions require energy to activate the enzyme.

E) Enzyme-catalyzed reactions release more free energy than noncatalyzed reactions.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 8-3. Describe the structure and function of enzymes and their importance in living systems.

25) Reactants capable of interacting to form products in a chemical reaction must first overcome a thermodynamic barrier known as the reaction's

A) entropy.

B) activation energy.

C) endothermic level.

D) equilibrium point.

E) free-energy content.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 8-3. Describe the structure and function of enzymes and their importance in living systems.

26) A solution of starch at room temperature does not readily decompose to form a solution of simple sugars because A) the starch solution has less free energy than the sugar solution. B) the hydrolysis of starch to sugar is endergonic. C) the activation energy barrier for this reaction cannot easily be surmounted at room temperature. D) starch cannot be hydrolyzed in the presence of so much water. E) starch hydrolysis is nonspontaneous. Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 8.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 8-3. Describe the structure and function of enzymes and their importance in living systems. 27) Enzymes A) increase the rate of a reaction by making the reaction more exergonic. B) increase the rate of a reaction by lowering the activation energy barrier. C) increase the rate of a reaction by reducing the rate of reverse reactions. D) change the equilibrium point of the reactions they catalyze. E) make the rate of a reaction independent of substrate concentrations. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 8.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 8-3. Describe the structure and function of enzymes and their importance in living systems. 28) During a laboratory experiment, you discover that an enzyme-catalyzed reaction has a ∆G of -20 kcal/mol. If you double the amount of enzyme in the reaction, what will be the ∆G for the new reaction? A) -40 kcal/mol B) -20 kcal/mol C) 0 kcal/mol D) +20 kcal/mol E) +40 kcal/mol Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 8.1, 8.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 8-3. Describe the structure and function of enzymes and their importance in living systems.

29) The active site of an enzyme is the region that

A) binds allosteric regulators of the enzyme.

B) is involved in the catalytic reaction of the enzyme.

C) binds noncompetitive inhibitors of the enzyme.

D) is inhibited by the presence of a coenzyme or a cofactor.

E) aids in increasing the activation energy of the reaction.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 8-3. Describe the structure and function of enzymes and their importance in living systems.

30) According to the induced fit hypothesis of enzyme catalysis,

A) the binding of the substrate depends on the shape of the active site.

B) some enzymes change their structure when activators bind to the enzyme.

C) a competitive inhibitor can outcompete the substrate for the active site.

D) the binding of the substrate changes the shape of the enzyme's active site.

E) the active site creates a microenvironment ideal for the reaction.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 8-3 Describe the structure and function of enzymes and their importance in living systems

31) Which of the following is true of enzymes?

A) Enzyme function is increased if the three-dimensional structure or conformation of an enzyme is altered.

B) Enzyme function is independent of physical and chemical environmental factors such as pH and temperature.

C) Enzymes increase the rate of chemical reaction by the lowering activation energy required.

D) Enzymes increase the rate of chemical reaction by providing activation energy to the substrate.

E) Enzymes increase the rate of chemical reaction by increasing ∆G.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 8-3 Describe the structure and function of enzymes and their importance in living systems

32) Zinc, an essential trace element for most organisms, is present in the active site of the enzyme carboxypeptidase. The zinc most likely functions as

A) a competitive inhibitor of the enzyme.

B) a noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme.

C) an allosteric activator of the enzyme.

D) a cofactor necessary for enzyme activity.

E) a coenzyme derived from a vitamin.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.3, 8.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 8-3. Describe the structure and function of enzymes and their importance in living systems.

33) To attach a particular amino acid to the tRNA molecule that will transport it, an enzyme, an aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase, is required, along with ATP. Initially, the enzyme has an active site for ATP and another for the amino acid, but it is not able to attach the tRNA. What must occur for the final attachment to occur?

A) The ATP must first have to attach to the tRNA.

B) The binding of the first two molecules must cause a 3-D change that opens another active site on the enzyme.

C) The ATP must be hydrolyzed to allow the amino acid to bind to the synthetase.

D) The tRNA molecule must alter its shape to be able to fit into the active site with the other two molecules.

E) The 3' end of the tRNA must be cleaved before it can have an attached amino acid.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 8-3 Describe the structure and function of enzymes and their importance in living systems

34) Some of the drugs used to treat HIV patients are competitive inhibitors of the HIV reverse transcriptase enzyme Unfortunately, the high mutation rate of HIV means that the virus rapidly acquires mutations with amino acid changes that make reverse transcriptase resistant to these competitive inhibitors. Where in the reverse transcriptase enzyme would such amino acid changes most likely occur in drug-resistant viruses?

A) in or near the active site

B) at an allosteric site

C) at a cofactor binding site

D) in regions of the protein that determine packaging into the virus capsid

E) Such mutations could occur anywhere with equal probability.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 8-4. Compare and contrast the different mechanisms used by cells to regulate enzyme activity.

Rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction as a function of varying reactant concentration, with the concentration of enzyme constant.

In the graph provided, why does the reaction rate plateau at higher reactant concentrations?

A) Feedback inhibition by product occurs at high reactant concentrations.

B) Most enzyme molecules are occupied by substrate at high reactant concentrations.

C) The reaction nears equilibrium at high reactant concentrations.

D) The activation energy for the reaction increases with reactant concentration.

E) The rate of the reverse reaction increases with reactant concentration.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 8-3

Describe the structure and function of enzymes and their importance in living systems

The following question(s) are based on the reaction provided. + shown in the figure

36) Which of the following terms best describes the forward reaction in the figure?

A) endergonic, ∆G > 0

B) exergonic, ∆G < 0

C) endergonic, ∆G < 0

D) exergonic, ∆G > 0

E) chemical equilibrium, ∆G = 0

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 8-3. Describe the structure and function of enzymes and their importance in living systems.

37) Which of the following represents the ΔG of the reaction in the figure?

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) e

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 8-3. Describe the structure and function of enzymes and their importance in living systems.

A B ↔ C + D

38) Which of the following in the figure would be the same in either an enzyme-catalyzed or a noncatalyzed reaction? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 8.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 8-3. Describe the structure and function of enzymes and their importance in living systems. 39) Which of the following represents the activation energy needed for the enzyme-catalyzed reverse reaction, C + D → A + B, in the figure? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 8.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 8-3. Describe the structure and function of enzymes and their importance in living systems. 40) Which of the following represents the difference between the free-energy content of the reactants and the free-energy content of the products in the figure? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 8.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 8-3. Describe the structure and function of enzymes and their importance in living systems.

41) Which of the following represents the activation energy required for a noncatalyzed reaction in the figure?

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) e

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 8-3. Describe the structure and function of enzymes and their importance in living systems. 42) Which of the following represents the activation energy needed for the noncatalyzed reverse reaction, C + D → A + B, in the figure?

A) a

B) b

C) c

D) d

E) e

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 8-3. Describe the structure and function of enzymes and their importance in living systems.

43) You have isolated a previously unstudied protein, identified its complete structure in detail, and determined that it catalyzes the breakdown of a large substrate You notice it has two binding sites One of these is large, apparently the binding site for the large substrate; the other is small, possibly a binding site for a regulatory molecule What do these findings tell you about the mechanism of this protein?

A) It is probably a structural protein that is involved in cell-to-cell adhesion

B) It is probably an enzyme that works through allosteric regulation.

C) It is probably an enzyme that works through competitive inhibition.

D) It is probably a cell membrane transport protein–like an ion channel.

E) It is probably a structural protein found in cartilage or skeletal tissue.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 8-4. Compare and contrast the different mechanisms used by cells to regulate enzyme activity.

44) HIV is the virus that causes AIDS. In the mid-1990s, researchers discovered an enzyme in HIV called protease. Once the enzyme's structure was known, researchers began looking for drugs that would fit into the active site and block it. If this strategy for stopping HIV infections were successful, it would be an example of what phenomenon?

A) vaccination

B) denaturation

C) allosteric regulation

D) competitive inhibition

E) feedback inhibition

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 8-4. Compare and contrast the different mechanisms used by cells to regulate enzyme activity.

45) You collect data on the effect of pH on the function of the enzyme catalase in human cells. Which of the following graphs would you expect? A)

B) C)

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8 4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 8-4. Compare and contrast the different mechanisms used by cells to regulate enzyme activity.

46) Mutations that result in a single amino acid substitution in an enzyme

A) cannot affect the activity or properties of the enzyme.

B) will destroy the activity of the enzyme.

C) will change the substrate specificity of the enzyme.

D) may change the enzyme's optimal temperature or optimal pH.

E) may, in rare cases, cause the enzyme to run reactions in reverse.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating

LO: 8-4. Compare and contrast the different mechanisms used by cells to regulate enzyme activity.

47) Increasing the substrate concentration in an enzymatic reaction could overcome which of the following?

A) the need for a coenzyme

B) allosteric inhibition

C) competitive inhibition

D) insufficient cofactors

E) high activation energy

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 8-4. Compare and contrast the different mechanisms used by cells to regulate enzyme activity

48) An allosteric regulator decreases the rate of an enzyme reaction by

A) binding at the active site of the enzyme

B) changing the shape of the enzyme's active site

C) changing the overall free energy of the reaction

D) acting as a coenzyme for the reaction

E) decreasing the activation energy of the reaction.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 8-4. Compare and contrast the different mechanisms used by cells to regulate enzyme activity.

49) An important group of peripheral membrane proteins are enzymes such as the phospholipases that cleave the head groups of phospholipids. What properties must these enzymes exhibit?

A) resistance to degradation

B) independence from cofactor interaction

C) water solubility

D) lipid solubility

E) membrane-spanning domains

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating

LO: 8-3. Describe the structure and function of enzymes and their importance in living systems.

50) How might a change of one amino acid at a site, distant from the active site of an enzyme, alter an enzyme's substrate specificity?

A) by changing the enzyme's binding of allosteric regulator

B) by changing the enzyme's location in the cell

C) by changing the shape of an enzyme

D) by changing the enzyme's pH optimum

E) An amino acid change away from the active site cannot alter the enzyme's substrate specificity.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 8-4 Compare and contrast the different mechanisms used by cells to regulate enzyme activity

Activity of various enzymes at various temperatures (a) and at various pH (b). Use the image above to answer the following question(s).

51) Which curves on the graphs provided may represent the temperature and pH profiles of an enzyme taken from a bacterium that lives in a mildly alkaline hot springs at temperatures of 70°C or higher?

A) curves 1 and 5

B) curves 2 and 4

C) curves 2 and 5

D) curves 3 and 4

E) curves 3 and 5

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 8-4. Compare and contrast the different mechanisms used by cells to regulate enzyme activity.

52) Which temperature and pH profile curves on the graphs were most likely generated from analysis of an enzyme from a human stomach where conditions are strongly acid? A) curves 1 and 4 B) curves 1 and 5 C) curves 2 and 4 D) curves 2 and 5 E) curves 3 and 4 Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 8.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 8-4. Compare and contrast the different mechanisms used by cells to regulate enzyme activity. Use the following information to answer the corresponding question(s). A series of enzymes catalyze the reaction X → Y → Z → A. Product A binds to the enzyme that converts X to Y at a position remote from its active site. This binding decreases the activity of the enzyme. 53) What is substance X? A) a coenzyme B) an allosteric inhibitor C) a substrate D) an intermediate E) the product Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 8.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 8-4 & 5. Compare and contrast the different mechanisms used by cells to regulate enzyme activity. 54) With respect to the enzyme that converts X to Y, substance A functions as A) a coenzyme. B) an allosteric inhibitor. C) the substrate. D) an intermediate. E) a competitive inhibitor. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 8.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 8-4 & 5. Compare and contrast the different mechanisms used by cells to regulate enzyme activity.

55) Some bacteria are metabolically active in hot springs because A) they are able to maintain a lower internal temperature.

B) high temperatures make catalysis unnecessary.

C) their enzymes have high optimal temperatures.

D) their enzymes are completely insensitive to temperature.

E) they use molecules other than proteins or RNAs as their main catalysts.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 8-4. Compare and contrast the different mechanisms used by cells to regulate enzyme activity.

56) Which term most precisely describes the cellular process of breaking down large molecules into smaller ones?

A) catabolism (catabolic pathways)

B) metabolism

C) anabolism (anabolic pathways)

D) dehydration

E) denaturation

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 8-5. Describe the structure and function of metabolic pathways and how they can be regulated via feedback inhibition

57) Anabolic pathways

A) do not depend on enzymes

B) are usually highly spontaneous chemical reactions

C) consume energy to build up polymers from monomers

D) release energy as they degrade polymers to monomers

E) consume energy to decrease the entropy of the organism and its environment.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 8.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 8-5. Describe the structure and function of metabolic pathways and how they can be regulated via feedback inhibition.

58) When ATP releases some energy, it also releases inorganic phosphate. What happens to the inorganic phosphate in the cell? A) It is secreted as waste. B) It is used only to regenerate more ATP. C) It is added to water and excreted as a liquid. D) It may be used to form a phosphorylated intermediate. E) It enters the nucleus and affects gene expression. Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 8.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 8-3 & 5. Describe the structure and function of enzymes and their importance in living systems. 59) The mechanism in which the end product of a metabolic pathway inhibits an earlier step in the pathway is most precisely described as inhibition. A) metabolic B) feedback C) allosteric D) noncooperative E) reversible Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 8.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 8-5. Describe the structure and function of metabolic pathways and how they can be regulated via feedback inhibition. 60) Choose the pair of terms that correctly completes this sentence: Catabolism is to anabolism as is to . A) exergonic; spontaneous B) exergonic; endergonic C) free energy; entropy D) work; energy E) entropy; enthalpy Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 8.1, 8.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 8-5. Describe the structure and function of metabolic pathways and how they can be regulated via feedback inhibition.

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition (Freeman et al.)

Chapter 9 Cellular Respiration and Fermentation

1) A cell has enough available ATP to meet its needs for about 30 seconds. What is likely to happen when an athlete exhausts his or her ATP supply?

A) He or she has to sit down and rest.

B) Catabolic processes are activated that generate ATP.

C) ATP is transported into the cell from circulation.

D) Other cells take over and the muscle cell that has used up its ATP quits.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 9-1. Understand the relationship between exergenic and endergenic reactions and ATP.

Figure 9.1

2) Refer to Figure 9 1 What characteristic of this molecule (ATP) is responsible for its high energy level compared to AMP?

A) the nitrogen atoms in adenine

B) the phosphorus atoms in the phosphate groups

C) the C—H bonds of the ribose sugar

D) the closely spaced negative charges associated with the phosphate groups

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 9-1. Understand the relationship between exergenic and endergenic reactions and ATP.

3) Which of the following is true of oxidation-reduction (redox) reactions? A) They involve the transfer of one or more carbon atoms from one molecule to another. B) They allow organisms to convert energy from large macromolecules for cellular use. C) They allow organisms to convert energy from photons of light for cellular use. D) B and C are true of redox reactions. E) A, B, and C are true of redox reactions Answer: D

Type: MC Reference: Section 9.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 9-1. Understand the relationship between exergenic and endergenic reactions and ATP.

4) The glucose molecule has a great deal of energy in its

A) C-H bonds.

B) C-N bonds.

C) number of oxygen atoms.

D) polar structure.

Answer: A

Type: MC Reference: Section 9.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 9-1. Understand the relationship between exergenic and endergenic reactions and ATP

9.2

5) Refer to Figure 9.2. Which reactant molecule becomes reduced in the following chemical reaction?

Glyceraldehyde phosphate + NAD+ → diphosphoglycerate + NADH + H+

A) glyceraldehyde phosphate

B) the electrons

C) NAD+

D) phosphate Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 9.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 9-1. Understand the relationship between exergenic and endergenic reactions and ATP.

Figure

6) Following glycolysis and the Krebs cycle and before the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation, the carbon skeleton of glucose has been broken down to CO2. Most of the energy from the original glucose at that point is still in the form of

A) ATP.

B) CO2.

C) H2O

D) NADH

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 9-2. Explain how cellular respiration produces ATP from molecules with high potential energy, such as glucose.

7) Why might adding inorganic phosphate to a reaction mixture where glycolysis was rapidly proceeding help sustain the metabolic pathway?

A) It would increase the amount of glucose available for catabolism

B) It would increase the oxygen supply available for aerobic respiration because each phosphate group has four oxygen atoms as constituents

C) The metabolic intermediates of glycolysis are phosphorylated

D) It increases the energy level of the electrons that are transferred to the electron transport chain where ATP is produced.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 9-2. Explain how cellular respiration produces ATP from molecules with high potential energy, such as glucose.

8) Two ATP molecules are expended in the energy investment phase of glycolysis. Why is this energy necessary to begin the process of glucose catabolism?

A) It isn't; glucose contains 686 kcal/mole in its chemical bonds, so its catabolism is spontaneous.

B) It is needed to generate the electron carrier NAD+.

C) It is needed to prime the enzymes of glycolysis.

D) Glucose is a stable molecule; thus, some energy must be invested to make the molecule unstable and begin the process of catabolism.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 9-3. Describe the four processes of cellular respiration.

9) In the energy-yielding phase of glycolysis, energy is extracted in the form of A) pyruvate.

B) carbon dioxide.

C) NADH and ATP.

D) phosphorylated intermediates.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 9-3. Describe the four processes of cellular respiration.

10) A metabolic pathway, glycolysis, is active when cellular energy levels are ; the regulatory enzyme, phosphofructokinase, is by ATP.

A) low; activated B) low; inhibited C) high; activated D) high; inhibited

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 9-3. Describe the four processes of cellular respiration.

11) The enzyme phosphofructokinase is the major regulatory enzyme of glycolysis. It catalyzes

A) the first of the 10 reactions of glycolysis.

B) the isomerization of glucose 6-phosphate to fructose 6-phosphate.

C) the phosphorylation of fructose 6-phosphate

D) the substrate-level phosphorylation reaction whereby phosphoenolpyruvate is converted to pyruvate

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 9-3. Describe the four processes of cellular respiration.

12) Canine phosphofructokinase (PFK) deficiency afflicts springer spaniels, affecting an estimated 10% of the breed. PFK is the glycolytic enzyme that phosphorylates fructose-1phosphate and catalyzes the committed step in glycolysis. Given its critical role in glycolysis, one implication of the genetic defect resulting in PFK deficiency in dogs is

A) early embryonic mortality.

B) elevated blood-glucose levels.

C) exercise intolerance.

D) nothing. It would have no visible effect on the health of the animal.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

LO: 9-3. Describe the four processes of cellular respiration.

13) Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs within a metabolic pathway where sufficient energy is released by a given chemical reaction to drive the synthesis of ATP from ADP and phosphate.

Substrate-level phosphorylation is seen in which metabolic pathway(s)?

A) glycolysis

B) Krebs cycle

C) both glycolysis and the Krebs cycle

D) electron transport chain

E) All of the above pathways involve steps where substrate level phosphorylation takes place

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9 2, 9 4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 9-3. Describe the four processes of cellular respiration.

14) What electron carrier(s) function in the Krebs cycle?

A) NAD+ only

B) both NAD+ and FAD

C) the electron transport chain

D) FAD only

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 9-3. Describe the four processes of cellular respiration.

15) When one of the eight Krebs cycle intermediates is added to the respiration medium of living cells, like yeast, what happens to the rates of ATP and carbon dioxide production? A) There would be no change in ATP production but an increased rate of carbon dioxide production. B) The rates of ATP production and carbon dioxide production both increase. C) The rate of ATP production decreases, but the rate of carbon dioxide production increases. D) Rates of ATP and carbon dioxide production both decrease. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 9.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 9-3. Describe the four processes of cellular respiration.

16) What is the function of coenzyme A in the Krebs cycle?

A) It is the coenzyme of carboxylation reactions.

B) It is the coenzyme of redox reactions.

C) It is a coenzyme of dehydration reactions.

D) It is the coenzyme of acetylation reactions.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 9-3. Describe the four processes of cellular respiration.

17) A substrate-level phosphorylation occurs in the Krebs cycle where

A) GDP is phosphorylated to produce GTP.

B) NAD+ is phosphorylated to NADH.

C) oxaloacetate is phosphorylated.

D) acetylation of oxaloacetate takes place.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 9-3. Describe the four processes of cellular respiration.

18) Which of the following statements concerning cellular metabolism is FALSE?

A) Glycolysis is inhibited when cellular energy levels are abundant

B) Krebs cycle activity is dependent solely on availability of substrate; otherwise it is unregulated.

C) In the electron transport chain, electrons decrease in energy level as they are transferred from one electron carrier to the next

D) Reactions of the Krebs cycle take place in the mitochondrial matrix.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 9-3. Describe the four processes of cellular respiration.

Figure 9 3

19) Refer to Figure 9.3. Which of these statements concerning the following reaction is true?

Malate + NAD+ → oxaloacetate + NADH + H+

A) Malate is more oxidized than oxaloacetate.

B) Malate is more reduced than oxaloacetate.

C) NAD+ is more reduced than NADH.

D) Oxaloacetate is more reduced than malate.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 9-3. Describe the four processes of cellular respiration.

20) Which of the following events takes place in the electron transport chain?

A) breakdown of glucose into two pyruvate molecules

B) the breakdown of an acetyl group to carbon dioxide

C) the extraction of energy from high-energy electrons remaining from glycolysis and the Krebs cycle

D) substrate-level phosphorylation

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 9-3. Describe the four processes of cellular respiration.

21) C6H12O6 (glucose) + 6O2 → 6 CO2 + 6H2O

Where is most of the water in this reaction produced?

A) glycolysis

B) Krebs cycle

C) fermentation

D) electron transport chain

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9 5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 9-3 Describe the four processes of cellular respiration

22) After glycolysis, but before the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain/oxidative phosphorylation, most of the energy from the original glucose is in the form of which molecule?

A) ATP

B) CO2

C) H2O

D) NADH

E) pyruvate

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 9-3. Describe the four processes of cellular respiration.

23) The electron transport chain

A) is a series of redox reactions.

B) is a series of substitution reactions.

C) is driven by ATP consumption.

D) takes place in the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 9-3. Describe the four processes of cellular respiration.

24) The energy of electron transport serves to move (translocate) protons to the outer mitochondrial compartment. How does this help the mitochondrion to produce energy?

A) The hydrogen ions (protons) are transferred to oxygen in an energy-releasing reaction.

B) The translocation of protons sets up the electrochemical gradient that drives ATP synthesis in the mitochondria.

C) The protons pick up electrons from the electron transport chain on their way through the inner mitochondrial membrane.

D) The protons receive electrons from NAD+ and FAD that are accepted in glycolysis and the Krebs cycle.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 9-3. Describe the four processes of cellular respiration.

25) The inner mitochondrial membrane normally

A) contains permease channels that allow small ions and water to pass readily through the membrane by simple diffusion.

B) contains an active transport pump that pumps protons into the inner mitochondrial compartment from the point of high concentration to a point of lower concentration.

C) is virtually impermeable to hydrogen ions (protons).

D) contains enzymes responsible for two of the chemical reactions that take place as part of glycolysis.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 9-3. Describe the four processes of cellular respiration.

26) Why are fermentation reactions important for cells?

A) They produce alcohol used in alcoholic beverages.

B) They regenerate NAD+ so that glycolysis can continue.

C) They utilize oxygen.

D) They generate oxygen.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9 6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 9-4 Describe how fermentation operates in the absence of the electron transport chain

27) Pyruvate oxidation occurs in

A) the cytosol.

B) the mitochondrial intermembrane space.

C) the mitochondrial inner membrane.

D) the mitochondrial matrix.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 9-3. Describe the four processes of cellular respiration.

28) Substrate level phosphorylation occurs in the citric acid cycle when Succinyl CoA is converted to Succinate. Which of the following statements about this event is true?

A) Inorganic phosphate is added to ADP by HS-CoA thereby creating ATP.

B) Inorganic phosphate is used to create GTP. GTP then donates a phosphate group to ADP to create ATP.

C) A phosphate group is removed from HS-CoA and is donated to GDP to form GTP. GTP then donates a phosphate group to ADP to create ATP.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 9-3. Describe the four processes of cellular respiration.

29) In the figure above, where are the enzymes of the Krebs (citric acid) cycle located? Choose the arrow that corresponds.

A) A

B) B

C) C

D) D

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 9-3. Describe the four processes of cellular respiration.

30) Fatty acids typically have an even number of carbons. They are catabolized by a process called beta-oxidation. The end-products of the metabolic pathway are acetyl groups of acetyl CoA molecules. What is the most likely fate of the acetyl groups?

A) They directly enter the electron transport chain.

B) They directly enter the energy-yielding stages of glycolysis.

C) They are directly decarboxylated by pyruvate dehydrogenase.

D) They directly enter the Krebs cycle.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 9-3. Describe the four processes of cellular respiration.

31) The constituents of the electron transport chain have similar capabilities, with the exception of ubiquinone (coenzyme Q). What is different about ubiquinone?

A) Ubiquinone is a protein that begins the electron transport chain. It therefore accepts highenergy electrons.

B) Ubiquinone is a protein that serves as a regulator of the speed of redox reactions in the electron transport chain.

C) Ubiquinone is a protein that is a constituent of all cells, prokaryotic or eukaryotic; hence its name

D) Ubiquinone is lipid soluble and can therefore move through the inner mitochondrial membrane

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9 5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 9-3. Describe the four processes of cellular respiration.

32) In cellular respiration, electrons are moved along a series of membrane proteins during the electron transport chain. If there was a mutation in the DNA coding for each of the proton pumps of the electron transport chain such that these proteins became non-functional, what would you predict to occur?

A) Protons would not be moved from the matrix to the intermembrane space and so ATP synthase would not be activated.

B) Protons would no longer be moved from the intermembrane space to the matrix and so ATP synthase would not be activated

C) NADH and FADH2 would have to donate their electrons directly to ATP synthase in order for ATP synthesis to occur.

D) All electrons would have to be stripped from water instead of NADH and FADH2 to create the proton gradient needed to power ATP synthase.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 9-3. Describe the four processes of cellular respiration.

33) The chemiosmotic hypothesis is an important key to understanding general metabolism because A) it explains how ATP is synthesized by a proton motive force. B) it explains how electron transport can fuel substrate-level phosphorylation. C) it explains the sequence of the electron transport chain molecules. D) it explains the reduction of oxygen to water in the final steps of oxidative metabolism. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 9.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 9-3. Describe the four processes of cellular respiration.

34) Which of the following is FALSE concerning ATP synthase?

A) It generates ATP by chemiosmosis in cellular respiration and photosynthesis.

B) It performs the same function in cellular respiration and photosynthesis, with similar structure and biochemical composition in each.

C) It is an enzyme that is a tiny rotary motor.

D) It is a component of the electron transport chain in cellular respiration and photosynthesis.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 9-3 Describe the four processes of cellular respiration

35) During the electron transport chain, cytochrome oxidase catalyzes the transfer for electrons from cytochrome c to oxygen in the mitochondria. Cyanide is a poison that inhibits the enzyme cytochrome oxidase. When cyanide is present, what will happen?

A) The electron transport chain will shut down.

B) The Kreb's cycle will no longer synthesize electron carriers.

C) Glycolysis will no longer produce pruvate.

D) All of the above

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 9-3. Describe the four processes of cellular respiration.

36) ATP production by ATP synthase, requiring a proton gradient across a membrane, occurs in which of the following?

A) substrate-level phosphorylation.

B) oxidative phosphorylation

C) photophosphorylation

D) Both A and B.

E) Both B and C

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 9-3. Describe the four processes of cellular respiration.

37) Which of the following is true in terms of metabolism?

A) Organisms can be classified as either catabolic or anabolic, but not both.

B) The reversible reaction ADP + Pi = ATP is linked with other reactions in many metabolic pathways.

C) Metabolic reactions first appeared in evolutionary history with the appearance of eukaryotes.

D) Oxidation-reduction reactions occur in eukaryotes, but not in bacteria, nor in archaeans.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9 1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 9-1 Understand the relationship between exergenic and endergenic reactions and ATP

C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + Energy

38) Which of the following statements describes the pathway shown above?

A) It is a catabolic pathway

B) It is an anabolic pathway

C) It is a set of reactions, each of which is exergonic.

D) It is a pathway that occurs in plants, algae, and some prokaryotes, but not in other organisms (such as animals, fungi).

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 9-1. Understand the relationship between exergenic and endergenic reactions and ATP.

39) Which metabolic pathway is common to both cellular respiration and fermentation?

A) the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA

B) the citric acid cycle

C) oxidative phosphorylation

D) glycolysis

E) chemiosmosis

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 9-4. Describe how fermentation operates in the absence of the electron transport chain.

40) The ATP made during fermentation is generated by

A) the electron transport chain.

B) substrate-level phosphorylation.

C) chemiosmosis.

D) oxidative phosphorylation.

E) aerobic respiration.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9 6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 9-4 Describe how fermentation operates in the absence of the electron transport chain

41) In the absence of oxygen, yeast cells can obtain energy by fermentation, resulting in the production of

A) ATP, CO2, and ethanol (ethyl alcohol).

B) ATP, CO2, and lactate.

C) ATP, NADH, and pyruvate.

D) ATP, pyruvate, and oxygen.

E) ATP, pyruvate, and acetyl CoA.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 9-4. Describe how fermentation operates in the absence of the electron transport chain.

42) Which of the following occurs in the cytosol of a eukaryotic cell?

A) glycolysis and fermentation

B) fermentation and chemiosmosis

C) oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA

D) citric acid cycle

E) oxidative phosphorylation

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 9-4. Describe how fermentation operates in the absence of the electron transport chain.

43) A mutation in yeast makes it unable to convert pyruvate to ethanol. How will this mutation affect these yeast cells? The mutant yeast cells will

A) be unable to grow anaerobically.

B) grow anaerobically only when given glucose.

C) be unable to metabolize glucose.

D) die because they cannot regenerate NAD+ from NAD.

E) metabolize only fatty acids.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 9 6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 9-4 Describe how fermentation operates in the absence of the electron transport chain

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition

Chapter 10 Photosynthesis

(Freeman et al.)

1) The process of photosynthesis probably originated

A) in plants.

B) in prokaryotes.

C) in fungi.

D) three separate times.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Chapter Overview/Introduction

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 10-1. Explain how the light-capturing reactions and the Calvin cycle transform light energy to chemical energy

2) Which of the following statements concerning chloroplasts is FALSE?

A) They are unrelated to plastids.

B) They have outer and inner membranes.

C) They have their own DNA.

D) They have an internal membrane system known as the thylakoids.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 10-1. Explain how the light-capturing reactions and the Calvin cycle transform light energy to chemical energy.

3) Early investigators thought the oxygen produced by photosynthetic plants came from carbon dioxide In fact, it comes from

A) water

B) glucose.

C) H2S.

D) electrons from NADPH.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 10-1. Explain how the light-capturing reactions and the Calvin cycle transform light energy to chemical energy.

4) Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between photosynthesis and respiration?

A) Respiration runs the biochemical pathways of photosynthesis in reverse.

B) Photosynthesis stores energy in complex organic molecules; respiration releases energy from complex organic molecules.

C) Photosynthesis occurs only in plants; respiration occurs only in animals.

D) ATP molecules are produced in photosynthesis but not in aerobic respiration.

E) Photosynthesis is catabolic; respiration is anabolic.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 10-1. Explain how the light-capturing reactions and the Calvin cycle transform light energy to chemical energy.

5) Which of the following is FALSE regarding photosynthesis?

A) It first appeared in ancient prokaryotes.

B) The earliest form of photosynthetic reactions oxidized (used) H2O and yielded O2.

C) Development of oxygenic photosynthesis led to atmospheric changes that allowed evolution of cells/organisms able to use aerobic respiration.

D) Some forms of photosynthesis involve oxidizing compounds such as ferrous iron or H2S

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 10-1. Explain how the light-capturing reactions and the Calvin cycle transform light energy to chemical energy.

6) Chlorophylls absorb light in which colours of the visible range?

A) green and blue

B) blue and red

C) green and red

D) orange and blue

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 10-1. Explain how the light-capturing reactions and the Calvin cycle transform light energy to chemical energy.

7) The proteins of the electron transport chain active in the light-dependent reactions A) are membrane proteins present in the thylakoid. B) are free proteins present in the thylakoid lumen. C) are part of the reaction center of photosystem I. D) have hydrophilic exterior surfaces. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 10.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 10-2. Explain how light energy is captured and used to drive an endergonic redox reaction.

8) Besides proteins, thylakoid membranes must contain a large number of molecules in the reaction centers in order to harvest light energy.

A) phospholipid

B) oligosaccharide

C) pigment

D) electron carrier

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 10-2. Explain how light energy is captured and used to drive an endergonic redox reaction.

9) What is a difference between chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b?

A) Chlorophyll a is a pigment, and chlorophyll b is the enzyme that transfers excited electrons from chlorophyll a to electron carriers of the thylakoid membrane.

B) Chlorophyll a absorbs yellow light, and chlorophyll b absorbs green.

C) Chlorophyll a contains Mg++ in a ring structure, whereas chlorophyll b contains iron

D) Chlorophyll a and b absorb light energy at slightly different wavelengths.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 10-2. Explain how light energy is captured and used to drive an endergonic redox reaction.

10) Why are there several structurally different pigments in the reaction centers of photosystems?

A) Excited electrons must pass through several pigments before they can be transferred to electron acceptors of the electron transport chain.

B) This setup enables the plant to absorb energy from sunlight from a variety of wavelengths.

C) They enable the plant to absorb more photons from light energy, all of which are at the same wavelength.

D) They enable the reaction center to excite electrons to a higher energy level.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 10-2. Explain how light energy is captured and used to drive an endergonic redox reaction.

11) If pigments from a particular species of plant are extracted and subjected to paper chromatography, which of the following is the most believable result?

A) Paper chromatography for the plant would isolate a single band of pigment that is characteristic of the particular plant.

B) Paper chromatography would separate the pigments from a particular plant into several bands.

C) The single band of pigment that is isolated is always some shade of green.

D) Paper chromatography isolates only the pigments that reflect green light.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 10-2 Explain how light energy is captured and used to drive an endergonic redox reaction

12) The absorption spectrum of a plant shows what wavelengths of light the plant absorbs The absorption spectrum depends on

A) the wavelengths of light that hit the plant

B) wavelengths of light that are transmitted by the plant

C) wavelengths of light to which the plant's pigments respond

D) the thickness of the plant's leaves.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 10-2. Explain how light energy is captured and used to drive an endergonic redox reaction.

13) In autumn, the leaves of deciduous trees change colours. This is because the chlorophyll is degraded, and A) the carotenoids and other pigments are still present in the leaves. B) degraded chlorophyll becomes a pigment with different colours. C) water supply to the leaves has been reduced. D) the cells of the leaves begin to die. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 10.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 10-2. Explain how light energy is captured and used to drive an endergonic redox reaction. 14) Energy from sunlight can excite electrons, kicking them out of their orbitals and creating free radicals. Free radicals are highly reactive atoms or molecules that have unpaired electrons. They degrade and destroy other compounds in their vicinity. Carotenoids, one of the pigments present in most chloroplasts, can stabilize these free radicals. This suggests that A) once chloroplasts are destroyed, the free radicals will destroy the cell. B) carotenoids probably have a protective function in the cell. C) other pigments (besides carotenoids and chlorophyll) are essential for the health of a plant cell. D) carotenoids communicate directly with the immune system of plants. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 10.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 10-2. Explain how light energy is captured and used to drive an endergonic redox reaction.

15) The figure provided shows the absorption spectrum for chlorophyll a for photosynthesis. Why are they different?

and the action spectrum

A) Green and yellow wavelengths inhibit the absorption of red and blue wavelengths.

B) Bright sunlight destroys photosynthetic pigments.

C) Oxygen given off during photosynthesis interferes with the absorption of light.

D) Other pigments absorb light in addition to chlorophyll a.

E) Aerobic bacteria take up oxygen, which changes the measurement of the rate of photosynthesis.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 10-2. Explain how light energy is captured and used to drive an endergonic redox reaction.

16) What event accompanies energy absorption by chlorophyll (or other pigment molecules of the antenna complex)?

A) ATP is synthesized from the energy absorbed.

B) A carboxylation reaction of the Calvin cycle occurs.

C) Electrons are stripped from NADPH.

D) An electron is excited.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 10-2. Explain how light energy is captured and used to drive an endergonic redox reaction.

17) Based on what you know about the structure and function of the antenna complex, irradiating a leaf with which of the following light types would result in the release of the greatest quantities of oxygen?

A) red and orange light

B) green and blue light

C) blue and orange light

D) red and blue light

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 10-2. Explain how light energy is captured and used to drive an endergonic redox reaction.

18) What is the difference between NAD+ and NADP+?

A) NAD+ functions as an electron transporter, whereas NADP+ does not.

B) NAD+ functions as a free energy source for cells, whereas NADP+ does not.

C) Both function as electron carriers, but NADP+ has a phosphate group and NAD+ does not.

D) Both transport electrons to the electron transport chain (ETC) found on the inner mitochondrial membrane, but NADP+ transfers its electrons to the ETC at a higher energy level

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 10-3. Describe how ATP and NADPH are produced during the light-capturing reactions of photosynthesis.

19) As electrons are passed through the system of electron carriers associated with photosystem II, they lose energy. What happens to this energy?

A) It excites electrons of the reaction center of photosystem I.

B) It is lost as heat.

C) It is used to establish and maintain a proton gradient.

D) It is used to phosphorylate NAD+ to NADPH, the molecule that accepts electrons from photosystem I.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 10-3. Describe how ATP and NADPH are produced during the light-capturing reactions of photosynthesis.

20) Plastoquinone (PQ), an electron carrier of small molecular weight, is found in the electron transport chain associated with photosystem II. If PQ is not directly anchored to other membrane or cytoplasmic structures, it is probably

A) mobile in the thylakoid membrane.

B) lipid soluble.

C) a molecule that serves as a shuttle between the electron transport chain and ATP synthase.

D) both A and B.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 10-3. Describe how ATP and NADPH are produced during the light-capturing reactions of photosynthesis.

21) The final electron acceptor(s) associated with photosystem I is

A) oxygen.

B) hydrogen ions.

C) NADP+.

D) pheophytin.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 10-3. Describe how ATP and NADPH are produced during the light-capturing reactions of photosynthesis.

22) During a discussion of photosynthesis, you are given the following series of facts:

1. Photosystem P700 alone is involved.

2. Water-splitting is not occurring.

3. A proton gradient is created in the Thylakoid lumen.

To which of the following processes do these statements collectively refer?

A) linear electron transport

B) cyclic electron transport

C) the Calvin cycle

D) the Krebs cycle (Citric Acid Cycle)

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 10-3. Describe how ATP and NADPH are produced during the light-capturing reactions of photosynthesis.

23) The electrons of photosystem II are excited and transferred to electron carriers. From which molecule or structure do the photosystem II replacement electrons come?

A) the electron carrier, plastocyanin

B) photosystem I

C) water

D) oxygen

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 10-3. Describe how ATP and NADPH are produced during the light-capturing reactions of photosynthesis.

24) Purple photosynthetic bacteria do not contain chloroplasts. They have an antenna system that includes two light-harvesting protein complexes, both of which are integral membrane proteins. The bacteriochlorophyll a molecules contain Mg2+ and absorb light at 800 nm. Which of the following statements comparing photosynthesis in purple bacteria and plant chloroplasts is true?

A) Because purple bacteria do not have chloroplasts, there is no electron transport associated with photosynthesis.

B) Bacteriochlorophyll a is a molecule containing Mg2+, whereas chlorophyll a from chloroplasts contains Fe2+.

C) Bacteriochlorophyll a absorbs light most efficiently in the ultraviolet range, at a significantly shorter wavelength than that for chlorophyll a of chloroplasts.

D) Plant chlorophyll a absorbs in the visible light range, whereas purple photosynthetic bacteriochlorophyll a absorbs light at a longer wavelength.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 10-2 Explain how light energy is captured and used to drive an endergonic redox reaction

25) In the light dependent reactions of photosynthesis, the plant cell will conduct both linear and cyclic electron transport. This is needed because

A) linear electron transport processes do not absorb enough light to allow for the synthesis of ATP.

B) more NADPH is needed compared to ATP in the subsequent light independent reactions (Calvin cycle).

C) more ATP is needed compared to NADPH in the subsequent light independent reactions (Calvin cycle).

D) electrons are accepted by ferrodoxin during electron transport and without this, ATP synthesis would not occur.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 10-3 Describe how ATP and NADPH are produced during the light-capturing reactions of photosynthesis

26) In photosynthesis, what is the role of water (H2O)?

A) It accepts electrons liberated from the reaction centre of photosystem I.

B) It donates electrons to replace lost electrons in the reaction centre of photosystem II.

C) It provides the necessary H+ ions needed to reduce glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P).

D) It provides O2, the terminal electron acceptor for the electron transport chain.

E) It allows cyclic photophosphorylation to occur when ATP levels are low in the stroma.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 10-3. Describe how ATP and NADPH are produced during the light-capturing reactions of photosynthesis.

27) Which of the following sequences correctly represents the flow of electrons during photosynthesis?

A) NADPH → O2 → CO2

B) H2O → NADPH → Calvin cycle

C) NADPH → chlorophyll → Calvin cycle

D) H2O → photosystem I → photosystem II

E) NADPH → electron transport chain → O2

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 10-3 Describe how ATP and NADPH are produced during the light-capturing reactions of photosynthesis

28) Some photosynthetic organisms contain chloroplasts that lack photosystem II yet are able to survive. The best way to detect the lack of photosystem II in these organisms would be to A) determine whether they have thylakoids in the chloroplasts.

B) test for liberation of O2 in the light.

C) test for CO2 fixation in the dark.

D) do experiments to generate an action spectrum.

E) test for production of either sucrose or starch.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 10-3. Describe how ATP and NADPH are produced during the light-capturing reactions of photosynthesis.

29) Assume a thylakoid is somehow punctured so that the interior of the thylakoid is no longer separated from the stroma. This damage will most directly affect the

A) splitting of water.

B) absorption of light energy by chlorophyll.

C) flow of electrons from photosystem II to photosystem I.

D) synthesis of ATP.

E) reduction of NADP+.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 10-3. Describe how ATP and NADPH are produced during the light-capturing reactions of photosynthesis

30) The light-independent reactions of plants function to make organic molecules using carbon dioxide as a carbon source. What is the electron source that helps reduce carbon dioxide to sugars and other organic molecules?

A) NADH

B) NADPH

C) ATP

D) electrons from oxygen

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 10-4. Describe the three phases of the Calvin cycle and explain how they are related to the light-capturing reactions of photosynthesis.

31) How are the light-dependent and light-independent reactions of photosynthesis related?

A) They cannot occur in the absence of light.

B) The products of light-dependent reactions are used in light-independent reactions.

C) The products of light-independent reactions must be present for light-dependent reactions to take place.

D) They are not related.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 10-4. Describe the three phases of the Calvin cycle and explain how they are related to the light-capturing reactions of photosynthesis.

32) Melvin Calvin introduced radiolabeled carbon dioxide into plants. Which of the following molecules should he have expected to see radiolabeled first? A) oxaloacetate B) succinate C) glutamate D) 3-phosphoglycerate Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 10.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 10-4. Describe the three phases of the Calvin cycle and explain how they are related to the light-capturing reactions of photosynthesis. 33) In the carbon fixation step of the Calvin cycle, ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate (a fivecarbon compound) is carboxylated to produce A) citric acid. B) 2 three-carbon compounds. C) acetyl CoA (two carbons) and oxaloacetate (four carbons). D) glucose. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 10.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 10-4. Describe the three phases of the Calvin cycle and explain how they are related to the lightcapturing reactions of photosynthesis. 34) Which of the following procedures would identify the enzyme that catalyzes the carboxylation of ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate? A) irradiating a leaf extract with red light B) introducing radiolabeled carbon dioxide into a plant extract and determining which molecules become radiolabeled C) purifying a variety of proteins from plant extracts and testing each protein individually to see if it can carboxylate ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate D) differential sedimentation of a protein extract Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 10.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 10-4. Describe the three phases of the Calvin cycle and explain how they are related to the lightcapturing reactions of photosynthesis.

35) Data suggest that rubisco (ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase) makes up 10% of the total protein found in spinach leaves. Research elucidating the structure of rubisco shows that it has four active sites. Why, with four active sites, might there be such a large concentration of rubisco in plant matter?

A) All heterotrophic organisms depend on plants, either directly or indirectly, for their food supply.

B) Rubisco is a very slow enzyme; what it lacks in speed, it makes up in numbers.

C) Rubisco catalyzes four of the six reactions found in the Calvin cycle.

D) Three of the four active sites bind carbon dioxide; only one binds ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 10-4. Describe the three phases of the Calvin cycle and explain how they are related to the light-capturing reactions of photosynthesis.

36) Photorespiration is

A) not a problem, because oxygen is not available in the chloroplast where photorespiration takes place.

B) a process involving addition of oxygen to ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate and the formation of ribose-1,5-diphosphate.

C) a process involving the addition of oxygen to ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate and the formation of the products 3-phosphoglycerate and 2-phosphoglycolate.

D) a process involving the carboxylation of ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10 4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 10-5 Discuss the importance of the C4 pathway and how it increases efficiency in photosynthesis

37) Stomata, openings in the leaf, are important to photosynthesis for

A) entry of carbon dioxide that is used in the Calvin cycle.

B) entry of oxygen that is used in the Calvin cycle.

C) removal of water and carbon dioxide, the end-products of photo-oxidation.

D) removal of nitrogen-containing waste products.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 10-5. Discuss the importance of the C4 pathway and how it increases efficiency in photosynthesis.

38) How does carbon fixation differ between C3 and C4 plants?

A) C4 plants undergo carbon fixation by carboxylation of a four-carbon substrate (oxaloacetate), while in C3 plants, a three-carbon compound (phosphoglycerate) is carboxylated.

B) Both C3 and C4 plants involve carboxylation of ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate by rubisco; but in C3, the first stable intermediate is 3-phosphoglycerate, and in C4, it is oxaloacetate.

C) C3 plants don't undergo photorespiration, but C4 plants do.

D) Rubisco is the primary enzyme that catalyzes carbon fixation in C3 plants, and phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase can catalyze carbon fixation in C4 plants

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 10-5. Discuss the importance of the C4 pathway and how it increases efficiency in photosynthesis.

39) Both C3 and C4 plants have the enzymes of the Calvin cycle. How are C4 plants more efficient than C3 plants at fixing carbon?

A) In C4 plants, carbon fixation takes place in mesophyll cells, whereas the Calvin cycle takes place in bundle-sheath cells.

B) Both the carbon fixation reaction and the Calvin cycle take place in mesophyll cells, but the carbon fixation reactions take place in the dark, and the Calvin cycle is light dependent.

C) C4 plants do not have rubisco and therefore do not undergo photorespiration.

D) C4 plants fix carbon using the Calvin cycle; C3 plants use the reverse of glycolysis, a series of reactions that requires more energy in the form of ATP.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 10-5. Discuss the importance of the C4 pathway and how it increases efficiency in photosynthesis.

40) Most of the enzymes of the Calvin cycle also function in other metabolic pathways. This should not be a surprising finding, because

A) metabolic reactions are catalyzed by enzymes that have multiple functions

B) there is a close relationship between carbohydrate synthesis and metabolic breakdown

C) the Calvin cycle is nearly ubiquitous in cells, as are metabolic pathways

D) the Calvin cycle probably evolved at the same time as did glycolysis

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 10.4, General

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 10-4. Describe the three phases of the Calvin cycle and explain how they are related to the light-capturing reactions of photosynthesis.

41) Photorespiration A) generates carbon dioxide and consumes ATP and oxygen. B) generates ATP and sugars and consumes oxygen and carbon dioxide. C) generates oxygen and consumes ATP, carbon dioxide, and sugars. D) consumes carbon dioxide and generates ATP, sugars, and oxygen. E) generates oxygen and ATP, and consumes sugars and carbon dioxide. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 10.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 10-5. Discuss the importance of the C4 pathway and how it increases efficiency in photosynthesis.

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition

Chapter 11 Cell-Cell Interactions

(Freeman et al.)

1) One characteristic of life and living systems is that they are able to adapt. Toward this end, cells interact with other cells and their environment through the action of their A) plasma membrane and extracellular matrix. B) microtubular tracks. C) Golgi apparatus. D) intracellular electrical currents. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 11.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 11-1. Describe the structure and function of extracellular materials. 2) What do the cell walls of plants and the extracellular matrix of animal cells have in common? A) They are largely composed of phospholipids and glycoproteins. B) Their proteins are made by free cytoplasmic ribosomes. C) They form rigid structures that provide structural support for cells but limit their expansion. D) They limit the passage of small molecules. E) They have functional connections with the cytoskeleton inside the cell Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 11 1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 11-1

Describe the structure and function of extracellular materials 3) Signals from the extracellular matrix to the cytoskeleton may be transmitted by A) fibronectin B) proteoglycans C) integrins D) collagen E) middle lamella Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 11 1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 11-1

Describe the structure and function of extracellular materials.

4) What is a major difference in the extracellular matrix (ECM) between plant and animal cells? A) Plant ECM is composed primarily of proteins, whereas animal ECM is mainly carbohydrates. B) Plant ECM is primarily carbohydrate in nature, whereas animal ECM is largely protein based. C) Plant and animal ECMs are quite similar in structure and function. D) Plant ECM components are released extracellularly by the Golgi stacks, whereas lysosomes function in this capacity in animal cells. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 11.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 11-1. Describe the structure and function of extracellular materials.

5) Which of the following would not be found in a plant cell?

A) pectin

B) polysaccharides

C) collagen

D) lignin

E) microfibrils

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 11-1. Describe the structure and function of extracellular materials.

6) Which component is a protein fibre of the extracellular matrix?

A) A

B) B

C) C

D) D

E) E

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 11-1. Describe the structure and function of extracellular materials.

7) Osteocytes are bone cells. Collagen fibers and calcium salts are found in abundance between and among the osteocytes. The collagen and calcium salts are

A) components of the plasma membrane of osteocytes.

B) part of the extracellular matrix.

C) extensions of the endoplasmic reticulum.

D) deposited by the circulatory system and are not associated with the osteocytes.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 11-1. Describe the structure and function of extracellular materials.

8) All of the following can be proteins found in the extracellular matrix of animal cells EXCEPT A) collagen.

B) fibronectin.

C) actin.

D) fibrillin.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 11-1. Describe the structure and function of extracellular materials.

9) Anorganic bone matrix (ABM) is a material commonly used in bone grafts. Scientists compared ABM with ABM-peptide. The peptide that was bound to ABM was 15 amino acids long, derived from the extracellular matrix molecule, collagen. The researchers found that anchorage-dependent cells were more likely to adhere to and grow on the ABM-peptide than on ABM alone. What conclusion might be drawn from this research?

A) Anorganic bone matrix is not an effective material for use in bone grafts.

B) Attaching the peptide to ABM enhances the likelihood of success of the bone graft.

C) The immune system is more likely to reject the ABM-peptide than the ABM.

D) The peptide would have no effect on the success of the bone graft.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 11-1. Describe the structure and function of extracellular materials.

