Test Bank for Wardlaws Contemporary Nutrition 12th Edition by Smith,Collene & Spees

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TEST BANK

2023

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COMPLETE Elaborated Test Bank for Wardlaw's Contemporary Nutrition 12th Edition Anne Smith Angela Collene Colleen Spees 2023

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Wardlaw's Contemporary Nutrition 12th Edition by Anne Smith, Angela Collene & Colleen Spees ISBN-10 1260695484 ISBN-13 978-1260695489 Test bank for Wardlaw's Contemporary Nutrition 12th Edition by Anne Smith, Angela Collene & Colleen Spees

ISBN-10 1260695484 ISBN-13 978-1260695489

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TABLE OF CONTENTS PART ONE Nutrition: A Key to Health 1 Nutrition, Food Choices, and Health 2 Designing a Healthy Eating Pattern 3 The Human Body: A Nutrition Perspective

PART TWO Energy Nutrients and Energy Balance 4 Carbohydrates 5 Lipids 6 Proteins 7 Energy Balance

PART THREE Vitamins, Minerals, and Water 8 Vitamins and Phytochemicals 9 Water and Minerals

PART FOUR Nutrition: Beyond the Nutrients 10 Nutrition: Fitness and Sports 11 Eating Disorders 12 Protecting Our Food Supply 13 Global Nutrition

PART FIVE Nutrition: A Focus on Life Stages 14 Nutrition during Pregnancy and Breastfeeding 15 Nutrition from Infancy through Adolescence 16 Nutrition during Adulthood

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CHAPTER 1 1) According to the Food and Health Survey, what is the leading factor that influences food purchases among American consumers?

A) Healthfulness B) Convenience C) Price D) Taste

2)

Over the past several decades, the consumption of fluid milk in the United States has A) increased.

B) decreased.

C) remained the same.

3) Studies indicate an association between TV advertising of foods and drinks and _____, especially in the United States.

A) dollars spent at restaurants B) purchase of more nutritious products from grocery stores C) the prevalence ofchildhood obesity D) the number of mealseaten at home

4)

Which of the following trends has a negative effect on American food habits?

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A) More offerings of chicken and fish in restaurants as alternatives to beef B) Social changes that are leading to a general time shortage for many of us C) The variety of new, low-fat products in the grocery store D) Widespread availability of information on the nutritional content of fast foods

5) Which of the following terms refers to a state in which a person is satisfied after eating and there is no further desire to eat?

A) Satiety B) Hunger C) Appetite D) Saturation

6) Which of the following terms describes physiological (internal) influences that encourage us to find and eat food?

A) Appetite B) Hunger C) Satiety D) Saturation

7) Which of the following terms describes psychological (external) influences that encourage us to find and eat food?

A) Appetite B) Hunger C) Satiety D) Saturation

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8) According to surveys from the United States Department of Agriculture, what is the most commonly consumed vegetable in the United States?

A) Tomatoes B) Potatoes C) Lettuce D) Corn

9)

"Nutrition"

is

A) the science that links foods to health and disease.

B) the study of diet and disease patterns among various populations.

C) the use of dietary supplements to cure diseases.

D) the practice of eating only healthy foods.

10)

The essential nutrients A) must be consumed at every meal.

B) are required for infants but not adults.

C) can be made in the body when they are needed.

D) cannot be made by the body and therefore must be consumed to maintain health.

11)

Diabetes is a group of diseases characterized by

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A) high blood sugar.

B) uncontrolled cell growth.

C) high blood pressure.

D) high levels of blood lipids.

12)

Cancer is a group of diseases characterized by A) high blood sugar.

B) uncontrolled cell growth.

C) high blood pressure.

D) high levels of blood lipids.

13)

Osteoporosis is a condition of compromised ______ health.

A) cardiovascular B) bone C) kidney D) brain

14)

Hypertension

is the medical term that refers to

A) high blood pressure.

B) high blood sugar.

C) high blood lipids.

D) high muscle tone.

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15) Which of the following is the leading nutrition-related cause of death in the United States?

A) Heart disease B) Cancer C) Diabetes D) Pneumonia

16)

Over the past 40 years, rates of ______ have declined among American adults.

A) deaths of cardiovascular disease B) cancer screenings C) obesity D) diabetes

17)

Which of the following is an essential nutrient?

A) Alcohol B) Carbohydrates C) Phytochemicals D) Zoochemicals

18) Which of the following nutrients can be broken down by human enzymes to yield energy?

A) Lipids B) Fiber C) Vitamins D) Minerals

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19)

The main function of carbohydrates is to A) provide energy.

B) promote growth and development.

C) regulate body processes.

D) prevent cancer.

20)

Carbohydrates provide ______ kcal per gram.

A) 4 B) 7 C) 9 D) 0

21)

Which class of nutrients comprises approximately 60% of body weight?

A) Water B) Protein C) Carbohydrate D) Minerals

22)

Fiber and starch belong to the class of nutrients known as A) carbohydrates.

B) protein.

C) lipids.

D) minerals.

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23) Which of the following are substances in plant foods that cannot be digested in the stomach or small intestine?

A) Starch B) Disaccharides C) Dietary fiber D) Simple sugars

24)

Which of the following is characteristic of lipids?

A) Supplies 4 kcal per gram B) Adds structural strength to bones and muscles C) Supplies a concentrated form of fuel for the body D) Adds sweetness to food

25)

Protein A) is a major component of body structures.

B) supplies 9 kcal per gram.

C) is the body's main source of fuel during physical activity.

D) functions as a solvent.

26)

Which of the following is a characteristic of vitamins?

A) Provide energy B) Become structural components of the body C) Enable chemical processes in the body D) Made in sufficient quantities by the body

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27)

Minerals can A) provide energy.

B) be destroyed during cooking.

C) be degraded by the body.

D) become part of body structures.

28)

Vitamins and minerals ______ be broken down to provide energy.

A) cannot B) can

29)

Which of the following is a function of water?

A) Provides energy B) Transports nutrients and wastes C) Structural component of bone D) Prevents oxidative damage to cell membranes

30)

Which of the following nutrients provide no calories?

A) Alcohol B) Proteins C) Carbohydrates D) Vitamins

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31) What substances, present in fruits and vegetables, provide significant health benefits such as reducing the risk of cancer?

A) Phytochemicals B) Beta blockers C) Deoxidizers D) Free radicals

32)

Which of the following is an example of a phytochemical?

A) Carotenoids B) Cholesterol C) Fiber D) Enzymes

33)

A kilocalorie is a measure of A) heat energy.

B) fat in food.

C) nutrients in food.

D) sugar and fat in food.

34)

Per gram, which of the following provides the most energy?

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A) Carbohydrates B) Proteins C) Alcohol D) Fats

35)

Which of the following is true about the energy content of nutrients?

A) Lipids supply 7 kcal per gram.

B) Carbohydrates and proteins supply 4 kcal per gram.

C) Alcohol supplies 9 kcal per gram.

D) Lipids and alcohol supply 9 kcal per gram.

36)

Which of the following includes all energy-yielding substances?

A) Carbohydrates, lipids, protein, water B) Vitamins, minerals, carbohydrates, lipids, protein C) Alcohol, carbohydrates, lipids, protein D) Carbohydrates, lipids, protein, vitamins, minerals, water

37)

Which of the following is the largest unit of measurement?

A) Centigram B) Milligram C) Microgram D) Kilogram

38)

Which of the following is the smallest unit of measurement?

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A) Centigram B) Milligram C) Microgram D) Kilogram

39) A serving of ranch salad dressing has 5 grams of fat. How many calories come from fat in 1 serving of ranch salad dressing?

A) 5 kcal B) 20 kcal C) 25 kcal D) 45 kcal

40) A recipe calls for 140 grams of chicken breast. This is equivalent to ______ ounces of chicken breast.

A) 5 B) 3920 C) 8.75 D) 1.4

41) One cup of chocolate milk contains 15 grams of carbohydrates, 8 grams of fat, and 8 grams of protein. This cup of chocolate milk supplies ______ kcal.

A) 164 B) 124 C) 279 D) 31

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42) Penelope tracked her food and beverage intake for three days using NutritionCalc Plus.

Her analysis showed an average intake of 1760 kcal and 42 grams of fat per day. According to her data, her usual diet provides approximately A) 21% of kcal from fat.

B) 2% of kcal from fat.

C) 10% of kcal from fat.

D) 17% of kcal from fat.

43)

Pat purchases a 2-liter bottle of root beer. This would be approximately A) 2 quarts.

B) 4 cups.

C) 2 gallons.

D) 2 pints.

44) A meal consisting of a cheeseburger, large fries, and a chocolate shake provides a total of 1120 kcal. If 40% of total kcal in this meal come from fat, how many grams of fat are in this meal?

A) 64 grams B) 112 grams C) 448 grams D) 50 grams

45) A serving of breakfast cereal provides 160 total calories and 8 grams of added sugars.

Added sugars provide ______ of total kcal in this breakfast cereal.

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A) 45% B) 20% C) 5% D) 35%

46)

Which of the following most accurately describes the term epidemiology?

A) A test made to examine the validity of an educated guess B) An educated guess by a scientist to explain a phenomenon C) A study of how disease rates vary among different population groups D) An explanation for a phenomenon that has numerous lines of evidence to support it

47) In the _____ experimental design, neither the participants nor the researchers are aware of each participant’s assignment (test or placebo) or the outcome of the study until it is completed.

A) uncontrolled B) case-control C) double-blind D) single-blind

48)

Which of the following accurately describes the term hypothesis?

A) A test made to examine the validity of an educated guess B) An educated guess by a scientist to explain a phenomenon C) A study of how disease rates vary among different population groups D) An explanation for a phenomenon that has numerous lines of evidence to support it

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49) When researchers complete a research study and prepare a manuscript describing their work for publication, they seek out an evaluation of work by professionals of similar competence to themselves. This helps to ensure that the work is objective and of high quality. This evaluation process is known as A) compentency check.

B) performance review.

C) independent critique.

D) peer review.

50) A ______ is generally a fake medicine used to disguise the identify of the treatments in an experiment.

A) placebo B) control C) case D) hypothesis

51) A statistical examination that pools the data from multiple research studies to determine overall trends is called a A) meta-analysis.

B) randomized controlled trial.

C) cohort study.

D) peer review.

52) The Nurses' Health Study includes more than 280,000 participants. When participants enrolled in the study, they agreed to have their lifestyle behaviors and health parameters assessed repeatedly over the coming years so that researchers could explore relationships between lifestyle and health risks. The Nurses' Health Study is a ______ cohort study.

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A) prospective B) retrospective

53)

The most rigorous type of controlled experiment is a A) Meta-analysis B) Randomized controlled trial C) Cohort study D) Case-control study

54) According to the Food and Nutrition Board (FNB) of the National Academy of Sciences, ______ of caloriesshould come from carbohydrates.

A) 20% to 35% B) 45% to 65% C) 10% to 35%

55) According to the Food and Nutrition Board (FNB) of the National Academy of Sciences, ______ of caloriesshould come from protein.

A) 20% to 35% B) 45% to 65% C) 10% to 35%

56) According to the Food and Nutrition Board (FNB) of the National Academy of Sciences, ______ of caloriesshould come from fat.

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A) 20% to 35% B) 45% to 65% C) 10% to 35%

57)

An overarching goal of Healthy People 2030 is to A) help people live free of preventable disease, disability, injury, and premature death.

B) implement a universal health care system.

C) set standards for nutrient intakes in the United States.

D) develop policies that promote physical activity among Americans of all ages.

58)

Which of the following is true about the North American dietary pattern?

A) Most of our protein comes from plant sources.

B) Approximately half of our carbohydrates come from simple sugars.

C) Most of our fats come from plant sources.

D) Our dietary fiber intake is excessive.

59)

On average, Americans consume approximately ______% of total calories as fat.

A) 34 B) 22 C) 28 D) 55

60)

In the United States, approximately ______ of adults are overweight or obese.

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A) one-quarter B) one-third C) one-half D) two-thirds

61)

A nutrition-related objective from Healthy People 2030 is to A) reduce the proportion of households that experience food insecurity.

B) increase the consumption of added sugars.

C) increase the consumption of sodium.

D) reduce the proportion of adults who are at a healthy weight.

62)

To reduce their risk formany chronic diseases, Americans should limit their intakes of A) saturated fats.

B) whole grains.

C) phytochemicals.

D) carbonated water.

63)

Which of the following individuals is engaging in binge drinking?

A) A woman who drinks two 12-fl oz cans of beer while eating steamed crabs.

B) A man who drinks four shots of whiskey at a bachelor party.

C) A woman who drinks three 5-fl oz glasses of wine at a cocktail party.

D) A man who drinks a six-pack of 12-fl oz bottles of beer at a cookout.

64) Of all the alcohol sources, ______ often is singled out as the best choice because of the added bonus of the many phytochemicals present.

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A) red wine B) wine coolers C) light beer D) hard cider

65)

An 80-proof alcoholic beverage contains ______ percent alcohol.

A) 20 B) 40 C) 80 D) 100

66) Which of the following are reasons older adults are more susceptible to the damaging effects of alcohol?

A) Older adults tend to have lower lean body mass and lower body water content.

B) The rate of alcohol metabolism decreases with age.

C) Alcohol can interact with medications in the body.

D) All of these choices are correct.

67)

Where is the chief site of alcohol metabolism?

A) Brain B) Stomach C) Liver D) Kidneys

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68)

A person with a deficiency of alcohol dehydrogenase would A) become intoxicated at low levels of alcohol intake.

B) have a high tolerance for alcohol.

C) be able to pass a breathalyzer test even with a blood alcohol concentration of 0.08 or

higher.

D) feel ill due to an accumulation of acetaldehyde in the blood.

69) Studies suggestthat about ______ of a person’s risk for developing alcohol use disorders isgenetic.

A) 10% B) 25% C) 50% D) 95%

70) The disease characterized by fatty infiltration of the liver and replacement of functioning liver cells with fibrous connective tissue is known as A) cirrhosis.

B) liver cancer.

C) hepatitis.

D) Crohn's disease.

71) The Dietary Guidelines recommends that adults of legal drinking age can choose not to drink, or to drink in moderation by limiting intake to _____ drink(s) or less in a day for men or _____ drink(s) or less in a day for women, on days when alcohol is consumed.

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A) 1; 0 B) 2; 1 C) 3; 2 D) 4; 3

72)

A warning sign or symptom of alcohol poisoning is A) semiconsciousness or unconsciousness.

B) rapid breathing.

C) skin that is hot to the touch.

D) insomnia.

73)

All of the essential nutrients function as regulators of body processes. ⊚ ⊚

74)

true false

Water is one of the six classes of essential nutrients. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 01_12e 1) D 2) B 3) C 4) B 5) A 6) B 7) A 8) B 9) A 10) D 11) A 12) B 13) B 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) B 18) A 19) A 20) A 21) A 22) A 23) C 24) C 25) A 26) C Version 1

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27) D 28) A 29) B 30) D 31) A 32) A 33) A 34) D 35) B 36) C 37) D 38) C 39) D 40) A 41) A 42) A 43) A 44) D 45) B 46) C 47) C 48) B 49) D 50) A 51) A 52) A 53) B 54) B 55) C 56) A Version 1

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57) A 58) B 59) A 60) D 61) A 62) A 63) D 64) A 65) B 66) D 67) C 68) A 69) C 70) A 71) B 72) A 73) FALSE 74) TRUE

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CHAPTER 2 1)

A comparison of the calorie content of a food to the weight of that food is A) energy density.

B) nutrient density.

C) body density.

D) diet quality.

2)

Nutrient density can be defined as the amount of

A) a particular nutrient in a serving of food divided by the number of calories in that serving.

B) a particular nutrient in a serving of food divided by the number of grams of protein.

C) calories in a food divided by the amount of calories needed in a day.

D) a nutrient in a serving of food divided by the amount of the nutrient needed for that day.

3)

Which statement best describes nutrient density?

A) Choose a number of different foods within any given food group rather than the same old thing.

B) Consume a variety of foods from MyPlate's five major food groups every day.

C) Plan your entire day's dietary intake so that you do not overconsume nutrient sources.

D) Consume foods that have the most nutrients when compared to their calories.

4) One cup of apple juice has 111 kcal and 1.4 mg of vitamin C. The same serving size of orange juice has 112 kcal and 124 mg of vitamin C. Which of the following is true regarding their nutrient density?

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A) Apple juice ismore nutrient dense for vitamin C than orange juice.

B) To get adequate vitamin C while watching calorie intake, it would be better to consume apple juice than orange juice.

C) Apple juice provides more vitamin C per calorie than orange juice.

D) Orange juice ismore nutrient dense for vitamin C than apple juice.

5) Paying attention to _____ is one way to control energy intake to aid in weight management throughout the life span.

A) portion size B) sleep C) stress D) variety

6)

Which of the following would enhance your overall dietary intake of phytochemicals?

A) Replacing plant proteins with animal proteins B) Substituting cream-based dips for salsa C) Incorporating soy-based proteins into your dietary pattern D) Replacing red or dark green loose-leaf lettuce with crisp head lettuce

7) The Dietary Guidelines promotes a varied dietary pattern that permits individuals to enjoy different foods and beverages tailored to meet A) energy and nutrient density.

B) the nutrient needs of the entire U.S. population.

C) both cultural and personal preferences.

D) the nutrient requirements of U.S. adults.

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8) Which of the following is true about the dietary patterns to promote optimal nutritional status?

A) Eat primarily fruits and vegetables because we can get all the nutrients we need from those sources.

B) Do the best you can but take nutritional supplements to fill in the deficient areas.

C) Choose a variety of options from each food group because no single food meets all human nutrient needs.

D) Eat only plant products because animal products are environmentally toxic and generally filled with hormones for animal growth.

9) The Dietary Guidelines stresses the importance of adhering to key recommenations for preventing non-communicable diseases. Which of the following are modifiable lifestyle behaviors that improve health outcomes?

A) Reducing sodium intake to 2400 milligrams per day.

B) Limiting intake of monunsaturated fats.

C) Obtaining a minimum of 150 minutes of vigorous exercise daily.

D) Aiming to eat the recommended amounts of fruits and vegetables daily.

10)

The Dietary Guidelines emphasize A) reduction of bothtotal calories and physical activity.

B) reduction of added sugars, alcohol, saturated fat, and sodium.

C) increase in animalprotein and refined grains.

D) increase in alltypes of dairy products.

11)

The Dietary Guidelines recommend which of the following?

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A) Limit calories from saturated fats and added sugars B) Consume two alcoholic beverages per day C) Eliminate oils and solid fats from the diet D) Decrease vegetable and fruit intake

12)

Which of the following statements is consistent with the Dietary Guidelines?

A) Avoid varying from the prescribed foods becausethe recommendations are tailored to meet the needs of all U.S. adults.

B) About 85% of the calories you consume daily are needed to meet the nutrient-dense food group recommendations.

C) Choose a dietary pattern with plenty of animal products, including milk and meats, since they are most bioavailable.

D) Limit carbohydrates and increase protein sources to promote energy balance.

13) According to the Dietary Guidelines, Americans should adjust their dietary patterns to include more A) milk, meats, and beans.

B) fruits, vegetables, and whole grains.

C) grains, beans,and solid fats.

D) fruit juice, beans, and meat.

14) Key dietary recommendations support calories.

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A) added sugars B) sodium C) animal proteins D) total fat

15) The Dietary Guidelines recommend limiting intake of ______ to less than 10% of calories starting at age 2.

A) saturated fatty acids B) trans fatty acids C) essential fatty acids D) total fat

16) According to the Dietary Guidelines, adults should _______ intake of fat-free or lowfat dairy products or fortified soy beverages.

A) increase B) maintain current C) decrease

17) The Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans advise a minimum of minutes per week of moderate-intensity physical activity for adults.

to ______

A) 30; 60 B) 60; 150 C) 90; 120 D) 150; 300

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18) The visual food grouping guidelines most recently released from the United States government are called A) The Food Guide Pyramid.

B) The Basic Four Food Groups.

C) MyPyramid.

D) MyPlate.

19)

According to MyPlate, eggs belong in the ______ group.

A) protein B) dairy C) grain D) vegetable

20)

Two tablespoons (tbsp) of salad dressing or peanut butteris about the size of A) a yoyo.

B) a softball.

C) a tennis ball.

D) 2 dice.

21)

In order to ensure adequate intake of nutrients, choose vegetables A) from all vegetable subgroups.

B) from local farms.

C) that have no preservatives.

D) that are organic.

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22) Which of the following is a major contributor of discretionary calories in American dietary patterns?

A) Sugar-sweetened beverages B) Diet soft drinks C) Canned fruits D) Whole grain breakfast cereals

23) The number of servings to consume from each MyPlate food group depends primarily on a person's A) weight, sleep patterns, and waist circumference.

B) culture and taste preferences.

C) age, sex, height, and weight D) frame size.

24)

Which meal contains foods from all food groups represented in MyPlate?

A) Chef's salad containing ham, lettuce, an egg, cream-based salad dressing, and croutons; bagel; apple; and soft drink B) Steak, baked potato with margarine, broccoli, salad with oil and vinegar dressing, and milk C) Refried beans, onions, tomatoes, and low-fat cheese wrapped in a tortilla; orange; and water D) Pasta, marinara(tomato)sauce with clams, house salad with vegetables, Italian bread withbutter, and wine

25)

When it comes to choosing fruit, the Dietary Guidelines recommend

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A) avoiding fruit if you want to lose weight.

B) eating a variety of fruit—fresh, canned, dried, 100%, or frozen.

C) including plenty of fruit drinks for your fruit servings.

D) choosing only whole, fresh fruits.

26) Which of the following is for meal planning?

representative of the Dietary Guidelines recommendations

A) Selecting low-fat dairy choices over high fat B) Incorporating several servings of animal sources of protein per week C) Consuming refined grain breads and cereals D) Eliminating all fruits to lose weight

27) Saturated fats are primarily animal fats, such as found in butter and beef fat. They can be found naturally in foods, including _____, and are also added during food processing and cooking.

A) canola oil B) nuts and seeds C) avocados D) tropical oils

28) The MyPlate icon contains five food groups. In this icon, fruits and vegetables cover _____ of the plate.

A) one-fourth B) half C) three-fourths D) all

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29) Margaret, an older woman, needs to limit her calorie intake without sacrificing needed nutrients. Keeping MyPlate in mind, which of the following could she do?

A) Eliminate carbohydrates B) Carefully select foods rich in nutrients but low in calories C) Count calories and not worry about the food groups D) Eliminate dairy foods

30)

Which of the following is true about the use of MyPlate?

A) The guide applies to all Americans.

B) Milk and meat are essential to good nutrition.

C) Choosing a variety of options from each food group is recommended.

D) The guide doesnot permit use of fats, oils, and sweets.

31) An adult who follows a 2000-kcal Healthy U.S.-Style Dietary Pattern should consume ______ ounce-equivalents from the Protein Foods group per day.

A) 2 to 3 B) 4 C) 5.5 D) 10

32) An adult who follows a 2000-kcal Healthy U.S.-Style Dietary Pattern should consume ______ cups of dairy equivalents per day.

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A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

33)

According to MyPlate, food choicesfrom the Grains Group should include A) an equal amount ofwhole grain and refined grain products.

B) at least half of the grain servings as whole grains.

C) only whole grain products.

D) a serving of grain products at each meal.

34) The Mediterranean Diet Pyramid represents the dietary patterns of people from parts of the Mediterranean region that enjoy A) the lowestrecorded rates of chronic diseases.

B) the lowest adultlife expectancy.

C) the highest intakeof saturated fat.

D) the lowest intakeof carbohydrates.

35) Malnutrition can occur in people old or young, rich or poor. Malnutrition is defined by being A) overnourished.

B) undernourished.

C) either overnourished or undernourished.

D) food insecure.

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36) Which term describes failing health that results from a dietary pattern that is chronically inadequate?

A) Desirable nutrition B) Food insecurity C) Undernutrition D) Inferior nutrition

37) A state of micronutrient deficiency, when the quality of food one consumes does not meet their nutrient requirements for normal metabolic functions and maintenance is called A) overnourished.

B) hidden hunger.

C) undernourished.

D) food insecurity.

38) Kate consumes 1900 kcal each day. She requires 1750 kcal to meet daily energy needs.

Over time, Kate's calorie consumption could lead to A) undernutrition.

B) balanced nutrition.

C) overnutrition.

39)

Measurements of height, weight, body circumferences, and body fat are called

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A) sonography.

B) electrocardiography.

C) radiography.

D) anthropometry.

40)

Which of the following is not

a key component of a basic nutritional assessment?

A) Anthropometrics B) Biochemical tests C) Clinical evaluation D) Psychoanalysis

41) Missy visits a doctor because she feels tired most of the time, is easily distracted, and feels chilled. As part of her examination, Missy has blood drawn to be tested for concentrations of nutrients and their by-products. This part of the examination is the A) anthropometric assessment.

B) physical examination.

C) biochemical evaluation.

D) clinicalexamination.

42) Mrs. Mitchell was hospitalized after being found unconscious in her home. A dietitian conducted a nutritional assessment, noting the general appearance of Mrs. Mitchell's skin, eyes, and tongue. Which part of the assessment is this?

A) Medicalhistory B) Diet history C) Biochemical evaluation D) Clinical examination

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43) Jeff, a world-class triathlete, visits a dietitian to obtain sports nutrition advice. During his visit, Jeff is asked to recall what he ate for the past 24 hours. Which part of a nutritional assessment is this?

A) Biochemical evaluation B) Dietaryassessment C) Clinical examination D) Menu planning

44)

The acronym

"DRI" stands for

A) Dietary Required Intake.

B) Dietary Reference Intake.

C) Daily Required Intake.

D) Daily ReferenceIntake.

45) When there is insufficient research to determine the RDA for a nutrient, the ______, based on estimates of intakes that appear to maintain a defined nutritional state in a specific life stage, is the nutrient standard.

A) Adequate Intake (AI) B) Daily Value (DV) C) Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) D) Chronic Disease Risk Reduction Intakes (CDRR)

46)

The acronym "RDA" stands for

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A) Recommended Dietary Allowance.

B) Recommended Daily Allowance.

C) Required Dietary Allowance.

D) Required Daily Allowance.

47)

The RDAs for nutrients are set A) to cover the needs of 97% to 98% of the population.

B) based on the dietary intakes of people who appear to be maintaining nutritional

health.

C) by the FDA for food labeling purposes.

D) based on a person’s height and weight.

48)

The RDAs are considered to be adequate to meet the known nutritional needs of A) all persons except the very young and very old.

B) all persons except pregnant and lactating women.

C) nearly all healthy persons.

D) all persons, diseased and healthy.

49)

The RDAs for nutrients generally are A) the minimum amounts the average adult male requires.

B) more than twice the actual requirements.

C) designed to prevent deficiency disease in half the population.

D) designed to be adequate for almost all healthy people.

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50)

Adequate Intakes (AI) A) are established for nutrients for which there is not enough information to set RDAs. B) are established for carbohydrate, total fat, and dietary fiber.

C) represent minimum nutrient needs.

D) are established for all vitamins and minerals.

51) The RDA for iron is 18 milligrams per day for adult women. Tinausually consumes about 15 milligrams of iron per day. She is a healthy young woman with no condition that significantly increases her needs for iron. Which of the following statements is true about her consumption of this nutrient?

A) She is likely tobe deficient in iron.

B) She will need to consume significantly more iron, above the RDA, to make up for her intake.

C) She would only be at great risk of nutritional deficiency if her intake is consistently below 70% of the RDA. D) She could not possibly be getting enough iron for her needs.

52) Which of the following nutrient standards is referenced on the Nutrition Facts label of a box of breakfast cereal?

A) Recommended Dietary Allowance B) Daily Value C) Adequate Intake D) Estimated Safe and Adequate Daily Dietary Intake

53) One serving of breakfast cereal contains 50% of the 18 mg Daily Value for iron. How much iron will one serving of the cereal provide?

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A) 5 mg B) 9 mg C) 15 mg D) 36 mg

54) Based on the % DV, what is the maximum grams of added sugars per day that one could consume and meet the dietary recommendations?

A) 5 grams B) 10 grams C) 25 grams D) 50 grams

55)

The term Daily Value on a food label refers to

A) a generic standardset at or close to the highest RDA value or related nutrient standard.

B) RDAs. C) minimum requirements.

D) AIs.

56)

EER refers to

A) a set of nutrient recommendations that includes RDAs, AIs, and ULs. B) estimated calorie needs for the average person in a specific life stage.

C) a person's actual calorie needs, as measured by calorimetry.

D) the level of dietary intake of a nutrient that is likely to meet the needs of nearly all healthy individuals in a particular life stage and sex.

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57)

In order to makehealthful and logical nutrition decisions, beware of A) testimonials aboutpersonal experience.

B) reputablepublication sources.

C) registered dietitian nutritionists.

D) evidence from a variety of scientific studies.

58) A food label states that a serving of a particular product provides 20% of the Daily Value for fat. This means that A) when you eat a serving of this product, you will be getting one-fifth of the RDA for fat.

B) a serving of this product provides about 15.6 grams of fat.

C) this product is not a good choice to achieve your nutritional needs.

D) fat makes up 20% of the weight of the food product.

59)

Which government agency is responsible for most U.S. food labeling?

A) FDA B) USPS C) AND D) NAS

60) To carry the "organic" label claim on the front of a food package, at least ______% of the ingredients (by weight) must meet the federal guidelines for organic foods. For a product labeled "made with organic ingredients," only ______% of ingredients must be organic.

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A) 100; 75 B) 90; 51 C) 80; 60 D) 95; 70

61)

Added sugars

A) are no longer limited in the Dietary Guidelines.

B) are not included on the new food label.

C) should be limited to less than 10% of total calories per day starting at age 2.

D) must include all sugars and artificial sweeteners that are added during food processing or cooking on the Added Sugars declaration of Nutrition Facts labels.

62)

RDAs are not used in food labeling because A) they are age- and sex-specific.

B) they are too generic.

C) there are too many of them.

D) their values are set too high.

63) To be labeled a good source of a particular nutrient, the food must contain ______% to ______% of the Daily Value for that nutrient.

A) 5; 10 B) 10; 19 C) 20; 40 D) 50; 100

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64)

By law, which of the following food items must display a Nutrition Facts label?

A) Box of granola bars B) Navel oranges C) Fresh catfish fillet D) Fresh spinach

65)

Which of the following is required on the Nutrition Facts label?

A) The amount per serving of all vitamins and minerals for which there is an RDA B) The serving size C) Total calories from vitamin D per serving D) Percent DV for protein

66) Looking at the ingredients list on a jar of spaghetti sauce, you see that olive oil is the second ingredient. This means that olive oil is A) the second ingredient by alphabetical listing.

B) just one of theingredients present in the sauce.

C) the second most abundant ingredient by weight.

D) the second most abundant ingredient by volume.

67) A food item has 200 kcal per serving and 25 grams of carbohydrate. What percent of the caloriesare from carbohydrate in this item?

A) 100% B) 40% C) 25% D) 50%

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68) To calculate the number of calories from fat in one serving, multiply grams of fat by ______ kcal/g.

A) 4 B) 7 C) 9 D) 2

69) The food label of your beverage liststhe serving size as ½ bottle and the calories per serving as 100 kcal. If youdrank the entire bottle, you consumed ______ kcal.

A) 200 B) 75 C) 300 D) 150

70) The Nutrition Facts label on a box ofbreakfast cereal shows that the product provides 10% of the Daily Value for Vitamin D. Which of the following statements is true?

A) One serving of cereal provides 10% of the recommended amount of Vitamin D for the general population.

B) One package of cereal provides 10% of the recommended amount of Vitamin D for the general population.

C) One serving of cereal provides 10% of the Recommended Dietary Allowance for Vitamin D for adults.

D) One serving of cerealprovides 10% of total calories from Vitamin D.

71)

An example of an approved Nutrition Fact label claim includes

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A) calcium and heart disease.

B) sodium and cancer.

C) folate and neural tube defects.

D) whole grains and diabetes.

72)

According to the FDA, there are eight allergens that must be labeled. These include A) milk, eggs, wheat, and fish.

B) poultry, beef, soy, and processed meats.

C) coconut, mushrooms, nuts, and gluten.

D) shrimp, tree nuts, and chocolate.

73) A Nutrition Facts label promotes "reduced-fat" tortilla chips. As a consumer, you can assume this means that the product has approximately _____ % less fat than the original chips.

A) 5 B) 10 C) 25 D) 50

74)

Which government agency is responsible for regulating most U.S. food labeling?

A) Food and Drug Administration B) U.S. Department of Agriculture C) Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, and Firearms D) Center for Science in the Public Interest

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75)

The "Freshman 15" is the term used to describe the A) typical waist circumference of college students after their freshman year.

B) typical body fat percentage of college students after their freshman year.

C) amount of weight (in pounds) typically gained during the freshman year of college.

D) typical BMI of college students after their freshman year.

76)

A warning sign or symptom of alcohol poisoning is A) semiconsciousness or unconsciousness.

B) rapid breathing.

C) skin that is hot to the touch.

D) insomnia.

77) All forms of foods, including fresh, canned, dried, frozen, and 100% juices, in nutrientdense forms, can be included in healthy dietary patterns. ⊚ ⊚

true false

78) Recent data suggests that it is more important to meet your nutritional needs primarily through foods and beverages rather than individual nutrients or phytochemicals to reduce chronic disease risk. ⊚ ⊚

true false

79) The ultimate goal of a nutritious dietary pattern is to support a healthy body weight and help reduce the risk of chronic disease.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

80) The results of an observational study show that women who regularly take multivitamins tend to have healthier body weight.

Taking multivitamins causes weight loss. ⊚ true ⊚ false

81)

The percent Daily Value on a food label are based on a 2300 kcal dietary pattern. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) Long-term consequences of eating disorders include heart irregularities, gastrointestinal dysfunction, and bone loss. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 02_12e 1) A 2) A 3) D 4) D 5) A 6) C 7) C 8) C 9) D 10) B 11) A 12) B 13) B 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) D 18) D 19) A 20) D 21) A 22) A 23) C 24) C 25) B 26) A Version 1

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27) D 28) B 29) B 30) C 31) C 32) C 33) B 34) A 35) C 36) C 37) B 38) C 39) D 40) D 41) C 42) D 43) B 44) B 45) A 46) A 47) A 48) C 49) D 50) A 51) C 52) B 53) B 54) D 55) A 56) B Version 1

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57) A 58) B 59) A 60) D 61) C 62) A 63) B 64) A 65) B 66) C 67) D 68) C 69) A 70) A 71) C 72) A 73) C 74) A 75) C 76) A 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) TRUE 80) FALSE 81) FALSE 82) TRUE

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CHAPTER 3 1) Which of the following is stored within the nucleus of the cell and acts as a code book for synthesizing specific proteins?

A) RNA B) Ribosomes C) Amino acids D) DNA

2)

The organelles that are known as the power plantsor the powerhousesof the cell are the A) mitochondria.

B) lysosomes.

C) ribosomes.

D) nuclei.

3) Which type of metabolic reactions combine small, simple compounds to make larger, more complex compounds?

A) Anabolic reactions B) Catabolic reactions

4) The chemical processes that break down carbohydrates, proteins, and fats to release energy are ______ reactions.

A) anabolic B) catabolic C) synthetic D) immunological

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5) Which of the following nutrients must be supplied by the foods we eat to support the chemical processes of human physiology?

A) Proteins B) Lipids C) Vitamins and minerals D) All of these choices are correct

6)

To which body part does blood travel to pick up oxygen and release carbon dioxide?

A) Heart B) Lungs C) Liver D) Kidneys

7) Which large blood vessel transports nutrients from the small intestine directly to the liver?

A) Hepatic portal vein B) Mesenteric vein C) Subclavian vein D) Renal vein

8)

Immediately after digestion in the small intestine, most dietary fats are absorbed into the

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A) lymph.

B) bile.

C) urine.

D) blood.

9)

Which of the following is a function of the lymphatic system?

A) Production of urine B) Transport of dietary lipids C) Transport of water-soluble vitamins D) Metabolism of alcohol

10)

The ______ system assists the digestive system with the absorption of dietary fats.

A) integumentary B) respiratory C) urinary D) lymphatic

11)

The small vessels of the lymphatic system are called A) lacteals.

B) alveoli.

C) capillaries.

D) enterocytes.

12)

The urinary system

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A) produces bile.

B) excretes excess water-soluble vitamins.

C) digests carbohydrates.

D) transports oxygen to tissues.

13)

Which body system filters wastes from the blood and helps to regulate fluid balance?

A) Urinary system B) Endocrine system C) Integumentary system D) Respiratory system

14)

Which organ produces urine?

A) Kidney B) Ureter C) Urethra D) Urinary bladder

15)

Transmission of nerve impulses relies on the concentrations of ______ in theneuron.

A) sodium andpotassium B) vitamin D C) cholesterol D) B vitamins

16)

A chemical that allows for communication between one cell and anotheris a

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A) neurotransmitter.

B) neuron.

C) nephron.

D) synapse.

17) Which organ system is made up of several glands that act in the regulation of metabolism, reproduction, water balance, and many other functions?

A) Urinary system B) Cardiovascular system C) Endocrine system D) Lymphatic system

18)

Which hormone functions in the regulation of the body's metabolic rate?

A) Thyroid hormone B) Insulin C) Vitamin D D) Glucagon

19)

Which organ system defends the body against pathogens?

A) Immune system B) Skeletal system C) Respiratory system D) Nervous system

20)

The physical barriers of the skin and GI tract support the ______ immune response.

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A) nonspecific (innate) B) specific (adaptive)

21) The processes by which certain white blood cells identify and destroy pathogens are part of the ______ immune response.

A) specific (adaptive) B) nonspecific (innate)

22)

What structure prevents food from entering the trachea when you swallow?

A) Epiglottis B) Tongue C) Tonsils D) Esophagus

23) the

Nutrient-rich blood leaving the intestine goes by way of the hepatic portal vein directly to

A) kidneys.

B) heart.

C) liver.

D) pancreas.

24)

Where does digestion begin?

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A) Mouth B) Stomach C) Esophagus D) Small intestine

25)

The taste for fat is known as A) oleogustus.

B) umami.

C) lipase.

D) butyric acid.

26)

The epiglottis A) covers the opening of the stomach.

B) prevents food from entering the trachea during swallowing.

C) regulates the movement of chyme from the stomach into the small intestine.

D) prevents the backflow of feces from the large intestine into the small intestine.

27)

What is one function of the lower esophageal sphincter?

A) Prevents intestinal contents from backing up into the stomach B) Prevents esophageal contents from emptying too quickly into the stomach C) Prevents stomach contents from backing up into the esophagus D) Prevents intestinal contents from emptying too quickly into the colon

28)

Most chemical digestion takes place in the

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A) stomach.

B) small intestine.

C) pancreas.

D) large intestine.

29)

The stomach empties into the small intestine through the A) pyloric sphincter.

B) lower esophageal sphincter.

C) sphincter of Oddi.

D) ileocecal sphincter.

30)

What is one function of the pyloric sphincter?

A) Controls the release of pancreatic secretions into the small intestine B) Prevents stomach contents from backing up into the esophagus C) Controls the passage of chyme from the stomach into the small intestine D) Prevents the backward movement of feces from the large intestine into the small intestine

31)

What sphincter separates the small intestine from the large intestine?

A) Pyloric B) Esophageal C) Anal D) Ileocecal

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A) sphincters.

B) passages.

C) channels.

D) gates.

33)

Which of the following is a description of chyme?

A) A watery mixture of partially digested food released by the stomach into the intestines B) A semisolid mass of undigested food that moves down the esophagus C) The mixture of pancreatic juices containing enzymes for digestion D) A thick, viscous material synthesized by mucosal cells for protection against digestive juices

34)

Which of the following is a function of sphincter muscles?

A) Breaks apart food particles B) Controls passage of food through the GI tract C) Controls peristalsis D) Produces enzymes and hormones

35) What substance helps suspend fat in a watery digestive mixture, making fat more available to digestive enzymes?

A) Bicarbonate B) Mucus C) Bile D) Pancreatic juices

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36)

Most digestive enzymes are produced by the A) pancreas and small intestinal cells.

B) liver and large intestinal cells.

C) pancreas and large intestinal cells.

D) liver and gallbladder.

37) Most dietary ______ are too large to be absorbed directly into the capillaries from the small intestine; they must be absorbed into the lacteals.

A) minerals B) fats C) carbohydrates D) proteins

38)

Which of the followingorgans produces bile?

A) Stomach B) Gallbladder C) Pancreas D) Liver

39) Which of the followingorgans stores bile until it is released into the small intestine to digest a meal?

A) Stomach B) Gallbladder C) Pancreas D) Liver

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40)

Peristalsis refers to A) chewing and swallowing.

B) the opening and closing of sphincters.

C) the action of bile on dietary fat.

D) muscular movement of materials through the GI tract.

41)

The muscular contractions that move food through the digestive tract are called A) regurgitation.

B) peristalsis.

C) propulsion.

D) compression.

42) The digestive system consists of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract and accessory organs.

Which of the following organs is part of the GI tract?

A) Liver B) Pancreas C) Stomach D) Gallbladder

43) ______ are protein-based substances that enhance digestion by making chemical reactions more likely to happen.

A) Neurotransmitters B) Emulsifiers C) Enzymes D) Hormones

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44)

Which of the following is true about digestive enzymes?

A) An enzyme can only be used one time.

B) Most digestive enzymes are produced by the liver.

C) Enzymes that work in the acidic environment of the stomach cannot work in the basic or alkaline environment of the small intestine and vice versa.

D) Enzymes typically work independently of vitamins or minerals.

45)

Which pH best describes the environment of the stomach when stimulated?

A) Neutral B) Acidic C) Basic

46)

The stomach cells produce A) mucus.

B) hydrochloric acid.

C) enzymes.

D) All of these choices are correct.

47)

The function of the intrinsic factor is to A) facilitate absorption of vitamin B-12.

B) solubilize minerals in the chyme.

C) emulsify fats in the small intestine.

D) lubricate the passage of food through the GI tract.

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48)

The intrinsic factor is produced by cells in the A) stomach.

B) small intestine.

C) liver.

D) pancreas.

49)

The function of thick mucus in the stomach is to A) promote fat digestion.

B) activate gastric enzymes.

C) protect stomach cells from acid and enzymes.

D) activate pancreatic enzymes.

50) When chyme enters the small intestine, ______ is released from the pancreas and intestinal cells to neutralize hydrochloric acid.

A) bicarbonate B) trypsin C) bile D) mucus

51) The mixture of acid, enzymes, and partially digested food that moves from the stomach into the small intestine is called

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A) a bolus.

B) feces.

C) chyme.

D) bile.

52) Which of the following substances is primarily involved in the emulsification of fat to facilitate its digestion?

A) Bicarbonate B) Pancreatic juices C) Hydrochloric acid D) Bile

53)

Which of the following is true regarding bile?

A) It is an enzyme.

B) It stimulates the release of pancreatic juices.

C) It is produced by the liver.

D) It is a hormone.

54)

The function of the gallbladder is to A) store bile.

B) store digestive enzymes.

C) produce mucus.

D) produce bicarbonate.

55)

During digestion, the gallbladder and pancreas empty their contents into the

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A) duodenum.

B) jejunum.

C) ileum.

D) cecum.

56) Which of the following is both an endocrine (secretes hormones into the blood) and exocrine (secretes substances through a duct into the GI tract) organ?

A) Pancreas B) Gallbladder C) Small intestine D) Large intestine

57)

Nutrients are primarily absorbed from the A) stomach.

B) small intestine.

C) large intestine.

D) liver.

58)

The villi of the small intestine A) provide an enormous surface area that facilitates absorption.

B) store fat-soluble vitamins.

C) continuously push food through the small intestine to the colon.

D) inactivate enzymes consumed with food.

59)

Colon is another name for the

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A) large intestine.

B) small intestine.

C) gallbladder.

D) spleen.

60) In passive diffusion, nutrients move across a membrane from an area of ______ nutrient concentration to an area of ______ nutrient concentration.

A) higher; lower B) lower; higher

61)

A major function of the large intestine is to absorb A) fats.

B) water-soluble vitamins.

C) water.

D) dietary fiber.

62) The walls of the small intestine are folded, and within the folds are fingerlike projections called A) villi.

B) cilia.

C) dendrites.

D) rugae.

63) Which absorptive process in the small intestine requires a carrier and energy to transport nutrients into absorptive cells?

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A) Active absorption B) Passive diffusion C) Facilitated diffusion D) Osmosis

64) When a nutrient moves freely across the cell membrane from an area of higher nutrient concentration into an absorptive cell where the concentration of that nutrient is lower, this is called A) active absorption.

B) passive diffusion.

C) facilitated diffusion.

D) phagocytosis.

65) When a nutrient moves, with the help of a carrier, from an area of higher nutrient concentration into an absorptive cell where the concentration of that nutrientis lower, this is called A) active absorption.

B) passive diffusion.

C) facilitated diffusion.

D) phagocytosis.

66)

Water, dietary fiber, bacterial cells, and worn-out intestinal cells are components of A) feces.

B) bile.

C) urine.

D) lymph.

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67)

Probiotics are

A) live microorganisms that are consumed, take up residence in the GI tract, and confer health benefits on the host.

B) inactivated microorganisms that stimulate the immune system to develop antibodies.

C) fuel for live microorganisms that colonize the human GI tract.

D) metabolic by-products of the microorganisms that live in and on the human body.

68)

Yogurt, miso, and sauerkraut can be sources of A) probiotics.

B) NSAIDs. C) immunoglobulins.

D) intrinsic factor.

69) Selectively fermentedingredients that result in specific changesin the composition or activity ofthe gastrointestinal microbiota and conferbenefits upon the host are called A) probiotics.

B) FODMAPs. C) prebiotics.

D) gluten.

70) Metabolic by-products of the microorganisms that live in and on the human body are called

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A) probiotics.

B) postbiotics.

C) prebiotics.

D) synbiotics.

71) A disturbance in the balance of beneficial and harmful microorganisms in the human GI tract is called A) dysbiosis.

B) dyspepsia.

C) inflammatory bowel disease.

D) synbiosis.

72)

Which of the following organs serves as a storage depot formany vitamins and minerals?

A) Liver B) Gallbladder C) Kidney D) Stomach

73)

Glucose can be stored as glycogen in the A) liver and kidneys.

B) liver and muscles.

C) heart and kidneys.

D) blood and lymph.

74)

Excessive acid production in the stomach could result in

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A) poor iron, calcium, and folate absorption.

B) small intestinal bacterial overgrowth.

C) formation of an ulcer.

D) decreased fiber digestion and absorption.

75)

A recurrent and serious form of heartburn is called A) gastroesophageal reflux disease.

B) pernicious anemia.

C) eosinophilicesophagitis.

D) atrophic gastritis.

76)

Which of the following therapies is appropriate for treatment of occasional heartburn?

A) Aspirin B) Antacids C) Orange juice D) Milk and cream

77)

Heartburn is caused by A) an esophageal tear near the heart.

B) thebackflow of acid from the stomach into the esophagus.

C) consuming spicy and acidic foods.

D) the backflow of intestinal contents into the stomach.

78)

When should you seek medical attention for digestive problems?

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A) When over-the-counter medications cannot control the symptoms B) If there is evidence of blood in the stool or vomit C) If the problem results in unintended weight loss D) All of these are reasons to seek medical treatment.

79)

A safe and effective way to prevent constipation is to A) consume adequate dietary fiber.

B) restrict fluid intake.

C) restrict physical exercise.

D) use laxatives.

80)

Which of the following is an important dietary recommendation for avoiding heartburn?

A) Eat smaller meals that are lower in fat.

B) Consume milk or cream with meals.

C) Eat meals low in carbohydrate.

D) Avoid fluids.

81)

Most stomach ulcers are caused by ______ infection.

A) Salmonella B) Helicobacter pylori C) E. coli D) Clostridium botulinum

82) Excessive use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs, such as aspirin) could lead to

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A) an ulcer.

B) gallstones.

C) small intestinal bacterial overgrowth.

D) hemorrhoids.

83) ions.

A(n) ______ is a medication that inhibits the ability of gastric cells to secrete hydrogen

A) proton pump inhibitor B) NSAID C) antacid D) antibiotic

84) A condition characterized by abdominal pain and bloating, diarrhea, and/or constipation is known as A) irritable bowel syndrome.

B) peptic ulcers.

C) gastroesophageal reflux disease.

D) gallstones.

85) Dietary avoidance of poorly digested carbohydrates known as fermentable oligosaccharides, disaccharides, monosaccharides, and polyols (FODMAPs) may be a useful therapy for A) irritable bowel syndrome.

B) heartburn.

C) gallstones.

D) inflammatory bowel disease.

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86)

An adequate intake of dietary fiber may help to prevent A) diverticulosis.

B) constipation.

C) hemorrhoids.

D) All of these choices are correct.

87) An autoimmune condition that results in damage to the small intestine upon exposure to gluten-containing foods is called A) celiac disease.

B) nonceliac wheat sensitivity.

C) irritable bowel syndrome.

D) traveler's diarrhea.

88)

The only proven treatment for celiac disease is dietary avoidance of A) wheat, barley, and rye.

B) wheat, rice, and oats.

C) gas-forming foods.

D) spicy and acidic foods.

89)

The esophagus is an active site of chemical digestion. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 03_12e 1) D 2) A 3) A 4) B 5) D 6) B 7) A 8) A 9) B 10) D 11) A 12) B 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) A 17) C 18) A 19) A 20) A 21) A 22) A 23) C 24) A 25) A 26) B Version 1

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27) C 28) B 29) A 30) C 31) D 32) A 33) A 34) B 35) C 36) A 37) B 38) D 39) B 40) D 41) B 42) C 43) C 44) C 45) B 46) D 47) A 48) A 49) C 50) A 51) C 52) D 53) C 54) A 55) A 56) A Version 1

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57) B 58) A 59) A 60) A 61) C 62) A 63) A 64) B 65) C 66) A 67) A 68) A 69) C 70) B 71) A 72) A 73) B 74) C 75) A 76) B 77) B 78) D 79) A 80) A 81) B 82) A 83) A 84) A 85) A 86) D Version 1

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87) A 88) A 89) FALSE

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CHAPTER 4 1)

The red blood cells and brain are two body tissues that derive most of their energy from A) fat.

B) protein.

C) carbohydrate.

D) iron.

2) The process that plants use to make glucose from carbon dioxide and water in the presence of the sun's heat and light is called A) biosynthesis.

B) anabolism.

C) photosynthesis.

D) glycogenesis.

3) Photosynthesis occurs when 6 molecules of carbon dioxide combine with 6 molecules of water using energy from the sun to form _______ molecule(s) of glucose and release _______ molecule(s) of oxygen into the air.

A) 1; 1 B) 1; 6 C) 6; 1 D) 6; 6

4)

The major storage sites for glycogen are the

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A) muscles and liver.

B) kidney and muscles.

C) liver and kidney.

D) liver and pancreas.

5)

Glycogen is

A) a highly branched carbohydrate that serves as the storage form of glucose in humans.

B) carbohydrates containing many glucose units that are stored in adipose cells.

C) a six-carbon monosaccharide that usually exists in a ring form that is closely related to glucose.

D) a digestible, straight-chain resistant starch composed of glucose units.

6)

Sucrose is also known as A) dextrose.

B) fruit sugar.

C) milk sugar.

D) table sugar.

7)

Glucose is also known as A) sucrolose.

B) sorbitol.

C) xylitol.

D) dextrose.

8)

The term simple carbohydratesrefers to

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A) starch.

B) monosaccharides and disaccharides.

C) fiber.

D) polysaccharides.

9)

_______ is the major monosaccharide found in the body.

A) Fructose B) Glucose C) Lactose D) Sucrose

10)

The monosaccharides important in nutrition are fructose, glucose, and A) lactose.

B) sucrose.

C) galactose.

D) maltose.

11)

Which of the following combinations of monosaccharides is true?

A) Glucose and glucose form sucrose.

B) Glucose and fructose form lactose.

C) Glucose and galactose form lactose.

D) Glucose and galactose form maltose.

12)

The monosaccharides important in nutrition are

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A) glucose, fructose, and lactose.

B) fructose, glucose, and galactose.

C) fructose, glucose, and maltose.

D) sucrose, fructose, and glucose.

13)

The scientific name for milk sugar is A) maltose.

B) glucose.

C) mannose.

D) lactose.

14)

A disaccharide is formed by the chemical bonding of A) two monosaccharides.

B) two polysaccharides.

C) one monosaccharide and one polysaccharide.

D) two oligosaccharides.

15)

The disaccharides important in nutrition are sucrose, maltose, and A) lactose.

B) fructose.

C) dextrose.

D) galactose.

16)

Which of the following is a disaccharide?

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A) Galactose B) Fructose C) Lactose D) Glucose

17)

Amylose is A) a digestible, straight-chain type of starch composed of glucose units.

B) an indigestible branched-chain type of starch composed of glucose units.

C) a group of polysaccharides that are found in plant cell walls.

D) an indigestible dietary fiber sequestered in plant walls.

18)

The two forms of starch found in food are A) amylose and amylopectin.

B) maltose and mannose.

C) glycogen and glucagon.

D) soluble and insoluble.

19)

Dietary fibers primarily are A) polysaccharides.

B) polypeptides.

C) disaccharides.

D) monosaccharides.

20)

Which of the following is incorrect about dietary fibers?

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A) They are mostly polysaccharides.

B) The bonds between the sugar units cannot be broken by human digestive enzymes.

C) They cannot be absorbed by the small intestine.

D) They are absorbed in the large intestine.

21) Which of the following is categorized as a soluble, viscous, and readily fermentable fiber?

A) Pectin B) Cellulose C) Hemicellulose D) Lignin

22) Which of the following is categorized as an indigestible dietary fiber that is sequestered in plant walls?

A) Pectin B) Cellulose C) Resistant starch D) Psyllium

23)

Soluble fibers A) increase stool size significantly.

B) are not readily fermented by intestinal bacteria.

C) cannot dissolve in water.

D) helpto lower blood cholesterol.

24)

Fiber added to foodsthat has been shown to provide healthbenefits is called

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A) phytofiber.

B) functional fiber.

C) dietary fiber.

D) amylopectin.

25)

The natural alternative sweetener derived from a South American plant is called A) aspartame (Equal®).

B) saccharin (Sweet-n-Low®).

C) sucralose (Splenda®).

D) stevia (Sweet Leaf®, Truvia®).

26) Food manufacturers prefer to use ______ as a sweetener because it is easy to transport, has good shelf-stability, is low cost, and improves food properties.

A) table sugar B) high-fructose corn syrup C) sucralose (Splenda®) D) honey

27)

Sucralose (Splenda®) is made by adding A) lactose to sucrose.

B) chlorines to sucrose.

C) sucrose to galactose.

D) sucrose to glucose.

28)

Individuals with phenylketonuria (PKU) should avoid

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A) stevia.

B) aspartame.

C) high fructose corn syrup.

D) saccharin.

29)

Which section of MyPlate is the least significant source of carbohydrate?

A) Grains B) Vegetables C) Fruits D) Protein E) Dairy

30)

Which of the following breakfast options is the highest in carbohydrate?

A) Grapefruit half, 2 fried eggs, 3 bacon slices, 1 slice of toast with butter, coffee B) English muffin with jelly, 8 ounces orange juice, 2 cups Cream of Wheat with 2 tablespoons sugar, 1 cup whole milk C) Coffee, 8 ounces orange juice, 1/2 cup fresh blueberries, 8 ounces nonfat yogurt D) 1 cup whole milk, 2 ounces sausage, 2 fried eggs, 1 slice of toast with butter

31)

Which of the following has the most starch?

A) 1 medium orange B) 1 cup of kidney beans C) 8 fluid ounces of milk D) 4 ounces of meat

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32) The Dietary Guidelines recommend consuming ______ servings of whole grainsper day for adults.

A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) 9

33)

Which of the following foods is the best source of insoluble fiber?

A) Kidney beans B) English muffins made with enriched flour C) Broccoli D) Corn flake-type cereal

34)

Which of the following foods is the best source of soluble fiber?

A) Broccoli B) Kidney beans C) Whole wheat bread D) Sunflower seeds

35)

The food components that yield the highest percentage of calories from carbohydrates are A) corn flake-type cereal, rice, bread, and noodles.

B) peas, broccoli, oatmeal, dry beans and other legumes.

C) cream pies, French fries, and fat-free milk.

D) table sugar, honey, jam, jelly, and fruit.

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36)

Which of the following is a major source of lactose?

A) Milk B) Broccoli C) Apples D) Honey

37)

Major fructose sources include A) milk and cheese.

B) fruits and sweetened beverages.

C) fruits and vegetables.

D) nuts and seeds.

38)

Of the following, which is a major source of sucrose?

A) Alcohol B) Fruits C) Grains D) Sugar cane

39) Plant-based “milks,” such as _______, may contain calcium, but are not included as part of the MyPlate Dairy group because their overall nutritional content is not similar to dairy milk.

A) coconut oil B) kumbacha C) fortified soy beverages D) coconut milk

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40) Polysaccharides that cannot be digested by human digestive enzymes, and therefore cannot be absorbed, are called A) amylose.

B) fiber.

C) glycogen.

D) starch.

41) ______ is a condition in which symptoms such as abdominal gas and bloating appear as a result of severe lactose maldigestion.

A) Milk allergy B) Celiac disease C) Lactose intolerance D) Galactosemia

42)

After absorption, galactose is converted to ________ in the liver.

A) glucose B) fructose C) glycogen D) lactose

43)

Dietary fiber may play a key role in the prevention of which type of cancer?

A) Colon B) Liver C) Pancreatic D) Stomach

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44)

Starch consists of hundreds and perhaps thousands of which molecule?

A) Fructose B) Glycerol C) Glucose D) Galactose

45) Which of the following willmost likely cause symptoms in a person with lactose intolerance?

A) Small servings of milk products B) Hard cheeses C) Yogurt containing active cultures D) Milk shakes made with skim milk

46)

The major symptoms of lactose intolerance are A) gas, abdominal pain, and bloating.

B) a rash, sneezing, and stuffy nose.

C) a headache and chest pain.

D) nausea and vomiting.

47)

Lactose intolerance is caused by A) a milk allergy.

B) lactase deficiency.

C) milk bacteria.

D) intestinal bacteria.

48)

Immediately after sugars are absorbed into the blood, they travel to the

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A) kidney.

B) heart.

C) liver.

D) pancreas.

49)

Which of the following is incorrect concerning carbohydrate absorption?

A) Monosaccharides can enter the villi.

B) End products of carbohydrate digestion are transported through the portal vein to the

liver.

C) Maltose is transported through the portal vein to the liver.

D) Disaccharides are digested to monosaccharides by enzymes that are attached to intestinal cells.

50)

Glucose is absorbed via ______ absorption.

A) passive B) facilitated C) active D) participatory

51)

Amylase is A) an enzyme that digests maltose into two glucose molecules.

B) an indigestible disaccharide composed of glucose units.

C) an enzyme secreted by the pancreas that digests starch.

D) a digestible straight-chain type of starch composed of glucose units.

52)

Which of the following describes the process of starch digestion?

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A) Starch to lactose to galactose B) Starch to maltose to glucose C) Starch to glycogen to glucose D) Starch to sucrose to fructose

53)

What is the fate of disaccharides not digested in the small intestine?

A) They pass into the colon and are absorbed.

B) They pass into the colon and are fermented by bacteria.

C) They are absorbed and converted to glycogen.

D) They are absorbed and converted to fat.

54)

Carbohydrate digestion begins in the A) stomach with gastric lipase.

B) stomach with peptic amylase.

C) mouth with salivary amylase.

D) small intestine with pancreatic amylase.

55)

What enzyme is responsible for carbohydrate digestion in the small intestine?

A) Salivary amylase B) Bicarbonate C) Pancreatic proteases D) Pancreatic amylase

56)

Which of the following is true about carbohydrate digestion?

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A) Carbohydrate digestion is assisted by cooking, which softens tough skins.

B) Carbohydrate digestion begins in the stomach.

C) In the small intestine, amylase breaks down fiber to glucose.

D) Bile is necessary for carbohydrate digestion.

57)

Carbohydrate digestion begins in the A) mouth.

B) stomach.

C) small intestine.

D) pancreas.

58) When too little dietary carbohydrate is available to meet energy needs, ______ arise as byproducts of partial fat metabolism.

A) fatty acids B) ketone bodies C) monosaccharides D) polysaccharides

59)

For which of the following is glucose most critical as an energy source?

A) Muscles B) Brain C) Liver D) Heart

60) Which of the following hormones is released during stressful times to increase blood glucose levels, making more energy available for use?

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A) Insulin B) Epinephrine C) Glycogen D) Progesterone

61)

Which of the following hormones is released to correct a hypoglycemic state?

A) Insulin B) Testosterone C) Estrogen D) Glucagon

62)

Which hormone corrects a hyperglycemic state?

A) Insulin B) Epinephrine C) Cortisol D) Glucagon

63)

When insulin is released, it causes A) the liver to break down glycogen and release glucose into the blood.

B) muscle and fat cells to take up glucose from the blood.

C) fat breakdown and release from fat tissue.

D) the liver to make glycogen from protein.

64) The glycemic index (GI) is a measurement of how a carbohydrate-containing food raises _____ as compared to a standard (typically glucose or white bread).

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A) blood glucose B) liver glycogen C) insulin released from the pancreas D) glycogen stored in muscle

65)

Adequate intakes of ______ may play a role in the prevention of colon cancer.

A) dietary fiber B) saccharin C) high fructose corn syrup D) starch

66) _____ occurs when the cells do not respond to normal insulin signals to take up glucose from the bloodstream.

A) Hypoglycemia B) Glycogen load C) Insulin resistance D) Metabolic syndrome

67) A measure of boththe quality (GI value) and quantity (gramsper serving) of a carbohydrate in a meal is called A) glycemic index.

B) glycemic load.

C) glycated hemoglobin.

D) insulin index.

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68)

The main function of glucose is to A) serve as raw material to build tissue.

B) work with enzymes to carry out chemical reactions.

C) repair tissue.

D) supply energy.

69) When blood glucose levels drop below normal, hormones signal the breakdown of ______, which release glucose into the blood.

A) stored fat B) liver glycogen C) amino acids from muscle D) ketone bodies

70) The hormone _______ is released from the pancreas when blood glucose is elevated above a normal range.

A) glucagon B) insulin C) thyroxine D) glycogen

71)

The main function of glucose is to supply _______ for the body.

A) energy B) vitamins C) structure D) hormones

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72)

The top source(s) of added sugars in the U.S. population is(are) A) desserts and sweet snacks.

B) sugar-sweetened beverages.

C) breakfast cereals and bars.

D) coffee and tea.

73)

Examples of refined grain products include A) white potatoes and popcorn.

B) white flour, white bread, and white rice.

C) bread flour, grits, white rice, and buckwheat.

D) oat flour, quinoa, and soy.

74)

The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend limiting intake of A) added sugars.

B) gluten.

C) dietary fiber.

D) carbohydrates.

75) What is the RDA and minimum number of grams of carbohydrate, per day, adults mustconsume to avoid ketosis?

A) 75 B) 100 C) 130 D) 250

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76)

When eating a high-fiber dietary pattern, one should ______ fluid intake.

A) decrease B) increase C) not change

77) John Fibernugget wants to increase his fiber intake. Which of the following would be the safest way for him do this?

A) Eating enriched grains such as Rice Krispies® and saltines B) Buying bran and fiber supplements to add to his current dietary pattern C) Reading the labels of grain products and buying those labeled wheat flour D) Eating more fruits and vegetables and not removing the edible peels

78) The Adequate Intake (AI) for fiber for an adult man who consumes about 2700 kcal per day is A) 10 grams per day.

B) 18 grams per day.

C) 25 grams per day.

D) 38 grams per day.

79) The Adequate Intake (AI) for fiber for an adult woman who consumes about 1800 kcal per day is A) 10 grams per day.

B) 18 grams per day.

C) 25 grams per day.

D) 38 grams per day.

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80) The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommends that Americans consume ______ of their total calories from carbohydrates.

A) 10% to 25% B) 25% to 45% C) 45% to 65% D) 65% to 75%

81) The Dietary Guidelines recommend limiting added sugars intake to less than ______ of total calories for those 2 years and older.

A) 10% B) 15% C) 20% D) 25%

82)

Excessive sugar intake is related to development of dental caries because A) oral bacteria produce acids that dissolve tooth enamel when they metabolize sugars.

B) sugar leaches calcium and phosphorus out of teeth.

C) salivary amylase dissolves tooth enamel during carbohydrate digestion.

D) sugars make the saliva more alkaline, causing damage to tooth enamel.

83)

Which of the following is a true statement about the effects of sugar?

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A) Prolonged exposure of the teeth to simple sugars from snacks and drinks promotes dental caries.

B) A high-sugar diet will cause hyperactivity among children.

C) A high sugar intake is not problematic as long as the overall diet is high in protein.

D) Natural sources of sugar, like honey, are lower in calories than their processed counterparts, such as high fructose corn syrup.

84) The ______ was a landmark, multisite study designed to improve glucose control and prevent the onset of diabetes. Most impressive is that individuals that followed a healthy dietary and physical activity pattern had better glucose control than individuals treated by medication.

A) Behavioral Management Trial (BMT) B) Glucose Control Trial (GCT) C) Prediabetes Pilot Program (PPP) D) Diabetes Prevention Program (DPP)

85)

The symptoms of diabetes may occur suddenly and may include A) extreme thirst and excessive urination.

B) chronic insomnia.

C) sudden weight gain.

D) decrease in appetite.

86)

Which of the following describes type 1 diabetes mellitus?

A) Arises most commonly in adulthood B) Caused by insensitivity of fat and muscle cells to insulin C) Often associated with obesity D) Caused by lack of insulin production

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87)

Which of the following describes type 2 diabetes mellitus?

A) Most often diagnosed during childhood B) Associated with a tendency to develop ketosis C) Sometimes caused by viral infection D) Strongly associated with obesity

88)

The primary goal of dietary management of type 2 diabetes mellitus is to A) achieve a healthy body weight.

B) eat regular meals.

C) maintain a constant ratio of carbohydrate to protein to fat throughout the day.

D) avoid carbohydrates.

89)

Medical conditions related to metabolic syndrome are A) type 1 diabetes,coronary artery disease, and cancer.

B) type 1 diabetes,coronary artery disease, and stroke.

C) type 2 diabetes,coronary artery disease, and stroke.

D) type 2 diabetes,coronary artery disease, and cancer.

90)

Which of the following is not included as one of themetabolic syndrome risk indicators?

A) High blood pressure B) High HDL cholesterol C) High glucose D) High triglycerides

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91) Research suggests that dietary fiber is an important substrate for the gut microbiota; therefore, dietary fiber alterations may have an immediate and direct impact on gut microbes. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 04_12e 1) C 2) C 3) B 4) A 5) A 6) D 7) D 8) B 9) B 10) C 11) C 12) B 13) D 14) A 15) A 16) C 17) A 18) A 19) A 20) D 21) A 22) C 23) D 24) B 25) D 26) B Version 1

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27) B 28) B 29) D 30) B 31) B 32) B 33) C 34) B 35) D 36) A 37) B 38) D 39) D 40) B 41) C 42) A 43) A 44) C 45) D 46) A 47) B 48) C 49) C 50) C 51) C 52) B 53) B 54) C 55) D 56) A Version 1

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57) A 58) B 59) B 60) B 61) D 62) A 63) B 64) A 65) A 66) C 67) B 68) D 69) B 70) B 71) A 72) B 73) B 74) A 75) C 76) B 77) D 78) D 79) C 80) C 81) A 82) A 83) A 84) D 85) A 86) D Version 1

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87) D 88) A 89) C 90) B 91) TRUE

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CHAPTER 5 1)

As a class of nutrients, lipids are A) soluble in water.

B) not soluble in water.

2) A______ is the simplest form of lipid; it is a carbon chain, flanked by hydrogens, with an acid group at one end and a methyl group at the other end.

A) sterol B) fatty acid C) glycerol D) triglyceride

3)

A(n) _______ is made up of a glycerol backbone attached tothree fatty acids.

A) lipoprotein B) chylomicron C) eicosanoid D) triglyceride

4)

An omega-3 fatty acid has ______ at the third carbon from the methyl end.

A) its first single bond B) its first double bond C) an acid group D) a phosphate group

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5)

What are the three main elements that make up lipids?

A) Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen B) Carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen C) Calcium, phosphorus, and oxygen D) Oxygen, nitrogen, and sulfur

6)

Sterols are similar to triglycerides in which of the following ways?

A) They have multiple rings in their structures.

B) They contain glycerol.

C) They contain three fatty acids.

D) They do not dissolve in water.

7)

Which of the following is an example of a phospholipid?

A) Lecithin B) Alpha-linolenic acid C) Linoleic acid D) Prostaglandin

8)

Which of the following describes the structure of a phospholipid?

A) Two fatty acids and one phosphate-containing group attached to a glycerol backbone B) Multiple rings made of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and phosphorus C) Three fatty acids attached to a glycerol backbone D) One fatty acid and two phosphate-containing groups attached to a glycerol backbone

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9)

A monounsaturated fatty acid contains only one A) carbon-carbon single bond.

B) carbon-carbon double bond.

C) phosphate group.

D) hydrocarbon ring.

10)

The majority of the lipids in foods and in the body are in the form of A) sterols.

B) phospholipids.

C) triglycerides.

D) free fatty acids.

11)

A ______ fatty acid has one double bond.

A) saturated B) hydrogenated C) monounsaturated D) polyunsaturated

12)

A saturated fatty acid contains ______ double bond(s).

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 to 12 D) 14 to 24

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13)

Triglycerides are composed of A) glycogen and fatty acids.

B) fatty acids and glycerol.

C) lactic acid and glycogen.

D) glucose and fatty acids.

14)

The three-carbon structure that forms the "backbone" of a triglyceride is called A) glycerol.

B) glucose.

C) lipoprotein.

D) sterol.

15)

A diglyceride consists of A) twoglycerols and one fatty acid.

B) two glucoses and one fatty acid.

C) one glucose and two fatty acids.

D) one glycerol and two fatty acids.

16)

Dietary fats that contain mostly ______ fatty acids tend to be solid at room temperature.

A) saturated B) unsaturated

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17)

______ is an essential omega-3 fatty acid.

A) Linoleic acid (LA) B) Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) C) Alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) D) Docasahexaenoic acid (DHA)

18)

______ is an essential omega-6 fatty acid.

A) Linoleic acid (LA) B) Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) C) Alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) D) Docosahexaenoic (DHA)

19)

Which of the following is an essential fatty acid?

A) Oleic acid B) Alpha-linolenic acid C) Arachidonic acid D) Docosahexaenoic acid

20)

An omega-9 fatty acid has its first double bond starting at the ninth carbon from the A) acid group.

B) alpha end.

C) glycerol.

D) methyl end.

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21)

In human cells, which of the following fatty acids can be made from linoleic acid?

A) Arachidonic acid B) Oleic acid C) Palmitic acid D) Alpha-linolenic acid

22)

In human cells, which of the following fatty acids can be made from alpha-linolenic acid?

A) Arachidonic acid B) Oleic acid C) Linoleic acid D) Eicosapentaenoic acid

23)

Olive and canola oils contain mostly ______ fatty acids.

A) saturated B) monounsaturated C) polyunsaturated

24) The process of adding hydrogen to the double bonds in unsaturated fatty acids to extend the shelf-life of food products is called A) emulsification.

B) respiration.

C) oxidation.

D) hydrogenation.

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25)

Which of the following oils contains the most polyunsaturated fatty acids?

A) Canola oil B) Olive oil C) Coconut oil D) Corn oil

26)

Which of the following is a food source of cholesterol?

A) Coconut oil B) Avocados C) Sunflower seeds D) Egg yolks

27)

If you are trying to reduce your dietary intake of cholesterol, you should limit or avoid A) organ meats.

B) plant oils.

C) low-fat dairy products.

D) nuts and seeds.

28)

What is olestra (Olean

®

)?

A) A cholesterol-lowering plant sterol B) A cholesterol-lowering medication C) A fat replacer used in food manufacturing D) An emulsifier used in food manufacturing

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29) As of 2018, partially hydrogenated oils were banned from the food supply because the hydrogenation of oils produces A) trans fats.

B) cholesterol.

C) saturated fats.

D) phospholipids.

30)

Which of the following foods is cholesterol free?

A) Canola oil B) Mozzarella cheese C) Salmon D) Butter

31)

Soybean oil is a rich source of A) polyunsaturated fatty acids.

B) monounsaturated fatty acids.

C) saturated fatty acids.

D) trans fatty acids.

32)

Which of the following is the richestsource of saturatedfatty acids?

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A) Corn oil B) Soybean oil C) Coconut oil D) Safflower oil

33)

Butter contains mostly ______ fatty acids.

A) saturated B) trans C) monounsaturated D) polyunsaturated

34)

Which of the following foods are rich sources of monounsaturated fatty acids?

A) Palm and coconut oils B) Peanuts and peanut oil C) Safflower and sunflower oils D) Butter, lard (pork fat), and tallow (beef fat)

35)

Hydrogenation changes a fat A) from a liquid to a solid.

B) from a solid to a liquid.

36)

Fat makes up nearly 100% of total kcal in which of the following food items?

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A) Roast beef B) Canola oil C) Whole milk D) Dark chocolate

37)

Examine the Nutrition Facts label for pita chips.

If Jacob eats a bowl of 18 chips, how many grams of fat will he consume?

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A) 10 grams B) 5 grams C) 6 grams D) 40 grams

38)

Examine the Nutrition Facts label for hummus.

If Alison eats 1/4 cup (4 tablespoons) of hummus, how many grams of fat will she consume?

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A) 12 grams B) 6 grams C) 8 grams D) 3 grams

39)

Examine the Nutrition Facts label for pita chips.

Fat provides ______% of the total calories in pita chips.

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A) 35 B) 3 C) 15 D) 6

40)

Examine the Nutrition Facts label for hummus.

Fat provides ______% of the total calories in hummus.

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A) 68 B) 8 C) 6 D) 30

41)

Examine the Nutrition Facts label for pita chips.

Saturated fat provides ______% of total calories in pita chips.

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A) 3.5 B) 24 C) 35 D) <1

42)

Examine the Nutrition Facts label for hummus.

Saturated fat provides ______% of total calories in hummus.

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A) 11 B) 5 C) 68 D) 1

43)

Examine the Nutrition Facts label for pita chips.

One serving of pita chips provides______% of the Daily Value for fat.

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A) 6 B) 4 C) 10 D) <1

44)

Examine the Nutrition Facts label for hummus.

One serving of hummus provides______% of the Daily Value for fat.

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A) 0 B) 5 C) 6 D) 8

45)

Which of the following is a rich source of omega-3 fatty acids?

A) Broccoli B) Sirloin steak C) Salmon D) Chicken breast

46)

Fatty fish, such as salmon, are rich sources of which omega-3 fatty acid?

A) Arachidonic acid(AA) B) Eicosapentaenoicacid (EPA) C) Alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) D) Conjugated linoleic acid (CLA)

47) Unsaturated fatty acids are susceptible to damage by exposure to light, oxygen, or heat.

This breakdown of fatty acids may cause disagreeable flavors and odors in food products. A fatty acid that has been damaged in this way is A) rancid.

B) hydrogenated.

C) emulsified.

D) desaturated.

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48)

One of the richest plant sources of omega-3 fatty acids is A) cranberries.

B) walnuts.

C) tomatoes.

D) peanut butter.

49) Consumption of fatty fish at least twice a week is recommended to provide omega-3 fatty acids. However, some fish—especially swordfish, shark, king mackerel, and tile fish—can be a source of ________, which is toxic in high amounts.

A) vitamin A B) conjugated linoleic acid C) fluoride D) mercury

50)

Which enzyme digests triglycerides in the small intestine?

A) Pancreatic amylase B) Pancreatic lipase C) Gastric lipase D) Bile

51)

Most fatty acids in the body and in the diet are A) short-chain fatty acids.

B) medium-chain fatty acids.

C) long-chain fatty acids.

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52)

The primary site of lipid digestion and absorption is the A) small intestine.

B) large intestine.

C) liver.

D) stomach.

53)

What substance is produced by the liver to emulsify fats in the small intestine?

A) Bile B) Bicarbonate C) Lipase D) Hydrochloric acid

54)

After dietary fats are digested, the small intestinal cells absorb a mixture of A) diglycerides and fatty acids.

B) monoglycerides and diglycerides.

C) monoglycerides and fatty acids.

D) monoglycerides, diglycerides, and triglycerides.