10) Scientists have found that extracellular matrix components may induce specific gene expression in embryonic tissues such as the liver and testis For this to happen, there must be direct communication between the extracellular matrix and the developing cells Which kind of transmembrane protein would most likely be involved in this kind of induction?

A) integrins

B) collagens

C) actins

D) fibronectins

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 11-1. Describe the structure and function of extracellular materials.

11) For a tissue or an organ to function as a unit, A) there must be a signal molecule to which all cells in the tissue or organ can respond. B) there must be cell-cell communication among the cells within a tissue or organ. C) the cells within the tissue or organ must be able to depolarize to create cell signals. D) the tissue or organ must be composed of all of the same type of cells. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 11.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 11-3. Explain how signal transduction pathways receive, process, and respond to information.

12) Plasmodesmata in plant cells are most similar in function to which of the following

structures in animal cells?

A) peroxisomes

B) desmosomes

C) gap junctions

D) extracellular matrix

E) tight junctions

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 11-2. Compare and contrast the function of cell-cell attachments and cell-cell gaps.

13) Where would you expect to find tight junctions?

A) in the epithelium of an animal's stomach

B) between the smooth endoplasmic reticulum and the rough endoplasmic reticulum

C) between plant cells in a woody plant

D) in the plasma membrane of prokaryotes

E) in the lysosome membrane

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 11-2. Compare and contrast the function of cell-cell attachments and cell-cell gaps.

14) What is the function of the middle lamella in plant cells?

A) adhesion of adjacent cells

B) to keep the cell walls of adjacent cells from dehydrating C) to maintain the plant circulatory system

D) for gas and nutrient exchange between adjacent cells

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 11-2. Compare and contrast the function of cell-cell attachments and cell-cell gaps.

15) Integrins are integral membrane proteins. They are often attached to A) membranes of intracellular organelles.

B) cytoskeletal proteins and molecules of the extracellular matrix.

C) pathogens.

D) glycogen molecules and other cellular inclusions.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 11-1. Describe the structure and function of extracellular materials.

16) Tight junctions are cell-cell junctions found between adjacent cells of the epithelium that lines the small intestine. What is the function of these cellular junctions?

A) to attach epithelial cells to a basement membrane

B) to seal the epithelium and prevent movement of substances between cells

C) to recognize pathogenic organisms present in the lumen of the small intestine

D) to release digestive enzymes into the intestinal lumen

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 11-2. Compare and contrast the function of cell-cell attachments and cell-cell gaps.

17) H. V. Wilson worked with sponges to gain some insight into exactly what was responsible for holding adjacent cells together. He exposed two species of differently pigmented sponges to a chemical that disrupted the cell-cell interaction. The cells of the sponges dissociated. Wilson mixed the cells of the two species and removed the chemical that caused the cells to dissociate Wilson found the sponges reassembled into two separate species The cells from one species did not interact or form associations with the cells of the other species How do you explain the results of Wilson's experiments?

A) There are enzymes involved in the assembly of the sponge organism, and the two different species had two different enzymes functioning in reassembly

B) The disassembled cells formed bonds with any of the cells in the mixture. However, once the organism was completely assembled, an enzyme changed all cells to the same pigment.

C) The molecules responsible for cell-cell adhesion were different in the two different species of sponge.

D) One cell functions as the nucleus for each organism, attracting only cells of the same pigment.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 11-2. Compare and contrast the function of cell-cell attachments and cell-cell gaps.

18) A gap junction is a channel that connects adjacent cells. What kinds of substances can pass through a gap junction?

A) ions that can regulate heartbeat

B) raw materials for protein synthesis

C) subunits of nucleic acids

D) all of these substances

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 11-2. Compare and contrast the function of cell-cell attachments and cell-cell gaps.

19) Why are receptors for steroid hormones located inside the cell rather than on the membrane surface?

A) The receptors can be stimulated to exit to the membrane surface under conditions in which a cell needs to be regulated by the steroid hormone.

B) Steroid hormones are lipid soluble and thus can readily diffuse through the lipid bilayer that makes up the cell membrane.

C) The receptors are repressible, meaning they are actively altering cell function unless the target hormone is present.

D) Cells with steroid hormone receptors inside the cell are not able to respond to steroid hormones.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 11-3 Explain how signal transduction pathways receive, process, and respond to information

20) Put the following events in the process of signal-transduction in order:

1. A conformational change in the signal-receptor complex activates an enzyme.

2. Protein kinases are activated.

3. A signal molecule binds to a receptor.

4 Target proteins are phosphorylated

5 Second messenger molecules are released

A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4 C) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 D) 1, 3, 4, 2, 5

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 11.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 11-3. Explain how signal transduction pathways receive, process, and respond to information.

21) A kinase is an enzyme that

A) functions as a second messenger molecule.

B) serves as a receptor for various signal molecules.

C) adds a phosphate group to target molecules.

D) produces second messenger molecules.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 11-3. Explain how signal transduction pathways receive, process, and respond to information.

22) Cells of capillaries that nourish the cells of the central nervous system are joined by tight junctions, whereas the capillaries to most other organs are characterized by having large openings or clefts between adjacent cells. How would the difference in cell-cell connections affect their functions?

A) Capillaries of the blood brain barrier are more likely to rupture.

B) The blood brain barrier is more selective regarding the types of molecules that can pass out of circulation.

C) There is more pressure on the blood passing through the central nervous system than to other organs.

D) Capillaries of the central nervous system are more tightly anchored to adjacent tissues.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 11-2 Compare and contrast the function of cell-cell attachments and cell-cell gaps

23) Intercalated disks are cell-cell junctions found between cardiac muscle cells A feature of intercalated disks is a large number of gap junctions This means

A) an extension of smooth endoplasmic reticulum goes through the gap junction, making it continuous from one cardiac muscle cell to the next

B) water and small ions can readily pass from one cardiac muscle cell to the next.

C) the plasma membrane encompasses multiple cardiac muscle cells.

D) RNA from one cardiac muscle cell can be transported into an adjacent cell through the gap junction.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 11-2. Compare and contrast the function of cell-cell attachments and cell-cell gaps.

24) Plasmodesmata are cell-cell junctions that can be found between

A) skeletal muscle cells.

B) plant cells.

C) cells of connective tissue in animals.

D) none of the above.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 11-2. Compare and contrast the function of cell-cell attachments and cell-cell gaps.

25) Hormones are chemical substances produced in one organ that are released into the bloodstream and affect the function of a target organ. For the target organ to respond to a particular hormone, it must

A) have the same genetic makeup.

B) be from the same cell type as the organ that produced the hormone.

C) be experiencing a disruption in homeostasis.

D) have receptors that recognize and bind the hormone molecule.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 11-3. Explain how signal transduction pathways receive, process, and respond to information.

26) Steroid hormones bind to receptors inside the cell and alter their conformation. The hormone-receptor complex is then transported into the nucleus, where it can directly affect gene expression To get from the location where the receptor binds the hormone to its site of action, the receptor-hormone complex must

A) undergo another conformational change

B) become water soluble by binding to a carrier molecule

C) be transported through the nuclear pore complex

D) enter the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 11-3. Explain how signal transduction pathways receive, process, and respond to information.

27) The fact that a single signal-receptor complex results in the activation of several second messenger molecules enables the cell signal to be

A) terminated.

B) reflected.

C) altered.

D) amplified.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 11-3. Explain how signal transduction pathways receive, process, and respond to information.

28) Blood sugar is regulated by two pancreatic hormones, namely insulin and glucagon. When blood sugar rises, insulin is released; it binds to receptors and, through signal transduction, results in an increase in glucose uptake by cells, effectively lowering blood glucose. When blood sugar decreases, glucagon is released, binds to cell receptors, and causes glucose to be released into circulation. Diabetes mellitus is a disorder that results from excessively high levels of blood glucose. Type II diabetics have normal to elevated levels of insulin. What, then, might be causing the elevated blood glucose levels?

A) inadequate insulin production

B) defective receptors

C) defective second messenger

D) inability to regulate gene expression

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 11-3 Explain how signal transduction pathways receive, process, and respond to information

29) Hormones function as

A) cell receptors.

B) second messengers.

C) signal molecules.

D) neurotransmitters.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 11-3. Explain how signal transduction pathways receive, process, and respond to information.

30) A G-protein receptor with GTP bound to it

A) is in its active state.

B) autophosphorylates its tyrosine residues.

C) will use cGMP as a second messenger.

D) directly affects gene expression.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 11-3. Explain how signal transduction pathways receive, process, and respond to information.

31) Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that binds to receptors on skeletal muscle cells. The receptor-signal complex brings about a series of events that result in contraction of skeletal muscle. Venom from black widow spiders causes an explosive release of acetylcholine. What would that do to its victims?

A) Muscles would be unable to contract.

B) Muscles would be unable to relax.

C) Cell receptors would no longer be able to bind regulatory hormones.

D) G-protein receptors would all be inactivated.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 11-3. Explain how signal transduction pathways receive, process, and respond to information

32) Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune disorder in which antibodies are produced against the cadherins of desmosomes The blistering seen in these individuals is probably a result of

A) a decrease in flexibility of the cell membrane

B) inadequate numbers of G-protein receptors

C) inadequate production of cytoskeletal proteins

D) loss of cell-cell adhesion.

Answer: D

Explanation: What happens when the extracellular matrix is defective?

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 11-2. Compare and contrast the function of cell-cell attachments and cell-cell gaps.

33) Which of the following best describes the function of gap junctions?

A) They create direct connections between the cytoplasm of adjacent animal cells thereby permitting the exchange of water, small ions, and small molecules.

B) They occur when peripheral membrane proteins from neighboring cells line up thereby permitting the exchange of water, small ions, and small molecules.

C) They are intracellular receptors, which associate with signals entering the cell, and often regulate transcriptional processes.

D) They are second messengers that activate protein kinases. The protein kinases then activate or deactivate other proteins.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 11-2. Compare and contrast the function of cell-cell attachments and cell-cell gaps.

34) Second messengers

A) can synthesize cAMP from AMP and ADP.

B) are intracellular kinases which lead to a cellular response.

C) are intracellular non-protein signalling molecules.

D) are signalling molecules which bind directly to the G-protein coupled receptor.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 11-3. Explain how signal transduction pathways receive, process, and respond to information

35) What does it mean to say that a signal is transduced?

A) The signal enters the cell directly and binds to a receptor inside

B) The physical form of the signal changes from one form to another

C) The signal is amplified, such that even a single molecule evokes a large response

D) The signal triggers a sequence of phosphorylation events inside the cell

E) The signal molecule passes through the cell membrane.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 11-3. Explain how signal transduction pathways receive, process, and respond to information.

36) Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas. When insulin binds to its receptor, which of the following will occur?

A) A G-protein will change its conformation to the "on" position thereby allowing the effector to be activated.

B) The G-protein will become active when GTP is replaced by GDP.

C) A receptor tyrosine kinase will change its conformation (i.e. form a dimer) thereby allowing phosphorylation to occur.

D) A receptor tyrosine kinase will dissociate into two monomers thereby allowing phosphorylation to occur.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 11-3. Explain how signal transduction pathways receive, process, and respond to information.

37) Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a bacterium that can settle on human lung cells. P. aeruginosa can secrete a signalling molecule that recruits other P. aeruginosa cells. The result of this secretion is the formation of a A) capsule.

B) slime layer.

C) biofilm.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 11-4 Compare and contrast intercellular interactions and signalling in multicellular and unicellular organisms

38) Which of the following statements about quorum sensing is FALSE? Quorum sensing A) is cell—cell communication only found in eukaryotes

B) is species specific

C) may result in biofilm formation.

D) is particularly well studied because of its medical importance. E) occurs only when cell numbers reach a threshold.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 11.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 11-4. Compare and contrast intercellular interactions and signalling in multicellular and unicellular organisms.

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition

(Freeman et al.)

Chapter 12 The Cell Cycle

1) A parent cell divides to form two genetically identical daughter cells in the process of mitosis. For mitosis to take place

A) the parent cell must first be fertilized.

B) the parent cell must replicate its entire genome prior to mitosis.

C) the parent cell must reproduce its DNA during telophase.

D) the parent cell must divide its DNA in half so each daughter cell gets only the genes needed to carry out its functions. In this way, differentiation occurs.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 12-1 Explain the four phases of the eukaryotic cell cycle

In the figure provided, G1 is represented by which numbered part(s) of the cycle?

A) I or V

B) II or IV

C) III only

D) IV only

E) V only

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 12-1. Explain the four phases of the eukaryotic cell cycle.

3) DNA is composed of four nucleosides: adenosine, cytidine, thymidine, and guanosine. If scientists introduced radioactive thymidine into the growth medium of the cells, it would be incorporated into the DNA molecule

A) at any point in the cell cycle.

B) when centromeres split so the two chromosomes can be separated.

C) during DNA replication.

D) as the cell enters G1 of interphase.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 12-1. Explain the four phases of the eukaryotic cell cycle.

4) Researchers pulsed rapidly dividing cultured cells for 30 minutes with radioactive thymidine. The cells were then exposed to a solution containing non-radiolabeled thymidine. Cells were analyzed at 2-hour intervals. At the 2-hour time point, no cells appeared to be dividing. Only after 4 hours did some labeled cells appear to be in M phase. This result can be explained in the following way:

A) Cultured cells all divide at the same time, and none synthesized DNA during the 30-minute labeling period.

B) The cells were arrested in a nondividing state because of the treatment and could not enter M phase until several hours after the label was removed

C) Synthesis (S) phase is lengthy about 12 hours in most cell types and the radioactive thymidine was not present long enough for most cells to be labeled

D) There seems to be a gap or a lag in the cell cycle, between the synthesis of DNA and cell division

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 12-1. Explain the four phases of the eukaryotic cell cycle.

5) At the end of mitosis, each G1 daughter cell has

A) twice the DNA and half the cytoplasm of the G1 parent cell

B) identical DNA to that of the G1 parent cell.

C) half the DNA and half the cytoplasm of the G1 parent cell.

D) twice the cytoplasm and the same amount of DNA as the G1 parent cell.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 12-1 Explain the four phases of the eukaryotic cell cycle

6) Scientists isolate cells in various phases of the cell cycle. They find a group of cells that have 1½ times more DNA than G1 phase cells. The cells of this group are in

A) the process of cytokinesis.

B) the G2 phase of the cell cycle.

C) M phase.

D) S phase.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 12-1. Explain the four phases of the eukaryotic cell cycle.

7) The first gap in the cell cycle (G1) corresponds to

A) normal growth and functioning.

B) the phase in which DNA is being replicated.

C) the beginning of mitosis.

D) the phase between DNA replication and the M phase.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 12-1. Explain the four phases of the eukaryotic cell cycle.

8) The microtubular organizing center found in animal cells is an identifiable structure present during all phases of the cell cycle Specifically, it is known as which of the following?

A) cell plate

B) centrosome

C) centromere

D) kinetochore

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 12-1. Explain the four phases of the eukaryotic cell cycle.

12.1

9) Based on structures present in the figure above, this cell is in which substage of interphase? A) S phase

B) G1 phase

C) G0 phase

D) G2 phase

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 12-1. Explain the four phases of the eukaryotic cell cycle.

10) In a culture of cells, it is observed that the cell cycle has arrested (stopped) during

the G1 phase. The reason for this could be that

A) not all chromosomes have been replicated.

B) not all components needed for mitosis are present.

C) not all components needed for DNA replication are present.

D) not all chromosomes are attached to mitotic spindles.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 12-1. Explain the four phases of the eukaryotic cell cycle.

Figure

11) In human and many other eukaryotic species' cells, the nuclear membrane has to disappear in order for what to take place?

A) cytokinesis

B) attachment of mitotic spindle to kinetochores

C) splitting of the centrosomes

D) disassembly of the nucleolus

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 12-1. Explain the four phases of the eukaryotic cell cycle.

12) The mitotic spindle is a microtubular structure that is involved in

A) splitting of the cell (cytokinesis) following mitosis.

B) triggering the compaction and condensation of chromosomes.

C) disassembly of the nucleolus.

D) separation of sister chromatids.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 12-1. Explain the four phases of the eukaryotic cell cycle.

13) Following the attachment of spindle microtubules to kinetochores, chromosomes are moved around by

A) myosin motor proteins.

B) histones

C) elongation and shortening of microtubules

D) motor activity taking place in the centrosomes

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 12-1. Explain the four phases of the eukaryotic cell cycle.

14) Metaphase occurs prior to the splitting of centromeres. It is characterized by

A) aligning of chromosomes on the equator.

B) duplication of centrioles.

C) cytokinesis.

D) disassembly of the nuclear envelope.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 12-1. Explain the four phases of the eukaryotic cell cycle.

15) How might spindle microtubules assist in the process of splitting centromeres?

A) the use of motor proteins to split the centromere at specific arginine residues

B) creating tension by pulling toward opposite poles

C) coding for enzymes involved in the process

D) phosphorylating the centromere, which changes its conformation

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 12-1. Explain the four phases of the eukaryotic cell cycle.

16) Mitosis is the process of chromosome separation. Cytoplasm is divided between the two daughter cells in a process known as

A) karyokinesis.

B) cytokinesis.

C) S phase.

D) G1 phase.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 12-2. Explain the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis.

17) Some cells have several nuclei per cell. How might such multinucleated cells arise?

A) repeated cytokinesis with no mitosis

B) repeated mitosis with concomitant cytokinesis

C) repeated mitosis without cytokinesis

D) multiple S phases before the entry of a cell into mitosis

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 12-2 Explain the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis

18) Which cytoskeletal proteins are important constituents of the contractile structures that form the cleavage furrows involved in animal cell cytokinesis?

A) actin

B) dynein

C) tubulin

D) elastin

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 12-2 Explain the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis

19) How is plant cell cytokinesis different from animal cell cytokinesis? A) The cleavage furrow in animal cells is composed of protein contractile filaments; the contractile filaments found in plant cells are structures composed of carbohydrates. B) Plant cells deposit vesicles containing cell-wall building blocks on the metaphase plate; animal cells form a cleavage furrow. C) The structural carbohydrates of the plant cells separate the two cells, whereas in animal cells, a cell membrane separates the two daughter cells. D) Animal cells have centrosomes that are involved in this process, but plant cells have microtubular organizing centers that are not detectable during most of the cell cycle. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 12.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 12-2. Explain the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis. 20) Myosin is a motor protein involved in animal cell cytokinesis. It binds to ATP or ADP, causing the myosin to move with respect to actin. What is the effect of the interaction between myosin and actin? A) Vesicles containing plasma membrane constituents are transported to the metaphase plate, where cytokinesis takes place. B) Excess cytoplasm is removed. C) The cleavage furrow deepens. D) It triggers the reformation of the daughter nuclei. Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 12.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 12-2. Explain the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis. 21) The drug cytochalasin B blocks the function of actin. Which of the following aspects of the cell cycle would be most disrupted by cytochalasin B? A) spindle formation B) spindle attachment to kinetochores C) DNA synthesis D) cell elongation during anaphase E) cleavage furrow formation and cytokinesis Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 12.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 12-2. Explain the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis.

22) FtsZ is a bacterial cytoskeletal protein. It forms a contractile ring involved in bacterial cytokinesis. Its function is analogous to

A) the cleavage furrow of eukaryotic animal cells.

B) the cell plate of eukaryotic plant cells.

C) the mitotic spindle of eukaryotic cells.

D) the microtubular organizing center of eukaryotic cells.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 12-2. Explain the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis.

23) Once researchers understood that chromosomes are moved by the spindle microtubules, the next question they wanted to answer is how the microtubules function to bring about this process. They used fluorescent labels to make the chromosomes and the microtubular structures fluoresce. When anaphase began (centromeres split), they photobleached a section of microtubules. As chromosomes moved toward the poles of the daughter cells, the photobleached sections of the microtubules remained stationary. This result suggests that

A) the microtubules elongate and shorten at the centrosome end.

B) the microtubules overlap and slide with respect to each other, effectively shortening the microtubules without depolymerizing the actual fiber.

C) the microtubules elongate and shorten at their kinetochore end.

D) the microtubules are of constant length; centrosomes move farther apart to separate chromosomes.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 12-2 Explain the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis

24) In the process of chromosome separation, how do microtubules maintain contact with the kinetochores and shorten at the same time?

A) Motor proteins move chromosomes down the microtubular structures of the mitotic spindle.

B) Actin microfilaments cause the microtubular proteins to slide past each other.

C) The centrosomes move apart, so the microtubular proteins do not need to shorten.

D) The centrosomes cause the shortening and depolymerization of the microtubular proteins.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 12-2. Explain the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis.

25) Which of the following statements is FALSE with respect to both bacterial binary fission and eukaryotic mitotic cell division?

A) DNA must be replicated prior to division.

B) Daughter cells must contain the same hereditary material as one another and the parent cell.

C) Cytoplasmic materials must be distributed to each of the daughter cells.

D) The nuclear envelope must disintegrate before the spindle apparatus can move the chromosomes.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 12-2. Explain the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis.

26) At which stage does chromosome organization change from diffuse/uncondensed to a compact/condensed state?

A) prophase

B) metaphase

C) interphase

D) anaphase

E) telophase

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 12-2 Explain the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis

27) Nerve cells lose their ability to undergo mitosis. Instead, they are permanently stuck in

A) G0.

B) G2.

C) S of interphase.

D) meiosis.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 12-3. Understand the various ways the cell cycle is controlled.

28) What happens when MPF (mitosis-promoting factor) is introduced into immature frog oocytes that are arrested in G2?

A) Nothing happens.

B) Fertilization occurs.

C) The cells enter mitosis.

D) Cell differentiation is triggered.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 12-3. Understand the various ways the cell cycle is controlled.

29) Once a cell completes mitosis, molecular division triggers must be turned off. What happens to MPF during mitosis?

A) It is completely degraded.

B) The cyclin-dependent kinases take on a function unrelated to mitosis.

C) Cyclin is degraded; the concentration of cyclin-dependent kinase remains unchanged, but without cyclin, MPF is not formed.

D) Cyclin-dependent kinase is degraded; cyclin concentration remains constant, but without cyclin-dependent kinase, MPF is not formed.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 12-3. Understand the various ways the cell cycle is controlled.

30) Which of the following is not an effect of mitosis-promoting factor (MPF) involved in moving a cell into M phase?

A) phosphorylation of lamins, initiating breakdown of the nuclear membrane

B) phosphorylation of microtubule associated proteins, triggering the formation of the mitotic spindle

C) phosphorylation of an enzyme that breaks down the cyclin molecule

D) degradation of cyclin-dependent kinase

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 12-3. Understand the various ways the cell cycle is controlled.

31) The M-phase checkpoint is designed to make sure all chromosomes are attached to the mitotic spindle. If this fails to happen, in which stage of mitosis would the cells be most likely to arrest?

A) telophase

B) prophase

C) prometaphase

D) metaphase

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 12-3. Understand the various ways the cell cycle is controlled.

32) If a cell has accumulated DNA damage, it is unlikely to

A) pass the G2 checkpoint.

B) activate DNA repair mechanisms.

C) enter G1 from mitosis.

D) synthesize cyclin-dependent kinases.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 12-3. Understand the various ways the cell cycle is controlled.

33) Regulatory proteins that serve to prevent a cell from entering the S phase under conditions of DNA damage are also known as

A) cyclins.

B) cyclin-dependent kinases.

C) antibodies.

D) tumour suppressors.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 12-3. Understand the various ways the cell cycle is controlled.

34) Exposure of zebrafish nuclei to meiotic cytosol resulted in phosphorylation of NEP55 and L68 proteins by cyclin-dependent kinase 2. NEP55 is a protein of the inner nuclear membrane, and L68 is a protein of the nuclear lamina. What is the most likely role of phosphorylation of these proteins in the process of mitosis?

A) They enable the attachment of the spindle microtubules to kinetochore regions of the centromere.

B) They are involved in the disassembly and dispersal of the nucleolus.

C) They are involved in the disassembly of the nuclear envelope.

D) They assist in the movement of the centrosomes to opposite sides of the nucleus.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 12-3. Understand the various ways the cell cycle is controlled.

35) Which of the following is NOT involved in the regulation of the eukaryotic cell cycle?

A) hormones

B) cyclins

C) cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs)

D) p53

E) ribosomes

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 12-3 Understand the various ways the cell cycle is controlled

36) For cells to divide more rapidly, increased production would likely be required of each of the following proteins EXCEPT

A) p53

B) cyclins

C) activated MPF

D) PDGF.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 12-3. Understand the various ways the cell cycle is controlled.

37) A cyclin A) is present in similar concentrations throughout the cell cycle. B) is activated by binding to microtubules. C) decreases in concentration when M phase promoting factor (MPF) activity increases. D) activates a Cdk molecule when it is in sufficient concentration. E) activates a Cdk molecule when its concentration is decreased.

Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 12.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 12-3. Understand the various ways the cell cycle is controlled.

38) Cancer-causing mutated tumour suppressor genes result from which of the following?

A) programmed cell death

B) mutations in genes encoding proteins that normally inhibit progression through the cell cycle

C) mutations that cause overexpression of genes encoding proteins that normally stimulate progression through the cell cycle

D) cell-contact inhibition

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 12-4 Explain the consequences of uncontrolled cell division

39) Masses of noninvasive cells that remain at their site of origin are known as tumours.

A) malignant

B) benign

C) metastatic

D) secondary

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 12.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 12-4. Explain the consequences of uncontrolled cell division.

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition

(Freeman et al.)

Chapter 13 Meiosis

1) Egg and sperm, involved in sexual reproduction, are formed through a process called

A) binary fission.

B) mitosis.

C) meiosis.

D) fertilization.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 13-1. Describe and draw the changes in a cell as it produces daughter cells through meiosis.

2) Somatic cells of roundworms have four chromosomes How many chromosomes would you find in an ovum from a roundworm?

A) four

B) two

C) eight

D) a diploid number

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 13-1. Describe and draw the changes in a cell as it produces daughter cells through meiosis.

3) Sister chromatids separate during

A) anaphase I.

B) metaphase I.

C) anaphase II.

D) interkinesis.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 13-1. Describe and draw the changes in a cell as it produces daughter cells through meiosis.

4) Meiosis involves the creation of haploid cells from diploid cells. The haploid chromosome number is created when

A) homologous chromosomes separate.

B) the S phase of the cell cycle is bypassed during meiotic interphase.

C) sister chromatids separate.

D) ova and sperm go through their respective maturation processes.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 13-1. Describe and draw the changes in a cell as it produces daughter cells through meiosis.

5) What can you infer from the karyotype shown in Figure 13.1?

A) There is a translocation in one of the chromosome 8 homologues.

B) This individual has a single sex chromosome.

C) This individual has an abnormal number of autosomes.

D) This is a karyotype of a male.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 13-1. Describe and draw the changes in a cell as it produces daughter cells through meiosis.

Figure 13.1

6) What is a major difference between meiosis II and mitosis?

A) Homologues align on the metaphase plate in meiosis II.

B) Sister chromatids separate in mitosis, and homologues separate in meiosis II.

C) Meiosis II takes place in a haploid cell, while mitosis takes place in diploid cells.

D) Crossover takes place in meiosis II.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 13-2. Compare meiosis and mitosis.

7) What is a major difference between mitosis and meiosis I?

A) Sister chromatids separate in mitosis, and homologues separate in meiosis I.

B) DNA replication takes place prior to mitosis, but not before meiosis I.

C) Prophase is longer and more complex in mitosis.

D) Only meiosis I results in daughter cells that contain identical genetic information.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 13-2. Compare meiosis and mitosis.

8) Crossover, the exchange of segments of homologous chromosomes, takes place during which of the following processes?

A) DNA replication

B) cytokinesis

C) anaphase I

D) synapsis

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13 1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 13-1. Describe and draw the changes in a cell as it produces daughter cells through meiosis.

Figure 13.2

9) The karyotype shown above is that of a snail, Pomacea patula catemacensis. What is the diploid number for this organism? A) 13 B) 26 C) 46 D) 7 Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 13.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 13-1. Describe and draw the changes in a cell as it produces daughter cells through meiosis.

13.3

10) In Figure 13.3, what major event is taking place during this phase of meiosis?

A) synapsis

B) crossing over

C) homologues separate

D) separation of sister chromatids

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 13-1. Describe and draw the changes in a cell as it produces daughter cells through meiosis.

Figure

11) Refer to Figure 13.4. Put the stages of meiosis shown here in the order that they would occur in a cell.

A) a, c, d, b

B) c, a, b, d

C) c, a, d, b

D) a, b, c, d

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 13-1. Describe and draw the changes in a cell as it produces daughter cells through meiosis.

Figure 13.4

13.5

12) Grasshoppers have 11 pair of autosomes, and one sex chromosome. Which chromosome in Figure 13.5 is the sex chromosome?

A) e

B) X

C) j

D) k

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 13-1. Describe and draw the changes in a cell as it produces daughter cells through meiosis.

13) Homologous chromosomes

A) are identical

B) carry information for the same traits

C) carry the same alleles

D) align on the metaphase plate in meiosis II

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 13-1. Describe and draw the changes in a cell as it produces daughter cells through meiosis.

Figure

14) For the duration of meiosis I, each chromosome is A) in the form of a tetrad. B) two sister chromatids joined by a centromere. C) a chromosome and its homologue. D) undergoing synapsis. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 13.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 13-1. Describe and draw the changes in a cell as it produces daughter cells through meiosis. 15) The egg of a fruit fly has 4 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in a somatic cell of a fruit fly? A) 4 B) 2 C) 8 D) 16 Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 13.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 13-2. Compare meiosis and mitosis. 16) Chromosomes and their homologues align at the equator of the cell during A) prophase I. B) metaphase I. C) prophase II. D) metaphase II. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 13.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 13-2. Compare meiosis and mitosis. 17) Centromeres split and sister chromosomes migrate to opposite poles in A) anaphase I. B) prophase II. C) anaphase II. D) telophase II. Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 13.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 13-2. Compare meiosis and mitosis.

18) Chromosome number of hexaploid wheat, Triticum aestivum, can be represented by which of the following?

A) n

B) 2n

C) 4n

D) 6n

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 13-1. Describe and draw the changes in a cell as it produces daughter cells through meiosis.

19) Hexaploid wheat was produced synthetically by He and coworkers. They mated the diploid species, Aegilops tauschii, and the tetraploid species, T. turgidum. Which of the following is an accurate statement about the relative contribution of each parent to the genome of the hexaploid offspring?

A) Each parent contributed equally to the genome of the offspring.

B) Aegilops tauschii contributed four chromosomes by failing to complete meiosis after chromosome replication, and T. turgidum contributed two chromosomes.

C) Aegilops tauschii contributed two chromosomes, and T. turgidum contributed four chromosomes.

D) The hexaploid number appeared following mitosis with no subsequent cell division.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 13-1 Describe and draw the changes in a cell as it produces daughter cells through meiosis

20) At what stage of meiosis does DNA replication take place?

A) DNA replication does not take place in cells destined to undergo meiosis

B) prophase I

C) between meiosis I and meiosis II

D) None. DNA replication occurs before meiosis I begins.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 13-1. Describe and draw the changes in a cell as it produces daughter cells through meiosis.

Figure 13.6

21) In the diploid cell above there are chromosomes and chromatids A) 2; 2 B) 4; 4 C) 2; 4 D) 2; 8 E) 4; 8 F) 8; 8 Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 13 1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 13-1 Describe and draw the changes in a cell as it produces daughter cells through meiosis 22) Just prior to meiosis, DNA is replicated Each resulting piece of replicated DNA is considered to be chromosome(s) and is made up of chromatic(s). A) 1; 1 B) 1; 2 C) 2; 2 D) 1; 4 E) 2; 4 Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 13.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 13-1. Describe and draw the changes in a cell as it produces daughter cells through meiosis.

23) In which phase of meiosis do sister chromatids separate?

A) Metaphase I

B) Anaphase I

C) Metaphase II

D) Anaphase II

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 13-1. Describe and draw the changes in a cell as it produces daughter cells through meiosis.

24) Quaking aspen can send out underground stems. New trees can sprout from these stems. This is an example of what type of reproduction?

A) sexual

B) alternation of generations

C) haploid

D) asexual

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 13-1. Describe and draw the changes in a cell as it produces daughter cells through meiosis.

25) The diploid number of a roundworm species is 4. You have a male and a female roundworm that are planning a family. Assuming random segregation of homologues during meiosis and no crossover, how many different possible combinations of chromosomes might there be in the offspring?

A) 4

B) 8

C) 16

D) 64

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 13-1. Describe and draw the changes in a cell as it produces daughter cells through meiosis.

26) Genetic recombination takes place in which of the following processes?

A) anaphase I of meiosis

B) alignment of tetrads in metaphase I

C) crossing over

D) random alignment of homologous chromosomes in meiosis I

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 13-3. Explain the contributions of independent assortment, crossing over, and fertilization to genetic variation in offspring.

27) If meiosis produces haploid cells, how is the diploid number restored for those organisms that spend most of their life cycle in the diploid state?

A) DNA replication

B) reverse transcription

C) synapsis

D) fertilization

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 13-1 Describe and draw the changes in a cell as it produces daughter cells through meiosis

28) Which of the following types of reproduction is associated with the most genetic variation among offspring?

A) binary fission

B) asexual reproduction

C) budding

D) sexual reproduction

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 13-3. Explain the contributions of independent assortment, crossing over, and fertilization to genetic variation in offspring.

29) The bulldog ant has a diploid number of two chromosomes. Therefore, following meiosis, each daughter cell will have a single chromosome. There is/are different possible combination(s) of genes in the daughter cells of meiosis because .

A) one; there is only one chromosome per cell

B) two; there are two homologous chromosomes per cell prior to meiosis

C) more than 2; the two homologues cross over

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 13-3. Explain the contributions of independent assortment, crossing over, and fertilization to genetic variation in offspring.

30) Asexual reproduction takes place by which of the following processes?

A) meiosis

B) fertilization

C) chromosome exchange between organisms of the same species

D) mitosis

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 13-2 Compare meiosis and mitosis

31) In sexual reproduction, the variation among offspring, and the fact that they are genetically different from their parents, is due to which of the following?

A) random alignment of homologues during meiosis I

B) crossing over

C) random process of fertilization

D) all of the above contribute to genetic variability in sexual reproduction

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 13-3 Explain the contributions of independent assortment, crossing over, and fertilization to genetic variation in offspring

32) Adaptation to a changing environment is likely to occurs most quickly through which of the following processes?

A) mutation

B) asexual reproduction and genetic recombination

C) sexual reproduction

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 13-5. Explain the leading hypotheses to explain the existence of meiosis and sexual reproduction.

33) When we first see chiasmata under a microscope, we know that

A) asexual reproduction has occurred.

B) meiosis II has occurred.

C) anaphase II has occurred.

D) prophase I is occurring.

E) separation of homologs has occurred.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 13-3 Explain the contributions of independent assortment, crossing over, and fertilization to genetic variation in offspring

34) Which of the following would enable you to detect aneuploidy?

A) autosomy

B) karyotyping

C) syngamy

D) synapsis

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13 4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 13-4 Provide examples of the consequences of errors in meiosis

35) Which of the following is an example of monosomy?

A) Turner's syndrome (XO)

B) Klinefelter's syndrome (XXY)

C) Down's syndrome (21, 21, 21)

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 13-4. Provide examples of the consequences of errors in meiosis.

36) In 1985, Hassold and Chiu found that the likelihood of miscarriage increased with maternal age. What is the most likely explanation for the relationship between age and miscarriage?

A) Women in their mid-thirties and older have more health problems that interfere with their ability to maintain pregnancy.

B) Older women typically have hormonal imbalances that prevent them from carrying a baby to term.

C) The DNA replication that takes place immediately prior to meiosis is less accurate in older women.

D) Ova are arrested in meiosis until ovulation. As a result, completion of meiosis in the older woman is more likely to result in aneuploidy or other chromosomal abnormalities.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 13-4. Provide examples of the consequences of errors in meiosis.

37) Sexual reproduction

A) allows animals to conserve resources and reproduce only during optimal conditions.

B) can produce diverse phenotypes that may enhance survival of a population in a changing environment.

C) yields more numerous offspring more rapidly than is possible with asexual reproduction.

D) enables males and females to remain isolated from each other while rapidly colonizing habitats.

E) guarantees that both parents will provide care for each offspring.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13 4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 13-5 Explain the leading hypotheses to explain the existence of meiosis and sexual reproduction

38) An advantage of asexual reproduction is that it

A) allows the species to endure long periods of unstable environmental conditions.

B) enhances genetic variability in the species.

C) enables the species to rapidly colonize habitats that are favourable to that species.

D) produces offspring that respond effectively to new pathogens.

E) allows a species to easily rid itself of harmful mutations.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 13-5. Explain the leading hypotheses to explain the existence of meiosis and sexual reproduction.

39) Which of the following is the difference between trisomy and triploidy?

A) Trisomic individuals have three copies of a specific chromosome; triploid individuals have three copies of every chromosome.

B) Trisomic individuals have three copies of every chromosome; triploid individuals have three copies of a specific chromosome.

C) There is no difference between the two terms they mean the same thing.

D) Trisomic individuals have three copies of one gene on one chromosome; triploid.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13.1, 13.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 13-4. Provide examples of the consequences of errors in meiosis.

40) Plants produce more seeds when they reproduce asexually than sexually. Yet most plants reproduce sexually in nature. What is the probable explanation for the prevalence of sexual reproduction? Sexual reproduction

A) is more energy efficient than asexual reproduction.

B) ensures genetic continuity from parents to offspring.

C) mixes up alleles, contributing to variation in a species.

D) is not dependent on other agents of pollination.

E) can be undertaken more quickly than asexual reproduction.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 13.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 13-5 Explain the leading hypotheses to explain the existence of meiosis and sexual reproduction

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition

Chapter 14 Mendel and the Gene

(Freeman et al.)

1) Mendel crossed yellow-seeded and green-seeded pea plants and then allowed the offspring to self-pollinate to produce an F2 generation. The results were as follows: 6022 yellow and 2001 green (8023 total) The allele for green seeds has what relationship to the allele for yellow seeds?

A) dominant

B) incompletely dominant

C) recessive

D) semidominant

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 14-3. Analyze the results of crosses and pedigrees to determine whether genes or alleles are autosomal or X-linked, dominant or recessive, linked or on different chromosomes.

2) A man and woman are both of normal pigmentation, but both have one parent who is albino (without melanin pigmentation). Albinism is an autosomal (not sex-linked) recessive trait. What is the probability that their first child will be an albino?

A) 0%

B) 1/8

C) 1/2

D) 1/4

E) 100%

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 14-2. Calculate expected frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in monohybrid, dihybrid, and X-linked crosses.

3) A man and woman are both of normal pigmentation, but both have one parent who is albino (without melanin pigmentation). Albinism is an autosomal (not sex-linked) recessive trait. What is the probability that their first female child will have albinism?

A) 0%

B) 1/8

C) 1/2

D) 1/4

E) 100%

Answer: D

Explanation: Notice the wording of this question, "that their first female child will have albinism"; this eliminates the 50% chance of occurrence (having a girl) and thus brings the probability back to 1/4.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 14-2. Calculate expected frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in monohybrid, dihybrid, and X-linked crosses.

4) A man and woman are both of normal pigmentation and have a child who is albino (without melanin pigmentation). Albinism is an autosomal (not sex-linked) recessive trait. What are the genotypes of the albino's parents?

A) One parent must be homozygous for the recessive allele, the other parent can be homozygous dominant, homozygous recessive, or heterozygous.

B) One parent must be heterozygous, the other parent can be homozygous dominant, homozygous recessive, or heterozygous.

C) Both parents must be heterozygous

D) One parent must be homozygous dominant; the other parent must be heterozygous

E) Both parents must be homozygous dominant

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 14-2. Calculate expected frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in monohybrid, dihybrid, and X-linked crosses.

5) In tigers, a recessive allele causes a white tiger (absence of fur pigmentation). If two phenotypically normal tigers that are heterozygous at this locus are mated, what percentage of their offspring is expected to be white?

A) 50%

B) 75%

C) about 66%

D) about 90%

E) 25%

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 14-2. Calculate expected frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in monohybrid, dihybrid, and X-linked crosses.

6) A man has extra digits (six fingers on each hand and six toes on each foot). His wife and their daughter have a normal number of digits. Having extra digits is a dominant trait. The couple's second child has extra digits. What is the probability that their next (third) child will have extra digits?

A) 1/2

B) 1/16

C) 1/8

D) 3/4

E) 9/16

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 14-2 Calculate expected frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in monohybrid, dihybrid, and X-linked crosses

7) Different ratios occur in crosses with single gene pairs or two gene pairs What types of ratios are likely to occur in crosses dealing with a single gene pair?

A) 9:3:3:1, 1:2:1

B) 1:1:1:1, 1:4:6:4:1

C) 3:1, 1:1, 1:2:1

D) 9:7, 12:3:1

E) 15:1, 1:2

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 14-2. Calculate expected frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in monohybrid, dihybrid, and X-linked crosses.

8) A black guinea pig crossed with an albino guinea pig produced 12 black offspring. When the albino was crossed with a second black animal, 6 blacks and 6 albinos were obtained. What is the best explanation for this genetic situation? A) Albino is recessive; black is dominant. B) Albino is dominant; black is incompletely dominant. C) Albino and black are codominant. D) Albino is recessive; black is recessive. E) None of the above applies. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 14.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 14-4. Distinguish among complete dominance, incomplete dominance, and codominance. 9) Gray seed colour in peas is dominant to white. Assume that Mendel conducted a series of experiments where plants with gray seeds were crossed among themselves, and the following progeny were produced: 302 gray and 98 white. (a) What is the most probable genotype of each parent? (b) Based on your answer in (a) above, what genotypic and phenotypic ratios are expected in these progeny? (Assume the following symbols: G = gray and g = white.) A) (a) GG × gg; (b) genotypic = 3:1, phenotypic = 1:2:1 B) (a) Gg × Gg; (b) genotypic = 1:2:1, phenotypic = 3:1 C) (a) GG × Gg; (b) genotypic = 1:2:1, phenotypic = 2:1 D) (a) gg × Gg; (b) genotypic = 1:2, phenotypic = 3:1 E) (a) Gg × Gg; (b) genotypic = 3:1, phenotypic = 9:3:3:1 Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 14.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 14-2. Calculate expected frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in monohybrid, dihybrid, and X-linked crosses. 10) Phenylketonuria is an inherited disease caused by a recessive autosomal allele. If a woman and her husband are both carriers, what is the probability that their first child will be a phenotypically normal girl? A) 1/4 B) 1/16 C) 1.0 D) 3/16 E) 3/8 Answer: E Explanation: This problem blends the results of a monohybrid cross with the likelihood of having a girl. Type: MC Reference: Section 14.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 14-2. Calculate expected frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in monohybrid, dihybrid, and X-linked crosses

11) Assuming independent assortment for all gene pairs, what is the probability that the following parents, AABbCc × AaBbCc, will produce an AaBbCc offspring? A) 1/2 B) 1/16 C) 1/8 D) 3/4 E) 9/16 Answer: C Explanation: Class time could be used to have students see a simple shortcut method for arriving at the correct answer rather than using tedious Punnett square methods. Type: MC Reference: Section 14.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 14-2. Calculate expected frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in monohybrid, dihybrid, and X-linked crosses. 12) Suppose two AaBbCc individuals are mated. Assuming that the genes are not linked, what fraction of the offspring are expected to be homozygous recessive for the three traits? A) 1/4 B) 1/8 C) 1/16 D) 1/64 E) 1/256 Answer: D Explanation: This is an important question for students to master. Each gene locus has a ¼ probability of producing a homozygous recessive genotype; therefore, multiplying the independent probabilities gives the correct answer. Type: MC Reference: Section 14.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 14-2. Calculate expected frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in monohybrid, dihybrid, and X-linked crosses.

13) When Mendel crossed yellow-seeded and green-seeded pea plants, all the offspring were yellow seeded. When he took these F1 yellow-seeded plants and crossed them to green-seeded plants, what genotypic ratio is expected?

A) 1:2:1

B) 3:1

C) 9:3:3:1

D) 1:1

E) 1:1:1:1

Answer: D

Explanation: This is a typical testcross situation.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 14-2. Calculate expected frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in monohybrid, dihybrid, and X-linked crosses.

14) In rabbits, the homozygous CC is normal, Cc results in deformed legs, and cc results in very short legs. The genotype BB produces black fur, Bb brown fur, and bb white fur. If a cross is made between brown rabbits with deformed legs and white rabbits with deformed legs, what percentage of the offspring would be expected to have deformed legs and white fur?

A) 25%

B) 33%

C) 0%

D) 100%

E) 50%

Answer: A

Explanation: This is a typical dihybrid situation that should probably be discussed in class.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 14-2 Calculate expected frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in monohybrid, dihybrid, and X-linked crosses

15) In Drosophila melanogaster, vestigial (short) wings (vg) are caused by a recessive allele of a gene that independently assorts with a gene pair that influences body hair. Hairy (h) results in a hairy body. A cross is made between a fly with normal wings and a hairy body and a fly with vestigial wings and a normal body The phenotypically normal F1 flies were crossed among each other, and 1024 F2 flies were reared. What phenotypes would you expect in the F2, and in what actual numbers (not ratios) would you expect to find them?

A) phenotypes all wild; numbers expected wild (1024)

B) phenotypes hairy, vestigial hairy; numbers expected hairy (512), vestigial hairy (512)

C) phenotypes wild, vestigial, hairy, vestigial hairy; numbers expected wild (256), vestigial (256), hairy (256), vestigial hairy (256)

D) phenotypes wild, vestigial; numbers expected wild (576), vestigial (576)

E) phenotypes wild, vestigial, hairy, vestigial hairy; numbers expected wild (576), vestigial (192), hairy (192), vestigial hairy (64)

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 14-2 Calculate expected frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in monohybrid, dihybrid, and X-linked crosses.

16) A heterozygous, but phenotypically wild-type fruit fly (gray body colour and normal wings) was mated to a black fly with vestigial wings. The offspring had the following phenotypic distribution: wild type, 720; black-vestigial, 780; black-normal, 280; gray-vestigial, 220. What conclusion is likely from these results?

A) The black and vestigial loci assort independently from each other.

B) The black and vestigial loci are allelic.

C) Epistasis has modified a 9:3:3:1 ratio.

D) The black and vestigial loci are linked.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 14-3. Analyze the results of crosses and pedigrees to determine whether genes or alleles are autosomal or X-linked, dominant or recessive, linked or on different chromosomes.

17) Pseudohypertrophic muscular dystrophy is a human disorder that causes gradual deterioration of the muscles. Only boys are affected, and they are always born to phenotypically normal parents. Due to the severity of the disease, the boys die in their teens. Is this disorder likely to be caused by a dominant or recessive allele? Is its inheritance sex-linked or autosomal?

A) dominant, sex-linked

B) recessive, autosomal

C) recessive, sex-linked

D) dominant, autosomal

Answer: C

Explanation: This is probably a good question to be described in class in some detail.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 14-3. Analyze the results of crosses and pedigrees to determine whether genes or alleles are autosomal or X-linked, dominant or recessive, linked or on different chromosomes.

18) A sexually reproducing animal has two unlinked genes, one for head shape (H) and one for tail length (T). Its genotype is HhTt. Which of the following genotypes is possible in a gamete from this organism?

A) tt

B) Hh

C) HhTt

D) T

E) HT

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 14-1

Describe how Mendel's principles of segregation and independent assortment are a consequence of chromosome movement in meiosis

19) A recessive allele on the X chromosome is responsible for red-green colour blindness in humans. A woman with normal vision whose father is colour blind marries a colour-blind male. What is the probability that this couple's first son will be colour blind?

A) 25%

B) 50%

C) 100%

D) 75%

E) 0%

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 14-2. Calculate expected frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in monohybrid, dihybrid, and X-linked crosses.

20) Hemophilia is caused by several genetic factors; one, a recessive allele of an X-linked gene, is the subject of this problem. Assume that a man with hemophilia marries a normal woman whose father had hemophilia. What is the probability that they will have a daughter with hemophilia? A) 1/16 B) 1/8 C) 1/4 D) 1/2 E) 3/4 Answer: C Explanation: In this problem, students must include the probability of having a daughter in their computation of the final probability. Type: MC Reference: Section 14.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 14-2. Calculate expected frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in monohybrid, dihybrid, and X-linked crosses. 21) Hemophilia is caused by several genetic factors; one, a recessive allele of an X-linked gene, is the subject of this problem. Assume that a man with hemophilia marries a normal woman whose father had hemophilia. What is the probability that their first son will have hemophilia? A) 1/16 B) 1/8 C) 1/4 D) 1/2 E) 3/4 Answer: D Explanation: This type of question will cause some problems for students. When the sex of the child is fixed (first son) as in this problem, then one does not multiply by 1/2 to determine the final probability. Type: MC Reference: Section 14.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 14-2. Calculate expected frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in monohybrid, dihybrid, and X-linked crosses.

22) A man who carries an allele of an X-linked gene will pass it on to

A) all of his daughters.

B) half of his daughters.

C) all of his sons.

D) half of his sons.

E) all of his children.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 14-2. Calculate expected frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in monohybrid, dihybrid, and X-linked crosses.

23) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD) is inherited as a recessive allele of an X-linked gene in humans. A woman whose father suffered from G6PD marries a normal man. (a) What proportion of their sons is expected to be G6PD? (b) If the husband was not normal but was G6PD deficient, would you change your answer in part (a)?

A) (a) 100%; (b) no

B) (a) 1/2; (b) yes

C) (a) 2/3; (b) no

D) (a) 1/2; (b) no

E) (a) zero; (b) no

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Analyzing

LO: 14-2 Calculate expected frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in monohybrid, dihybrid, and X-linked crosses

Figure 14.1

24) In a Drosophila experiment, a cross was made between homozygous wild-type females and yellow-bodied males. All of the resulting F1s were phenotypically wild type. However, adult flies of the F2 generation (resulting from matings of the F1s) had the characteristics shown in the figure above:

(a) Is the mutant allele for yellow body recessive or dominant?

(b) Is the yellow locus autosomal (not X-linked) or X-linked?

A) (a) recessive; (b) X-linked

B) (a) recessive; (b) not X-linked

C) (a) dominant; (b) X-linked

D) (a) dominant; (b) not X-linked

E) none of the above

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 14-3. Analyze the results of crosses and pedigrees to determine whether genes or alleles are autosomal or X-linked, dominant or recessive, linked or on different chromosomes.

25) A homozygous tomato plant with red fruit and yellow flowers was crossed with a homozygous tomato plant with golden fruit and white flowers. The F1 all had red fruit and yellow flowers The following phenotypes were obtained in the F2:

Red fruit and yellow flowers 41

Red fruit and white flowers 7

Golden fruit and yellow flowers 8

Golden fruit and white flowers 44

How many map units separate these genes?

A) 17.6

B) 15

C) 17.1

D) 18.1

E) 35

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 14-3. Analyze the results of crosses and pedigrees to determine whether genes or alleles are autosomal or X-linked, dominant or recessive, linked or on different chromosomes.

26) In humans, blue eyes are inherited as a recessive autosomal trait and colour blindness is an X-linked recessive trait. A woman with blue eyes and normal colour vision whose father was colour blind marries a man who also has normal colour vision. He has brown eyes, but his mother had blue eyes. Which of the following do you expect to be true for their sons?