55)

The major fat-digesting enzyme is A) amylase.

B) pepsin.

C) trypsin.

D) lipase.

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56)

After fatty acids and monoglycerides have been absorbed into the intestinal cells, they are A) fermented by bacteria.

B) emulsified by bile.

C) reformed into triglycerides.

D) converted to cholesterol.

57)

Most lipids are transported in the blood as part of a structure called a(n) A) emulsifier.

B) lipoprotein.

C) phospholipid.

D) micelle.

58)

______ are synthesized by the liver to transport fat to the rest of the body.

A) Chylomicrons B) Low-densitylipoproteins C) Very-low-densitylipoproteins D) High-densitylipoproteins

59) Immediately after chylomicrons leave the intestinal cells, they are transported via what system?

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A) Cardiovascular B) Lymphatic C) Endocrine D) Urinary

60) Which lipoprotein is responsible for picking up cholesterol from dying cells and other sources so it can be transported back to the liver for excretion?

A) Chylomicron B) Low-density lipoprotein C) Very-low-density lipoprotein D) High-density lipoprotein

61)

The outer shell of a lipoprotein is primarily made of A) phospholipids.

B) free fatty acids.

C) cholesterol.

D) cellulose.

62) As chylomicrons and VLDLs travel through the bloodstream, the triglycerides in these lipoproteins are broken down into glycerol and fatty acids by ______ lipase, which is attached to the blood vessel walls.

A) lipoprotein B) pancreatic C) lingual D) lecithin

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63)

Immediately after a meal, newly absorbed dietary fats appear in the blood as A) high-density lipoproteins.

B) low-density lipoproteins.

C) chylomicrons.

D) very-low-density lipoproteins.

64) ______ is sometimes called the "good" cholesterol because higher levels of this lipoprotein in the blood are associated with lower risk for cardiovascular disease.

A) HDL B) LDL

65) ______ is sometimes called the "bad" cholesterol because higher levels of this lipoprotein in the blood are associated with increased risk for cardiovascular disease.

A) LDL B) HDL

66)

Dietary patterns high in saturated fatty acids tend to ______ the levelof LDL in the blood.

A) decrease B) increase

67)

During rest and light activities, ______ are the main fuel for muscles.

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A) fatty acids B) amino acids C) phospholipids D) monosaccharides

68) Food manufacturers add lecithin (a phospholipid) to foods (e.g., salad dressing) to keep mixtures of fat and water from separating. Lecithin is a(n) A) fat replacer.

B) emulsifier.

C) thickener.

D) antioxidant.

69)

Cholesterol is necessary for the synthesis of A) estrogen and testosterone.

B) insulin and glucagon.

C) cholecystokinin.

D) glycogen.

70)

In adipose tissue, energy is stored in the form of A) glycogen.

B) triglycerides.

C) amino acids.

D) phospholipids.

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71)

The major function of adipose tissue is to A) maintain blood glucose.

B) store energy.

C) store bile.

D) synthesize cholesterol.

72)

Which of the following isa function of fat?

A) Traps water in food products B) Carrier of fat-soluble vitamins C) Best source of energy for the brain D) Carrier of proteins in the blood

73)

Cell membranes are made of a double layer of A) lipoproteins.

B) phospholipids.

C) mucus.

D) protein.

74)

Fish oil supplements may be prescribed to A) induce weight loss.

B) lower blood glucose.

C) lower blood triglycerides.

D) improve bowel regularity.

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75)

The Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) for fat for adults is A) 20% to 35% of total kcal.

B) 10% to 35% of total kcal.

C) >10% of total kcal.

D) 45% to 65% of total kcal.

76) How could you lower the fat content of the following breakfast menu?

Omelet (made with 2 whole eggs, 1/4 cup of Swiss cheese, 1/4 cup of mushrooms) 2 links of turkey sausage 1 slice of whole-wheat toast with 1teaspoon of butter 1 cup of orange juice A) Choose skim milk instead of orange juice.

B) Use egg whites instead of whole eggs in the omelet.

C) Use margarine instead of butter on the toast.

D) Choose pork sausage instead of turkey sausage.

77) How could you lower the fat content of the following sandwich?

2 slices of white bread 2 ounces of sliced turkey 1 slice of provolone cheese 1 tablespoon of mayonnaise 1 leaf of lettuce 1 slice of tomato A) Select whole wheat bread instead of white bread B) Use mustard instead of mayonnaise C) Choose cheddar cheese instead of provolone cheese D) Choose roast beef instead of turkey

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78)

A good suggestion for eating in a heart-healthy way would be to A) avoid all treats.

B) trim fat off meat before and after cooking it.

C) take vitamin E supplements.

D) avoid foods high in monounsaturated fat, such as olive oil.

79) In consideration of the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range for fat, a healthy adult who requires 2400 kcal per day should consume no more than ______ grams of fat per day.

A) 27 B) 35 C) 93 D) 210

80) Adults need to consume only about 5% of total calories per day from essential fatty acids.

This corresponds to about _______ of plant oil each day.

A) 2 to 4 teaspoons B) 2 to 4 tablespoons C) 1/4 to 1/2 cup D) 3/4 to 1 cup

81) A breakfast sandwich from a fast food restaurant provides 33 grams of fat, 13 grams of saturated fat, and 500 kilocalories(kcal). Saturated fat accounts for approximately ______ of total kcal in the breakfast sandwich.

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A) 10% B) 23% C) 39% D) 59%

82) The Dietary Guidelines recommend that all Americans, starting at 2 years of age, should limit their saturated fat intake to ______ of total calories.

A) 1% B) 5% C) 10% D) 35%

83) For people who need to lower their blood cholesterol levels, the American Heart Association recommends limiting saturated fat intake to ______ of total calories.

A) 1% B) 5% to 6% C) 10% to 12% D) 20% to 35%

84) When it comes to food choices, the most important factor that influences your risk for heart disease is the amount of ______ in your dietary pattern.

A) cholesterol B) protein C) total fat D) saturated fat

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85)

In terms of heart disease risk, which of the following is true?

A) Lower LDL = increased risk B) Higher HDL = increased risk C) Higher LDL = increased risk D) Lower HDL = decreased risk

86)

Plant sterols A) reduce cholesterol absorption from the small intestine.

B) increase the absorption of dietary fiber from the small intestine.

C) decrease the ability of cholesterol to bind to artery walls.

D) decrease trans fat formation in fried foods.

87)

Which of the following is considered a risk factor for cardiovascular disease?

A) High HDL B) High blood pressure C) Low LDL D) Low daily dose of aspirin

88)

Having diabetes ______ your risk for developing cardiovascular disease.

A) increases B) decreases C) does not affect

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89)

Lipid-loaded white blood cells that form plaque in blood vessels are called A) lymphocytes.

B) neutrophils.

C) foam cells.

D) liposomes.

90)

Peanut butter is cholesterol free. ⊚ ⊚

true false

91) Most short- and medium-chain fatty acids must be absorbed into the lymphatic system before they can circulate in the blood. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) Excess intake of calories from any source—carbohydrate, fat, protein, or alcohol—can contribute to the gain of fat mass in the human body. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 05_12e 1) B 2) B 3) D 4) B 5) A 6) D 7) A 8) A 9) B 10) C 11) C 12) A 13) B 14) A 15) D 16) A 17) C 18) A 19) B 20) D 21) A 22) D 23) B 24) D 25) D 26) D Version 1

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27) A 28) C 29) A 30) A 31) A 32) C 33) A 34) B 35) A 36) B 37) A 38) A 39) A 40) A 41) A 42) A 43) A 44) D 45) C 46) B 47) A 48) B 49) D 50) B 51) C 52) A 53) A 54) C 55) D 56) C Version 1

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57) B 58) C 59) B 60) D 61) A 62) A 63) C 64) A 65) A 66) B 67) A 68) B 69) A 70) B 71) B 72) B 73) B 74) C 75) A 76) B 77) B 78) B 79) C 80) B 81) B 82) C 83) B 84) D 85) C 86) A Version 1

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87) B 88) A 89) C 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE

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CHAPTER 6 1)

The basic building block of a protein is called a(n) A) fatty acid.

B) monosaccharide.

C) amino acid.

D) keto acid.

2) The disease phenylketonuria (PKU) illustrates how a nonessential amino acid can becomeconditionally essential as a result of a genetic disease. A person with PKU has a limitedability to metabolize the essential amino acid A) phenylalanine.

B) lysine.

C) methionine.

D) tyrosine.

3) Proteins are unique among the macronutrients because they are a source of ______ for the human body.

A) carbon B) nitrogen C) oxygen D) hydrogen

4)

Which of the following is true about protein?

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A) It is unique in that it is the only dietary component that contains selenium.

B) It is important primarily for increasing bone density.

C) It is made up of combinations of approximately 20 amino acids.

D) It is made up of combinations of approximately 20 fatty acids.

5)

An essential amino acid A) can be synthesized in the body if there is a nitrogen source.

B) can be synthesized in the body if caloric intake is adequate.

C) cannot be synthesized adequately in the body to meet the body's needs.

D) can be formed in the body from nonessential amino acids.

6)

Which of the following is an essential amino acid?

A) Alanine B) Cysteine C) Glycine D) Leucine

7)

Leucine, isoleucine, and valine are A) branched-chain amino acids.

B) conditionally essential amino acids.

C) limiting amino acids.

D) complementary amino acids.

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8) Essential amino acids account for approximately ______ of total amino acids in the typical American dietary pattern.

A) 10% B) 25% C) 40% D) 50%

9)

In proteins, amino acids are joined by ______ bonds.

A) amino B) peptide C) proteolytic D) nitrogen

10) Exposing a protein to acid or heat will alter the three-dimensional structure of the protein.

This process is called A) deamination.

B) translation.

C) transcription.

D) denaturation.

11)

Which type of anemia results from an error in the DNA code?

A) Iron-deficiency anemia B) Macrocytic anemia C) Sickle cell anemia D) Microcytic anemia

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12)

When an essential amino acid is missing from the diet, A) nonessential amino acids will be converted into the missing amino acid.

B) protein synthesis will stop.

C) glucose will be converted into the missing amino acid.

D) proteins will be made, but they will lack that particular amino acid.

13) If a food does not contain the necessary amounts of a certain amino acid to synthesize a new protein, the amino acid present in short supply is referred to as a(n) A) complementary amino acid.

B) essential amino acid.

C) limiting amino acid.

D) dispensable amino acid.

14)

How many different amino acids are used in the synthesis of body proteins?

A) 5 B) 9 C) 20 D) 29

15)

What is meant by the amino acid sequence of a protein?

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A) Number of side chains in the protein B) Folding arrangement of the peptide chain C) Order of appearance of amino acids in the peptide chain D) Sequence of events in protein synthesis

16) Which of the following is a hereditary condition caused by an incorrect amino acid in a protein chain?

A) Kwashiorkor B) Sickle cell anemia C) Marasmus D) Edema

17)

Denaturation refers to A) alteration of the three-dimensional structure of a protein.

B) digestion of a polypeptide chain into individual amino acids.

C) joining of two amino acids to form a dipeptide.

D) removal of the amino group from an amino acid.

18)

Within cells, the synthesis of proteins is directed by A) DNA. B) RDA. C) CCK. D) ATP.

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19)

The ______ is the site of protein synthesis within the cell.

A) ribosome B) nucleus C) peroxisome D) lysosome

20)

In the case of sickle cell anemia, slight alterations in the DNA code lead to A) defects in the membranes of red blood cells.

B) changes in the structure of the protein hemoglobin.

C) poor use of glucose for energy.

D) inability of red blood cells to make protein.

21)

Most proteins are ______, which are composed of 10 or more amino acids.

A) dipeptides B) tripeptides C) proteases D) polypeptides

22) Because the DNA cannot leave the nucleus to get to the ribosomes, the genes for proteins must be transcribed into ______ that can leave the nucleus.

A) amino acids B) chromosomes C) mRNA D) tRNA

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23) Most plant proteins are ______ proteins, which means that they are low in one or more of the essential amino acids.

A) nonessential B) complementary C) incomplete D) branched-chain

24)

Which of the following plant proteins is a complete source of protein?

A) Quinoa B) Kidney beans C) Sunflower seeds D) Oats

25)

Complete (or high-quality) proteins A) provide ample amounts of all of the essential amino acids.

B) also provide carbohydrates and lipids.

C) are only found in foods of plant origin.

D) are found only in foods of animal origin.

26) Which of the following is a food that provides ample amounts of all of the essential amino acids?

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A) Wheat B) Peanut butter C) Black beans D) Milk

27)

High-protein diets may be harmful for A) individuals with kidney disease.

B) athletes.

C) the elderly.

D) teenagers.

28)

Which of the following is a true statement about sources of protein?

A) Plant sources of protein tend to be higher in saturated fat than animal sources of protein.

B) Plant sources of protein tend to be higher in cholesterol than animal sources of protein.

C) Animal sources of protein tend to be higher in phytochemicals than plant sources of protein.

D) Plant sources of protein tend to be higher in dietary fiber than animal sources of protein.

29) Which of the following combinations of plant foods will provide ample amounts of all nine essential amino acids?

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A) Garbanzo beans and kale B) Black beans and rice C) Wheat bread with sesame seeds D) Green beans and tomatoes

30)

Which of the following food combinations is an example of complementary proteins?

A) Green beans with slivered almonds B) Puffed rice cereal with milk C) Kidney beans with black beans D) Broccoli with cheese

31)

The majority of proteins in the traditional Mediterranean diet come from A) animal sources.

B) plant sources.

32) Many legumes are deficient in the essential amino acid ______, while grains are limited in lysine.

A) methionine B) alanine C) lysine D) arginine

33) Dietary patterns that are high in _______ tend to increase the risk of cardiovascular disease and cancer.

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A) legumes B) fish C) nuts and seeds D) red meat

34)

Which of the following is one of the eight most common food allergens?

A) Milk B) Chocolate C) Beef D) Mangoes

35) Short chain proteins and ______ are the end products of protein digestion that can be taken up by the absorptive cells of the small intestine.

A) amino acids B) nitrogen C) polypeptides D) amino groups

36)

Amino acids are absorbed via A) active absorption.

B) passive diffusion.

C) facilitated diffusion.

D) osmosis.

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37)

Amino acids are transported via the _______ vein to the liver.

A) subclavian B) renal C) superior mesenteric vein D) hepatic portal

38)

Human enzymes digest proteins in which areas of the body?

A) Mouth and stomach B) Mouth and small intestine C) Stomach and small intestine D) Small and large intestines

39)

What enzyme digests protein in the stomach?

A) Pepsin B) Lipase C) Amylase D) Trypsin

40)

Pepsin is a protein-digesting enzyme produced by the A) liver.

B) pancreas.

C) stomach.

D) small intestine.

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41) When protein consumption is in excess of body needs and energy needs are met, the excess amino acids are A) stored as fat.

B) excreted in the urine.

C) stored as amino acids in muscle.

D) stored as amino acids in the liver.

42)

Which of the following is a true statement about the digestion and absorption of proteins?

A) Polypeptide chains are digested to yield individual amino acids, which can be absorbed into the blood.

B) Polypeptide chains are digested to yield monosaccharides, which can be absorbed into the blood.

C) Many whole proteins are absorbed by phagocytosis and enter the blood.

D) The products of protein digestion cannot be absorbed directly into the capillaries; they must be absorbed into lacteals.

43)

Which of the following is a true statement aboutbody proteins?

A) Body proteins are in a constant state of breakdown, rebuilding, and repair.

B) The breakdown of body proteins provides most of the ATP to support human metabolism.

C) Synthesis of body proteins is directed by antigens, which are present in every cell.

D) Amino acids from dying cells or worn-out cell parts are excretedas a component of bile.

44)

Insulin is one example of a protein that acts as

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A) an antioxidant.

B) an enzyme.

C) a hormone.

D) an antibody.

45)

The nitrogen from amino acid breakdown is A) stored in the liver.

B) oxidized to carbohydrate.

C) converted to urea.

D) converted to fat.

46) If the carbohydrate content of the diet is insufficient to meet the body's needs for glucose, which of the following can be converted to glucose?

A) Urea B) Fatty acids C) Amino acids D) Ketones

47)

Food proteins are used most efficiently when we A) consume a very-low-kilocalorie diet.

B) consume a low-carbohydrate diet.

C) consume enough carbohydrates and fats to meet our kilocalorie needs.

D) consume them with alcohol.

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48)

Which of the following is a functionof protein?

A) Absorption of vitamins A, D, E, and K B) Medium for chemical reactions in the cell C) The body's preferred source of energy D) Synthesis of enzymes and hormones

49) Jackie has an alcohol use disorder. Her liver has been damaged to such a degree that it cannot produce the appropriate blood proteins for fluid balance. She develops a condition called edema, which is A) extreme thirst due to the high concentration of proteins in the blood.

B) the accumulation of fluids in extracellular spaces.

C) loss of muscle mass.

D) irregular heart rate.

50)

Edema appears when there is a severe lack of dietary protein because A) sodium is retained in the body.

B) blood protein levels fall and fluid shifts into extracellular spaces.

C) the blood vessels become more permeable to ions.

D) the kidneys are unable to concentrate urine.

51)

Proteins regulate the acid-base balance of the blood by A) acting as buffers.

B) releasing nitrogen.

C) synthesizing hydrochloric acid.

D) binding sodium ions.

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52)

A protein that acts as a hormone is A) insulin.

B) trypsin.

C) pepsin.

D) hemoglobin.

53)

Body proteins that bind to foreign proteins in the body are A) enzymes.

B) antibodies.

C) hormones.

D) collagen.

54)

Antibodies are A) chemical messengers produced by glands.

B) catalysts that speed the rate of chemical reactions.

C) compounds that transport lipids through the blood.

D) proteins produced by white blood cells as part of the immune response.

55) If a person does not eat enough carbohydrates to supply the glucose the body needs, which of the following will happen?

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A) Fatty acids will be converted to glucose.

B) The pancreas will produce more insulin.

C) The liver will convert amino acids to glucose.

D) The liver will produce more glycogen.

56) The Recommended Dietary Allowance for protein for nearly all adults is ______ g/kg/day.

A) 0.5 B) 0.8 C) 1.6 D) 2.0

57) How many grams of protein are needed per day by a sedentary adult male who weighs 87 kilograms?

A) 70 B) 87 C) 174 D) 191

58) According to the Food and Nutrition Board (FNB) of the National Academy of Sciences, ______ of kilocaloriesshould come from protein.

A) 10% to 35% B) 20% to 35% C) 45% to 65%

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59) The RDA for protein translates into approximately what percentage of total daily calorie needs?

A) 5% B) 10% C) 15% D) 20%

60)

During starvation, a person is likely to be in a state of A) protein equilibrium.

B) positive protein balance.

C) negative protein balance.

61) Donovan has been consuming large quantities of food and, in violation of safe rules of athletic training, is injecting testosterone. He has been seeing large temporary gains in muscle mass. He is in a state of A) negative protein balance.

B) positive protein balance.

C) energy equilibrium.

D) protein toxicity.

62)

Negative protein balance is likely during

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A) growth.

B) pregnancy.

C) starvation.

D) recovery from surgery.

63)

Jose is a sedentary male who weighs 176 pounds. What is his RDA for protein?

A) 10 grams B) 27 grams C) 64 grams D) 80 grams

64)

Which of the following is true about protein intake of people in the United States?

A) Most do not consume enough protein.

B) Most consume approximately the amount of protein needed to balance losses.

C) Athletes generally do not get enough protein without supplements.

D) Most consume more protein than is needed.

65)

In the typical American diet, most dietary protein comes from A) animal sources.

B) plant sources.

66) Research shows that it is optimal for adults to distribute protein intake throughout the day to maintain lean mass as they age. Adults should consume approximately ______ of protein per meal at more than one meal per day to maintain healthy muscles and bones.

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A) 15 grams B) 30 grams C) 45 grams D) 60 grams

67) Recent research shows that older adults need ______ the current RDA for protein for adults.

A) more than B) less than

68) The type of malnutrition that results from severely deficient intake of both calories and protein is called A) kwashiorkor.

B) marasmus.

C) sickle cell anemia.

D) phenylketonuria.

69)

Kwashiorkor and marasmus are two severe forms of A) protein-calorie malnutrition.

B) protein overload.

C) genetic diseases.

D) anemia.

70)

Among children with kwashiorkor,

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A) calorie intake may be low, but protein intake is severely deficient.

B) intakes of both calories and protein are severely deficient.

C) protein intake may be low, but calorie intake is severely deficient.

D) calorie intake may be low, but carbohydrate intake is severely deficient.

71)

The edema in children with kwashiorkor is the result of fluid leaking into A) body tissues from the bloodstream because of decreased blood protein levels.

B) body tissues from the bloodstream because of decreased blood glucose levels.

C) the bloodstream from body tissues because of decreased cellular proteins.

D) the bloodstream from body tissues because of increased insulin levels.

72)

Kwashiorkor appears in children between the ages of 2 and 5 years. The reason is that A) growth needs are low.

B) children havebeen weaned from breast milk to starchy gruels.

C) by this time,adequate exposure to other children allows them to catch it.

D) protein intake has been high for a long enough time to cause kidney damage.

73)

Which of the following conditions would describe a child with kwashiorkor?

A) Bowed legs B) Visible eczema and cold sores C) Edema in the abdomen and legs D) Skin-and-bones appearance

74)

A child withmarasmus

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A) has a bloated abdomen due to edema.

B) is hyperactive and irritable.

C) is very susceptible to infections.

D) has bowed legs and a deformed ribcage.

75)

The study of the ways nutrients and food influence gene expression is called A) epidemiology.

B) molecular biology.

C) nutrigenomics.

D) nutrigenetics.

76)

The study of the ways in which genetic variations influence nutritional status is called A) nutritional biochemistry.

B) genetic engineering.

C) nutrigenetics.

D) nutrigenomics.

77) Plant-based diets may reduce the risk for cardiovascular disease. This is likely due to the fact that, compared to animal sources of protein, plant sources of protein are lower in A) dietary fiber.

B) saturated fat and cholesterol.

C) one or more essential amino acids.

D) phytochemicals.

78)

Plant-based dietary patterns are associated with lower risk of

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A) cardiovascular disease.

B) colorectal cancer.

C) diabetes.

D) All of the choices are correct.

79)

A vegetarian who excludes animal flesh but consumes milk and eggs is referred to as a(n) A) lactovegetarian.

B) lactoovovegetarian.

C) vegan.

D) ovovegetarian.

80)

A vegetarian who eats only foods of plant origin is a(n) A) lactoovovegetarian.

B) lactovegetarian.

C) vegan.

D) ovovegetarian.

81)

The most reliable source of vitamin B-12 for the vegan would be A) fortified soybean milk.

B) shellfish.

C) cheese.

D) eggs.

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82) The American Institute for Cancer Research promotes "The New American Plate," which includes plant-based foods covering _______ of the plate and meat, fish, poultry, or low-fat dairy covering _______ of the plate.

A) one-half; one-half B) three-quarters(or more); one-quarter (or less) C) two-thirds (ormore); one-third (or less) D) one-third (orless); two-thirds (or more)

83)

Dairy products, such as milk and yogurt, are good sources of protein. ⊚ ⊚

84)

true false

Soy protein is a complete protein. ⊚ ⊚

true false

85) If you consume more protein than you need, the extra amino acids will be stored in your muscle tissue. ⊚ ⊚

86)

When a person does not consume adequate protein, immune function will be impaired. ⊚ ⊚

87)

true false

true false

Human cells derive most of their energy from the breakdown of amino acids.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

88) According to the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics, appropriately planned vegetarian diets can support health at all stages of the life cycle. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 06_12e 1) C 2) A 3) B 4) C 5) C 6) D 7) A 8) D 9) B 10) D 11) C 12) B 13) C 14) C 15) C 16) B 17) A 18) A 19) A 20) B 21) D 22) C 23) C 24) A 25) A 26) D Version 1

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27) A 28) D 29) B 30) A 31) B 32) A 33) D 34) A 35) A 36) A 37) D 38) C 39) A 40) C 41) A 42) A 43) A 44) C 45) C 46) C 47) C 48) D 49) B 50) B 51) A 52) A 53) B 54) D 55) C 56) B Version 1

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57) A 58) A 59) B 60) C 61) B 62) C 63) C 64) D 65) A 66) B 67) A 68) B 69) A 70) A 71) A 72) B 73) C 74) C 75) C 76) C 77) B 78) D 79) B 80) C 81) A 82) C 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE Version 1

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87) FALSE 88) TRUE

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CHAPTER 7 1)

Almost _____% of adults in the United States are overweight or have obesity.

A) 10 B) 25 C) 50 D) 75

2) The term for the minimum energy expended to keep a resting, awake body alive is ______. This represents about 60% to 80% of total energy expenditure.

A) adenosine triphosphate B) basal metabolism C) thermogenesis D) thermic effect of food

3)

Basal metabolism is the energy expended A) when sleeping in a cool environment.

B) when doing moderate activity.

C) while in a fasting state when resting and awakein a warm, quiet environment.

D) to make food more available to the body.

4)

Which of the following is true about basal metabolism?

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A) It represents about 30% of total energy expenditure.

B) It is energy expenditure to maintain a heartbeat, respiration, other basic functions, and daily activities.

C) It represents about 60% to 80% of total calories used by a sedentary person during each day.

D) It includes the energy used to digest food.

5)

Which of the following increases basal metabolism?

A) A decrease in body temperature B) A low calorie intake C) An increase in lean body mass D) A high fiber intake

6) Carol eats 800 kcal a day to lose weight. She is 40 years old. Carol has been walking briskly 60 minutes daily for the past 2 months. When she was younger, she lifted weights, but she has lost considerable lean body mass over the years due to inactivity. Recently, Carol was diagnosed with hypothyroidism which lowers metabolism. Which of the following factors increases Carol's energy output and promotes weight loss?

A) Her 800-kcal diet B) Her age C) Her loss of lean body mass D) Her walking routine

7)

Which of the following factors do not contribute to total energy expenditure?

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A) Basal metabolic rate B) Thermic effect of food C) Energy content of food D) Adaptive thermogenesis

8)

Physical activity

A) accounts for about 70% of total energy expenditure.

B) is only counted as a significant contributor if it is a formal, regular, and scheduled exercise program.

C) includes spontaneous moments as seemingly insignificant as fidgeting.

D) accounts forvery little to no overall energy expenditure.

9)

The thermic effect of food A) represents the calories needed to digest, absorb, and process ingested food.

B) represents approximately 25% of total energy expenditure.

C) is included in the measurement of basal metabolism.

D) refers to energy expended to produce heat in response to a cold environment.

10)

Which of the following is true in relation to the components of energy expenditure?

A) The thermic effect of food represents about 20% to 35% of total energy expenditure.

B) Physical activity accounts for 15% to 30% of total energy expenditure.

C) Basal metabolism accounts for 85% to 100% of total energy expenditure.

D) Fidgeting accounts for 40% of total energy expenditure.

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11)

The calorie cost of the thermic effect of food is ______ of the energy consumed.

A) 1% to 5% B) 8% to 15% C) 15% to 20% D) 20% to 25%

12)

Shivering in response to a cold environment is an example of A) adaptive thermogenesis.

B) thermic effect of food.

C) metabolism.

D) physical activity.

13) The expenditure of energy to produce heat in response to a cold environment and as a result of overfeeding is called A) adaptive thermogenesis.

B) thermic effect of cold.

C) heat metabolism.

D) thermic metabolism.

14)

Exercise activity thermogenesis (EAT) refers to A) the energy burned during intentional physical activity.

B) the energy burned during shivering, sweating, and hydrating.

C) the energy burned during spontaneous movements (including fidgeting).

D) the energy burned during sleeping, eating, and talking.

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15) The energy expended to digest, absorb, and further process the nutrients in food is called the ______ of food. This equals approximately 8% to 15% of energy intake.

A) transformation B) thermic effect C) metabolism D) breakdown

16) Bill expends 2500 kcal per day. What would be his approximate energy expenditure from basal metabolism?

A) 250 to 375 kcal B) 500 to 1050 kcal C) 1200 to 1500 kcal D) 1500 to 2000 kcal

17) Bill consumes 2500 kcal per day. What would be his approximate energy expenditure from the thermic effect of food?

A) 200 to 375 kcal B) 375 to 750 kcal C) 750 to 1500 kcal D) 1500 to 2500 kcal

18)

Thermogenesisrefers to

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A) the inability to regulate body temperature.

B) shivering when hot and fidgeting.

C) metabolic activity of brown adipose tissue, especially in hibernating animals.

D) the energy you require during sleep at night.

19) The method for determining energy expenditure that involves the measurement of heat given off by the body during a select period of time in an insulated chamber is called A) direct calorimetry.

B) indirect calorimetry.

C) thermocalorimetry.

D) bomb calorimetry.

20) The method for determining energy expenditure in which the amount of oxygen a person uses is measured is called A) direct calorimetry.

B) indirect calorimetry.

C) thermocalorimetry.

D) bomb calorimetry.

21) Petros is getting his energy expenditure measured by direct calorimetry. The 1 liter of water surrounding the chamber has an initial reading of 15 degrees Celsius. The final reading is 2015 degrees Celsius. How many calories did he expend?

A) 1000 B) 1500 C) 2000 D) 2500

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22) Based on calorie estimates from the Dietary Guidelines, a 19- to 30-year-old active woman needs about ______ kcal per day.

A) 1600 B) 2000 C) 2400 D) 2800

23) Bob is a 34-year-old male who weighs 150 pounds and is a long-distance cycler. He is engaged in vigorous activity. Based on calorie estimates from the Dietary Guidelines, Bob needs approximately _______ kcal per day.

A) 2000 B) 2600 C) 3000 D) 3200

24)

John weighs 80 kilograms and is 1.6 meters tall. His body mass index is ______ kg/m A) 5 B) 25 C) 31 D) 50

25) Lower-body obesity, also known as ______ obesity, is a pattern of body fat distribution that is associated with a lower incidence of cardiovascular disease, diabetes mellitus, and hypertension than upper-body obesity.

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2

.

A) android B) gynoid C) morbid D) cardiometabolic

26)

Body weight in kilograms divided by the square of height in meters yields A) the obesity index.

B) the body mass index.

C) relative weight.

D) percent body fat.

27) For a woman who is 1.63 meters tall and weighs 72 kilograms, the body mass index would equal A) 18.

B) 23.

C) 27.

D) 32.

28) How would you interpret the body mass index for a woman who is 1.63 meters tall and weighs 72 kilograms?

A) The value does not exceed the value at which health risks are increased.

B) Her health risks would be high.

C) This indicates significant android obesity and high health risk.

D) She slightly exceeds the value at which health risks are increased.

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29) When attempting to use body fat percentage to define obesity, body fat above ______ for women results in an obesity diagnosis.

A) 10% B) 20% C) 25% D) 32%

30)

Men with body fat levels greater than _____ have increased health risks.

A) 10% B) 15% C) 20% D) 25%

31)

Which of the following tools do not measure body fatness or body composition?

A) Body mass index B) Bioelectrical impedance analysis C) Dual energy X-ray absorptiometry D) Underwater weighing

32) Of the most common methods of estimating body composition, which is the most accurate?

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A) Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry B) Skinfold measures C) Air displacementplethysmography D) Bioelectrical impedance analysis

33) Richardo is a middle-aged man. His waist circumference measurement of 45 inches places him at ______ risk for chronic, obesity-related diseases.

A) high B) low C) no

34) Which of the following health conditions is not primarily related to upper-body (android) obesity?

A) Heart disease B) Diabetes mellitus C) Hypertension D) Skin cancer

35) A waist circumference _____ inches for men and _____ inches for women indicates increased risk of disease.

A) > 30; > 25 B) < 40; < 35 C) > 35; > 40 D) > 40; > 35

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36)

Which of the following is correctabout upper-body (android) obesity?

A) It refers to obesity in the buttocks and thighs of the body.

B) Low testosterone levels encourage it.

C) A low waist-to-hip ratio is indicative of it.

D) It is related to heart disease, hypertension, and diabetes mellitus.

37)

The body's set point has been suggested to be A) a weight the body attempts to maintain closely.

B) one's desirable and most healthy body weight.

C) one's minimum body weight.

D) the weight thatis reached and maintained during mid-life.

38) The hormone made by adipose tissue that promotes satiety and a sense of fullness, thus reducing appetite is called A) leptin.

B) insulin.

C) ghrelin.

D) glucagon.

39) Peg's parents are both obese. She has dieted at least six times, each time losing a considerable amount of weight and subsequently regaining it. Peg does not exercise. Which of the following is true about Peg's situation?

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A) Her frequent yo-yo dietinghave likely led to greater amounts of lean body mass.

B) Her problem is genetic and there is no reason for her to attempt to lose weight.

C) When she ends a diet, she likely regains additional body fat.

D) Her problem results from poor habits, but genetics will prevent her from ever losing weight.

40) Martha is maintaining her current weight by eating 2500 kcal per day. To lose approximately 1 pound of fat per week to start, she would have to decrease her energy intake to about ______ kcal per day.

A) 2300 B) 2000 C) 1500 D) 1000

41) Thekey to weight loss and maintenance canbe thought of as a triad, which consists of three interrelated components. Which of the following is not a component of the weight loss triad?

A) Drinking sugar-free beverages B) Controlling calorie intake C) Performing regularphysical activity D) Engaging in positive behaviors

42)

When individuals lose weight quickly, most of the weight lost is from

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A) fat, water, and glycogen.

B) water, muscletissue, and bone.

C) water, glycogen, and muscle tissue.

D) fat, water, and muscle tissue.

43)

Which of the following isan appropriate goal for weight control programs?

A) 5-pound weightloss per week B) Sparing lean body mass C) Reduced physical activity D) Significant water loss

44) Farah wishes to lose 5 pounds before her vacation in approximately 5 weeks. Her average consumption is 2100 kcal per day. Assuming her physical activity levels remain unchanged, she should reduce her energy intake to ______ kcal per day.

A) 1800 to 1900 B) 1600 to 1700 C) 1400 to 1500 D) 1200 to 1300

45) According to the 3500-kcal rule, adaily deficit of 500 kcal should result in an approximate weight loss of about how many pounds per week?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

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46) What would be the approximate weight gain of a person who consumes an excess of 500 kcal daily for one month?

A) 2 pounds B) 3 pounds C) 4 pounds D) 6 pounds

47) Restricting food and beverage intake by ______ kcal per day below calorie needs typically leads to a weight loss of about 1 pound per week to start.

A) 100 B) 250 C) 500 D) 1000

48)

A good weight-loss program should A) restrict food intake to less than 1200 kcal per day.

B) include meal replacement shakes or bars. <strong></strong> C) adapt to personal and cultural preferences.

D) include a weight-loss goal of 3 to 5 pounds per week.

49)

Which of the following is true about fat?

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A) It has a high thermic effect.

B) It is less calorie-dense than carbohydrates or proteins.

C) It is a concentrated source of calories.

D) It is better to eliminate proteins and carbohydrates, rather than fat, when cutting calories.

50) Mindy has been following a weight-loss plan for the past five months, but she hasreached a plateau. It seems like she cannot lose any more weight. A good strategy tostimulate further weight loss is to A) increase physical activity.

B) go off the weight control program and take a break.

C) eliminate dairy products.

D) further reduce food intake to 1000 kcal per day.

51) A ______ is usually a more accurate tool for estimating the number of calories you burn during a workout than internal calorie estimators on cardio machines.

A) bathroom scale B) body fat monitor C) step counter D) heart rate monitor

52) The Physical Activity Guidelines recommend that adults should engage in a minimumof ________ minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity each week to decrease risksfor chronic diseases.

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A) 60 to 120 B) 90 to 150 C) 150 to 300 D) 300 to 500

53) When considering physical activity for weight control, keep in mind that sustained aerobic activity, including brisk walking, jogging, or cycling, burns more ______ than resistance activity.

A) fat B) protein C) carbohydrates D) muscle

54)

Changing one's frame of mind related to weight control and nutrition is called A) stimulus control.

B) self-monitoring.

C) chain-breaking.

D) cognitive restructuring.

55) According to the Dietary Guidelines, a nutrient-dense dietary pattern leaves little room for discretionary calories contributed by A) sugar-sweetened beverages and desserts.

B) nutritional supplements.

C) alcohol and simple carbohydrates.

D) alcohol, added sugars, saturated fat, and sodium.

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56) According to the Dietary Guidelines, saturated fat intake should be less than 10% of total calories beginning at age A) one.

B) two.

C) ten.

D) eighteen.

57) Which of the following is an important aspect of behavior modification used for weight control?

A) Severely restricting intake after overeating B) Avoiding planned eating so you can be ready to handle spontaneous changes in the situation C) Keeping a record of eating behavior to identify situations that contribute to overeating D) Weighing yourself several times each day

58)

Altering the environment to minimize the stimuli for eating is called A) chain-breaking.

B) stimulus control.

C) contingency management.

D) cognitive restructuring.

59)

An example of cognitive restructuring for weight control is

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A) planning what to eat for breakfast the night before.

B) decreeing all desserts off limits.

C) replacing stressful eating situations with relaxing alternatives.

D) keeping a food intake diary to identify triggers for eating.

60) Samantha has struggled with being overweight for years but is generally in good health.

She recently interviewed for a part-time position at the campus recreation center. Although her qualifications met the application criteria, she later heard that her application was not considered for the position due to her appearance. This is an example of A) obesity obsession.

B) weight bias.

C) fair hiring procedures.

D) phenotype abuse.

61) What is the name of the recently FDA-approved obesity treatment device that uses a surgically implanted tube placed into the stomach to drain the stomach contents after every meal?

A) DrainAssist® B) FatDrain® C) EatPurge® D) AspireAssist®

62) A very-low-calorie diet (VLCD), also known as protein-sparing modified fast, allows a person ________ kcal per day, often in liquid form.

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A) 200 to 400 B) 400 to 800 C) 800 to 1000 D) 1200 to 1400

63)

Orlistat (Xenical®) is a medication approved by the FDA for weight loss that reduces fat A) storage by inhibiting lipase activity in fat cells.

B) digestion by inhibiting lipase enzyme action in the small intestine.

C) absorption by decreasing bile secretion.

D) circulation by inhibiting lipoprotein production.

64)

Xenical® is a weight-loss drug that works in the digestive system A) to substitute xylose for glucose.

B) to block digestion of about 30% of the fat in the food we eat.

C) to produce a full feeling that decreases hunger.

D) as an artificial fat.