A) One-half of their sons will have normal colour vision and brown eyes; 1/2 of their sons will have normal colour vision and blue eyes.

B) Their sons will all have normal colour vision and brown eyes.

C) One-fourth of their sons will be colour blind and have blue eyes, 1/4 of their sons will be colour blind and have brown eyes, 1/4 of their sons will have normal colour vision and blue eyes, 1/4 of their sons will have normal colour vision and brown eyes.

D) Their sons will all have normal colour vision and blue eyes.

E) One-half of their sons will be colour blind and have blue eyes; 1/2 their sons will be colour blind and have brown eyes.

Answer: C

Explanation: Independent assortment applies when one of the genes is X-linked and other is not. The sons have a 50% chance of inheriting the allele for colour blindness from their mother.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Analyzing

LO: 14-1 & 2. Describe how Mendel's principles of segregation and independent assortment are a consequence of chromosome movement in meiosis. Calculate expected frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in monohybrid, dihybrid, and X-linked crosses.

27) In humans, blue eyes are inherited as a recessive autosomal trait and colour blindness is an X-linked recessive trait. A woman with blue eyes and normal colour vision whose father was colour blind marries a man who also has normal colour vision He has brown eyes but his mother had blue eyes Which of the following do you expect to be true for their daughters?

A) One-half of their daughters will have normal colour vision and brown eyes; 1/2 of their daughters will have normal colour vision and blue eyes

B) Their daughters will all have normal colour vision and brown eyes

C) One-fourth of their daughters will be colour blind and have blue eyes, 1/4 of their daughters will be colour blind and have brown eyes, 1/4 of their daughters will have normal colour vision and blue eyes, 1/4 of their daughters will have normal colour vision and brown eyes.

D) Their daughters will all have normal colour vision and blue eyes.

E) One-half of their daughters will be colour blind and have blue eyes; 1/2 their daughters will be colour blind and have brown eyes.

Answer: A

Explanation: Independent assortment applies when one of the genes is X-linked and other is not. The daughters all inherit a normal-vision allele from their father.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Analyzing

28) Radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. A cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant yields all-purple offspring. The part of the radish we eat may be oval or long, with long being the dominant trait. If true-breeding red long radishes are crossed with truebreeding white oval radishes, the F1 will be expected to be which of the following?

A) red and long

B) red and oval

C) white and long

D) purple and long

E) purple and oval

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 14-2. Calculate expected frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in monohybrid, dihybrid, and X-linked crosses.

29) Gene S controls the sharpness of spines in a type of cactus. Cactuses with the dominant allele, S, have sharp spines, whereas homozygous recessive ss cactuses have dull spines. At the same time, a second gene, N, determines whether or not cactuses have spines. Homozygous recessive nn cactuses have no spines at all. A cross between a true-breeding sharp-spined cactus and a spineless cactus would produce

A) all sharp-spined progeny

B) 50 percent sharp-spined, 50 percent dull-spined progeny

C) 25 percent sharp-spined, 50 percent dull-spined, and 25 percent spineless progeny

D) all spineless progeny

E) It is impossible to determine the phenotypes of the progeny

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 14-2. Calculate expected frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in monohybrid, dihybrid, and X-linked crosses.

30) Gene S controls the sharpness of spines in a type of cactus. Cactuses with the dominant allele, S, have sharp spines, whereas homozygous recessive ss cactuses have dull spines. At the same time, a second gene, N, determines whether or not cactuses have spines. Homozygous recessive nn cactuses have no spines at all. If doubly heterozygous SsNn cactuses were allowed to self-pollinate, the F2 would segregate in which of the following ratios?

A) 3 sharp-spined:1 spineless

B) 1 sharp-spined:2 dull-spined:1 spineless

C) 1 sharp-spined:1dull-spined:1 spineless

D) 1 sharp-spined:1 dull-spined

E) 9 sharp-spined:3 dull-spined:4 spineless

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 14-2. Calculate expected frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in monohybrid, dihybrid, and X-linked crosses.

31) The B-globin gene has many alleles. What is the maximum number of different alleles of the B-globin gene that could be carried by 6 children with the same mom and dad given that the parents are heterozygous?

A) 4

B) 6

C) 8

D) 12

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 14-4 Distinguish among complete dominance, incomplete dominance, and codominance

32) Two individuals of genotype AABBCCDD and aabbccdd are mated. The F1 generation is interbred (self-fertilized) to yield 5000 progeny. What proportion of the F2 is expected to be AabbCcDD? A) 1/64 B) 1/78 C) 1/2 D) 1/8 Answer: A Type: MC

Reference: Section 14.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 14-2. Calculate expected frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in monohybrid, dihybrid, and Xlinked crosses.

Figure 14 3

33) The distance between two genes is a determinant of their recombination frequency. Based on the image below, which of the following sets of genes will show the greatest recombination frequency?

A) A and B

B) B and C

C) C and D

D) A and E

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14 5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 14-1. Describe how Mendel's principles of segregation and independent assortment are a consequence of chromosome movement in meiosis.

34) What is the probability that a gamete from an individual with the genotype

E1E2X1X1A1A2M2M2 will contain all paternally derived homologues?

A) 1/6

B) 1/4

C) 1/8

D) 1/16

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14 4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 14-1 & 2 Describe how Mendel's principles of segregation and independent assortment are a consequence of chromosome movement in meiosis Calculate expected frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in monohybrid, dihybrid, and X-linked crosses

35) There are 40 different alleles for a gene involved in immune function. What is the maximum number of alleles that a human can have? A) 1 B) 2 C) 20 D) 40 E) 80 Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 14.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 14-4. Distinguish among complete dominance, incomplete dominance, and codominance. 36) A couple has a child with Harman's ataxia (a recessive disorder). If this couple has second child, what is the probability that child will have ataxia? A) 0 B) 2/3 C) 1/2 D) 1/4 E) 1/16 Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 14.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 14-3. Analyze the results of crosses and pedigrees to determine whether genes or alleles are autosomal or X-linked, dominant or recessive, linked or on different chromosomes. 37) The second child of the couple above is unaffected (does not display the condition). What is the probability this child is a carrier for the ataxia condition? A) 0 B) 2/3 C) 1/2 D) 1/4 E) 1/16 Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 14.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 14-3. Analyze the results of crosses and pedigrees to determine whether genes or alleles are autosomal or X-linked, dominant or recessive, linked or on different chromosomes.

38) Regarding an allelic pair for flower colour in snapdragons, heterozygotes have pink flowers, whereas the two homozygotes have red flowers or white flowers. When plants with red flowers are crossed with plants with white flowers, what proportion of the offspring is expected to have pink flowers?

A) 50%

B) 0%

C) 100%

D) 25%

E) 75%

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 14-2. Calculate expected frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in monohybrid, dihybrid, and X-linked crosses.

39) Snapdragons are flowers that come in a variety of colours, including red, pink, and white. A series of crosses with snapdragons having flowers of different colours produced the following results:

pink × pink: 27 pink, 13 red, 14 white

red × red: all red

white × white: all white

pink × white: 29 pink, 26 white

pink × red: 28 pink, 27 red

white × red: all pink

Based on the results, what is the most reasonable explanation for the inheritance of these flower colours?

A) more than two alleles

B) incomplete dominance

C) codominance

D) pleiotropic effects

E) qualitative effects

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 14-4. Distinguish among complete dominance, incomplete dominance, and codominance.

40) Whenever the dominant allele of either (or both) gene A or gene B is present, red colour is produced. A cross of AaBb × AaBb can be expected to yield how many red offspring out of 16? Assume the genes are not linked. A) 1 B) 4 C) 12 D) 15 E) 16 Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 14.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 14-2. Calculate expected frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in monohybrid, dihybrid, and X-linked crosses. 41) In humans, ABO blood types refer to glyocproteins in the membranes of red blood cells. There are three alleles for this autosomal gene: IA, IB, and i. The IA allele codes for the A glycoprotein, the IB allele codes for the B glycoprotein, and the i allele doesn't code for any membrane glycoprotein. IA and IB are codominant, and i is recessive to both IA and IB. People with A type blood have the genotypes IAIA or IAi, people with type B blood are IBIB or IBi, people with type AB blood are IAIB, and people with O type blood are ii. If a woman with type AB blood marries a man with type O blood, which of the following blood types could their children possibly have? A) A and B B) AB and O C) A, B, and O D) A, B, and AB E) A, B, AB, and O Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 14.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 14-2. Calculate expected frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in monohybrid, dihybrid, and X-linked crosses.

42) A man is heterozygous for two genes (R and L) that are located on different chromosomes. Which of the following processes would result in different combinations of the alleles for these two genes in his sperm?

A) independent assortment

B) sister chromatid segregation

C) recombination

D) fertilization

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 14-1. Describe how Mendel's principles of segregation and independent assortment are a consequence of chromosome movement in meiosis.

43) Julie has Harman's ataxia (hh) and also has achrondoplasia (Aa). Josh is a carrier for Harman's ataxia, an autosomal recessive disorder, and has achondroplasia (Aa), which is an autosomal dominant trait. AA human embryos do not survive beyond the first few cell divisions. What is the probability that a child born to them would have only Harman's ataxia? Assume the genes are unlinked.

A) 0

B) 1/4

C) 1/6

D) 1/12

E) 1/16

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14 6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 14-2 & 3 Calculate expected frequencies of genotypes and phenotypes in monohybrid, dihybrid, and X-linked crosses Analyze the results of crosses and pedigrees to determine whether genes or alleles are autosomal or X-linked, dominant or recessive, linked or on different chromosomes.

14.2

44) In the figure above, flower A was crossed with flower B to produce flower C The phenotype of flower C is the result of A) incomplete dominance.

B) codominance.

C) the passing on of a sex-linked trait.

D) aneuploidy.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 14-4. Distinguish among complete dominance, incomplete dominance, and codominance.

Figure

The following question(s) refer to the pedigree chart in the figure provided for a family, some of whose members exhibit the dominant trait, W. Affected individuals are indicated by a dark square or circle.

45) What is the genotype of individual II-5?

A) WW

B) Ww

C) ww

D) WW or ww

E) ww or Ww

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14 6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 14-3

Analyze the results of crosses and pedigrees to determine whether genes or alleles are autosomal or X-linked, dominant or recessive, linked or on different chromosomes

46) What is the likelihood that the progeny of IV-3 and IV-4 will have the trait?

A) 0 percent

B) 25 percent

C) 50 percent

D) 75 percent

E) 100 percent

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14 6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 14-3 Analyze the results of crosses and pedigrees to determine whether genes or alleles are autosomal or X-linked, dominant or recessive, linked or on different chromosomes

47) The figure provided shows the pedigree for a family. Dark-shaded symbols represent individuals with one of the two major types of colon cancer. Numbers under the symbols are the individual's age at the time of diagnosis. Males are represented by squares, females by circles.

From this pedigree, this trait seems to be inherited

A) from mothers.

B) as an autosomal recessive.

C) as a result of epistasis.

D) as an autosomal dominant.

E) as an incomplete dominant.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 14 6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 14-3. Analyze the results of crosses and pedigrees to determine whether genes or alleles are autosomal or X-linked, dominant or recessive, linked or on different chromosomes.

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition (Freeman et al.)

Chapter 15 DNA and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair

1) Watson and Crick elucidated the structure of DNA in 1953. Their research built on and helped explain the findings of other scientists, including

A) X-ray diffraction studies by Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins.

B) Chargaff's rules: C = G and T = A.

C) Scientists who recognized that a nucleotide consisted of a sugar, a phosphate, and a nitrogencontaining base.

D) All of the above were important considerations in the elucidation of the structure of DNA.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 15.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 15-1. Describe and interpret data from experiments that provided evidence that DNA is the hereditary material and that DNA replicates in a semiconservative manner.

2) Hershey and Chase set out to determine what molecule served as the unit of inheritance. They completed a series of transduction experiments in which E. coli was infected by a T2 virus. Which molecular component of the T2 virus actually ended up inside the cell?

A) protein

B) carbohydrate

C) lipid

D) DNA

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 15 1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 15-1 Describe and interpret data from experiments that provided evidence that DNA is the hereditary material and that DNA replicates in a semiconservative manner

3) The transduction experiments done by Hershey and Chase, and the transformation experiments done by Griffith, supported the same conclusion, which was that

A) pathogenic molecules affect the health of all living organisms.

B) DNA is the molecular substance of genetic inheritance.

C) organisms must be sacrificed for science to progress.

D) genetic recombination in living organisms is rare.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 15.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 15-1. Describe and interpret data from experiments that provided evidence that DNA is the hereditary material and that DNA replicates in a semiconservative manner.

4) How does the simple primary and secondary structure of DNA hold the information needed to code for the many features of multicellular organisms? A) The hydrogen bonding among backbone constituents carries coded information. B) The base sequence of DNA carries all the information needed to code for proteins. C) The covalent bonding among backbone constituents contains the information that is passed from generation to generation. D) The amino acids that make up the DNA molecule contain the information needed to make cellular proteins. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 15.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 15-1. Describe and interpret data from experiments that provided evidence that DNA is the hereditary material and that DNA replicates in a semiconservative manner. 5) The fact that within a double-stranded DNA molecule, adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with thymine and cytosine forms three hydrogen bonds with guanine is known as A) semi-conservative replication. B) complementary base pairing. C) secondary structure of a DNA molecule. D) a double helix. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 15.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 15-1. Describe and interpret data from experiments that provided evidence that DNA is the hereditary material and that DNA replicates in a semiconservative manner. 6) Semiconservative replication involves a template. What is the template? A) single-stranded binding proteins B) DNA polymerase contains the template needed C) one strand of the DNA molecule D) an RNA molecule Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 15.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 15-1. Describe and interpret data from experiments that provided evidence that DNA is the hereditary material and that DNA replicates in a semiconservative manner.

7) DNA is synthesized through a process known as

A) semiconservative replication.

B) conservative replication.

C) dispersive replication.

D) transcription.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 15.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 15-1. Describe and interpret data from experiments that provided evidence that DNA is the hereditary material and that DNA replicates in a semiconservative manner.

8) Who performed the classic experiments that proved DNA was copied by semiconservative replication?

A) Watson and Crick

B) Meselson and Stahl

C) Hershey and Chase

D) Franklin and Wilkins

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 15 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 15-1 Describe and interpret data from experiments that provided evidence that DNA is the hereditary material and that DNA replicates in a semiconservative manner

9) In the polymerization of DNA, a phosphodiester bond is formed between a phosphate group of the nucleotide being added and of the last nucleotide in the polymer.

A) ATP

B) C6

C) the 3′ OH

D) a nitrogen from the nitrogen-containing base

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 15.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 15-2. List the enzymes involved in leading and lagging strand replication and explain the role of each in DNA replication.

10) At a specific area of a chromosome, the following sequence of nucleotides is present where the chain opens to form a replication fork:

3' C C T A G G C T G C A A T C C 5'

An RNA primer is formed starting at the underlined T (T) of the template. Which of the following represents the primer sequence? A) 5' G C C T A G G 3' B) 3' G C C T A G G 5' C) 5' A C G T T A G G 3' D) 5' A C G U U A G G 3' E) 5' G C C U A G G 3' Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 15.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 15-2. List the enzymes involved in leading and lagging strand replication and explain the role of each in DNA replication 11) What provides the energy for the polymerization reactions in DNA synthesis? A) ATP B) DNA polymerase C) breaking the hydrogen bonds between complementary DNA strands D) the deoxyribonucleotide triphosphate substrates Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 15 3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 152 List the enzymes involved in leading and lagging strand replication and explain the role of each in DNA replication

Figure 15 1

12) Refer to Figure 15.1. What bases will be added to the primer as DNA replication proceeds? The bases should appear in the order that they will be added. A) C, A, G, C, A, G, A B) T, C, T, G, C, T, G C) A, G, A, C, G, A, C D) U, G, U, C, G, U, C Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 15 3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 15-2 List the enzymes involved in leading and lagging strand replication and explain the role of each in DNA replication 13) Put the following steps of DNA replication in chronological order

1. Single-stranded binding proteins attach to DNA strands.

2. Hydrogen bonds between base pairs of antiparallel strands are broken.

3. Primase binds to the site of origin.

4. DNA polymerase binds to the template strand.

5. An RNA primer is created. A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4 C) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 4 Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 15.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 15-2. List the enzymes involved in leading and lagging strand replication and explain the role of each in DNA replication.

14) What is the difference between the leading strand and the lagging strand in DNA replication? A) The leading strand is synthesized in the 3′→ 5′ direction in a discontinuous fashion, while the lagging strand is synthesized in the 5′→ 3′ direction in a continuous fashion. B) The leading strand requires an RNA primer, whereas the lagging strand does not. C) The leading strand is synthesized continuously in the 5′→ 3′ direction, while the lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously in the 5′→ 3′ direction. D) There are different DNA polymerases involved in elongation of the leading strand and the lagging strand. Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 15.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 15-2. List the enzymes involved in leading and lagging strand replication and explain the role of each in DNA replication.

15 2

15) Identify the lagging strand in Figure 15 2 A) a B) b C) c D) d Answer: C Type: MC

Reference: Section 15 3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 15-2 List the enzymes involved in leading and lagging strand replication and explain the role of each in DNA replication

16) In Figure 15.2, which is the template strand?

A) a B) b C) c D) d

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 15.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 15-2. List the enzymes involved in leading and lagging strand replication and explain the role of each in DNA replication.

Figure

17) What can you infer from the information presented in this table?

Proteins Involved in DNA Synthesis

Process

Protein

Helicase

Function

Breaks hydrogen bonds between base pairs

Stabilizes single-stranded DNA

SS binding proteins Breaks and rejoins DNA strand to untwist the Opening the helix Topoisomerase double helix

Primase

DNA polymerase

Synthesis of leading strand

III

Sliding clamp

Primase

DNA polymerase

III

Sliding clamp

Catalyzes the synthesis of the RNA primer

Adds bases to the growing DNA strand

Holds DNA polymerase in place during strand elongation

Catalyzes the synthesis of RNA primers

Adds bases to the growing end of the Okazaki fragment

Holds DNA polymerase in place during strand elongation

Removes the RNA primer and replaces it with

Synthesis of the DNA polymerase I DNA

lagging strand Ligase

Joins Okazaki fragments into a continuous strand

A) DNA polymerase I and DNA polymerase III are the same enzyme found in different organisms.

B) DNA polymerase I and DNA polymerase III have different functions.

C) The sliding clamp molecule is a ribozyme.

D) Topoisomerase is involved in proofreading activity.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 15.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 15-2. List the enzymes involved in leading and lagging strand replication and explain the role of each in DNA replication.

18) What is a major difference between eukaryotic DNA replication and prokaryotic DNA replication?

A) Prokaryotic replication does not require a primer.

B) Prokaryotic chromosomes have a single origin of replication, while eukaryotic chromosomes have multiple origins of replication.

C) DNA polymerase III of eukaryotes has both endonuclease and exonuclease activity, while that of prokaryotes has only exonuclease activity.

D) DNA polymerases of prokaryotes can add nucleotides to both 3′ and 5′ ends of DNA strands, while those of eukaryotes function only in the 5′→ 3′ direction.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 15.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 15-2. List the enzymes involved in leading and lagging strand replication and explain the role of each in DNA replication.

19) Refer to Figure 15.3. Which of the structures in the figure breaks hydrogen bonds between complementary bases?

Answer: B

Type: SA

Reference: Section 15.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 15-2. List the enzymes involved in leading and lagging strand replication and explain the role of each in DNA replication.

20) Refer to Figure 15.3. Which structure is responsible for stabilizing DNA in its singlestranded form?

Answer: C

Type: SA

Reference: Section 15.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 15-2. List the enzymes involved in leading and lagging strand replication and explain the role of each in DNA replication.

Figure 15.3

15.4

21) Where would Okazaki fragments be found in the image above? Note: The black boxes represent RNA primers and the polarities of the template strands are indicated.

A) A, B

B) C, D

C) A, C

D) B, D

E) A, D

F) B, C

Answer: F

Type: MC

Reference: Section 15 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 15-2 List the enzymes involved in leading and lagging strand replication and explain the role of each in DNA replication.

22) If during the process of DNA replication, the enzyme topoisomerase was not functioning (i.e. it was mutated) what do you expect will happen to the replication process?

A) The double helix would not begin to unwind at all.

B) The double helix would begin to unwind but this unwinding would stop prematurely due to over-twisting of the DNA

C) The double helix would unwind completely but no primers would be added to the template strand

D) The double helix would unwind completely but no new strand would be created due to the formation of secondary structures

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 15.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 15-2. List the enzymes involved in leading and lagging strand replication and explain the role of each in DNA replication.

Figure

23) What is a telomere?

A) the mechanism that holds two sister chromatids together

B) the reorganization of the cell nucleus that takes place during telophase

C) the site of origin of DNA replication

D) the ends of linear chromosomes

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 15.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 15-3. Explain why one strand of DNA at the end of a chromosome cannot be replicated to its end and how telomerase solves this problem.

24) Bodnar et al. (1998) used telomerase to extend the life span of normal human cells. Telomere shortening puts a limit on the number of times a cell can divide. How might adding telomerase affect cellular aging?

A) Telomerase will speed up the rate of cell proliferation.

B) Telomerase ensures that the ends of the chromosomes are accurately replicated and eliminates telomere shortening.

C) Telomerase shortens telomeres and thus delays cellular aging.

D) Telomerase would have no effect on cellular aging.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 15.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 15-3. Explain why one strand of DNA at the end of a chromosome cannot be replicated to its end and how telomerase solves this problem

25) Telomere shortening is a problem in which types of cells?

A) prokaryotes

B) eukaryotes

C) both prokaryotes and eukaryotes

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 15.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 15-3. Explain why one strand of DNA at the end of a chromosome cannot be replicated to its end and how telomerase solves this problem.

26) Which of the following cells do not have active telomerase activity?

A) most normal somatic cells

B) most normal germ cells

C) most cancer cells

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 15.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 15-3. Explain why one strand of DNA at the end of a chromosome cannot be replicated to its end and how telomerase solves this problem.

27) Which of the following would you expect of a eukaryote lacking telomerase?

A) a high probability of somatic cells becoming cancerous

B) an inability to produce Okazaki fragments

C) an inability to repair thymine dimers

D) a reduction in chromosome length in gametes

E) high sensitivity to sunlight

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 15.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 15-3. Explain why one strand of DNA at the end of a chromosome cannot be replicated to its end and how telomerase solves this problem.

28) What appears to be a dark side to telomerase activity with regard to human health?

A) Telomerase is active in most cancer cells.

B) Telomerase is inhibited by p53

C) p53 inhibits telomerase

D) There are more chromosomal ends than can be repaired by telomerase

E) Telomerase activity is only seen in somatic cells; therefore, chromosome shortening is likely in gametic chromosomes

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 15.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 15-3. Explain why one strand of DNA at the end of a chromosome cannot be replicated to its end and how telomerase solves this problem.

29) Telomere shortening puts a limit on the number of times a cell can divide. Research has shown that telomerase can extend the life span of cultured human cells. How might adding telomerase affect cellular aging?

A) Telomerase will speed up the rate of cell proliferation.

B) Telomerase eliminates telomere shortening and retards aging.

C) Telomerase shortens telomeres, which delays cellular aging.

D) Telomerase would have no effect on cellular aging.

E) Telomerase would decrease the rate of DNA replication.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 15.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 15-3. Explain why one strand of DNA at the end of a chromosome cannot be replicated to its end and how telomerase solves this problem.

30) DNA replication is highly accurate. It results in about one mistake per billion nucleotides. For the human genome, how often would errors occur?

A) on average, once or twice in the lifetime of an individual

B) on average, 6 times each time the entire genome of a cell is replicated

C) on average, once every 6 cell divisions

D) on average, once a lifetime in 10% of the population

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 15.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 15-4 Describe how proofreading, mismatch repair, and nucleotide excision repair work and why they're important

31) If DNA repair mechanisms fail, what is the result?

A) a mutation

B) a defective enzyme

C) cancer

D) All of the above can result from the failure of DNA repair mechanisms.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 15.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 15-4. Describe how proofreading, mismatch repair, and nucleotide excision repair work and why they're important.

32) Researchers found E. coli that had mutation rates 100 times higher than normal. What is a possible explanation for these results?

A) The single-stranded binding proteins were malfunctioning.

B) There were one or more mismatches in the RNA primer.

C) The proofreading mechanism of DNA polymerase was not working properly.

D) The DNA polymerase was unable to add bases to the 3′ end of the growing nucleic acid chain.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 15.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 15-4. Describe how proofreading, mismatch repair, and nucleotide excision repair work and why they're important.

33) The epsilon (ε) subunit of DNA polymerase III of E. coli has exonuclease activity. How does it function in the proofreading process?

A) The epsilon subunit can remove a mismatched nucleotide.

B) The epsilon subunit excises a segment of DNA around the mismatched base.

C) The epsilon subunit can recognize which strand is the template or parent strand, and which is the new strand of DNA.

D) It adds nucleotide triphosphates to the 3′ end of the growing DNA strand.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 15.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 15-4 Describe how proofreading, mismatch repair, and nucleotide excision repair work and why they're important

34) In the mismatch repair process, enzyme complexes replace bases that were incorrectly inserted into the newly synthesized DNA strand To function, they must be able to distinguish between the parent DNA strand and the new strand How is this accomplished?

A) The new strand contains the diphosphate bases

B) The parent strand is methylated.

C) The new strand contains ribose sugars.

D) The parent strand is usually radiolabeled.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 15.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 15-4. Describe how proofreading, mismatch repair, and nucleotide excision repair work and why they're important.

35) Which of the following are important in reducing the errors in DNA replication in E. coli organisms?

A) proofreading activity of the epsilon subunit of DNA polymerase III

B) mismatch repair

C) nucleotide excision repair

D) All of the above minimize errors in DNA replication in E. coli.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 15.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 15-4. Describe how proofreading, mismatch repair, and nucleotide excision repair work and why they're important.

36) Which of the following agents can cause mutations in DNA?

A) aflatoxins that are found in moldy grains

B) free radicals that are formed as by-products of aerobic respiration

C) ultraviolet radiation from sunlight

D) All of the above are mutagenic agents.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 15 5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 15-4 Describe how proofreading, mismatch repair, and nucleotide excision repair work and why they're important

37) What are thymine dimers?

A) pyrimidines (C and T) that have gained an extra nitrogen-containing ring structure

B) thymines on antiparallel DNA strands that form complementary base pairs

C) adjacent thymines on the same DNA strand that join by covalent bonding

D) thymines formed by demethylation of purines

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 15.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 15-4. Describe how proofreading, mismatch repair, and nucleotide excision repair work and why they're important.

38) Recent studies have shown that xeroderma pigmentosum (an error in the nucleotide excision repair process) can result from mutations in one of seven genes. What can you infer from this finding?

A) There are seven genes that produce the same protein.

B) These seven genes are the most easily damaged by ultraviolet light.

C) There are several enzymes involved in the nucleotide excision repair process.

D) These mutations have resulted from translocation of gene segments.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 15.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 15-4. Describe how proofreading, mismatch repair, and nucleotide excision repair work and why they're important.

39) Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) is an inherited disorder. The genetic defect identified is an error in the mismatch repair mechanism. Which of the following would be an expected result of this mutation?

A) increased rate of errors by wild-type DNA polymerase

B) increased rate of formation of pyrimidine dimers

C) increased rate of repair of pyrimidine dimers

D) decreased ability to repair certain DNA mutations

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 15.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 15-4 Describe how proofreading, mismatch repair, and nucleotide excision repair work and why they're important

40) Which one of the following is least likely to cause mutations in DNA?

A) aflatoxins that are found in mouldy grains

B) hydroxyl radicals formed as by-products of aerobic respiration

C) ultraviolet radiation from sunlight

D) light from an incandescent bulb

E) medical X-rays to detect broken bones

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 15.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 15-4. Describe how proofreading, mismatch repair, and nucleotide excision repair work and why they're important.

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition

Chapter 16 How Genes Work

(Freeman et al.)

1) Which of the following contradicts the "one-gene, one-enzyme hypothesis"?

A) A mutation in a single gene can result in a defective protein.

B) Alkaptonuria results when individuals lack a single enzyme involved in the catalysis of homogentisic acid.

C) Sickle-cell anemia results in defective hemoglobin.

D) A single antibody gene can code for different related proteins, depending on the splicing that takes place post-transcriptionally.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 16-2 Describe and interpret the experiments that led to the elucidation of the one-gene, one-enzyme hypothesis

Medium with: No ornithine No citrulline

Medium with: Medium with: Medium with: Ornithine No citrulline Citrulline No ornithine No ornithine No citrulline

Mutant Strain No arginine No arginine GROWTH no growth no growth No Arginine Arginine arg1 arg2 arg3 no growth no growth no growth GROWTH GROWTH no growth GROWTH GROWTH GROWTH

16.1

2) According to the table and Figure 16.1, which enzyme is defective in the strain with the mutation?

A) the enzyme that converts the precursor to ornithine

B) the enzyme that converts ornithine to citrulline

C) the enzyme that converts citrulline to arginine

D) the enzyme that converts the precursor to citrulline

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 16-2. Describe and interpret the experiments that led to the elucidation of the one-gene, one-enzyme hypothesis.

Figure

3) Beadle discovered that metabolic pathways are studied most effectively using which of the following techniques?

A) gene amplification

B) adding additional intermediates of the metabolic pathway

C) adding energy in the form of ATP

D) creating single gene mutations resulting in nonfunctional enzymes specific to a metabolic pathway

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 16-2. Describe and interpret the experiments that led to the elucidation of the one-gene, one-enzyme hypothesis.

Figure 16.2

4) Refer to Figure 16.2. A branched metabolic pathway synthesizes two related amino acids (D and F). If there is a genetic defect, resulting in a nonfunctional enzyme (3), how could you ensure that adequate amounts of the amino acid F are synthesized?

A) Supplement intermediate B.

B) Supplement intermediate C.

C) Add enzyme 2 to the medium.

D) Supplement with intermediate E.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Analyzing

LO: 16-2 Describe and interpret the experiments that led to the elucidation of the one-gene, one-enzyme hypothesis

5) Refer to Figure 16 2 In the branched metabolic pathway, if enzyme 1 is defective, you might expect to see an increase in the amount of which intermediate/product?

A) E

B) F

C) D

D) A

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 16-2. Describe and interpret the experiments that led to the elucidation of the one-gene, one-enzyme hypothesis.

6) Knockout mice have been genetically altered to knock out specific genes. How are these mice most often used in research?

A) to study DNA replication in the defective genes (those that have been altered)

B) to determine the role of proteins coded for by those genes that are knocked out

C) to examine defects in DNA structure in those regions that have been altered

D) to study the effect of radiation on DNA

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 16-2. Describe and interpret the experiments that led to the elucidation of the one-gene, one-enzyme hypothesis.

7) The proteome is all the proteins produced by an organism. The genome is the totality of all genes of an organism. If the proteome is much larger than the genome, which of the following statements would be accurate?

A) This finding lends support to the one gene one enzyme hypothesis.

B) The number of monomeric subunits found in proteins is fewer than the number of monomeric subunits found in genes.

C) At least in some cases, a single gene must code for more than one protein.

D) Noncoding DNA is important in determining the proteome.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 16-3 Describe the nature of the genetic code

Figure 16.3

Above is a metabolic pathway for the synthesis of an amino acid (E), without which an organism could not live. Enzymes are represented by numbers, and substrates by letters. Use this figure for the next two questions.

8) According to the figure above, if enzyme 3 was nonfunctional in an organism, which of the following outcomes would you predict?

A) The cell would die because of a lack of the essential amino acid.

B) Another enzyme would be able to catalyze the reaction and the pathway would proceed.

C) Substrate C would accumulate, and there would be no substrate D formed.

D) Lack of enzyme 3 would result in a cessation (halt) of the entire metabolic pathway.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 16-2. Describe and interpret the experiments that led to the elucidation of the one-gene, one-enzyme hypothesis.

9) Refer to the figure above If an organism is given E in their diet, they survive However, if the same organism is given only substrate A, B, C, or D in their diet, they die. Which of the enzymes is most likely defective?

A) Enzyme 1

B) Enzyme 2

C) Enzyme 3

D) Enzyme 4

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 16-2. Describe and interpret the experiments that led to the elucidation of the one-gene, one-enzyme hypothesis.

10) In the Morse code, a series of dots and dashes code for letters of the alphabet. How is this analogous to the genetic code?

A) There is complementarity in the genetic code (A is complementary to T, and C is complementary to G).

B) The bases that make up DNA are associated by hydrogen bonds.

C) The machinery involved in DNA synthesis is analogous to the telegraph equipment used in sending Morse code.

D) The bases of DNA code for the more complex amino acid sequence of the various proteins found in cells.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 16-3. Describe the nature of the genetic code.

11) What is a codon?

A) the base sequence of the tRNA that brings the correct amino acid to the ribosome where protein synthesis will take place

B) the amino acetyl tRNA synthase that ensures that the correct amino acid is added to the right tRNA

C) the three-base sequence of mRNA that specifies the addition of a specific amino acid

D) the complementarity of DNA and RNA

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 16-3 Describe the nature of the genetic code

12) Which of the following is NOT synthesized from a DNA template?

A) messenger RNA

B) amino acids

C) tRNA

D) ribosomal RNA

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 16-1. Describe the central dogma (DNA → RNA → protein) and explain exceptions to it.

13) Which molecule carries the message from the DNA in the nucleus to the cytoplasm where the code is translated? A) mRNA B) DNA C) rRNA D) tRNA Answer: A Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 16-1. Describe the central dogma (DNA → RNA → protein) and explain exceptions to it.

14) In the process of transcription,

A) DNA is replicated.

B) RNA is synthesized. C) proteins are synthesized.

D) mRNA attaches to ribosomes.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 16-1. Describe the central dogma (DNA → RNA → protein) and explain exceptions to it.

16.4

15) Given the DNA template shown above, which of the following bases would you find in a complementary RNA strand? A) A-A-A-A-A B) U-U-U-U-U C) T-T-T-T-T D) G-C-G-C-G

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 16.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 16-1. Describe the central dogma (DNA → RNA → protein) and explain exceptions to it. 16) A particular triplet of bases in the template strand of DNA is 5' AGT 3'. The corresponding codon for the mRNA transcribed is A) 3' UCA 5'. B) 3' UGS 5'. C) 5' TCA 3'. D) 3' ACU 5'. E) either UCA or TCA, depending on wobble in the first base. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 16.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 16-3. Describe the nature of the genetic code.

Figure

17) Codons, the three base sequences that code for specific amino acids, are part of A) protein.

B) mRNA.

C) tRNA.

D) rRNA.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 16-3. Describe the nature of the genetic code.

18) What molecule serves as a link between the information-containing macromolecule, DNA, and protein synthesis?

A) rRNA

B) tRNA

C) mRNA

D) snRNA

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 16-1. Describe the central dogma (DNA → RNA → protein) and explain exceptions to it.

19) Which of the following observations may have resulted in the hypothesis that a codon is made up of three bases?

A) A codon of 2 bases in length, from 4 different bases, would code for a maximum of 16 different amino acids; therefore, 2 are too few

B) A codon of 3 bases in length, from 4 different bases, would code for a maximum of 12 different amino acids; therefore 3 are too few

C) A codon of 4 bases in length, from 4 different bases, could code for a maximum of 24 different amino acids; therefore, 4 is likely

D) A codon of 3 bases in length, from 4 different bases, would code for a maximum of 64 different amino acids; therefore, 3 is possible.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 16-3. Describe the nature of the genetic code.

20) How might a single base substitution in the sequence of a gene affect the amino acid sequence of a protein encoded by the gene, and why?

A) Only a single amino acid could change, because the reading frame is unaffected.

B) The amino acid sequence would be substantially altered, because the reading frame would change with a single base substitution.

C) All amino acids following the substitution would be affected, because the reading frame would be shifted.

D) It is not possible for a single base substitution to affect protein structure, because each codon is three bases long.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 16-5. Explain the causes and impact of point and chromosomal-level mutations. Use the figure to answer the following question(s).

16.5

21) Refer to Figure 16.5. If you had an mRNA for which the codons were read beginning from the start codon, which amino acids would be added (in order)?

5' UCUGAUGGGCUUU 3'

A) serine, aspartic acid, glycine, leucine

B) methionine, glycine, phenylalanine

C) methionine, valine, glycine, phenylalanine

D) threonine, methionine, glycine

E) lysine, alanine, aspartic acid

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 16-4. Predict the sequence of amino acids in a protein when given a sequence of bases in DNA or RNA.

Figure

22) Refer to Figure 16.5. Transfer RNA contains the anticodon XXX (three-base sequence that is complementary to the mRNA codon). tRNA with which anticodon would transport phenylalanine to the ribosome?

A) UUU

B) AAA

C) TTT

D) CCC

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 16-4. Predict the sequence of amino acids in a protein when given a sequence of bases in DNA or RNA.

23) Refer to Figure 16.5. If the codon CAC was present in the ribosome A site, which amino acid would be added?

A) phenylalanine

B) methionine

C) aspartic acid

D) histidine

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 16-3. Describe the nature of the genetic code.

24) Refer to Figure 16 5 A possible sequence of nucleotides in the template strand of DNA that would code for the polypeptide sequence Phe-Leu-Ile-Val would be

A) 5' TTG-CTA-CAG-TAG 3'

B) 3' AAC-GAC-GUC-AUA 5'

C) 5' AUG-CTG-CAG-TAT 3'

D) 3' AAA-AAT-ATA-ACA 5'

E) 3' AAA-GAA-TAA-CAA 5'.

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 16-4. Predict the sequence of amino acids in a protein when given a sequence of bases in DNA or RNA.

25) All three domains (Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya) follow the same genetic code. Which of the following statements would most likely be accurate given that information? A) The genetic code evolved three times. B) The genetic code evolved before DNA replaced RNA as the unit of genetic information. C) There were no mutations following the evolution of the genetic code. D) The genetic code evolved before the different domains diverged. Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 16.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 16-3. Describe the nature of the genetic code. 26) What does it mean when we say the genetic code is redundant? A) A single codon can specify the addition of more than one amino acid. B) The genetic code is different for different domains of organisms. C) The genetic code is universal (the same for all organisms). D) More than one codon can specify the addition of the same amino acid. Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 16.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 16-3. Describe the nature of the genetic code. 27) The original DNA has the base sequence AGCGTTACCGT; a mutation in the DNA strand results in the base sequence AGGCGTTACCGT. What does this tell you about the mutation? A) It was caused by radiation poisoning. B) It may result in a single amino acid change in the protein being coded for by this base sequence. C) There is no mutation. D) It is a frameshift mutation. Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 16.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 16-5. Explain the causes and impact of point and chromosomal-level mutations. 28) There are three stop codons (nonsense codons); all remaining codons specify addition of an amino acid (sense codons). How many sense codons are there? A) 20 B) 45 C) 61 D) 72 Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 16.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 16-3. Describe the nature of the genetic code.

29) When is a single base substitution mutation least likely to be deleterious?

A) when the single base change results in a stop codon

B) when the single base change results in a codon that specifies the same amino acid as the original codon

C) when the base change results in an amino acid substitution that alters the tertiary structure of the protein

D) when the base change results in an amino acid substitution at the active site of an enzyme

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 16-5. Explain the causes and impact of point and chromosomal-level mutations.

30) The statement, DNA → RNA → Proteins,

A) has become known as the central dogma.

B) depicts the regulation of gene expression.

C) is reversible in most living organisms.

D) describes a series of catalytic reactions.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 16-1 Describe the central dogma (DNA → RNA → protein) and explain exceptions to it

31) Which of the following findings violated the central dogma?

A) the discovery of RNA viruses that synthesize DNA using reverse transcriptase

B) he discovery that the Archaea and Bacteria are more distantly related than Achaea and Eukarya

C) the discovery of ribozymes

D) the discovery of DNA as the unit of genetic inheritance

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 16-1 Describe the central dogma (DNA → RNA → protein) and explain exceptions to it

32) Genotype is to as phenotype is to .

A) DNA base sequence; amino acid sequence

B) heredity; DNA base sequence

C) gene regulation; translation

D) transcription; amino acid sequence

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 16-1. Describe the central dogma (DNA → RNA → protein) and explain exceptions to it.

33) The synthesis of RNA through complementary base pairing is known as

A) semiconservative replication.

B) dispersive polymerization.

C) transcription.

D) translation.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 16-1. Describe the central dogma (DNA → RNA → protein) and explain exceptions to it.

34) The HIV virus that causes AIDS is a retrovirus. What is a retrovirus?

A) a DNA virus that uses DNA as a template in the process of translation

B) an RNA virus that makes proteins directly from RNA

C) an RNA virus that has reverse transcriptase, enabling it to make DNA from RNA

D) a DNA virus that is acellular and is able to reproduce outside a living cell

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 16-1. Describe the central dogma (DNA → RNA → protein) and explain exceptions to it.

35) Once researchers identified DNA as the unit of inheritance, they asked how information was transferred from the DNA in the nucleus to the site of protein synthesis in the cytoplasm. What is the mechanism of information transfer?

A) DNA from a single gene is replicated and transferred to the cytoplasm, where it serves as a template for protein synthesis

B) Messenger RNA is transcribed from a single gene and transfers information from the DNA in the nucleus to the cytoplasm, where protein synthesis takes place

C) Proteins transfer information from the nucleus to the ribosome, where protein synthesis takes place

D) Lipids are soluble in the nuclear membrane and serve to transfer information from the DNA to the cytoplasm, where protein synthesis takes place.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 16-3. Describe the nature of the genetic code.

36) A mutation that results in premature termination of translation

A) is a silent mutation.

B) is a nonsense mutation.

C) usually has no effect on the function of the protein.

D) is a missense mutation.

E) is a reading frame mutation.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 16-5. Explain the causes and impact of point and chromosomal-level mutations.

37) According to the central dogma, what molecule should go in the blank?

DNA → → Proteins

A) complementary DNA

B) transport molecules

C) mRNA

D) chaperone molecules

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 16-1 Describe the central dogma (DNA → RNA → protein) and explain exceptions to it

38) What feature makes organisms less vulnerable to small mutations in DNA replication that are not corrected?

A) alternative splicing

B) redundancy in the genetic code

C) differential gene expression

D) pleiotropy

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 16-3 & 5. Describe the nature of the genetic code. Explain the causes and impact of point and chromosomal-level mutations.

39) The term "point" in point mutation is in reference to which of the following?

A) It affects an organism once during its lifespan.

B) If affects only one nucleotide.

C) It affects only one type of chromosome

D) It affects only one protein in the body.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 16.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 16-5. Explain the causes and impact of point and chromosomal-level mutations.

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition (Freeman et al.)

Chapter 17 Transcription, RNA Processing, and Translation

Figure 17.1

1) The enzyme complex associated with DNA in the figure is A) helicase. B) DNA polymerase. C) RNA polymerase. D) topoisomerase. Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 17.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 17-1. Relate the structure of RNA polymerase to its function in transcription.

2) RNA polymerase needs a subunit to initiate transcription that is not needed for transcript elongation. What is the subunit? A) Mg2+ B) rho C) sigma D) the holoenzyme

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 17-1. Relate the structure of RNA polymerase to its function in transcription.

3) The segments of DNA where transcription begins have a binding site for RNA polymerase. These segments are known as

A) sigma.

B) the holoenzyme.

C) initiation factors.

D) promoters.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 17-2. Describe the steps in initiation, elongation, and termination of transcription and translation.

4) David Pribnow studied the base sequences of promoters in bacteria and bacterial viruses. He found two conserved regions in these promoters (the -10 box and the -35 box). What is the function of these two regions of the promoter?

A) They signal the initiation site.

B) They bind the sigma subunit that is associated with RNA polymerase.

C) They attach the correct nucleotide triphosphate to the template DNA strand.

D) They separate the two DNA strands.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 17-2. Describe the steps in initiation, elongation, and termination of transcription and translation

5) Which of the following processes is central to the initiation of transcription?

A) binding of sigma to the promoter region

B) formation of a phosphodiester bond in the elongating RNA strand

C) binding of DNA polymerase to the promoter region

D) formation of a DNA primer

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 17-2. Describe the steps in initiation, elongation, and termination of transcription and translation.

6) Put the following events of transcription in chronological order.

1. Sigma binds to the promoter region.

2. The double helix of DNA is unwound, breaking hydrogen bonds between complementary strands.

3. Sigma binds to RNA polymerase.

4. Sigma is released.

5. Transcription begins. A) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 B) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5 C) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4 D) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 17 1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 17-2 Describe the steps in initiation, elongation, and termination of transcription and translation 7) Transcription would not occur at the appropriate initiation sites in E coli if RNA polymerase is missing which of the following? A) amino acids B) mRNA C) sigma D) the core enzyme Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 17 1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 17-1 Relate the structure of RNA polymerase to its function in transcription. 8) During elongation, RNA polymerase has three prominent channels, or grooves. These channels provide sites for all of the following, EXCEPT A) a site for the double-stranded DNA molecule. B) a site for the entry of ribonucleoside triphosphates. C) a site for the exit of the diphosphates removed from the nucleotide triphosphates. D) a site for the growing RNA strand. Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 17.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 17-2. Describe the steps in initiation, elongation, and termination of transcription and translation.

9) How are RNA hairpin turns related to termination?

A) The turns are formed from complementary base pairing and cause separation of the RNA transcript and RNA polymerase.

B) A three-base repeat signals a stop sequence, and the RNA transcript is released.

C) Release factors bind to sites on the hairpin turn, causing release of the RNA transcript.

D) The hairpin turn prevents more nucleoside triphosphates from entering the active site of the enzymes, effectively shutting off the process of polymerization.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 17-2. Describe the steps in initiation, elongation, and termination of transcription and translation.

10) Which molecule or reaction supplies the energy for polymerization of nucleotides in the process of transcription?

A) the interaction between RNA polymerase and the promoter

B) the phosphate bonds in the nucleotide triphosphates that serve as substrates

C) the energy released when hydrogen bonds are broken as the DNA molecule is unwound

D) ATP only

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 17-2. Describe the steps in initiation, elongation, and termination of transcription and translation

11) Eukaryotes have three nuclear RNA polymerases The primary function of RNA polymerase II is

A) transcription of only rRNA-coding genes

B) transcription of only tRNA-coding genes

C) transcription of both rRNA- and tRNA-coding genes

D) transcription of protein-coding genes.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 17-1. Relate the structure of RNA polymerase to its function in transcription.

12) A primary transcript in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell is the functional mRNA, while a primary transcript in a prokaryotic cell is the functional mRNA.

A) the same size as; the same size as

B) larger than; the same size as

C) larger than; smaller than

D) the same size as; larger than

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 17-4. Explain how RNA is processed in eukaryotes.

13) In eukaryotic cells, transcription cannot begin until which of the following occurs?

A) The two DNA strands have completely separated and exposed the promoter.

B) Several transcription factors have bound to the promoter.

C) The 5' caps are removed from the mRNA.

D) The DNA introns are removed from the template.

E) DNA nucleases have isolated the transcription unit.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17 1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 17-2 Describe the steps in initiation, elongation, and termination of transcription and translation

14) Refer to Figure 17.2. The mRNA is smaller than the length of the DNA that codes for it because

A) the regulatory regions (introns) of the gene are not transcribed.

B) post-transcriptional modification removes the introns.

C) post-transcriptional modification removes the exons

D) bases are added to the tail of the primary transcript

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 17-4. Explain how RNA is processed in eukaryotes.

Figure 17.2

15) Death cap mushrooms produce a substance called -amanitin. α-amanitin efficiently blocks synthesis of mRNA, but not of tRNA or rRNA in eukaryotic organisms. How is that possible? A) α-amanitin efficiently interferes with the action of RNA polymerase I, but not RNA polymerase II or III. B) α-amanitin efficiently interferes with RNA polymerase III, but not RNA polymerase I and II. C) α-amanitin efficiently blocks the action of one or more basic transcription factors. D) α-amanitin efficiently interferes with the action of RNA polymerase II, but not RNA polymerase I or III. Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Put it All Together: Case Study Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 17-1. Relate the structure of RNA polymerase to its function in transcription.

16) α-amanitin is a toxin produced by the death cap mushroom. It blocks the synthesis of mRNA.

What effect would it have on health of the organism that ate death cap mushrooms?

A) It would block DNA synthesis.

B) It would tie up Mg2+ and, through this action, inhibit glycolysis.

C) It would denature existing proteins.

D) It would cause death.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Put it All Together: Case Study

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 17-1. Relate the structure of RNA polymerase to its function in transcription.

17) As scientists were unraveling the mysteries associated with transcription and translation, they discovered there was not a one-to-one correspondence between nucleotide sequence of a gene and base sequence of the mRNA it codes for They proposed the genes-in-pieces hypothesis.

How can the genes-in-pieces hypothesis be explained?

A) Introns are noncoding segments of DNA that are present in the initial transcript, but are removed by splicing

B) Introns are noncoding segments of DNA that are not read or transcribed by RNA polymerase II

C) Exons are noncoding segments of DNA that are not read or transcribed by RNA polymerase II

D) Several related genes are found in the genomes of humans and other animals

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 17-4. Explain how RNA is processed in eukaryotes.

18) What molecule is responsible for the catalytic activity in the spliceosomes that are involved in removal of introns?

A) RNA polymerase

B) ribozymes

C) proteins of the spliceosome

D) autocatalysis by introns

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 17-4. Explain how RNA is processed in eukaryotes.

19) Which of the following is/are post-transcriptional modifications occurring in eukaryotic mRNAs?

A) addition of a poly (A) tail

B) addition of a methyl-guanosine cap

C) removal of introns

D) all of the above

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 17-4 Explain how RNA is processed in eukaryotes

20) In an experimental situation, a student researcher inserts an mRNA molecule into a eukaryotic cell after she has removed the mRNA's 5' cap and poly-A tail. Which of the following would you expect her to find?

A) The mRNA is quickly converted into a ribosomal subunit.

B) The cell adds a new poly-A tail to the mRNA.

C) The mRNA attaches to a ribosome and is translated, but more slowly.

D) The molecule is digested by enzymes because it is not protected at the 5' end.

E) The mRNA would not be translated.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 17-4 Explain how RNA is processed in eukaryotes

21) There should be a strong positive correlation between the rate of protein synthesis and A) the quantity of DNA polymerase.

B) the size of the genome.

C) the size of mRNA.

D) the number of ribosomes.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 17-5. Relate the structure of ribosomes and tRNA to their functions in translation.

22) Ribosomes can attach to prokaryotic messenger RNA

A) once post-transcriptional modification is complete.

B) before transcription is complete.

C) once replication is complete.

D) once the primary transcript has been released from RNA polymerase.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 17-3. List major differences between transcription and RNA processing in bacteria and eukaryotes.

23) Which of the following occurs in prokaryotes, but not eukaryotes?

A) post-transcriptional splicing

B) concurrent transcription and translation

C) translation in the absence of a ribosome

D) gene regulation

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 17-3. List major differences between transcription and RNA processing in bacteria and eukaryotes.

24) What molecule/feature ensures that the correct amino acid is added with reading of a specific codon during translation?

A) the anticodon of a properly formed aminoacyl tRNA

B) the methyl-guanosine cap of a properly modified mRNA

C) the poly (A) tail of a properly modified mRNA

D) the twisting number of a properly supercoiled DNA

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 17-5. Relate the structure of ribosomes and tRNA to their functions in translation.

Figure 17.3

25) Refer to Figure 17.3. What is the function of the AGU on the loop of the tRNA?

A) It attaches to the amino acid.

B) It base pairs with the codon of mRNA.

C) It stabilizes the tRNA-amino acid complex.

D) It is the active site of this ribozyme.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 17-5. Relate the structure of ribosomes and tRNA to their functions in translation.

26) What is the function of the 3′ end of the tRNA?

A) It attaches to the amino acid.

B) It base pairs with the codon of mRNA.

C) It stabilizes the tRNA-amino acid complex.

D) It is the active site of this ribozyme.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 17-5. Relate the structure of ribosomes and tRNA to their functions in translation.

27) There are 61 codons that each specify the addition of a specific amino acid, and three stop codons for which there is no corresponding amino acid. However, there are only about 40 tRNA molecules, representing 40 anticodons. How is that possible?

A) Only about 40 of the recognized 61 codons are present in mRNA.

B) An anticodon forms hydrogen bonds with the codon; it must match the first two bases of the codon, but is less specific with respect to the third base.

C) There are tRNAs that can bind one of two related amino acids.

D) Only 20 of the codons are active–one for each amino acid.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 17-5. Relate the structure of ribosomes and tRNA to their functions in translation.

28) A mutant bacterial cell has a defective aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase that attaches a lysine to tRNAs with the anticodon AAA instead of the normal phenylalanine. What would the consequence of this be for the cell?

A) None of the proteins in the cell will contain phenylalanine.

B) Proteins in the cell will include lysine instead of phenylalanine at amino acid positions specified by the codon UUU.

C) The cell will compensate for the defect by attaching phenylalanine to tRNAs with lysinespecifying anticodons.

D) The ribosome will skip a codon every time a UUU is encountered.

E) The ribosome will stall whenever an abnormal lysine tRNA binds to the A site.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17 4, 17 5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 17-2 Describe the steps in initiation, elongation, and termination of transcription and translation

29) Refer to Figure 17 4 During elongation, which site in the ribosome represents the location where a codon is being read?

A) E site

B) P site

C) A site

D) small subunit

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 17-5. Relate the structure of ribosomes and tRNA to their functions in translation.

30) Once a peptide has been formed between the amino acid attached to the tRNA in the P site and the amino acid associated with the tRNA in the A site, which process on the list occurs next?

A) translocation

B) reading of the next codon of mRNA

C) initiation

D) the codon-anticodon hydrogen bonds holding the tRNA in the A site are broken

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 17-2. Describe the steps in initiation, elongation, and termination of transcription and translation.

Figure 17.4

31) The start codon is the same for prokaryotes and eukaryotes. What is the start codon? A) an anticodon B) a ribozyme C) AUG D) GGC Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 17.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 17-2. Describe the steps in initiation, elongation, and termination of transcription and translation. 32) Put the following events of elongation in prokaryotic translation in chronological order.

1. Binding of mRNA with small ribosomal subunit.

2. Recognition of initiation codon

3. Complementary base pairing between initiator codon and anticodon of initiator tRNA

4. Base pairing of the mRNA codon following the initiator codon with its complementary tRNA

5. Attachment of the large subunit A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5 C) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 D) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4 Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 17.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 17-2. Describe the steps in initiation, elongation, and termination of transcription and translation. 33) Which of the following is NOT one of the steps in initiation of translation? A) binding of the large ribosomal subunit to the small ribosomal subunit B) binding of tRNA carrying formyl methionine to the start codon and small ribosomal subunit C) recognition and binding of mRNA by the small ribosomal subunit D) formation of a polypeptide bond Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 17.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 17-2. Describe the steps in initiation, elongation, and termination of transcription and translation.

34) The ribosome-binding site of prokaryotes is also known as

A) the TATA box.

B) the promoter.

C) the Shine-Dalgarno sequence.

D) the Pribnow box.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 17-5. Relate the structure of ribosomes and tRNA to their functions in translation.

35) How does termination of translation take place?

A) The ribosome reaches the end of the mRNA molecule.

B) Stop codons with no corresponding tRNAs are read.

C) Hairpin turns of mRNA force the ribosome off the molecule.

D) Energy depletion causes termination.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 17-2. Describe the steps in initiation, elongation, and termination of transcription and translation.

36) Post-translational modifications include all of the following EXCEPT

A) removal of introns.

B) formation of hydrogen bonds among carbonyl and amino groups of the polypeptide backbone.

C) formation of covalent bonds between cysteine residues of the amino acid site chains

D) addition of carbohydrates to form a glycoprotein

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17 5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 17-2. Describe the steps in initiation, elongation, and termination of transcription and translation.

37) A part of an mRNA molecule with the following sequence is being read by a ribosome: 5' CCG-ACG 3'(mRNA). The following charged transfer RNA molecules (with their anticodons shown in the 3' to 5' direction) are available. Two of them can correctly match the mRNA so that a dipeptide can form.

Table 17 1

tRNA Anticodon Amino Acid

GGC

CGU

UGC

CCG

ACG

CGG Proline Alanine Threonine Glycine Cysteine Alanine

What is the anticodon loop of the first tRNA that will complement this mRNA?

A) 3' GGC 5'

B) 5' GGC 3'

C) 5' ACG 3'

D) 5' UGC 3'

E) 3' UGC 5'

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 17-5. Relate the structure of ribosomes and tRNA to their functions in translation.

38) A transfer RNA (#1) attached to the amino acid lysine enters the ribosome. The lysine binds to the growing polypeptide on the other tRNA (#2) in the ribosome already.

Where does tRNA #2 move to after this bonding of lysine to the polypeptide?

A) A site

B) P site

C) E site

D) exit tunnel

E) directly to the cytosol

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 17-5. Relate the structure of ribosomes and tRNA to their functions in translation.

39) Which of the following does not play a role in the process of translation?

A) GTP

B) 5' G-cap

C) tRNAs

D) exons

E) ATP

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 17.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 17-2. Describe the steps in initiation, elongation, and termination of transcription and translation.

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition (Freeman et al.)

Chapter 18 Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria

1) Which of the following levels of gene expression allows the most rapid response to environmental change?

A) transcriptional control

B) translational control

C) post-translational control

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 18-1. Explain why cells need to regulate expression of their genes.

2) E. coli and many other bacteria of the human gut need to have fine-tuned regulation of gene expression in order to

A) replicate their DNA.

B) metabolize any nutrient.

C) effectively compete for space and nutrients.

D) grow.

E) evolve.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 18-1. Explain why cells need to regulate expression of their genes.

3) Although the expression of most genes is tightly regulated, some genes are expressed at roughly constant rates (i e , constitutively) Which of the following genes would you predict to be constitutively expressed?

A) genes involved in the biosynthesis of the amino acid tryptophan

B) genes involved in the degradation of tryptophan

C) genes involved in the degradation of arabinose, a sugar

D) genes that code for ribosomal RNAs

E) genes involved in the transport of the sugar maltose

Answer: D

Explanation: Although rRNAs are in fact regulated as part of a global stress response, the intention is to have students think about which type of gene would most likely show routine ups and downs of regulation. This eliminates all answers but rRNA genes.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 18-1. Explain why cells need to regulate expression of their genes.

4) Recall that cyclin-dependent kinases are activated when they bind to a cyclin protein. This form of regulation is A) constitutive control. B) transcriptional control. C) translational control. D) post-translational control. Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 18.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 18-1. Explain why cells need to regulate expression of their genes.

5) Full induction of the lac operon occurs when

A) lactose levels are low and glucose levels are low.

B) lactose levels are low and glucose levels are high.

C) lactose levels are high and glucose levels are low.

D) lactose levels are high and glucose levels are high.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 18-3 & 4. Explain the role of repressors and inducers in negative control of gene expression. Explain the role of CAP protein and cAMP in positive control of gene expression.

6) Bacterial and eukaryotic cells primarily control gene expression at the level of transcription. If instead cells exerted control of gene expression primarily at the post-translational level, what would be different?

A) The ability to rapidly respond to environmental change would be reduced.

B) Cells would expend significantly more energy.

C) Genes would no longer be transcribed.

D) Translation of mRNA into protein would not occur.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 18-1. Explain why cells need to regulate expression of their genes.

7) Imagine that you've set up a genetic screen to identify E. coli mutants that cannot metabolize the amino acid tryptophan. Beginning with a master plate containing many colonies, you prepare replica plates on medium with glucose or tryptophan as the only energy source. You would look for colonies that

A) cannot grow on either type of media.

B) can grow on both types of media.

C) can grow only on the plates with tryptophan.

D) can grow only on the plates with glucose.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 18-2. Describe the operon concept and the experiments that led to this theory of gene organization.

8) In the first step of their experiments, Jacob and Monod treated E. coli cells with UV light or X-rays in order to

A) decrease the number of viable cells.

B) induce DNA repair enzymes.

C) increase the frequency of mutations in all genes.

D) selectively mutate the lac operon, leaving all other genes unmutated.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 18-2 Describe the operon concept and the experiments that led to this theory of gene organization

9) Imagine that you've added the same indicator used by Monod to E coli colonies growing on a plate with glucose and no lactose One colony is yellow and the remainders are white This result suggests that cells of the yellow colony

A) have constitutively active lacZ and lacY genes

B) cannot activate either the lacZ or lacY gene.

C) can activate the lacY gene but cannot active the lacZ gene.

D) cannot metabolize lactose.

E) cannot transport lactose into the cell.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 18-2. Describe the operon concept and the experiments that led to this theory of gene organization.

10) A compound known as X-Gal is widely used in molecular genetic research. When wild-type (normal) E. coli is grown on medium containing X-Gal, the bacterial colonies turn blue. In contrast, when lacZ mutants are grown on medium containing X-Gal, the bacterial colonies remain their normal white colour. What is X-Gal likely to be?

A) a compound chemically similar to glucose

B) a compound chemically similar to galactose

C) a compound chemically similar to lactose

D) a compound that cannot be transported into lacZ mutants

E) a compound that can only be transported into lacA mutants

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 18-2. Describe the operon concept and the experiments that led to this theory of gene organization.

11) An E. coli cell without a functional lacI gene is expected to

A) never produce β-galactosidase.

B) always produce β-galactosidase.

C) be unable to transport lactose into the cell.

D) be unable to metabolize lactose within the cell.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 18-3 Explain the role of repressors and inducers in negative control of gene expression

12) In negative control of transcription, a gene is activated when

A) a kinase adds a phosphate to DNA

B) lactose is transported into the cell

C) a regulatory protein binds to DNA

D) a regulatory protein is removed from DNA

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 18-3. Explain the role of repressors and inducers in negative control of gene expression.

13) The product of the lacI gene is most like a car's

A) parking brake.

B) accelerator pedal.

C) steering wheel.

D) engine.

E) wheels.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 18-3. Explain the role of repressors and inducers in negative control of gene expression.

14) A group of genes that are regulated together and transcribed into a single mRNA is

A) an intron.

B) an operon.

C) a repressor.

D) an activator.

E) an inducer.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 18-2 Describe the operon concept and the experiments that led to this theory of gene organization

15) The product of the lacI gene is

A) an enzyme.

B) a transport protein embedded within the membrane.

C) β-galactosidase.

D) the repressor.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 18-3 Explain the role of repressors and inducers in negative control of gene expression

16) According to the lac operon model proposed by Jacob and Monod, what is predicted to occur if the operator is removed from the operon?

A) The lac operon would be transcribed constitutively.

B) Only lacZ would be transcribed.

C) Only lacY would be transcribed.

D) Galactosidase permease would be produced, but would be incapable of transporting lactose.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 18-2. Describe the operon concept and the experiments that led to this theory of gene organization.

17) Which of the following, when taken up by a cell, binds to a repressor so that the repressor no longer binds to the operator?

A) ubiquitin

B) inducer

C) promoter

D) repressor

E) corepressor

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 18-3. Explain the role of repressors and inducers in negative control of gene expression.

18) In gene expression, when does negative control occur? When

A) a kinase adds a phosphate to DNA

B) lactose is transported into the cell

C) a repressor binds to DNA and shuts down transcription

D) an activator is removed from DNA and shuts down transcription

E) DNA is coiled too tightly for genes to be transcribed

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 18-3. Explain the role of repressors and inducers in negative control of gene expression.

19) Imagine that you discover a bacterial operon involved in the synthesis of vitamin B12. This operon is regulated by a repressor protein that binds to an operator sequence Vitamin B12 is the allosteric effector of the repressor—the molecule that binds to the repressor to affect its activity. Predict how vitamin B12 will influence repressor activity.

A) When vitamin B12 binds to the repressor, the repressor binds to the operator.

B) When vitamin B12 binds to the repressor, the repressor cannot bind to the operator.

C) When vitamin B12 binds to the repressor, the repressor can bind to RNA polymerase

D) When vitamin B12 binds to the repressor, the repressor cannot bind to RNA polymerase.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 18-3 Explain the role of repressors and inducers in negative control of gene expression

20) Catabolite activator protein (CAP) activity is controlled by cAMP at the level.

A) transcriptional

B) translational

C) post-translational

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 18-4. Explain the role of CAP protein and cAMP in positive control of gene expression.

21) Extracellular glucose inhibits transcription of the lac operon by

A) strengthening the binding of repressor to the operator.

B) weakening the binding of repressor to the operator.

C) inhibiting RNA polymerase from opening the strands of DNA to initiate transcription.

D) reducing the levels of intracellular cAMP.

E) activating adenylyl cyclase.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 18-4. Explain the role of CAP protein and cAMP in positive control of gene expression.

22) CAP is said to be responsible for positive regulation of the lac operon because

A) CAP binds cAMP.

B) CAP binds the CAP binding site.

C) CAP prevents binding of the repressor to the operator.

D) CAP bound to the CAP binding site increases the frequency of transcription initiation.

E) Extracellular glucose levels influence the ability of CAP to bind to the CAP binding site.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 18-4. Explain the role of CAP protein and cAMP in positive control of gene expression.

23) The situation in which an active regulatory protein "turns on" gene expression is an example of which of the following?

A) feedback inhibition

B) positive control

C) negative control

D) constitutive gene elements

E) a mutation

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18 4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 18-4 Explain the role of CAP protein and cAMP in positive control of gene expression

24) Which of the following environments would most likely lead to the transcription of the lactose operon?

A) There is more glucose in the cell than lactose.

B) The cyclic AMP levels are low.

C) There is glucose but no lactose in the cell.

D) The cyclic AMP and lactose levels are both high within the cell.

E) The cyclic AMP level is high, and the lactose level is low.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18 4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 18-4 Explain the role of CAP protein and cAMP in positive control of gene expression

25) When arabinose is present in the environment, the arabinose operon is transcribed. What is this an example of?

A) positive control

B) negative control

C) push forward control

D) reverse transcription

E) positive translation

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 18-2. Describe the operon concept and the experiments that led to this theory of gene organization.

26) Under what condition is the AraC protein an activator? When AraC is bound to A) glucose.

B) lactose.

C) arabinose.

D) cyclic AMP.

E) any sugar molecule.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 18-2. Describe the operon concept and the experiments that led to this theory of gene organization

27) What protein(s) is/are responsible for the dual positive and negative control of the ara operon?

A) AraC

B) RNA polymerase

C) AraD

D) DNA polymerase

E) AraBAD

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 18-2. Describe the operon concept and the experiments that led to this theory of gene organization.

Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s). The lac operon is used in countless ways for genetics research and biotechnology. One important use of the lac operon is to regulate the expression of cloned genes. In this application, some regulatory elements of the operon are fused to the cloned gene that is to be regulated. One application of such technology was reported by Cronin et al., The lac operator-repressor system is functional in the mouse, Genes and Development 15 (2001):1506 17. These investigators fused a portion of the lac operon to the mouse tyrosinase gene, a gene required for pigment production. This recombinant DNA, composed of E. coli lac operon sequences and the mouse tyrosinase gene, was introduced into albino mice using techniques described in Chapter 19. Using the lac operon regulatory sequences, the investigators were able to regulate tyrosinase gene expression. In fact, they were able to convert albino (white) mice into brown mice. The following questions ask you to use your knowledge of the lac operon to deduce how Cronin et al. were able to regulate tyrosinase gene expression in mice.

28) The tyrosinase gene used by Cronin et al. contained the protein-coding sequence and the normal mouse regulatory sequences. These regulatory sequences provide positive control of tyrosinase transcription. If nothing else is done to this DNA and it is introduced into a mouse, tyrosinase will always be expressed. Because the goal was to regulate expression of tyrosinase, what portion of the lac operon do you think was added to this mouse gene?

A) the lacZ gene

B) the lacY gene

C) the lacI gene

D) the lac operator

E) CAP

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 18-2 Describe the operon concept and the experiments that led to this theory of gene organization

29) Introducing the recombinant lac operon/mouse tyrosinase DNA into mice is only half of the equation for regulating tyrosinase. In addition to lac operon/mouse tyrosinase DNA, what other gene must be added to mice to regulate tyrosinase expression?

A) the lacZ gene

B) the lacY gene

C) the lacI gene

D) the lac operator

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 18-3. Explain the role of repressors and inducers in negative control of gene expression.

30) If the genetically engineered albino mice were given no special treatment, how would the tyrosinase gene be expressed?

A) It would not be transcribed.

B) It would be transcribed to a moderate level.

C) It would be transcribed to a high level.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 18-2. Describe the operon concept and the experiments that led to this theory of gene organization.

31) Controlling the production of a pigment is interesting, but in itself seems more a stunt than a valuable research endeavor. What is the broader significance of the results of Cronin et al.?

A) The same genetic system can be used to create black as well as brown mice.

B) This same genetic system potentially can be used to treat hair loss in mice and humans.

C) This same genetic system potentially can be used to control the expression of genes involved in weight control.

D) This same genetic system potentially can be used to control the expression of almost any gene.

Answer: D

Explanation: The answer cannot be found in a specific chapter section. The intent of this easy question is to have students think about the broader significance of what might superficially seem an experimental trick.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 18-5 Explain how regulons allow bacteria to coordinate the expression of large sets of genes in response to changing environments

32) What is an inducer?

A) A substrate that stimulates gene expression in a reaction

B) A product that stimulates gene expression in a reaction.

C) A substrate that inhibits gene expression in a reaction.

D) A product that inhibits gene expression in a reaction.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 18-3. Explain the role of repressors and inducers in negative control of gene expression.

33) A technique that can be used to identify mutant bacterial cells is called A) indicator plating. B) replica plating. C) master plating. D) comparison plating. Answer: B Type: MC

Reference: Section 18.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 18-2. Describe the operon concept and the experiments that led to this theory of gene organization.

34) To date, several lactose metabolism mutants have been found in Escherichia coli.

One of

these mutants has a phenotype in which the cell cannot accumulate lactose because no lactose permease protein is present. What genotype would be associated with this mutation?

A) lacZ-

B) lacY-

C) lacI-

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 18-2. Describe the operon concept and the experiments that led to this theory of gene organization.

35) Which phenotype would be observed in an E. coli cell with the lacY-genotype?

A) Cells would not be able to accumulate lactose due to the absence of the lactose permease membrane protein.

B) Cells would not be able to accumulate lactose due to the presence of a defect in the βgalactosidase gene

C) Cells are unable to cleave an indicator molecule even if lactose is available as an inducer.

D) Cells are able to cleave an indicator molecule even if lactose is absent as an inducer.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 18.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 18-2. Describe the operon concept and the experiments that led to this theory of gene organization.

36) Negative control occurs when A) a regulatory protein binds to RNA and shuts down the process of transcription. B) a regulatory protein binds to RNA polymerase and shuts down the process of transcription. C) a regulatory protein binds to DNA polymerase and shuts down the process of transcription. D) a regulatory protein binds to DNA and shuts down the process of transcription. Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 18.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 18-3. Explain the role of repressors and inducers in negative control of gene expression. 37) What is the common theme of global gene regulation? A) Genes of regulons are controlled by a single type of regulatory protein. B) Genes of regulons are transcribed independently of regulation. C) Genes of regulons are more stable than nonregulon genes. D) Genes of regulons are less stable than nonregulon genes. E) Each gene of a regulons is regulated independently. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 18.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 18-5. Explain how regulons allow bacteria to coordinate the expression of large sets of genes in response to changing environments. 38) What type of control is the SOS response regulon under? A) both positive and negative control B) only negative control C) only positive control D) feedback inhibition E) feedback transcription Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 18.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 185. Explain how regulons allow bacteria to coordinate the expression of large sets of genes in response to changing environments.

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition (Freeman et al.)

Chapter 19 Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes

1) Which method is utilized by eukaryotes to control their gene expression that is not used in bacteria?

A) control of chromatin remodeling

B) control of RNA splicing

C) transcriptional control

D) A and B

E) all of the above

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 19-3. Compare gene expression in bacteria and eukaryotes.

2) Which of the following allows more than one type of protein to be produced from one gene?

A) alternative forms of chromatin remodeling

B) alternative forms of RNA splicing

C) control of mRNA stability

D) control of the frequency of translation initiation

E) all of the above

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 19-2 Explain the transcriptional and post-transcriptional events that affect gene expression in eukaryotes

3) Which of the following is most critical for the association between histones and DNA?

A) Histones are small proteins

B) Histones are highly conserved (i e , histones are very similar in every eukaryote)

C) Histones are synthesized in the cytoplasm

D) There are at least five different histone proteins in every eukaryote.

E) Histones are positively charged.

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 19-1. Describe the basic structure of chromatin and relate its structure to gene regulation.

4) What is a key property of DNase that makes it useful for assessing whether chromatin is in a closed (tightly condensed) or open (loosely packed) configuration?

A) DNase is a protein.

B) DNase digests only mammalian DNA.

C) DNase preferentially digests DNA not associated with protein.

D) DNase cuts at specific DNA sequences.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 19-1. Describe the basic structure of chromatin and relate its structure to gene regulation.

5) The association of DNA with nucleosomes means that the default state for eukaryotic genes is to be

A) turned off.

B) turned on.

C) activated by enhancers.

D) repressed by silencers.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 19-1 Describe the basic structure of chromatin and relate its structure to gene regulation

6) Ovalbumin, the major protein of egg white, is secreted by cells that line the oviduct as the bird egg moves down the oviduct. Imagine you're repeating the classic Weintraub-Groudine experiment, but with a twist: You're assaying the DNase sensitivity of the promoter regions of the β-globin and ovalbumin genes in oviduct cells of laying hens. In this case you expect to find that

A) the β-globin and ovalbumin promoters are equally sensitive to DNase treatment.

B) the β-globin and ovalbumin promoters are equally resistant to DNase treatment.

C) the β-globin promoter is much more sensitive to DNase treatment.

D) the ovalbumin promoter is much more sensitive to DNase treatment.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 19-1 Describe the basic structure of chromatin and relate its structure to gene regulation

7) If a cell were unable to produce histone proteins, which of the following would be a likely effect?

A) There would be an increase in the amount of "satellite" DNA produced during centrifugation.

B) The cell's DNA couldn't be packed into its nucleus.

C) Spindle fibres would not form during prophase.

D) Amplification of other genes would compensate for the lack of histones.

E) The cell would immediately divide.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 19-1. Describe the basic structure of chromatin and relate its structure to gene regulation.

8) Imagine you've isolated a yeast mutant that contains histones resistant to acetylation. What phenotype do you predict for this mutant?

A) The mutant will grow rapidly.

B) The mutant will require galactose for growth.

C) The mutant will show low levels of gene expression.

D) The mutant will show high levels of gene expression.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 19-2. Explain the transcriptional and post-transcriptional events that affect gene expression in eukaryotes.

9) Histone acetyl transferases exert their effect on gene activity by

A) neutralizing positive charges on the lysines of histones

B) introducing negative charges on the glutamic acids of histones

C) modifying the DNA sequence of the promoter

D) increasing the affinity of transcriptional activators for DNA

E) increasing the affinity of transcriptional inhibitors for DNA

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 19-2. Explain the transcriptional and post-transcriptional events that affect gene expression in eukaryotes.

10) Imagine you've isolated a yeast mutant that contains a constitutively (constantly) active histone deacetylase. What phenotype do you predict for this mutant?

A) The mutant will grow rapidly.

B) The mutant will require galactose for growth.

C) The mutant will show low levels of gene expression.

D) The mutant will show high levels of gene expression.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 19-2. Explain the transcriptional and post-transcriptional events that affect gene expression in eukaryotes.

11) If the DNA sequences of a particular gene in a skin cell and a liver cell were compared, there would be

A) no differences.

B) a small number of differences.

C) a very large number of differences.

D) so many differences that it would be impossible to identify corresponding genes in skin and liver cells.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Chapter Overview/Introduction

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 19-2. Explain the transcriptional and post-transcriptional events that affect gene expression in eukaryotes

12) A pattern of inheritance in which heritable differences in phenotype are due to something other than differences in DNA sequence is

A) Mendelian inheritance

B) organelle genome inheritance

C) allelic inheritance

D) epigenetic inheritance.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 19-1. Describe the basic structure of chromatin and relate its structure to gene regulation.

13) The TATA-binding protein (TBP) binds to A) RNA polymerase.

B) the point where transcription begins.

C) the promoter.

D) promoter-proximal elements.

E) enhancers.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 19-2. Explain the transcriptional and post-transcriptional events that affect gene expression in eukaryotes.

14) The primary difference between an enhancer and a promoter-proximal element is that A) enhancers are transcription factors, while promoter-proximal elements are DNA sequences. B) enhancers enhance transcription, while promoter-proximal elements inhibit transcription.

C) enhancers are part of the promoter, while promoter-proximal elements are regulatory sequences distinct from the promoter.

D) enhancers are at considerable distances from the promoter and can be moved or inverted and still function, while promoter-proximal elements are close to the promoter and their position and orientation must be maintained.

E) enhancers are DNA sequences, while promoter-proximal elements are proteins that bind proximal to the promoter.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 19-2 Explain the transcriptional and post-transcriptional events that affect gene expression in eukaryotes

15) Twenty-five years ago, when Oshima and colleagues discovered that a mutation in the GAL4 gene led to the inability to synthesize all five enzymes required for galactose catabolism (breakdown), they couldn't be blamed for wanting to apply a bacterial model to explain this finding. What they expected, but did not find, was

A) for all five genes to constitute an operon.

B) five widely separated genes, each containing a GAL4 binding site in its regulatory region.

C) for chromatin decondensation to play an important role in regulating the genes of galactose catabolism.

D) for transcription to be important in regulating the genes of galactose catabolism.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 19-3. Compare gene expression in bacteria and eukaryotes.

16) The reason for differences in the sets of proteins expressed in a nerve and a pancreatic cell of the same individual is that nerve and pancreatic cells contain different

A) genes.

B) regulatory sequences.

C) sets of regulatory proteins.

D) promoters.

E) promoter-proximal elements.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 19-2. Explain the transcriptional and post-transcriptional events that affect gene expression in eukaryotes.

17) Imagine that you are studying the control of β-globin gene expression in immature red blood cells (mature red blood cells contain β-globin protein, but lack a nucleus and, therefore, the βglobin gene). If you deleted a sequence of DNA outside the protein-coding region of the β-globin gene and found that this increased the rate of transcription, the deleted sequence likely functions as a(n)

A) promoter.

B) promoter-proximal element.

C) enhancer.

D) silencer.

E) any of the above.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 19-2 Explain the transcriptional and post-transcriptional events that affect gene expression in eukaryotes

18) In the experiment shown in the figure above, Tonegawa and his colleagues were able to express β-globin in an antibody-producing cell that normally does not express β-globin. They achieved this result by splicing an enhancer from an antibody-producing gene into the proteincoding portion of the β-globin gene. They then introduced this recombinant gene into cultured antibody-producing cells. Why was the choice of antibody-producing cells rather than, say, muscle or skin cells critical for the success of this experiment?

A) Only the antibody-producing cells have the correct regulatory transcription factors to bind to the enhancer.

B) Only the antibody-producing cells have the correct set of enhancers.

C) Only the antibody-producing cells have the correct set of promoter-proximal elements.

D) Only the antibody-producing cells have the correct set of enhancers, promoter-proximal elements, and promoters.

E) Only the antibody-producing cells are capable of expressing recombinant genes.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 19-2. Explain the transcriptional and post-transcriptional events that affect gene expression in eukaryotes.

Figure 19.1

19) Predict what would occur in the experiment shown in Figure 19.1 if Tonegawa and colleagues had mistakenly inserted the antibody gene enhancer in reverse orientation (backward) into the β-globin gene.

A) There would be no β-globin gene expression in the antibody-producing cells.

B) There would be minute levels of β-globin gene expression in the antibody-producing cells.

C) There would be transcription of the β-globin gene, but on the opposite strand of DNA from the one normally transcribed.

D) There would be little difference in the results of this experiment and the one shown in the figure.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 19-2. Explain the transcriptional and post-transcriptional events that affect gene expression in eukaryotes.

20) How do chromatin-remodeling complexes recognize the genes they should act on?

A) Chromatin-remodeling complexes are activated by specific extracellular signals that direct them to particular genes.

B) Chromatin-remodeling complexes recognize specific promoters when they are phosphorylated, methylated, or acetylated.

C) Chromatin-remodeling complexes recognize specific transcription factors bound to regulatory sequences of DNA.

D) Chromatin-remodeling complexes bind to the basal transcription complex.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 19-1

Describe the basic structure of chromatin and relate its structure to gene regulation

21) If DNA were inflexible, which of the following would not function?

A) promoters

B) promoter-proximal elements

C) enhancers

D) basal transcription factors

E) the TATA-binding protein

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 19-1. Describe the basic structure of chromatin and relate its structure to gene regulation.

22) An example of a basal transcription factor is A) RNA polymerase.

B) the TATA-binding protein.

C) an enhancer-binding transcription factor.

D) a silencer-binding transcription factor.

E) a promoter-proximal-binding transcription factor.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 19-2. Explain the transcriptional and post-transcriptional events that affect gene expression in eukaryotes.

23) Regulatory transcription factors

A) influence the binding of sigma factor to DNA.

B) influence the assembly of the basal transcription complex.

C) influence the degree of unwinding of DNA at the promoter.

D) open the two strands of DNA, so RNA polymerase can begin transcription.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 19-2 Explain the transcriptional and post-transcriptional events that affect gene expression in eukaryotes

24) Gene expression is often assayed by measuring the level of mRNA produced from a gene. If one is interested in knowing the amount of a final active gene product, a potential problem of this method is that it ignores the possibility of

A) chromatin condensation control.

B) transcriptional control.

C) alternative splicing.

D) translational control.

E) all of the above.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 19-2 Explain the transcriptional and post-transcriptional events that affect gene expression in eukaryotes

25) Not long ago, it was believed that a count of the number of protein-coding genes would provide a count of the number of proteins produced in any given eukaryotic species. This is incorrect, largely due to the discovery of widespread

A) chromatin condensation control.

B) transcriptional control.

C) alternative splicing.

D) translational control.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 19-2. Explain the transcriptional and post-transcriptional events that affect gene expression in eukaryotes.

26) One way to detect alternative splicing of transcripts from a given gene is to

A) compare the DNA sequence of this gene to that of a gene known to be constitutively spliced.

B) measure the relative rates of transcription of this gene compared to that of a gene known to be constitutively spliced.

C) compare the sequences of different primary transcripts made from this gene.

D) compare the sequences of different mRNAs made from this gene.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 19-2. Explain the transcriptional and post-transcriptional events that affect gene expression in eukaryotes

27) Alternative splicing takes place in the

A) nucleus

B) rough endoplasmic reticulum

C) ribosome

D) polysome

E) cytoplasm.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 19-2. Explain the transcriptional and post-transcriptional events that affect gene expression in eukaryotes.

28) Why can gene expression be altered more easily at the level of post-transcriptional processing in eukaryotes than in prokaryotes? Because A) eukaryotic mRNAs get 5' caps and 3' tails. B) prokaryotic genes are expressed as mRNA, which is more stable in the cell. C) eukaryotic exons may be spliced in alternative patterns. D) prokaryotes use ribosomes of different structure and size. E) eukaryotic mRNAs are more stable. Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 19.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 19-3. Compare gene expression in bacteria and eukaryotes. 29) In the roundworm C. elegans, the lin-4 gene produces an RNA that forms a hairpin structure. One of the strands in the double-stranded region of lin-4 hairpin RNA is complementary to the mRNA of a protein-coding gene, lin14. Predict the effect of expressing lin-4 RNA during development. A) The lin-14 expression will fall when lin-4 expression begins. B) The lin-14 expression will rise when lin-4 expression begins. C) The lin-4 RNA will bind the promoter of the lin-14 gene, destroying the lin-14 gene. D) The lin-4 RNA will bind to the enhancer of lin-14, increasing lin-14 transcription. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 19.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 19-2. Explain the transcriptional and post-transcriptional events that affect gene expression in eukaryotes. 30) The rate of translation can be slowed drastically when a ribosomal protein is phosphorylated in response to a sudden temperature increase or viral infection. In this case, the phosphorylated ribosomal protein is under control, and the phosphorylation of this ribosomal protein leads to widespread control. A) transcriptional; translational B) translational; posttranslational C) post-translational; transcriptional D) post-translational; translational E) transcriptional; post-translational Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 19.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 19-2. Explain the transcriptional and post-transcriptional events that affect gene expression in eukaryotes.

31) The normal function of a tumor suppressor gene is to

A) suppress the growth of tumors already present in all multicellular eukaryotes.

B) prevent progression of the cell cycle unless conditions are right for moving forward.

C) promote progress through the cell cycle.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 19-4. Explain how cancer can be linked to defects in gene regulation.

32) In colorectal cancer, several genes must be mutated for a cell to develop into a cancer cell.

Which of the following kinds of genes would you expect to be mutated?

A) genes coding for enzymes that act in the colon

B) genes involved in control of the cell cycle

C) genes that are especially susceptible to mutation

D) genes of the bacteria, which are abundant in the colon

E) genes that have multiple copies

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 19-4. Explain how cancer can be linked to defects in gene regulation.

33) Which of the following best explains the function of proto-oncogenes in eukaryotic cells?

A) Proto-oncogenes first arose from viral infections.

B) Proto-oncogenes normally help regulate cell division.

C) Proto-oncogenes are genetic "junk "

D) Proto-oncogenes are mutant versions of normal genes

E) Cells produce proto-oncogenes as they age

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19 6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 19-4. Explain how cancer can be linked to defects in gene regulation.

34) Which of the following types of mutation would convert a proto-oncogene into an oncogene?

A) a mutation that blocks transcription of the proto-oncogene

B) a mutation that creates an unstable proto-oncogene mRNA

C) a mutation that greatly increases the amount of the proto-oncogene protein

D) a deletion of most of the proto-oncogene coding sequence

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 19-4. Explain how cancer can be linked to defects in gene regulation.

35) p53 activates genes that

A) increase mutation rate.

B) prevent DNA damage.

C) increase the rate of endocytosis.

D) arrest the cell cycle.

E) promote metastasis.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 19-4. Explain how cancer can be linked to defects in gene regulation.

36) Which of the following is FALSE?

A) All individuals possess many proto-oncogenes.

B) Mutations that inactivate tumor suppressor genes are important in cancer.

C) Cancer is a single disease with one underlying molecular cause.

D) Uncontrolled cell growth alone is insufficient for the development of most cancers.

E) Most agents that cause cancer also cause mutations.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19 6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 19-4 Explain how cancer can be linked to defects in gene regulation

Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s).

A group of enzymes known as cytosine-specific DNA methylases recognize CpG dinucleotide sequences that is, a cytosine (C) followed by a guanosine (G) in one DNA strand and add methyl groups to the cytosine. Many proteins bind to methylated CpG, including the methylCpG binding protein 2 (MeCP2). MeCP2 binding leads to the formation of a closed state of chromatin, thus silencing gene expression. A recent paper by Chen et al. reported an interesting mechanism of regulating transcription of a gene via MeCP2 (W. Chen, Q. Chang, Y. Lin, A. Meissner, A. E. West, E. C. Griffith, R. Jaenish, and M. Greenberg. 2004. Derepression of BDNF transcription involves calcium-dependent phosphorylation of MeCP2, Science 302:885 89). This gene, called BDNF, encodes brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF) a protein that plays an important role in nerve cell and central nervous system function, including memory and learning. Remarkably, most cases of Rett syndrome, an important cause of mental retardation in females, are due to loss-of-function mutations of MeCP2.

37) The authors state, "In this study, we report that, in the absence of neuronal activity, MeCP2 binds specifically to BDNF promoter III and functions as a negative regulator of BDNF expression. In response to neuronal activity-dependent calcium influx into neurons, MeCP2 becomes phosphorylated and is released from the BDNF promoter, thereby permitting BDNF promoter III-dependent transcription." Reading this statement in isolation, it would be easy to have the impression that MeCP2 works as a negatively acting transcription factor. However, based on the summary of the paper provided above, MeCP2 acts as a

A) gene-specific regulator of chromatin condensation.

B) positively acting transcription factor.

C) splicing regulator.

D) translational regulator.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19 2 and material given in introduction to paper Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 19-1 Describe the basic structure of chromatin and relate its structure to gene regulation

38) Elsewhere in the paper, Chen et al state that "BDNF is encoded by a complex gene with four well-characterized promoters that give rise to at least eight different mRNAs." What mechanism could account for the production of these different BDNF mRNAs?

A) chromatin condensation control

B) alternative splicing

C) translational control

D) post-translational control

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 19-2. Explain the transcriptional and post-transcriptional events that affect gene expression in eukaryotes.

39) A scientist has a vial containing DNA and tries to digest it with DNA digesting enzymes. After analyzing it, she finds that no digestion occurred. What would be the most likely reason for this?

A) The DNA was tightly packed into 30nm chromatin fibres.

B) The DNA was packed into regions called euchromatin.

C) The DNA was tightly packed into 10nm chromatin fibres.

D) The DNA was embedded in the plasma membrane and was not accessible for the enzyme.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 19-1. Describe the basic structure of chromatin and relate its structure to gene regulation.

40) A patient is undergoing genetic screening for cancer. The results show the patient has many proto-oncogenes. Based on this information only, which of the following statements is correct regarding the probability that this patient will develop cancer in the very near future?

A) Due to the increased number of proto-oncogenes, the chances are high.

B) The chances are low because the patient would have to show an increased number of oncogenes.

C) The chances are high because the patient most likely also shows an increase in the number of tumor suppressors.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 19.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 19-4 Explain how cancer can be linked to defects in gene regulation

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition (Freeman et al.)

Chapter 20 The Molecular Revolution: Biotechnology and Beyond 1) The general term for the manipulation of organisms to create products or cure disease is A) recombinant DNA technology. B) biotechnology. C) gene cloning. D) plasmid-mediated transformation. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 20.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 20-1. Explain recombinant DNA technologies and what they can achieve. 2) Many identical copies of genes cloned in bacteria are produced as a result of A) plasmid replication. B) bacterial cell replication. C) Southern blotting. D) A and B. E) all of the above. Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 20.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 20-1. Explain recombinant DNA technologies and what they can achieve. 3) Which of following sequences is most likely to be cut by a restriction enzyme? A) AATCGT TTACGA B) AATTCT TTAAGA C)

AATATT TTATAA D) AAAATT TTTTAA E) ACTACT TGATGA Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 20.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 201. Explain recombinant DNA technologies and what they can achieve.

4) Imagine that you've isolated the complete human growth hormone gene directly from the human genome. After running through all the steps described in Chapter 20 for cloning and gene expression in bacteria, you find that no human growth hormone is expressed. What is the most likely explanation?

A) Human DNA cannot be cloned in a bacterium.

B) Human DNA can be maintained in cloned form only for brief periods in bacteria.

C) Bacteria cannot translate human mRNA coding sequences.

D) Bacteria cannot carry out splicing.

E) Bacteria lack a nucleus for proper transcription of eukaryotic genes.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 20.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 20-1. Explain recombinant DNA technologies and what they can achieve.

5) If mRNAs could be ligated and replicated within plasmids, what enzyme commonly used in recombinant DNA technology would no longer be needed?

A) restriction enzymes

B) DNA polymerase

C) reverse transcriptase

D) Taq polymerase

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 20.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 20-1 Explain recombinant DNA technologies and what they can achieve

6) How does a gene library differ from a gene clone?

A) A gene library contains many different cloned DNA sequences; a gene clone contains one type of DNA sequence

B) A gene library contains one type of cloned DNA sequence; a gene clone contains many different DNA sequences

C) A gene library is a much longer DNA sequence than a gene clone.

D) A gene library is a much shorter DNA sequence than a gene clone.

E) A gene library is sequence information stored in a computerized database; a gene clone is an actual sequence of DNA.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 20.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 20-1. Explain recombinant DNA technologies and what they can achieve.

7) A bacterial cell that has taken up plasmid DNA is A) transformed. B) ligated. C) a library. D) a cDNA. E) a vector. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 20.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 20-1. Explain recombinant DNA technologies and what they can achieve.

8) Plasmids are used as cloning vectors in genetic engineering. This means that plasmids allow for

A) carrying of DNA into a cell and DNA replication.

B) infection of cells.

C) DNA replication outside rather than inside cells.

D) carrying of RNA into a cell and RNA replication.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 20.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 20-1. Explain recombinant DNA technologies and what they can achieve.

9) The restriction enzymes BamHI and BclI cut at the points indicated by arrows:

If one sample of DNA was cut with BamHI and another with BclI, and these two samples were mixed and treated with DNA ligase, what would occur?

A) No DNAs would be ligated (joined together).

B) Only the BamHI-cut DNA would be ligated.

C) Only the BclI-cut DNA would be ligated.

D) Both BamHI-cut and BclI-cut DNAs would be ligated, but only to DNA fragments cut with the same enzyme (e.g., BamHI fragments would be ligated only to other BamHI fragments).

E) Both BamHI-cut and BclI-cut DNAs would be ligated with no preference for which fragment is ligated to which other

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 20 1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 20-1. Explain recombinant DNA technologies and what they can achieve.

10) Which of the following is a gene library? A) a collection of DNAs cut by a restriction enzyme B) a collection of plasmids cut by a restriction enzyme C) a collection of different DNA fragments ligated into plasmids D) a collection of genes that have been sequenced from a particular organism E) a collection of PCR-amplified DNAs Answer: C Explanation: Many students will have trouble distinguishing between answer C and D; they should be able to do so. Type: MC Reference: Section 20.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 20-1. Explain recombinant DNA technologies and what they can achieve. 11) When constructing a cDNA library from a particular organism, the choice of tissue is , whereas when constructing a genomic DNA library from the same organism, the choice of tissue is . A) critical; critical B) immaterial; immaterial C) immaterial; critical D) critical; immaterial Answer: D Explanation: This question tests understanding of the idea that cDNAs are derived from mRNAs, making the choice of tissue critical for isolation of a particular gene. In contrast, the choice of tissue makes no difference for genomic libraries since all cells contain the same set of genes (with rare exceptions, e.g. certain blood cells). Type: MC Reference: Section 20.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 20-1. Explain recombinant DNA technologies and what they can achieve. 12) What information is critical to the success of PCR itself? A) The DNA sequence of the ends of the DNA to be amplified must be known. B) The complete DNA sequence of the DNA to be amplified must be known. C) The sequence of restriction enzyme recognition sites in the DNA to be amplified must be known. D) The sequence of restriction enzyme recognition sites in the DNA to be amplified and in the plasmid where the amplified DNA fragment will be cloned must be known. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 20.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 20-2. Describe the polymerase chain reaction and provide examples of its applications.

13) Which of the following is in the correct order for one cycle of PCR?

A) Denature DNA; add fresh enzyme; anneal primers; add dNTPs; extend primers.

B) Add fresh enzyme; denature DNA; anneal primers; add dNTPs; extend primers.

C) Anneal primers; denature DNA; extend primers.

D) Extend primers; anneal primers; denature DNA.

E) Denature DNA; anneal primers; extend primers.

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 20.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 20-2. Describe the polymerase chain reaction and provide examples of its applications.

14) In early forensic applications of DNA fingerprinting, DNA was extracted from crime scene material, digested with restriction enzymes, and then analyzed. Today, PCR is used in the early steps of forensic DNA analysis. What advantage does PCR provide over the former method?

A) PCR produces many more bands for fingerprint analysis, making it a more informative technique.

B) PCR can cut DNA at many more sites than restriction enzymes can.

C) PCR requires much less DNA for analysis.

D) PCR can analyze DNA, proteins, and carbohydrates, whereas restriction enzyme analysis is limited to DNA.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 20.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 20-2 Describe the polymerase chain reaction and provide examples of its applications

15) In a single PCR cycle consisting of 15 seconds at 94°C, 30 seconds at 50°C, and 1 min at 72°C, what is happening in the step run at 50°C?

A) The DNA to be amplified is being denatured

B) Primers are being denatured

C) DNA polymerase is extending new DNA from the primers

D) Primers are annealing to the DNA to be amplified.

E) DNA polymerase is being inactivated.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 20.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 20-2. Describe the polymerase chain reaction and provide examples of its applications.

16) The final step in a DNA sequencing reaction is to run the DNA fragments on a gel. What purpose does this serve?

A) It provides the substrate for DNA polymerase.

B) It separates dideoxynucleotides from deoxynucleotides.

C) It terminates the sequencing reaction at particular bases.

D) It separates DNA fragments generated during the sequencing reaction based on onenucleotide differences in their size.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 20.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 20-2. Describe the polymerase chain reaction and provide examples of its applications.

17) Since dideoxy sequencing is based on the chain termination, why are normal deoxynucleotides also included in the reaction?

A) to enhance the chain termination ability of the deoxynucleotides

B) to provide a substrate for DNA polymerase

C) to produce a range of DNA synthesis products that terminate at every occurrence of a particular base

D) to create DNA synthesis products long enough to allow running a gel

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 20.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 20-2. Describe the polymerase chain reaction and provide examples of its applications.

18) In the current form of dideoxy DNA sequencing, the primer is unlabeled and each dideoxynucleotide is labeled with a different fluorescent marker This method

A) eliminates the need to run sequencing reaction products on a gel

B) allows a DNA sequence to be determined from 4 separate sequencing reactions, each run on a separate lane of a gel

C) allows a DNA sequence to be determined from one sequencing reaction that is run on a single lane of a gel.

D) eliminates the need for sophisticated machines to read the output of each sequencing reaction.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 20.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 20-2. Describe the polymerase chain reaction and provide examples of its applications.

19) What characteristic of short tandem repeats (STRs) DNA makes it useful for DNA fingerprinting? A) The number of repeats varies widely from person to person or animal to animal. B) The sequence of DNA that is repeated varies significantly from individual to individual. C) The sequence variation is acted upon differently by natural selection in different environments. D) Every racial and ethnic group has inherited different short tandem repeats. E) Each short tandem repeat sequence variation binds a different protein. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 20.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 20-3. Explain how STRs are used for DNA fingerprinting. 20) What is one drawback of next-generation sequencing? A) Nextgeneration sequencing is slower than Sanger sequencing. B) Next-generation sequencing is more expensive than Sanger sequencing. C) Next-generation sequencing works best on eukaryotic DNA. D) Next-generation sequencing has difficulty sequencing DNA with repetitive sequence. E) Next-generation sequencing can only be used to sequence whole genomes. Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 20.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 20-4. Explain what next-generation sequencing allows and why it is important to sequence DNA. 21) What does bioinformatics include? I. using computer programs to align DNA sequences II. creating recombinant DNA from separate species III. developing computer-based tools for genome analysis IV. using mathematical tools to make sense of biological systems A) I and II B) II and III C) II and IV D) I, III, and IV E) I, II, III, and IV Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 20.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 20-5. Describe bioinformatics and explain why it is important for modern biology.

22) Imagine that you have sequenced the genome of a human pathogenic bacterium. In the early stages of analysis, you discover a stretch of DNA that has a significantly different G-C content (the proportion of bases that are G and C). Further examination of this region shows there are roughly one dozen protein-coding regions. These are not found in the genome of a previously sequenced and related nonpathogenic bacterium. These sequences do, however, predict protein products strikingly similar to those of another bacterial pathogen that is not closely related to the organism you are studying. What do you immediately suspect?

A) neutral evolution

B) that both sequences are introns

C) a high rate of mutation

D) a low rate of mutation

E) lateral gene transfer

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 20.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 20-6. Define lateral gene transfer and explain its role in the evolution of genomes.

23) Name two examples of lateral gene transfer to eukaryotes that involve cellular organelles.

A) transfer of bacterial genes that were predecessors to mitochondria and chloroplasts

B) transfer of the bacterial mitochondrial apparatus to form nuclei and ribosomes

C) transfer of bacterial chloroplasts to form nuclei and ribosomes

D) transfer of bacterial genes to form nuclei and the mitotic spindle apparatus

E) transfer of the bacterial spindle apparatus to form ribosomes and transfer RNAs

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 20 4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 20-6 Define lateral gene transfer and explain its role in the evolution of genomes

24) What is a gene family is composed of?

A) multiple genes whose products must be coordinately expressed

B) genes whose sequences are very similar and that probably arose by duplication

C) many tandem repeats such as those found in centromeres and telomeres

D) a gene whose exons can be spliced in a number of different ways

E) a highly conserved gene found in a number of different species

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 20.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 20-7. Describe how gene duplication allows the evolution of new gene functions.

25) Unequal crossing over during prophase I can result in one sister chromosome with a deletion and another with a duplication. A mutated form of hemoglobin, so-called hemoglobin Lepore, exists in the human population. Hemoglobin Lepore has a deleted series of amino acids. If this mutated form was caused by unequal crossing over, what would be an expected consequence?

A) If it is still maintained in the human population, hemoglobin Lepore must be selected for in evolution.

B) There should also be persons whose hemoglobin contains two copies of the series of amino acids that is deleted in hemoglobin Lepore.

C) Each of the genes in the hemoglobin gene family must show the same deletion.

D) The deleted gene must have undergone exon shuffling.

E) The deleted region must be located in a different area of the individual's genome.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 20.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 20-7. Describe how gene duplication allows the evolution of new gene functions.

26) In nature, what is the major mechanism of introducing new genes into eukaryotic genomes?

A) duplication followed by evolutionary divergence

B) unequal crossing over at microsatellite repeats

C) pseudogene creation

D) pseudogene restoration

E) transfer from viruses

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 20 4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 20-7 Describe how gene duplication allows the evolution of new gene functions

27) The comparison between the number of human genes and those of other animal species has led to many conclusions, including which of the following?

A) The density of the human genome is far higher than in most other animals

B) The number of proteins expressed by the human genome is far more than the number of its genes.

C) Most human DNA consists of genes for protein, tRNA, rRNA, and miRNA.

D) The genomes of most other organisms are significantly smaller than the human genome.

E) More than half of the human genome is composed of genes that are transcribed and then translated into protein.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 20.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 20-8. Describe the insights gained from the multinational Human Genome Project.

28) What would happen if alternative splicing did not occur?