65) An example of a bariatric surgical procedure used for treating severely or morbidly obese individuals is called A) gastric bypass.

B) intestinal resection.

C) laproscopic liposuction.

D) colonoscopy.

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66)

The most qualified expert to assist individuals with their weight-loss goals is a A) nutritionist.

B) personal trainer.

C) registered dietitian nutritionist.

D) naturopath.

67)

Which of the following is true about the use of diet pills for weight reduction?

A) Diet pills do not lead to long-term changes in weight and tend to have side effects.

B) Orlistat (Xenical®, Alli®) increases the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.

C) Candidates for medications to treat obesityinclude those with a BMI ≥ 25 or BMI ≥ 20 with at least one weight-related health condition.

D) Very-low-calorie diets, combined with anti-obesity drugs, are recommended for optimal weight loss.

68)

An increasingly common and effective surgical procedure for morbid obesity is A) intestinal bypass.

B) gastric bypass.

C) gastric blockage.

D) gastrectomy.

69) _____ is a spot reducing procedure that involves inserting a thin tube into an incision that allows access to the fat tissue. The fat cells are then suctioned out through the tube and disgarded.

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A) Botox injections B) Gastric plication C) Liposuction D) Cryolipolysis

70)

Underweight is defined as a body mass index below _______ kg/m

2

.

A) 18.5 B) 19.5 C) 20 D) 21.5

71)

The best way to treat an underweight person is to advise him or her to A) eat high-fat foods such as heavy cream, cheeses, ice cream, and ground beef.

B) stop exercising.

C) eat energy-dense foods higher in plant fats like nuts and seeds.

D) eat high-calorie foods at the beginning of each meal.

72)

Which strategy is recommended for successful weight gain?

A) Drink fluids between meals, not during meals.

B) Limit or avoid physical activity.

C) Avoid between-meal snacks.

D) Consume organic and non-GMO foods.

73)

Cycles of loss and regain of weight are called

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A) plateauing.

B) energy balancing.

C) mindful eating.

D) yo-yo dieting.

74)

Which of the following statements about popular diets is incorrect?

A) They promote quick weight loss that ends up being primarily water and lean muscle

mass.

B) They help people make permanent changes in eating habits and behaviors.

C) They often recommend expensive supplements or meals.

D) They often use personal testimonials from famous people to promote their product.

75)

Which of the following is characteristic of a fad diet?

A) It promotes quick solutions and rapid weight loss.

B) It uses scientific evidence, presenting the pros and cons.

C) It promotes a wide variety of food selections.

D) It prohibits supplements and expensive meals.

76) The term "weight bias" refers to negative attitudes, judgments, stereotypes, beliefs, and discrimination targeting individuals because of their weight. ⊚ ⊚

77)

true false

Bariatric surgery is the most successful weight-loss strategy for extremely obese adults.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

78) The Mediterranean Diet is consistently rated the best overall diet plan in national rankings. ⊚ ⊚

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23

Answer Key Test name: Chap 07_12e 1) D 2) B 3) C 4) C 5) C 6) D 7) C 8) C 9) A 10) B 11) B 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) B 16) D 17) A 18) C 19) A 20) B 21) C 22) C 23) C 24) C 25) B 26) B Version 1

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27) C 28) D 29) D 30) D 31) A 32) A 33) A 34) D 35) D 36) D 37) A 38) A 39) C 40) B 41) A 42) C 43) B 44) B 45) A 46) C 47) C 48) C 49) C 50) A 51) D 52) C 53) A 54) D 55) D 56) B Version 1

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57) C 58) B 59) C 60) B 61) D 62) B 63) B 64) B 65) A 66) C 67) A 68) B 69) C 70) A 71) C 72) A 73) D 74) B 75) A 76) TRUE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE

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CHAPTER 8 1)

Which statement about vitamins is true?

A) They cannot be stored by the body.

B) They are inorganic.

C) They help regulate chemical reactions in the body.

D) They directly supply energy.

2)

Which of the following is true about the intake of vitamins?

A) Consuming vitamin supplements are a better choice than obtaining those same vitamins from food sources.

B) Occasional lapsesin vitamin intake should cause no harm.

C) It is difficult to obtain all the vitamins we need from food.

D) Vitamins consumed in excess are excreted.

3)

Which of the following criteria qualifies a compound as a vitamin?

A) The compound isnecessary for health, but thebody is unable to synthesize enough of thecompound to maintain health.

B) The body is unableto synthesize the compound.

C) The compound is best absorbed if taken in supplement form.

D) The compound prevents chronic disease.

4)

Which of the following is a good way to preserve the vitamin content of vegetables?

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A) Trimming and peeling vegetables soon after purchase B) Storing vegetables in a cool place, such as the crisper drawer of the refrigerator C) Boiling vegetables until they are soft D) Storing vegetables at room temperature on the kitchen counter

5)

Water-soluble and fat-soluble vitamins differ in which way?

A) Water-solublevitamins are stored, whereas fat-soluble vitamins are excreted readily.

B) Water-soluble vitamins are less likely to be toxic.

C) Fat-soluble vitamins have less potential for being toxic.

D) Water-solublevitamins are best absorbed in the presence of dietary fat.

6) If you wanted to add significant quantities of vitamins to your dietary pattern from the food you eat, a good choice would be to consume A) a doughnut made with enriched white flour.

B) apple juice.

C) a fortified breakfast cereal such as bran flakes with raisins.

D) a banana.

7)

The vitamin that poses the greatest risk for toxicity is A) vitamin A. B) vitamin D. C) vitamin E. D) vitamin K.

8)

Which of the following describes fat-soluble vitamins?

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A) They are readily stored in the body.

B) Excesses areexcreted in the urine.

C) They are absorbed directly from the GI tract into the blood via the hepatic portal vein.

D) They form coenzymes that participate in the metabolism of carbohydrates, fat, and protein.

9)

Which of the following is an example of a fat-soluble vitamin?

A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin B-6 C) Vitamin B-12 D) Riboflavin

10)

A disease that involves fat malabsorption could lead to A) osteomalacia.

B) scurvy.

C) pellagra.

D) beriberi.

11)

Taking large supplemental doses of vitamins A and E can A) result in vitamin toxicity.

B) cure the common cold.

C) prevent cancer.

D) prevent heart disease.

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12) Which of the following is true about the absorption, transport, and storage of fat-soluble vitamins?

A) They enter the bloodstream directly from the small intestine.

B) Fat in thedigestive contents is not important for their absorption.

C) Excessive intakes are readily excreted via the kidneys.

D) Theyarestored in the liver and fatty tissue.

13)

The first step in ensuring an adequate intake of vitamins is A) following a dietary pattern that matches MyPlate's Daily Food Plan.

B) ingesting a wide variety of fortified foods.

C) using a multivitamin and mineral supplement.

D) taking individual nutrient supplements.

14) Which of the following is most likely to result in vitamin toxicity if consumed daily over a long period of time?

A) Vitamin A supplements B) B-vitamincomplex C) Fortified breakfast cereals D) Spinach, kale, and other greens

15)

In general, excess amounts of water-soluble vitamins are excreted via the

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A) kidneys.

B) intestine.

C) lungs.

D) liver.

16)

Which of the following is best for preserving the vitamin content of foods?

A) Exposure to light B) Cooking in water C) Flash freezing D) Addition of baking soda

17)

Which of the following vitamins is most readily excreted by the body?

A) Vitamin B-6 B) Vitamin B-12 C) Vitamin D D) Thiamin

18) Immediately after absorption from the small intestine, fat-soluble vitamins appear in the lymph as part of A) chylomicrons.

B) VLDLs. C) HDLs. D) phospholipids.

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19)

______ are mostly stored in the liver and adipose tissue.

A) Fat-soluble vitamins B) Water-soluble vitamins

20) Besides being supplied in the diet, some micronutrients are synthesized in the body. For example, ______ can be synthesized by microorganisms in the intestinal tract.

A) vitamin K B) vitamin D C) niacin D) vitamin B-6

21) Foods that are sources of chemicals that provide health benefitsbeyond being essential dietary nutrients are termed A) functional foods.

B) antioxidants.

C) gluten-free foods.

D) superfoods.

22)

Functional foods can be placed into twocategories: ______ and ______.

A) zoochemicals;phytochemicals B) antioxidants; anti-inflammatory C) superfoods;phytonutrients D) omega-3; flesh meat

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23)

Which of the following is a function of phytochemicals?

A) Increases inflammation and oxidative damage to cells B) Regulates cell signaling and gene expression C) Increases the formation of blood clots D) Increases the initiation and proliferation of cancer

24)

Examples of foods that are rich sources of phytochemicals include A) gluten-free products, wild game, red wine, and green tea.

B) plant and animal proteins.

C) monounsaturated oils, whole grains, and poultry.

D) fruits, vegetables,whole grains, herbs, nuts, and seeds.

25)

Vitamin A supplements are needed by A) pregnant women.

B) people with severe fat malabsorption.

C) anyone trying to fend off a winter cold.

D) All of these choices are correct.

26) Which fat-soluble vitamin is important for the health of epithelial cells because it promotes mucus production?

A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin E C) Vitamin C D) Vitamin D

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27) of

Yellow-orange vegetables and fruits, such as squash and apricots, are important sources

A) vitamin E. B) vitamin C. C) vitamin A. D) vitamin D.

28)

Which of the following is true about the forms of vitamin A? A) Retinoids arefound in plant foods.

B) Carotenoids arefound in animal foods.

C) Carotenoids can beconverted to retinoids.

D) Retinoids canbeconverted to carotenoids.

29)

The safest way to meet vitamin A needs is by A) consuming a vitamin A supplement.

B) consuming a variety of brightly colored fruits and vegetables.

C) consuming organ meats on a daily basis.

D) consuming large amounts of fortified foods.

30)

Drying of the cornea due to vitamin A deficiency is called A) apnea.

B) dysphagia.

C) xerophthalmia.

D) cachexia.

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31) Retinol activity equivalents (RAE) take into account the activity of provitamin A carotenoids and ______ found in foods.

A) preformed vitamin A B) lutein and zeaxanthin C) cysteine D) None of these choices are correct.

32)

Most vitamin A is stored in the A) kidneys.

B) small intestine.

C) liver.

D) adipose tissue.

33)

Accutane (an acne medication) is a derivative of vitamin A) A. B) E. C) C. D) D.

34)

Which of the following foods has the largest amount of preformed vitamin A? A) Broccoli B) Pork chop C) Chicken breast D) Liver

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35)

Which of the following is a good source of provitamin A? A) Orange B) Apricot C) Cauliflower D) Potatoes

36) George wants to increase his consumption of vitamin A. Which of the following foods should he choose?

A) Spinach B) Salmon C) Pears D) Potato

37)

Which of the following is converted to vitamin A in the body?

A) Tocopherols B) Beta-carotene C) Cholesterol D) Phenylalanine

38)

A typicalserving of which food provides the most vitamin A?

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A) Yellow squash B) Egg C) Liver D) Apricot

39)

Which of the following is true about vitamin A toxicity?

A) Fetal malformations can occur.

B) One is unlikely to get toxic doses from eating food sources of vitamin A. C) Most adverse effects disappear after ceasing to take excessive doses.

D) All of these are true.

40) In green vegetables, such as broccoli, the orange pigments of provitamin A carotenoids are masked by A) lycopene.

B) chlorophyll.

C) lutein.

D) anthocyanin.

41)

Carotenoidconsumptionmay reduce the risk of A) acne.

B) cataracts.

C) cirrhosis.

D) beriberi.

42)

Lycopene is found in

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A) grapes.

B) carrots.

C) tomatoes.

D) whole grain products.

43) The leading cause of blindness among older Americans is macular degeneration. Eating a diet rich in <span style=" text-decoration: underline;"></span> can decrease the risk of this condition.

A) retinoids B) vitamin E C) vitamin C D) carotenoids

44)

The bioavailabilty of carotenoids is affected by A) cooking.

B) consumption with meat products.

C) soil mineral content.

D) exposure to acid.

45)

Consuming excessive carotenoids may cause A) fetal malformations.

B) yellowing of the skin.

C) chlorosis.

D) scurvy.

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46)

Beta-carotene is a precursor to A) vitamin A. B) vitamin E. C) vitamin C. D) vitamin D.

47)

The nutrient that can be considered both a vitamin and a hormone is A) vitamin E. B) vitamin D. C) vitamin A. D) niacin.

48)

Vitamin D is unique among the vitamins because A) it is absorbed and transported via the lymphatic system.

B) its absorption requires bile and fat.

C) it can be formed in the body by skin exposure to the sun.

D) it can be stored.

49)

Vitamin D regulates A) energy metabolism.

B) fluid balance.

C) oxidation and reduction reactions.

D) blood calcium levels.

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50)

The ability of the skin to synthesize vitamin D is decreased by A) the use of sunscreen.

B) excessive dietary calcium intake.

C) excessive dietary phosphorus intake.

D) the use of a tanning bed.

51)

The childhood disease rickets is due to a deficiency of A) vitamin A. B) vitamin C. C) vitamin D. D) vitamin K.

52)

Deposition of calcium and phosphorus in the bones is regulated by A) vitamin A. B) riboflavin.

C) vitamin D. D) niacin.

53)

Vitamin D is converted to its active form by the A) liver and kidneys.

B) bones.

C) pancreas.

D) skin.

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54)

The major effect of taking high doses of vitamin D is A) excessive acne.

B) calcium deposits in the kidneys and other organs.

C) limb paralysis.

D) a flaky skin rash.

55)

Vitamin D toxicity is most likely a result of A) consuming beef liver.

B) consuming megadoses of vitamin D supplements.

C) excessive sun exposure.

D) consuming three servings of vitamin D-fortified dairy products per day.

56)

The most reliable source of vitamin D in the diet is A) poultry.

B) whole-grain cereals.

C) yellow squash.

D) fortified milk.

57) Which of the following would be the best source of vitamin D for a person following a vegan diet?

A) Fish oil B) Vitamin D-fortified soymilk C) Spinach D) Whole grain products

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58)

Fat malabsorption may contribute to poor bone health because of impaired absorption of A) vitamin D. B) vitamin A. C) phosphorus.

D) magnesium.

59) Which of the following is a situation in whicha person should consider vitamin D supplementation?

A) Strict vegandiet B) Allergy to milkprotein C) Kidneydisease D) All of thesechoices are correct.

60)

Excessive intake of ______ can lead to calcification of soft tissue, such as the kidney.

A) vitamin A B) vitamin D C) vitamin E D) vitamin K

61)

The childhood deficiency disease for vitamin D is called

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A) osteopenia.

B) osteomalacia.

C) rickets.

D) osteoporosis.

62)

Which of the following statements is true?

A) As we age, we need more vitamin D and more calories.

B) As we age, we need more vitamin D and fewer calories.

C) As we age, we need less vitamin D and fewer calories.

D) As we age, we need less vitamin D and more calories.

63)

Vitamin ______ can be produced in the skin in response to ultraviolet light.

A) A B) C C) D D) E

64) To promote bone health, all infants should receive supplemental ______ until dietary intake from formula and/or other foods meets their needs.

A) calcium B) phosphorus C) vitamin D D) magnesium

65)

In North America, the major dietary source of vitamin ______ is fortified dairy products.

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A) B-6 B) C C) D D) K

66) A condition characterized by soft bones resulting from a vitamin D deficiency in adulthood is called A) rickets.

B) osteoporosis.

C) osteomalacia.

D) osteopenia.

67)

To protect bone health, vegans may require a supplemental source of vitamin A) A. B) C. C) D. D) K.

68)

______ is a building block of vitamin D and other hormones.

A) Cholesterol B) Hydroxyapatite C) Calcitriol D) Estrogen

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69)

Examine the Nutrition Facts label for wild Alaskan salmon.

How much vitamin D is in one serving (3 ounces) of cooked salmon?

A) 7 micrograms B) 7 milligrams C) 7 grams D) 7 milliliters

70)

Antioxidants

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A) promote the formation of free radicals.

B) donate electrons to free radicals.

C) speed the rate of chemical reactions.

D) damage cell membranes.

71)

Vitamin E functions as A) a coenzyme.

B) an antioxidant.

C) a hormone.

D) an enzyme.

72)

Free radical damage has been implicated in increasing the risk of A) sinus infections.

B) HIV. C) atherosclerosis.

D) sickle cell disease.

73) When a cell membrane is damaged by free radicals, which specific component of the cell membrane is damaged?

A) Cholesterol B) Phospholipid C) Polysaccharide D) Saturated fat

74)

In general, the richest sources of vitamin E are

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A) refined grain products.

B) plant oils.

C) citrus fruits.

D) yellow and orange vegetables.

75)

The main form of vitamin E in the body is A) alpha-tocopherol.

B) gamma-tocopherol.

C) beta-tocopherol.

D) delta-tocopherol.

76)

Which of the following vitaminsserves as an antioxidant in cell membranes?

A) Vitamin K B) Vitamin D C) Niacin D) Vitamin E

77) Which of the following groups is at highest risk for negative consequences of marginal vitamin E status?

A) Vegetarians B) Preterm infants C) Athletes D) Older adults

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78)

Vitamin E is thought to be helpful in the prevention of heart disease because it A) enhances vitamin Kactivity.

B) prevents oxidation of LDL cholesterol.

C) relaxes blood vessels.

D) prevents sodium retention.

79)

A rich source of vitamin E is A) oranges.

B) chicken breast.

C) corn oil.

D) prime rib.

80)

The most bioavailable source of vitamin E is A) plant oil.

B) fish oil.

C) alpha-tocopherol supplements.

D) mixed-tocopherol supplements.

81)

Food processing A) enhances vitamin E absorption from foods.

B) increases vitamin E content of foods.

C) decreases vitamin E content of foods.

D) has no effect on vitamin E in foods because it is a stable compound.

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82)

When the intake of

is low, vitaminE aids in itsabsorption.

A) vitamin A B) vitamin D C) iron D) zinc

83)

Cell membranes are susceptible to damage by free radicals because A) they contain many polyunsaturated fatty acids.

B) they contain many saturated fatty acids.

C) they have so many unpaired electrons.

D) they are the site of cellular respiration.

84) Replacing animal fats with plant oils in the diet would not only cut saturated fat intake, but would also increase A) vitamin A intake.

B) vitamin C intake.

C) vitamin E intake.

D) selenium intake.

85)

Vitamin E deficiency is least likely among

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A) those who follow a vegetarian diet.

B) those who smokecigarettes.

C) prematureinfants.

D) people with fatmalabsorption.

86)

Typical North American dietary patterns ______ the RDA for vitamin E. A) do not meet B) meet

87) The American Heart Association, the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force, and the National Academy of Sciences ______ vitamin E supplements for the prevention of cardiovascular disease.

A) do not recommend B) recommend

88)

Excessive use of vitamin E supplements could lead to A) uncontrolled bleeding.

B) nausea.

C) diarrhea.

D) All of these choices are correct.

89)

Which of the following food combinations provides the most vitamin K?

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A) Spinach saladwith strawberries, blueberries, and oil and vinegar dressing B) Ham and cheese ona whole wheat English muffin C) Low-fat yogurtwith granola and fresh berries D) Sirloin steak,steamed green beans, and baked potato

90)

Which of the following populations is most susceptible to vitamin K deficiency?

A) Vegans B) Preschoolchildren who are picky eaters C) Children withcystic fibrosis D) Older adults

91)

An important role of vitamin K is the synthesis of A) alpha-tocopherol.

B) visual pigments.

C) retinol.

D) clotting factors.

92)

Vitamin D and vitamin K share which of the following characteristics?

A) Both can besynthesized to some extent in the body.

B) Both affectintestinal absorption of calcium.

C) Both are involvedin blood clotting.

D) All of thesechoices are correct.

93)

Vitamin K is required for optimal bone health due to its role in activating

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A) proteins that bindcalcium.

B) clotting factors in the blood.

C) vitamin D in the kidneys.

D) vitamin D in theliver.

94)

The nutrient essential for the synthesis of several blood clotting factors is A) vitamin A. B) vitamin C. C) vitamin E. D) vitamin K.

95) Antibiotics often destroy beneficial bacteria (e.g., in the gastrointestinal tract) along with pathogenic strains. This can decrease bacterial synthesis of A) calcium.

B) vitamin D. C) vitamin K. D) vitamin E.

96) Dennis had undergone a heart valve replacement and was placed on Coumadin (warfarin). In order for the Coumadin to be effective, consistent daily consumption of <span style="text-decoration: underline;"></span> must be maintained.

A) vitamin C B) vitamin B-6 C) vitamin K D) vitamin B-12

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97) Newborns are routinely given an injection of ______ shortly after birth to prevent lifethreatening hemorrhage.

A) vitamin K B) vitamin E C) vitamin A D) vitamin D

98)

Which two nutrients are required for activation of blood clotting factors?

A) Vitamin K and calcium B) Vitamin E and potassium C) Vitamin K and iron D) Vitamin D and calcium

99)

The synthetic form of vitamin K found in dietary supplements is A) menadione.

B) menaquinone.

C) phylloquinone.

D) alpha-tocopherol.

100) In North America, which of the following populations is most susceptible to deficiencies of B vitamins?

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A) Vegans B) Pregnantwomen C) Preschooolchildren D) Alcoholics

101)

In the United States, bread and cereal products made from milled grains are enriched with A) vitamins A, D, and E. B) thiamin, riboflavin, and niacin.

C) vitamins A, C, and K. D) folate, choline, and vitamin B-12.

102) In milling grains to make refined products, seeds are crushed and the germ, bran, and husk layers are discarded, leaving just the starch-containing ________ in the refined grains.

A) endosperm B) cereal C) cellulose D) fiber

103) Because B vitamins are ________, very little is stored; excess intakes end up in the urine or stool.

A) non-toxic B) dissolvable C) fat soluble D) water soluble

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104) Typically, about 50% to 90% of the B vitamins in the diet are absorbed. In other words, B vitamins have high A) essentiality.

B) bioavailability.

C) utilization.

D) metabolism.

105)

B vitamins A) regulate mineral absorption.

B) serve as coenzymes in metabolic reactions.

C) are very stable during food processing.

D) are stored in adipose tissue.

106)

The B vitamins A) facilitate chemical reactions that yield energy from macronutrients.

B) can be broken down to yield about 4 kcal per gram.

C) provide strengthand stability to bones.

D) protect the cellsfrom damage by free radicals.

107)

All of the following can be classified as B vitamins except A) choline.

B) niacin.

C) riboflavin.

D) biotin.

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108)

When B vitamins are consumed in their coenzyme forms,

A) they are brokendown to free vitamins in the stomach and small intestine prior toabsorption.

B) intestinal absorption of fat is enhanced.

C) toxicity of Bvitamins is likely to occur.

D) more energy is available to the body.

109)

The B vitamins generally function as A) antioxidants.

B) coenzymes.

C) emulsifiers.

D) hormones.

110) ______ is a water-soluble vitamin that is important for the release of energy from carbohydrates as well as the synthesis of RNA, DNA, and some neurotransmitters.

A) Thiamin B) Pyridoxine C) Niacin D) Riboflavin

111) Thiamin is distributed in small amounts in many foods. The most nutrient-dense source of thiamin is A) milk.

B) pork.

C) whole grain cereals.

D) dark green vegetables.

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112)

What disease is caused by a thiamin deficiency?

A) Pellagra B) Scurvy C) Kwashiorkor D) Beriberi

113)

Which of the following are the best thiamin sources?

A) Pork, whole grains, enriched cereals, legumes B) Root vegetables, cheddar-type cheese, deep yellow/orange fruits and vegetables C) Seafood, vegetables of the cabbage family, whole grains D) Milk, beef, deep yellow/orange fruits and vegetables

114)

The nutrient that prevents beriberi is A) vitamin B-12.

B) niacin.

C) riboflavin.

D) thiamin.

115)

Beriberi is caused by a _______ deficiency.

A) thiamin B) vitamin B-6 C) niacin D) choline

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116)

The vitamin required specifically in carbohydrate metabolism is A) folate.

B) niacin.

C) riboflavin.

D) thiamin.

117)

The foods that provide the largest source of riboflavin in the American diet are A) meats.

B) whole grain cereals.

C) milk and dairy products.

D) dark green leafy vegetables.

118) Symptoms of ________ deficiency include glossitis, dermatitis, cheilosis, eye disorders, sun sensitivity, and confusion.

A) thiamin B) niacin C) riboflavin D) folate

119)

Which of the following is the best food source of riboflavin?

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A) Milk B) Lean ham C) Carrots D) Canola oil

120)

In the body, the amino acid tryptophancan be converted into A) niacin.

B) thiamin.

C) vitamin B-6.

D) riboflavin.

121)

Pellagra is characterized by A) diarrhea.

B) dementia.

C) dermatitis.

D) All of the choices are correct.

122)

Niacin is necessary to prevent the disease A) pernicious anemia.

B) beriberi.

C) scurvy.

D) pellagra.

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123) Bill's physician has written a prescription for 1.5 grams of nicotinic acid (a form of niacin) per day. Which of the following is a benefit of high doses of niacin?

A) It is a potent antioxidant.

B) It can lower blood pressure.

C) It can lower blood sugar levels.

D) It can lower blood cholesterol levels.

124) Megadoses of ________ may be used to lower cholesterol, but they can cause flushing of the skin.

A) pyridoxine B) nicotinic acid C) riboflavin D) pantothenic acid

125)

A pantothenic acid deficiency A) is very unlikely because of its widespread availability.

B) is very likely.

C) occurs commonly in children.

D) occurs commonly in the elderly.

126)

The vitamin that aids in activating fatty acids so they can yield energy is A) pantothenic acid.

B) biotin.

C) vitamin B-6.

D) thiamin.

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127)

Rich sources of pantothenic acid are A) orange juice and soymilk.

B) blueberries and apples.

C) white bread and pastries.

D) sunflower seeds, mushrooms, peanuts, and eggs.

128) _______ is a water-soluble vitamin that is especially important in amino acid metabolism, neurotransmitter synthesis, and the synthesis of the heme portion of hemoglobin.

A) Vitamin C B) Vitamin B-6 C) Thiamin D) Riboflavin

129)

Which B vitamin is required for amino acid metabolism?

A) Thiamin B) Niacin C) Vitamin B-6 D) Pantothenic acid

130)

The best vitamin B-6 food sources include A) enriched breadsand cereals.

B) milk and dairy products.

C) meat, fish, and poultry.

D) deep yellow/orange fruits and vegetables.

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131) A deficiency of vitamin B-6 can result in depression, headaches, and confusion. These occur because of impaired A) hemoglobin synthesis.

B) glucose metabolism.

C) neurotransmitter synthesis.

D) DNA synthesis.

132)

The name of the active vitamin B-6 coenzyme is A) nicotinamide.

B) pyridoxal phosphate (PLP).

C) thiamin pyrophosphate (TPP).

D) flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD).

133)

Taking megadosesupplements of vitamin B-6 can lead to A) liver damage.

B) kidney damage.

C) nerve damage.

D) ulcers.

134) Most water-soluble vitamins are rapidly excreted from the body when consumed in excess. However, ______ is an example of a water-soluble vitamin that can accumulate to toxic levels in the liver.

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A) vitamin B-6 B) thiamin C) riboflavin D) vitamin C

135)

Pantothenic acid is required for the synthesis of A) thiamin pyrophosphate (TPP).

B) coenzyme Q (CoQ).

C) coenzyme A (CoA).

D) flavin mononucleotide(FMN).

136)

Biotin absorption is inhibited by A) phytate.

B) oxalate.

C) avidin.

D) copper.

137) Consistently consuming raw egg whites, as in a daily high-protein drink, can bind <span style=" text-decoration: underline;"></span>and result in a deficiency of this vitamin.

A) folate B) vitamin B-6 C) pantothenicacid D) biotin

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138) ______ is unique among the B vitamins because bacterial synthesis of the vitamin contributes to meeting human needs.

A) Folate B) Vitamin B-6 C) Pantothenic acid D) Biotin

139)

The form of folate found in supplements and enriched cereal is A) folate.

B) folic acid.

C) folacin.

D) fluoric acid.

140)

Exceeding the UL for folate A) is a common result of a diet rich in fruits and vegetables.

B) can cause avitaminB-12 deficiency.

C) can mask avitaminB-12 deficiency.

D) cannot occur with synthetic forms of the vitamin.

141)

Generally, ______ are the best sources of folate.

A) fruits B) green leafy vegetables C) milk and dairy products D) poultry and seafood

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142)

A rich folate food source would be A) skim milk.

B) roast beef.

C) asparagus.

D) peanuts.

143) Consuming adequate ______ during pregnancy can help prevent neural tube defects, such as spina bifida.

A) niacin B) folate C) riboflavin D) vitamin B-6

144) The synthetic form of folate(folic acid) is ______ bioavailable than the natural form of the vitamin.

A) more B) less

145) In 1998, the federal governments in both the United States and Canada mandated the fortification of grain products with ______ to prevent neural tube defects.

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A) folic acid B) niacin C) thiamin D) vitamin B-12

146)

Pernicious anemia is related to impaired absorption of A) vitamin B-12.

B) folate.

C) copper.

D) iron.

147)

Which of the B vitamins contains cobalt?

A) Niacin B) Thiamin C) Vitamin B-6 D) Vitamin B-12

148)

The abnormal red blood cells seen in pernicious anemia are due to A) inadequate folateintake.

B) inadequate folateabsorption.

C) inadequate B-12intake.

D) inadequate B-12absorption.

149)

Older adults may require a supplemental source of vitamin B-12 because

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A) low intake of vitamin C impairs vitamin B-12 absorption.

B) decreased production of intrinsic factor decreases vitamin B-12 absorption.

C) increased hydrochloric acid production decreases vitamin B-12 absorption.

D) high fiber intake binds vitamin B-12.

150)

In order to adequately absorb vitamin B-12, we need A) intrinsicfactor.

B) an acidic environment in the stomach.

C) a healthyileum.

D) All of the choices are correct.

151)

Individuals who ______ are at increased risk for vitamin B-12 deficiency.

A) take medications to decrease stomach acidity B) exercise intensely C) smoke D) frequently eat red meat

152)

Vitamin B-12 is supplied almost entirely by A) animal products.

B) vegetables and fruits.

C) human intestinal bacteria.

D) whole grain cereals and legumes.

153)

Acquiring sufficient vitamin B-12 from the diet may be a problem for vegans because

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A) phytic acid in vegetable proteins may inhibit its absorption.

B) they lack the R-protein in the stomach.

C) it is only found in animal products.

D) protein deficiency limits synthesis of intrinsic factor.

154)

Jason is a strict vegan. He should take a supplemental source of A) vitamin B-12.

B) folate.

C) vitamin C. D) vitamin A.

155)

Consuming high doses of ______ can mask signs of a vitamin B-12 deficiency.

A) folate B) vitamin K C) iron D) vitamin B-6

156)

Vitamins involved in red blood cell synthesis are A) folate and thiamin.

B) thiamin and niacin.

C) vitamin B-12 and folate.

D) folate and pantothenic acid.

157)

Vitamin B-6, folate, and vitamin B-12 are required for the metabolism of

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A) niacin.

B) homocysteine.

C) iron.

D) fatty acids.

158)

Anemia can result from a deficiency of A) folate.

B) vitamin B-12.

C) vitamin B-6.

D) All of these choices are correct.

159)

Vitamin C and meat protein ______ nonheme iron absorption.

A) increase B) decrease C) do not change

160)

Vitamin C contributes to bone health by virtue of its role in A) antioxidant reactions.

B) collagen synthesis.

C) immune function.

D) mineral absorption.

161)

Which of the following is an antioxidant?

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A) Vitamin C B) Vitamin B-6 C) Biotin D) Thiamin

162)

Scurvy can be prevented with adequate intakes of A) niacin.

B) riboflavin.

C) vitamin C. D) thiamin.

163)

Formation and maintenance of collagen require A) thiamin.

B) vitamin C. C) pantothenic acid.

D) folate.

164)

Which of the following snacks provides the most vitamin C? A) Mixed berries, including strawberries and blueberries B) Whole wheat crackers with peanut butter C) Baked apples with cinnamon and brown sugar D) Grilled cheese sandwich

165)

Vitamin C enhances the absorption of

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A) vitamin A. B) vitamin E. C) iron.

D) zinc.

166) Deficiency symptoms of pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin, bleeding gums, and joint pain are related to the role of vitamin C in A) carnitine synthesis.

B) collagen synthesis.

C) antioxidant reactions.

D) neurotransmitter synthesis.

167)

Vitamin C is a ______-soluble vitamin.

A) water B) fat

168)

As part of the body’s antioxidant defenses, vitamin C participates in the recycling of A) vitamin A. B) vitamin E. C) iron.

D) zinc.

169)

Vitamin C intake over 2 grams per day may cause

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A) diarrhea.

B) liver damage.

C) beriberi.

D) reboundscurvy.

170)

Which of the following population groups has increased vitamin C requirements?

A) Vegetarians B) Alcoholics C) Older adults D) Smokers

171)

Consumption of vitamin C ______ the absorption of iron.

A) enhances B) limits C) does not affect

172)

The vitamin C content of foods can be decreased by A) exposure to oxygen.

B) exposure to cool temperatures.

C) ripening.

D) binding with phytic acid.

173)

Which of the following body systems is particularly sensitive to choline status?

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A) Nervous system B) Immune system C) Digestivesystem D) Skeletalsystem

174)

Which of the following is a role of choline in human health?

A) Synthesis of neurotransmitters B) Transport of lipids C) Structure of cell membranes D) All of these are functions of choline.

175)

A nutrient that has been deemed essential but has not been classified as a vitamin is A) ascorbic acid.

B) beta-carotene.

C) choline.

D) resveratrol.

176)

Soybeans, egg yolks, meats, and lecithin are sources of A) riboflavin.

B) choline.

C) chromium.

D) iodide.

177)

The apparent role of ________ in prevention of birth defects is similar to that of folate.

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A) manganese B) molybdenum C) choline D) pantothenic acid

178)

Choline is a precursor for several A) lipoproteins.

B) phospholipids.

C) fatty acids.

D) sterols.

179)

The following are some vitamin-like compounds found in our diets: A) quinone and ascorbic acid.

B) alpha-tocopherol, thiamin, and ribonucleic acid.

C) carnitine, inositol, taurine, and lipoic acid.

D) pyridoxine, cobalamin, and retinoic acid.

180) Which of the following is true about the regulation of the production and sale of vitamin and mineral supplements?

A) There is no federal legislation regulating supplements.

B) The FDA does not regulate all vitamin and mineral supplements closely.

C) Americans can rest assured that the federal government will protect them from vitamin and mineral supplement overuse.

D) Supplement companies are free to market their products with invalid and illegal claims.

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181) When buying a vitamin or mineral supplement, look for ______ on the label, which signifies that an independent group of scientists has reviewed the product for purity, strength, and quality.

A) UPS B) SPU C) PSU D) USP

182)

If a supplement label includes a structure/function claim, it also must include A) an illustration of the supplement's chemical structure.

B) the FDA warning that these claims have not been evaluated by the agency.

C) a reference to a scientific study that supports this claim.

D) a description of the supplement's biological function.

183) The Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA) of 1994 classified vitamins, minerals, amino acids, and herbal remedies as A) foods.

B) drugs.

C) micronutrients.

D) phytochemicals.

184) The Supplement Facts label on dietary supplements resembles the ______ and is required on all dietary supplements.

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A) Nutrition Facts label on foods B) Drug Facts label on drugs C) Cosmetic Facts label on cosmetics D) Prescription Facts label on medications

185)

Recommendations from the American Cancer Society (ACS) encourage Americans to A) eat more of a variety of vegetables, fruits, whole grains, and legumes.

B) limit consumption of salty foods and highly processed foods with salt.

C) avoid sugary drinks.

D) All of these are ACS recommendations.

186)

Cruciferous vegetables such as ______are rich in cancer-preventing phytochemicals.

A) onions and leeks B) carrots and sweet potatoes C) cabbage and cauliflower D) spinach and Swiss chard

187)

Which of the following forms of cancer is unrelated to excessive calorie intake?

A) Lung B) Breast C) Colon D) Pancreatic

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188) Anya is undergoing treatment for cancerand suffers from nausea and mouth sores, which are hindering her food intake. Which of the following meals would you recommend?

A) Pancakes, a hardboiled egg, and apple juice B) Bacon, fried eggs,and orange juice C) Spaghetti withmeat sauce, garlic bread, and a soft drink D) Toast with jam, asoft-boiled egg, and milk

189)

Examine the Nutrition Facts label for wild Alaskan salmon.

True or false: Wild Alaskan salmon is a rich (high) source of vitamin D.

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⊚ ⊚

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52

Answer Key Test name: Chap 08_12e 1) C 2) B 3) A 4) B 5) B 6) C 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) A 12) D 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) C 17) D 18) A 19) A 20) A 21) A 22) A 23) B 24) D 25) B 26) A Version 1

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27) C 28) C 29) B 30) C 31) A 32) C 33) A 34) D 35) B 36) A 37) B 38) C 39) D 40) B 41) B 42) C 43) D 44) A 45) B 46) A 47) B 48) C 49) D 50) A 51) C 52) C 53) A 54) B 55) B 56) D Version 1

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57) B 58) A 59) D 60) B 61) C 62) B 63) C 64) C 65) C 66) C 67) C 68) A 69) A 70) B 71) B 72) C 73) B 74) B 75) A 76) D 77) B 78) B 79) C 80) A 81) C 82) A 83) A 84) C 85) A 86) A Version 1

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87) A 88) D 89) A 90) C 91) D 92) A 93) A 94) D 95) C 96) C 97) A 98) A 99) A 100) D 101) B 102) A 103) D 104) B 105) B 106) A 107) A 108) A 109) B 110) A 111) B 112) D 113) A 114) D 115) A 116) D Version 1

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117) C 118) C 119) A 120) A 121) D 122) D 123) D 124) B 125) A 126) A 127) D 128) B 129) C 130) C 131) C 132) B 133) C 134) A 135) C 136) C 137) D 138) D 139) B 140) C 141) B 142) C 143) B 144) A 145) A 146) A Version 1

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147) D 148) D 149) B 150) D 151) A 152) A 153) C 154) A 155) A 156) C 157) B 158) D 159) A 160) B 161) A 162) C 163) B 164) A 165) C 166) B 167) A 168) B 169) A 170) D 171) A 172) A 173) A 174) D 175) C 176) B Version 1

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177) C 178) B 179) C 180) B 181) D 182) B 183) A 184) A 185) D 186) C 187) A 188) A 189) TRUE

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CHAPTER 9 1)

Water constitutes ______ percent of an adult's body weight.