A) The human genome would likely contain many more genes.

B) The E. coli genome would contain many fewer genes.

C) There would be little correlation between the complexity of organisms and genome size.

D) There would be many fewer genes devoted to metabolism in Arabidopsis and yeast.

E) Fewer mutations would occur in a human cell's lifespan.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 20.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 20-8. Describe the insights gained from the multinational Human Genome Project.

29) Why is it essential that genetic markers used in mapping disease genes be polymorphic?

A) If the marker isn't polymorphic, its position cannot be known.

B) If the marker isn't polymorphic, it cannot be physically linked to a gene associated with human disease.

C) If the marker isn't polymorphic, then it will not be inherited in any predictable manner.

D) If the marker isn't polymorphic, then it's impossible to use genetic mapping techniques to establish an association between the marker and the disease gene.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 20.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 20-9. Explain why finding genes is important and how genes can be found using genomewide association studies.

30) Imagine that you compare two DNA sequences found in the same location on homologous chromosomes On one of the homologs, the sequence is AACTACGA On the other homolog, the sequence is AACTTCGA Within a population, you discover that each of these sequences is common These sequences

A) contain a SNP that may be useful for genetic mapping

B) identify a protein-coding region of a gene

C) cause disease.

D) protect against disease.

E) none of the above.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 20.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 20-9. Explain why finding genes is important and how genes can be found using genomewide association studies.

31) Imagine that you are searching for the gene associated with nail-patella syndrome, a dominant genetic disorder that causes developmental abnormalities. In a large pedigree, you discover an association between nail-patella syndrome and a genetic marker that occurs in two different alleles, A and B. Fifteen individuals within this pedigree have nail-patella syndrome and are A/B heterozygotes for the marker. Thirty individuals within this pedigree don't suffer from nail-patella syndrome and are homozygous for the A marker allele. One individual within this pedigree has nail-patella syndrome and is also homozygous for the A marker allele. The most likely explanation for this exceptional individual is

A) a new mutation converted the disease-causing allele to the wild-type form.

B) a new mutation converted the B allele of the marker to the A form.

C) the exceptional nail-patella individual is haploid.

D) recombination occurred between the nail-patella gene and marker gene in one of the parents of the exceptional individual.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 20.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 20-9. Explain why finding genes is important and how genes can be found using genomewide association studies.

32) Transgenic mice

A) often provide valuable animal models of human disease.

B) are essential for mapping human genes.

C) are now used in place of bacteria for cloning human genes.

D) were instrumental in pinpointing the location of the huntingtin gene.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 20 5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 20-10

Describe how gene therapy may be used to cure a genetic disease

33) Which type of disorder is most difficult to correct by gene therapy?

A) a dominant disorder

B) an incompletely dominant disorder

C) a recessive disorder

D) Disorders showing all these forms of dominance present equal challenges.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 20.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 20-10. Describe how gene therapy may be used to cure a genetic disease.

34) Gene therapy requires

A) knowledge and availability of the wild-type allele of the defective gene.

B) an ability to introduce the wild-type allele into the patient.

C) an ability to express the introduced gene at the correct level, time, and site within the patient.

D) A and B.

E) all of the above.

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 20.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 20-10. Describe how gene therapy may be used to cure a genetic disease.

35) To create a viral vector for delivery of genes into mammalian cells, the virus must be engineered to

A) remove viral coat proteins.

B) remove all viral genes, replacing them with the mammalian genes to be delivered.

C) remove viral genes involved with virus replication and add mammalian genes to be delivered.

D) remove the viral genome and coat proteins and replace them with recombinant plasmids carrying the mammalian genes to be delivered.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 20 5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 20-10 Describe how gene therapy may be used to cure a genetic disease

Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s).

A study by Krings et al. investigated Neanderthal DNA by amplifying 30 000-year-old samples and sequencing it. (M. Krings, A. Stone, R.W. Schmitz, H. Krainitzki, M. Stoneking, and S. Pääbo. 1997. Neandertal DNA sequences and the origin of modern humans. Cell 90:19-30). Here is part of the lead paragraph in the "Methods" section of the Krings et al. paper: Protective clothing was worn throughout the sampling procedure. Instruments used were treated with 1 M HCl followed by extensive rinsing in distilled water. After removal, the sample was immediately put into a sterile tube for transport to Munich. All subsequent manipulations of the sample, and experimental procedures prior to cycling of PCR reactions, were carried out in laboratories solely dedicated to the analysis of archaeological specimens, where protective clothing, separate equipment and reagents, UV irradiation, and other measures to...

A concluding paragraph of the Krings et al. paper states:

It must be emphasized that the above conclusions are based on a single individual sequence; the retrieval and analysis of mtDNA sequences from additional Neanderthal specimens is obviously desirable. If this proves possible, then the potential exists to address several questions concerning Neanderthals that hitherto could be studied exclusively by morphological and archaeological approaches. For example, the genetic relationship between Neanderthal populations in Europe and in western Asia could be explored, as could the demographic history of Neanderthal populations.

36) Why did the researchers wear protective clothing and note so emphatically that they did so?

A) They needed to be certain there were no ancient pathogens on the sample that modern humans hadn't been exposed to.

B) They needed to be sure not to harm the precious sample with oils from skin or moisture from their breath.

C) They needed to minimize the chance of introducing their own mitochondrial DNA to the sample

D) Because the work was done in Germany, they needed to follow stringent, standard German laboratory procedures and document their compliance

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 20.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 20-2. Describe the polymerase chain reaction and provide examples of its applications.

37) How could the "demographic history of Neanderthal populations" be explored if mitochondrial DNA from other Neanderthal samples could be PCR amplified?

A) These Neanderthal sequences could be compared to those of modern humans to learn if they are closely related.

B) These Neanderthal sequences could be compared to those of modern humans; the more they differ, the more distant the time of divergence between the Neanderthal and modern human lineages.

C) These Neanderthal sequences could be compared to each other to see how much they differ; the more they differ, the greater the divergence between these populations.

D) In the attempt to amplify other Neanderthal DNAs, those that amplify must be from more modern populations and those that don't are from more ancient populations.

Answer: C

Explanation: Since the publication of this work in 1997, mitochondrial DNA from many different Neanderthal fossils discovered in widely separate locations has been amplified by PCR. Analysis of these remains supports the conclusions of Krings et al. Neanderthals are not our ancestors.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 20.2, 20.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 20-2. Describe the polymerase chain reaction and provide examples of its applications.

38) You ask your student to transfer a plasmid-free bacterial strain to multiple small tubes for long term storage. A short while later, your student admits that he did not use a clean sterile pipette to transfer the bacteria to the small tubes, but rather grabbed the same pipette he had just used to collect newly transformed bacteria. Why would this pose a problem?

A) Plasmids can be transferred between bacteria via pili

B) Newly transformed bacteria will actively undergo binary fission

C) Plasmid can contain genes that confer antibiotic resistance

D) Plasmids will incorporate into the chromosomal DNA

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 20.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 20-6. Define lateral gene transfer and explain its role in the evolution of genomes.

39) Which of the following questions is asked in functional genomics research?

A) What is the number of Drosophila genes?

B) How does the G-C content of human DNA vary across the genome?

C) What is the pattern of gene expression during mouse development?

D) How many introns exist in the human CFTR gene?

E) How closely related are the visual pigment genes of mouse and human?

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 20.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 20-11. Describe the insights that may be gained from metagenomics, functional genomics, and proteomics and provide examples of discoveries in these research areas.

40) What can proteomics reveal that genomics cannot? A) the number of genes characteristic of a species B) the patterns of alternative splicing C) the set of proteins present within a cell or tissue type D) the levels of mRNAs present in a particular cell type E) the movement of transposable elements within the genome Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 20.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 20-11. Describe the insights that may be gained from metagenomics, functional genomics, and proteomics and provide examples of discoveries in these research areas. 41) Proteomics is defined as the A) linkage of each gene to a particular protein. B) study of the full protein set encoded by a genome. C) totality of the functional possibilities of a single protein. D) study of how amino acids are ordered in a protein. E) study of how a single gene activates many proteins. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 20.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 20-11. Describe the insights that may be gained from metagenomics, functional genomics, and proteomics and provide examples of discoveries in these research areas.

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition (Freeman et al.)

Chapter 21 Genes, Development, and Evolution

1) Gastrulation is an important event in early embryonic development. Which of the following is NOT a result of this process? A) formation of three embryonic cell layers B) movement and alignment of many embryonic cells C) determination of cell types as a result of cell cell interactions D) formation of specialized plant tissues Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 21.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 21-1. Explain shared developmental processes. 2) When is a cell considered differentiated? A) when a cell first becomes irreversibly committed to a particular fate B) when a cell begins its pattern formation C) when a cell manufactures proteins that are specific to a particular cell type D) when a cell is part of recognizable tissues or organs Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 21.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 21-1. Explain shared developmental processes. 3) Cellular differentiation is usually produced by A) differences in gene expression. B) differences in DNA sequences. C) differences in gene copy numbers. D) morphogenesis. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 21.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 21-1. Explain shared developmental processes.

4) Even though plant and animal development processes share a number of features, there are some differences between the two groups of organisms. Which of the following is NOT a shared characteristic of plant and animal development?

A) Gene expression in developing embryonic tissues is closely regulated.

B) Orientation of cells and tissues is critical for proper development.

C) Differentiation of cells is directed and maintained by cascades of signals.

D) Cell types, once determined, generally cannot change their differentiated characteristics.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 21.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 21-1. Explain shared developmental processes.

5) Communication within and between cells of an embryo can include all of the following EXCEPT

A) increased concentration of signaling molecules.

B) changes in binding to regulatory sequences.

C) changes in gene transcription.

D) changes in gene sequences.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 21.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 21-2. Compare and contrast the role of cytoplasmic determinants and induction in cell differentiation.

6) One form of programmed cell death is apoptosis In which developmental situation would you predict apoptosis would NOT play a major role?

A) growth of nerves and blood vessels into a body segment

B) sculpting of digits in the developing hindlimb

C) destroying embryonic nerve cells as part of "wiring" an effective nervous system

D) elimination of dangerous immune cells

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 21.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 21-1. Explain shared developmental processes.

7) Which of the following would constitute evidence that differentiated cells retain all the genes of developing cells?

A) Developing cells have many mRNA transcripts that can hybridize with DNA from mature cells.

B) Differentiated cells generally synthesize a specific group of proteins.

C) Nuclei from mature cells can direct the development of an entire individual.

D) Differentiated cells lose their polarity if removed from the organism.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 21.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 21-3. Discuss how genomic equivalence implies that differentiation occurs through differential gene expression.

8) Cloning of plants from cuttings demonstrates that A) genetic information is lost during plant development.

B) differentiated cells may contain embryonic mRNAs.

C) plants can reverse the differentiation process.

D) genetic information is retained in mature plant cells.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 21.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 21-3. Discuss how genomic equivalence implies that differentiation occurs through differential gene expression.

9) Muscle cells differ from nerve cells mainly because they

A) express different genes

B) contain different genes

C) use different genetic codes

D) have unique ribosomes

E) have different chromosomes

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 21.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 21-3. Discuss how genomic equivalence implies that differentiation occurs through differential gene expression.

10) Gene expression in developing organisms is regulated on several different levels. In many developing animals, regulation of gene expression is influenced by the action of Hox genes. Which of the following regulatory elements are produced by many Hox genes?

A) transcriptional factors

B) cell surface molecules for cell-cell interactions

C) signals from maternal cytoplasm, such as bicoid

D) mRNA processing factors

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 21.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 21-5. Discuss how genetic regulatory cascades establish the body axes and lead to increasing specific positional information during development.

11) What was the experimental focus of the preliminary genetic screening performed by Nüsslein-Volhard and Wieschaus?

A) to evaluate the mutagenic properties of varied treatments

B) to discover the bicoid gene

C) to generate two-tailed fruit-fly embryos

D) to identify fruit flies with mutations in genes that control fruit-fly development

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 21.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 21-4. Explain what morphogens are, what they do, how they work, and why they're important in development

12) When the Bicoid protein is expressed in Drosophila, the embryo is still syncytial (divisions between cells are not yet fully developed) This helps to explain which observation by NüssleinVolhard and Wieschaus?

A) mRNA from the egg is translated into the Bicoid protein

B) Bicoid protein diffuses throughout the embryo in a concentration gradient

C) Bicoid protein serves as a transcription regulator.

D) Bicoid protein determines the dorsoventral axis of the embryo.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 21.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 21-4. Explain what morphogens are, what they do, how they work, and why they're important in development.

13) The protein of the bicoid gene in Drosophila determines A) the anterior-posterior axis of the embryo. B) the ventral-lateral axis of the embryo. C) the medial-lateral axis of the embryo. D) the number of segments in the embryo. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 21.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 21-4. Explain what morphogens are, what they do, how they work, and why they're important in development.

14) In combination, what do the products of gap genes, pair-rule genes, and segmentation polarity genes of fruit flies do?

A) They trigger the reorganization of the larval body into an adult body.

B) They define the segmented body plan of the embryo.

C) They set up the back-to-belly axis of the larval body.

D) They direct cell movements during differentiation.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 21.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 21-5. Discuss how genetic regulatory cascades establish the body axes and lead to increasing specific positional information during development.

15) During Drosophila development, there is a regulatory cascade of gene activation. The proper sequence for this cascade is

A) bicoid, gap genes, pair-rule genes, and segment polarity genes.

B) bicoid, pair-rule genes, gap genes, and segment polarity genes.

C) bicoid, segment-polarity genes, gap genes, and pair-rule genes.

D) bicoid, gap genes, segment polarity genes, and pair-rule genes.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 21.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 21-5. Discuss how genetic regulatory cascades establish the body axes and lead to increasing specific positional information during development.

16) What is common to gap genes, segment-polarity genes, and homeotic genes?

A) They act independently of one another.

B) They code for transcription regulatory factors.

C) They can be activated at any time during development.

D) They are unique to Drosophila embryos.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 21.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 21-5. Discuss how genetic regulatory cascades establish the body axes and lead to increasing specific positional information during development.

17) Suppose you found several Drosophila mutants that possessed additional legs growing out of the head segments. The probable mutation would be found in

A) segment-polarity genes.

B) gap genes.

C) pair-rule genes.

D) homeotic genes.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 21 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 21-5 Discuss how genetic regulatory cascades establish the body axes and lead to increasing specific positional information during development

18) Suppose there was a mutation in the segment-polarity genes of Drosophila. What do you suppose might be the outcome?

A) Several segments of the embryo will be missing.

B) Every other segment of the embryo will be missing.

C) Legs will appear in the place of antennae.

D) Antennae will appear in a different part of their usual segment.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 21 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 21-5 Discuss how genetic regulatory cascades establish the body axes and lead to increasing specific positional information during development

19) Suppose the pair-rule genes were inactivated in Drosophila embryos. What is the likely result of the experiment?

A) The embryos would develop normally.

B) The embryos would lack several segments.

C) The embryos would have impaired anterior-posterior polarity.

D) The embryos would have missing alternate segments.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 21.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 21-5. Discuss how genetic regulatory cascades establish the body axes and lead to increasing specific positional information during development.

20) Suppose the protein specified by bicoid were injected into Drosophila embryos, so that a high concentration was present everywhere in the embryo. What might be the result of such an experiment?

A) The embryos would grow larger than normal.

B) The embryos would show no development of posterior regions.

C) The embryos would show no development of anterior regions.

D) The embryos would halt their development.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 21.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 21-4. Explain what morphogens are, what they do, how they work, and why they're important in development

21) Evolutionary theory has until recently stressed genetic mutations that alter protein amino acid sequences as the major source of variation that leads to speciation Evo-devo (evolutionary developmental biology) offers a different understanding of the role of genetic change in evolution Which of the following statements best summarizes this understanding?

A) Genetic mutations are not as important in evolutionary change as the environment in which the organism develops.

B) Changes in cell—cell interactions in a parent's body can lead to phenotypic change in offspring.

C) Similar genes are found in most developing animal bodies; changes in the times and places they are expressed can lead to phenotypic variation.

D) Greater numbers of genes, rather than the ways in which they are regulated, lead to the development of more complex animals over time.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 21.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 21-1. Explain shared developmental processes.

22) The Bicoid gene product is normally localized to the anterior end of the embryo. If large amounts of the product were injected into the posterior end as well, which of the following would occur?

A) The embryo would grow to an unusually large size.

B) The embryo would grow extra wings and legs.

C) The embryo would probably show no anterior development and die.

D) Anterior structures would form in both ends of the embryo.

E) The embryo would develop normally.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 21.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 21-4. Explain what morphogens are, what they do, how they work, and why they're important in development.

23) Many different lineages of animals share similar pattern-formation gene complexes. The study of how these shared complexes function in evolution is termed

A) convergent evolution.

B) conservative evolution.

C) regulatory evolution.

D) evo-devo (evolutionary developmental biology).

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 21.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 21-8 Describe how changes in developmental gene expression drive evolutionary change

24) Animal species exhibit an enormous diversity of genetic information contained in nuclear DNA This may be reflected in very different genome sizes One might predict that animals with more complex structures might show greater numbers of different types of mRNAs during development Scientists investigating this possibility were surprised to find that similar numbers of genes were transcribed at a particular time in development among species whose genomes differed greatly in size. How can this result be interpreted?

A) Some species retain large amounts of DNA that are never used.

B) The number of genes transcribed at any one time is tightly regulated and independent of genome size.

C) Genome size has nothing to do with the physical complexity of the species.

D) Nuclear DNA complexity is unrelated to the complexity of mRNAs transcribed during development.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Entire Chapter 21

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 21-8. Describe how changes in developmental gene expression drive evolutionary change.

25) Scientists have found that the lifetimes of mRNAs coding for pair-rule regulatory elements in Drosophila embryos may be measured in minutes. What does this suggest about the overall developmental plan of an animal body? A) mRNAs in general have short lifetimes; this is not a surprising finding. B) Each segment specified by pair-rule mRNAs is completely determined in the embryo in a very short time. C) Building an animal body requires a sequence of steps; each of these steps is precisely timed. D) Timing of pair-rule sequence determination is not as important as spatial signaling. Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 21.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 21-1. Explain shared developmental processes. 26) Cells in a developing embryo are subject to a number of regulatory pressures. Which of the following is NOT a source of regulatory signals in animal development? A) oocyte cytoplasm B) sperm nucleus C) nearby cells D) extracellular matrix Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 21.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 21-2. Compare and contrast the role of cytoplasmic determinants and induction in cell differentiation. 27) All of the following are true of embryonic stem cells EXCEPT that A) they can be found in human blastocysts. B) they retain the potential to become different types of cells. C) they continue to undergo mitosis when most cells have stopped dividing. D) they are terminally differentiated. Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Canadian Research 21.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 21-7. Explain how stem cells can be used in stem cell based therapies to treat human disease.

28) Which of the following is true of the cloning experiment that resulted in Dolly the sheep?

A) Dolly was genetically identical to the egg-cell donor.

B) Dolly was cloned by fusing an egg with an embryonic stem cell.

C) Dolly was infertile, which indicated incomplete nuclear reprogramming.

D) Dolly was cloned by using a differentiated cell fused to an egg from another breed of sheep.

E) Dolly was cloned by fusing the nuclei from two separate eggs harvested from the same individual.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 21.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 21-3. Discuss how genomic equivalence implies that differentiation occurs through differential gene expression.

29) Undifferentiated cells that continue to proliferate throughout an individual's life are referred to by what terms in plants and animals respectively?

A) stem cells and stem cells

B) meristems and meristems

C) stem cells and meristems

D) meristems and stem cells

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 21.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 21-1. Explain shared developmental processes.

30) The duplication of homeotic (Hox) genes has been significant in the evolution of animals because it

A) permitted the evolution of novel forms

B) caused the extinction of major groups

C) reduced morphological diversity into simpler forms of life

D) allowed animals to survive on significantly fewer calories

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 21.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 21-5. Discuss how genetic regulatory cascades establish the body axes and lead to increasing specific positional information during development.

31) Which of the following human cells contains the gene for alcohol dehydrogenase, a liver enzyme that processes alcohol?

A) sperm and egg cells

B) liver cells

C) heart cells

D) Only the cells in A and B contain the gene for this enzyme.

E) All of the cells in A, B, and C contain the gene for this enzyme.

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 21.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 21-3. Discuss how genomic equivalence implies that differentiation occurs through differential gene expression.

32) What does the term "genetic equivalence" refer to?

A) Plant cells can differentiate into animal cells and vice versa.

B) Differentiated cells of a plant contain the same genes as other cells in the same plant.

C) Differentiated animal cells can share gene products with each other, resulting in a balance of products among the cells.

D) During development, sending and receiving of signals via cell-cell interactions makes the cells involved more equal.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 21.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 21-3 Discuss how genomic equivalence implies that differentiation occurs through differential gene expression

33) What types of changes in the regulation of development can lead to evolutionarily significant morphological changes?

A) Changes in when developmental genes are expressed

B) Changes in where developmental genes are expressed

C) Changes in development are not evolutionarily significant.

D) Both A and B are evolutionarily significant.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 21.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 21-8. Describe how changes in developmental gene expression drive evolutionary change.

34) Which of the following is not an example of the process of apoptosis during organ and tissue development?

A) death of cells between the toes in chicken embryos

B) leaves falling off trees in the fall

C) petals falling off flowers after pollination

D) Lou Gehrig's disease

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 21.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 21-1. Explain shared developmental processes.

35) Cellular differentiation results from

A) changes in the genetic makeup of cells.

B) differential gene expression.

C) mutations in DNA.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 21.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 21-3. Discuss how genomic equivalence implies that differentiation occurs through differential gene expression.

36) During development, what a cell differentiates into depends in part on its location along three body axes. Which axis runs towards the organism's belly?

A) dorsal

B) anterior

C) posterior

D) ventral

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 21 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 21-5. Discuss how genetic regulatory cascades establish the body axes and lead to increasing specific positional information during development.

37) During development, what a cell differentiates into depends in part on its location along three body axes. Which axis runs towards the organism's head?

A) dorsal

B) anterior

C) posterior

D) ventral

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 21.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 21-5. Discuss how genetic regulatory cascades establish the body axes and lead to increasing specific positional information during development.

38) For which of the following reasons are adult stem cells said to be multipotent?

A) They can divide and develop into any part of the multicellular organism.

B) They can only divide and develop into a limited number of related cells types.

C) They can divide and develop to form a complete multicellular organism.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Canadian Research 21.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 21-7 Explain how stem cells can be used in stem cell based therapies to treat human disease

39) Which of the following terms refers to a cell that is capable of dividing and developing into a limited number of cell types in a multicellular organism?

A) multipotent

B) pluripotent

C) totipotent

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Canadian Research 21.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 21-7 Explain how stem cells can be used in stem cell based therapies to treat human disease

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition (Freeman et al.)

Chapter 22 Evolution by Natural Selection

1) Why was Darwin and Wallace's theory of evolution by natural selection revolutionary?

A) It proposed that humans were descended from chimpanzees.

B) It proved that individuals acclimated to their environment over time.

C) It dismissed the idea that species are constant and emphasized the importance of variation and change in populations.

D) It was the first time a biologist had proposed that species changed through time.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 22-2. Describe the nature of the evidence regarding (1)whether species change through time and (2)whether they are related by common ancestry.

2) Who proposed that organisms could be organized into a great chain of being?

A) Aristotle

B) Lamarck

C) Linnaeus

D) Darwin

E) Wallace

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 22-2 Describe the nature of the evidence regarding (1)whether species change through time and (2)whether they are related by common ancestry

3) Which of the following statements is an example of typological thinking?

A) The variety of dog shape and size is truly amazing

B) Women are shorter than men, have longer hair, and like to shop

C) It is best to choose the seeds from the plants with the largest fruits to set aside for next year's plantings.

D) The type of beak that is most advantageous varies depending on how much rain falls in a given year.

Answer: B

Explanation: These examples are not from the text.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 22-4. Identify common misconception about evolution, and give examples to illustrate why they are not true. (For example: Is evolution progressive? Are all traits adaptive? Does evolution result in perfection? Does evolution proceed by the accumulation of changes occurring by chance? Do organisms develop traits that they need in their environment?)

4) Which of the following scientists argued that variation among individuals allows evolution to occur?

A) Aristotle

B) Lamarck

C) Linnaeus

D) Wallace

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 22-2. Describe the nature of the evidence regarding (1)whether species change through time and (2)whether they are related by common ancestry.

5) Researchers have found fossils of Eocene horse species in Colorado. Deeper deposits contain smaller species, and more recent deposits contain larger species. How does this observation support the theory of evolution?

A) It suggests that species are unchanging and of recent origin.

B) It proves that environments have changed over time.

C) It provides evidence that species change over time.

D) It shows that all species are related to each other.

E) It does not support the theory of evolution.

Answer: C

Explanation: Students must evaluate the logical connection between observations and theory.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 22-2 Describe the nature of the evidence regarding (1)whether species change through time and (2)whether they are related by common ancestry

6) Radiometric dating is a technique used to determine the age of rocks Geologists have used this technique to determine that

A) Earth is about 3 4-3 8 billion years old, and life appeared on Earth about 460 million years ago.

B) Earth is about 4.6 billion years old, and life appeared on Earth about 3.8 billion years ago.

C) Earth is about 34-38 billion years old, and life appeared on Earth about 4.6 billion years ago.

D) Earth is about 46 billion years old, and life appeared on Earth about 34-38 billion years ago.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22.2, Chapter 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 22-2. Describe the nature of the evidence regarding (1)whether species change through time and (2)whether they are related by common ancestry.

7) Which of the following statements describes a vestigial trait? A) Humans still have eyebrows, even though we have much less body hair than chimps. B) Kiwis are flightless birds with reduced, nonfunctional wings. C) Whales and dolphins must breathe air even though they spend their entire lives in the water. D) Penguins are flightless birds with wings that are specialized for swimming. E) Snakes have hinged jaws to help them swallow large meals. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 22.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 22-2. Describe the nature of the evidence regarding (1)whether species change through time and (2)whether they are related by common ancestry. 8) Explain how one of the following supports the idea that species change through time: artificial selection, extinction, transitional forms, vestigial traits, or antibiotic resistance. Answer: Artificial selection shows us that by selecting for certain desired traits in domesticated organisms, humans are able to cause major change in organisms (for example, broccoli and kale are very different descendants of wild Brassica oleracea). This shows that species have the capacity to change dramatically over time, when certain traits are selected for over others. Extinction shows that some species no longer exist. Survival to extinction is a major change over time and shows that species are not static and immutable. Transitional forms give evidence of gradual change from one form to another, which supports the idea that species can change over time. The existence of vestigial traits supports the idea that traits that are selected against may be minimized, but still give evidence of the ancestral condition. Vestigial traits imply a different ancestral form and thus support the idea that species change over time. The evolution of antibiotic resistance shows that change in an environment causes change in the organisms (bacteria in this case) exposed to that environment and is clear evidence of change in a species over time. Explanation: Instructors could increase difficulty by modifying this question to have students come up with the evidence category instead of giving categories to students Type: SA Reference: Section 22 2, 22 4, Chapter 1 (Artificial Selection) Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 22-2 Describe the nature of the evidence regarding (1)whether species change through time and (2)whether they are related by common ancestry

9) Why did Darwin argue that evidence of extinction supports the theory of evolution?

A) It shows that reproduction is more important than survival of the fittest.

B) It shows that lower organisms have died to make way for humans.

C) It shows that nothing lasts forever.

D) It shows that the number and types of species have changed over time.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 22-2. Describe the nature of the evidence regarding (1)whether species change through time and (2)whether they are related by common ancestry.

10) Gill pouches in chick, human, and house-cat embryos are an example of

A) structural homology.

B) developmental homology.

C) genetic homology.

D) the inheritance of acquired characters.

Answer: B

Explanation: This question uses the example given in the text.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 22-2 Describe the nature of the evidence regarding (1)whether species change through time and (2)whether they are related by common ancestry

11) The same basic internal organs (kidneys, stomach, heart, lungs) are found in frogs, birds, snakes. and rodents. This is primarily an example of

A) structural homology.

B) developmental homology.

C) genetic correlation.

D) transitional features.

Answer: A

Explanation: This question uses an example different from that in the text

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 22-2 Describe the nature of the evidence regarding (1)whether species change through time and (2)whether they are related by common ancestry

12) You sequence the genes that code for an important glycolytic enzyme in a moth, a mushroom, a worm, and an alga, and find a high degree of sequence similarity among these distantly related species. This is an example of

A) structural homology.

B) developmental homology.

C) genetic homology.

D) analogy/convergent evolution.

Answer: C

Explanation: This question uses an example different from that in the text.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 22-2. Describe the nature of the evidence regarding (1)whether species change through time and (2)whether they are related by common ancestry.

13) Evolutionary theory predicts that species are related, not independent. Four of the following examples provide support for this prediction, but one is irrelevant. Which one of these examples does not support the claim that species are related?

A) Many dinosaurs and other organisms went extinct following a huge asteroid impact at the end of the Cretaceous.

B) The endostyle of lancelets (invertebrate chordates) and the thyroid gland of vertebrates develop similarly, and both produce iodinated proteins.

C) All prokaryotes and eukaryotes use DNA to carry their genetic information.

D) Ground squirrel species found on the north and south sides of the Grand Canyon are very similar to each other.

E) Before synthetic insulin was available, diabetics used injections of purified pig insulin to manage their disease

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 22-2. Describe the nature of the evidence regarding (1)whether species change through time and (2)whether they are related by common ancestry.

14) Which of these conditions are always true of populations evolving due to natural selection? Condition 1: The population must vary in traits that are heritable. Condition 2: Some heritable traits must increase reproductive success. Condition 3: Individuals pass on all traits they acquire during their lifetime. A) Condition 1 only B) Condition 2 only C) Conditions 1 and 2 D) Conditions 2 and 3 E) Conditions 1, 2, and 3 Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 22.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 22-3. Assess whether Darwin's four postulates are true in any given example, explain to a friend why evolution must occur if all four are true, and whether evolution will occur if any of the four are not true. 15) If you say that Squirrel A has greater biological fitness than Squirrel B, you mean that the animal A) has a longer lifespan. B) is able to mate more frequently than Squirrel B. C) is able to access more food than Squirrel B. D) has more offspring that survive to reproductive age than Squirrel B. E) is bigger and stronger than Squirrel B. Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 22.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 22-1. Define evolution, fitness, and adaptation using the biological definitions.

16) A farmer uses triazine herbicide to control pigweed in his field. For the first few years, the triazine works well and almost all the pigweed dies; but after several years, the farmer sees more and more pigweed. Which of these explanations best describes this observation?

A) Increased rainfall due to climate change washes away the herbicide more often, so the pigweed has reduced exposure to the triazine.

B) The pigweed mutated in response to the herbicide, creating a new triazine-resistant species.

C) Triazine-resistant pigweed has less-efficient photosynthesis metabolism.

D) Only triazine-resistant weeds survived and reproduced, so each year more pigweed was triazine-resistant.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 22-3. Assess whether Darwin's four postulates are true in any given example, explain to a friend why evolution must occur if all four are true, and whether evolution will occur if any of the four are not true.

17) A farmer uses triazine herbicide to control pigweed in his field. For the first few years, the triazine works well and almost all the pigweed dies; but after several years, the farmer sees more and more pigweed, no matter how often he applies triazine. Which of these actions is most likely to solve the farmer's problem?

A) applying the triazine to the soil and roots instead of spraying it over the leaves

B) trying a different herbicide

C) increasing the amount of triazine he puts on his fields

D) adding triazine more often to his fields

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22 4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 22-3 Assess whether Darwin's four postulates are true in any given example, explain to a friend why evolution must occur if all four are true, and whether evolution will occur if any of the four are not true.

18) Your text discusses the evolution of antibiotic-resistant M. tuberculosis bacteria in a patient. Researchers discovered that the strain of M. tuberculosis taken from the dead patient has a point mutation in the rpoB gene that codes for part of the RNA polymerase enzyme. This mutant form of RNA polymerase does not normally function as well as the more common form, but a commonly used antibiotic called rifampin does not affect the mutant rpoB. A researcher places M. tuberculosis isolated from the patient a year before death (no rpoB mutation) in cell cultures with M. tuberculosis isolated from the dead patient (with rpoB mutation). Half the cell cultures contain just standard nutrients, and the other cell cultures contain rifampin in addition to the standard nutrients. After many cell generations, the researcher finds that

A) very few M. tuberculosis in the standard nutrient cell cultures carry the rpoB gene mutation, but almost all of the M. tuberculosis in the cell cultures with rifampin carry the rpoB mutation.

B) almost all M. tuberculosis in the standard nutrient cell cultures carry the rpoB gene mutation, but very few of the M. tuberculosis in the cell cultures with rifampin carry the rpoB mutation.

C) very few M. tuberculosis in any of the cell cultures carry the rpoB gene mutation.

D) almost all of the M. tuberculosis in both types of cell cultures carry the rpoB mutation.

E) a mix of both M. tuberculosis strains thrive in the standard cell cultures, but no living bacteria can be found in the cell cultures that contain rifampin.

Answer: A

Explanation: Instructors could add a short-answer component by asking students to explain why.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

19) Which of the following is the best modern definition of evolution?

A) descent without modification

B) change in allele frequencies in a population over time

C) survival of the fittest

D) inheritance of acquired characters

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 22-1. Define evolution, fitness, and adaptation using the biological definitions.

20) After the drought of 1977, researchers hypothesized that on Daphne Major, medium ground finches with large, deep beaks survived better than those with smaller beaks because they could more easily crack and eat the tough Tribulus cistoides fruits. If this hypothesis is true, what would you expect to observe if a population of these medium ground finches colonizes a nearby island where T. cistoides is the primary available food in all years? Assume that (1) even the survivors of the 1977 drought sometimes had difficulty cracking the tough T. cistoides fruits and would eat other seeds when offered a choice, and (2) food availability is the primary limit on finch fitness on this new island. A) evolution of yet larger, deeper beaks over time B) evolution of smaller, pointier beaks over time C) random fluctuations in beak size and shape D) no change in beak size and shape Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 22.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 22-4. Identify common misconception about evolution, and give examples to illustrate why they are not true. (For example: Is evolution progressive? Are all traits adaptive? Does evolution result in perfection? Does evolution proceed by the accumulation of changes occurring by chance? Do organisms develop traits that they need in their environment?) 21) Tourist companies start visiting Island X, where the new colony of medium ground finches (see previous question) feeds on the tough-fruited Tribulus cistoides. The tourist companies set up reliable feeding stations with a variety of bird seeds (different types and sizes), so that tourists can get a better look at the finches. Which of these events is now most likely to occur to finch beaks on Island X? A) evolution of yet larger, deeper beaks over time, until all birds have relatively large, deep beaks B) evolution of smaller, pointier beaks over time, until all birds have relatively small, pointy beaks C) increased variation in beak size and shape over time D) no change in beak size and shape over time Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 22.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 22-4. Identify common misconception about evolution, and give examples to illustrate why they are not true (For example: Is evolution progressive? Are all traits adaptive? Does evolution result in perfection? Does evolution proceed by the accumulation of changes occurring by chance? Do organisms develop traits that they need in their environment?)

Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s).

The following question(s) are based on information from Frank M. Frey, "Opposing Natural Selection from Herbivores and Pathogens May Maintain Floral-Color Variation in Claytonia virginica (Portulacaceae)," Evolution 58(11), 2004: 2426-37.

22) Claytonia virginica is a woodland spring herb with flowers that vary from white to pale pink to bright pink. This plant is primarily pollinated by a bee that prefers pink flowers to white flowers. Claytonia with pink flowers have a greater relative fruit set than Claytonia with white flowers. Nevertheless, the percentage of different flower colours remains stable in the study population from year to year. Which of these statements might explain this observation?

A) Reproductive success does not affect evolution in this species.

B) Flower colour is not heritable, but is instead environmentally determined.

C) The white flowers have evolved pollinator resistance.

D) Fitness is primarily determined by fruit set in this species.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

23) Claytonia virginica is a woodland spring herb with flowers that vary from white to pale pink to bright pink. Slugs prefer to eat pink-flowering over white-flowering plants (due to chemical differences between the two), and plants experiencing severe herbivory are more likely to die. The bees that pollinate this plant also prefer pink to white flowers, so that Claytonia with pink flowers have a greater relative fruit set than Claytonia with white flowers A researcher observes that the percentage of different flower colours remains stable in the study population from year to year If the researcher removes all slugs from the study population, what do you expect to happen to the distribution of flower colours in the population over time?

A) The percentage of pink flowers should increase over time

B) The percentage of white flowers should increase over time

C) The distribution of flower colours should not change.

D) The distribution of flower colours should randomly fluctuate over time.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

The following question(s) are based on information in Hopi E. Hoekstra, Kristen E. Drumm, and Michael W. Nachman, "Ecological Genetics of Adaptive Color Polymorphism in Pocket Mice: Geographic Variation in Selected and Neutral Genes," Evolution 58(6), 2004: 1329-41.

24) The figure above shows the distribution of pocket-mouse coat colours in several Arizona populations found either on light-coloured granite substrate or on dark volcanic rock (dark substrate). The Melanocortin-1 receptor (Mc1r) alleles, D and d, differ by four amino acids. Mice with DD and Dd genotypes have dark coats, whereas mice with the dd genotype are light coloured. What sort of genotype frequencies might you expect to find in the Xmas, Mid, and O'Neill populations?

A) Xmas high DD frequency; Mid high Dd frequency, O'Neill high dd frequency

B) Xmas high Dd frequency; Mid high DD frequency, O'Neill high dd frequency

C) Xmas high Dd frequency; Mid high dd frequency, O'Neill high DD frequency

D) Xmas high dd frequency; Mid high Dd frequency, O'Neill high DD frequency

E) Xmas high dd frequency; Mid high DD frequency, O'Neill high Dd frequency

Figure 22.1

Answer: E

Explanation: This question asks students to recall the definition of genotype from Mendelian genetics chapters.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22.3, Chapter Review case study

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

25) Refer to Figure 22.1. In their investigation of natural selection on Mc1r alleles (the gene that determines coat colour) in Arizona pocket mice, Hoekstra et al. determined the frequency of the D and d alleles in each population. They also determined the frequency of alleles for two neutral mitochondrial DNA genes (genes that do not affect and are not linked to coat colour). Why did the researchers include the mitochondrial DNA genes as part of their experimental design?

A) Allele change for the neutral mitochondrial genes serves as an experimental group and gives information on any general background genetic difference among these populations.

B) Allele change for the neutral mitochondrial genes serves as a control and determines coatcolour differences among these populations.

C) Allele change for the neutral mitochondrial genes serves as an experimental group and gives information on coat-colour differences among these populations.

D) Allele change for the neutral mitochondrial genes serves as a control and gives information on any general background genetic difference among these populations.

E) None of the above answers apply.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22 3, Chapter Review case study

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

Figure 22 2

The distribution of pocket-mouse coat colours in several Arizona populations is associated with substrate colour. Some populations live on light-coloured granite substrate, and others live on dark volcanic rock. In Figure 22.2, chart A shows the frequency of the melanic (dark) coat phenotype across six populations. Populations C, D, and E live on dark volcanic rock; populations A, B, and F live on light-coloured granite. Chart B shows the frequency of the Melanocortin-1 receptor (Mc1r) allele across these populations. The Mc1r alleles, D and d, differ by four amino acids; mice with DD and Dd genotypes have dark coats, whereas mice with dd genotype are light coloured. Which of the following statements best interprets the results shown in charts A and B?

A) Frequency of the D allele is closely associated with the melanic phenotype, but is unrelated to the presence of dark substrate colour.

B) Frequency of the D allele is not associated with the melanic phenotype, but is associated with the presence of dark substrate colour.

C) Frequency of the D allele is closely associated with both the melanic phenotype and the presence of dark substrate colour

D) Frequency of the D allele is associated neither with the melanic phenotype nor with the presence of dark substrate colour

E) Frequency of the D allele does not vary

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22.3, Chapter Review case study

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

In Figure 22 3, chart X above shows the frequency of the most common neutral mitochondrial DNA allele (an allele for a gene that does not affect and is not linked to coat colour) across six pocket-mouse populations. Populations C, D, and E live on dark volcanic rock; populations A, B, and F live on light-coloured granite. Compare this figure with chart Y above. What should you conclude after comparing these two figures?

A) The most common neutral mitochondrial DNA allele is strongly associated with substrate colour.

B) The most common neutral mitochondrial DNA allele is strongly associated with the frequency of the Mc1r D allele.

C) The most common neutral mitochondrial DNA allele varies more among populations than the Mc1r D allele.

D) Little to no correlation exists between neutral mitochondrial DNA alleles and habitat colour. Answer: D

Explanation: Students must understand what the term correlation means.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22.3, Chapter Review case study

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

28) Evolution by natural selection changes the population but not the individual.

A) true

B) false

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 22-1. Define evolution, fitness, and adaptation using the biological definitions.

Figure 22.3

29) Which of the following is an example of acclimation?

A) Some hemoglobins have a higher affinity for oxygen than others.

B) Some animals grow thicker coats when exposed to low temperatures.

C) Some bacteria can use the energy from sunlight to make sugars.

D) Some plant species can absorb nitrogen better than others can.

E) Some fungi are larger than others are.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

30) Parasitic species tend to have simple morphologies. Which of the following statements best explains this observation?

A) Parasites are lower organisms, and this is why they have simple morphologies.

B) Parasites do not live long enough to inherit acquired characteristics.

C) Simple morphologies have been naturally selected for in most parasites.

D) Parasites have not yet had time to progress, because they are young evolutionarily.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

31) Vestigial traits and neutral changes in DNA sequences are good examples of A) adaptation

B) acclimation

C) convergent traits

D) nonadaptive traits.

E) developmental homology.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 22-2. Describe the nature of the evidence regarding (1)whether species change through time and (2)whether they are related by common ancestry.

32) Which of the following is a fitness trade-off? A) In some hornbill species, the male helps seal the female in a tree with her nest until the young are ready to fledge. B) Moths are the best pollinators for datura flowers, but bees are the best pollinators for orchids. C) The largest male elephant seals are able to mate with many females, but smaller males rarely have the opportunity to mate. D) Algal genotypes that can grow fast in nitrogenlimited environments are easier for predators to digest. Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 22.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 22-1. Define evolution, fitness, and adaptation using the biological definitions. 33) A patient has finished his treatment for a bacterial infection with an antibiotic and feels better. However, four days later the same bacterial infection returns. The doctor prescribes the same course of antibiotics, but this time these antibiotics do not cure the patient. What would be the most likely reason for this? A) The antibiotic was quickly metabolized by the patient and did not have time to work. B) The non-resistant bacteria evolved within these four days so that the drug became ineffective. C) The patient was not treated in time and so the infection became too severe. D) The drug killed most of the bacteria in the population, but a few individuals with genetic resistance to the drug survived and passed the resistant gene on to their offspring. Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 22.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying LO: 22-4. Identify common misconception about evolution, and give examples to illustrate why they are not true. (For example: Is evolution progressive? Are all traits adaptive? Does evolution result in perfection? Does evolution proceed by the accumulation of changes occurring by chance? Do organisms develop traits that they need in their environment?)

This scenario is for the next question(s).

You have a mixed population of bacteria (S. aureus) in the lab. Approximately half of them (WT) are susceptible to the antibiotic rifampin. The other half are not, due to a mutation in the rpoB gene. The rpoB mutation results in an RNA polymerase that doesn't work as well as in the WT, hence transcription is not as rapid, and these bacteria grow much more slowly than those with the WT enzyme.

34) If the population is maintained on media that contains rifampin, what is expected to occur over a period of time?

A) The rifampin resistant bacteria will increase in proportion compared to the rifampin susceptible bacteria.

B) The rifampin susceptible bacteria will increase in proportion to the rifampin resistant bacteria.

C) The rifampin susceptible bacteria and the rifampin resistant bacteria will remain in approximately equal proportions.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

35) Read the scenario above. If the population is maintained on media that lacks rifampin, what is expected to occur over a period of time?

A) The rifampin resistant bacteria will increase in proportion compared to the rifampin susceptible bacteria.

B) The rifampin susceptible bacteria will increase in proportion to the rifampin resistant bacteria

C) The rifampin susceptible bacteria and the rifampin resistant bacteria will remain in approximately equal proportions

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

36) A population of beetles lives on a forest floor, which is covered in dark leaf litter. Dark beetles have the genotype A2A2, while lighter beetles have an A1A1 genotype; heterozygotes have a phenotype that is closer to that of the A1A1 homozygotes The oppresso bird preys on these beetles. What outcome do you predict?

A) The colour of each beetle within the population will gradually change over time.

B) Beetles will have darker-shelled offspring to protect them from predation.

C) The proportions of beetles in the population with different traits change over time.

D) Behaviours learned from the beetles will be passed onto their offspring.

E) A mutation will arise that will result in a darker shell colour and protect the beetles from predation.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

37) Evolution of antibiotic resistant bacteria represents which of the following?

A) naturalselection

B) genetic drift

C) artificial selection

D) reproductive selection

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

38) Which of the following is an example of an environmental constraint on evolution by natural selection?

A) Female humans have nipples with mammary glands; males have nipples too but are unable to produce milk.

B) The availabilities of different types of food are inconsistent from year to year on Daphne Major, so finches with the "perfect" bill size in one year may be at a disadvantage in another year.

C) Dolphin embryos grow hindlimb buds during development, even though they do not have or need hindlimbs as adults.

D) Certain proteins in humans have similar amino acid sequences to those found in yeast because we have been unable to evolve more sophisticated sequences.

E) Hox genes are found in both Drosophila and humans and are important in the development of body parts.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

39) A population of rabbits grows explosively because resources are high. However, now that numbers have increased substantially, there is not enough food for all individuals and the population is threatened. What will happen under such circumstances?

A) The rabbits will share the food with each other; if everyone gets a little bit of food, the population will survive

B) A random group of the rabbits will survive and reproduce to form the next generation

C) There will be competition for the food and some rabbits will not survive to reproduce

D) Some rabbits will move away to find another food source so that individuals remaining in the population will survive

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

40) According to the theory of evolution by natural selection, which of the following is FALSE?

A) The individuals that survive to reproduce are a random sample of the population.

B) Natural selection occurs at the level of the individual, but the changes (evolution) are observed at the population level.

C) Over-reproduction and limited resources leads to competition.

D) Individuals with certain heritable traits contribute more reproductively to the next generation than others without those traits.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

41) Fishers typically target the largest, and thus, oldest fish. Given this fishing strategy, which of the following would be the most likely outcome due to natural selection over time on life history traits. Which of the following best predicts the effect of natural selection due to this fishing strategy on the life history traits of the commercially popular fish?

A) A greater proportion of the fish population would be made up of individuals that become reproductively mature at a smaller size, and, thus, an earlier age.

B) A greater proportion of the fish population would be made up of individuals that become reproductively mature at a larger size, and, thus, an older age.

C) There would be no change in the life histories of these fish populations as a species' age at reproduction cannot change.

D) A greater proportion of the fish population would be made up of individuals that become reproductively mature at a smaller size, and, thus, an older age

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Canadian Issues 22 1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

42) Which statement about transitional features is true?

A) A bird's wing and a bat's wing are examples of transitional features.

B) Scientists have not yet discovered any examples of true transitional features.

C) Transitional features show that natural selection sometimes plans ahead to achieve evolutionary goals in a species.

D) Fossil species with transitional features are not necessarily direct ancestors of living species, but they are likely closely related to the ancestor.

E) Hemoglobin expression transitions from the fetus to newborn due to the requirement of hemoglobin in the fetus to be able to bind oxygen more tightly.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 22.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 22-2. Describe the nature of the evidence regarding (1)whether species change through time and (2)whether they are related by common ancestry.

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition

Chapter 23 Evolutionary Processes

(Freeman et al.)

1) Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder in homozygous recessives that causes death during the teenage years. If 9 in 10,000 newborn babies have the disease, what are the expected frequencies of the dominant (A1) and recessive (A2) alleles according to the Hardy-Weinberg model?

A) f(A1) = 0.9997, f(A2) = 0.0003

B) f(A1) = 0.9800, f(A2) = 0.0200

C) f(A1) = 0.9700, f(A2) = 0.0300

D) f(A1) = 0.9604, f(A2) = 0.0392

E) f(A1) = 0.9600, f(A2) = 0.0400

Answer: C Explanation: Ideally, students can answer this question without a calculator. This example uses different frequencies from those in the chapter essay. Type: MC Reference: Section 23.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 23-1. Test whether evolution or nonrandom mating is occurring at a particular gene, using the Hardy-Weinberg principle.

2) Suppose 64% of a remote mountain village can taste phenylthiocarbamide (PTC) and must therefore have at least one copy of the dominant PTC taster allele If this population conforms to Hardy-Weinberg expectations for this gene, what percentage of the population must be heterozygous for this trait?

A) 16%

B) 32%

C) 40%

D) 48%

E) 60%

Answer: D

Explanation: This question is somewhat challenging because students must figure out the frequency of homozygous recessives (0.36) and use this to calculate q (0.6) and p (0.4) and then 2pq (0.48).

Type: MC Reference: Section 23.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 23-1. Test whether evolution or nonrandom mating is occurring at a particular gene, using the Hardy-Weinberg principle.

3) For biologists studying a large flatworm population in the lab, which Hardy-Weinberg condition is most difficult to meet?

A) no selection

B) no genetic drift

C) no gene flow

D) no mutation

E) random mating

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 23-1. Test whether evolution or nonrandom mating is occurring at a particular gene, using the Hardy-Weinberg principle.

4) For a biologist studying a small fish population in the lab, which Hardy-Weinberg condition is easiest to meet?

A) no selection

B) no genetic drift

C) no gene flow

D) no mutation

E) random mating

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 23-1 Test whether evolution or nonrandom mating is occurring at a particular gene, using the Hardy-Weinberg principle

Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s).

Researchers studying a small milkweed population note that some plants produce a toxin and other plants do not. They identify the gene responsible for toxin production. The dominant allele (T) codes for an enzyme that makes the toxin, and the recessive allele (t) codes for a nonfunctional enzyme that cannot produce the toxin. Heterozygotes produce an intermediate amount of toxin. The genotypes of all individuals in the population are determined (see chart) and used to determine the actual allele frequencies in the population.

Figure 23 1

5) Refer to Figure 23.1. Is this population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

A) yes

B) No; there are more heterozygotes than expected.

C) No; there are more homozygotes than expected.

D) More information is needed to answer this question.

Answer: C

Explanation: This question requires students to calculate allele frequencies (0.7 and 0.3) and use the Hardy Weinberg principle to calculate expected genotype frequencies (0.49, 0.42, and 0.09) when these are compared to the observed genotype frequencies, we see that .16 is greater than .09 and .56 is greater than .49, so there are more homozygotes than expected. Students should not require a calculator, but the question can be made easier by giving students the allele frequencies in a row labeled "Observed" and adding a row below labeled "Expected," as in Table 23.1

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 23-1. Test whether evolution or nonrandom mating is occurring at a particular gene, using the Hardy-Weinberg principle.

6) Based on whether the population in Figure 23.1 is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the researchers had already noted that negligible mutation and migration existed in this milkweed population, and the toxin does not affect the butterflies that pollinate these plants. Which of the following would be a logical conclusion about this milkweed population?