A) 10 to 20 B) 25 to 45 C) 50 to 70 D) 75 to 95

2)

Which of the following are functions of water?

A) Transport of nutrients B) Excretion of wastes C) Regulation of body temperature D) All of these are functions of water

3)

The amount of water in each body compartment mainly is controlled by A) oxygen concentration.

B) glucose concentration.

C) the presence of fatty acids.

D) ion concentration.

4)

The two main intracellular ions are A) sodium and chloride.

B) phosphate and potassium.

C) potassium and sodium.

D) chloride and potassium.

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5)

The two main extracellular ions are A) sodium and chloride.

B) phosphate and potassium.

C) potassium and sodium.

D) chloride and potassium.

6)

Water regulates body temperature through heat loss via A) conduction.

B) radiation.

C) respiration.

D) evaporation.

7) A liter of perspiration lost by the body represents a heat loss of approximately _____ kilocalories.

A) 200 B) 400 C) 600 D) 800

8)

Adult women need how much total water intake per day?

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A) 1.5 liters (6cups) B) 2 liters (8.5cups) C) 2.7 liters (11cups) D) 3 liters (13cups)

9) Joe is a wrestler. During his workouts, he loses 2 pounds. How much water would he have to drink to replenish this water weight loss?

A) 2 to 3 cups B) 3 to 4 cups C) 4 to 6 cups D) 6 to 8 cups

10) What is the Adequate Intake (AI) for total water (including foods and beverages) for adult men?

A) 2.0 liters (8.5cups) B) 2.7 liters (11cups) C) 3.0 liters (13cups) D) 3.7 liters (15cups)

11) If the intracellular concentration of ions is greater than the extracellular concentration of ions, which of the following will happen in order to maintain balance?

A) Fluid will moveinto the cell.

B) Fluid will moveout of the cell.

C) Ions will moveinto the cell.

D) Ions will move outof the cell.

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12) After an intense workout, Christa's weight was down 3 pounds. To rehydrate adequately, Christa should drink ______ cups of water over the next hour or two.

A) 1 to 2 B) 2 to 3 C) 4 to 6 D) 6 to 9

13)

A rise from 98.6°F to 99.6°F results in a ______% rise in basal metabolic rate.

A) 1 B) 5 C) 7 D) 10

14)

Who should be concerned about dehydration?

A) An athlete participating in a triathlon B) An elderly man C) A child who is ill with diarrhea D) All of these choices are correct.

15)

Inadequate hydration may increase the risk for

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A) hyponatremia.

B) kidney stones.

C) hypertension.

D) hypokalemia.

16)

Mucus and synovial (joint) fluid exemplify water's role as a A) lubricant.

B) solvent.

C) transport medium.

D) participant in chemical reactions.

17)

Which of the following people is likely to have the highest percentage of body water?

A) A highly trained male athlete B) A highlytrainedfemale athlete C) A woman with obesity D) An elderly man

18)

Aldosterone signals the kidneys to conserve A) sodium.

B) potassium.

C) chloride.

D) phosphate.

19)

Which of the following is a symptom of dehydration?

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A) Sweaty skin B) High blood pressure C) Rapid heart rate D) Pale yellow urine

20)

Dark yellow urine is most likely caused by A) eating asparagus.

B) not drinking enough fluids.

C) drinking too much cranberry juice.

D) eating too much carrots and squash.

21)

Which of the following foods has the lowest water content?

A) Lettuce B) Whole grain bread C) Tomato D) Sirloin steak

22)

Water that is lost from the body via perspiration and respiration is sometimes called A) insensible water loss.

B) sensible water loss.

23)

Metabolic water refers to

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A) rehydration beverages that contain electrolytes.

B) water that is formed as a byproduct of the breakdown of macronutrients for energy.

C) water that is conserved by the kidneys.

D) fluids that are absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract.

24)

Chronic dehydration increases a man's risk of developing A) gallstones.

B) calcium deposits.

C) a fever.

D) kidney stones.

25) Water is lost from the body in four ways. Which is the biggest component of daily water losses?

A) Feces B) Urine C) Perspiration D) Respiration

26)

Softening of hard water may increaseits ______ content.

A) sodium B) magnesium C) calcium D) fluoride

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27)

Which government agency regulates and monitors the safety of bottled water?

A) United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) B) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) C) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) D) All of these choices are correct.

28)

Most bottled water has ______ fluoride content than municipal tap water.

A) a lower B) a higher C) the same

29)

Which of the following conditions leads to the breakdown of plastic water bottles?

A) Being left in a hot car B) Being used toholdlemonade C) Being cleaned in the dishwasher D) All of theseconditions break down plastic.

30)

Frequent consumption of sparkling water can soften tooth enamel because

A) the carbon dioxide in sparkling water turns to carbonic acid, which lowers the pH of the mouth.

B) the carbon dioxide in sparkling water can be metabolized by oral bacteria, which produce acids that damage enamel.

C) the minerals in sparkling water lower the pH of the saliva, which softens enamel.

D) the minerals in sparkling water are abrasive to the enamel of the teeth.

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31) The movement of water across a semipermeable membrane (e.g., the cell membrane) is known as A) osmosis.

B) diuresis.

C) osteoporosis.

D) nerve impulse transmission.

32)

Potassium and phosphateare the major ______ electrolytes.

A) intracellular B) extracellular

33) The main way the body gets rid of excess water, excess minerals, and metabolic waste products is A) urine.

B) sweat.

C) feces.

D) bile.

34) Active transport of ______ from the lumen of the intestine into the cells lining the intestine facilitates absorption of water from the gastrointestinal tract.

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A) sodium B) glucose C) amino acids D) phosphorus

35) ______ is a hormone released by the adrenal glands that is responsible for regulating fluid volume in the body.

A) Aldosterone B) Antidiuretic hormone C) Angiotensin D) Insulin

36) Interstitial fluid, lymph, gastrointestinal fluid, spinal fluid, plasma, and synovial fluid are part of ______ fluid.

A) extracellular B) intracellular

37) Minerals are categorized based on the amount we need per day.Which of the following statements is correct?

A) Major minerals are needed in amounts greater than 500 milligrams per day.

B) Trace minerals are needed in amounts lower than 100 milligrams per day.

C) Trace minerals are needed in amounts lower than 10 milligrams per day.

D) Major minerals are needed in amounts greater than 200 milligrams per day.

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38)

The RDA for iodine is 150 micrograms per day. Iodine is a(n) A) trace mineral.

B) major mineral.

C) ultratrace mineral.

D) minor mineral.

39)

Which of the following is true about mineral bioavailability?

A) Minerals from plants are better absorbed than minerals from animal products.

B) Minerals from animal products are better absorbed than minerals from plants.

40)

Oxalic acid, a component of fiber, can inhibit the absorption of A) vitamin A. B) thiamin.

C) calcium.

D) protein.

41)

Of the following minerals, the daily requirements are highest for A) iron.

B) iodine.

C) calcium.

D) copper.

42)

Which of the following is an example of a trace mineral?

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A) Iron B) Calcium C) Sodium D) Potassium

43)

The primary site of micronutrient absorption isthe A) small intestine.

B) liver.

C) stomach.

D) large intestine.

44)

Consumption of vitamin C A) enhances absorption of iron.

B) limits absorption of iron.

C) does not affect absorption of iron.

45) The removal of the bran and germ components of whole grains during the process of milling ______ the trace mineral content of grain products.

A) decreases B) increases C) does not affect

46)

The typical American dietary pattern

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A) is too low in sodium.

B) provides a healthy amount of sodium.

C) is too high in sodium.

47)

Of the following foods, which one is lowest in sodium?

A) Canned carrots B) Carrot cake C) Frozen carrots with cheese sauce D) Fresh carrots

48)

All foods in their unprocessed form tend to be low in sodium except A) milk and dairy products.

B) whole grains.

C) legumes.

D) fruits.

49) For a healthy individual, a high-salt dietary pattern tends to ______ urinary excretion of sodium.

A) increase B) decrease

50) Which of the following 1-ounce portions of food would have the lowest amount of sodium?

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A) Plain ground beef B) Ground beef with taco seasoning C) Deli roast beef (i.e., lunch meat) D) Beef jerky

51)

The Adequate Intake (AI) for sodium for adults is ______ milligrams per day.

A) 500 B) 1000 C) 1500 D) 2000

52) The process of nerve impulse transmission starts with the flow of ______ ions into the nerve cell.

A) potassium B) sodium C) chloride D) phosphate

53)

The sodium concentration of the blood is primarily regulated by the A) kidneys.

B) small intestine.

C) large intestine.

D) spleen.

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54) Which of the following meals would be most appropriate for a person following a lowsodium dietary pattern?

A) Chicken noodle soup, oyster crackers, and a tossed green salad with ranch dressing B) Chicken tenders, French fries, and sliced apples from a fast food restaurant C) A homemade chicken casserole made with canned green beans and cream of mushroom soup D) Homemade oven-baked chicken, buttered rice, and steamed fresh green beans

55)

Which of the following portions of food has the most sodium?

A) 1 slice of cheese pizza topped with pepperoni and sausage B) 1 slice of cheese pizza C) 1 slice of cheese pizza topped with fresh tomato and basil D) All of these foods have the same amount of sodium.

56) Which of the following individuals would benefit most from choosing a sports drink instead of water?

A) A student who needs to stay up late to study for an exam B) An athlete who competes in a marathon C) An athlete whocompetes in the 100-meter dash D) An elderly adult

57)

Most American adults exceed current recommendations for intake of

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A) water.

B) sodium.

C) potassium.

D) calcium.

58) When starting a reduced-salt dietary pattern, how long will it take before you can sense salt at a lower taste threshold?

A) 2 weeks B) 8 weeks C) 12 weeks D) 18 weeks

59)

About ______ of adults aresodium sensitive.

A) 10% to 15% B) 25% to 30% C) 45% to 50% D) 70% to 75%

60) When it comes to the impact of dietary patterns on the risk for hypertension, there are some racial differences in sodium sensitivity. Individuals of African or Asian descent tend to be ______ sodium sensitive than whites.

A) more B) less

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61)

The major source of ______ in the typical American dietary pattern is processed foods.

A) sodium B) potassium C) calcium D) phosphorus

62)

Reducing dietary intake of sodium will ______ urine production.

A) decrease B) increase C) not change

63)

Fluid balance is dependent on A) potassium.

B) iron.

C) vitamin C. D) niacin.

64)

Which of the following is a function of potassium?

A) Maintenance of night vision B) Regulation of fluid balance C) Neutralization of free radicals D) Yields energy

65)

Increasing your intake of potassium tends to ______ your blood pressure.

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A) increase B) decrease

66)

Potassium is found in the largest quantities in A) milk and dairy products.

B) meats.

C) fruits and vegetables.

D) refined grains.

67)

Which of the following foods is the most nutrient-dense source of potassium?

A) Squash B) Skim milk C) White bread D) Canola oil

68)

Of the following, the best source of potassium is A) fresh spinach.

B) milk.

C) white bread.

D) canned tuna.

69) Switching from an omnivorous dietary pattern to a vegetarian dietary pattern would most likely ______ your intake of potassium.

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A) increase B) decrease C) not affect

70)

Either too much or too little potassium in the blood can cause A) excessive sweating.

B) liver damage.

C) extreme hunger.

D) heart problems.

71)

Which of the following population groups is at significant risk for low blood potassium?

A) People who follow a vegetarian dietary pattern B) People with lactose intolerance C) People with eating disorders D) People who are physically inactive

72)

Which of the following population groups is at risk for high blood potassium?

A) People who follow a vegetarian dietary pattern B) People with alcohol use disorders C) People with eating disorders D) People with kidney disorders

73)

Which of the following electrolytes is especially important for proper heart rhythm?

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A) Sodium B) Potassium C) Chloride D) Phosphate

74)

The major source of chloride in the typical American dietary pattern is A) nuts.

B) milk.

C) cheese.

D) table salt.

75)

Depletion of chloride is mostly likely to occur with excessive A) dieting.

B) vomiting.

C) diarrhea.

D) sweating.

76)

Which of the following is a function of chloride?

A) Participates in digestion B) Neutralizes free radicals C) Activates enzymes D) Mineralizes bone

77)

The ratio (by weight) of sodium to chloride in table salt is

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A) 30:70.

B) 40:60.

C) 50:50.

D) 60:40.

78)

Cortical bone A) has a dense structure.

B) has a spongy structure.

C) is the site of red blood cell synthesis.

D) is more rapidly remodeled than trabecular bone.

79)

Trabecular bone A) has a porous structure.

B) is found in the vertebrae, hips, and wrists.

C) is more rapidly remodeled than cortical bone.

D) All of these choices are correct.

80)

The mixture of calcium and phosphorus that forms the structure of boneis called A) dentin.

B) calcium citrate.

C) calcium carbonate.

D) hydroxyapatite.

81)

A good indicator of bone health is

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A) bone mineral density.

B) frame size.

C) curvature of the spine.

D) blood calcium concentration.

82) Accumulation of bone mass occurs primarily during childhood and adolescence. Later in life, the rate of bone degradation exceeds the rate of bone synthesis. For average, healthy men and women, gradual bone loss begins around age A) 20.

B) 30.

C) 40.

D) 50.

83)

Adequate intakes of ______ support optimal bone health.

A) calcium, vitamin D, and protein B) vitamin E, folate, and protein C) protein, iron, and vitamin B-6 D) sodium, phosphorus, and vitamin C

84)

For the prevention of osteoporosis, strength training is A) recommended because the stress on bones stimulates bone maintenance.

B) recommended because it decreases estrogen levels.

C) not recommended because it increases fracture risk.

D) not recommended because it increases testosterone levels.

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85)

Choose the factors that promote bone health.

A) Smoking, alcohol, and excessive caffeine intake B) Healthy body weight, active lifestyle, and a balanced dietary pattern that includes bone-building nutrients C) Female, aging, and high estrogen D) Strength training, low estrogen levels, and low protein intake

86) As adults age (from middle adulthood to older adulthood), their dietary needs for calcium and vitamin D A) increase.

B) decrease.

C) do not change.

87) Postmenopausal women are more prone to fractures than premenopausal women primarily because A) low estrogen levels accelerate bone loss.

B) low progesterone levels accelerate bone loss.

C) older women are unable to maintain physical activity.

D) the accumulation of iron in the blood depletes bone minerals.

88)

To prevent bone loss, a woman at risk for osteoporosis could A) include weight-bearing exercise into her routine.

B) ensure adequate dietary intake of calcium and vitamin D. C) consult aphysician about estrogen replacement.

D) All of thesechoices are correct.

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89)

In the body, 99 percent of calcium is found in A) the liver.

B) intracellular fluid.

C) bones and teeth.

D) nerve cells.

90)

Calcium absorption is increased by A) high caffeine intake and large intakes of phytic acid.

B) foods that contain vitamin D and lactose.

C) foods high in oxalates, such as spinach and rhubarb.

D) tannins in tea and some legumes.

91)

Calcium absorption is decreased by A) phytic acid, oxalic acid, and tannins.

B) periods of growth, such as adolescence and pregnancy.

C) the presence of lactose in the diet.

D) the acid produced by the stomach.

92)

______ should be taken with meals to enhance absorption.

A) Calcium carbonate B) Calcium citrate

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93) If blood calcium concentration drops below normal limits, which of the following will occur?

A) Calcium will be released from bones.

B) More calcium will be absorbed from the intestine.

C) Less calcium will be excreted by the kidneys.

D) All of these choices are correct.

94)

Which of the following arefunctions of calcium?

A) Growth, development, and maintenance of bones B) Appetite regulation C) Homocysteine metabolism D) Transport of oxygen through the blood

95)

Regarding use of calcium supplements, which of the following is true?

A) Supplements containing oyster shell and dolomite are safe to use if they are labeled as "purified."

B) Intakes over 500 milligrams of calcium per dose may interfere with absorption of iron and zinc.

C) For maximum absorbability, any form of calcium supplements should be taken on an empty stomach.

D) The USP label warns consumers that the supplement may contain high levels of lead or aluminum.

96)

The most bioavailable sources of calcium are

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A) vegetables.

B) protein foods.

C) milk and other dairy products.

D) grains.

97)

Which would you expect to provide the largest amount of calcium?

A) 1 medium egg B) 1 slice of bread C) 1 ounce of cheese D) 1 medium apple

98)

Which mineral is present in the highest quantity in the body?

A) Boron B) Calcium C) Magnesium D) Phosphorus

99)

Which of the following individuals is most likely to need a calcium supplement?

A) A 14-year-old female with a milk allergy B) A 30-year-old male who follows a lactoovovegetarian diet C) A 4-year-old female who refuses to eat vegetables D) A 45-year-old male with a sedentary desk job

100)

Tetanymay bea sign of low blood levels of

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A) fluoride.

B) phosphorus.

C) calcium.

D) vitamin D.

101)

The difference between osteopenia and osteoporosis is

A) the bone loss of patients with osteopenia is not as severe as that of patients with osteoporosis.

B) the bone loss of patients with osteopenia is worse than that of patients with osteoporosis.

C) osteopenia is hereditary whereas osteoporosis is influenced by lifestyle.

D) osteopenia can be cured whereas osteoporosis is irreversible.

102) _______ is a disease in which bone mass is lost to such a degree that fractures can occur in bones, especially the wrist, spine, and hips.

A) Osteopenia B) Rickets C) Osteomalacia D) Osteoporosis

103)

Which of the following nondairy milk beverages has the highest protein content?

A) Almond milk B) Flax milk C) Coconut milk D) Soy milk

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104) Unfortified coconut milk is not a good dairy substitute because of its high _______ content and relatively low ________ content.

A) cholesterol; phosphorus and magnesium B) sodium; fluoride and vitamin C C) fat; calcium and vitamin D D) protein; carbohydrate and fat

105)

Which of the following accurately describes the functions of phosphorus?

A) Activation of enzymes, component of cell membranes, and maintenance of fluid balance B) Regulation of blood glucose, control of calcium absorption, and synthesis of vitamin D in the liver C) Energy metabolism, destruction of pathogens, and transport of oxygen in the blood D) Support of immune function, regulation of cell growth, and production of hormones

106)

Exceeding the UL for phosphorus can lead to A) mineralization of soft tissues, such as blood vessels and organs.

B) excessive bone growth.

C) blood clots.

D) All of these choices are correct.

107)

Blood phosphorus levels are primarily regulated by

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A) the intestine.

B) the kidneys.

C) the liver.

D) thyroid hormone.

108) Of the following, the mineral that is least likely to be deficient in the American dietary pattern is A) calcium.

B) phosphorus.

C) iron.

D) copper.

109)

Which of the following food combinations would provide the most phosphorus?

A) Strawberries, orange juice, potatoes B) Cream of wheat, enriched bread, muffin C) Cheeseburger on whole-wheat bun, cola D) Broccoli and cauliflower salad

110)

Older women may be at risk for phosphorous deficiency if they A) they include too much dairy products in their dietary patterns.

B) live alone, have a nutrient-poor dietary pattern, and take calcium supplements.

C) take hormone replacement therapy.

D) stay inside most of the day.

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111) Substituting carbonated soft drinks for dairy products in the diet is a bad idea because the resulting high _______ intake combined with inadequate _______ intake leads to bone loss.

A) sodium; phosphorus B) phosphorus; calcium C) magnesium; sodium D) carbon dioxide; calcium

112)

What is magnesium's primary function?

A) It transports calcium in the blood.

B) It is important in hemoglobin synthesis.

C) It maintains mucus production in the digestive tract.

D) It is important for nerve and heart function.

113)

Magnesium is related to vitamin D in that A) magnesium is required for the synthesis of vitamin D in the skin.

B) magnesium increases the intestinal absorption of vitamin D. C) magnesium is required for the activation of vitamin D in the liver.

D) All of these choices are correct.

114)

Magnesium is required for A) bone health.

B) cardiovascular health.

C) energy-yielding reactions.

D) All of these choices are correct.

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115)

Foods of ______ origin are the best sources of magnesium.

A) plant B) animal

116)

Magnesium deficiency may cause A) irregular heartbeat.

B) muscle pain.

C) seizures.

D) All of these choices are correct.

117)

Which of the following populations are at risk for poor magnesium status?

A) Individuals with alcohol use disorders, individuals who use diuretics, and individuals experiencing excessive vomiting and diarrhea B) Individuals with diabetes, individuals who adhere to a vegan dietary pattern, and individuals with obesity C) Teenagers and middle-aged males D) Individuals with autoimmune disease, young adults, and individuals with irondeficiency anemia

118) _______ is a major mineral important for nerve and heart function and is a cofactor for over 300 enzymes. It is a major constituent of bone and is found in whole grains and vegetables.

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A) Magnesium B) Calcium C) Phosphorus D) Fluoride

119) Low levels of _______, a mineral found especially in plant foods, may be associated with poor cardiovascular health.

A) calcium B) fluoride C) phosphorus D) magnesium

120)

Milk is a poor source of A) vitamin A. B) calcium.

C) iron.

D) vitamin D.

121)

The amount of iron in the body is mostly regulated by A) excretion in the urine.

B) absorption in the small intestine.

C) synthesis in the skin.

D) metabolism in the liver.

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122)

Which of the following foods provides the most iron?

A) 3 ounces of turkey B) 3 ounces of tofu C) 3 ounces of shrimp D) 3 ounces of sirloin steak

123)

Which of the following statements is true about iron?

A) Iron deficiency anemia is found most commonly among young children, adolescents, and menstruating women.

B) Approximately 65% of dietary iron is absorbed.

C) An individual with iron deficiency absorbs less iron than a person with good iron status.

D) Excess dietaryiron is excreted readily via the kidneys.

124)

Of the following foods, iron is best absorbed from A) beef.

B) broccoli.

C) kidney beans.

D) cheese.

125)

Which of the following is a source of heme iron?

A) Leafy, green vegetables B) Seafood C) Eggs D) Fortified breakfast cereal

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126) The only mineral that is required to be added to enriched grain products in the United States is A) iron.

B) zinc.

C) iodine.

D) potassium.

127)

During the firststage of iron deficiency, A) red blood cellsare small and low in number.

B) body stores of iron are depleted.

C) circulating ironin the blood is depleted.

D) physical symptomsof iron deficiency are apparent.

128)

A disorder that causes increased iron absorption leading to organ toxicity is A) hemochromatosis.

B) hemolysis.

C) pellagra.

D) anemia.

129)

In North America, iron-deficiency anemia would be leastlikely in a A) 9-month-old baby boy who has recently started eating solid foods.

B) 3-year-old boy who is a picky eater.

C) 12-year-old girl who is having a growth spurt.

D) 55-year-old postmenopausal woman.

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130) How many sources of nonheme iron are in a meal containing a tuna sandwich on enriched bread with milk and an apple?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

131)

Worldwide, the most prevalent nutrient deficiency is of A) zinc.

B) iodine.

C) iron.

D) copper.

132)

Iron is best absorbed in its ______ form.

A) heme B) nonheme C) synthetic D) coenzyme

133)

Vitamin C and meat protein ______ nonheme iron absorption.

A) increase B) decrease C) do not change

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134)

Iron found as a component of hemoglobin and myoglobin is called A) heme iron.

B) nonheme iron.

135)

What is the name of the iron-containing protein in red blood cells that binds to oxygen?

A) Hemosiderin B) Hematocrit C) Hemoglobin D) Hemostat

136) ______ is needed for DNA synthesis, protein metabolism, wound healing, growth, development of sexual organs, and white blood cell formation.

A) Zinc B) Selenium C) Copper D) Iodine

137) in

Protein-rich diets, especially those that include many animal sources of protein, are high

A) zinc.

B) potassium.

C) calcium.

D) manganese.

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138)

Of the following foods, which is the best source of zinc?

A) Turkey B) Pears C) Cheese D) Potatoes

139)

A reduced sense of taste may be a symptom of ______ deficiency.

A) zinc B) copper C) chromium D) choline

140)

Slow growth and delayed sexual development may occur with a deficiency of A) zinc.

B) copper.

C) molybdenum.

D) iron.

141)

The selenium level in a foodis tightly associated with A) selenium content of the soil.

B) fortification of the food.

C) fortification of the feed provided to animals.

D) oxygen exposure.

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142)

The selenium content of the typical North American dietary pattern is A) inadequate, due to low intake of whole grain products.

B) inadequate, due to low intake of fruits and vegetables.

C) adequate, due to consumption of a variety of animal and grain products.

D) adequate, due to widespread fortification of foods with selenium.

143)

Which of the following is true about selenium?

A) It is needed for hemoglobin synthesis.

B) An excess cancause hypertension.

C) It acts as acofactor in protein metabolism.

D) It participates inantioxidant reactions.

144)

Which of the following foods is highest in selenium?

A) Whole grainbread B) Black beans C) Asparagus D) Tuna

145) for

Selenium is a cofactor for an enzyme called glutathione peroxidase, which is important

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A) synthesis of hydroxyapatite.

B) stomach acid production.

C) regulation of fluid status.

D) antioxidant defense systems in the body.

146)

Selenium toxicity would most likely result from A) high intakes of seafood.

B) high intakes of grain products grown on selenium-rich soil.

C) daily intake of green, leafy vegetables.

D) excessive use of dietary supplements.

147)

Muscle pain, wasting, and heart damage result from a deficiency of A) zinc.

B) iron.

C) molybdenum.

D) selenium.

148)

A mineral that has antioxidant functions and has been suggested to reduce cancer risk is A) iron.

B) sodium.

C) selenium.

D) sulfur.

149)

Which trace mineral is important for the synthesis of thyroid hormones?

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A) Chromium B) Zinc C) Iodine D) Fluoride

150)

A severe iodine deficiency during early pregnancy may lead to ______ in the offspring.

A) scurvy B) rickets C) congenital hypothyroidism D) xerophthalmia

151)

A goiter may form as a consequence of an inadequate intake of A) copper.

B) magnesium.

C) sodium.

D) iodine.

152) People who eat large amounts of seaweed can consume toxic levels of which trace mineral?

A) Selenium B) Iron C) Zinc D) Iodine

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153)

A major source of iodine in the North American dietary pattern is A) seaweed.

B) sea salt.

C) table salt.

D) carbonated soft drinks.

154)

Copper is most similar to _____ in terms of food sources, absorption, and functions.

A) iron B) potassium C) sodium D) magnesium

155)

Which mineral is a component of several iron-transport proteins?

A) Copper B) Iodine C) Zinc D) Magnesium

156)

In general, the best sources of copper are found in the A) protein foods group.

B) grains group.

C) vegetables group.

D) fruits group.

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157) Which of the following is a genetic disorder that causes excessive accumulation of copper in body tissues?

A) Wilson's disease B) Menkes syndrome C) Sickle cell anemia D) Hemochromatosis

158)

What is the name of the copper-containing protein that transports iron in the blood?

A) Ceruloplasmin B) Cysteine C) Chaperone D) Casein

159)

Large doses of ______ can decrease copper absorption from the small intestine.

A) zinc B) chromium C) sodium D) selenium

160)

The mineral that gives hardness to teeth and bones is

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A) selenium.

B) zinc.

C) copper.

D) fluoride.

161)

The most economical way to supply fluoride is A) fluoride tablets.

B) topical fluoride gels.

C) fluoridation of the municipal water supply.

D) fortification of foods with fluoride.

162)

Too much ______ can cause discoloration (mottling) of the teeth.

A) fluoride B) copper C) iron D) selenium

163)

Fluoridation of the water supply is a public health strategy to A) improve dental health.

B) promote brain health.

C) prevent cancer.

D) lower the risk for cardiovascular disease.

164)

Calcium, phosphorus, magnesium, and fluoride mainly serve as structural components of

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A) bones and teeth.

B) the skin.

C) hair and fingernails.

D) the central nervous system.

165) A deficiency of _______ results in impaired glucose tolerance and elevated blood cholesterol.

A) copper B) iodine C) chromium D) iron

166)

Which of the following is a good chromium source?

A) Cherries B) Whole grains C) Enriched, refinedgrains D) Drinking water

167)

Which of the following is likely to cause chromium toxicity?

A) Exposure to industrial waste B) Daily consumption of egg yolks C) Daily consumption of Brazil nuts D) All of these lead to chromium toxicity.

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168)

A suboptimal intake of chromium in individuals in the United States may be linked to A) impaired glucose tolerance.

B) elevated calcitriol levels.

C) lowered serum cholesterol levels.

D) elevated blood pressure.

169)

Manganese is important for A) energy metabolism.

B) antioxidant enzyme function.

C) bone health.

D) All of these are functions of manganese.

170)

Systolic pressure refers to the pressure in the A) veins when the heart is contracting.

B) veins when the heart is relaxed.

C) arteries when the heart is contracting.

D) arteries when the heart is relaxed.

171)

Diastolic pressure refers to the pressure in the A) veins when the heart is contracting.

B) veins when the heart is relaxed.

C) arteries when the heart is contracting.

D) arteries when the heart is relaxed.

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172) Normal blood pressure is defined as a systolic pressure below ______ mmHg and a diastolic pressure below ______ mmHg. A) 100; 50 B) 120; 80 C) 140; 90 D) 180; 100

173) Hypertension is defined as a systolic pressure at or above ______ mmHg and a diastolic pressure at or above ______ mmHg. A) 130; 80 B) 100; 50 C) 140; 90 D) 120; 80

174)

A useful strategy to reduce the risk of developing hypertension is to A) eat plenty of protein.

B) limit the use of pepper at the table and during food preparation.

C) eat lots of prepackaged and canned foods.

D) eat a kilocalorie-controlled diet to maintain a desirable body weight.

175)

Elevated blood pressure has been linked to excess intakes of

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A) calcium and vitamin D. B) sodium and potassium.

C) sodium and chloride.

D) magnesium and potassium.

176) Higher intake of which of the following minerals is associated with lowered blood pressure?

A) Sodium B) Potassium C) Cadmium D) Chloride

177)

Primary hypertension A) is also known as the white coat syndrome.

B) has no clear-cut cause.

C) is a result of kidney disease.

D) is a result of sleep apnea.

178)

Hypertension can lead to A) cardiovascular disease.

B) kidney disease.

C) declines in brain function.

D) All of these choices are correct.

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179)

Obesity A) reduces the risk for hypertension.

B) is a minor contributor to the risk for hypertension.

C) is the number one lifestyle risk factor for hypertension.

D) is not related to hypertension.

180) men

Up to one alcoholic drink per day for women or up to two alcoholic drinks per day for

A) is a reasonable alcohol intake for an adult with hypertension.

B) may reduce the risk for ischemic stroke.

C) is a reasonable alcohol intake for adults of legal drinking age.

D) All of thesechoices are correct.

181)

The DASH diet for the reduction of hypertension A) excludes added sugars.

B) is a vegetarian meal plan.

C) recommends 2 to 3 servings per day of low-fat dairy products.

D) encourages daily use of coconut oil.

182) Stephen's blood pressure is 135/88, and he wishes to follow the principles of the DASH diet. For most Americans, this means increasing the intake of A) fruits and vegetables.

B) whole milk.

C) protein.

D) enriched grain products.

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183)

The most effective strategy to reduce the risk for developing hypertension is to A) achieve and maintain a healthy weight.

B) eat lots of prepackaged and canned foods.

C) follow a low-carbohydrate, high protein dietary pattern.

D) limit the use of salt at the table and during food preparation.

184)

The DASH diet recommends inclusionof ________ of nuts, seeds, or legumes.

A) 4 to 5 servings per week B) 4 to 5 servings per day C) 2 to 3 servings per week D) 1 serving per day

185) When a person perspires, the evaporation of water from the skin allows heat to leave the body. ⊚ ⊚

true false

186) During illness (i.e., repeated episodes of vomiting or diarrhea), thirst is a reliable indicator of how much water to drink to stay well hydrated. ⊚ ⊚

true false

187) It is impossible to drink too much water; the kidneys and sweat glands quickly excrete excess water to prevent overhydration.

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⊚ ⊚

188)

Frequent consumption of sparkling water can damage tooth enamel. ⊚ ⊚

189)

true false

Risk of molybdenum toxicity risk in humans is quite low. ⊚ ⊚

193)

true false

Manganese can be toxic at high doses. ⊚ ⊚

192)

true false

Dietary heme iron is obtained mainly from plant-based foods. ⊚ ⊚

191)

true false

Minerals can be broken down to yield 4 kcal/gram. ⊚ ⊚

190)

true false

true false

Arthur's blood pressure measurement of 148/94 mmHg indicates hypertension.

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⊚ ⊚

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51

Answer Key Test name: Chap 09_12e 1) C 2) D 3) D 4) B 5) A 6) D 7) C 8) C 9) C 10) D 11) A 12) D 13) C 14) D 15) B 16) A 17) A 18) A 19) C 20) B 21) B 22) A 23) B 24) D 25) B 26) A Version 1

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27) C 28) A 29) D 30) A 31) A 32) A 33) A 34) A 35) A 36) A 37) B 38) A 39) B 40) C 41) C 42) A 43) A 44) A 45) A 46) C 47) D 48) A 49) A 50) A 51) C 52) B 53) A 54) D 55) A 56) B Version 1

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57) B 58) B 59) A 60) A 61) A 62) A 63) A 64) B 65) B 66) C 67) A 68) A 69) A 70) D 71) C 72) D 73) B 74) D 75) B 76) A 77) B 78) A 79) D 80) D 81) A 82) B 83) A 84) A 85) B 86) A Version 1

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87) A 88) D 89) C 90) B 91) A 92) A 93) D 94) A 95) B 96) C 97) C 98) B 99) A 100) C 101) A 102) D 103) D 104) C 105) A 106) A 107) B 108) B 109) C 110) B 111) B 112) D 113) C 114) D 115) A 116) D Version 1

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117) A 118) A 119) D 120) C 121) B 122) D 123) A 124) A 125) B 126) A 127) B 128) A 129) D 130) B 131) C 132) A 133) A 134) A 135) C 136) A 137) A 138) A 139) A 140) A 141) A 142) C 143) D 144) D 145) D 146) D Version 1

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147) D 148) C 149) C 150) C 151) D 152) D 153) C 154) A 155) A 156) A 157) A 158) A 159) A 160) D 161) C 162) A 163) A 164) A 165) C 166) B 167) A 168) A 169) D 170) C 171) D 172) B 173) A 174) D 175) C 176) B Version 1

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177) B 178) D 179) C 180) D 181) C 182) A 183) A 184) A 185) TRUE 186) FALSE 187) FALSE 188) TRUE 189) FALSE 190) FALSE 191) TRUE 192) TRUE 193) TRUE

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CHAPTER 10 1) Trained professionals that can help you set reasonable physical activity goals based upon your current level of fitness are called A) sports dietitians.

B) gym trainers.

C) life coaches.

D) health coaches.

2)

Which of the following isa benefit of regular physical activity?

A) Improved sleep B) Increased body fat C) Reduced muscle mass D) Increased blood pressure

3)

A physically active lifestyle may reduce the risk of A) osteoporosis, heart disease, and obesity.

B) skin cancer, ADHD, and nutrient deficiency.

C) liver cancer, anemia, and hypotension.

D) infectious disease, muscular degenerative disease, and retinal detachment.

4) The Physical Activity Guidelines recommends that adults participate in at least _____ minutes per week of moderate-intensity, or _____ minutes per week of vigorous-intensity aerobic physical activity, or an equivalent combination of moderate- and vigorous-intensity aerobic activity.

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A) 75 to 150; 150 to 300 B) 150 to 300; 75 to 150 C) 60 to 90; 30 to 60 D) 200; 60

5) For additional and more extensive health benefits, the Physical Activity Guidelines recommends that adults increase their physical activity beyond _____ minutes per week of moderate-intensity or _____ minutes per week of vigorous-intensity aerobic physical activity, or an equivalent combination of moderate- and vigorous-intensity activity.

A) 75; 150 B) 150; 75 C) 150; 300 D) 300; 150

6) Measuring your heart rate can provide an estimate of workout intensity. An aerobic zone is typically characterized by a maximum heart rate in the range of A) 50% to 60%.

B) 60% to 70%.

C) 70% to 80%.

D) 80% to 90%.

7) A fitness program that includes 30 minutes of moderate jogging for 5 days per week is primarily designed to improve

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A) aerobic fitness.

B) strength.

C) balance.

D) flexibility.

8) A free-weight workout that includes 8 to 10 different exercises performed for many repetitions with low resistance is designed mainly to enhance A) muscular endurance.

B) muscular strength.

C) muscular power.

D) range of motion.

9)

The FITTprinciple describes A) specific aspects to consider when designing a sound fitness program.

B) the benefits of incorporating regular, moderate physical activity into one's lifestyle.

C) a method of determining the intensity of exercises.

D) the fluid needs of athletes before, during, and after a workout.

10)

What is the age-predicted maximum heart rate of a healthy 48 year old?

A) 172 B) 138 C) 220 D) 103

11)

What is the name of the high-energy compound that cells use to fuel chemical reactions?

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A) Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) B) Glucose C) Amino acids D) Fatty acids

12)

The conversion of glucose to lactate (lactic acid) is called A) aerobic glucose breakdown.

B) anaerobic glucose breakdown.

C) aerobic glycogen breakdown.

D) anaerobic glycogen breakdown.

13)

Anaerobic glucose breakdown provides most of the energy for sports activities lasting A) 10 seconds.

B) up to 30 seconds.

C) 30 seconds to 2 minutes.

D) up to 5 minutes.

14)

Aerobic glucose breakdown provides most of the energy for sports activities lasting A) up to 30 seconds.

B) 30 seconds to 1 minute.

C) 1 to 2 minutes.

D) 2 minutes to several hours.

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15) Why is spot reducing inappropriate when one is attempting to lose weight or change their body composition?

A) Most exercisers engage in repetitive activities and movements that do not stress muscles throughout the entire body.

B) Stored proteins are recruited from all muscle beds simultaneously when exercising.

C) Glycogen blocks hormonal signaling that promotes spot reducing throughout the body.

D) Fatty acids are recruited from all over the body, not necessarily from fat stored near the active muscles.

16)

Where does aerobic glucose breakdown take place within the cell?

A) Nucleus B) Mitochondria C) Golgi body D) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

17)

The difference between aerobic and anaerobic glucose breakdownis

A) aerobic glucose breakdown uses amino acids, while anaerobic does not.

B) the end product of aerobic glucose breakdown is lactate (lactic acid), while the end products of anaerobic glucose breakdown are carbon dioxide and water.

C) the end products of aerobic glucose breakdown are carbon dioxide and water; while the end product of anaerobic glucose breakdown is lactate (lactic acid).

D) anaerobic glucose breakdown uses oxygen, while aerobic does not.

18)

Which of the following is true about protein as an energy source?

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A) Protein is more important than carbohydrate as an energy source for muscular activity.

B) The use ofprotein as an energy source is greater for endurance athletes than for thosewho body build or lift weights.

C) Protein and amino acid supplements are needed as energy sources for weight lifters.

D) Protein is a goodenergy source, supplying 7 kcal per gram.

19) During endurance activities, protein can supply as much as _______ of energy needs, especially as glycogen stores in the muscle are exhausted.

A) 5% B) 10% to 15% C) 20% D) 25% to 50%

20)

Which of the following is true about fatty acid usage for energy?

A) Energy is released from fatty acids anaerobically.

B) Energy is released from fatty acids in a process called lipogenesis.

C) Gram for gram, fatty acids provide more than twice as much energy as glucose.

D) Fatty acids are useful for intense exercise.

21) The process of manipulating the diet and physical training regimen so that muscles become more efficient at metabolizing fat as fuel during aerobic activity is called A) fat adaptation.

B) lipid loading.

C) carbohydrate loading.

D) insulin manipulation.

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22) The training effect, in which individuals experience improvements in physical fitness as they continue a regular exercise regimen, is a product of A) increased number of mitochondria in muscle cells.

B) increased number ofcapillaries in muscles.

C) increased efficiency of the heart.

D) All of these choices are correct.

23) During endurance exercise, ______ can supply about 15% of energy for exercising muscles.

A) amino acids B) glucose C) fatty acids D) creatine

24)

Good sources of plant-based proteins include A) avocados, tomatoes, and seeds.

B) nuts, quinoa, and chickpeas.

C) coconut oil, bananas, and beans.

D) soy, berries, and peppers.

25) Bill goes on an 8-hour continuous, moderate-intensity hike. Most of the ATP for this activity will be derived from

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A) aerobic glucose breakdown.

B) anaerobic glucose breakdown.

C) breakdown of amino acids.

D) breakdown of fatty acids.

26) Maxine runs a marathon in 2 hours and 40 minutes. Most of the ATP for this activity is supplied by A) aerobic glucose breakdown.

B) anaerobic glucose breakdown.

C) breakdown of amino acids.

D) breakdown of fatty acids.

27) Zelda is a marathon runner. She completes the marathon in 2 hours and 30 minutes.

Which of the following is true regarding her fuel use during the marathon?

A) If she runs out of muscle glycogen at the 2-hour mark, she will not feel fatigue.

B) Anaerobic glucose breakdown, using muscle glycogen, will provide most of the ATP for the marathon.

C) Liver glycogen is the preferred fuel during intense muscular activity lasting less than 2 hours.

D) Amino acids may supply up to 15% of energy needs.

28) Which of the following is a high-energy compound that resupplies ATP for quick bursts of activitylasting up to 10 seconds?

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A) Phosphocreatine B) Aerobic glucosebreakdown C) Lactate D) Caffeine

29)

Which of the following is true about the vitamin and mineral intake of athletes?

A) Most athletes do not consume enough supplements.

B) Most athletes should take iron supplements to enhance their aerobic capacity.

C) Most athletes should take antioxidant supplements to reduce muscle damage caused byworkouts.

D) Most athletes obtain ample vitamins and minerals through whole foods if they meet their caloric needs.

30)

To prevent iron deficiency, a female athlete should

A) take high-dose iron supplements regularly while following a low-calorie diet.

B) have her blood hemoglobin level checked to determine if a deficiency exists that may require iron supplementation.

C) not be concerned as a low iron status is common in female athletes and will eventually resolve on its own.

D) not be concerned about iron status as iron is not involved in energy production.

31) It is possible for some athletes to drink so much water that they develop water intoxication. This condition is also termed _____ and may lead to bloating, puffiness, weight gain, nausea, vomiting, headache, confusion, delirium, seizures, respiratory distress, loss of consciousness, and possibly death.

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A) hyponatremia B) hypernatremia C) hydrocephaly D) sports hyperhydration

32)

Which of the following is true about the protein intake of athletes?

A) Most athletes require protein supplements to get enough protein.

B) Amino acid supplements are the best way to deliver amino acids because they do not need to be digested.

C) Most athletes eating an adequate dietary pattern will easily meet their protein needs.

D) Athletes require little to no protein and should focus on fat intake.

33) According to most sports nutrition experts, the daily protein intake for an athleteshould fall within the range of A) < 0.8 grams per kilogram.

B) 0.8 to 1.0 grams per kilogram.

C) 1.2 to 2.0grams per kilogram.

D) > 3.0 grams per kilogram.

34) A 120-pound woman is training for a bodybuilding competition and needs to build muscle mass. What is the maximum recommended daily protein intake for this woman?

A) 110 grams per day B) 240 grams per day C) 45 grams per day D) 80 gramsper day

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35)

Athletes who consume adequate carbohydrates experience A) increased lean body mass.

B) adequate liver and muscle glycogen stores.

C) increased risk of chronic disease.

D) chronic fatigue.

36) Fruits, vegetables, and whole grains should form the foundation of an athlete’s dietary pattern. What macronutrient contributes the majority of fuel from these food sources?

A) Carbohydrate B) Fat C) Protein D) Water

37) Triathletes and marathoners need approximately ______ grams of carbohydrate per kilogram of weight per day to prevent chronic fatigue.

A) < 5 B) up to 12 C) > 20 D) an unlimited

38)

To boost glycogen stores in the hours before an event, an endurance athlete should eat

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A) broccoli and cheese soup.

B) bagels.

C) peanut butter.

D) tuna fish.

39)

If an athlete's body fat level is too high, what is the best weight-loss approach?

A) Follow an 800-kcal per day eating pattern.

B) Wear a rubber or plastic suit to sweat off extra body weight.

C) Eat 200 to 500 kcal less than one's EERper day.

D) Restrict dietarycarbohydrates to less than 50% of total calories.

40)

The best way to determine if an athlete is consuming adequate calories is to A) track changes in weight over time.

B) compare dietary intake to calculated energy needs.

C) measure serum triglycerides.

D) evaluate the color of urine.

41) Overall, the decision to use a sports drink hinges primarily on the duration, type, and intensity of the activity. As the projected duration of continuous activity approaches _____ minutes or longer, the advantages of sports drinks over plain water emerge.

A) 15 B) 30 C) 60 D) 120

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42)

If a woman athlete is not menstruating regularly, she should A) consult her primary care provider to determine the cause.

B) decrease her calcium intake as a high calcium intake can trigger irregular menses.

C) decrease calorie intake to lower body fat.

D) increase fluid intake.

43) The sports syndrome termed ______ addresses the full range of concerns to include amenorrhea in females, reduced testosterone levels and libido in males, suboptimal bone health, increased risk of illness and injuries, gastrointestinal disturbances, cardiovascular disease, impaired training capacity, and poor performance.

A) exertional rhabdomyolysis B) relative energy deficiency in sport (RED-S) C) female athlete triad syndrome D) exercise bulimia

44) Athletes should obtain at least _____ of their total energy needs from carbohydrate, especially if activity duration is expected to exceed 2 hours and total caloric intake is about 3000 kcal per day or less.

A) < 10% B) 10% to 15% C) 35% D) 45% to 65%

45) A dietary pattern containing up to _____ of calories from fat is generally recommended for athletes.

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A) < 10% B) 10% to 15% C) 35% D) 45% to 65%

46) Athletes who do not consume enough calories to meet the demands of their intense physical training may suffer from a syndrome of physical and mental impairments known as A) reverse anorexia.

B) diabulimia.

C) relative energy deficiency in sport.

D) binge eating disorder.

47)

Good practices to keep well hydrated during endurance events include

A) taking salt tablets and drinking plenty of fluid before the workout.

B) drink freely during the 24 hours before an event and consume adequate fluids during training.

C) never drinking fluid during strenous workouts to prepare for dry spells during competition.

D) limit water 24 hours prior to a competition and then hyperhydrate during competition.

48)

The best way to determine how much fluid to consume after a workout is to A) weigh yourself before and after the workout.

B) rely on your thirst.

C) check the label of a sports drink.

D) ask a personal trainer.

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49) For every pound lost during a workout, ______ cup(s) of water should be consumed during or after exercising.

A) 1/2 to 1 B) 1 to 2 C) 2 to 3 D) 3 to 4

50) Joe loses 4 pounds of fluid by sweating during a vigorous basketball game. How many cups of fluid are needed to replenish this loss?

A) 2 cups B) 5 cups C) 10 cups D) 20 cups

51)

The use of sports drinks is most helpful for continuous activities lasting A) 5 to 60 seconds.

B) 1 to 5 minutes.

C) 30 minutes.

D) 60 minutes or longer.

52)

For hydration, sports drinks are superior to water for athletes who participate in

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A) continuous workouts lasting more than 60 minutes.

B) workouts in cold weather.

C) strength training.

D) outdoor athletic events.

53)

An adequate sports drink contains A) electrolyte minerals.

B) caffeine.

C) at least 10% carbohydrate.

D) branched-chain amino acids.

54)

Choose the statement that is true about sports drinks.

A) They replenish electrolytes B) They replenish fluids C) Their flavor encourages athletes to drink D) All of these choices are correct.

55) Researchers suggest a dose of at least _____ grams of protein per meal is ideal to promote muscle synthesis.

A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 50

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56)

To decrease the risk of developing heat-related injuries, A) watch for rapid body-weight changes of 2% or more of body weight.

B) limit fluid repletion to avoid bloating.

C) avoid exercising in temperatures below freezing.

D) stretch before and after physical activity.

57) The first stage of heat-related illness that occurs because of depletion of blood volume is called A) heatexhaustion.

B) heat stroke.

C) heat cramps.

D) heat rash.

58)

The goal of blood doping is to A) enhance aerobic capacity.

B) enhance immune function.

C) prevent blood clots.

D) alleviate hemochromatosis.

59)

A meal representative of what an endurance athlete should eat before an athletic event is A) steak, eggs, milk, and hash browns.

B) a turkey sandwich, cottage cheese, milk, and a chocolate bar.

C) two scrambled eggs, a bran muffin, bacon, and orange juice.

D) spaghetti with marinara sauce, green beans, and low-fat milk.

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60)

A pre-event meal should A) be eaten less than 1 hour before the event.

B) contain at least 600 kcal.

C) be high in carbohydrates without providing large amounts of fiber.

D) be high in fat to prevent hunger.

61) For a pre-event meal, rich sources of carbohydrates, such as bagels, muffins, and bread, should be eaten ______ before an endurance event.

A) 2 to 4 hours B) 4 or more hours C) less than 30 minutes D) 30 to 60 minutes

62)

Which of the following is a good pre-event meal?

A) Bacon, lettuce, and tomato sandwich B) Chocolate milkshake C) Cheese andsausage pizza D) Bagel with peanutbutter

63)

Carbohydrate loading

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A) involves loading up on carbohydrate-laden foods on the morning of an endurance event.

B) involves little exercise and a high-carbohydrate diet the first 3 days, followed by heavy exercise and a low-carbohydrate diet right before competition.

C) involves a reduction in the intensity of workouts with a corresponding increase in the percentage of carbohydrate intake over several days before a competition.

D) does not increase glycogen stores to any significant degree.

64) Carbohydrate loading may be most beneficial for athletes engaging in the following activities.

A) Yoga, pilates, and relaxation exercises B) Marathons, cross-country skiing, and triathlons C) Baseball, jump rope, and track sprints D) Discus throwing, weight lifting, and interval training

65)

For which of the following activities would carbohydrate loading be most useful?

A) Marathon B) Weight lifting C) Football D) Golf

66)

Guidelines for replenishing fuel during endurance events include A) consume 30 to 60 grams of carbohydrate per hour.

B) use only onetype of carbohydrate to avoid gastrointestinal upset.

C) use a protein supplement every 30 minutes.

D) avoid fluid during exercise.

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67) To promote gains in muscle mass, a strength-trained athlete could consume ______ within the first 1 or 2 hours after a weight-lifting workout.

A) 2 cups of plain yogurt with 1 cup of fresh blueberries B) 1 large bagel with 2 tablespoons of cream cheese C) 1 bag of microwave popcorn D) 4 ounces of sirloin steak

68) Which of the following is a permissible supplement for athletic departments to provide to athletes as defined by the NCAA? A) Cannabinoids B) Stimulants C) Electrolyte replacement beverages D) Creatine

69)

Anabolic steroid use may cause which of the following side effects?

A) Frequent urination, hyperactivity, and groin pain B) Decreased heart rate, confusion, and vision disturbances C) Cardiovascular disease, extreme mood swings, and sleep disturbances D) Weight loss, decreased mental alertness, and increased fat metabolism

70)

Which of the following ergogenic aids may cause anxiety and insomnia?

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A) Caffeine B) Growth hormone C) Creatine D) Sodium bicarbonate

71) When the oxygen supply in the muscle is limited during physical activity (anaerobic conditions), glucose cannot be fully broken down. Pyruvate (sometimes called pyruvic acid) accumulates in the muscle and is then converted to lactate (also called lactic acid). ⊚ ⊚

true false

72) As physical activity intensifies (e.g., sprinting), anaerobic processes supply quick fuel, so the relative proportion of carbohydrates used for fuel decreases. Except during endurance activities, very little protein is used for fuel. ⊚ ⊚

true false

73) Urine color is an alternative measure of hydration status when weight changes cannot be accurately measured. ⊚ ⊚

74)

true false

Relative energy deficiency in sport is harmful for women, but not for men. ⊚ ⊚

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75) Recovery from resistance training requires a combination (3:1 ratio) of carbohydrates and high-quality protein. For a 154-pound (70-kilogram) athlete, this corresponds to about 70 grams of carbohydrate and 25 grams of protein in each 2-hour interval. ⊚ true ⊚ false

76) Studies consistently show that many supplements do not contain the substance and/or the amount of the active ingredient listed on the label. ⊚ ⊚

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22

Answer Key Test name: Chap 10_12e 1) A 2) A 3) A 4) B 5) D 6) C 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) A 12) B 13) C 14) D 15) D 16) B 17) C 18) B 19) B 20) C 21) A 22) D 23) A 24) B 25) D 26) A Version 1

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27) D 28) A 29) D 30) B 31) A 32) C 33) C 34) A 35) B 36) A 37) B 38) B 39) C 40) A 41) C 42) A 43) B 44) D 45) C 46) C 47) B 48) A 49) C 50) C 51) D 52) A 53) A 54) D 55) C 56) A Version 1

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57) A 58) A 59) D 60) C 61) A 62) D 63) C 64) B 65) A 66) A 67) A 68) C 69) C 70) A 71) TRUE 72) FALSE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) TRUE

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CHAPTER 11 1) Mild and short-termchanges in eating patterns that occur inrelation to a stressful event, an illness, ora desire to modify one’s dietary pattern for a varietyof health and personal appearance reasons are classified as A) disordered eating.

B) eating disorders.

2)

Which of the following could be a trigger for an eating disorder?

A) Comments from significant others about being too fat B) A traumatic event, such as witnessing a car crash C) Leaving home for college or independent living D) All of these choices.

3)

Most cases of anorexia nervosa begin in A) adolescence or young adulthood.

B) the preschool years.

C) middle adulthood.

D) older adulthood.

4)

Current research indicates that eating disorders are due to A) dysfunctional family relationships.

B) the physical changes of puberty.

C) genetic variations.

D) a combination of genetic variations and lifestyle factors.

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5) A characteristic shared by individuals with anorexia nervosa and individuals with bulimia nervosa is that they A) are male.

B) were born underweight for height.

C) lack appropriate coping strategies.

D) both recognize their behavior as abnormal.

6) Participants in which of the following sports are most likely to engage in disordered eating behaviors?

A) Wrestling B) Cross-country C) Ice hockey D) Baseball

7)

Individuals with anorexia nervosa A) tend to be between 25 and 35 years of age.

B) tend to be adolescent and early adult girls.

C) usually acknowledge the existence of their disease.

D) see themselves as thin even though they are overweight.

8)

Which of the following is one of the diagnostic criteria for anorexia nervosa?

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A) Extreme dietary restriction that leads to significantly low body weight B) Body mass index below 17.5 kg/m 2 C) Use of unsafe means of preventing weight gain (e.g., self-induced vomiting) at least one time per week for at least 3 months D) Significantly low heart rate, measured on two separate occasions

9) A 16-year-old girl who severely restricts her food intake because she is fearful of becoming obese, even though her BMI is less than expected for her age, may be diagnosed with A) anorexia nervosa.

B) bulimia nervosa.

C) night eating syndrome.

D) orthorexia.

10)

For a person with anorexia nervosa, when is total hospitalization necessary?

A) Self-mutilation or threats of suicide B) Missing one or more menstrual periods (for women) C) Body weight falls below 85% of expected weight D) Growth of lanugo

11)

Anorexia nervosa is characterized by A) hyperactivity.

B) compulsive eating.

C) misuse of laxatives and diuretics.

D) psychological denial of appetite.

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12) ______ is an eating disorder characterized by extreme restriction of energy intake relative to requirements, which leads to significantly low body weight.

A) Anorexia nervosa B) Bulimia nervosa C) Purging disorder D) Binge eating disorder

13)

Which of the following may be

an early warning sign of anorexia nervosa?

A) Withdrawing from family and friends B) Cooking a large meal for others, but refusing to eat it C) Frequent measurement of body weight or body size D) All of these choices.

14)

Which of the following is aphysiological change often associated withanorexia nervosa?

A) Excessive sweating B) Swollen salivary glands C) Decreased heart rate D) High blood pressure

15) Low energy availability among females of reproductive age may lead to hormonal imbalances that affect menstrual function. The absence of menstrual periods in a female of reproductive age is called

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A) amenorrhea.

B) oligomenorrhea.

C) menarche.

D) premenstrual syndrome.

16) What is a serious, long-term health consequence of absent or irregular menstrual periods among women of childbearing age?

A) Bone loss B) Muscle tears C) Esophageal bleeding D) Dehydration

17)

One feature of anorexia nervosa that significantly reduces treatment success is A) drug abuse.

B) denial of the problem.

C) rationalization of the problem.

D) high self-esteem.

18)

One of the best ways to get a person with anorexia nervosa into treatment is to A) threaten them.

B) deny the disorder.

C) keep offering them food.

D) stage an intervention.

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19)

The best long-term success in anorexia nervosa treatment has been with A) hospitalization and feeding via a tube.

B) a multidisciplinary team approach with health care providers.

C) scare tactics.

D) outpatient treatment.

20)

Which of the following is a goal of treatment for a person with anorexia nervosa?

A) Restore BMI to 25 or higher B) Gain enough weight to raise themetabolic rate to normal C) Adhere to a regimented dietary plan D) Maintain a high level of physical activity

21) Which of the following are potential effects of refeeding during the initial treatment of anorexia nervosa?

A) Feelings of fullness and abdominal bloating B) Increased body temperature C) Dangerous changes in electrolyte balance in the blood D) All of these are potential effects of refeeding.

22) Which ofthe following is a useful approach in psychological therapy for a person with anorexia nervosa?

A) Family-based treatment B) Joining a support group C) Cognitive behavioral therapy D) All of these are useful approaches in psychological therapy for anorexia nervosa.

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23) Nutritional therapy for people with anorexia nervosa aims to slowly increase body weight to achieve a BMI of at least A) 15 kg/m 2.

B) 20 kg/m 2.

C) 25 kg/m 2.

D) 30 kg/m 2.

24) Individuals with ______ may present with clinical signs of semistarvation, such as decreased metabolic rate.

A) anorexianervosa B) bulimia nervosa C) binge eating disorder D) night eatingsyndrome

25)

Cessation of menstruation is most common among women with A) anorexia nervosa.

B) bulimia nervosa.

C) binge eating disorder.

D) night eating syndrome.

26)

Downy hair that grows on the body to protect against heat loss is called

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A) lanugo.

B) alopecia.

C) hypothyroidism.

D) amenorrhea.

27)

Coping with stress by not eating is the typical pattern of A) anorexianervosa.

B) bulimianervosa.

C) binge eating disorder.

D) night eatingsyndrome.

28) A disorder characterized by extreme weight loss, distorted body image, and an extreme fear of obesity and weight gain is A) anorexia nervosa.

B) bulimia nervosa.

C) binge eating disorder.

D) night eating syndrome.

29)

The most important predictor of an eating disorder is A) extreme dieting.

B) a history of sexual abuse.

C) binge drinking.

D) perfectionism.

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30) The hormonal changes associated with cessation of menstruation increase the risk of ______ among women with eating disorders.

A) osteoporosis B) hyperglycemia C) hypertension D) anemia

31) The slower basal metabolic rate that accompanies starvation among people with anorexia nervosa is caused by A) decreased thyroid hormone synthesis.

B) decreased insulin sensitivity.

C) low levels of physical activity.

D) increased growth hormone synthesis.

32) Low blood levels of ______ can lead to disturbances in heart rhythm, a leading cause of death among people with eating disorders.

A) potassium B) sodium C) chloride D) glucose

33)

Which of the following statements describes a person with bulimia nervosa?

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A) Engages in binge eating B) Has obvious physical and mental symptoms C) Tends to be very thin and emaciated D) Usually male

34)

Which of the following is among the criteria for diagnosing bulimia nervosa?

A) Repeated use of unsafe means to prevent weight gain (e.g., self-induced vomiting) <!--Markup Copied from Habitat--> B) Restriction of energy intake that leads to significantly low body weight C) Binge-compensate cycles that occur at least one time per week for one month or longer D) Waking at least once during the night with a need to eat to be able to fall asleep again <!--Markup Copied from Habitat-->

35)

Which of the following characteristics is most likely related to bulimia nervosa?

A) Daily energy intake <800 kcal per day B) Feeling a sense of power because of strict discipline and self-denial C) Fluctuating weight D) Lack of menstruation

36) Among individuals who repeatedly use self-induced vomiting as a way to purge excess calories consumed during a binge, there may be evidence of abrasions, calluses, or scars on the knuckles as a result of trauma from the teeth. These marks on the knuckles are known as

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A) Russell's sign.

B) sialadenosis.

C) lanugo.

D) Wilson's disease.

37)

The low blood potassium levels seen among people with eating disorders may cause A) lack of appetite.

B) high blood pressure.

C) heart rhythm disturbances.

D) swelling of the salivary glands.

38) A disorder in which frequent bingeing is followed by compensatory behaviors to rid the body of excess calories is called A) hypoglycemia.

B) bulimia nervosa.

C) anorexia nervosa.

D) compulsive overeating.

39) Which of the following is true about the bingeing behavior of a person with bulimia nervosa?

A) Violation of rigid food rules can initiate a binge.

B) Binges most often occur during the morning.

C) Binges usually last 15 to 30 minutes.

D) Bingeing behavior is controlled and methodical.

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40)

For a person who engages in binge eating, typical binge foods include A) high-protein foods, such as tuna, chicken, and steak.

B) a wide variety of fruits and vegetables.

C) cakes, cookies, doughnuts, and ice cream.

D) sugar-free items, such as artificially sweetened gelatin, candy, and soft drinks.

41)

Which of the following is true about purging behaviors related to bulimia?

A) There are no medical risks to purging.

B) After many months of purging, it gets more difficult to purge.

C) After vomiting, many calories from the food eaten are still absorbed.

D) Few kilocaloriesare absorbed when laxatives are used as a purging technique.

42)

Which of the following traits is common among people with bulimia nervosa?

A) Sexual modesty B) Perfectionism C) Rigidity D) Impulsiveness

43)

Negative health effects of frequent, self-induced vomiting include A) tooth damage.

B) increased abdominal fat.

C) cirrhosis.

D) All of these are negative effects of self-induced vomiting.

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44)

Successful treatment for bulimia nervosa usually lasts at least A) 4 weeks.

B) 8 weeks.

C) 16 weeks.

D) 32 weeks.

45) Which of the following is a useful approach in the nutritional therapy of a person with bulimia nervosa?

A) Alternate-day fasting B) Keeping a daily food diary C) Eating alone D) Providing strict food rules to control eating

46)

Food diaries and a regular meal plan are commonly part of the treatment for A) anorexia nervosa.

B) bulimia nervosa.

C) relative energy deficiency in sport.

D) night eating syndrome.

47)

Coping with stress by eating is a characteristic of

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A) anorexianervosa.

B) bulimianervosa.

C) relative energy deficiency in sport.

D) orthorexia.

48)

A disorder characterized by frequent, secretive bingeing, often followed by purging, is A) bulimia nervosa.

B) anorexia nervosa.

C) binge eating disorder.

D) relative energy deficiency in sport.

49) For a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa, binge eating must occur, on average, ______ time(s) per week for at least three months.

A) one B) two C) three D) four

50) A(n) ______ often consists of high-carbohydrate, convenience foods and may be triggered by stress, boredom, loneliness, or depression.

A) binge B) purge C) compensatory behavior D) enema

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51)

Compensatory behaviors used by people with eating disorders may include A) self-induced vomiting.

B) excessive exercise.

C) misuse of laxatives.

D) All of these choices.

52) Many of the health problems associated with bulimia (e.g., tooth decay, stomach ulcers, and esophageal tears) arise as a result of A) vomiting to purge excess calories.

B) low blood calcium levels.

C) low blood potassium levels.

D) laxative abuse.

53)

The only drug approved by FDA for treatment of bulimia nervosa is A) fluoxetine (Prozac®).

B) duloxetine (Cymbalta®).

C) topiramate (Topamax®).

D) orlistat (Xenical®).

54)

A difference between anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa is that

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A) individuals with anorexia nervosa turn away from food during a crisis, whereas individuals with bulimia nervosa turn toward food.

B) individuals with bulimia nervosa exhibit denial of the disorder, whereas individuals with anorexia nervosa know their behavior is abnormal.

C) anorexia is more common among women, whereas bulimia is more common among men.

D) individuals with bulimia nervosa tend to be methodical, whereas individuals with anorexia nervosa tend to be impulsive.

55) Which of the following accurately describes the relationship between anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa?

A) Individuals diagnosed with anorexia nervosa may exhibit behaviors of bulimia nervosa.

B) Anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa are two distinct conditions that do not overlap.

C) Anorexia nervosa is essentially a very severe case of bulimia nervosa.

D) People with anorexia nervosa fear becoming overweight or obese, whereas people with bulimia nervosa are not concerned with body weight.

56)

The typical characteristics for binge eating disorder include binge-eating episodes A) that are not accompanied by compensatory behaviors.

B) that do not cause distress or shame.

C) at holidays or during social occasions.

D) that occur at least once per month for three months in a row.

57)

Which of the following is the best treatment approach for binge eating disorder?

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A) A diet that lists foods to be eaten and others to be avoided.

B) A structured eating plan that the person follows without regard to his or her hunger signals.

C) Encouraging a person to nurture others rather than focus on his or her own needs.

D) Teaching a person to eat in response to internal hunger cues.

58) Which of the following drugs has been approved by FDA for treatment of binge eating disorder?

A) Fluoxetine (Prozac®) B) Lisdexamfetaminedimesylate (Vyvanse®) C) Topiramate (Topamax®) D) Lorcaserin (Belviq®)

59)

Which of the following is a likely long-term consequence of binge eating disorder?

A) Type 2 diabetes B) Osteoporosis C) Enlarged salivary glands D) Low blood potassium

60)

Which of the following is a sign or symptom of night eating syndrome?

A) For women, missing three or more menstrual periods in a row B) Consuming more than 25% of daily food intake afterdinner C) Lack of appetite in the evening D) Repeated use of unsafe methods to prevent weight gain (e.g., self-induced vomiting)

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61) Studies have shown that behaviors of night eating syndrome are significantly improved with use of A) antibiotics.

B) antidepressants.

C) sleeping pills.

D) amphetamines.

62) Individuals who induce vomiting to rid the body of calories even in the absence of a binge may be diagnosed with A) purging disorder.

B) binge eating disorder.

C) bulimia nervosa.

D) anorexia nervosa.

63)

The practice of eating nonfood substances is called A) pica.

B) purging disorder.

C) lanugo.

D) bingeing.

64) Colton is a 17-year-old gymnast who is training for a national competition. He severely restricts his food intake to maintain a lean physique, has an extreme fear of weight gain, and his current BMI is 19.2 kg/m 2. Which of the following best describes Colton's pattern of disordered eating?

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A) Atypical anorexia nervosa B) Bulimia nervosa of low frequency C) Bulimia nervosa of limited duration D) Purging disorder of unknown etiology

65) Bolu experiences a high degree of anxiety and occasionally binges on large quantities of food to cope with her emotions. After these binge-eating episodes, she goes to the gym and works out on the elliptcal machine for 90 minutes or more to burn off the calories consumed during the binge. These behaviors have been taking place once or twice per month since she began college two years ago. Which of the following best describes Bolu's pattern of disordered eating?

A) Atypical anorexia nervosa B) Bulimia nervosa of low frequency C) Bulimia nervosa of limited duration D) Binge eating disorder of low frequency

66) Individuals who perceive themselves as being too thin and who engage in disordered eating behaviors to achieve weight gain may have A) muscle dysmorphia.

B) orthorexia.

C) anorexia nervosa.

D) reverse bulimia.

67) Research shows that disordered eating behaviors are twice as common among young people with type 1 diabetes compared to youth without diabetes. A pattern of disordered eating commonly called diabulimia involves

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A) intentionally skipping insulin doses to avoid weight gain.

B) overdosing on insulin to induce weight loss.

C) severely restricting carbohydrate intake to avoid weight gain.

D) purging excess calories by self-induced vomiting.

68) ______ is the term used to describe a condition in which the desire to consume healthy foods becomes an obsession and begins to interfere with daily living.

A) Orthorexia B) Diabulimia C) Reverse anorexia D) Atypical anorexia nervosa

69)

Which of the following is not an appropriate measureto prevent eating disorders?

A) Discourage restrictive dieting and meal skipping.

B) Correct misconceptions about nutrition and healthy body weight.

C) Provide opportunities for fun and social physical activity in school and at home.

D) Encourage daily measurements of body weight.

70)

If you suspect that a friend has an eating disorder, you should A) encourage your friend to seek professional help.

B) provide your friend with a calorie-controlled diet plan.

C) ignore the behavior.

D) direct your friend to pro-Ana or pro-Mia websites.

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71) Rachel, a female college student, goes on a restrictive diet for several weeks before her sister's wedding. After the wedding, she returns to her usual dietary pattern. Rachel should be diagnosed with an eating disorder. ⊚ ⊚

true false

72) Among children and adolescents, delayed sexual maturation or failure to grow as expected could be signs of eating disorders. ⊚ ⊚

true false

73) Twin studies reveal that genetic factors account for more than half of the overall risk for developing an eating disorder. ⊚ ⊚

true false

74) At the time of diagnosis, individuals with bulimia nervosa typically have a BMI <18.5 2 kg/m . ⊚ ⊚

75)

true false

Individuals with bulimia nervosa do not recognize that their behavior is abnormal. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) After an episode of binge eating, a person with binge eating disorder engages in inappropriate compensatory behaviors to rid the body of excess calories.

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⊚ ⊚

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22

Answer Key Test name: Chap 11_12e 1) A 2) D 3) A 4) D 5) C 6) A 7) B 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) D 12) A 13) D 14) C 15) A 16) A 17) B 18) D 19) B 20) B 21) D 22) D 23) B 24) A 25) A 26) A Version 1

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27) A 28) A 29) A 30) A 31) A 32) A 33) A 34) A 35) C 36) A 37) C 38) B 39) A 40) C 41) C 42) D 43) A 44) C 45) B 46) B 47) B 48) A 49) A 50) A 51) D 52) A 53) A 54) A 55) A 56) A Version 1

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57) D 58) B 59) A 60) B 61) B 62) A 63) A 64) A 65) B 66) A 67) A 68) A 69) D 70) A 71) FALSE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) FALSE 76) FALSE

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CHAPTER 12 1) The greenhouse gas emissions caused by an organization, event, product, or individual is termed A) carbon waste.

B) methane waste.

C) emission expulsion.

D) carbon footprint.

2)

Benefits of hydroponics include A) growing more nutrient-dense plants in bioactive soil systems.

B) complete reformation and replacement of traditional agricultural practices.

C) natural biofortification of plants due to hydroponic exposure.

D) rapid plant growth with greater yields, reduced food and water waste.

3) Foods made from multiple ingredients (e.g., breakfast cereal) can be labeled as organic if at least _____% of their ingredients (by weight) meet organic standards. The term made with organic ingredients can be used if at least _____% of the ingredients are organic.

A) 50; 25 B) 100; 75 C) 75; 50 D) 95; 70

4) Over _____% of corn and soybeans produced in the United States have been genetically engineered.

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A) 25 B) 50 C) 75 D) 90

5)

The FDA standard defines bioengineering to include any food that

A) contains genetic material that has been modified through in vitro recombinant DNA techniques.

B) contains modifications that can be obtained through conventional breeding methods.

C) is found in nature.

D) relies primarily on CRISPR-Cas9 (Clustered Regulatory Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats) technology.

6)

Someone who eats food grown or produced locally or within a certain radius is termed a A) regional vegan.

B) locavore.

C) pescatarian.

D) flexitarian.

7)

The _____ establishes strict fishing catch levels in U.S. waters.

A) National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration Fisheries B) Natural Resources Seafood Defense Council C) Global Seafood Watch D) Sustainable Seafood Sourcing Organization

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8) Control of agricultural pests with the use of natural predators, parasites, or pathogens describes A) biological pest management.

B) sustainable agriculture.

C) biotechnology.

D) GRAS.

9) Which of the following is an environmental contaminant that may end up in the food supply?

A) Caffeine B) Carbon dioxide C) Mercury D) Avidin

10)

To reduce bisphenol A (BPA) exposure, it is recommended consumers A) only consume acrylamide-free food.

B) avoid microwaving plastics with the recycle code numbers 4 and 8.

C) avoid night-shade vegetables.

D) limit use of canned foods.

11) Mercury, an environmental contaminant if consumed, can accumulate in fish tissue. It is advised that pregnant women avoid the four highest-mercury fish. These include

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A) tilapia, halibut, cod, sole, and walleye.

B) carp, pike, catfish, and swordfish.

C) salmon, swordfish, herring, and king mackerel.

D) swordfish, shark, tilefish, and king mackerel.

12) A known carcinogen, _____, is produced when carbohydrate-rich foods are fried at high temperatures for extended periods of time. Examples include French fries and potato chips.

A) acrylamide B) cadmium C) urethane D) dioxin

13) The introduction of harmful agents, biological and otherwise, into the food supply chain that is both deliberate and intended to cause damage is called A) food insecurity.

B) agroterrorism.

C) foodborne pathogenesis.

D) agricultural targeting.

14)

Possible effects of lead toxicity include A) cancers of the reproductive organs.

B) anemia, nervous system damage, and reduced learning capacity in children.

C) coronary heart disease and peripheral vascular disease.

D) deformities of the skull, legs, and ribcage.

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15)

To reduce exposure to pesticides, A) wash and/or peelfruits and vegetables before eating.

B) when fishing, throw back small fish and keep only the large ones.

C) limit variety infruit and vegetable consumption.

D) consume the outerleaves of leafy vegetables, which have the highest nutrient content.

16) Of the following groups, which have the the lowest risk of becoming ill from foodborne illness?

A) The elderly B) Young children C) Individuals with cancer D) Teens

17) A food preservation technique in which bacteria or yeast make acids and alcohol that serve to minimize growth of other bacteria and yeast is termed A) irradiation.

B) fermentation.

C) aseptic processing.

D) pasteurization.

18) Which of the following consumer, environmental, and industry trends have increased the risk of contracting foodborne illness?

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A) Decreased use of antibiotics in animal feeds B) Reduction in foods prepared in kitchens outside the home C) Lower consumption of raw or undercooked animal products D) An increase in the number of older adults in the population

19) ______ is the federal agency that enforces standards for wholesomeness and quality of meat, poultry, milk, and eggs.

A) The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) B) The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) C) The Federal Trade Commission (FTC) D) The United States Department of Agriculture (USDA)

20) Which of the following agencies enforces wholesomeness and quality standards for meat?

A) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) B) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) C) National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) Fisheries D) United States Department of Agriculture (USDA)

21)

Which of the following agencies regulates pesticides?

A) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) B) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) C) National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) Fisheries D) United States Department of Agriculture (USDA)

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22) One of the major goals of using preservation methods such as smoking, salting, and drying is decreasing the _______ content of a food. This decreases the potential for microbial growth.

A) acid B) sugar C) protein D) water

23) The preservation method that involves adding bacteria or yeasts to food to produce acids and alcohol to minimize growth of other microbes is called A) distillation.

B) acidification.

C) pasteurization.

D) fermentation.

24) ______ involves separately and simultaneously sterilizing the food and its container before packaging the food.

A) Aseptic processing B) Pasteurization C) Food irradiation D) Canning

25)

Sugar acts as a food preservative by

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A) increasing the acidity of food.

B) reducing the amount of free water in food.

C) increasing the water activity of the food.

D) directly killing disease-producing microbes.

26) Which of the following food preservation methods best maintains the water content of a food product?

A) Salting B) Adding sugar C) Irradiation D) Smoking

27)

Increasing the acid content of a food is especially effective in preventing the growth of A) yeast.

B) molds.

C) Clostridium botulinum.

D) Staphylococcus aureus.

28)

The aseptic processing food preservation method is especially useful for A) whole grain cereals.

B) fruit juices.

C) meats.

D) spices.

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29)

Aseptic processing involves A) quickly freezing a food product after it is prepared.

B) drying foods to decrease water content.

C) sterilizing the package and food separately and then packaging the food.

D) the addition of chemical preservatives.

30) ______ is a food preservation process that exposes food to radiation energy, preventing microbial growth.

A) Ionization B) Pasteurization C) Food irradiation D) Sterilization

31)

Which of the following is true about food irradiation?

A) The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has banned food irradiation.

B) Irradiation does not affect the vitamin content of foods.

C) Foods that are irradiated do not require labeling as such.

D) Irradiation can slow or limit the growth of insects, microorganisms, and parasites in

food.

32)

Common symptoms of foodborne illness include A) fever, skin rash, and itching.

B) coughing, wheezing, and difficulty breathing.

C) fever, diarrhea, and vomiting.

D) fever, headache, and muscle cramps.

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33)

Which of the following food trends increases the risk of foodborne illness?