A) Genetic drift and selection are negligible.

B) There is either a heterozygote advantage or stabilizing selection.

C) There is either directional selection or sexual selection.

D) There is either disruptive selection or inbreeding

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23 1-23 6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 23-1. Test whether evolution or nonrandom mating is occurring at a particular gene, using the Hardy-Weinberg principle.

Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s).

Martin Wikelski and L. Michael Romero (Body size, performance and fitness in Galápagos marine iguanas, Integrative and Comparative Biology 43 [2003]:376-86) measured the snout-tovent (anus) length of Galápagos marine iguanas and observed the percent survival of differentsized animals. Figure 23.2 shows the log snout-vent length (SVL, a measure of overall body size) plotted against the percent survival of these different size classes for males and females.

7) Examine the figure above. What type of selection for body size appears to be occurring in these marine iguanas?

A) directional selection

B) stabilizing selection

C) disruptive selection

D) sexual selection

Answer: B

Explanation: Figure 23.1 is from the paper by Wikelski and Romero.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 23-2. Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease.

Figure 23.2

8) Wikelski and Romero (2003) found that large marine iguanas had higher reproductive success than smaller iguanas did. However, the large iguanas were generally in poor body condition because they could not eat enough; at higher temperatures their foraging efficiency improved, allowing them to eat more. Thus, Wikelski and Romero hypothesize that iguana size will as global warming gradually increases air and water temperatures in the Galápagos Islands.

A) increase B) decrease

C) stay the same D) vary more

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 23-2. Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease.

9) For Galápagos marine iguanas, body size is not correlated with survival, but small iguanas can sprint faster than large iguanas. If a new predator species (e.g., cats) that preferably catches and eats slower iguanas is introduced to the island, iguana body size is likely to in the absence of other factors; the iguanas would then be under selection.

A) increase; directional B) increase; disruptive C) decrease; directional D) decrease; stabilizing E) stay the same; stabilizing

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 23-2. Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease.

10) Researchers (Helle et al., 2004) analyzed rates of twin births in the Sami population of Northern Scandinavia during the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries. They found that (1) a baby born from a singleton pregnancy was more likely to survive to adulthood than a baby born from a twin pregnancy, and (2) the average number of offspring raised to adulthood was higher for women who had twins than for those who never had twins. These data suggest that in this population, human twinning rate was

A) under directional selection.

B) under stabilizing selection.

C) under disruptive selection.

D) under sexual selection.

E) undergoing genetic drift.

Answer: A

Explanation: This question is based on Samuli Helle, Virpi Lummaa, and Jukka Jokel, Selection for increased brood size in historical human populations, Evolution 58(2), 2004:430 36.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 23-2. Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease.

Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s).

In 1983, a population of dark-eyed junco birds became established on the campus of the University of California, San Diego (UCSD), which is located many miles from the junco's normal habitat in the mixed-coniferous temperate forests in the mountains. Juncos have white outer tail feathers that the males display during aggressive interactions and during courtship displays. Males with more white in their tail are more likely to win aggressive interactions, and females prefer to mate with males with more white in their tails. Females have less white in their tails than males, and display it less often. (Pamela J. Yeh. 2004. Rapid evolution of a sexually selected trait following population establishment in a novel habitat. Evolution 58[1]:166-74.)

11) Based on the information given above, which of the following types of selection was most likely initially involved in the evolution of white outer tail feathers in juncos?

A) directional selection

B) stabilizing selection

C) disruptive selection

D) sexual selection

Answer: D

Explanation: If the CRS/In-Class question from Yeh's paper is used, this becomes an easier question and could be used to test for lecture attendance. This question is based on Pamela J. Yeh, Rapid evolution of a sexually selected trait following population establishment in a novel habitat, Evolution 58(1), 2004:166 74.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.2, 23.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 23-2. Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease

12) The UCSD campus male junco population tails were, on average, 36% white, whereas the tails of males from nearby mountain populations averaged 40 45% white If this observed trait difference were due to a difference in the original colonizing population, it would be due to

A) disruptive selection

B) sexual selection.

C) sexual dimorphism.

D) a genetic bottleneck.

E) founder effect.

Answer: E

Explanation: This question is similar to a CRS/In-Class question from this chapter. This question is based on Pamela J. Yeh, Rapid evolution of a sexually selected trait following population establishment in a novel habitat, Evolution 58(1), 2004:166 74.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.2, 23.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 23-2. Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease.

13) The UCSD campus male junco population tails are about 36% white, whereas the tails of males from nearby mountain populations are about 40-45% white. The founding stock of UCSD birds was likely from the nearby mountain populations because some of those birds overwinter on the UCSD campus each year. Population sizes on the UCSD campus have been reasonably large, and there are significant habitat differences between the UCSD campus and the mountain coniferous forests; UCSD campus has a more open environment (making birds more visible) and a lower junco density (decreasing intraspecific competition) than that in the mountain forests. Given this information, which of the following evolutionary mechanisms do you think is most likely responsible for the difference between the UCSD and mountain populations?

A) natural selection

B) inbreeding

C) genetic drift

D) gene flow

E) mutation

Answer: A

Explanation: If the CRS/In-Class question from Yeh's paper is used, this becomes an easier question. This question is based on Pamela J. Yeh, Rapid evolution of a sexually selected trait following population establishment in a novel habitat, Evolution 58(1), 2004:166 74.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.2-23.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 23-2. Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease.

14) Three-spined stickleback fish (Gasterosteus aculeatus) show substantial heritable variation in gill-raker length Fish caught in open water tend to have longer gill rakers and eat different foods than those caught in shallower water Longer gill rakers appear to function better for capturing open-water prey, while shorter gill rakers function better for capturing shallow-water prey Which of the following types of selection is most likely to be found in a large lake (open water in middle and shallow water around the sides) with a high density of these fish?

A) directional selection

B) stabilizing selection

C) disruptive selection

D) sexual selection

E) no selection

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 23-2. Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease.

15) Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder in homozygous recessives (ff) that typically causes death in the early 30s. Over time, we would expect the f allele frequency to for this trait.

A) remain the same

B) increase C) decrease D) fluctuate

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 23-2. Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease.

16) Which of the graphs above best represents the relationship between the intensity of directional selection and the genetic variation present within a population?

Answer: B

Type: SA

Reference: Section 23 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 23-2 Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease

Figure 23 3

17) A biologist doing a long-term study on a wild spider population observes increased variation in silk thickness. She hypothesizes that the population is experiencing

A) directional selection.

B) stabilizing selection.

C) disruptive selection.

D) sexual selection.

E) genetic drift.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 23-2. Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease.

18) The Dunkers are a religious group that moved from Germany to Pennsylvania in the mid1700s. They do not marry with members outside their own immediate community. Today, the Dunkers are genetically unique and differ in gene frequencies, at many loci, from all other populations including those in their original homeland. Which of the following likely explains the genetic uniqueness of this population?

A) population bottleneck and Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

B) heterozygote advantage and stabilizing selection

C) sexual selection and inbreeding depression

D) mutation and natural selection

E) founder effect and genetic drift

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 23-2 Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease.

19) Which of the following processes increase genetic variation in a population?

A) natural selection and genetic drift

B) natural selection and gene flow

C) natural selection and mutation

D) genetic drift and gene flow

E) genetic drift and mutation

F) gene flow and mutation

Answer: F

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.2, 23.3, 23.4, 23.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

LO: 23-2. Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease.

20) Which of the following statements about genetic drift is true?

A) Genetic drift is nonrandom.

B) Genetic drift is caused by migration of individuals into, and out of, a population.

C) The effect of genetic drift on allele frequencies is equally strong in large and small populations.

D) Inbreeding depression, bottleneck effects, and founder effects are all examples of genetic drift.

E) Genetic drift can lead to an increase in the average fitness of a population.

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

LO: 23-2. Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease.

21) An earthquake decimates a ground-squirrel population. The surviving population happens to have broader stripes on average than the initial population. If broadness of stripes is genetically determined, what effect has the ground-squirrel population experienced during the earthquake?

A) directional selection

B) disruptive selection

C) a founder event

D) a genetic bottleneck

E) gene flow

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 23-2 Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease

22) In Kerr and Wright's experiment with 96 fruit-fly populations, only 4 males and 4 females bred in each generation. After 16 generations, 73% of their populations had only one allele present for the bristle morphology gene. Which of the following would you expect to occur if they allowed 10 males and 10 females to breed each in generation?

A) About 73% of the populations would have only one allele for the bristle morphology gene.

B) More than 73% of the populations would have only one allele present.

C) Less than 73% of the populations would have only one allele present.

D) All of the populations would have only one allele present.

Answer: C

Explanation: This question extrapolates from the example given in the text.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 23-2. Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease.

23) Which of the following is the most predictable outcome of increased gene flow between two populations?

A) lower average fitness in both populations

B) higher average fitness in both populations

C) increased genetic difference between the two populations

D) decreased genetic difference between the two populations

E) increased genetic drift

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23 4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 23-2 Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease

24) Two frog populations (same species) living in two neighboring lakes sing slightly different courtship songs. Predict what likely happens to the songs of the two frog populations after increased irrigation makes the land between the two lakes wetter. Females prefer loud frogs to quieter frogs, but do not distinguish between the two slightly different songs. Assume that courtship song differences have a genetic basis.

A) The songs become more similar to each other.

B) The songs become more different from each other.

C) There is no change in the frog courtship songs of the two lakes.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.4, 23.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 23-2. Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease.

25) In 1986, a nuclear power accident in Chernobyl, USSR (now the Ukraine), led to high radiation levels for miles surrounding the plant. The high levels of radiation caused elevated mutation rates in the surviving organisms, and evolutionary biologists have been studying rodent populations in the Chernobyl area ever since. Based on your understanding of evolutionary mechanisms, which of the following most likely occurred in the rodent populations following the accident?

A) Mutation by itself led to major changes in rodent physiology over time.

B) Mutation led to increased genetic variation.

C) Mutation caused genetic drift and decreased fitness.

D) Mutation caused the fixation of new alleles.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 23-2. Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease.

26) Mutation is the only evolutionary mechanism that A) does little to change allele frequencies on its own. B) can cause decreased fitness.

C) is more important in eukaryotes than in prokaryotes.

D) is not mentioned by the Hardy-Weinberg model.

E) has no effect on genetic variation.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23 5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 23-2 Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease

27) A beneficial point mutation occurs in a plant ovule, which is fertilized. The seed matures, falls to the ground, and starts to grow. Is the plant's population likely to show evolutionary change as a result of this mutation? Why or why not?

Answer: The plant's population is unlikely to show evolutionary change because the plant (1) may not survive to maturity despite its beneficial mutation, (2) may not reproduce, (3) may not reproduce more than its neighbors despite its beneficial mutation, and (4) is unlikely to have much of an impact if the population is large. Partial credit might be given for answering that the plant's population might show evolutionary change over time if the plant has a high overall fitness and a high reproductive success and is in a relatively small population such that the frequency of this new allele could increase over time due to natural selection.

Type: SA

Reference: Section 23.5

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 23-2. Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease.

28) Why doesn't inbreeding depression, by itself, cause evolution?

A) It decreases the population's average fitness.

B) It limits gene flow.

C) It does not change the population's allele frequencies.

D) It increases homozygosity.

E) It violates the Hardy-Weinberg assumptions.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23 6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 23-3 Explain why inbreeding and assortative mating may act to change genotype frequencies but do not change allele frequencies

29) Which sex typically has more extreme sex-selected characteristics: males or females? Why? Give an example

Answer: Males; fundamental asymmetry of sex

Type: SA

Reference: Section 23.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 23-4. Define sexual selection. Explain which sex is more strongly affected by sexual selection, and why.

30) In some jacana species, males take care of the eggs and young, and females compete for territories and males against one another. Female jacanas are significantly larger than males. Which of these statements would you predict to be true of this bird species?

1. Male jacana fitness is primarily limited by ability to take care of eggs and raise young. 2. Female jacana fitness is limited by the number of males with which a female mates. 3. Variation in reproductive success should be greater in male jacanas than in females. 4. Variation in reproductive success should be greater in female jacanas than in males. 5. Males and females have equal variation in reproductive success. A) 1 and 3 B) 2 and 4 C) 1, 2, and 3 D) 1, 2, and 4 E) 5 Answer: D Explanation: This is a true exception to the fundamental asymmetry of sex; it tests whether students really understand the reasons for the existence of fundamental asymmetry of sex. Type: MC Reference: Section 23.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 23-4. Define sexual selection. Explain which sex is more strongly affected by sexual selection, and why.

23 4

31) Refer to Figure 23.4. Male reproductive success, measured as the number of offspring surviving to adulthood (pupating), is found for two closely related beetle species and graphed above. Which of these statements would you expect to be true of sexual dimorphism in the two species? A) Species A should have greater sexual dimorphism than species B. B) Species B should have greater sexual dimorphism than species A. C) Species A and B should have about equal amounts of sexual dimorphism. D) Neither species should show any sexual dimorphism. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 23.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 23-4. Define sexual selection. Explain which sex is more strongly affected by sexual selection, and why.

Figure

32) Male turkeys have a snood, a flap of skin that hangs across their beak. Snood length is negatively correlated with parasite load (e.g., males with longer snoods have fewer parasites), and females prefer to mate with long-snooded males. This is an example of

A) the fundamental asymmetry of sex.

B) sexual selection via female choice.

C) sexual selection via male-male competition.

D) a genetic marker.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 23-4. Define sexual selection. Explain which sex is more strongly affected by sexual selection, and why.

33) Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disease caused by a recessive allele. The membrane protein involved in cystic fibrosis confers resistance to typhoid fever. Imagine that a drug-resistant form of typhoid fever becomes common worldwide, killing a significant proportion of the human population over a period of several decades. Which of the following would you expect to observe in the world population during this period?

A) no change in the frequency of cystic fibrosis

B) decrease in the frequency of cystic fibrosis

C) increase in the frequency of cystic fibrosis

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

LO: 23-2 Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease

34) Which of the following populations is most likely to be in Hardy—Weinberg equilibrium?

A) an isolated colony of bacteria in a lab under controlled conditions

B) a large flock of chickens on a farm, in which the farmer regularly adds new chickens from another farmer's flock

C) a large population of mice living on an island with lots of food and no predators

D) a small population of fish living in an aquarium

E) a culture of bacteria exposed to antibiotic

Answer: C

Explanation: The population is large, isolated, and not under any obvious selective pressure. Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 23-1. Test whether evolution or nonrandom mating is occurring at a particular gene, using the Hardy-Weinberg principle.

35) If an allele is found at a frequency of 0.8 in a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, and an individual is heterozygous for that allele, what is the probability they will pass on that allele to their offspring?

A) 0.8

B) 0.2

C) 0.5

D) 0.64

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 23-1. Test whether evolution or nonrandom mating is occurring at a particular gene, using the Hardy-Weinberg principle.

36) Which of the following is true?

A) Hardy-Weinberg can be used to examine only 1 gene at a time.

B) Hardy-Weinberg considers an organism's entire genotype (all genes).

C) Hardy-Weinberg can be used to examine more than 1 gene at a time.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23 1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 23-1 Test whether evolution or nonrandom mating is occurring at a particular gene, using the Hardy-Weinberg principle

# individuals

A1A1

A1A2

400 Genotype

A2A2

Use the information in the table above for the next question(s).

37) Given the information above, what is the frequency of the A2 allele in this population?

A) 0.75

B) 0.8

C) 0.85

D) 0.875

E) 0.9

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 23-1. Test whether evolution or nonrandom mating is occurring at a particular gene, using the Hardy-Weinberg principle.

38) Given the information above, what is the frequency of individuals with the A1A1 genotype? A) 0.1 B) 0.15 C) 0.2 D) 0.3 E) 0.4

Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 23.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 23-1. Test whether evolution or nonrandom mating is occurring at a particular gene, using the Hardy-Weinberg principle.

39) Given the information about the number of individuals of specific genotypes in the

table

above, what can you infer?

A) A2 is the dominant allele

B) The relative amounts of each allele.

C) The phenotype of the individuals with each genotype.

D) The phenotype of A1 is likely disadvantageous.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 23-1. Test whether evolution or nonrandom mating is occurring at a particular gene, using the Hardy-Weinberg principle.

40) Which of the following describes what we should expect when a population is in HardyWeinberg genetic equilibrium?

A) a sexually reproducing population that is increasing in size

B) an asexually reproducing population that is increasing in size

C) a sexually reproducing population that is not evolving

D) an asexually reproducing population that is not evolving

E) a sexually reproducing population that is evolving.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 23-1. Test whether evolution or nonrandom mating is occurring at a particular gene, using the Hardy-Weinberg principle.

41) In a population of parrots on an island, there is considerable variation in beak size. Parrots with small, thick beaks can efficiently eat locusts (insect), while birds with long, thin beaks can efficiently eat beetles. Both food types are available on the island. Which of the following types of selection, and effects on phenotypic variation would you expect to see?

A) Directional selection; phenotypic variation decreases.

B) Directional selection; phenotypic variation increases.

C) Disruptive selection; phenotypic variation decreases.

D) Disruptive selection; phenotypic variation is maintained.

E) Directional selection; phenotypic variation remains the same.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 23-2. Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease.

42) Which of the following best describes the effect of the migration of individuals into a population?

A) Migration of individuals into a population generally increases the genetic variability within the recipient population.

B) Migration of individuals into a population generally causes no change in the genetic variability within the recipient population because it is a case of artificial selection.

C) Migration of individuals into a population generally causes the recipient population to diverge so much that it becomes a new species.

D) Migration of individuals into a population generally decreases the genetic variability within the recipient population

E) Migration of individuals into a population generally increases the genetic variability within the donor population

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 23-2. Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease.

43) How do the founder effect and the immigration aspect of gene flow differ for the cheetah (Acinonyx jubatus)?

A) Gene flow involves cheetahs moving into an area with an established cheetah population, whereas founder effect involves cheetahs colonizing an area where there is no established cheetah population (but where there might be populations of other species).

B) Both gene flow and founder effect involve cheetahs moving into established populations of cheetahs.

C) Gene flow involves cheetahs moving into an area with an established population of another species (e.g., lions), whereas founder effect involves cheetahs moving into an area where there is an established cheetah population.

D) Both gene flow and founder effect involve cheetahs moving into an area where there is no established cheetah population.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 23-2. Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease.

44) A hurricane sweeps across the southern tip of Florida, killing salamanders randomly. Salamander colour is genetic, and, after the storm, scientists notice that the frequency of yellowbrown salamanders and green-brown salamanders has changed significantly. This is an example of a and we would predict that 20 generations after the storm the population would show .

A) founder effect; a lot of genetic variation

B) founder effect; speciation

C) founder effect; little genetic variation

D) bottleneck effect; little genetic variation

E) bottleneck effect; many useful adaptations to surviving floods

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 23-2. Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease.

45) Speller et al. (2010) analyzed turkey mitochondrial DNA haplotypes and reported that turkeys were domesticated by precontact native North American cultures in several independent events. Which of the following would be evidence of domestication of turkeys? A) High genetic variation in turkey tissues found at settlement sites compared to wild turkey tissues. B) Low genetic variation in wild turkeys relative to turkey tissues found at the settlement sites. C) Low genetic variation in turkey tissues found at settlement sites compared to wild turkey tissues. D) Similar amounts of genetic variation in wild turkeys relative to turkey tissues found at the settlement sites. Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 23.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 23-2. Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease. 46) Humans have domesticated a number of plants and animals. In the domestication process, a few individuals of a species are "captured" to have a starting population and then these are bred for many generations. This is an example of a and you would therefore predict that domesticated organisms would show . A) founder effect; a lot of genetic variation B) bottleneck effect; little genetic variation C) bottleneck effect; many useful adaptations for surviving floods D) gene flow; speciation E) founder effect; little genetic variation Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 23.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 23-2. Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease.

47) Which of the following is true with respect to natural selection and genetic drift? A) Both natural selection and genetic drift increase the average fitness of a population. B) Both natural selection and genetic drift are random processes. C) Both natural selection and genetic drift change the frequencies of alleles. D) Both natural selection and genetic drift have strong effects on large populations. E) Both natural selection and genetic drift increase variation. Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 23.2, 23.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension LO: 23-2. Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease. 48) Consider the following two scenarios: 1) A flash-flood sweeps through an area and random lemmings are killed, resulting in a change in lemming phenotype in subsequent generations; 2) A flash-flood sweeps through an area and some lemmings are able to survive because they are able to hold their breath longer than other lemmings, resulting in a change in lemming phenotype in subsequent generations. What are the primary differences between the two scenarios? A) Scenario 1 represents genetic drift, while Scenario 2 represents natural selection. B) Scenario 1 represents natural selection, while Scenario 2 represents genetic drift. C) Both scenarios represent genetic drift. D) Both scenarios represent natural selection. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 23.2, 23.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 23-2. Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease.

49) A population of 500 field mice exhibits black or grey coat colours in approximately equal proportions. An individual mouse has a mutation that results in a brown coat colour; this mutation is passed along to many of its 20 offspring, who also exhibit a brown phenotype. If frequency-dependent selection is operating, which of the following would be true?

A) Mice within the population would breed nonrandomly to avoid inbreeding depression.

B) Mice with the brown phenotype would have a higher fitness relative to individuals with black or grey coat colour.

C) Mice with the brown phenotype would have a lower relative fitness to individuals with black or grey coat colour.

D) Mice with the brown phenotype would have higher relative fitness if they were heterozygous.

E) There would be more heterozygous individuals in the population than expected according to HWE.

F) It is impossible to determine unless the type of selection is known.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 23-2. Describe the four evolutionary mechanisms, and list whether each one causes adaptation, introduces new alleles, acts randomly, or causes genetic variation to increase or decrease.

50) Dark-eyed junco birds have white outer tail feathers that the males display during aggressive interactions and also during courtship displays. Males with more white in their tail are more likely to win aggressive interactions with other males, and females prefer to mate with males with more white in their tails. In the case of juncos, aggression (fighting) by males is a type of selection; thus, we would expect that variation in reproductive success to be higher in and this species should exhibit sexual dimorphism

A) intrasexual; males; greater B) intersexual; males; less C) intrasexual; males; less D) intersexual; females; greater E) intrasexual; females; greater

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 23.6

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 23-4. Define sexual selection. Explain which sex is more strongly affected by sexual selection, and why.

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition

(Freeman et al.)

Chapter 24 Speciation

Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s).

Two populations of birds with somewhat different coloration live on opposite sides of a peninsula. The habitat between the populations is not suitable for these birds. When birds from the two populations are brought together, they produce young whose appearance is intermediate between the two parents. These offspring will breed with each other or with birds from either parent population, and all offspring of these pairings appear intermediate to various degrees.

1) What keeps the two populations separate?

A) temporal reproductive isolation

B) lack of hybrid viability

C) gametic barrier

D) geographic reproductive isolation

E) behavioural reproductive isolation

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24 1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

LO: 24-2. Define, compare, and contrast the four species concepts. Describe the advantages and disadvantages of the four different sets of criteria used to identify species.

2) The two populations are

A) different subspecies, under the morphospecies concept.

B) different species, under the biological species concept.

C) different species, under the phylogenetic species concept.

D) All of the above.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying LO: 24-2. Define, compare, and contrast the four species concepts. Describe the advantages and disadvantages of the four different sets of criteria used to identify species.

3) Three populations of crickets look very similar, but the males have courtship songs that sound different. What function would this difference in song likely serve if the populations came into contact?

A) a prezygotic isolating mechanism

B) a postzygotic isolating mechanism

C) both a prezygotic and a postzygotic isolating mechanism

D) intrasexual selection between a male of one population and males of the other two populations

E) intersexual selection between a male of one population and females of the other two populations

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

LO: 24-2. Define, compare, and contrast the four species concepts. Describe the advantages and disadvantages of the four different sets of criteria used to identify species.

4) Many songbirds breed in North America in the spring and summer and then migrate to Central and South America in the fall. They spend the winter in these warmer areas, where they feed and prepare for the spring migration north and another breeding season. Two hypothetical species of sparrow, A and B, overwinter together in mixed flocks in Costa Rica. In spring, species A goes to the east coast of North America, and species B goes to the west coast. What can you say about the isolating mechanisms of these two species?

A) They must have strong prezygotic or postzygotic isolating mechanisms in order to spend winter in such close proximity.

B) The two species do not breed in the same area, so they are reproductively isolated by allopatry

C) One of the species is probably polyploid, so they are reproductively isolated by genetic incompatibility

D) Reinforcement must be occurring when they winter together

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

LO: 24-3. Describe the processes of allopatric speciation and sympatric speciation and give an example of each.

5) A population of earthworms lives on an island in the middle of a river. Damming of the river causes flooding on the island, and only the highest points remain above water, creating several smaller islands with now-separate earthworm populations on them. The earthworms cannot swim. Which of the following best describes this event?

A) The earthworms have undergone speciation by allopatry.

B) The earthworms have undergone speciation by sympatry.

C) The earthworm populations have been isolated by dispersal.

D) The earthworm populations have been isolated by vicariance.

E) The earthworm populations will still have gene flow between them.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 24-3. Describe the processes of allopatric speciation and sympatric speciation and give an example of each.

6) The peppered moth has a light and dark colour morph; the light morph was common in preindustrial England. Increased pollution during the Industrial Revolution allowed dark morph moths to camouflage effectively against the dark, sooty background. Consequently, the dark morph became more common in industrial areas while the light morph remained common elsewhere. Recently, dark morph moths have been decreasing with reductions in pollution. Should the two morphs be considered separate species?

A) Yes, because natural selection has acted on the frequency of the two forms.

B) Yes, because they have very different phenotypes.

C) Yes, because the dark and light morphs have higher fitness in different habitats.

D) No, because there is no evidence that they are reproductively isolated

E) No, because they are not in allopatry

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24 1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 24-2. Define, compare, and contrast the four species concepts. Describe the advantages and disadvantages of the four different sets of criteria used to identify species.

Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s). About 3 million years ago, the Isthmus of Panama (a narrow strip of land connecting North and South America) formed, dividing marine organisms into Pacific and Caribbean populations. Researchers have examined species of snapping shrimp on both sides of the isthmus. Based on the morphospecies concept, there appeared to be seven pairs of species, with one species of each pair in the Pacific and the other in the Caribbean. The different species pairs live at somewhat different depths in the ocean. Using mitochondrial DNA sequences, the researchers estimated phylogenies and found that each of these species pairs, separated by the isthmus, were indeed each other's closest relatives. The researchers investigated mating in the lab and found that many species pairs were not very interested in courting with each other, and any that did mate almost never produced fertile offspring. (N. Knowlton, L. A. Weigt, L. A. Solorzano, D. K. Mills, and E. Bermingham. 1993. Divergence in proteins, mitochondrial DNA, and reproductive incompatibility across the Isthmus of Panama. Science 260:1629-32.) 7) The sister populations on opposite sides of the isthmus are true species under which species concept? A) the morphospecies concept B) the biological species concept C) the phylogenetic species concept D) both A and C E) all of the above Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 24.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 24-2. Define, compare, and contrast the four species concepts. Describe the advantages and disadvantages of the four different sets of criteria used to identify species. 8) If the isthmus formed gradually rather than suddenly, what pattern of genetic divergence would you expect to find in these species pairs? A) similar percentages of difference in DNA sequence between all pairs of sister species B) greater percentage of difference in DNA sequence between species that inhabit deep water than between species that inhabit shallow water C) greater percentage of difference in DNA sequence between species that inhabit shallow water than between species that inhabit deep water Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 24 2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 24-1 Explain the roles that gene flow, selection, genetic drift, and mutation play in the process of speciation

9) Which of the following describes the most likely order of events in speciation? A) genetic drift, genetic isolation, divergence B) genetic isolation, divergence, genetic drift C) divergence, genetic drift, genetic isolation D) divergence, genetic isolation, genetic drift E) genetic isolation, genetic drift, divergence Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 24.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 24-1. Explain the roles that gene flow, selection, genetic drift, and mutation play in the process of speciation. 10) You want to study divergence of populations, and you need to maximize the rate of divergence in order to see results within the period of your grant funding. You will form a new population by taking some individuals from a source population and isolating them so the two populations cannot interbreed. What combination of characteristics would maximize your chance of seeing divergence in this study?

1. Choose a random sample of individuals to form the new population.

2. Choose individuals from one extreme to form the new population.

3. Choose a species to study that produces many offspring.

4. Choose a species to study that produces a few, large offspring.

5. Place the new population in the same type of environment as the source population.

6. Place the new population in a novel environment compared to that of the source population. A) 1, 3, and 5 B) 1, 3, and 6 C) 2, 3, and 5 D) 2, 3, and 6 E) 2, 4, and 6 Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 24.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 24-3. Describe the processes of allopatric speciation and sympatric speciation and give an example of each.

11) In hybrid zones where reinforcement is occurring, you should see a decline in

A) gene flow between distinct gene pools.

B) speciation.

C) the genetic distinctness of two gene pools.

D) mutation rates.

E) hybrid sterility.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

LO: 24-2. Define, compare, and contrast the four species concepts. Describe the advantages and disadvantages of the four different sets of criteria used to identify species.

12) The snake family Typhlopidae consists of small, burrowing species with vestigial eyes. They are found in Australia, sub-Saharan Africa, India and some adjacent areas, and South America.

What is the most likely explanation for this distribution?

A) rafting to the different continents from the point of origin on one of these continents

B) convergent evolution in the different regions

C) origin on Gondwana followed by continental drift and some range expansion

D) all of the above

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 24-3. Describe the processes of allopatric speciation and sympatric speciation and give an example of each

13) How are two different species most likely to evolve from one ancestral species?

A) sympatrically, by a point mutation affecting morphology or behavior

B) allopatrically, after the ancestral species has split into two populations

C) phylogenetically, due to heterozygote advantage in hybrids

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24.2, 24.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 24-3. Describe the processes of allopatric speciation and sympatric speciation and give an example of each.

14) Which of the following could be a vicariance event for species in that habitat? A) The level of water in a lake recedes, creating two lakes where there used to be one. B) Some insects get blown in a storm to a new mountain range, where they lay eggs. C) Radiation near Chernobyl increases mutation rate, causing an increase in autopolypolidy. D) Nonnative rats are introduced to an island by human explorers. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 24.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 24-3. Describe the processes of allopatric speciation and sympatric speciation and give an example of each.

15) Which of the following does not tend to promote speciation?

A) the founder effect

B) gene flow

C) natural selection

D) polyploidy

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24.2, 24.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 24-1. Explain the roles that gene flow, selection, genetic drift, and mutation play in the process of speciation.

16) House finches were found only in western North America until 1939, when a few individuals were released in New York City. These individuals established a breeding population and gradually expanded their range. The western population also expanded its range somewhat eastward, and the two populations have recently come in contact. If the two forms were unable to interbreed when their expanding ranges meet, what would this situation illustrate?

A) vicariance

B) allopolyploidy

C) autopolyploidy

D) allopatric speciation

E) sympatric speciation

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24.2, 24.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 24-2. Define, compare, and contrast the four species concepts. Describe the advantages and disadvantages of the four different sets of criteria used to identify species.

17) Most causes of speciation are relatively slow, in that they may take many generations of organism to see changes, EXCEPT

A) polyploidy.

B) vicariance.

C) colonization.

D) natural selection.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 24-4. Explain how polyploidy can lead to speciation.

18) Two researchers experimentally formed tetraploid frogs by fertilizing diploid eggs from Rana porosa brevipoda with diploid sperm from Rana nigromaculata. When they mated these tetraploid frogs with each other, most of the offspring that survived to maturity were tetraploid, with chromosome sets of both diploid parent species. Based on these results, if this type of tetraploid formed in the wild, what would be the result? (Y. Kondo and A. Kashiwagi. 2004.

Experimentally induced autotetraploidy and allotetraploidy in two Japanese pond frogs. Journal of Herpetology 38(3):381-92.)

A) The two parent species would interbreed and fuse into one species.

B) The two parent species would recognize each other as mates.

C) The tetraploids would be reproductively isolated from both parent species.

D) The tetraploids would be selected against.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 24-4 Explain how polyploidy can lead to speciation

19) Why is speciation by polyploidy more likely in plants than in animals?

A) Plant gametes can be produced from somatic cells that have undergone many rounds of mitosis

B) Plant gametes lack postzygotic isolating mechanisms.

C) Plants lack the DNA repair enzymes that animals have.

D) Plants are sessile and cannot speciate via dispersal.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 24-4. Explain how polyploidy can lead to speciation.

20) Which of the following statements explains why animals are less likely than plants to speciate by polyploidy? A) Animals self-fertilize less often than plants, so diploid gametes are less likely to fuse. B) Animals have better mechanisms for repairing chromosomes than plants have. C) Animals are better at recognizing appropriate mates. D) Animals are more mobile, so populations get separated far less often. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 24.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 24-4. Explain how polyploidy can lead to speciation. 21) If a plant species with 2n = 14 forms an allopolyploid with a plant species with 2n = 18, what would be the likely diploid (2n) number of the allopolyploid? A) 16 B) 28 C) 32 D) 36 Answer: C Explanation: Student must visualize an error in duplication at a different stage than that depicted in Figure 24.11. Type: MC Reference: Section 24.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 24-4. Explain how polyploidy can lead to speciation. 22) A small number of birds arrive on an island from a neighboring larger island. This small population begins to adapt to the new food plants available on the island, and their beaks begin to change. About twice a year, one or two more birds from the neighboring island arrive. What effect do these new arrivals have? A) Their arrival speeds the process of speciation. B) Their arrival tends to promote adaptation to the new food plants. C) Their arrival tends to slow adaptation to the new food plants. D) Their arrival represents a colonizing event. Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 24.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 24-1. Explain the roles that gene flow, selection, genetic drift, and mutation play in the process of speciation.

23) A researcher notices that in a certain moth species, some females prefer to feed and lay eggs on domesticated solanaceous plants like potatoes and tomatoes. Other females prefer to feed and lay eggs on wild solanaceous plants like Datura. Both male and female moths primarily use scent to find these plants from afar. Females tend to mate where they feed, and the researcher finds a genetic basis for scent preference in these moths. Based on the above information, what might be occurring in this moth species?

A) divergence in sympatry

B) divergence due to vicariance

C) postzygotic isolation

D) polyploidization

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 24-3. Describe the processes of allopatric speciation and sympatric speciation and give an example of each.

24) You are studying lizards in the field. The range of the northern population, species 1, overlaps the range of the southern population, species 2. You find hybrids in the zone of overlap. What is happening?

A) Reinforcement is occurring.

B) The postzygotic isolating mechanisms aren't working.

C) Hybrids are best adapted to this region where overlap occurs.

D) There is not enough information to decide what is happening.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24 4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 24-5 Predict what may happen when two divergent populations come into contact again under various circumstances

25) A storm brings two formerly separated populations of beetles together They look very similar. Under the biological species concept, which of the following would show that the two populations are different species?

A) One population breeds in spring, the other in fall.

B) Males of the two populations have different flight patterns in courtship.

C) When individuals from the two populations mate with each other in the laboratory, the eggs fail to hatch.

D) All of the above are correct.

E) None of the above are correct.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 24-5. Predict what may happen when two divergent populations come into contact again under various circumstances.

26) The common edible frog of Europe is a hybrid between two species, Rana lessonae and Rana ridibunda. The hybrids were first described in 1758 and have a wide distribution, from France across central Europe to Russia. Both male and female hybrids exist, but when they mate among themselves, they are rarely successful in producing offspring. What can you infer from this information?

A) Postzygotic isolation exists between the two frog species.

B) Prezygotic isolation exists between the two frog species.

C) These two species are likely in the process of fusing back into one species.

D) The hybrids form a separate species under the biological species concept.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 24-5. Predict what may happen when two divergent populations come into contact again under various circumstances.

27) Male frogs give calls that attract female frogs to approach and mate. Researchers examined mating calls of closely related tree frogs in South America. If reinforcement of prezygotic isolation is occurring, what would you expect if you compare the calls of the two species in zones of sympatry versus zones of allopatry?

A) Calls would be about the same in both areas.

B) Calls would be more similar in areas of sympatry.

C) Calls would be more different in areas of sympatry.

D) There is not enough information to decide what is happening.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24 4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 24-5 Predict what may happen when two divergent populations come into contact again under various circumstances

28) Male frogs give calls that attract female frogs to approach and mate Researchers examined mating calls of closely related tree frogs in South America. What outcomes can occur where the ranges of two species overlap?

A) The species will interbreed, eventually fusing over time.

B) A stable hybrid zone will form if hybrids are better adapted to the area of overlap than either parent species is.

C) Species will continue to diverge and be isolated by behavioral or genetic mechanisms.

D) All of the above are possible outcomes.

E) None of the above are a possible outcome.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 24-5. Predict what may happen when two divergent populations come into contact again under various circumstances.

29) Two species of tree frogs that live sympatrically in the northeastern United States differ in ploidy: Hyla chrysocelis is diploid, and Hyla versicolor is tetraploid. The frogs are identical in appearance, but their mating calls, which females use to find mates, differ. Which difference most likely evolved first?

A) polyploidy

B) difference in mating calls

C) A and B must have occurred at the same time.

Answer: A

Explanation: This question illustrates reinforcement of prezygotic isolating mechanism (mating calls).

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 24-3. Describe the processes of allopatric speciation and sympatric speciation and give an example of each.

30) Natural selection for traits that keep distinct populations from reproducing with each other is called reinforcement. When is reinforcement beneficial?

A) when populations would otherwise fuse over time

B) when hybrids have lower fitness than either parent population

C) when prezygotic isolating mechanisms are in place

D) when one population could be overwhelmed by the other

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 24-5 Predict what may happen when two divergent populations come into contact again under various circumstances

31) Imagine two North American ground cricket species that contact each other as the southern species moves northward during a period of global warming These two species do not mate much, due to differences in their courtship songs The northern cricket does not seem to tolerate the warmer temperatures well, but is limited in its ability to move north because it does not normally disperse much. Based on this information, which is the most likely outcome?

A) fusion of the populations

B) reinforcement

C) hybrid zone formation

D) extinction of one of the species

E) creation of a new species

Answer: D

Explanation: This outcome is not covered in-depth its own section in the text, but is included in the 'Hybrid Zones' section. It is also listed as a possible outcome in Table 24.3.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

LO: 24-5. Predict what may happen when two divergent populations come into contact again under various circumstances.

32) Which of the following evolutionary processes is not acting when two groups of organisms are identified as different species according to the Biological Species Concept?

A) genetic drift

B) natural selection

C) mutation

D) gene flow

E) sexual selection

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 24-1. Explain the roles that gene flow, selection, genetic drift, and mutation play in the process of speciation.

33) Which of the following reproductive barriers would prevent a mating attempt?

A) behavioural isolation

B) mechanical isolation

C) hybrid sterility

D) gametic isolation

E) sexual selection

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 24-2. Define, compare, and contrast the four species concepts. Describe the advantages and disadvantages of the four different sets of criteria used to identify species

34) Which of the following reproductive barriers would prevent a hybrid zygote from developing into a viable, fertile adult?

A) behavioural isolation

B) gametic hybridization

C) mechanical isolation

D) hybrid sterility

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 24-2. Define, compare, and contrast the four species concepts. Describe the advantages and disadvantages of the four different sets of criteria used to identify species.

35) You are studying two populations of spiders of the Dolomedes genus, characterized by a light stripe down each side of the body. One population lives in a pond, while another nearby population lives in the trees. Which of the following species concept would you be using if you determined that these were two different species?

A) biological

B) morphospecies

C) phylogenetic

D) ecological

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 24-2. Define, compare, and contrast the four species concepts. Describe the advantages and disadvantages of the four different sets of criteria used to identify species.

36) Which of the following is a disadvantage of the morphological species concept?

A) It cannot be used to evaluate fossils.

B) It is subjective in nature, with differences of opinion that cannot be resolved by data.

C) Two groups may use very similar resources, but be evolutionarily independent.

D) Reliable information exists only for a small number of organisms.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 24-2. Define, compare, and contrast the four species concepts. Describe the advantages and disadvantages of the four different sets of criteria used to identify species

37) Six potential species of seaside sparrows were genetically analyzed to determine their phylogenetic relationships DNA analysis revealed that there were only two monophyletic groups with individuals from three subspecies making up each group The three Atlantic coast subspecies formed one monophyletic group, while the three Gulf coast subspecies made up the other monophyletic group If you could only save two subspecies of the seaside sparrows from extinction, would you choose two subspecies from the Atlantic coast, two from the Gulf coast, or one each from the Atlantic and Gulf coasts?

A) Save one each from the Atlantic and Gulf coasts to preserve more genetic diversity.

B) Save two subspecies from the Atlantic coast, as this coastline is longer and more likely to provide habitat for the birds.

C) Save two subspecies from the Gulf coast, as this area is much warmer and birds are more likely to survive.

Answer: A

Explanation: This question is directly from the textbook (Fig. 24.3)

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 24-2. Define, compare, and contrast the four species concepts. Describe the advantages and disadvantages of the four different sets of criteria used to identify species.

38) Which of the following is true regarding speciation by polyploidy?

A) Allopatric speciation is faster than sympatric speciation by polyploidy.

B) Scientists have only identified two cases of allopolyploidy leading to speciation in nature.

C) Speciation by polyploidy occurs at similar rates in animals and plants.

D) Polyploids have higher levels of heterozygosity than their diploid relatives.

E) Polyploidy results in decreased rates of speciation.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

LO: 24-4. Explain how polyploidy can lead to speciation.

39) A population of ground squirrels is separated by a glacier. Changes in which of the following would most likely result in reproductive isolation if the two populations came into contact several generations later?

A) A change in the fur colour of one group.

B) A change in the diet of one group.

C) A change in the gene encoding of a receptor on the egg-cell surface in one group.

D) A change in the alarm call of one group to warn of predators.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 24-3. Describe the processes of allopatric speciation and sympatric speciation and give an example of each.

40) A species of groundhog spreads through an environmentally varying region surrounding a lake; the different populations, each in their own environments, accumulate habitat-specific morphological traits Which of the following is this an example of?

A) allopatric speciation

B) sub-species

C) species cluster

D) founder effect

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 24.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 24-2. Define, compare, and contrast the four species concepts. Describe the advantages and disadvantages of the four different sets of criteria used to identify species.

41) Two stickleback species live in sympatry. These species exhibit morphological divergence as they each exploit either the benthic (bottom) or the limnetic (deeper, openwater) environment. Occasionally, the two kinds mate, resulting in hybrid offspring. Which of the following is a potential reason for maintenance of these two separate groups despite the occasional hybridization event? A) Hybrids share traits of both species, and thus are specialized and able to hunt well in either environment. B) Hybrids share traits of both species, and thus are able to attract mates of either species. C) Hybrids share traits of both species, and thus are not specialized to either environment in terms of hunting. D) Hybrids share traits of both species, and thus may not have specific traits to attract mates of either species. E) Both A and B. F) Both C and D. Answer: F Type: MC Reference: Canadian Research 24.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 24-5. Predict what may happen when two divergent populations come into contact again under various circumstances.

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition (Freeman et al.)

Chapter 25 Phylogenies and the History of Life

1) Proposed number of Hox genes in some extant and extinct animal groups

Which of the following is the most parsimonious explanation for the change in the number of Hox genes from the last common ancestor of insects and vertebrates to ancestral vertebrates, as shown in the table provided?

A) the occurrence of seven independent duplications of individual Hox genes

B) the occurrence of two distinct duplications of the entire seven-gene cluster, followed by the loss of one cluster

C) the occurrence of a single duplication of the entire seven-gene cluster

D) two distinct duplications of a three-gene cluster of Hox genes, followed by an independent duplication of an individual Hox gene

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 25 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 25-1. Draw and interpret phylogenetic trees, and understand how they depict specific hypotheses of evolutionary relatedness.

2) The cladistic approach to estimating phylogenetic trees is most like the approach of which species concept?

A) morphospecies concept

B) biological species concept

C) phylogenetic species concept

Answer: C

Explanation: This question draws on information about species concepts from Chapter 24

Type: MC

Reference: Section 25 1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 25-1 Draw and interpret phylogenetic trees, and understand how they depict specific hypotheses of evolutionary relatedness

3) Which of the following is a monophyletic group?

A) fishes

B) amphibians

C) dinosaurs (excluding birds)

D) mammals

E) all of the above

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 25.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

LO: 25-1. Draw and interpret phylogenetic trees, and understand how they depict specific hypotheses of evolutionary relatedness.

25.1

4) Which of the following trees depicts the same relationship among species as shown in Figure 25.1? A)

D) None; the above trees all depict a different relationship among species.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 25.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Analyzing

LO: 25-1. Draw and interpret phylogenetic trees, and understand how they depict specific hypotheses of evolutionary relatedness.

Figure

5) Which of the following would be useful in creating a phylogenetic tree of a taxon?

A) morphological data from fossil species

B) genetic sequences from living species

C) behavioral data from living species

D) all of the above

E) none of the above

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 25.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 25-1. Draw and interpret phylogenetic trees, and understand how they depict specific hypotheses of evolutionary relatedness.

6) Your professor wants you to construct a phylogenetic tree of orchids. She gives you tissue from seven orchid species and one lily. What is the most likely reason she gave you the lily?

A) to serve as an out-group

B) to see if it's a cryptic orchid species

C) to see if the lily and the orchids show all the same shared derived characters (synapomorphies)

D) to see if you were paying attention

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 25.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 25-1. Draw and interpret phylogenetic trees, and understand how they depict specific hypotheses of evolutionary relatedness

7) Which of the following statements best describes the rationale for applying the principle of parsimony in constructing phylogenetic trees?

A) Parsimony allows the researcher to "root" the tree

B) Similarity due to common ancestry should be more common than similarity due to convergent evolution

C) Parsimony ensures there will be no homoplasous traits in the tree.

D) Parsimony helps clarify the goals of evolution.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 25.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 25-1. Draw and interpret phylogenetic trees, and understand how they depict specific hypotheses of evolutionary relatedness.

Figure 25.2

8) In the phylogenetic trees above, numbers represent species and the same species are shown in both trees. Which two species are represented as sister species in Tree 2 but are not shown as sister species in Tree 1? A) 1 and 2 B) 2 and 3 C) 3 and 4 D) 5 and 6 E) The two trees show all the same phylogenetic relationships. Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 25.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Analyzing LO: 25-1. Draw and interpret phylogenetic trees, and understand how they depict specific hypotheses of evolutionary relatedness.

Figure 25.3

9) Applying the principle of parsimony to the trait "ability to fly," which of the two phylogenetic trees above is most parsimonious? A) Tree 1 B) Tree 2 C) Both trees are equally parsimonious. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 25.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Analyzing LO: 25-1. Draw and interpret phylogenetic trees, and understand how they depict specific hypotheses of evolutionary relatedness.

10) Which of the following statements is true about a phylogeny, as represented by a phylogenetic tree?

A) Descendant groups (branches) from the same node do not necessarily share any derived characters.

B) A monophyletic group can be properly based on convergent features in addition to synapomorphies.

C) The outgroup has mostly ancestral traits relative to the rest of the branches.

D) All of the above answers are correct.

E) None of the above answers are correct.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 25.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 25-1. Draw and interpret phylogenetic trees, and understand how they depict specific hypotheses of evolutionary relatedness.

11)

Species X

Species Y

Species W 1 1 1 1 Trait 1 Trait 2 Trait 3

Species Z

Based on the table provided, which of the following traits is/are useful in generating a phylogeny for species W, X, Y, and Z?

A) Traits 1 and 2

B) Traits 1 and 3

C) Traits 2 and 3

D) Trait 2 only

E) Trait 3 only

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 25.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Analyzing

LO: 25-1. Draw and interpret phylogenetic trees, and understand how they depict specific hypotheses of evolutionary relatedness.

12) Which of the following is an example of homoplasy?

A) fur in bears and seals

B) cell walls in plants and fungi

C) chlorophyll in flowering plants and algae

D) scales in snakes and lizards

Answer: B

Explanation: This question requires students to remember that plant cell walls are made of cellulose and fungal cell walls are made of chitin (Chapter 5).

Type: MC

Reference: Section 25.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 25-1. Draw and interpret phylogenetic trees, and understand how they depict specific hypotheses of evolutionary relatedness.

13) For the streamlined bodies shown in Figure 25.4 above to be homologous instead of homoplasious, which of the following groups would you expect to also have streamlined bodies? Assume the trait was not lost in any of the lineages on the phylogenetic tree in Figure 25.4.

A) lizards and elephants

B) pterosaurs, dinosaurs, birds, and lizards

C) synapsids, monotremes, marsupials, elephants, primates, and rodents

D) all of the above

E) either B or C

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 25 1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing LO: 25-1 Draw and interpret phylogenetic trees, and understand how they depict specific hypotheses of evolutionary relatedness

Figure 25.4

14) Some beetles and flies have antler-like structures on their heads, much like male deer do. The existence of antlers in beetle, fly, and deer species with strong male-male competition is an example of A) convergent evolution. B) a synapomorphy. C) homology. D) parsimony. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 25.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 25-1. Draw and interpret phylogenetic trees, and understand how they depict specific hypotheses of evolutionary relatedness. 15) Which of the following organisms would be most likely to fossilize? A) a rare worm B) a common worm C) a rare squirrel D) a common squirrel Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 25.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 25-2. Describe how fossils form. List the major strengths and limitations of the fossil record. 16) Which of the following would be least likely in the fossil record? A) burrowing species B) marine-dwelling species C) marsh-dwelling species D) desert-dwelling species Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 25.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 25-2. Describe how fossils form. List the major strengths and limitations of the fossil record.

17) You find a new fossil deposit, containing many species with shells but no soft-bodied species. What is the most likely reason for this? A) Soft-bodied species were rare or absent at this time and location. B) Conditions were not right to fossilize soft-bodied organisms. C) There was a mass extinction event among hard-bodied, but not soft-bodied, species at this location. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 25.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 25-2. Describe how fossils form. List the major strengths and limitations of the fossil record. 18) In plant communities today, leaf morphology is correlated with mean annual temperature, so paleobotanists use fossil leaf morphology to estimate the mean annual temperature of paleoclimates. However, the angiosperm fossil record contains an overabundance of samples fossilized near lakes or rivers where vines are especially common. Since vine leaves have a somewhat different association with temperature, use of data from vine-rich locations leads to mean average temperature estimates that are lower than actual recorded temperatures in modern plant communities. This potential bias in paleobotanical climate estimates is due to which type of bias in the fossil record? (R. J. Burnham, N. C. A. Pitman, K. R. Johnson, and P. Wilf. 2001. Habitat-related error in estimating temperature from leaf margins in a humid tropical forest. American Journal of Botany 88:1096-1102.) A) Taxonomic bias B) Temporal bias C) Habitat bias D) Abundance bias Answer: C Explanation: First word of article title gives a hint to student. Professor might choose to black out the word habitat to make this question more challenging. Type: MC Reference: Section 25.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 25-2. Describe how fossils form. List the major strengths and limitations of the fossil record. 19) Which listing of geological periods is in the correct order, from oldest to most recent? A) Cambrian, Devonian, Permian, Cretaceous B) Devonian, Cambrian, Permian, Cretaceous C) Cambrian, Permian, Devonian, Cretaceous D) Permian, Cambrian, Cretaceous, Devonian Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 25 2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 25-3 Name the three major eras of the Phanerozoic, and list the major evolutionary events and dominant taxa characteristic of each era

20) The Mesozoic era is nicknamed the Age of Reptiles and the Cenozoic era is nicknamed the Age of Mammals. What do these nicknames mean?

A) They indicate that the two eras are about the same length, because one lineage dominates the fauna of Earth only for a set period of time.

B) They identify the time of greatest diversity of these groups in the fossil record.

C) They identify the point of origin of these groups in the fossil record.

D) Both A and C are true.

E) Both B and C are true.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 25.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 25-3. Name the three major eras of the Phanerozoic, and list the major evolutionary events and dominant taxa characteristic of each era.

25.5

21) Which of the following words describe(s) the circled part of the phylogenetic tree in Figure 25.5?

I) monophyletic group

II) polyphyletic group

III) homoplasic trait

IV) polytomy

A) I only

B) II only

C) I and IV

D) II and III

E) II, III, and IV

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 25 1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Analyzing

LO: 25-1 Draw and interpret phylogenetic trees, and understand how they depict specific hypotheses of evolutionary relatedness

Figure

22) How did the pattern shown in the circled part of Figure 25.5 most likely arise?

A) adaptive radiation

B) mass extinction

C) background extinction

D) allopatric speciation

E) convergent evolution

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 25.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

LO: 25-1. Draw and interpret phylogenetic trees, and understand how they depict specific hypotheses of evolutionary relatedness.

23) Dinosaurs were the largest land vertebrates during the era(s).

A) Mesozoic

B) Paleozoic

C) Cenozoic

D) Paleozoic and Cenozoic

E) Precambrian

Answer: A

Explanation: Instructor can add in some eons or periods as possible answers to test whether students remember the difference between eras and other units of geological time.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 25.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

LO: 25-3 Name the three major eras of the Phanerozoic, and list the major evolutionary events and dominant taxa characteristic of each era

24) The five mass extinctions occurred at the end of which periods?

A) Triassic, Devonian, Permian, Cretaceous, Ordovician

B) Devonian, Cambrian, Jurassic, Cretaceous, Permian

C) Ordovician, Silurian, Cambrian, Devonian, Carboniferous

D) Jurassic, Cretaceous, Cambrian, Carboniferous, Silurian

E) Permian, Cretaceous, Devonian, Carboniferous, Silurian

Answer: A

Explanation: Can be made simpler by listing periods in chronological order

Type: MC

Reference: Section 25.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

LO: 25-3. Name the three major eras of the Phanerozoic, and list the major evolutionary events and dominant taxa characteristic of each era.

25) Which statement best describes why the Cambrian explosion was important? A) because good fossils from this period are available to study B) because there was an explosion in animal abundance C) because there was an explosion in ecological diversity among animals D) because plant and animal fossils were found together for the first time

Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 25.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 25-3. Name the three major eras of the Phanerozoic, and list the major evolutionary events and dominant taxa characteristic of each era.

26) Which of the following key adaptations is found in many animals from the Burgess Shale fauna, but not found in the Doushantuo and Ediacaran faunas?

A) mouthparts

B) segmentation

C) burrow formation

D) multicellularity

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 25.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 25-3. Name the three major eras of the Phanerozoic, and list the major evolutionary events and dominant taxa characteristic of each era.

27) Which of the following likely has the most Hox genes?

A) jellyfish

B) slugs

C) dolphins

D) bees

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 25.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 25-4. Describe why adaptive radiations occur, and give several examples.

28) Why would gene duplication events, such as those seen in the Hox gene complex, set the stage for adaptive radiation?

A) There are more copies of genes, meaning speciation had occurred by polyploidy.

B) The original gene copy is the out-group, and the new gene copies are the adaptive radiation.

C) Without duplicated genes, species would be vulnerable to extinction.

D) One copy of a gene can perform the original function while other copies are available to take on new functions.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 25.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 25-4. Describe why adaptive radiations occur, and give several examples.

29) Which of the following catastrophes is linked to the end-Permian mass extinction?

A) A meteor impact filled the atmosphere with ash and dust, blocking out the Sun and causing global cooling.

B) Flood basalts caused a massive spike in atmospheric CO2, leading to extreme global warming.

C) Glaciers covered most of the land and shallow seas, preventing plant growth.

D) Earthquakes and tsunamis destroyed much of Earth's surface, killing most land-dwelling organisms.

E) Volcanic eruptions cooled the planet by shading incoming solar radiation.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 25.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge

LO: 25-5. Explain the difference between mass extinction and background extinction. Describe what is (and isn't) known about the causes of the end-Cretaceous and end-Permian mass extinctions

30) All of the following events can trigger an adaptive radiation EXCEPT

A) a vicariance event splitting the habitat.

B) the evolution of a new morphological feature.

C) the colonization of a new habitat.

D) the extinction of competitors.

E) gene duplication events.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 25.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 25-4. Describe why adaptive radiations occur, and give several examples.

31) A hypothetical island lies far from any other landmasses. There are many different types of plants, but only one animal a beetle that can fly or walk from plant to plant and feeds by chewing leaves. Which morphological change would be most likely to trigger an adaptive radiation of the beetles?

A) a change in wing shape that improves flight speed

B) an additional segment on a pair of legs

C) a mouthpart that can pierce fruits and seeds

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 25.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 25-4. Describe why adaptive radiations occur, and give several examples.

32) Islands are well known for having many endemic species species that are unique to that location. What is a likely explanation for this pattern?

A) Colonizers encounter fewer competitors on an island, so they can diversify.

B) Islands are more complex habitats than continents are, so they have more niches for specialization.

C) Humans bring partly or fully domesticated species with them when they arrive on islands.

D) The type of organism that is a good colonizer has more than the average amount of genetic variability, so it's more likely to speciate.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 25.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 25-4 Describe why adaptive radiations occur, and give several examples

33) The largest extinction, measured as a percentage of species that disappeared, occurred at the end of which geological period?

A) Permian

B) Cretaceous

C) Tertiary

D) Devonian

E) Silurian

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 25.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 25-5. Explain the difference between mass extinction and background extinction. Describe what is (and isn't) known about the causes of the end-Cretaceous and end-Permian mass extinctions.

34) How do mass extinctions differ from background extinctions?

A) Mass extinctions account for most species that have gone extinct in the history of life on Earth.

B) It is now recognized that mass extinctions but not background extinctions are generally caused by asteroid impacts.

C) Mass extinctions involve a relatively rapid extinction of a large proportion of organisms that were alive at that time.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 25.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 25-5. Explain the difference between mass extinction and background extinction. Describe what is (and isn't) known about the causes of the end-Cretaceous and end-Permian mass extinctions.

35) What is still lacking in the hypothesis of an asteroid impact as the cause of the endCretaceous mass extinction?

A) evidence of the location where an asteroid hit Earth

B) evidence that an asteroid hit Earth at the time of the extinctions (65 million years ago)

C) a convincing explanation of why mammals radiated after the event

D) a convincing explanation of why some lineages survived while others vanished

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 25.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 25-5 Explain the difference between mass extinction and background extinction Describe what is (and isn't) known about the causes of the end-Cretaceous and end-Permian mass extinctions

36) Which of the following organisms would be most likely to fossilize?

A) a species of rat that lives in the desert

B) a species of clam found in a shallow marine habitat

C) a species of slug that lives in the rain forest

D) a species of flower found in Ontario forests

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 25.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 25-2. Describe how fossils form. List the major strengths and limitations of the fossil record.

37) Dicynodonts were pig-sized reptiles that lived during the Permian geologic period. An increase in dicynodont species diversity occurred soon after the Permian extinction. Given what you know of this period, this increase in dicynodont species diversity represents , most likely due to .

A) competitive exclusion; the fact that they needed new food sources

B) adaptive radiation; a morphological innovation among dicynodonts

C) adaptive radiation; the availability of previously unoccupied niches

D) competitive exclusion; intrasexual selection leading to anagenesis

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 25.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 25-4. Describe why adaptive radiations occur, and give several examples.

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition

Chapter 26 Bacteria and Archaea

(Freeman et al.)

1) What organisms are most numerous on Earth?

A) eukaryotes

B) archaea

C) prokaryotes

D) plants

E) insects

Answer: C

Explanation: Prokaryotes are the most abundant. The term prokaryote includes both bacteria and archaea, so obviously prokaryotes are more abundant than any of their constituent groups.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 26 1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 26-1 Defend the statement that bacteria and archaea are the most important, diverse, and abundant organisms on the planet

2) To establish a link between a specific bacterium and a skin disease, researchers have shown that bacterium was present in sick persons but not in healthy individuals They isolated the bacterium in a pure culture and demonstrated that experimental healthy animals injected with this culture became sick. What other experiment do researchers need to perform to be absolutely sure that the bacterium is responsible for the disease?

A) Demonstrate that the bacterium belongs to the pathogenic lineage.

B) Demonstrate that the bacterium is not able to live outside of humans or animals.

C) Isolate bacterium from an infected sick animal and demonstrate that it is the same bacterium as the one used for infection.

D) Demonstrate all of the above.

E) No experiments need to be done, because there are enough data to establish that skin disease is caused by the investigated bacterium.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 26.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 26-6. Provide examples of the key roles of bacteria in bioremediation, human health, and ecosystems.

3) What do Bacteria have in common with Archaea but not with Eukarya?

A) unicellular structure

B) peptidoglycan cell walls

C) transcription mechanism begins with formylmethionine

D) absence of nucleus

E) all of the above

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Introduction

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 26-1. Defend the statement that bacteria and archaea are the most important, diverse, and abundant organisms on the planet.

4) While examining a rock surface, you have discovered an interesting new organism. Which of the following criteria will allow you to classify the organism as belonging to Bacteria, but not Archaea or Eukarya?

A) It is unicellular.

B) Its cell walls are made primarily of peptidoglycan.

C) The organism does not have nucleus.

D) It can survive at a temperature over 100°C.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 26.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 26-1. Defend the statement that bacteria and archaea are the most important, diverse, and abundant organisms on the planet

5) Which of the following describe all existing bacteria?

A) pathogenic, omnipresent, morphologically diverse

B) extremophiles, tiny, abundant

C) small, harmful, fast-growing

D) tiny, ubiquitous, metabolically diverse

E) all of the above

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 26.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 26-1. Defend the statement that bacteria and archaea are the most important, diverse, and abundant organisms on the planet.

6) Multicellularity and large body size of eukaryotic organisms requires high metabolic rates and efficient ATP production by aerobic respiration. How did bacteria change Earth's atmosphere to enable aerobic respiration? A) Oxygenic photosynthesis by cyanobacteria significantly increased the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere. B) Splitting of water during anaerobic respiration by cyanobacteria dramatically increased the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere. C) Nitrogen fixation by cyanobacteria decreased the amount of nitrogen in the atmosphere, leading to simultaneous increase of oxygen. D) Anaerobic respiration by cyanobacteria increased the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere by reducing the amount of iron oxides that are able to react instantly with oxygen. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 26.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 26-1. Defend the statement that bacteria and archaea are the most important, diverse, and abundant organisms on the planet. 7) A water sample from a hot thermal vent contained a singlecelled organism that had a cell wall but lacked a nucleus. What is its most likely classification? A) Eukarya B) Archaea C) Animalia D) Protista E) Fungi Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 26.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 26-1. Defend the statement that bacteria and archaea are the most important, diverse, and abundant organisms on the planet. 8) What are the chemicals secreted by soil fungi that inhibit the growth of bacteria known as? A) antibodies B) aflatoxins C) hallucinogens D) antigens E) antibiotics Answer: E Explanation: Antibiotics are molecules that kill bacteria or stop them from growing. Type: MC Reference: Section 26.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 26-1 & 6. Defend the statement that bacteria and archaea are the most important, diverse, and abundant organisms on the planet. Provide examples of the key roles of bacteria in bioremediation, human health, and ecosystems.

9) What is the goal of bioremediation?

A) Improve human health with the help of living organisms such as bacteria.

B) Clean up areas polluted with toxic compounds by using bacteria.

C) Improve soil quality for plant growth by using bacteria.

D) Improve bacteria for production of useful chemicals.

E) All of the above are correct.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 26.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 26-6. Provide examples of the key roles of bacteria in bioremediation, human health, and ecosystems.

10) Starting in 1945, Escherichia coli became a bacterium of choice to study basic cellular processes and gene function. What specific feature of E. coli is responsible for its rise to prominence as a model system?

A) ability to grow in suspension culture and on agar plates

B) ability to transfer a copy of a plasmid from one cell to another

C) very fast growth rate

D) the fact that it has small, circular DNA

Answer: B

Explanation: All of the characteristics cited in the answers were important in making E. coli a good model bacterium, but other bacteria were known to have them. Only E. coli at that time was known to transfer a copy of a plasmid from one cell to another.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 26 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 26-6 Provide examples of the key roles of bacteria in bioremediation, human health, and ecosystems

11) You have decided to grow E coli to isolate a specific enzyme For your experiment, which of the following conditions would enable you to grow a maximum amount of bacteria in the shortest time possible?

A) growing in suspension culture at 25°C

B) growing on agar plates at 25°C

C) growing in suspension culture at 37°C

D) growing on agar plates at 37°C

E) As long as you grow bacteria at 25°C, it does not matter if they are grown on agar plates or in suspension culture.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 26.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 26-6. Provide examples of the key roles of bacteria in bioremediation, human health, and ecosystems.

12) You might be interested to know how many different types of bacteria live on the shower curtain in your bathroom. What is the most efficient method for answering this question?

A) enrichment culture

B) direct sequencing

C) Enrichment culture and direct sequencing are equally efficient methods.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 26.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 26-6. Provide examples of the key roles of bacteria in bioremediation, human health, and ecosystems.

13) You need to identify the major type of bacteria living on the shower curtain in your bathroom and find out what they use as a food source. What is the most efficient method for answering this question?

A) enrichment culture

B) direct sequencing

C) Enrichment culture and direct sequencing are equally efficient methods.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 26 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 26-6 Provide examples of the key roles of bacteria in bioremediation, human health, and ecosystems

14) Researchers have found a new type of bacteria, and they want to determine its phylum. What would be the most reliable method to do so?

A) Conduct a Gram-stain test.

B) Perform an analysis of metabolic pathways.

C) Determine the ribosomal RNA sequence of the bacteria.

D) Analyze the morphological characteristics of the bacteria.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 26 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 26-6 Provide examples of the key roles of bacteria in bioremediation, human health, and ecosystems

15) Which are evolutionarily more closely related?

A) bacteria and archaea

B) archaea and eukarya

C) bacteria and eukarya

D) Bacteria, eukarya, and archaea are equally related to each other.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 26.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 26-4. Explain why lateral gene transfer makes it challenging to determine the evolutionary relationships among major lineages in Bacteria and Archaea.

16) What is the right progression of steps for a direct-sequencing experiment?

A) Lyse cells, purify DNA, amplify genes by PCR, and insert genes into plasmids.

B) Lyse cells, insert genes into plasmid, purify DNA, and amplify genes by PCR.

C) Lyse cells, insert genes into plasmid, amplify genes by PCR, and purify DNA.

D) Purify DNA, amplify genes by PCR, lyse cells, and insert genes into plasmid.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 26.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 26-6 Provide examples of the key roles of bacteria in bioremediation, human health, and ecosystems

17) An organic solvent widely used in industrial processes 1,1,1-trichloroethane (TCA) is a major environmental pollutant affecting human health and damaging the ozone layer. Recently, researchers isolated the first bacteria able to degrade TCA. They found that the bacteria use hydrogen as an electron donor, TCA as electron acceptor, and acetate as a carbon source. Based on the preceding information, deduce the method used to isolate these bacteria.

A) Gram staining

B) enrichment culture

C) direct sequencing

D) seeding

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 26.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 26-6 Provide examples of the key roles of bacteria in bioremediation, human health, and ecosystems

18) Microbiologists use the Gram stain to aid in identification of bacteria. What is the major difference between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria?

A) structure of the lipids in the plasma membrane

B) presence or absence of muramic acid in the cell wall

C) presence or absence of peptidoglycan in the cell wall

D) presence or absence of outer membrane

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 26.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 26-6. Provide examples of the key roles of bacteria in bioremediation, human health, and ecosystems.

19) Imagine that you are given some chemoorganotrophic bacteria to grow. What should you use as a source of energy for this type of bacteria?

A) light

B) methane

C) ammonia

D) sugar

E) any of the above

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 26.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 26-5. Explain the six "feeding strategies" that bacteria and archaea use to produce ATP and obtain carbon building blocks

20) Biologists sometimes divide living organisms into two groups: autotrophs and heterotrophs How do these two groups differ?

A) They use different sources of energy

B) They use different electron acceptors

C) They use different sources of carbon

D) They differ in the way they generate ATP.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 26.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 26-5. Explain the six "feeding strategies" that bacteria and archaea use to produce ATP and obtain carbon building blocks.

21) A newly discovered organism is found to use hydrogen sulfide (H2S) for aerobic respiration and carbon dioxide (CO2) from the air as a source of carbon, much like a plant This organism must be a

A) photoautotroph.

B) chemoorganoautotroph.

C) photoheterotroph.

D) chemolithotrophic heterotroph.

E) chemolithoautotroph.

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 26.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 26-5. Explain the six "feeding strategies" that bacteria and archaea use to produce ATP and obtain carbon building blocks.

22) Which of the following can a chemolithotrophic bacteria use as a source of energy?

A) light

B) glucose

C) water

D) ammonia

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 26.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 26-5. Explain the six "feeding strategies" that bacteria and archaea use to produce ATP and obtain carbon building blocks.

23) Which of the following is correct?

A) During oxygenic photosynthesis, water is used as a source of electrons; during non-oxygenic photosynthesis, hydrogen sulfide is used as a source of electrons.

B) During oxygenic photosynthesis, hydrogen sulfide is used as a source of electrons; during non-oxygenic photosynthesis, water is used as a source of electrons.

C) During oxygenic photosynthesis, oxygen is used as a source of electrons; during nonoxygenic photosynthesis, water is used as a source of electrons.

D) During oxygenic photosynthesis, oxygen is used as a source of electrons; during nonoxygenic photosynthesis, hydrogen sulfide is used as a source of electrons.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 26.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 26-5. Explain the six "feeding strategies" that bacteria and archaea use to produce ATP and obtain carbon building blocks.

24) What is the major goal of cellular respiration? A) reduce an electron acceptor molecule

B) supply cell with fixed carbon C) produce ATP

D) generate O2

E) All of the above answers apply

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 26.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 26-5. Explain the six "feeding strategies" that bacteria and archaea use to produce ATP and obtain carbon building blocks.

25) What kind of molecules serve as electron acceptors in cellular respiration?

A) water

B) polar molecules

C) molecules with high potential energy

D) molecules with low potential energy

E) molecules in an excited state

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 26.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 26-5. Explain the six "feeding strategies" that bacteria and archaea use to produce ATP and obtain carbon building blocks.

26) When some bacteria use lactose as a source of energy, they produce propionic acid and CO2.

What is the name for this process?

A) fermentation

B) cellular respiration

C) chemical synthesis

D) photosynthesis

E) carbon fixation

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 26.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 26-5 Explain the six "feeding strategies" that bacteria and archaea use to produce ATP and obtain carbon building blocks

27) Bacteria participate in the nitrogen cycle through which mechanism?

A) nitrogen fixation

B) nitrification

C) denitrification

D) decomposition

E) all of the above

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 26.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 26-5. Explain the six "feeding strategies" that bacteria and archaea use to produce ATP and obtain carbon building blocks.

28) During cellular respiration, some bacteria use CH4 as an electron donor and O2 as an electron acceptor. What is the name for this group of bacteria?

A) methanogens

B) methanotrophs

C) organotrophs

D) nitrifiers

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 26 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 26-5 Explain the six "feeding strategies" that bacteria and archaea use to produce ATP and obtain carbon building blocks

29) A bacterium was grown in two test tubes filled with media rich in glucose. One tube was sealed to produce anaerobic conditions, and the other was not. A third uninoculated, unsealed tube was used as a control. Glucose utilization by this bacterium causes acid production, which is indicated by a lightening of the media colour. If the bacterium is able to produce ATP only by respiration, which result do you expect to receive?

A) lightening of media in the sealed tube only

B) lightening of media in the unsealed tube only

C) lightening of media in the sealed and unsealed tubes only

D) lightening of media in the control tube only

E) lightening of media in all three tubes

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 26.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 26-5. Explain the six "feeding strategies" that bacteria and archaea use to produce ATP and obtain carbon building blocks.

30) Bacteria able to perform the NH4+ + NO2- → N2 + 2H2O reaction have been discovered in laboratory bioreactors and wastewater treatment systems. Researchers predicted that these bacteria should exist in oceans. They measured the concentration of NH4+, NO2-, NO3-, and O2 in the Black Sea as a function of water depth (M. Kuypers et al. 2003 Anaerobic ammonium oxidation by anammox bacteria in the Black Sea. Nature 422:608-11) to determine where in the sea the bacteria might live. Analyzing data presented in Figure 26.1 above, at what depth would you expect to find the bacteria? (Note: In the figure, different scales are used to show concentrations of NH4+, NO2-, NO3-, and O2 ) A) in the top 5 metres B) in the top 50 metres C) at a depth of 75 metres D) at a depth of 92 metres E) below 100 metres Answer: D Explanation: The original figure was published as Figure 2 in M Kuypers et al , 2003 Anaerobic ammonium oxidation by anammox bacteria in the Black Sea. Nature 422:608— 11. The figure presented in the question is modified to remove information unrelated to the question. Type: MC Reference: Section 26.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying LO: 26-1. Defend the statement that bacteria and archaea are the most important, diverse, and abundant organisms on the planet.

Figure 26.1

31) What is the characteristic feature of the Chlamydiales phylum? A) unusual flagella B) formation of colonies C) rod shape D) parasitic life cycle E) all of the above Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 26.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 26-1. Defend the statement that bacteria and archaea are the most important, diverse, and abundant organisms on the planet. 32) What do nitrogen fixation genes and antibiotic resistance genes have in common? A) They are located on the bacteria chromosome. B) They spread by lateral gene transfer. C) They exist only in parasitic proteobacteria. D) They evolved recently. E) All of the above answers apply. Answer: B Type: MC Reference: Section 26.3, Canadian Research 26.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 26-4. Explain why lateral gene transfer makes it challenging to determine the evolutionary relationships among major lineages in Bacteria and Archaea. 33) A biologist trying to determine the mechanism of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production in a newly discovered bacterium provides several different substrates on which the bacteria can feed. Which of the following results would indicate that the species uses fermentation to produce ATP? A) The bacteria utilize glucose and produce carbon dioxide as a by-product of respiration. B) After the bacteria break down their substrate, the biologist notices a rotten egg smell. C) The biologist discovers that the bacteria are able to produce organic molecules by metabolizing methane. D) After exposure to amino acids, the bacteria produce a smell like rotting flesh. E) The bacteria can only produce ATP in the presence of light. Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 26.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating LO: 26-5. Explain the six "feeding strategies" that bacteria and archaea use to produce ATP and obtain carbon building blocks.

34) You have found a prokaryote that is able to form colonies and produce oxygen. To what lineage does it belong? A) Cyanobacteria B) Chlamydiales C) Actinobacteria D) Proteobacteria E) Crenarchaeota Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 26.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 26-1. Defend the statement that bacteria and archaea are the most important, diverse, and abundant organisms on the planet. 35) Which of the following groups is characterized by unusual flagella contained within a structure called the outer sheath? A) Spirochaeles B) Proteobacteria C) Firmicutes D) Chlamydiales E) Euryarchaeota Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 26.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 26-1. Defend the statement that bacteria and archaea are the most important, diverse, and abundant organisms on the planet. 36) While examining soil from a cornfield, you found a new type of bacteria that turns purple when treated with Gram stain. What lineage might it belong to? A) Spirochaeles B) Proteobacteria C) Cyanobacteria D) Firmicutes E) Chlamydiales Answer: D Explanation: Purple colour suggests that it is a Gram-positive bacterium. There are two lineages of Gram-positive bacteria–Firmicutes and actinobacteria. Type: MC Reference: Section 26.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 26-1. Defend the statement that bacteria and archaea are the most important, diverse, and abundant organisms on the planet.

37) Which of the following lineages do not contain bacteria that are photosynthetic?

A) Spirochaeles

B) Proteobacteria

C) Cyanobacteria

D) Actinobacteria

E) All of the above can perform photosynthesis.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 26.4, Table 26.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 26-1. Defend the statement that bacteria and archaea are the most important, diverse, and abundant organisms on the planet.

38) You run an osteology lab, where students are able to study the bone structure of various species. To produce clean bones, you introduce insects and bacteria to remove all remaining flesh. Which bacteria would be the best purchase for your lab?

A) Spirochaetes

B) Actinobacteria

C) Chlamydiae

D) Cyanobacteria

E) Proteobacteria

Answer: B

Explanation: Members of this group are decomposers that would remove the flesh from the bones.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 26 4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 26-1, 5, & 6 Defend the statement that bacteria and archaea are the most important, diverse, and abundant organisms on the planet Explain the six ʺfeeding strategiesʺ that bacteria and archaea use to produce ATP and obtain carbon building blocks Provide examples of the key roles of bacteria in bioremediation, human health, and ecosystems

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition

(Freeman et al.)

Chapter 27 Protists

1) Which of the following protists causes the human disease malaria?

A) Giardia

B) Plasmodium

C) Trichomonas

D) Leishmania

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27.1, Figure 27.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 27-1. Define protist, and explain why the protists are considered a paraphyletic group.

2) Encouraging the growth (via nutrient fertilization) of photosynthetic protists in marine environments may help reduce global warming Why?

A) Photosynthetic protists give off a lot of carbon dioxide, and fertilizing them would increase carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere

B) Photosynthetic protists fix atmospheric carbon dioxide, decreasing carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere

C) Photosynthetic protists use a lot of oxygen, and fertilizing them would decrease oxygen levels in the environment.

D) Photosynthetic protists would release a lot of oxygen, and fertilizing them would increase levels of oxygen in the atmosphere.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27.1, Canadian research 27.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 27-2. Give several examples illustrating the medical and ecological importance of protists.

3) How are algal blooms (red tides) typically harmful to humans?

A) The blooms destroy shellfish and other food sources for humans.

B) Shellfish eat the harmful algae, and humans eat the contaminated shellfish.

C) Humans can become poisoned when swimming in contaminated water.

D) All of the above answers apply.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 27-1. Define protist, and explain why the protists are considered a paraphyletic group.

4) Phytoplankton is comprised of photosynthetic protists and bacteria. For the most part, humans do not consume phytoplankton. Why, then, are they important to humans?

A) They are food for many marine organisms that humans eat.

B) They release a lot of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.

C) They cause serious illness in humans.

D) They are not important to humans.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 27-2. Give several examples illustrating the medical and ecological importance of protists.

5) Which of the following statements is consistent with the assertion that protists are paraphyletic?

A) The common ancestor of all protists evolved into other eukaryotic groups.

B) Protists all share a common set of synapomorphies.

C) Protists are all more primitive than land plants and animals.

D) Protists do not share a single common ancestor.

E) All of the above answers apply.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 27-1 Define protist, and explain why the protists are considered a paraphyletic group

6) You isolate a previously undescribed protist species from the soil outside your residence.

Which of the following technique(s) would provide useful data for describing, classifying, and naming this new species?

A) PCR

B) light microscopy

C) gene sequence comparison

D) electron microscopy

E) all of the above

Answer: E

Explanation: This question is relatively easy, but it could be followed by a short essay question asking students to describe how they would go about describing, naming, and classifying the new species

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 27-1. Define protist, and explain why the protists are considered a paraphyletic group.

7) Which of the following would be considered a carbon sink that could potentially reduce atmospheric carbon dioxide to help alleviate global warming?

A) calcium carbonate

B) petroleum

C) sedimentary rocks

D) all of the above

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 27-2. Give several examples illustrating the medical and ecological importance of protists.

8) Which of the following characteristics is true of all protists?

A) contain a nucleus

B) smaller than animal cells

C) unicellular

D) have a cell wall

E) photosynthetic

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27 1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 27-1 Define protist, and explain why the protists are considered a paraphyletic group

Use the following information to answer the corresponding question(s).

Giardia intestinalis can cause disease in several different mammalian species, including humans. Giardia organisms (G. intestinalis) that infect humans are similar morphologically to those that infect other mammals; thus, they have been considered a single species, though other species in the Giardia genus infect other organisms. However, G. intestinalis has been divided into different subgroups based on their host and a few other characteristics.

In 1999, a DNA sequence comparison study tested the hypothesis that these subgroups actually constitute different species. The following phylogenetic tree was constructed from the sequence comparison of rRNA from several subgroups of G. intestinalis and a few other morphologically distinct species of Giardia. The researchers concluded that the subgroups of Giardia are sufficiently different from one another genetically that they could be considered different species. (T. Monis et al. 1999. Molecular systematics of the parasitic protozoan Giardia intestinalis. Mol. Biol. Evol. 16[9]:1135-44.)

9) According to the phylogenetic tree in the figure above, Giardia intestinalis constitutes a group.

A) paraphyletic

B) monophyletic

C) polyphyletic

Answer: A

Explanation: This question is based on T. Monis et al., Molecular systematics of the parasitic protozoan Giardia intestinalis, Mol. Biol. Evol. 16(9), 1999:1135 44. The phylogenetic tree diagrammed above is a representation of Figure 2, part D, from this paper.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 27-1. Define protist, and explain why the protists are considered a paraphyletic group.

Figure 27.1

10) By examining the phylogenetic tree diagrammed above, what conclusion can you draw about the species G. microti?

A) It evolved before G. intestinalis.

B) It is more closely related to G. muris than to G. intestinalis.

C) It should not be labeled a species distinct from G. intestinalis.

D) It is part of a monophyletic group that also includes G. intestinalis.

E) None of the above can be concluded from the data provided.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 27-1. Define protist, and explain why the protists are considered a paraphyletic group.

11) Consider the following data: (a) Most ancient eukaryotes are unicellular. (b) All eukaryotes alive today have a nucleus and cytoskeleton. (c) Most ancient eukaryotes lack a cell wall. Which of the following conclusions could reasonably follow the data presented?

A) The first eukaryote may have been very similar to a plant cell.

B) The first eukaryote may have been anaerobic.

C) The first eukaryote may have been capable of phagocytosis.

D) The first eukaryote may have been photosynthetic.

Answer: C

Explanation: This question requires students to understand that ingestive feeding depends on the presence of a cytoskeleton and the absence of a cell wall

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27 2, 27 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 27-1 Define protist, and explain why the protists are considered a paraphyletic group

12) The microsporidian Brachiola gambiae parasitizes the mosquito Anopheles gambiae. Adult female mosquitoes must take blood meals for their eggs to develop, and it is while they take blood that they transmit malarial parasites to humans. Male mosquitoes drink flower nectar. If humans are to safely and effectively use Brachiola gambiae as a biological control to reduce human deaths from malaria, then how many of the following statements should be true?

1. Brachiola should kill the mosquitoes before the malarial parasite they carry reaches maturity.

2. The microsporidian should not be harmful to other insects.

3. Microsporidians should infect mosquito larvae, rather than mosquito adults.

4. The subsequent decline in anopheline mosquitoes should not significantly disrupt human food resources or other food webs.

5. Brachiola must be harmful to male mosquitoes but not to female mosquitoes.

A) 2 and 5

B) 1, 2, 3, and 4

C) 1, 2, and 4

D) 2, 3, 5

E) 3 and 4

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating

LO: 27-2. Give several examples illustrating the medical and ecological importance of protists.

13) According to the endosymbiotic theory, why was it adaptive for the larger (host) cell to keep the engulfed cell alive, rather than digesting it as food?

A) The engulfed cell provided the host cell with ATP.

B) The engulfed cell provided the host cell with carbon dioxide

C) The engulfed cell allowed the host cell to metabolize glucose

D) The host cell was able to survive anaerobic conditions with the engulfed cell alive

E) The host cell would have been poisoned if it had digested the engulfed cell

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27.3, Figure 27.10

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 27-3. Describe these key innovations of the protists, explain why they were important, and outline the major hypotheses for how they evolved: nuclear envelope, multicellularity, structures for support and protection, mitochondria, chloroplasts.

14) Which of the following movements are matched correctly with the appendage that facilitates that movement in protists?

A) cell crawling; flagella

B) swimming; pseudopodia

C) cell crawling; cilia

D) swimming; flagella

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 27-4. Describe the diversity of feeding, locomotion, and reproduction seen in protists.

15) Refer to the figure above and consider the following data: Brown algae (protists) include unicellular and multicellular organisms. Red algae (protists) include unicellular and multicellular organisms. Amoebae (protists) include unicellular and multicellular organisms. Which of the following conclusions is consistent with the data presented?

A) Multicellularity is a synapomorphy that defines a eukaryote.

B) Multicellularity evolved once; thus, animals are derived from the most recently evolved protists.

C) Multicellularity evolved multiple times as eukaryotes diversified.

D) Multicellularity is more adaptive than unicellularity.

E) None of the above answers apply.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

Figure 27.2

16) A particular species of protist lacks the ability to engulf food and does not contain chloroplasts. However, gene sequencing data indicate that this species evolved from a lineage containing many species with the ability to engulf food. What does this information suggest about this species of protist?

A) It probably reproduces asexually.

B) It is likely parasitic.

C) It is likely aquatic.

D) It probably eats bacteria.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

17) A particular species of protist has obtained a chloroplast via secondary endosymbiosis. How can you tell?

A) The chloroplasts have both nuclear and cyanobacterial genes.

B) The chloroplasts are exceptionally small.

C) The chloroplasts have three or four membranes.

D) The chloroplasts have only a single pigment.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 27-3 Describe these key innovations of the protists, explain why they were important, and outline the major hypotheses for how they evolved: nuclear envelope, multicellularity, structures for support and protection, mitochondria, chloroplasts

18) Biologists sometimes divide living organisms into two groups: autotrophs and heterotrophs These two groups differ in

A) their sources of energy.

B) their electron acceptors.

C) their mode of nutrition.

D) the way that they generate ATP.

E) whether they have a nucleus.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

19) According to the endosymbiosis theory of the origin of eukaryotic cells, how did mitochondria originate?

A) from infoldings of the plasma membrane, coupled with mutations of genes for proteins in energy-transfer reactions

B) from engulfed, originally free-living proteobacteria

C) by secondary endosymbiosis

D) from the nuclear envelope folding outward and forming mitochondrial membranes

E) through viral infection

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

20) Which of the following observations about flagella is true and is consistent with the scientific conclusion that the flagella from protists and bacteria evolved independently?

A) Both flagella are made of the same protein, but the configuration is different.

B) The mechanics of movement and protein structure are the same in these flagella, but there are significant genetic differences.

C) Although the mechanism of movement in both flagella is the same, the protein that accomplishes the movement is different.

D) The protein structure and the mechanism of movement in protist flagella are different from those of bacteria flagella.

Answer: D

Explanation: Choices A, B, and C are not true based on the text, because the protein is different and the mechanism of movement is different

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 27-4. Describe the diversity of feeding, locomotion, and reproduction seen in protists.

21) Alternation of generations occurs in protists. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of events for this mode of reproduction?

A) gametophyte → gamete → fusion → sporophyte → spore → gametophyte

B) sporophyte → spore fusion → gametophyte → gamete → sporophyte

C) gametophyte → fusion → sporophyte → spore → gamete → gametophyte

D) gamete → fusion → gametophyte → spore → sporophyte → gamete

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 27-4. Describe the diversity of feeding, locomotion, and reproduction seen in protists.

22) In examining a protist, you notice that it lacks a cell wall and has movement with cytoplasmic streaming. These data allow you to infer that the species belongs to which of the following protist groups?

A) Excavata

B) Stramenopila

C) Rhizaria

D) Alveolata

E) Amoebozoa

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27.4, Figure 27.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 27-4. Describe the diversity of feeding, locomotion, and reproduction seen in protists. 23) Assume that some members of an aquatic species of motile, photosynthetic protists evolve to become parasitic to fish. They gain the ability to live in the fish gut, absorbing nutrients as the fish digests food. Over time, which of the following phenotypic changes would you expect to observe in this population of protists?

A) loss of motility

B) loss of chloroplasts

C) gain of a rigid cell wall

D) gain of meiosis

E) no changes would be expected

Answer: B

Explanation: This question requires students to know different feeding styles and basic evolutionary loss of function

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27 1, 27 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s). The mechanism of cell crawling in protist species is not well defined. The textbook states that pseudopodia extension involves interactions between actin and myosin (the same molecules that are involved in mammalian muscle contraction). However, prior to the study described below, no one had provided convincing data that actin and myosin were actually involved in cell crawling in protists. Anatomical studies had identified the cytoskeletal protein actin just below the surface of the cell membrane in several species of protist, but physiological studies had failed to show a functional link between actin, myosin, and cell crawling.

In a study by N. Poulsen et al. (Diatom gliding is the result of an actin-myosin motility system, Cell Motility and the Cytoskeleton 44 (1999):23-22), researchers tested whether motility in a particular species of diatom involves interactions between actin and myosin.

24) Latrunculin A is a reversible toxin that disrupts the formation of actin fibers. A culture of a particular species of diatom was treated with this toxin diluted in a buffer, while another culture was treated only with the buffer (no toxin; control). The motility of cells in each culture was assessed by counting the number of cells that were moving during a defined period of time. Which of the following conclusion statements is reasonable based on the data in the bar graph above?

A) Formation of actin fibers is not necessary for the movement in this species of diatom.

B) The buffer alone largely inhibited movement in this species of diatom

C) In this species of diatom, fully formed actin fibers are necessary for movement

Answer: C

Explanation: This figure is a representation of Figure 4 from the research article by N Poulsen et al , Diatom gliding is the result of an actin-myosin motility system, Cell Motility and the Cytoskeleton 44 (1999):23—22

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 27-4. Describe the diversity of feeding, locomotion, and reproduction seen in protists.

Figure 27.3

25) The data graphed in Figure 27.3 could be an artifact if latrunculin A kills this species of diatoms (i.e., that may be why the cells are not moving). Which of the following would be the best evidence that latrunculin A is not killing the cells?

A) When the toxin was washed off the culture, the cells began to move again.

B) There were still a small percentage of motile cells in the culture treated with the toxin.

C) Most of the cells in the control were moving, indicating that they were alive.

D) When the toxin was applied to another species of diatom, 25% of them continued to move.

Answer: A

Explanation: This question is based on Figure 4 from the research article by N. Poulsen et al., Diatom gliding is the result of an actin-myosin motility system" Cell Motility and the Cytoskeleton 44 (1999):23 22. Need to use question 24 as well to make this work properly.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 27-4. Describe the diversity of feeding, locomotion, and reproduction seen in protists.

26) Cultures of the same species of diatom referred to in the previous question were treated with BDM, a reversible inhibitor of myosin function. Which of the following predictions is consistent with the hypothesis that an actin-myosin interaction is necessary for motility?

A) BDM will significantly decrease motility of the cells in culture.

B) BDM will not significantly alter motility of the cells in culture.

C) BDM will significantly increase motility of the cells in culture.

Answer: A

Explanation: This question is based on the research article by N. Poulsen et al., Diatom gliding is the result of an actin-myosin motility system, Cell Motility and the Cytoskeleton 44 (1999):23 22

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 27-4 Describe the diversity of feeding, locomotion, and reproduction seen in protists

27) Consider the following points: (a) All excavates live in environments where oxygen availability is low; (b) all excavates lack mitochondria; and (c) all excavates have some mitochondrial genes. Based on this information, which of the following statements is true of the excavate lineage?

A) Their ancestors were eukaryotes that existed prior to the origin of mitochondria.

B) Their ancestors had mitochondria, but the mitochondria were lost over time.

C) Their ancestors were not able to metabolize glucose.

D) Excavates are in the process of acquiring mitochondria through evolutionary adaptation.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

28) You discover a new lineage of protists. You examine several species of this lineage under the microscope and find a distinctive feature that sets them apart from other protists. Following the nomenclature style used to name the lineage Discicristata, you decide to name this new lineage Spherocristata. What is the distinctive feature that is reflected in the name?

A) a perfectly round nucleus

B) spherical cristae within their mitochondria

C) flagella that beat in a circle

D) spherical thylakoids within their chloroplasts

E) perfectly round lysosomes

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

29) One of the fish in your aquarium dies. Adding which protist to the water would allow you to avoid flushing the dead fish by speeding its decay?

A) an apicomplexan

B) a dinoflagellata

C) a water mould

D) a ciliate

E) a euglenid

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27 4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 27-2 & 4 Give several examples illustrating the medical and ecological importance of protists Describe the diversity of feeding, locomotion, and reproduction seen in protists

30) Which of the following groups is matched with an incorrect anatomical feature?

A) foraminifera → tests with holes

B) dinoflagellata → two flagella

C) oomycota → apical complex

D) diatoms → silicon-rich tests

E) phaeophyta → exclusively multicellular

Answer: C

Explanation: The apical complex is found in the apicomplexa.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 27-4. Describe the diversity of feeding, locomotion, and reproduction seen in protists.

31) Protists belong to the domain Eukarya. Which of the following is not a protist?

A) kelp

B) red algae

C) yeast

D) diatoms

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 27-1. Define protist, and explain why the protists are considered a paraphyletic group.

32) Which of the following best describes what scientists (the Bell research group) concluded about the effect of atmospheric CO2 increases on phytoplankton's primary productivity?

A) After 1000 generations, phytoplankton showed a consistent significant increase in primary productivity.

B) After 1000 generations, phytoplankton showed a consistent significant decrease in primary productivity.

C) After 1000 generations, phytoplankton showed a moderate increase in primary productivity.

D) After 1000 generations, phytoplankton will not show an increase in primary productivity.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27 1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 27-2 Give several examples illustrating the medical and ecological importance of protists

33) How was primary productivity measured in the phytoplankton experiment?

A) net CO2 uptake

B) the number of cells produced

C) net CO2 production

D) accumulation of mutations

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 27-2. Give several examples illustrating the medical and ecological importance of protists.

34) What is meant by the term "high-selected" lines in the phytoplankton experiment?

A) lines of phyloplankton that had strong environmental selection pressures

B) lines of phytoplankton that were grown in high CO2 conditions, compared to other phytoplankton lines

C) lines of phytoplankton that were allowed to grow at a faster rate than other lines of phytoplankton

D) All of the above.

E) Both A and B.

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 27-2. Give several examples illustrating the medical and ecological importance of protists.

35) Which of the major lineages of eukaryotes contain pronounced "feeding grooves" for digesting prey or organic debris?

A) Plantae

B) Excavata

C) Alveotata

D) Rhizaria

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27.4, Figure 27.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

36) What is the major distinguishing feature of Amoebozoa?

A) Cells have chloroplasts with a double membrane.

B) Cells lack cell walls and so, when portions of the cell extend for movement, large lobes are formed.

C) Cells lack cell walls and so, when portions of the cell extend for movement, they are slender in shape.

D) Cells have pronounced "feeding grooves" for digesting prey or organic debris.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 27.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition (Freeman et al.)

Chapter 28 Green Algae and Land Plants

1) To colonize, land plants had to overcome a number of difficulties. However, once this occurred, they were able to exploit more abundant resources. Which of the following resources are more plentiful on land than in water?

A) carbon dioxide

B) nitrogen

C) water

D) light

Answer: D

Explanation: This question highlights those benefits that first existed for plants that were able to colonize terrestrial habitats.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-1. Explain the ecological importance of green algae and land plants.

2) The major function of medicinal compounds in plants is to

A) attract pollinators for seed dispersal.

B) attract insects and birds to spread seeds and fruits.

C) defend the plant against herbivores.

D) defend the plant against microbes.

E) quicken healing in the organism producing the medicinal compound.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28 1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 28-1 Explain the ecological importance of green algae and land plants

3) Which of these activities is not a part of development of crop plants from wild relatives?

A) people planting seeds of the plants with the characteristic wanted

B) people making observations of desired plant characteristics

C) people eating products from only the plants with desired characteristics

D) people developing several varieties of crops from a wild relative

Answer: C

Explanation: It is important to know how early and present plant breeders selected for and propagated our crop plants.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-2. Describe the evolutionary adaptations that allowed plants to survive and reproduce on land.

4) What do the fuels wood, peat, coal, and ethanol have in common?

A) They are derived from fossilized animals.

B) They are formed from living or fossilized plants.

C) They are formed under pressure deep in the Earth.

D) All of these answers apply.

Answer: B

Explanation: Many students believe that petroleum is formed from plants, as was coal. This question seeks to overcome a misconception by pointing out other fuels derived from plants.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 28-1. Explain the ecological importance of green algae and land plants.

5) Bioprospectors and ethnobotanists search for plants and plant products used for medicines by native cultures. The major function of the medicinal compounds in plants is to

A) attract pollinators for seed dispersal.

B) attract insects and birds to spread seeds and fruits.

C) defend the plant against herbivores and microbes.

D) All of these answers apply.

Answer: C

Explanation: Compounds that protect the plant against herbivores and microbes are likewise used medicinally by humans. Attractive compounds are usually not medicinal.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 28-2 Describe the evolutionary adaptations that allowed plants to survive and reproduce on land

6) Over human history, which process has been most important in improving the features of plants long used by humans as staple foods?

A) genetic engineering

B) artificial selection

C) natural selection

D) sexual selection

E) pesticide and herbicide application

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 28-1. Explain the ecological importance of green algae and land plants.

7) According to the fossil record, plants colonized terrestrial habitats

A) in conjunction with insects that pollinated them.

B) in conjunction with fungi that helped provide them with nutrients from the soil.

C) from marine habitats.

D) only about 150 million years ago.

Answer: B

Explanation: It is important for students to understand the close association between land plants and their mutualistic fungi that persists to this day.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-2. Describe the evolutionary adaptations that allowed plants to survive and reproduce on land.

8) Which of the following have biologists used in an attempt to understand the phylogenetic relationships among organisms?

A) examined the fossil record

B) compared morphological features

C) examined similarities and differences in DNA sequences of homologous genes

D) all of the above

Answer: D

Explanation: These are the three tools for available for use by any biologist interested in phylogenetic relationship of plants or any other group of organisms.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-2 Describe the evolutionary adaptations that allowed plants to survive and reproduce on land

9) The most direct ancestors of land plants were probably

A) any of the green algae that live in water

B) certain groups of algae

C) photosynthesizing prokaryotes (cyanobacteria).

D) liverworts and mosses.

Answer: B

Explanation: The Charales and Coleochaetes have cellular characteristics that make them the most closely related algae to land plants. Many green algae in water are unicellular, cyanobacteria are probably the ancestors of chloroplasts, and liverworts and mosses are land plants.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-2. Describe the evolutionary adaptations that allowed plants to survive and reproduce on land.

10) Molecular phylogenies show all land plants are a monophyletic group. This suggests that A) there were many different transitions from aquatic to terrestrial habitats.

B) wind-pollinated plants arose first.

C) land plants have undergone a diversification since they first colonized terrestrial habitats.

D) there was a single transition from aquatic to terrestrial habitats.

Answer: D

Explanation: This question is part factual and part conceptual in testing whether students are able to understand the meaning of sister group and phylogenetic reconstruction.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-2. Describe the evolutionary adaptations that allowed plants to survive and reproduce on land.

11) About 450 million years ago, the terrestrial landscape on Earth would have

A) looked very similar to that of today, with flowers, grasses, shrubs, and trees.

B) been completely bare rock, with little pools that contained bacteria and cyanobacteria.

C) been covered with tall forests in swamps that became today's coal.

D) had nonvascular green plants similar to liverworts forming green mats on rock.

Answer: D

Explanation: This question is part factual, 450 million years ago, and part conceptual in testing whether students are able to reconstruct the appearance of Earth over time.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-2 Describe the evolutionary adaptations that allowed plants to survive and reproduce on land

12) Which of these time intervals, based on plant fossils, came last (most recently)?

A) extensive growth of gymnosperm forests

B) Silurian-Devonian explosion with fossils of plant lineages that contain most of the major morphological innovations

C) colonization of land by early liverworts and mosses

D) rise and diversification of angiosperms

E) carboniferous swamps with giant horsetails and lycophytes

Answer: D

Explanation: The order of events is B, C, E, A, D. Familiarity with history of Earth's vegetation helps with recognition and importance of plant groups, and vice versa.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-2. Describe the evolutionary adaptations that allowed plants to survive and reproduce on land.

13) Which set contains the most closely related terms?

A) megasporangium, megaspore, pollen, ovule

B) microsporangium, microspore, egg, ovary

C) megasporangium, megaspore, egg, ovule

D) microsporangium, microspore, carpel, ovary

Answer: C

Explanation: This is a vocabulary review, connecting reproductive parts of a gymnosperm or angiosperm. A megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis in a megasporangium or ovule. Mitosis of the megaspore produces the egg.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-3. Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms.

14) Which of these is a major trend in land plant evolution?

A) the trend toward smaller size

B) the trend toward a gametophyte-dominated life cycle

C) the trend toward a sporophyte-dominated life cycle

D) the trend toward larger gametophytes

Answer: C

Explanation: Knowledge of the trend toward smaller and less long-lived gametophytes will help students identify which part of the life cycle they are looking at in different plants.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-2 Describe the evolutionary adaptations that allowed plants to survive and reproduce on land

15) You find a green organism in a pond near your house and believe it is a plant, not an alga

The mystery organism is most likely a plant and not an alga if it

A) contains chloroplasts

B) is multicellular.

C) is surrounded by a cuticle.

D) does not contain vascular tissue.

E) has cell walls that are comprised largely of cellulose.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 28-2. Describe the evolutionary adaptations that allowed plants to survive and reproduce on land.

16) What evidence do paleobotanists look for that indicates the movement of plants from water to land?

A) waxy cuticle to increase evaporation from leaves

B) vascular tissue to conduct water and sugars

C) sporopollenin to inhibit evaporation from leaves

D) remnants of chloroplasts from photosynthesizing cells

E) loss of structures that produce spores

Answer: B

Explanation: Moving to land involves several modifications: waxy cuticle on leaves to inhibit desiccation and sporopollenin on spores and pollen for resistance. Chloroplasts are characteristic of algae also, and land plants have sporangia.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-2. Describe the evolutionary adaptations that allowed plants to survive and reproduce on land.

17) Most moss leaves do not have a cuticle, are one to two cells thick, and have no veins. What does this imply about moss leaves and their structure?

A) They do not have stomata for gas exchange regulation.

B) They can easily lose water to, and absorb water from, the atmosphere.

C) They do not have vascular tissue.

D) All of the above answers apply.

Answer: D

Explanation: Most mosses live on land, but their leaves do not have the same characteristics as do the leaves of vascular plants These characteristics help explain where most mosses live, and how large they can get Direct absorption from the atmosphere means they also absorb pollutants from the atmosphere, and mosses can be used as pollution monitors With no cuticle, stomata are unnecessary

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 28-3. Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms.

18) Why have biologists hypothesized that the first land plants had a low, sprawling growth habit?