A) More foods prepared in kitchens outside the home B) Consumption of more imported ready-to-eat foods C) Greater consumer interest in eating raw or undercooked animal products D) All of these trends increase the risk of foodborne illness.

34)

Foods commonly associated with illness caused by Staphylococcus aureus include A) raw seafood.

B) meat, poultry, and eggs.

C) undercooked soybeans.

D) unfiltered water.

35)

The most common cause of foodborne illness in the United States is A) Norovirus.

B) Staphylococcus aureus.

C) Hepatitis A virus.

D) Escherichia coli.

36)

Which foods are commonly associated with Salmonella intoxication?

A) Gravies and sauces B) Chicken and eggs C) Seafood and raw fish D) Custards and cream-filled pastries

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37) Which of the following statements describes foodborne illness caused by Salmonella species?

A) There have been no documented deaths from Salmonella infections.

B) The symptoms of illness from Salmonella infection develop within 4 hours of eating the contaminated food.

C) Most cases of Salmonella infection can be avoided by not allowing susceptible foods to stand at room temperature for more than 2 hours.

D) Salmonella infection can cause acute respiratory failure.

38)

Foodborne illness caused by Clostridium perfringens

A) is usually associated with meat and meat dishes, gravies, and improperly handled leftovers.

B) appears within 12 to 36 hours of ingesting contaminated food.

C) usually is caused by consuming improperly home-canned food.

D) can cause human illness in about 4 hours.

39) Which of the following bacteria can make a person ill by foodborne infection (as opposed to foodborne intoxication)?

A) Clostridium botulinum B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Salmonella species D) Bacillus cereus

40) Which of the following bacteria can produce a foodborne intoxication (as opposed to foodborne infection)?

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A) Clostridium perfringens B) Salmonella species C) Staphylococcus aureus D) Campylobacter jejuni

41)

The greatest health risk from food today is contamination via A) fungi.

B) viruses and bacteria.

C) parasites.

D) prions.

42) Which of the following is an example of a parasite found in the North American food supply?

A) Trichinella spiralis B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Clostridium botulinum D) Norovirus

43) Escherichia coli O157:H7 produces _______ that can cause severe illness, including severe bloody diarrhea and hemolytic uremic syndrome.

A) an infection B) urea C) spores D) a toxin

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44) Salmonella, Listeria, Escherichia coli O157:H7, and Campylobacter are the bacterial foodborne illnesses of particular interest since they are the ones most often associated with A) kidney failure.

B) high fever.

C) death.

D) liver failure.

45)

Listeriosis is of particular concern for pregnant women because A) pregnant women are more likely than other population groups to get listeriosis.

B) Listeria bacteria can cross the placenta and infect the fetus.

C) listeriosis can cause fetal death.

D) All of the choices are correct.

46) ______ can cause spontaneous abortion or stillbirth because the bacteria can cross the placenta and infect the fetus.

A) Listeria monocytogenes B) Salmonella species C) Escherichia coli O157:H7 D) Clostridium botulinum

47)

By keeping food cold, the growth of microorganisms is

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A) increased.

B) not changed.

C) minimized.

D) stopped and they are killed.

48)

Escherichia coli O157:H7 infection has been associated with consumption of A) breakfast cereals.

B) bread made from organic flour.

C) fresh spinach or spinach-containing products.

D) well-done roast beef.

49) with

As a result of Escherichia coli O157:H7 infection, individuals have been hospitalized

A) kidney failure.

B) kidney stones.

C) myocardial infarctions.

D) strokes.

50)

The Danger Zone refers to A) the temperature range at which bacteria grow quickly.

B) any food preparation surface that is contaminated with microorganisms.

C) parts of the United States where environmental conditions favor microbial growth.

D) the rapid heart rate that accompanies dehydration from foodborne illness.

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51) Experts speculate that about 70% of foodborne illness cases go undiagnosed because they result from ______causes.

A) viral B) bacterial C) fungal D) microbial

52)

There is no easy way to test for pathogens such as A) Listeria.

B) Salmonella.

C) Escherichia coli O157:H7.

D) Norovirus.

53)

Norovirus causes an illness that is commonly misdiagnosed as A) food poisoning.

B) the common cold.

C) the stomach flu.

D) Montezuma's revenge.

54) ______ are hardy and survive freezing and relatively high temperatures and chlorination up to 10 parts per million (ppm).

A) Noroviruses B) Salmonella C) Escherichia coli D) Listeria

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55)

Most strains of Escherichia coli are A) harmful.

B) harmless.

56) When bacteria, such as Salmonella, produce their disease-causing effects by directly assaulting the intestinal tract, this is called a foodborne A) infection.

B) intoxication.

57) Toxin-producing bacteria, such as Clostridium botulinum, that end up in food cause a disorder called a foodborne A) infection.

B) intoxication.

58) If you buy food in a can that is bulging or spurts liquid, the food is likely to contain toxins produced by a type of bacteria called A) Salmonella.

B) Clostridium perfringens.

C) Clostridium botulinum.

D) Staphylococcus aureus.

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59) Raw meats, poultry, and eggs are often contaminated with ______, which can cause fatal infections in immunocompromised populations.

A) Salmonella B) Shigella species C) Escherichia coli D) Clostridium botulinum

60) ______, which causes abdominal pain and diarrhea, multiplies rapidly in prepared foods (e.g., beef, poultry, and gravy) left at room temperature for extended periods of time.

A) Clostridium botulinum B) Clostridium perfringens C) Escherichia coli D) Salmonella

61) Bacterial growth requires nutrients, water, and warmth. Most bacteria grow best in danger zone temperatures of _____°F to _____°F. A) 35; 165 B) 32; 140 C) 60; 165 D) 40; 140

62) The ______ bacterium can cause a potentially fatal foodborne illness. Home-canned foods often are culprits of this intoxication.

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A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Clostridium botulinum C) Escherichia coli D) Vibrio vulnificus

63)

The Delaney Clause

A) prevents the intentional use as food additives of compounds shown to cause cancer in laboratory animals or humans.

B) defines themaximum dosage of a food additivethat causes no observable effects inrats and mice.

C) lists foodadditives that are generally recognized as safe.

D) grants the USDAjurisdiction over food additives.

64)

Which of the following population groups should avoid or strictly limit caffeine intake?

A) Individuals with peptic ulcers B) Young children C) Individuals with anxiety disorders D) All of these population groups should avoid or limit caffeine inake.

65) _____ are additives that have knowingly, or intentionally, been incorporated into food products by manufacturers.

A) Direct B) Indirect C) Biologic D) GRAS

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66)

Oxalic acid binds _____, thus limiting their absorption.

A) folate and zinc B) iron and biotin C) vitamin D and calcium D) calcium and iron

67)

Which of the following is not an example of an intentional food additive?

A) Nitrates B) Lecithin C) Sucralose D) Solanine

68) Which of the following is a natural substance found in raw egg whites that can inhibit the absorption of biotin?

A) Avidin B) Dioxin C) Oxalic acid D) Saponins

69) Which of the following naturally occurring substances limits the absorption of calcium and iron?

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A) Oxalic acid B) Avidin C) Solanine D) Safrole

70)

Which of the following food-handling practices increases risk for foodborne illness?

A) Always wash your hands after handling raw meat, fish, poultry, or eggs.

B) Do not buy or use food from a bulging can.

C) When shopping, select meat, poultry, or fish first.

D) Wash all utensils that have come in contact with raw meat or fish after using.

71) Covering cuts or sores on hands and avoiding sneezing when handling food are important strategies to prevent foodborne illness from A) Salmonella.

B) Staphylococcus aureus.

C) Clostridium perfringens.

D) Clostridium botulinum.

72) In its public health campaign, the United States Department of Agriculture promotes food safety with four simple actions: A) boil, freeze, dry, and salt.

B) bake, sterilize, freeze, and label.

C) clean, separate, chill, and cook.

D) scrub, irradiate, cook, and freeze.

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73) If you have just sliced raw poultry on your cutting board, there is an increased probability that ______ bacteria will be present. Therefore, if the board is not thoroughly washed, the bacteria can cross-contaminate other food coming in contact with the board.

A) Salmonella B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Clostridium botulinum D) Escherichia coli

74) Ground pork should be cooked to an internal temperature of ______ to destroy the parasite Trichinella spiralis.

A) 145°F (63°C) B) 160°F (71°C) C) 165°F (74°C) D) 170°F (77°C)

75)

A common cause of foodborne illness that results from sneezing or coughing over food is A) Yersinia enterocolitica B) Clostridium perfringens.

C) Staphylococcus aureus.

D) Campylobacter jejuni.

76)

To avoid Salmonella contamination,

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A) store chicken below 40°F. B) cook chicken to at least 140°F. C) thaw chicken at room temperature.

D) refrigerate or freeze leftovers within 6 hours of cooking.

77)

The best way to prevent the foodborne illness caused by E. coli ( Escherichia coli) is to A) cook all meat thoroughly.

B) substitute bean sprouts for washed lettuce.

C) wash your hands often.

D) wear a hair net while cooking.

78) Javier operates a food service establishment and is serious about preventing foodborne illnesses. Javier was disturbed to find out his employees A) served meals made with raw fish.

B) cooked chicken to 165°F. C) cooled leftovers rapidly in shallow pans.

D) avoided cross-contamination by using multiple cutting boards.

79)

Which of the following consumer behaviors increases the risk of a foodborne illness?

A) Chopping fresh vegetables on one cutting board, and then using a separate cutting board to prepare raw meat B) Cooking ground meats to an internal temperature of 165°F C) Washing and scrubbing all produce under running water D) Reheating leftover meatballs to an internal temperature of 140°F

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80)

The term organic is not regulated by any federal agency. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) Many synthetic substances and natural pesticides may be used in organic crop production. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) The Environmental Working Group (EWG) annually publishes the "Dirty Dozen" and "Clean 15" in relation to pesticide exposure on produce. These guidelines are grounded in rigorous scientific research, promoted by U.S. government agencies, and should be followed by Americans. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) Running water is preferred over antibacterial washing products to reduce pesticide exposure when cleaning produce. ⊚ ⊚

84)

true false

Food irradiation makes the food radioactive. ⊚ ⊚

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85) Most health professionals agree that 200 to 300 milligrams of caffeine per day (equivalent to 2 to 3 cups of regular, brewed coffee) is safe to consume and may even have some health benefits. ⊚ ⊚

86)

true false

Green tea has a higher caffeine content than black tea. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 12_12e 1) D 2) A 3) D 4) D 5) A 6) B 7) A 8) A 9) C 10) D 11) D 12) A 13) B 14) B 15) A 16) D 17) B 18) D 19) D 20) D 21) A 22) D 23) D 24) A 25) B 26) C Version 1

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27) C 28) B 29) C 30) C 31) D 32) C 33) D 34) B 35) A 36) B 37) C 38) A 39) C 40) C 41) B 42) A 43) D 44) C 45) D 46) A 47) C 48) C 49) A 50) A 51) A 52) D 53) C 54) A 55) B 56) A Version 1

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57) B 58) C 59) A 60) B 61) D 62) B 63) A 64) D 65) A 66) D 67) D 68) A 69) A 70) C 71) B 72) C 73) A 74) B 75) C 76) A 77) A 78) A 79) D 80) FALSE 81) TRUE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) TRUE 86) FALSE Version 1

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CHAPTER 13 1) Globally, the United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) reports that _____ of people are unable to access enough food to lead active, healthy lives.

A) about 10% B) a quarter C) over half D) at least 75%

2) What are the four pillars of food security as defined by the UnitedNations Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)?

A) Economic stability, housing, food access, and healthcare B) Availability, access, utilization, and stability C) Food access, sustainability, transportation, and childcare D) Education, entitlements, healthcare, and childcare

3) The Dietary Guidelines recommends customizing and enjoying foods and beverages that reflect personal preferences, cultural traditions, and ______ considerations.

A) budgetary B) body composition C) diagnostic D) political

4) Failing health that results from chronic eating practices that do not coincide with nutritional needs is termed

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A) undernutrition.

B) overnutrition.

C) emaciation.

D) malnutrition.

5)

Undernutrition and overnutrition are two forms of A) malnutrition.

B) chronic disease.

C) food insecurity.

D) micronutrient deficiencies.

6) Low weight for height (thinness) that typically indicates a recent and severe process of weight loss, often associated with acute starvation or severe disease is termed A) wasting.

B) stunting.

C) failure to thrive.

D) famine.

7)

Don is suffering from malnutrition. Which of the following characterizes his condition?

A) Don must be undernourished.

B) Don must be experiencing chronic hunger.

C) Don must be experiencing poverty.

D) Don could be suffering from either undernutrition or overnutrition.

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8) The UnitedNations Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) defines ______ as secure access to a nutritious diet coupled with a sanitary environment and adequate health services and care.

A) food insecurity B) food access C) nutrition security D) sustainability

9)

Which of the following is true about chronic hunger in the world?

A) Chronic hunger is found in all developed countries.

B) Hunger is alleviated by safe drinking water.

C) The primary cause of hunger is poverty.

D) Hunger is the psychological state that results when enough food is eaten.

10)

The primary cause of chronic hunger is A) poverty.

B) lack of technology.

C) cultural food preferences.

D) lack of local farms in developing countries.

11)

Which of the following is true about semistarvation?

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A) Physical and mental impairment do not occur without clinical symptoms.

B) Often the first sign that tissues are affected is a biochemical change that may be detectable by a blood test.

C) Physical symptoms often appear before evidence of any biochemical changes.

D) Action to correct undernutrition should only be taken when clinical symptoms are detected.

12)

Which symptoms are linked to semistarvation ?

A) Increased energy level and strength B) Poor concentration and impaired learning C) Increased hunger and appetite D) Enhanced immunity

13) Aform of undernutrition caused by an extremely deficient intake of calories, protein, or both is termed ______. Two examples of this type of malnutrition are kwashiorkor and marasmus.

A) protein-energy malnutrition B) anorexia C) ketosis D) rickets

14)

Which of the following is associated with health issues related to overnutrition?

A) Goiter from iodine deficiency B) Blindness from xerophthalmia C) Iron-deficiency anemia D) Coronary heart disease

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15)

The majority of undernourished people live in A) North and South America.

B) Asia and Africa.

C) Latin America and Africa.

D) Asia and South America.

16)

Individuals who are chronically homeless are likely to be A) older, male, non-white, and experiencing long-term unemployment.

B) younger, male, white, and experiencing long-term overemployment.

C) younger, single mothers and experiencing short-term unemployment.

D) international students experiencing food insecurity.

17) Children affected by homelessness are most vulnerable and are twice as likely to experience ______ compared to children residing in a home.

A) attention deficit disorders B) sleep apnea C) bulimia D) hunger

18) Which of the following is true about homelessness and undernutrition in the United States?

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A) The homeless have plenty of resources; they just fail to utilize them.

B) Chronically homeless individuals are more likely to be young, female, non-white,and underemployed.

C) The rate of homelessness has declined over the last 25 years.

D) The increases in homelessness stems from a shortage of affordable rental housingcoupled with an increase in poverty.

19) Approximately how many children in the United States live below the federal poverty level?

A) 5 million B) 15 million C) 25 million D) 40 million

20) The _____ authorizes nutrition services programs to reduce hunger and food insecurity, enhance socialization, promote health and well-being, and delay adverse health conditions for older individuals.

A) Food Research and Action Center (FRAC) B) Older Americans Act (OAA) C) Meals on Wheels Program D) Expanded Food and Nutrition Education Program (EFNEP)

21) Areas where residents do not live near supermarkets or other food retailers that carry affordable and nutritious food are called

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A) safe food havens.

B) nutrition outlets.

C) fresh food oasis.

D) food deserts.

22) Since the early 1900s, the role of the United States government in providing food assistance to the poor has steadily A) decreased.

B) increased.

23) The food assistance program developed in the 1960s to help wholefamilies purchase healthy foodsis termed the A) School BreakfastProgram.

B) School LunchProgram.

C) Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program.

D) SpecialSupplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children.

24)

The Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC)

A) provides breakfast for school children.

B) provides food vouchers and nutrition education to low-income pregnant and lactating women and their young children.

C) is provided to all American families and has no enrollment criteria.

D) was discontinued in 2015 after budget cuts.

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25) Which of the following is true regarding the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP)?

A) SNAP is the current name for the old Fresh Food Bucks Program.

B) SNAP participants can use an electronic benefit transfer (EBT) card to purchase food and garden seeds to grow food.

C) The target population for SNAP benefits is pregnant or lactatingwomen and their children.

D) Due to improvements in economicconditions, the need for food assistance is low in the United States.

26) A state of poverty caused by specific circumstances such as death, illness, divorce, or some catastrophe is termed A) situational poverty.

B) systemic poverty.

C) intermittent poverty.

D) self-inflicted poverty.

27) Persistent poverty that is passed from parents to children, with two or more generations living in poverty is termed A) generational poverty.

B) chronic episodic poverty.

C) familial situational poverty.

D) cultural poverty.

28) In the United States, persistent hunger and food insecurity are largely associated with which two interrelated conditions?

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A) Poverty and homelessness B) Political unrest and single mothers C) Inadequate technology and healthcare D) Failing schools and poverty

29) A recent USDA report assessing the shopping cart of SNAP participants foundthe top item purchased with SNAP dollars was A) soft drinks.

B) fruits and vegetables.

C) alcohol.

D) frozen pizza.

30)

The root cause of hunger and undernutrition in the United States continues to be A) homelessness.

B) overpopulation.

C) increased life expectancy.

D) poverty.

31) Increasing per capita income and improving ______, especially for women in developingnations, are considered to be the most successful long-term solutions to excessivepopulation growth.

A) education B) technology C) fertility clinics D) transportation

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32)

Which factor has little influence on the food-to-population ratio ?

A) Rapid repletion of natural resources, such as farmland, fish, and water B) War and political/civil unrest C) Rapid depletion of natural resources D) Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)

33) In the future, billions ofpeople are expected to face ongoing _____ shortages that will contribute to civil unrest and food shortages.

A) labor B) water C) oxygen D) coal

34) The UNICEF WASH Program, designed to support the Sustainable Development Goals, focuses on A) water, sanitation, and hygiene.

B) water, sustainability, and health.

C) wind, solar, and hygiene.

D) wind, acclimation, sterilization, and health.

35)

Which of the following factors will adversely affect the nutritional status of a country?

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A) Movement of the population to urban centers B) Maintenance of rural, small farms C) Movement away from the growth of cash crops D) Discouraging the establishment of large farms

36) Housing, sanitation and storage facilities, education, communication, and transportation systems are components of a country's A) architecture.

B) social welfare.

C) social structure.

D) infrastructure.

37) To assess hunger, the International FoodPolicy Research Institute (IFPRI) annually calculates the ______, atool that tracks the state of hunger worldwide and calls attention to locations where immediate hunger relief is urgently needed.

A) Global Hunger Index (GHI) B) Global Health Scale (GHS) C) Universal Healthcare Metric (UHM) D) Hunger and Health Scale (HHS)

38) A promising strategy to help less-developed countries increase crop yields to improve cultivation practices has been A) to use green revolution technologies.

B) to establish largefarms that grow cash crops.

C) to obtain more food sources from oceans.

D) to cut down rain forests so there is more farmable land.

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39)

The green revolution was a A) movement that increased crop yields in some countries.

B) initiative to force countries to stop using fertilizers.

C) movement to prevent the destruction of rain forests.

D) Third World strategy to reduce beef intake.

40)

What is the largest user of freshwater resources?

A) Food processing B) Drinking water C) Fish farming D) Agriculture

41) In light of its devastating toll on families and communities, a significant step toward alleviating poverty and hunger in sub-Saharan Africa and many other developing nations would be to alleviate the spread of A) acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).

B) scurvy.

C) sickle cell anemia.

D) iron-deficiency anemia.

42)

Without treatment, an individual will likely die from AIDS within

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A) 6 to 12 months.

B) 4 to 5 years.

C) 6 to 10 years.

D) over 10 years.

43)

Which of the following is true about the social and economic impact of AIDS?

A) A vaccine has been approved and available by the FDA to prevent AIDS. B) AIDS will have the greatest economic impact on the United States.

C) Drug companies and governments have begun working together to lower the cost of AIDS drugs for developing nations.

D) Globally, progress toward the goal of ensuring access to HIV treatment has been slower for adults than for children.

44)

The acronym AIDS stands for A) acquired immune deficiency syndrome.

B) autoimmune deficit syndrome.

C) antibiotic infection deficiency syndrome.

D) anti-immune deficiency syndrome.

45) Which of the following is the best approach to eradicating undernutrition in developing nations?

A) Require developed countries to provide direct food aid to underdeveloped countries.

B) Improve the education, infrastructure, and resources forthose living in poverty.

C) Establish large farms run by the Peace Corps.

D) Provide more jobs in urban areas.

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46)

The 2020 SDG Report highlights progress had been made in some key areas including

A) maternal and child health, increasing global access to electricity, and expanding representation of women in government.

B) food security, gender equality, and poverty.

C) climate action, clean energy, and sustainable cities.

D) employment and economic growth, hunger, and quality education.

47)

Which of the following is the best approach to preventing famine in developing nations?

A) Increase the productivity of rural people by teaching them farming methods, so they can build agricultural surpluses to eat and sell.

B) Developed countries should supply food and medicine to underdeveloped countries.

C) Developing countries should grow cash crops.

D) Developing countries should avoid raising and consuming livestock.

48)

Which of the following is true about sustainable agriculture?

A) Sustainable agriculture involves maintaining or enhancing the land and natural resourcesfor use long into the future.

B) Reaching the goal of worldwide sustainable agriculture simply requires participation by farmers and consumers.

C) Sustainable agriculture offers respect and fair treatment to farm workers, but does not address animal welfare.

D) Sustainable agricultural practices have a promising role in developed nations, but would not benefitfarmers and consumersin developing nations.

49) is

The single most effective and critical health advantage for individuals wherever they live

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A) adequate calorie intake.

B) safe and accessible water supply.

C) well-built shelter.

D) governmentsupport.

50) In 2015, the United Nations launched a transformativeagenda to address key issues related to global health. Called the Sustainable DevelopmentGoals (SDG), these 17 bold goals outline a _____ year agenda to serve as ablueprint for global health and sustainability.

A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20

51) A collection of processes that involves the use of biological systems for altering and, ideally, improving the characteristics of plants, animals, and other forms of life is termed A) biofeedback.

B) gene splicing.

C) biotechnology.

D) agribusiness.

52)

The organ system most affected by undernutrition in infancy and early childhood is the A) nervous system.

B) muscular system.

C) circulatory system.

D) respiratory system.

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53)

The most common nutrient deficiency disease is A) scurvy.

B) goiter.

C) beriberi.

D) iron-deficiency anemia.

54) Manipulating the DNA inside cells to improve production of materials or the material itself is called A) social engineering.

B) translocation.

C) transcription.

D) genetic engineering.

55)

Worldwide, the leading cause of preventable blindness is ______ deficiency.

A) iodine B) vitamin A C) protein D) iron

56) Scientific research involving biotechnology document that GMO crops have ______ chemical pesticide use as well as ______ both crop yield and farmer profits.

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A) increased; increased B) increased; decreased C) decreased; decreased D) decreased; increased

57)

Which of the following is true about the effects of undernutrition in poor countries?

A) Calcium and vitamin E deficiency can contribute to reduced immune function.

B) Nutritional deficiencies can enhance optimal physical and mental performance.

C) Symptoms of underweight rarely result in nutritional deficiencies.

D) People in underdeveloped countries often have greater nutrient requirements to combat infectious disease and parasites.

58)

Which of the following is true about biofortification?

A) Compared to conventional fortification, it is more inefficient and inconsistent in terms of results.

B) It can improve the nutritional quality of crops such as iron-fortified rice and zincfortified wheat, and provitamin A-fortified maize.

C) It differs from traditional methods becauseit is completely natural.

D) Unlike GMO technology, the public's response to biofortification is extremely positive.

59) An extreme shortage of food, which leads to massive starvation in a population and is often associated with crop failures, war, and political unrest is termed

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A) muscle wasting.

B) food insecurity.

C) nutrition insecurity.

D) famine.

60) In total, _____ Sustainable Development Goals have indicators that are highly relevant to nutrition.

A) 0 of the 18 B) 4 of the 10 C) 10 of the 20 D) 12 of the 17

61) Agricultural practices that consider whole landscapes, territories, and ecosystems to optimize resource utilization and management is termed A) regenerative agriculture.

B) sustainable intensification.

C) hydroponic intensification.

D) soil biofortification.

62)

Humans are least susceptible to health effects associated with undernutrition during A) infancy.

B) pregnancy.

C) puberty.

D) adulthood.

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63)

The health consequences of undernutrition are most critical during A) adulthood.

B) the college years.

C) infancy.

D) the elderly years.

64) Humans are particularly susceptible to the effects of undernutrition during periods of rapid growth, such as during A) adulthood.

B) middle age.

C) menopause.

D) pregnancy.

65)

Which of the following is true about undernutrition during pregnancy?

A) Only the fetus is affected.

B) Only the mother is affected.

C) Both the mother and fetus are affected.

D) The risk of maternal death is increased.

66)

The greatest impact of undernutrition occurs in the first _____ days of life.

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A) 20 B) 200 C) 500 D) 1000

67)

There is just not enough food on the planet to feed all its inhabitants. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) For many years, government-funded food assistance programs have helped to alleviate undernutrition in the United States. ⊚ ⊚

true false

69) The main goals of nutritional treatment for HIV/AIDS are to achieve and maintain a healthy body weight and optimal nutritional status, minimize nutrition-related side effects and complications, improve quality of life, and expand access to nutrition services. ⊚ ⊚

true false

70) In terms of population migration, relocating from rural areas to urban areas tends to make the problem of undernutrition worse. ⊚ true ⊚ false

71) One of the most effective methods to decrease the population aspect of the food-topopulation ratio is for countries to institute birth control programs.

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⊚ ⊚

72)

true false

Birth rates in America are the highest in the world. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 13_12e 1) B 2) B 3) A 4) D 5) A 6) A 7) D 8) C 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) B 13) A 14) D 15) B 16) A 17) D 18) D 19) B 20) B 21) D 22) B 23) C 24) B 25) B 26) A Version 1

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27) A 28) A 29) A 30) D 31) A 32) A 33) B 34) A 35) A 36) D 37) A 38) A 39) A 40) D 41) A 42) B 43) C 44) A 45) B 46) A 47) A 48) A 49) B 50) C 51) C 52) A 53) D 54) D 55) B 56) D Version 1

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57) D 58) B 59) D 60) D 61) B 62) D 63) C 64) D 65) C 66) D 67) FALSE 68) TRUE 69) TRUE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE 72) FALSE

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CHAPTER 14 1)

Fertility can be impaired by A) too much body fat.

B) too little body fat.

C) either too little or too much body fat.

2)

Low levels of body fat may decrease ______ fertility.

A) both male and female B) female C) male D) neither male nor female

3) Women who experience infertility related to high levels of testosterone and insulin may have a condition known as A) polycystic ovary syndrome.

B) gestational hypertension.

C) preeclampsia.

D) gestational diabetes mellitus.

4)

To reduce oxidative damage to her eggs, a woman should consume A) brightly colored fruits and vegetables.

B) beta-carotene supplements.

C) zinc supplements.

D) 3 servings per day of dairy foods.

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5)

A mineral that is especially important for male fertility is A) zinc.

B) iron.

C) potassium.

D) sodium.

6)

The duration of pregnancy normally is ______ weeks.

A) 30 to 34 B) 32 to 36 C) 35 to 39 D) 38 to 42

7)

The organ that nourishes the fetus in the mother's womb is called the A) ovum.

B) umbilicus.

C) placenta.

D) embryo.

8)

The first trimester of pregnancy

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A) involves a rapid increase in cell size rather than cell number.

B) is the time when the mother's breast weight increases by approximately 30% in preparation for lactation.

C) is a time of particular importance to avoid nutritional deficiencies and environmental exposures that could harm the fetus.

D) is a time when nutritional deficiencies have little effect on the developing fetus.

9) Which trimester is an especially critical period when poor nutrition or drug use can result in birth defects?

A) First B) Second C) Third

10)

Preterm infants A) have minimalnutritional problems.

B) may have problemssucking and swallowing.

C) will almost alwaysdie.

D) are born with adequate mineral and fat stores.

11)

By definition, a low-birth-weight infant weighs less than ______ pounds at birth.

A) 3.5 B) 5.5 C) 6.5 D) 7.5

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12)

Obesity during pregnancy is associated with A) high blood pressure.

B) diabetes.

C) surgical complications.

D) All of these choices.

13)

Which of the following is true about lifestyle habits and pregnancy?

A) Repeated intakeof four or more alcoholic drinks at one sitting is harmful to the fetus.

B) All women must avoid NutraSweet during pregnancy because phenylalanine causes problems with fetal brain development.

C) Use of tobacco products can be harmful for maternal health but has no impact on the developing fetus.

D) Foodborne illness can be harmful for maternal health but has no impact on the developing fetus.

14) Which of the following is a federal program that provides health assessments, nutrition education, and nutrition assistance to improve the health of pregnant or breastfeeding women and their infants?

A) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) B) Nutrition Supplement Program (NSP) C) SpecialSupplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) D) Regional Nutrition Counseling Program (RNCP)

15) Concerning the infant, two major indicators of a successful pregnancy are: (1) gestation period longer than ______ weeks and (2) birth weight greater than ______ pounds.

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A) 37; 5.5 B) 34; 5.5 C) 40; 7.5 D) 37; 2.5

16)

An infant born at 38 weeks of gestation and weighing 5 pounds is A) LBW and SGA. B) preterm and LBW. C) preterm and SGA. D) LBW.

17) Lower risk for gestational diabetes, reduced bone loss during pregnancy, better sleep, decreased back pain, and improved satisfaction with body image are all outcomes of A) following a low-fat diet during pregnancy.

B) weight gain throughout pregnancy.

C) taking prenatal supplements.

D) exercise during pregnancy.

18) Foodborne illness at any stage of the life span can be dangerous. However, infection with the foodborne pathogen ______ can be especially dangerous during pregnancy because this pathogen can cross the placenta and harm the developing fetus.

A) Listeria monocytogenes B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Escherichia coli D) Clostridium perfringens

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19) During the second and third trimesters of pregnancy, women need an average of ______ extra kilocalories per day.

A) 150 to 250 B) 250 to 350 C) 350 to 450 D) 450 to 550

20)

Extra kilocalories for pregnancy are needed mostly during which trimester(s)?

A) First B) Second and third C) Second D) First and third

21) Which of the following forms of physical activity should be avoided by women during pregnancy?

A) SCUBA diving B) Water aerobics C) Riding a stationary bike D) Brisk walking

22)

During pregnancy, the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) for fat is

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A) 10% to 35% of total kcal.

B) 20% to 35% of total kcal.

C) 25% to 35% of total kcal.

D) 30% to 45% of total kcal.

23)

During pregnancy, it is particularly important to make sure to consume adequate A) saturated fatty acids.

B) trans fatty acids.

C) cholesterol.

D) essential fatty acids.

24)

During the first trimester, a woman should gain ______ pounds.

A) 1 to 2 B) 2 to 4 C) 5 to 9 D) 10 to 14

25) During the second and third trimesters, a pregnant woman who begins pregnancy at a healthy weight should gain approximately______ pound(s) per week.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

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26) For a woman with a prepregnancy BMI of 22, total pregnancy weight gain should fall within the range of ______ pounds.

A) 11 to 20 B) 15 to 25 C) 25 to 35 D) 28 to 40

27) Millie's prepregnancy BMI is 18. Her weight-gain goal should be ______ pounds for the entire pregnancy.

A) 11 to 20 B) 15 to 25 C) 25 to 35 D) 28 to 40

28) Kimi's prepregnancy BMI is 38. Her weight-gain goal should be ______ pounds for the entire pregnancy.

A) 11 to 20 B) 15 to 25 C) 25 to 35 D) 28 to 40

29)

The RDA for protein increases by an additional ______ grams per day during pregnancy.

A) 5 B) 15 C) 25 D) 35

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30) The RDA for carbohydrates increases from 130 grams per day to 175 grams per day during pregnancy, primarily to prevent A) ketosis.

B) gestational diabetes mellitus.

C) hypoglycemia.

D) preeclampsia.

31)

Requirements for ______ increase by 50% during pregnancy.

A) folate B) sodium C) vitamin D D) pantothenic acid

32) Barb wants to make sure she gets adequate folate during her pregnancy. She should do which of the following?

A) Drink more milk.

B) Eat more ready-to-eat breakfast cereals.

C) Eat more meat.

D) Eat more oysters.

33) Ana Paula's physician tells her she needs more folate in her dietary pattern during pregnancy. She should do which of the following?

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A) Include a serving of leafy, green vegetables each day.

B) Eat two servings of lean beef per week.

C) Incorporate more cheese in meals.

D) Eat 2 servings of fish per week.

34)

Choose the minerals that are needed in higher quantities during pregnancy.

A) Iron, iodine, and zinc B) Calcium and phosphorus C) Sodium and chloride D) There are no minerals that need to be increased during pregnancy, only some vitamins.

35)

Which of the following statements is true about folate and pregnancy?

A) Folate deficiency in pregnancy is associated with birth defects such as spina bifida.

B) The RDA for folate for pregnant women increases by 50 percent over the RDA for nonpregnant women.

C) Fortified breakfast cereal is a nutrient-dense source of folate for pregnant women.

D) All of these choices are correct.

36)

Prenatal dietary supplements containing iron may cause _______ in some women.

A) constipation and nausea.

B) brain fog C) high blood sugar D) gastrointestinal bleeding

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37)

Most of the extra calcium for pregnancy is needed during which trimester(s)?

A) First B) Second C) Third D) The RDA for calcium does not increase during pregnancy.

38) The most nutrient-dense and bioavailable sources of calcium for a pregnant woman include A) citrus fruits.

B) red, yellow, and orange vegetables.

C) legumes.

D) low-fat milk and cheese.

39) Low maternal levels of ______ during gestation may increase the risk for type 1 diabetes, multiple sclerosis, allergies, asthma, and mental disorders in the offspring.

A) vitamin D B) vitamin E C) vitamin A D) vitamin K

40)

For most pregnancies, women need to consume supplemental A) iron.

B) vitamin B-12.

C) calcium.

D) zinc.

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41)

Which of the following statements istrue about dietary supplements during pregnancy?

A) Overdosesof vitamin B-12 could cause birth defects.

B) Vitamin A supplements are usually necessary to meet increased needs during pregnancy.

C) Research evidence supports routine supplementation withiron and folic acid.

D) It is better to take amino acid supplements than to increase the intake of protein foods.

42) The U.S. Public Health Service and the March of Dimes recommend that all women of childbearing age should take a daily multivitamin and mineral supplement that contains A) 400 micrograms of folic acid.

B) 15 milligrams of iron.

C) 500 milligrams of calcium.

D) 40 milligrams of zinc.

43) Adequate folate intake for neural tube development is especially important in the ______ trimester.

A) first B) second C) third

44)

Excessive intake of ______ has been linked to birth defects.

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A) vitamin A B) iron C) folate D) vitamin B-12

45) During pregnancy, a woman should follow a balanced dietary pattern, such as the plan suggested the Dietary Guidelines, which includes ______ each day.

A) 9 cups from the vegetables group B) 2 ounce-equivalents from the protein group C) 3 cups of calcium-rich foods from the dairy group D) 4 ounce-equivalents from the grain group

46)

Consumption of nonfood items such as laundry starch, ice, and dirt is known as A) hyperemesis.

B) pica.

C) preeclampsia.

D) eclampsia.

47) Avoiding lying down after meals, eating less fat, avoiding spicy foods, and consuming liquid between meals instead of during meals are all helpful strategies to prevent A) constipation.

B) heartburn.

C) hemorrhoids.

D) gestational diabetes.

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48) Which of the following can prevent or reduce the occurrence of constipation during pregnancy?

A) Drink about 10 cups of fluids per day.

B) Choose plenty of fruits and vegetables.

C) Engage in daily physical activity.

D) All of these are good strategies to prevent or reduce constipation.

49) Avoiding greasy or fried foods, eating saltine crackers or dry cereal before getting out of bed, avoiding large fluid intake in the mornings, and eating smaller, more frequent meals help to control _____ during pregnancy.

A) edema B) constipation C) nausea D) gestational diabetes

50) During pregnancy, symptoms such as high blood pressure, excess protein in the urine, edema, changes in blood clotting, and seizures are associated with a condition called A) essential hypertension.

B) eclampsia.

C) preeclampsia.

D) secondary hypertension.

51)

The hormone that triggers "let down" or milk release is

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A) oxytocin.

B) prolactin.

C) estrogen.

D) progesterone.

52)

Which of the following is true about lactation?

A) Only about 50 percent of all women can breastfeed.

B) The most significant reason why women do not breastfeed is that they cannot produce enough milk.

C) Some women cannot breastfeed because they do not have big enough breasts.

D) The major reason why women do not breastfeed is lack of information.

53)

Which of the following is true about the let-down reflex?

A) It is needed to make milk available to the infant.

B) It can be inhibited by anxiety or nervous tension.

C) After a few weeks of breastfeeding, it becomes automatic.

D) All of these statements are true.

54)

Which of the following statements is true regarding infant feeding?

A) The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends exclusive breastfeeding for the first 6 months of a child's life.

B) Because of its immunological benefits, infant formula is preferred over breast milk.

C) Working mothers should avoid breastfeeding.

D) Cows' milk can be introduced safely when the child is 3 months old.

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55) From the beginning to the end of each feeding, the proportion of ______ in human milk increases.

A) carbohydrate B) fat C) minerals D) protein

56) The Estimated Energy Requirement (EER) for lactating women is approximately _______ kilocalories per day above the prepregnancy EER. A) 150 to 220 B) 330 to 400 C) 440 to 600 D) 750 to 850

57)

Advantages of breastfeeding include A) fewer ear infections for the infant.

B) reduced risk of celiac disease for the infant.

C) reduced risk of diarrheal diseases for the infant.

D) All of these are advantages of breastfeeding.

58) Compared to formula-fed infants, breastfed infants tend to have ______ risk for atopic diseases, such as asthma and eczema.

A) lower B) higher C) the same

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59)

Which of the following is a medical contraindication for breastfeeding?

A) The infant has galactosemia.

B) The mother has gestational diabetes mellitus.

C) The infant was born by Caesarean section.

D) The infant is born preterm.