A) At the time of the first land plants, the atmosphere had oxygen mainly close to the ground.

B) Land animals of that period consumed erect plants.

C) The ancestors of land plants, green algae, lack the structural support to stand erect in air.

D) Land animals of that period were small, so they needed short plants to eat.

E) Only fossilized plants exhibit this habit.

Answer: C

Explanation: Biologists have hypothesized this because the ancestors of land plants, green algae, lack the structural support to stand erect in air. Also, the land plants that are thought to be near the base of the land plant phylogeny exhibit this habit.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-2. Describe the evolutionary adaptations that allowed plants to survive and reproduce on land.

19) What is characteristic of tracheid cells that are mature?

A) They have only primary walls made of cellulose.

B) They have only secondary walls made of lignin.

C) They contain cytoplasm at maturity.

D) They have both primary and secondary walls.

E) All of these answers apply.

Answer: D

Explanation: Secondary walls of lignin are laid down inside primary walls in woody cells. The cells retain both primary and secondary walls

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-3 Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms

20) What two major novelties allowed for the first colonization of terrestrial habitats by plants?

A) roots and vascular tissue

B) cuticle and pores

C) roots and true leaves

D) tracheids and vessel elements

E) All of these answers apply.

Answer: B

Explanation: Cuticles lessened water loss to the atmosphere but hamper gas exchange. Pores solve this problem.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-2. Describe the evolutionary adaptations that allowed plants to survive and reproduce on land.

21) If humans had been present to build log structures during the Carboniferous period (though they were not!), which plant types would have been suitable sources of logs?

A) whisk ferns and epiphytes

B) horsetails and bryophytes

C) lycophytes and bryophytes

D) ferns, horsetails, and lycophytes

E) charophytes (stoneworts), bryophytes, and gymnosperms

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 28-2. Describe the evolutionary adaptations that allowed plants to survive and reproduce on land.

22) The retaining of the zygote on the living gametophyte of land plants

A) protects the zygote from herbivores.

B) helps in dispersal of the zygote.

C) allows it to be nourished by the parent plant.

D) is found only in seed plants.

Answer: C

Explanation: This point is important; the zygote receives its nourishment from the parental plant and does not have to manufacture its own food.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-3 Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms

23) Seed plants are heterosporous This means that

A) they produce two types of spores

B) they produce two types of sperm

C) they produce two types of pollen

D) they produce two types of eggs.

Answer: A

Explanation: Heterospory is an important evolutionary novelty, found in seed plants, that made the evolution of pollen possible.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-3. Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms.

24) Which of the following innovations is not associated with angiosperm diversification?

A) vessel elements

B) flowers

C) leaves

D) fruits

E) All of the above were associated with angiosperm diversification.

Answer: C

Explanation: Leaves are the only characteristic that occurs outside of the angiosperms.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-3. Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms.

25) Which of the following is true of stomata?

A) Stomata occur in all land plants and define them as a monophyletic group.

B) Stomata open to allow gas exchange and close to decrease water loss.

C) Stomata occur in all land plants and are the same as pores.

D) Stomata open to increase both water absorption and gas exchange.

Answer: B

Explanation: Similar to pores, stomata allow for gas exchange. But since they also have guard cells, they can be closed to prevent water loss. This solves two problems that are imposed on land plants.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-3 Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms

26) Which of the following is a correct element of alternation of generations?

A) The sporophyte is haploid and produces gametes

B) The sporophyte is diploid and produces spores

C) The gametophyte is haploid and produces spores.

D) The gametophyte is diploid and produces gametes.

E) Two spores unite to form a zygote.

Answer: B

Explanation: Life cycles tend not to make sense to students the first time around. The function of the haploid gametophyte is to produce gametes. The function of the sporophyte is to produce spores by meiosis. Two gametes fuse to form a zygote.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-3. Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms.

27) Which of these are structures in a gametophyte generation?

A) leaves, stems, roots, flowers, cones

B) spores, egg, sperm, pollen, archegonium

C) antheridium, embryo, seed, spores, flower

D) egg, sperm, zygote, embryo, seedling

Answer: B

Explanation: Recognition of haploid and diploid components of a plant life cycle is a basic plant biology quagmire. Spores are included in choice B because knowing spores are haploid and the first cells in a gametophyte generation is basic.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-3. Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms.

28) Which of these processes does not result in the formation of a different generation in a plant's sexual life cycle?

A) meiosis

B) mitosis

C) fertilization

Answer: B

Explanation: Recognition of the processes in alternation of generations is as important as recognizing the structures. Meiosis produces haploid spores from diploid mother cells.

Fertilization produces the diploid zygote from haploid gametes. Both generations have mitosis (and cell specialization) for growth and development.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28 3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-3 Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms

29) Spores and seeds have basically the same function, dispersal, but are vastly different because

A) spores have a protective outer covering; seeds do not.

B) spores have an embryo; seeds do not.

C) spores have stored nutrition; seeds do not.

D) spores are unicellular; seeds are not.

E) spores depend primarily on animals for dispersal; seeds do not.

Answer: D

Explanation: Both spores and seeds have a protective outer covering. Seeds have an embryo and stored nutrition; spores do not. Spores are usually wind- or water-transported, and many seeds depend on animal dispersal.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-3. Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms.

30) The vast number and variety of flowers is probably related to various kinds of A) seed dispersal agents. B) pollinators. C) herbivores. D) climatic conditions. E) All of these answers apply. Answer: B Explanation: The coevolution of flowers and their pollinators accounts for the vast numbers of kinds of flowers. Type: MC Reference: Section 28.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 28-2. Describe the evolutionary adaptations that allowed plants to survive and reproduce on land. 31) A botanist discovers a new species of plant in a tropical rain forest. After observing its anatomy and life cycle, he notes the following characteristics: flagellated sperm, xylem with tracheids, separate gametophyte and sporophyte generations with the sporophyte dominant, and no seeds. This plant is probably most closely related to A) mosses. B) charophytes (stoneworts). C) ferns. D) gymnosperms. E) flowering plants. Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 28.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 28-2 & 3. Describe the evolutionary adaptations that allowed plants to survive and reproduce on land. Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms. 32) Plant systematists working with angiosperm DNA have determined that A) dicots appear to have developed from more than one ancestor. B) dicots are not really angiosperms. C) monocots are not really angiosperms. D) monocots appear to have developed from more than one ancestor. Answer: A Explanation: Dicots seem to be polyphyletic, while monocots are monophyletic. Both groups are angiosperms. Type: MC Reference: Section 28.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 28-3. Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms.

33) As you stroll through a moist forest, you are most likely to see a A) zygote of a green alga. B) gametophyte of a moss. C) sporophyte of a liverwort. D) gametophyte of a fern. Answer: B Explanation: Zygotes are unicellular, liverwort sporophytes; fern gametophytes are small and very inconspicuous. Moss gametophytes are what people see when they recognize a plant as a moss. Type: MC Reference: Section 28.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 28-3. Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms. 34) Which of these are spore-producing structures? A) sporophyte (capsule) of a moss B) antheridium of a moss or fern C) archegonium of a moss or fern D) All of these answers apply. Answer: A Explanation: Antheridia produce sperm, and archegonia produce eggs (gametes). Type: MC Reference: Section 28.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 28-3. Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms. 35) Liverworts, hornworts, and mosses are grouped together as the Bryophytes. Besides not having vascular tissue, what do they all have in common? A) swimming sperm for reproduction B) antheridia and archegonia for gamete production C) low, sprawling growth habit D) ability to desiccate and rehydrate with no ill effects E) All of these answers apply. Answer: E Explanation: This question requires recognition of characteristics that group organisms together. Type: MC Reference: Section 28.3, Table 28.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 28-3. Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms.

36) What is true about the genus Sphagnum?

A) It is an economically important liverwort.

B) It grows in extensive mats in grassland areas.

C) It is used by gardeners as a fertilizer.

D) It accumulates to form coal and is burned as a fuel.

E) It is an important carbon sink, reducing atmospheric CO2

Answer: E

Explanation: Sphagnum is an economically important moss: it grows in bogs, it is used as a soil conditioner, and it is collected as peat. It is important for any gardener to know that although Sphagnum increases moisture- and oxygen-retaining capabilities of soil, it is not the same thing as a fertilizer.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.3, Table 28.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-3. Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms.

37) An important fossil fuel is coal, much of which was formed when

A) northern-latitude bogs accumulated peat.

B) ancient angiosperms got buried under volcanic ash.

C) huge gymnosperms were flooded by an inland sea.

D) extensive forests of seedless vascular plants were buried and compressed.

E) All of these answers apply.

Answer: D

Explanation: Giant ancestors of today's ferns and lycophytes formed coal deposits.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-2. Describe the evolutionary adaptations that allowed plants to survive and reproduce on land.

38) How are the bryophytes and seedless vascular plants alike?

A) Plants in both groups have vascular tissue.

B) In both groups, sperm swim from antheridia to archegonia.

C) The dominant generation in both groups is the sporophyte.

D) Plants in both groups have true roots, stems, and leaves.

E) All of these answers apply.

Answer: B

Explanation: The seedless vascular plants (ferns and fern allies) have vascular tissue; a dominant sporophyte; and true roots, stems, and leaves. Bryophytes have a dominant gametophyte and no vascular tissue so no true roots, stems, and leaves. Although students resist classifications, they do help organize our living world and give insight into evolutionary processes.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-3. Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms.

39) The closest relatives of the familiar pine and spruce trees are

A) ferns, horsetails, lycophytes, and club mosses.

B) hornworts, liverworts, and mosses.

C) gnetophytes, cycads, and ginkgoes.

D) elms, maples, and aspens.

Answer: C

Explanation: Choice A names the seedless vascular plants (ferns and fern allies), B lists bryophytes, and D lists angiosperms.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 28-3. Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms.

40) How are gymnosperms and angiosperms similar?

A) Plants in both groups have flowers and fruits.

B) Plants in both groups have cones that produce pollen and seeds.

C) Plants in both groups produce seeds and pollen.

D) Plants in both groups lack vascular tissue.

Answer: C

Explanation: This question reinforces characteristics of angiosperms and gymnosperms.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-3. Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms

41) Immature seed cones of conifers are usually green before pollination, and flowers of grasses are inconspicuously coloured What does this indicate about their pollination?

A) They self-fertilize and do not need pollen carried from one plant to another

B) Their pollinating insects are colour blind

C) They are wind pollinated

D) They probably attract pollinators using strong fragrances.

Answer: C

Explanation: This question reinforces characteristics of wind-pollinated plants.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.3, Canadian Research 28.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 28-3. Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms.

42) Which of the following features of how seedless land plants get sperm to egg are the same as for some of their algal ancestors? A) Conjugation tubes are formed between sperm and egg cells. B) Packets of sperm are delivered by wind to the eggs. C) Aquatic invertebrates carry sperm to eggs. D) Flagellated sperm swim to the eggs in a water drop. E) Flagellated sperm meet flagellated eggs in a water drop. Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 28.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 28-2 & 3. Describe the evolutionary adaptations that allowed plants to survive and reproduce on land. Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms. 43) In general, liverworts have a cuticle and pores. However, some species do not have pores. What would you predict concerning the cuticle of these species and why? A) The cuticle would be the same as in those species with pores. B) The cuticle would be thicker than in those species with pores. C) The cuticle would be thinner than in those species with pores. D) There is not enough information to make a prediction. Answer: C Explanation: Cuticle prevents desiccation, but decreases gas exchange. Pores allow for better gas exchange. In those species that lack pores, the cuticle would be very thin to allow for some gas exchange. This helps the student to understand the problem that occurs concerning gas exchange with the evolution of cuticle. Type: MC Reference: Section 28.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 28-3. Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms.

44) Arrange the following in the correct sequence, from earliest to most recent, in which these plant traits originated. 1. sporophyte dominance, gametophyte independence 2. sporophyte dominance, gametophyte dependence 3. gametophyte dominance, sporophyte dependence A) 1 → 2 → 3 B) 2 → 3 → 1

Answer: E Type: MC Reference: Section 28.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing LO: 28-3. Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms. 45) Conifers and pines both have needlelike leaves. Why might their leaves be of this type? A) to increase surface area for photosynthesis B) to increase surface area for gas exchange C) to decease surface area for gas exchange D) to decrease surface area for water loss Answer: D Explanation: The decreased surface area to prevent water loss allows these groups to grow in dry habitats or cold environments. Type: MC Reference: Section 28.4, Figure 28.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 28-3. Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms. 46) The most basal lineages of land plants include A) Lycophyta, Psilotophyta, and Pteridophyta. B) Hepaticophyta, Anthocerophyta, and Bryophyta. C) Spenophyta, Charaphyaceae, and Bryophyta. D) Cycadophyta, Ginkophyta, and Gnetophyta. Answer: B Explanation: The Hepaticophyta, Anthocerophyta, and Bryophyta are collectively known as bryophytes (evolutionary relationships among them are unresolved) and are the most basal lineages of land plants. Answer A is a group of more derived lineages. Answer B is a group of disparate lineages. Answer C is a group of gymnosperms. Type: MC Reference: Section 28.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 28-2. Describe the evolutionary adaptations that allowed plants to survive and reproduce on land.

47) Which of the following possess stomata?

A) Ulvophyceae

B) Hepaticophyta

C) Charaphyaceae

D) Anthocerophyta

E) All of these answers apply.

Answer: D

Explanation: The Hepaticophyta, have pores, but not stomata. Anthocerophyta have true stomata. Charaphyaceae and Ulvophyceae are green algae that grow in aquatic habitats.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-3. Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms.

48) Which is the most diverse group of land plants?

A) angiosperms

B) pines

C) gymnosperms

D) ferns

Answer: A

Explanation: Angiosperms are the most successful group of land plants, as demonstrated by their great diversity. Ferns are the most diverse group of seedless vascular plants.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-3 Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms

49) Why have seed banks been established?

A) to serve as a store of genetic diversity of crop plants

B) to serve as a store of seeds for the next growing seasons

C) to serve as a store of seeds before they are sold at market

D) All of these answers apply.

Answer: A

Explanation: Seed banks serve as a repository of the genetic diversity of crop plants and their relatives to allow for future artificial selection and to prevent decimation of a crop due to disease or pests.

Type: MC

Reference: Canadian Research 28.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-2. Describe the evolutionary adaptations that allowed plants to survive and reproduce on land.

Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s).

Scarlet gilia (Ipomopsis aggregata) usually has red flowers in an inflorescence of up to 250 flowers. In certain populations in the Arizona mountains, however, the flowers range from red to pink to white. In early summer, most of the flowers were red. Six to eight weeks later, the same individual plants were still present; the flowers ranged from pink to white, and few red flowers were present. The major pollinators early in the season were two species of hummingbirds active during the day; they emigrated to lower elevations, and the major pollinator later in the season was a hawk moth (a type of moth). The hawk moth was most active at sunset and later, and it preferred light pink to white flowers after dark. When hummingbirds were present, more red flowers than white flowers produced fruit. When only hawk moths were present, more white flowers produced fruit (K. N. Paige and T. G. Whitham. 1985. Individual and population shifts in flower colour by scarlet gilia: A mechanism for pollinator tracking. Science 227:315-17).

50) What is the significance of measuring fruit production?

A) It is a measure of pollination success.

B) It is a measure of seed dispersal success.

C) It is easier than counting flowers.

D) It is an indication of predation on the seeds of the plants.

Answer: A

Explanation: Fruits are formed after pollination and as seeds form.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 28-3. Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms.

51) To perform this study, the researchers needed to count

A) the number of red flowers

B) the number of pink and white flowers

C) the number of hummingbirds

D) the number of hawk moths

E) All of these answers apply

Answer: E

Explanation: To determine number of flowers, the researchers needed all the colours. To determine pollinators, they needed to record the numbers of pollinators (at least the ones they could see).

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 28-3. Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms.

52) Late in the season, when only hawk moths were present, researchers painted the red flowers white. What would you expect?

A) Unpainted red flowers would produce more fruits than white flowers would.

B) Red flowers painted white would produce more fruits than red flowers would.

C) Red and white flowers would produce the same numbers of fruits.

Answer: B

Explanation: Hawk moths pollinate the light-pink and white flowers.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 28-3. Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms.

53) Some plants changed their flowers to lighter colours, and some retained the same darker colour all season. Which plants do you expect produced more fruit?

A) those that changed their colour to a lighter shade

B) those that stayed darker

C) They probably produced the same numbers of fruit.

Answer: A

Explanation: Later in the season, the hummingbird pollinators left, and only the hawk moths were present. Plants changing to lighter colours had more pollination throughout the season.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 28-3. Compare the life cycles and key traits of green algae, nonvascular plants, seedless vascular plants, gymnosperms, and angiosperms

54) Why do hummingbirds emigrate from this population of scarlet gilia?

A) The flowers probably change their nectar production

B) The flowers change from red to white, and the hummingbirds can't see them

C) It gets darker on the mountainside, and the hummingbirds migrate to lower elevations where it stays light longer

D) There is not enough information presented to answer this question.

Answer: D

Explanation: The researchers noted that they were not sure why the hummingbirds left these populations of scarlet gilia, but it was not because of the colour change.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 28.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 28-1. Explain the ecological importance of green algae and land plants.

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition

Chapter 29 Fungi (Freeman et al.)

1) After looking at Figure 29.1 above, why do you think the spike in fungal abundance ended so "abruptly"? Why didn't fungal abundance remain high?

A) As the acidity of the environment increased, fungi were not able to survive

B) The sudden increase in carbon from the plants' mass extinction was not sustained.

C) The plants recovered and outcompeted the fungi, thereby decreasing fungal numbers.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 29.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 29-4. List some fungal adaptations associated with the absorption of nutrients.

2) Looking at Figure 29.1, draw a new graph that plots the percentage of plant species in the fossil pollen and spore record, and write a figure legend comparing it to the original figure

Answer: Inverse of figure values

Type: SA

Reference: Section 29.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 29-4. List some fungal adaptations associated with the absorption of nutrients.

Figure 29.1

3) You are a forester charged with increasing productivity in a South American forest newly planted with pines from Oregon. You believe that the southern forest lacks the fungal diversity needed by the North American pines, and that this lack of fungi is affecting the pines' productivity, but you have no evidence to support your ideas. To count how many fungal species were present in the Oregon forest, which methodology would you choose, and why?

A) Count all the plant species and multiply by six, as David Hawksworth did when determining the ratio of fungal to plant species in England.

B) Collect all the fruiting structures (mushrooms, morels, etc.) found aboveground.

C) Do direct sequencing on representative soil samples from across the forest.

D) Expose the trees to radiolabelled CO2 and then collect the soil samples with the greatest radioactivity and do direct sequencing.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 29.2, 29.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 29-1. Describe the general morphology and ecological importance of fungi.

4) When pathogenic fungi are found growing on the roots of grapevines, grape farmers sometimes respond by covering the ground around their vines with plastic sheeting and pumping a gaseous fungicide into the soil. The most important concern of grape farmers who engage in this practice should be that the

A) fungicide might also kill the native yeasts residing on the surfaces of the grapes.

B) lichens growing on the vines' branches are not harmed.

C) fungicide might also kill mycorrhizae.

D) sheeting is transparent so that photosynthesis can continue.

E) the plastic sheeting decreases evaporation of water from the soil.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 29.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 29-1. Describe the general morphology and ecological importance of fungi.

5) Most coal was formed during the Carboniferous period What is a reasonable hypothesis that explains this observation?

A) Plants from this period did not require fungal associations.

B) There were not many saprophytic fungi during this period.

C) There were not many mycorrhizal fungi during this period.

D) Coal was formed from an explosion of fungal species during this period.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 29.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 29-1. Describe the general morphology and ecological importance of fungi.

6) Why is it more difficult to treat fungal infections than bacterial infections in humans?

A) Fungi are larger organisms than bacteria and thus require stronger drugs to stop an infection.

B) Most fungi are multicellular and thus the drugs required to treat a fungal infection must be able to kill several types of cells; bacteria, on the other hand, are unicellular and thus simpler to kill.

C) Fungal and animal cells and proteins are similar. Thus, drugs that disrupt fungal cell or protein function may also disrupt human cell or protein function.

D) Fungi are able to mutate more quickly than bacteria, so they quickly develop resistance to antifungal drugs.

E) Fungal cells are larger than bacteria. Thus, the drugs used must be able to diffuse more quickly.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 29.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 29-1. Describe the general morphology and ecological importance of fungi.

7) Which of the following is an important role for fungi in the carbon cycle?

A) Fungi help release fixed carbon back to the environment for other plants and photosynthetic organisms to utilize.

B) One of fungi's main roles is to provide already fixed carbon to plants that the plants then use for the production of cellular tissues.

C) Fungi get involved in the fixation of carbon by undergoing photosynthesis.

D) All of the above are important roles for fungi.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 29 1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 29-1 Describe the general morphology and ecological importance of fungi

8) The vegetative (nutritionally active) bodies of most fungi are I composed of hyphae

II. referred to as a mycelium.

III. usually underground.

A) I and II

B) II and III

C) only II

D) I and III

E) I, II, and III

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 29.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 29-1. Describe the general morphology and ecological importance of fungi.

9) Fungi have an extremely high surface-area-to-volume ratio. What is the advantage of this to an organism that gets most of its nutrition through absorption? A) The larger surface area allows for more material to be transported through the cell membrane. B) The lower volume prevents the cells from drying out too quickly, which can interfere with absorption. C) This high ratio creates more room inside the cells for additional organelles involved in absorption. D) This high ratio means that fungi have a thick, fleshy structure that allows the fungi to store more of the food it absorbs. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 29.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 29-4. List some fungal adaptations associated with the absorption of nutrients. 10) Fungi are most closely related to which of these groups? A) plants B) green algae C) animals D) red algae Answer: C Explanation: Figure 29.9 or similar tree could be shown with this question to make it more analytical. Type: MC Reference: Section 29.2, Figure 29.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 292. Explain the evidence that supports current hypotheses about the evolutionary relationships among plants, animals, and fungi and among key lineages of fungi. 11) It has been hypothesized that fungi and plants have a mutualistic relationship because fungi provide critical nitrogen for the plants' use. How do we know this happens? A) Plants acquire more radioactive nitrogen when they are associated with fungi. B) Radioactively labeled nitrogen shows up in fungi when they are symbiotic with plants. C) When plants are associated with fungi, they can fix atmospheric nitrogen that has been tagged with a radioactive label. D) Radioactively labeled sugars in plants eventually find their way to their symbiotic fungi. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 29.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 29-4. List some fungal adaptations associated with the absorption of nutrients.

12) It has been hypothesized that fungi and plants have a mutualistic relationship because plants make sugars available for the fungi's use. What is the best evidence in support of this hypothesis?

A) Fungi survive better when they are associated with plants.

B) Radioactively labeled sugars produced by plants eventually show up in the fungi they are associated with.

C) Fungi associated with plants have the ability to undergo photosynthesis and produce their own sugars, while those not associated with plants do not produce their own sugars.

D) Radioactive label experiments show that plants pass crucial raw materials to the fungus for manufacturing sugars.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 29.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 29-4. List some fungal adaptations associated with the absorption of nutrients.

13) The fungi that we commonly know as mushrooms produce which of the following reproductive structures?

A) basidia

B) zygosporangium

C) chytrids

D) asci

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 29.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 29-6 Identify the four distinct sexual reproductive structures found in fungi

14) Which of these fungal features supports the phylogenetic conclusion that fungi are more closely related to animals than plants?

A) The cell wall of fungi and insects are both made of chitin

B) Chytrid spore flagella are similar to animal flagella

C) Animals and fungi both store polysaccharides as glycogen

D) All of the above apply.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 29.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 29-5. Describe how fungal life cycles differ from animal and plant life cycles.

15) Why are mycorrhizal fungi superior to plants at acquiring mineral nutrition from the soil?

A) Hyphae are 100 to 1000 times smaller than plant roots.

B) Fungi secrete extracellular enzymes that can break down large molecules.

C) Fungi can transport compounds through their mycelium from areas of surplus to areas of need.

D) All of the above answers apply.

Answer: D

Explanation: Each fact is stated in the book, though the synthesis of these facts is not.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 29.2, 29.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 29-4. List some fungal adaptations associated with the absorption of nutrients.

16) Basidiomycetes are the only fungal group capable of synthesizing lignin peroxidase. What advantage does this group of fungi have over other fungi because of this capability?

A) This is always the first group of fungi to begin any kind of plant decomposition.

B) This fungal group can break down the tough lignin, which cannot be harnessed for energy, to get to the more useful cellulose.

C) This is the only group of fungi that can use lignin for ATP production.

D) This enzyme releases heat energy from the breakdown of lignin that is used to kill off competing fungi.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 29.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 29-4 List some fungal adaptations associated with the absorption of nutrients

17) Why is it important that ectomycorrhizal fungi (EMF) have peptidase enzymes?

A) These enzymes are necessary to break through the tough lignin layers in plants

B) These enzymes assist with the breakdown of cellulose

C) These enzymes are needed to release nitrogen from dead plant material in colder environments

D) These enzymes catalyze the formation of the compounds used during decomposition.

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 29.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 29-1. Describe the general morphology and ecological importance of fungi.

18) Which of the trees provided depicts the microsporidians as a sister group of the fungi, rather than as a fungus?

A) I

B) II

C) III

D) IV

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 29.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 29-4. List some fungal adaptations associated with the absorption of nutrients.

19) Predict what you would see if you were looking at a new species of zygomycetes.

A) a zygote enclosed in a tough outer coat

B) flagellated spores

C) susceptibility to fungicide

D) multicellularity

E) an ability to form an association with plant roots

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 29.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding

LO: 29-2. Explain the evidence that supports current hypotheses about the evolutionary relationships among plants, animals, and fungi and among key lineages of fungi.

20) Some fungal species can kill herbivores while feeding off of sugars from its plant host. What type of relationship does this fungus have with its host?

A) parasitic

B) mutualistic

C) commensal

D) none of the above

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 29 3, Figure 29 11

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 29-4 List some fungal adaptations associated with the absorption of nutrients

Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s) Suzanne Simard and colleagues knew that the same mycorrhizal fungal species could colonize multiple types of trees. They wondered if the same fungal individual would colonize different trees, forming an underground network that potentially could transport carbon and nutrients from one tree to another (S. Simard et al. 1997. Net transfer of carbon between mycorrhizal tree species in the field. Nature 388:579-82). Figure 29.2 illustrates the team's experimental setup.

Pots containing seedlings of three different tree species were set up and grown under natural conditions for three years; two of the three species formed ectomycorrhizae (Douglas fir, birch) and the other (cedar) formed arbuscular mycorrhizae For the experiment, the researchers placed airtight bags over the Douglas fir and birch seedlings; into each bag, they injected either carbon dioxide made from carbon-13 or carbon-14 (13CO2 and 14CO2, isotopes of carbon). As the seedlings photosynthesized, the radioactive carbon dioxide was converted into radioactively labelled sugars that could be tracked and measured by the researchers.

21) Refer to Figure 29.2. Which of the following results would support Simard et al.'s (1997) hypothesis that fungi can move carbon from one plant to another? Hypothesis: Sugars made by one plant during photosynthesis can travel through a mycorrhizal fungus and be incorporated into the tissues of another plant. A) Carbon-14 is found in the birch seedling's tissues and carbon-13 in the Douglas fir. B) Carbon-14 is found in the Douglas fir seedling's tissues and carbon-13 in the birch. C) Either carbon-13 or carbon-14 is found in the fungal tissues. D) Either carbon-13 or carbon-14 is found in the cedar seedling's tissues.

Figure 29.2

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 29.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 29-4. List some fungal adaptations associated with the absorption of nutrients.

22) Referring to Simard et al. (1997), what is the result that would most strongly refute their hypothesis?

A) No movement; carbon-14 is found in the birch seedling's tissues and carbon-13 in the Douglas fir.

B) Reciprocal exchange; carbon-14 is found in the Douglas fir seedling's tissues and carbon-13 in the birch.

C) Either carbon-13 or carbon-14 is found in the fungal tissues.

D) Either carbon-13 or carbon-14 is found in the cedar seedling's tissues.

Answer: D

Explanation: Answer D indicates that carbon is just leaking into the soil rather than being transferred through the fungus.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 29.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 29-4. List some fungal adaptations associated with the absorption of nutrients.

23) Referring to Simard et al. (1997), which design element is the control in this experiment and why?

A) the bags over the seedlings to contain the different types of carbon dioxide

B) the fact that all the seedlings are different species

C) the cedar seedling, because it is not bagged

D) the cedar seedling, because it forms arbuscular mycorrhizae

Answer: D

Explanation: The cedar will indicate if carbon is just leaking into the soil rather than being transferred through the fungus

Type: MC

Reference: Section 29.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 29-4. List some fungal adaptations associated with the absorption of nutrients.

24) Simard et al. (1997) further hypothesized that if reciprocal transfer did occur, it would be a source-sink relationship driven by photosynthetic rates. That is, if one seedling is in full sun and the other in deep shade, there will be a net movement of carbon from the seedling in full sun to the one in deep shade. If a shade was placed over the birch seedlings and the cedar, and the Douglas fir was left in full sun, what result could Simard and colleagues expect?

A) More 13C would be found in the birch than in the Douglas fir.

B) More 13C would be found in the Douglas fir than the birch.

C) The most 13C would be found in the cedar.

D) The most 14C would be found in the cedar. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 29.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 29-4. List some fungal adaptations associated with the absorption of nutrients.

29.3

25) Referring to Figure 29.3 (Simard et al., 1997-third-year seedlings only), shown above, was there a net transfer of carbon from plants in sunlight to plants in shade?

A) yes

B) no

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 29.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 29-3. Describe at least three types of symbiotic relationships that fungi can have with other organisms, and give an example of each.

Figure

26) If seedlings in the shade commonly do receive sugars from plants in the sunlight, which of the following areas should be investigated by future research? Explain why you think each area should (or should not) be investigated? Issues to consider: (1)Plausibility can the research be performed with current technologies? (2) Is it an interesting question that will lead to valuable future knowledge? If so, describe why the information will be helpful.

A. The above-described exchanges were all among seedlings of the same age. Is the rate or degree of carbon transfer from one plant to another more affected by the degree of shading, or by the relative photosynthetic ability (size/age of the tree)?

B. Does the identity of the partners matter for rate or degree of carbon transfer? Is there a greater exchange among trees of the same species compared to trees of different species? Or do different fungal species have different capacities for transfer?

C. How far (linear distance in meters) can carbon be transferred in nature? Do exchanges occur only between adjacent plants, or can sugars be taken up by plants outside the immediate neighbors? Does distance affect the rate/degree of exchange in and of itself? (Can a heavily shaded tree that is farther away receive more carbon than a nearby tree in the sun?)

D. All of these areas should be investigated.

Answer: A. Is plausible; uses same methodology as Simard et al. (1997) paper. It would help to know what controls the flux of carbon what dynamics would you expect to exist in wild forests? Can large trees "feed" their seedlings more effectively? Or if feeding effectiveness is independent of size, are seedlings especially vulnerable to having their carbon drained? Is this a positive feedback loop promoting forest health or a competitive challenge to be overcome by seedlings?

B. Is plausible; uses same methodology as Simard paper. This experiment would tell us if transfer is a physical process driven by source-sink relationships, or if transfer is affected by species identity, in which case transfer abilities might vary by species and this may be a process subject to evolution

C Is plausible; uses same methodology as Simard paper This could be answered partially by doing direct sequencing; however, simply needing to know how large mycorrhizal fungi are on average because the carbon cannot travel beyond the boundaries of the individual in which it is growing This area would be important for modeling of forest health; that is, how large and how interconnected are these networks? Are fungi moving carbon just meters or kilometers? It has important implications for fragmentation of forest habitats if transfer occurs over large distances.

D. All of the hypotheses have merit, so D is the correct answer.

Explanation: This question can be modified for use as a multiple-choice question, but it is much more powerful as an essay question because the students' explanations will tell you a great deal about what they have learned.

Type: SA

Reference: Section 29.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Applying

LO: 29-4. List some fungal adaptations associated with the absorption of nutrients.

27) Microsporidians are considered parasitic because of the ability to penetrate their host cells using this structure.

A) mycelium

B) polar tube

C) sporangia

D) chitin

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 29.4, Table 29.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 29-4. List some fungal adaptations associated with the absorption of nutrients.

28) This symbiotic association grows on rocks, where it begins the process of soil formation, and it is a major food source for caribou.

A) arbuscular mycorrhizal fungi

B) ectomycorrhizal fungi

C) endophytes

D) lichens

E) chytrids

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 29.4

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 29-3. Describe at least three types of symbiotic relationships that fungi can have with other organisms, and give an example of each.

29) Why is it reasonable to hypothesize that lichens might predict air quality?

A) because of their absorptive life style (receive mineral nutrition from dust and substrate)

B) because of their flat morphology (high ratio of surface area to volume)

C) both of the above

D) neither of the above

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 29.4, Table 29.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 29-4. List some fungal adaptations associated with the absorption of nutrients.

30) Based on the idea that fungi have pores between their cell walls, allowing cytoplasm to move from one end of the mycelium to the other, which of the following hypotheses is the most plausible?

A) If a single mycorrhizal fungus formed symbiotic associations with more than one tree, carbon could travel from one plant to another.

B) Parasitic fungi steal nutrients from their hosts.

C) Predatory fungi capture their prey by encircling them with hyphae, and the flowing of the cytoplasm through the pores helps the hyphae to move around the prey.

D) Fungi function as part of the global carbon cycle not only by converting carbon from one form to another, but by physically moving it from one location to another.

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Entire Chapter 29

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 29-3. Describe at least three types of symbiotic relationships that fungi can have with other organisms, and give an example of each.

Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s). There is much discussion in the media about protecting biodiversity, but does it really matter? Canadian and Swiss researchers wanted to know if the diversity of arbuscular mycorrhizal fungi (AMF) was important to the productivity of grasslands (M.G.A. van der Heijden, J. N. Klironomos, M. Ursic, P. Moutoglis, R. Streitwolf-Engel, T. Boler, A. Wiemken, and I. R. Sanders. 1998. Mycorrhizal fungal diversity determines plant biodiversity, ecosystem variability and productivity. Nature 396:69-72). Specifically, they wanted to know if it mattered which specific AMF species were present, or just that some type of AMF was present. They grew various plants in combination with one of four AMF species, no AMF, or all four AMF species together; and they measured plant growth under each set of conditions. All plant species were grown in each plot, so they always competed with each other with the only difference being which AMF species were present. Use the graphs in Figure 31.4 to answer the questions that follow. Note that the x-axis labels indicate the number and identity of AMF species (bar 0 = no fungi; bars A-D = individual AMF species; bar A+B+C+D = all AMF species together). The yaxis indicates the amount (grams) of plant biomass for the species shown in italics above each graph.

31) Based on the graphs shown above, which of the following plant species is most likely not to form mycorrhizal associations?

A) Carax flacca (graph a) B) Lotus corniculatus (graph b) C) Sanguisorba officinalis (graph c) D) Centaurium erythrea (graph d) Answer: A Explanation: This question requires both recall of the definition of mycorrhizal and the ability to interpret graphs. Type: MC Reference: Section 29.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 29-1. Describe the general morphology and ecological importance of fungi. 32) Based on the van der Heijden et al. (1998) graphs in Figure 29.4, which of the following is the best description of the data supporting the idea that a plant species did not form mycorrhizae with a fungus? A) Its biomass is greatest when no AMF are present. B) Its biomass is greatest when AM fungus A is present. C) Its biomass is greatest when AM fungus B is present. D) Its biomass is greatest when AM fungus C is present. E) Its biomass is greatest when all AMF are present. Answer: A Explanation: This question requires both recall of definition of mycorrhizae and the ability to interpret graphs. For an essay exam, eliminate the answers and leave this question open-ended. Type: MC Reference: Section 29.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 29-1. Describe the general morphology and ecological importance of fungi. 33) Which of the following best explains the data given in graph (b) of Figure 29.4 about Lotus corniculatus? A) This plant grows best when AMF taxa A or C are present. B) Lotus corniculatus does not form mycorrhizal associations. C) Mycorrhizal fungi parasitize the plant's roots when they are present, reducing its growth. D) This plant forms multiple AMF associations, growing best with increased fungal diversity. Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 29.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 29-1. Describe the general morphology and ecological importance of fungi.

Use the graphs in Figures 29.4 and 29.5 and the following information when answering the corresponding questions.

Canadian and Swiss researchers (van der Heijden et al., 1998) interested in factors affecting biodiversity, grew a variety of grassland plants in combination with one of four arbuscular mycorrhizal (AMF) species, no AMF, or all four AMF species together; and they measured plant growth under each set of conditions. All plant species were grown in each plot, so they always competed with each other with the only difference being which AMF were present. Use the graphs in Figure 31.5 to answer the questions that follow. Note that the x-axis labels indicate the number and identity of AMF species (bar 0 = no fungi; bars A-D = individual AMF species; bar A+B+C+D = all AMF species together). The y-axis indicates the amount (grams) of plant biomass for the species shown in italics above each graph. Graph (e) is the total biomass (grams) of all 11 plant species combined; graph (f) is the biomass of Bromus erectus plants only, separated from the total.

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Figure

29.5

34) What is the major difference between Bromus erectus (graph f) and the other plant species (graphs a-d) included in the study?

A) Bromus grows best with a diversity of fungal partners

B) Bromus is unaffected by AMF diversity.

C) Bromus does not form mycorrhizal associations.

D) Bromus produces very little biomass regardless of AMF.

Answer: B

Explanation: Add "Why do you think so?" for an essay question.

Type: MC

Reference: Section 29.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 29-1. Describe the general morphology and ecological importance of fungi.

Figure

35) Using grams of biomass as an indicator of abundance, which species is most likely the dominant species in this ecosystem (see Figure 29.5)? A) Bromus erectus B) Carax flacca C) Sanguisorba officinalis D) Centaurium erythrea Answer: A Explanation: Add "Why do you think so?" for an essay question. Type: MC Reference: Section 29.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension LO: 29-1. Describe the general morphology and ecological importance of fungi. 36) Why does total biomass (graph e, Figure 29.5) not vary with AMF diversity? A) Plant growth is unaffected by fungal diversity. B) Most of the plants in this system do not form mycorrhizal associations. C) Bromus is the dominant plant species. D) Lotus corniculatus is a rare species. Answer: C Explanation: For an essay question, eliminate graphs (e) and (f) and leave this question open- ended. Type: MC Reference: Section 29.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 29-1. Describe the general morphology and ecological importance of fungi. 37) Based on graphs (e) and (f) in Figure 29.5, which is the most well-supported prediction for the effect on total plant biomass if AMF diversity were increased to eight species? A) No effect is predicted, because the dominant species is unaffected by AMF diversity. B) Total biomass for eight species would double in comparison to that for four species. C) Rare species would produce more biomass compared to the case when fewer AMF are present. D) No effect is predicted, because the dominant species is non-mycorrhizal. Answer: A Explanation: On an exam, this question would ideally be followed with "Why?" Type: MC Reference: Section 29.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 29-1. Describe the general morphology and ecological importance of fungi.

Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s).

The researchers then wanted to know if plant biodiversity and productivity would increase in a natural system as a result of increasing AMF diversity beyond just four species. Consider Figure 29.6 below (Figure 2 from van der Heijden et al. 1998):

38) The plants in graphs (b), (c), (e), and (f) have mycorrhizal associations. True or false?

A) true

B) false

Answer: A

Explanation: On an exam, this question would ideally be followed with "Why do you think so?"

Type: MC

Reference: Section 29.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 29-3. Describe at least three types of symbiotic relationships that fungi can have with other organisms, and give an example of each.

Figure 29.6

39) Plant biomass (growth) in Figure 29.6 increases as fungal diversity increases. True or false?

A) true

B) false

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 29.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering

LO: 29-1. Describe the general morphology and ecological importance of fungi.

40) If the number of mycorrhizal fungal species increases to 20, the amount of P in the soil will likely decline to zero (Figure 29.6). True or false?

A) true

B) false

Answer: B

Explanation: The answer is false because the curves are not linear, and some amount of P will always remain in forms that are inaccessible to the plant/fungus. On an exam, this question would ideally be followed with "Why?"

Type: MC

Reference: Section 29.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 29-4. List some fungal adaptations associated with the absorption of nutrients.

Biological Science, 3rd Canadian Edition (Freeman et al.)

Chapter 30 An Introduction to Animals

1) As you are on the way to Tahiti for a vacation, your plane crash-lands on a previously undiscovered island. You soon find that the island is teeming with unfamiliar organisms and, as a student of biology, you decide to survey them (with the aid of the Insta-Lab Portable Laboratory you brought along in your suitcase). You select three organisms and observe them in detail, making the notations found in Figure 30.1.

Which organism would you classify as an animal?

A) organism A

B) organism B

C) organism C

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 30.1

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 30-1. Explain what defines an animal.

Figure 30.1

2) From the information provided in the figure above, how would you classify the feeding strategy of organism C? A) suspension feeding B) predation C) parasitism D) A and B E) B and C Answer: D Explanation: The article referenced here is available online at www.pubmedcentral.nih.gov/articlerender.fcgi?artid=34321, and the figure referenced is available at www.pubmedcentral.nih.gov/articlerender.fcgi? artid=34321&rendertype=figure&id=F1. Type: MC Reference: Section 30.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 30-3. List several examples of the diverse adaptions of animals, including their senses and adaptations for feeding, movement, and reproduction. 3) Which of the following species would you not classify as an animal? A) sponges B) horses C) blue whales D) choanoflagellates Answer: D Type: MC Reference: Section 30.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 30-1. Explain what defines an animal. 4) Which of the following statements concerning animal taxonomy is/are true? 1. Animals are more closely related to plants than to fungi. 2. All animal clades based on body plan have been found to be incorrect. 3. Kingdom Animalia is monophyletic. 4. Animals only reproduce sexually. 5. Animals are thought to have evolved from flagellated protists similar to modern choanoflagellates. A) 5 only B) 1 and 2 C) 3 and 5 D) 3, 4, and 5 E) 2 and 4 Answer: C Type: MC Reference: Section 30.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding LO: 30-1. Explain what defines an animal.

5) The evolution of animal species has been prolific (the estimates go into the millions and tens of millions). To what does the text attribute much of this diversity?

A) novel reproductive strategies

B) a large variety of body plans

C) a large variety of methods for capturing and processing food

D) a complex nervous system providing the intelligence for survival in difficult times

E) the development of multiple tissue types

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 30.3

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 30-2. Describe the fundamental changes in morphology and development that occurred as animals diversified, including symmetry, cephalization, germ layers, limbs, etc.

6) Which tissue type, or organ, is not correctly matched with its germ layer tissue?

A) nervous–mesoderm

B) muscular–mesoderm

C) stomach–endoderm

D) skin–ectoderm

E) skeletal–mesoderm

Answer: A

Type: MC

Reference: Section 30.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 30-2. Describe the fundamental changes in morphology and development that occurred as animals diversified, including symmetry, cephalization, germ layers, limbs, etc

7) In examining an unknown animal species during its embryonic development, how can you be sure what you are looking at is a protostome and not a deuterostome?

A) There is evidence of cephalization

B) There is a well-developed coelom

C) The animal is triploblastic

D) The animal is clearly bilaterally symmetrical.

E) The mouth develops first, and the anus develops later.

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 30.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing

LO: 30-2. Describe the fundamental changes in morphology and development that occurred as animals diversified, including symmetry, cephalization, germ layers, limbs, etc.

8) While looking at some seawater through your microscope, you spot the egg of an unknown animal. Which of the following tests could you not use to determine whether the developing organism is a protostome or a deuterostome? A) See whether the ectoderm forms the mature animal's skin/exoskeleton or nervous system. B) See whether the animal exhibits spiral cleavage or radial cleavage during early development. C) See whether the coelom is formed from a split in the mesoderm or from mesodermal pockets pinched off the gut. D) See whether the pore formed during gastrulation becomes the mature animal's mouth or its anus. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 30.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 30-2. Describe the fundamental changes in morphology and development that occurred as animals diversified, including symmetry, cephalization, germ layers, limbs, etc.

9) Which morphological trait evolved more than once in animals, according to the phylogeny based on DNA sequence data found in Figure 30.2 above?

A) coelom

B) bilateral symmetry

C) segmentation

D) tissue

E) protostome development

Answer: C

Type: MC

Reference: Section 30.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 30-4. Build a phylogenetic tree that reflects our current understanding of the evolutionary relationships among the major lineages of animals.

Figure 30.2

10) Bilateral symmetry is advantageous primarily because it allows for the development of A) a specialized head and posterior.

B) a hydrostatic skeleton.

C) limbs for the infant to attach to a parent.

D) a specialized body cavity.

E) duplicate body parts in case of injury.

Answer: A

Explanation: Answers B and D are incorrect but might be tempting because most, though not all, bilaterally symmetrical organisms also have a coelom (and thus the potential for a hydrostatic skeleton).

Type: MC

Reference: Section 30.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 30-2. Describe the fundamental changes in morphology and development that occurred as animals diversified, including symmetry, cephalization, germ layers, limbs, etc.

11) Suppose a researcher for a pest-control company developed a chemical that inhibited the development of an embryonic mosquito's endodermal cells. Which of the following would be a likely mechanism by which this pesticide works?

A) The mosquito would develop a weakened exoskeleton that would make it vulnerable to trauma.

B) The mosquito would have trouble digesting food, due to impaired gut function.

C) The mosquito would have trouble with respiration and circulation, due to impaired muscle function.

D) The mosquito wouldn't be affected at all.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 30 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension

LO: 30-2 Describe the fundamental changes in morphology and development that occurred as animals diversified, including symmetry, cephalization, germ layers, limbs, etc

12) The embryo doesn't grow larger during the stage known as cleavage. What is going on in the embryo during this process?

A) Cleavage is just the stage at which cells begin to differentiate; that is, endodermal cells start to look different from ectodermal and mesodermal cells.

B) The cells are dividing at this stage, but all the cytoplasm is being split between resulting cells without the formation of new cytoplasm.

C) Cleavage is the formation of the gastropore that is used to differentiate protostomes and deuterostomes.

D) Cleavage is the process by which the polarity of the cell is established; that is, the anterior is distinguished from the posterior.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 30.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 30-2. Describe the fundamental changes in morphology and development that occurred as animals diversified, including symmetry, cephalization, germ layers, limbs, etc.

13) Which of the following combinations of embryonic features is common in the deuterostomes?

A) spiral cleavage and the gastrulation pore (or gastropore) becomes the anus

B) radial cleavage and the gastropore becomes the mouth

C) absence of cleavage and gastropore becomes the anus

D) spiral cleavage and the absence of gastropore formation

E) radial cleavage and the gastropore becomes the anus

Answer: E

Type: MC

Reference: Section 30 2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 30-2 Describe the fundamental changes in morphology and development that occurred as animals diversified, including symmetry, cephalization, germ layers, limbs, etc

14) Lophotrochozoans differ from ecdysozoans in that

A) lophotrochozoans undergo protostome development, while ecdysozoans undergo deuterostome development.

B) lophotrochozoans exhibit segmentation, while ecdysozoans do not.

C) lophotrochozoans have pseudocoeloms, while ecdysozoans have coeloms.

D) lophotrochozoans grow their skeletons continuously, while ecdysozoans shed their external skeletons to grow.

Answer: D

Type: MC

Reference: Section 30.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 30-2. Describe the fundamental changes in morphology and development that occurred as animals diversified, including symmetry, cephalization, germ layers, limbs, etc.

15) Which of the following is not a feature of the tube-within-a-tube body plan in most animals? A) Typically, the outer tube consists of a hard exoskeleton. B) The inner tube consists of digestive organs. C) Typically, the mouth and anus form the ends of the inner tube. D) The two "tubes" are separated by mesoderm tissue. Answer: A Type: MC Reference: Section 30.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 30-4. Build a phylogenetic tree that reflects our current understanding of the evolutionary relationships among the major lineages of animals. 16) Which one of the following objects most closely resembles the pattern of the tube-within-a- tube body plan? A) a bowling ball (with finger holes drilled) B) a pipe with a straw inside C) a cup with a straw in it D) a soda can with the tab removed Answer: B Explanation: Do not use this question in combination with the following question: "If you think of the tube-within-a-tube body plan as a pipe with a straw inside, where would you expect to find most of the ectodermal, mesodermal, and endodermal germ layers, respectively?" It can be very helpful if students have a mental image of the tube-within-a-tube body plan in order to understand its design and utility. Type: MC Reference: Section 30.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering LO: 30-4. Build a phylogenetic tree that reflects our current understanding of the evolutionary relationships among the major lineages of animals. 17) If you think of the tube-within-a-tube body plan as a pipe with a straw inside, where would you expect to find most of the ectodermal, mesodermal, and endodermal germ layers, respectively? A) pipe; space between pipe and straw; straw B) straw; space between pipe and straw; pipe C) space inside of straw; straw; space between pipe and straw D) pipe; straw; space inside of straw Answer: A Explanation: Do not use this question in combination with the following question: 'Which one of the following objects most closely resembles the pattern of the tube-within-a-tube body plan?' It can be very helpful if students have a mental image of the tube-within-a-tube body plan in order to understand its design and utility Type: MC Reference: Section 30 2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension/Remembering LO: 30-2 Describe the fundamental changes in morphology and development that occurred as animals diversified, including symmetry, cephalization, germ layers, limbs, etc

18) Why might researchers choose to use molecular data (such as ribosomal RNA sequences) rather than morphological data to study the evolutionary history of animals?

A) Molecular data can be gathered in the lab, while morphological data must be gathered in the field.

B) Sequence data can be gathered faster than morphological data, and morphological data can lead to wrong conclusions.

C) Morphological changes usually don't result from molecular changes.

D) Some phyla vary too widely in morphological characteristics to be classified accurately.

Answer: B

Type: MC

Reference: Section 30.2

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

LO: 30-4. Build a phylogenetic tree that reflects our current understanding of the evolutionary relationships among the major lineages of animals.

Use Figure 30.3 and the following information when answering the next question. In a review paper published in 2000, Adoutte et al. examined some animal phylogenies generated by comparing the ribosomal RNA (rRNA) of animals from many different phyla. They then integrated these independently created phylogenies into one phylogeny that best fit all the data. Figure 30.4 compares a traditional phylogeny based on morphological characteristics (A) to the new molecular-based phylogeny described by Adoutte et al. (B).

Note that platyhelminthes, nemerteans, and entoprocts, which do not have coeloms and are classified as acoelomates in the morphological phylogeny, are reclassified as lophotrochozoans in the molecular phylogeny. Similarly, groups classified as pseudocoelomates in the morphological phylogeny are reclassified as either lophotrochozoans or ecdysozoans in the molecular phylogeny; other lophotrochozoans and ecdysozoans have coeloms. Copyright 2000 National Academy of Sciences, U.S.A. (A. Adoutte, G. Balavoine, N. Lartillot, O. Lespinet, B. Prud'homme, and R. de Rosa. 2000. The new animal phylogeny. Proceedings of the National Academy of Science USA 97(9):4453-56.)

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19) What does this reclassification based on molecular data imply about the evolution of acoelomates, pseudocoelomates, and coelomates?

Figure