60)

The hormone that stimulates milk synthesis is A) prolactin.

B) oxytocin.

C) estrogen.

D) progesterone.

61) Rich in immune factors, the milk made by the mother's breast during the first few days after birth is A) colostrum.

B) prolactin.

C) foremilk.

D) hindmilk.

62) The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends all infants be given ______ of vitamin D per day until they are consuming that much from food.

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A) 5 micrograms B) 10 micrograms C) 15 micrograms D) 20 micrograms

63)

Low iodine status during the first trimester of pregnancy may lead to A) hypertension in the offspring.

B) gestational diabetes in the mother.

C) edema in the mother.

D) congenital hypothyroidism in the offspring.

64)

A teratogen is a compound that may increase A) the risk for birth defects.

B) the risk for gestational diabetes mellitus.

C) the rate of conception.

D) the ability to produce milk.

65) Women suffering from chronic alcoholism produce children with a recognizable pattern of malformations called A) chronic cirrhosis.

B) alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorders.

C) cystic fibrosis.

D) fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS).

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66)

Obstetricians recommend dietary sodium restrictions to treat preeclampsia. ⊚ ⊚

true false

67) A woman must avoid consuming potential food allergens during pregnancy and breastfeeding to reduce the risk for food allergies in her infant. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) All 50 states, the District of Columbia, and the Virgin Islands have laws that protect a woman's right to breastfeed in public spaces. ⊚ ⊚

true false

69) Following a low-carbohydrate eating pattern during pregnancy is recommended for the prevention of birth defects. ⊚ ⊚

70)

true false

Pregnant women must avoid all sources of caffeine. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 14_12e 1) C 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) A 6) D 7) C 8) C 9) A 10) B 11) B 12) D 13) A 14) C 15) A 16) A 17) D 18) A 19) C 20) B 21) A 22) B 23) D 24) B 25) A 26) C Version 1

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27) D 28) A 29) C 30) A 31) A 32) B 33) A 34) A 35) D 36) A 37) D 38) D 39) A 40) A 41) C 42) A 43) A 44) A 45) C 46) B 47) B 48) D 49) C 50) B 51) A 52) D 53) D 54) A 55) B 56) B Version 1

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57) D 58) A 59) A 60) A 61) A 62) B 63) D 64) A 65) D 66) FALSE 67) FALSE 68) TRUE 69) FALSE 70) FALSE

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CHAPTER 15 1)

Which of the following are true statements about snacks for preschool children?

A) All of these are true statements about snacks.

B) Nutrient-dense snacks make an important contribution to overall nutrient intake.

C) Snacks are appropriate if timed so that appetite is not reduced at meals.

D) Snacks can assist in introducing new foods to children.

2) Approximately one-third of children in developing nations are short and underweight for their age. The most frequent cause is A) weaning to high-carbohydrate, low-protein dietary patterns.

B) dietary patterns low in essential fatty acids.

C) dietary patterns low in vitamin A. D) weaning to low-carbohydrate, high-protein dietary patterns.

3)

Which of the following is an appropriate feeding philosophy for children?

A) Parents should present a variety of nutritious food choices and avoid conflicts at meal times.

B) Children should be forced to eat what is good for them.

C) Parents should present nutritious food choices and not worry about their own eating habits.

D) Parents should be responsible for choosing how much and when the child should eat.

4)

The greatest energy requirement per unit of body weight occurs during

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A) pregnancy.

B) infancy.

C) lactation.

D) childhood.

5)

Intakes of ______ are often low in the eating patterns of adolescent females.

A) iron and calcium B) magnesium and zinc C) iron and phosphorus D) calcium and phosphorus

6)

An adverse reaction to a food that does not involve the immune system is A) a food allergy.

B) a food deterrence.

C) a food intolerance.

D) anaphylaxis.

7) For a child who follows a totally vegetarian dietary pattern, which nutrients need to be monitored carefully to prevent a deficiency?

A) Vitamin A, vitamin C, and folate B) Vitamin K, thiamin, and vitamin C C) Fiber, vitamin A, and vitamin C D) Iron, vitamin B-12, and vitamin D

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8) The Physical Activity Guidelines recommend that school-children should engage in ______ of moderate to intense physical activity per day.

A) 30 minutes B) 60 minutes C) 150 minutes D) 90 minutes

9) Full term infants are born with some stores of iron. However, the infant's stores of iron generally are depleted by ______ months of age.

A) 6 to 8 B) 8 to 10 C) 4 to 6 D) 1 to 2

10)

Most formula products for infants contain A) soy protein, glucose, and vegetable oils.

B) fructose and heat-treated cow's milk protein.

C) lactose, heat-treated cows' milk protein, and vegetable oils.

D) sucrose, whey protein, and fish oils.

11)

Typically, the adolescent growth spurt A) begins earlier among males than females.

B) begins at the same age for males and females.

C) begins earlier among females than males.

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12) Peggy is worried because her 9-month-old infant son's weight-for-length plots at the 99th percentile. She knows about many health risks associated with obesity and she is worried her son will have obesity as a child and perhaps as an adult. Peggy is wondering if she should limit her son's food and beverage intake and/or start giving him fat-free cow's milk instead of infant formula. Which of the following is accurate information about infant weight status that you could share with Peggy?

A) All of the above would be accurate information to share with Peggy.

B) Most infants with high weight-for-length grow to have a BMI-for-age in the normal range later in childhood.

C) If Peggy restricts her son's calorie intake during infancy, the growth of her son's organ systems may be restricted.

D) Cow's milk is not appropriate for infants younger than 1 year of age. It is a poor source of iron. Furthermore, cow's milk (especially low-fat or fat-free cow's milk) does not provide the fat infants need to support rapid growth and development.

13) According to the hygiene hypothesis, frequent use of antimicrobial cleansers and antibiotics can A) cause dry and cracked skin, which makes the person more susceptible to skin infections.

B) improve the function of the immune system, reducing the risk for communicable diseases.

C) promote tumor growth in people with a genetic predisposition for cancer.

D) impair development of the immune system, predisposing a person to allergies and autoimmune diseases.

14)

Mild deficiencies of zinc in children in the United States have been linked to

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A) short stature.

B) eating disorders.

C) childhood obesity.

D) enlarged head circumference.

15) Child nutrition authorities recommend specially formulated toddler drinks (also called transition formulas) to meet the nutrient needs of young children after weaning from breast milk or infant formula. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) Infants need fat because it is a rich source of calories, it aids in the absorption of several vitamins, and it promotes proper development of the nervous system. Fat accounts for approximately ______ of total kcal in the infant's dietary pattern.

A) 75% B) 25% C) 50% D) 10%

17)

Should young children be allowed to snack between meals?

A) No, because snacking contributes to high rates of childhood obesity.

B) Yes, because they have relatively high nutrient needs, but can only eat a small amount of food at one time.

C) Yes, because children need more sugar and salt than adults.

D) No, because it will decrease their appetite and limit food intake at mealtimes.

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18)

Most of the calories from human milk come from A) protein.

B) fat.

C) carbohydrates.

19)

Human milk provides _______ of calories from protein.

A) less than 10% B) more than 25% C) 15% to 25% D) 10% to 15%

20)

The first solid foods usually introduced into an infant's dietary pattern are A) pureed fruits.

B) iron-fortified infant cereals.

C) pureed meats.

D) eggs.

21) According to the latest data, among children under 3 years of age, the most common food allergy is to A) shellfish.

B) eggs.

C) milk.

D) peanuts.

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22)

High-fiber diets are A) not recommended for infants.

B) recommended for breastfed infants only.

C) recommended for infants after 4 months of age.

D) recommended for infants after 6 months of age.

23)

Having an adequate iron and calcium status helps to reduce _____ absorption.

A) lead B) sugar C) bacteria D) saturated fat

24)

"Picky" eating behaviors may develop during the preschool years partially because of A) increased appetite associated with decreased growth rate.

B) decreased appetiteassociated with decreased growth rate.

C) decreased appetite associated with increased growth rate.

D) increased appetiteassociated with increased growth rate.

25) For a female, undernutrition could be expected to have its greatest effect on height if it occurs A) 1 year after the onset of menstrual periods.

B) just before the onset of menstrual periods.

C) 3 years after the onset of menstrual periods.

D) 2 years after the onset of menstrual periods.

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26) Which foods would you suggest adding to the dietary pattern of a preschool child at risk for iron deficiency?

A) Lean meats B) Orange juice C) Egg whites D) Milk

27)

Weight gain between the ages of 2 and 5 is about ______ pounds per year.

A) 10 B) 15 C) 5 D) 20

28)

It is not advised to introduce solid foods to an infant before 4 months of age because A) All of these are reasons to delay the introduction of solid foods until 4 to 6 months of

age.

B) the young infant's GI tract is not mature enough to digest complex carbohydrates and proteins.

C) the young infant is not able to sufficiently control his head and neck.

D) the young infant's kidney function is limited.

29) Of the following, which is the best strategy to promote the breakfast-eating habit among school-age children?

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A) Caregivers could drive children to school so they have more time to eat breakfast at school.

B) Caregivers could provide breakfast foods that contain some added sugars.

C) Caregivers could threaten to withhold priviliges, such as screen time, if children do not eat breakfast.

D) Caregivers could eat breakfast with their children.

30)

For children with obesity, experts generally recommend A) limiting physicalactivity to avoid stressing the joints.

B) bariatricsurgery.

C) severe caloric restriction.

D) early diabetes andcholesterol screening.

31) Preschool children should be encouraged to try new foods to build a dietary pattern with a variety of nutrient-dense foods. If a child is reluctant to try a new food, what is the best response?

A) Offer the new food again at a later meal and/or different day.

B) Enlist the support of other family members to coax the child to eat the new food.

C) Withhold dessert until the child eats a serving of the new food.

D) Quietly remove the new food and never offer it again.

32) The World Health Organization growth standards stress that ______ is the biological norm for infant nutrition.

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A) feeding infant formula B) feeding cows' milk C) feeding infant formula and cereal D) breastfeeding

33)

Physical indicators of an infant's readiness to add solid foods include A) All of these are indicators of an infant's readiness for solid food.

B) head and neck control.

C) disappearance of the extrusion reflex.

D) ability to sit with support.

34)

The most sensitive indicator of long-term nutritional status in a child is A) head circumference.

B) height.

C) fusion of growth plates.

D) weight.

35)

Which of the following is true about teens and vegetable consumption?

A) Most teens meet the recommendation to consume 5 servings of fruits and vegetables per day.

B) Potato chips and French fries make up more than one-third of the vegetable intake of teens.

C) Most teens meet the AI for fiber despite low vegetable intake.

D) Most of a teen's vegetable intake is from pizza sauce.

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36) In the United States, approximately _____ of school-age children have BMI-for-age in the overweight or obese ranges.

A) 1/3 B) 1/2 C) 1/10 D) 1/4

37)

Brain growth is most rapid during A) the first year of life.

B) adulthood.

C) adolescence.

D) the toddler years.

38) Arachidonic acid (ARA) and docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) are two long-chain fatty acids necessary for the development of A) the circulatory and respiratory systems.

B) the nervous system, brain, and eyes.

C) the endocrine and integumentary systems.

D) the muscles and bones.

39) Which of the following is a reliable indicator of generally good nutrition status in young children?

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A) The presence of subcutaneous fat B) Consumption of foods from several groups C) Regular gains in height and weight D) The child's interest in a variety of foods

40)

The treatment of childhood obesity typically involves

A) increasing physical activity.

B) reducing intake of sugar-sweetened beverages.

C) All the choices are correct.

D) switching from whole milk and full-fat dairy products to low-fat or fat-free dairy products.

41) With some adjustments to portion sizes, MyPlate is an appropriate guide for meal planning for school-age children as well as adults. ⊚ ⊚

42)

true false

Breast milk provides approximately ______ kilocalories per liter.

A) 480 B) 120 C) 360 D) 670

43) Crystal wants to help her preschool daughter, Violet, to eat more vegetables. Which of the following strategies could she try?

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A) Crystal should offer Violet new vegetables along with familiar foods.

B) All of these are strategies to encourage preschoolers to eat vegetables.

C) Crystal should avoid overcooking vegetables.

D) Crystal should show Violet that she likes vegetables.

44)

During the toddler years, many children are reluctant to try new foods. This trait is called A) food bias.

B) food neophobia.

C) a food jag.

D) food sensationalism.

45) Freddie is 8 months old and weighs 9 kilograms. He needs about ______ grams of protein per day.

A) 21 B) 15 C) 8 D) 11

46) The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that all infants should receive daily supplements of ______ until they take in this much from food sources.

A) 10 micrograms of vitamin D B) 3 milligrams of zinc C) 500 milligrams of calcium D) 11 milligrams of iron

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47)

Children on the autism spectrum are at risk for nutritional deficiencies because A) All of these are reasons children with ASD are at nutritional risk.

B) they may be placed on overly-restrictive diets in an attempt to treat their disorder.

C) they are prone to selective eating behaviors.

D) they commonly experience GI problems, such as diarrhea.

48) Beginning at 4 months of age, the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that exclusively breastfed infants should receive dietary supplements of ______ until they are regularly consuming rich food sources of this nutrient.

A) zinc B) calcium C) iron D) vitamin K

49) According to current growth charts, an infant can be expected to increase his or her birth length by ______ in 1 year.

A) 100% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75%

50)

Infants receive a dose of vitamin K at birth to A) support immune function.

B) reduce the risk of blood clots.

C) reduce the risk of hemorrhage.

D) promote bone health.

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51) Approximately what percentage of children with obesity remain obese through adulthood?

A) 20% B) 30% C) 40% D) 50%

52)

Foreign proteins that cause adverse reactions in the body are called A) antigens.

B) anaphylaxins.

C) albumins.

D) antibodies.

53) According to current growth charts, an infant can be expected to ______ his or her birth weight by 1 year of age.

A) triple B) quadruple C) double

54) is

To assess weight status in children 2 years of age and older, the most useful growth chart

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A) head circumference-for-age.

B) BMI-for-age.

C) height-for-age.

D) weight-for-age.

55) From birth to adulthood, relative energy needs (kilocalories per kilogram of body weight) gradually A) decrease.

B) increase

56) Susie is 3 years old. At her most recent checkup she was at the 20 height. This means that she is

th

percentile for

A) taller than 79 outof 100 girls her age.

B) shorter than 19out of 100 girls her age.

C) taller than 19 outof 100 girls her age.

D) taller than 20 outof 100 girls her age.

57) Which of the following is the best dietary strategy for safe and effective treatment of constipation during childhood?

A) Provide plant sources of fat, such as olive oil and coconut oil.

B) Provide fruit juices that contain sorbitol, such as prune juice, apple juice, and pear juice.

C) Provide adequate dairy foods, such as milk, yogurt, and cheese.

D) Provide adequate fluid and foods containing fiber, such as fruits, vegetables, legumes, and whole grains.

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58)

Which of the following istrue about snacks?

A) Distractions should be limited while snacking to prevent mindless eating.

B) All of these are true statements about snacks.

C) Snacks should be viewed as small, nutrient-dense meals.

D) Healthy snack choices help children to meet their high caloric requirements.

59) According to the American Academy of Pediatrics, caffeine intake should be limited to ______ for children.

A) 500 milligrams per day B) 300 milligrams per day C) No amount of caffeine is safe for children.

D) 100 milligrams per day

60) As solid foodis introduced, which of the following should be included in an infant's eating pattern?

A) Hot dogs B) Low-fat, vitamin D-fortified cow's milk C) Honey D) Iron-fortified infant cereal

61)

For infants (up to 12 months of age), the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends

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A) limiting fruit juice consumption to 4 fluid ounces per day.

B) limiting fruit juice consumption to 8 fluid ounces per day.

C) no fruit juice.

D) limiting fruit juice consumption to 6 fluid ounces per day.

62) In the short-term, gains in ________ are a good indicator of nutritional status. The best indicator of long-term nutritional status in a child is gains in ________.

A) height; head circumference B) weight; head circumference C) height; weight D) weight; height

63) Signs of an infant's readiness for solid food include the abilities to sit with support, control the head and neck, and move foods from the front to the back of the mouth. These typically occur at _____ of age.

A) 1 year B) 4 to 6 months C) 8 to 12 months D) 1 to 3 months

64) ______ refers to inadequate growth in an infant or child because of insufficient nutritional intake, inefficient nutrient absorption, or excessive energy expenditure.

A) Failure to thrive B) BMI rebound C) Weaning D) Early childhood caries

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65) Compared to children who skip breakfast, children who regularly eat breakfast have higher intakes of many vitamins and minerals, such as folate and iron. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) According to current growth charts, an infant will double his or her birth weight at about ______ months of age.

A) 2 B) 9 C) 5 D) 3

67)

Which of the following are strategies to prevent early childhood caries (i.e., cavities)?

A) Begin weaning an infant from bottle to cup around 12 months of age.

B) All of these are ways to prevent early childhood caries.

C) Do not put an infant to sleep with a bottle filled with breast milk orinfant formula.

D) Consult a pediatrician or dentist and provide fluoride supplements, if needed.

68)

Which of the following statements is true?

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A) Most infants with high weight-for-length will have a BMI in the obese range when they reach adulthood.

B) For infants with high weight-for-length, calories should be restricted to induce weight loss.

C) Most infants with high weight-for-length will have a BMI-for-age in the obese range when they reach preschool age.

D) Most infants with high weight-for-length will have a BMI-for-age in the normal range when they reach preschool age.

69) Eliza is a 6-year-old girl whose BMI-for-age falls at the 75th percentile on the BMI-forage growth chart. Eliza's weight status is described as A) healthy weight.

B) underweight.

C) overweight.

D) obese.

70)

Most females reach their full height A) before the onset of menstrual periods.

B) within 5 years after the onset of menstrual periods.

C) by the age of 13.

D) within 7 months of the onset of menstrual periods.

71) Approximately what percentage of adolescents with obesity remain obese through adulthood?

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A) 50% B) 90% C) 30% D) 80%

72) Which of the following terms refers to an eating disorder that is primarily diagnosed during childhood and involves a failure to meet energy and nutrient needs due to extremely selective eating patterns, resulting in significant weight loss, nutritional deficiencies, and/or reliance on tube or intravenous feeding?

A) Avoidant restrictive food intake disorder B) Food neophobia C) Autism spectrum disorder D) Rumination disorder

73)

For older children (ages 7 to 18), the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends A) limiting fruit juice consumption to 6 fluid ounces per day.

B) limiting fruit juice consumption to 16 fluid ounces per day.

C) consuming at least 8 fluid ounces per day of fruit juice.

D) limiting fruit juice consumption to 8 fluid ounces per day.

74)

Consuming too much protein may stress an infant's immature A) brain.

B) lungs.

C) heart.

D) kidneys.

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75) Which of the following feeding advice aligns with current evidence on reducing a child's risk for developing food allergies?

A) Delay the introduction of potentially allergenic foods (e.g., milk) until after 1 year of age B) Wait to introduce complementary foods until 4 to 6 months of age. At that time, even potential food allergens can be introduced in forms that are safe for infants to eat.

C) The mother should avoid potentially allergenic foods (e.g., peanuts) during pregnancy and breastfeeding.

D) Provide probiotic dietary supplements to infants.

76) A gluten-free, casein-free diet is a nutritional intervention under study for its potential to help children with A) disordered eating.

B) autism spectrum disorder.

C) type 1 diabetes mellitus.

D) childhood obesity.

77)

Which of the following statements about autism spectrum disorder (ASD) is true?

A) ASD can both affect and be affected by nutritional status.

B) Nutritional status may influence ASD symptoms.

C) Having ASD can negatively impact nutritional status.

78)

Which of the following foods are among the eight most common food allergens?

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A) Oranges, beef, and corn B) Milk, eggs, and wheat C) Strawberries, mangoes, and avocados D) Corn, sugar, and honey

79)

Infants require approximately ______ of fluid per day.

A) 3 cups B) 1 quart C) 8 cups D) 1 pint

80) If caregivers take a baby-led approach to introduction to solid foods, which of the following advice will help to ensure safety and nutritional adequacy for the infant?

A) All of these will help to ensure safety and nutritional adequacy with baby-led introduction to solid foods.

B) Offer one rich source of iron and one rich source of calories at each feeding.

C) Closely monitor the infant during feedings.

D) Offer relatively soft foods that the infant can pick up.

81)

Which of the following practices may help to reduce lead exposure?

A) Allowing cold water to run from the tap for 2 to 3 minutes after a long period of inactivity B) All of these strategies may help to reduce lead exposure.

C) Consuming a variety of whole grains, lean meats, and low-fat dairy products D) Ensuring adequate iron and calcium intakes

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82)

Typically, preterm infants will catch up in growth by ______ of age A) 4 to 5 years B) 1 year C) 6 months D) 2 to 3 years

83)

For toddlers (ages 1 to 3 years), the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends A) limiting fruit juice consumption to 6 fluid ounces per day.

B) limiting fruit juice consumption to 8 fluid ounces per day.

C) no fruit juice.

D) limiting fruit juice consumption to 4 fluid ounces per day.

84) Bennett is a 12-year-old boy whose BMI-for-age falls at the 90th percentile on the BMIfor-age growth chart. Bennett's weight status is described as A) overweight.

B) healthy weight.

C) obese.

D) underweight.

85) If an infant is unusually tired or fussy, he cries without producing tears, and his eyes appear sunken, you should suspect

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A) iron deficiency anemia.

B) iron toxicity.

C) dehydration.

D) vitamin D deficiency.

86)

Vitamin ______ is routinely given by injection to all infants at birth.

A) D B) A C) E D) K

87) According to the American Academy of Pediatrics and the Dietary Guidelines, the best age to introduce solid foods into the infant's dietary pattern is A) 1 month of age.

B) 8 months of age.

C) 6 months of age.

D) 4 months of age.

88) To help adolescents meet their increased RDA for calcium, the Healthy U.S.-Style Dietary Patterns indicate that adolescents should consume ______ of dairy foods (or fortified dairy alternatives) per day.

A) 1 cup B) 3 cups C) 2 cups D) 5 cups

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89) Iron-deficiency anemia in the latter part of infancy is most likely if the infant's dietary pattern includes A) few solid foods.

B) commercially available infant cereals.

C) marine sources of omega-3 fatty acids.

D) pureed or ground meats.

90)

Alcohol use during adolescence can result in A) liver damage.

B) all of these.

C) multiple nutrient deficiencies.

D) impaired brain development.

91)

For young children (ages 4 to 6), the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends A) consuming at least 8 fluid ounces per day of fruit juice.

B) limiting fruit juice consumption to 16 fluid ounces per day.

C) limiting fruit juice consumption to 6 fluid ounces per day.

D) limiting fruit juice consumption to 8 fluid ounces per day.

92)

Daily protein needs during infancy are approximately ______ grams per day.

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A) 5 to 10 B) 9 to 11 C) 15 to 25 D) 0.8 to 0.95

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 15_12e 1) A 2) A 3) A 4) B 5) A 6) C 7) D 8) B 9) C 10) C 11) C 12) A 13) D 14) A 15) FALSE 16) C 17) B 18) B 19) A 20) B 21) D 22) A 23) A 24) B 25) B 26) A Version 1

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27) C 28) A 29) D 30) D 31) A 32) D 33) A 34) B 35) B 36) A 37) A 38) B 39) C 40) C 41) TRUE 42) D 43) B 44) B 45) D 46) A 47) A 48) C 49) C 50) C 51) C 52) A 53) A 54) B 55) A 56) C Version 1

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57) D 58) B 59) D 60) D 61) C 62) D 63) B 64) A 65) TRUE 66) C 67) B 68) D 69) A 70) B 71) D 72) A 73) D 74) D 75) B 76) B 77) A 78) B 79) A 80) A 81) B 82) D 83) D 84) A 85) C 86) D Version 1

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87) C 88) B 89) A 90) B 91) C 92) B

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CHAPTER 16 1) The _____ Diet is a dietary intervention that shows promising results for protecting the brain against cognitive decline.

A) Paleo B) MIND C) Scholars D) gluten-free

2)

Which of the following is true about nutrition and Alzheimer's disease?

A) High intakes of choline can reverse Alzheimer's disease.

B) It is wise for others to oversee food planning and mealtimes to ensure nutritional adequacy.

C) High intakes of aluminum can cause Alzheimer's disease.

D) Strict adherence to the Mediterranean diet can prevent Alzheimer's disease.

3)

Which of the following is true about aging?

A) Development of chronic disease is not an inevitable consequence of aging.

B) Mathematical models have been designed that are very predictive of the aging process.

C) Aging is a disease.

D) The rate of aging is based on genetics and no amount of modifiable lifestyle behaviorscan alter it.

4)

Life expectancy in North America is about ______ years for men and ______ for women.

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A) 80; 84 B) 84; 80 C) 76; 81 D) 75; 75

5)

A loss of muscle mass accompanied by gains in fat mass is called A) cachexia.

B) sarcopenic obesity.

C) visceral obesity.

D) hypertrophy.

6)

Which of the following typically increases with aging?

A) Sense of thirst B) Immune function C) Fat stores D) Lean tissue mass

7) Throughout the aging process, optimal functioning of body organs decreases, but it may be years before organ decline is noticeable. This phenomena is referred to as A) reserve capacity.

B) organ repression.

C) compression of morbidity.

D) homeostasis.

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8) Meals provided by congregate or home-delivered meal programsare designed to provide ______ of the RDA or AI for nutrients.

A) one-third B) one-half C) 100% D) one-fourth

9)

Which of the following is not part of the DETERMINE acronym?

A) Multiple medications B) Economic hardship C) Depression D) Eating poorly

10) Barbara is 65 years of age, and her doctor finds her mental function is declining. Which of the following may improve her mental status?

A) Eating a primarily plant-based dietary pattern B) Maintaining a sedentary lifestyle C) Resting the brain and avoiding brain games D) Taking protein supplements

11)

Eatinghabits of older adults may be influenced by A) increased production of melatonin.

B) reduced taste sensitivity.

C) enhanced thirst response.

D) increased physical mobility.

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12)

What is the brain's preferred fuel source?

A) Oxygen B) Glucose C) Protein D) Lipid

13) Which of the following would be included in a basic plan for health promotion and disease prevention?

A) Consuming 3 to 5 ounces of alcohol daily B) Getting 4 to 6 hours of sleep a night C) Consuming a plant-focused dietary pattern D) Smoking e-cigarettes

14) When older adults cannot do 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity a week because of chronic conditions, A) they should consume a higher protein dietary pattern to stimulate muscle growth.

B) they should be as physically active as their abilities and conditions allow.

C) they should participate in muscle stimulation activities that do not increase their risk of poor outcomes.

D) they should reduce their caloric intake to compensate for the lack of physical activity.

15)

The decrease in lean tissue that occurs with aging can be reduced by

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A) engaging in physical activity that includes resistance exercise.

B) eating an abundance of calories.

C) taking amino acid supplements.

D) drinking enough water.

16) As she ages, Maude begins losing her senses of taste and smell. Which of the following is true about her situation?

A) It is inevitable that she will eventually lose all sense of taste and smell.

B) She can vary her dietary patterns to include more herbs and spices to help enhance the flavors and odors of foods.

C) The senses of taste and smell do not change with aging.

D) She will have to learn to accept that food will continue to taste more bland.

17) Consuming adequate amounts of protein and ______ helps maximize the health of the immune system in elderly individuals.

A) zinc B) copper C) calcium D) selenium

18) Declining production of stomach acid and intrinsic factor increases the risk for deficiency of ______ among older adults.

A) iron B) vitamin B-6 C) calcium D) vitamin B-12

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19) The benefits of home-delivered meal kits include convenience, minimal food waste, portion control, and meal variety—often at a lower cost than the same meal served at a restaurant. ⊚ ⊚

20)

true false

Among the older population, the fastest growing age group is A) 85 and older.

B) 65 to 75.

C) 60 to 65.

D) 75 to 80.

21)

The MIND Diet includes plenty of A) red meats.

B) fruits and vegetables.

C) All of these choices are correct.

D) whole milk.

22)

Life span refers to A) the delay of the onset of disabilities caused by chronic disease.

B) the oldest age a person can live.

C) the promotion of longevity through healthful lifestyle changes.

D) the average length of life for a cohort of people born in a specific year.

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23) Individuals over the age of 65 years and anyone with a chronic disease should not take dietary supplements unless under the guidance of a primary care provider. ⊚ ⊚

true false

24) Bud has trouble with his dentures that results in chewing difficulties. Which of the following foods would be most appropriate to help meet his nutritional needs?

A) Toast B) Low-fat yogurt C) Sirloin steak D) Clear bouillon

25)

Life expectancy refers to A) the promotion of longevity through healthful lifestyle changes.

B) the time an average person born in a specific year can expect to live.

C) the delay of the onset of disabilities caused by chronic disease.

D) the maximum number of years humans live.

26) One of the physiological changes of aging that often results in decreases in nutrient utilization is A) increased appetite.

B) poor dentition.

C) increased liver function.

D) increased body water.

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27)

Which of the following is an example of a medicationthat affects nutritional status?

A) Some antihypertensive medications decrease appetite.

B) Long-term use of antibiotics can decrease the population of bacteria that synthesizes vitamin K. C) Some pain medications cause blood clots, resulting in anemia.

D) Use of oral contraceptives can decrease a woman's requirements for calcium.

28) A mineral that is often deficient in the dietary pattern of U.S. adults and is linked to bone health, muscle function, mental health, cardiovascular disease, and diabetes is A) calcium.

B) zinc.

C) magnesium.

D) iron.

29) Edna, age 75, does not tolerate dairy products well. Which of the following practices would be most appropriate for Edna to increase her calcium levels?

A) Eliminate all dairy B) Eat more meat C) Decrease protein intake while increasing vitamin D D) Consume small amounts of low-fat milk and yogurt and calcium-fortified alternatives

30) Consuming food sources of omega-3 fatty acids areinvolved in biochemical pathways that ______ inflammationand are associated with a reduction in depression.

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A) do not change B) increase C) decrease

31)

The dietary manipulation that is most significantly related to longevity is A) high carbohydrate intake.

B) protein restriction.

C) calorie restriction.

D) low fat intake.

32)

The most common type of malnutrition during the adult years is ______ deficiency.

A) vitamin C B) vitamin K C) iron D) phytochemical

33)

Long-term aspirin use by an older person could increase the need for what nutrient?

A) Potassium B) Iron C) Thiamin D) Calcium

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34) Sara is a middle-aged woman of Northern European descent and is quite small in stature.

She eats plenty of fruits, vegetables, whole grains, plant sources of protein, and lean meats. What else could she do to live a more health-promoting lifestyle?

A) Take vitamin and mineral supplements.

B) Eat more vitamin E-laden fruits and vegetables.

C) Consume plenty of low-fat dairy or dairy-alternatives.

D) Eat more red meat.

35) Because older individuals need similar amounts of nutrients compared totheir younger counterparts but fewer calories, they should focus on dietary patterns that emphasize A) liquid calories.

B) energy density.

C) fat intake.

D) nutrient density.

36) Javier takes a diuretic to control his blood pressure, aspirin to prevent his blood clots, and an antibiotic for a recent sinus infection. Which of these may affect his vitamin K needs?

A) Antibiotic B) None of these C) Aspirin D) Diuretic

37) The ______ dietary pattern features an abundant intake of fruits, vegetables, whole grains, beans, nuts, and seeds.

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A) Mediterranean B) Western C) Atkins D) Ketogenic

38) The Dietary Guidelines advise adults to consume less than _____ milligrams of sodium per day.

A) 3500 B) 5000 C) 2300 D) 1500

39)

By 2040, the population aged 85+ years in the United States is expected to A) stay the same.

B) triple.

C) be reduced by 50%.

D) double.

40)

A single older adult who has been losing weight involuntarily may benefit from A) bed rest.

B) antidepressant medications.

C) low-dose aspirin.

D) participation in a congregate meal program.

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41) Home-delivered meal kits are gaining in popularity. What is a key benefit of these kits for consumers?

A) They require advanced cooking skills so budding chefs can enjoy these meals at home.

B) Overall, they are lower in cost than purchasing the same food at a local grocery market.

C) The companies pick up the food waste on their next delivery visit and share fresh compost with customers.

D) They are attractive for busy consumers with little time or novice cooking skills.

42)

Mack is constipated. Recommendations to alleviate constipationinclude A) drinking more fluid.

B) eating more refined grains.

C) eating 50 grams of fiber per day.

D) using mineral oil routinely and liberally.

43) The CDC reports that over _____% of older adults take at least one prescription medication daily, and _____% of all people over age 65 take five or more medicines each day.

A) 25; 10 B) 50; 25 C) 90; 40 D) 80; 25

44)

Which of the following is associated with aging?

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A) The risk of developing gallstones increases.

B) The digestive function of the pancreas improves.

C) High chromium intake impairs glucose tolerance.

D) The liver's detoxifying capacity increases.

45) What nutrient participates in the pathways that yield energy to fuel the brain, the myelination of nerve tissue, and the formation of neurotransmitters?

A) Iodine B) Iron C) Folate D) Omega-3 and Omega-6 fatty acids

46) Regular physical activity along with adequate intakes of fluid and fiber are lifestyle strategies to prevent or treat A) constipation.

B) gallstones.

C) diarrhea.

D) osteoarthritis.

47)

The process of aging is most likely the result of A) slow cell death.

B) acute death of an organ.

C) rapid cell multiplication.

D) complete death of the immune system.

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48)

Which of the following is not recommended as a component of the Mediterranean diet?

A) Plentiful intake of fruits and vegetables B) Moderate alcohol intake C) Frequent consumption of fish D) Coconut oil as the preferred fat source

49) Some researchers believe that damage to cells by free radicalsmay contribute to the aging process. Which of the following nutrients serves as an antioxidant that protects cells from these compounds?

A) Magnesium B) Vitamin K C) Vitamin E D) Vitamin B-12

50) Declining function of the ______ system directly affects an older adult's ability to shop for, prepare, and consume foods at home.

A) endocrine B) nervous C) immune D) reproductive

51)

Acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin are examples of

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A) neurotransmitters.

B) types of nerve tissue.

C) enzymes.

D) proteins.

52) The Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans provide guidelines specificallyfor older adults. Which of the following is one of these guidelines?

A) For those over age 55 who are at risk for falling, physical activities thatimprove endurance are recommended.

B) All adults should engage in moderate-intensity aerobic physical activity for at least 150 to 300 minutes per week, vigorous-intensity aerobic activity for 75 to 150 minutes per week, or an equivalent combination of the two.

C) Stretching each major muscle group should accompany aerobicor strength training at least 5 days per week.

D) To maintain lean tissue and basal metabolic rate, strength training should be performed 5 to 7 times per week.

53) Which of the following is akey recommendation by the Dietary Guidelines for Americans for adults?

A) Limit calories from added sugars and saturated fats and reduce sodium intake.

B) Focus on refined grains and animal proteins.

C) Shift to processed food and beverage choices.

D) Follow an energy-dense dietary pattern across one's life span.

54) Striving to live the greatest number of healthyyears and the fewest number of ill years is referred to as

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A) compression of morbidity.

B) usual aging.

C) reserve capacity.

D) maintaining homeostasis.

55) Research suggests that older adults probably require ______ the current RDA for protein for adults.

A) less than B) the same amount as C) more than

56) Adequate intake of high-quality protein ______ the rate of muscle breakdown associated with aging.

A) decreases B) does not affect C) increases

57)

Compared to individuals aged 19 to 50, adults over the age of 70 need _____ vitamin D. A) more B) the same amountof C) less

58)

Which of the following is true about thirst among older adults?

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A) Older individuals can easily become dehydrated and this can cause confusion.

B) Older people rarely become dehydrated because their sense of thirst is enhanced with aging.

C) Diuretics do not affect an older person's fluid requirement.

D) About six cups of fluid per day is the goal for older people.

59) A genetic tendencytoward efficient use of energy that resultsin below-average energy requirementsand increased storage of calories as fat is called A) homeostasis.

B) thrifty metabolism.

C) thrifty reserve.

D) energy reserve.

60) Which of the following would not be apractical suggestion for a single individual planning a dietary pattern?

A) Buying family-sized packages of meat B) Buying small containers of food C) Buying fruits at various stages of ripeness D) Cooking large amounts of food, dividing it into small portions, and freezing it

61)

Meals on Wheels is a nutrition program that A) provides nutrition education to older adults in senior centers.

B) provides free transportation to food pantries.

C) serves meals to older adults in a congregate setting.

D) delivers meals to older adults in their own homes.

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62)

Which of the following is true about U.S. dietary patterns since the mid-1950s?

A) We are eating more eggs.

B) We are eating less chicken and fish.

C) We are eating less cheese.

D) We are consuming less saturated fat.

63) A degenerative joint condition caused by a breakdown of joint cartilage that often results from repetitive motions or the pressure of excess body weight is termed A) gout.

B) rheumatoid arthritis.

C) osteoarthritis.

D) gallstones

64) The foundation for a dietary pattern that optimizes long-term nutritional health would emphasize A) refined-grainbreads and cereals.

B) animal proteins high in saturated fat.

C) a variety of fruits and vegetables.

D) high-fat dairy products.

65)

Which of the following occurs with aging?

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A) Copy errors in the cell cycle can lead to genetic mutations that cause protein dysfunction, resulting incell death.

B) The body has learned to fight off attacks on healthy cells, thus preserving maximum function.

C) Concentrations of many hormones, such as testosterone in men and estrogen in women, increasewith aging.

D) The immune system is more able to recognize and counteract foreignsubstances that enter the body.

66) After around age ______, the total calorie needs of physically inactive adults fall steadily throughoutadulthood.

A) 30 B) 70 C) 50 D) 20

67)

Elements from the National Institute on Aging include endurance, strength, balance, and A) yoga.

B) nutrient density.

C) mindfulness.

D) flexibility.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 16_12e 1) B 2) B 3) A 4) C 5) B 6) C 7) A 8) A 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) B 13) C 14) B 15) A 16) B 17) A 18) D 19) TRUE 20) A 21) B 22) B 23) TRUE 24) B 25) B 26) B Version 1

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27) B 28) C 29) D 30) C 31) C 32) C 33) B 34) C 35) D 36) A 37) A 38) C 39) D 40) D 41) D 42) A 43) C 44) A 45) B 46) A 47) A 48) D 49) C 50) B 51) A 52) B 53) A 54) A 55) C 56) A Version 1

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57) A 58) A 59) B 60) A 61) D 62) D 63) C 64) C 65) A 66) A 67) D

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