TTEST BANK for The Human Body in Health & Illness 7th Edition by Barbara Herlihy - Complete

TEST BANK

TEST BANK

Chapter 01: Introduction to the Human Body Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is the branch of science that studies how the body functions? a. Anatomy b. Histology c. Pathology d. Physiology ANS: D

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2. Which word comes from the Greek word meaning “to dissect”? a. Anatomy b. Histology c. Pathology d. Physiology ANS: A

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3. Which of the following is a higher order of organization? a. Molecule b. Cell c. Organ d. Tissue ANS: C

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4. The head is located ___________ to the chest. a. anterior b. inferior c. deep d. superior ANS: D

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5. The foot is located ____________ to the leg. a. proximal b. superior c. superficial d. distal ANS: D

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6. The leg is ___________ to the thigh. a. distal b. proximal c. superior d. deep ANS: A

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7. The thigh is ___________ to the foot. a. distal b. proximal c. inferior d. deep ANS: B

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8. The thoracic cavity is ___________ to the abdominopelvic cavity. a. deep b. distal c. anterior d. superior ANS: D

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9. The kneecap is located distal to the: a. leg. b. thigh. c. foot. d. toes.

ANS: B

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10. Which organ is located in both the ventral and thoracic cavities? a. Stomach b. Liver c. Lung d. Spinal cord ANS: C

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11. Which organ is located in the ventral cavity but not in the thoracic cavity? a. Lung b. Heart c. Liver d. Brain ANS: C

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12. Which organ is located in the dorsal cavity? a. Liver b. Brain c. Heart d. Urinary bladder ANS: B

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13. Which of the following is descriptive of the location of the reproductive organs? a. Dorsal cavity and vertebral cavity b. Mediastinum and the thoracic cavity c. Ventral cavity and pelvic cavity

d. Pleural cavity and mediastinum ANS: C

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14. Which cavity is divided into quadrants? a. Thoracic b. Abdominopelvic c. Dorsal d. Cranial ANS: B

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15. Which region is included within the right upper quadrant (RUQ)? a. Umbilical b. Hypogastric c. Right iliac d. Right hypochondriac ANS: D

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16. Which region is included within the left lower quadrant (LLQ)? a. Umbilical b. Left hypochondriac c. Epigastric d. Left iliac ANS: D

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17. Which of the following refers to the umbilicus? a. Groin b. Armpit c. Navel d. Patellar ANS: C

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18. Which of the following refers to the lower back region? a. Groin b. Axillary c. Umbilical d. Lumbar ANS: D

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19. Which of the following refers to the groin region? a. Axillary b. Lumbar c. Cranial d. Inguinal ANS: D

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20. Which of the following refers to the area in front of the elbow?

a. b. c. d.

Axillary Brachial Antecubital Popliteal

ANS: C

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21. Which area appears only on the anterior part of the body? a. Popliteal b. Umbilical c. Lumbar d. Occipital ANS: B

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22. Which area appears only on the posterior part of the body? a. Gluteal b. Patellar c. Umbilical d. Sternal ANS: A

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23. Which area is inferior to the diaphragm? a. Axillary b. Inguinal c. Occipital d. Cervical ANS: B

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24. What is another name for the frontal plane? a. Sagittal plane b. Cross section c. Transverse plane d. Coronal plane ANS: D

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25. Which plane divides the body into right and left halves? a. Sagittal b. Coronal c. Transverse d. Frontal ANS: A

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26. In which cavity is the mediastinum located? a. Pelvic b. Dorsal c. Thoracic d. Abdominal

ANS: C

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27. Which organ is located within the mediastinum? a. Lungs b. Stomach c. Liver d. Heart ANS: D

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28. In which cavity is the heart not located? a. Mediastinum b. Thoracic cavity c. Ventral cavity d. Dorsal cavity ANS: D

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29. Which organ is located in the ventral cavity and thoracic cavity but not in the mediastinum? a. Lung b. Liver c. Stomach d. Heart ANS: A

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30. Which group is incorrect? a. Planes: transverse, sagittal, frontal b. Cavities: dorsal, ventral c. Ventral cavities: thoracic, vertebral d. Organs: heart, stomach, lungs, brain ANS: C

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31. Which group is incorrect? a. Cavities: dorsal, ventral b. Ventral cavities: thoracic, abdominopelvic c. Organ systems: circulatory, digestive, respiratory, brain d. Organs: heart, stomach, lungs, liver ANS: A

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32. Which group is incorrect? a. Planes: sagittal, frontal, transverse b. Ventral cavities: thoracic, abdominopelvic, cranial c. Dorsal cavities: cranial, vertebral d. Organ systems: circulatory, digestive, respiratory ANS: B

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33. The distal humerus (arm bone) is: a. closer to the axillary area than to the elbow. b. closer to the wrist than to the antecubital area.

c. distal to the wrist. d. closer to the elbow than to the axillary area.

ANS: D

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34. The proximal end of the thigh bone (femur) is: a. distal to the knee. b. closer to the knee than to the inguinal area. c. distal to the pedal area. d. closer to the inguinal area than to the umbilical area.

ANS: D

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35. The lung is located in the thoracic cavity. What is the relationship of the lung to the head? a. Inferior b. Deep c. Anterior d. Superior ANS: A

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36. Which of the following is superior to the umbilicus? a. Groin b. Popliteal area c. Sternal area d. Pelvic cavity ANS: C

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37. The heart is located in all the following except the: a. mediastinum. b. ventral cavity. c. cranial cavity. d. thoracic cavity.

ANS: C

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38. The lungs are located in all the following except the: a. thoracic cavity. b. mediastinum. c. ventral cavity. d. pleural cavity.

ANS: B

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39. Which of the following is true of the dorsal cavity? a. It contains the mediastinum. b. It contains the brain and spinal cord. c. It contains the thoracic cavity. d. It is smaller than the cranial cavity.

ANS: B

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40. The sternal area is: a. superior to the cervical region. b. the breastbone area. c. deep to the mediastinum. d. inferior to the thoracic cavity.

ANS: B

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41. Which of the following is descriptive of the mediastinum? a. Thoracic cavity b. Dorsal cavity c. Abdominopelvic cavity d. RUQ ANS: A

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42. The sagittal plane: a. is also called the coronal plane. b. splits the body into a top and bottom. c. splits the body into front and back. d. splits the body into right and left.

ANS: D

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43. Which of the following is least descriptive of the occipital area? a. Cranial b. Midepigastric c. Posterior head d. Superior to the cervical area ANS: B

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44. A patient has been in a car wreck and is admitted to the emergency department with a chief

complaint of severe cervical pain accompanied by loss of sensation in all extremities. Which of the following indicates the site of pain? a. Lower back b. Both knees c. Neck d. RUQ ANS: C

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45. The LUQ is: a. inferior to the sternal area. b. inferior to the epigastric region. c. inferior to the umbilical region. d. located in the groin.

ANS: A

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46. Which of the following describes pain that is located immediately below the shoulder blade? a. Cervical b. Lumbar

c. Flank pain d. Subscapular ANS: D

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47. Which of the following is superior to the lumbar region? a. Scapular b. Inguinal c. Popliteal d. Gluteal ANS: A

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48. A 26-year-old man is scheduled for the surgical repair of a right inguinal hernia. Which of the

following areas is involved surgically? a. RUQ b. Umbilical region c. Right iliac region d. Right hypochondriac region ANS: C

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49. Refer to the previous question. On the first postoperative day, the patient is most likely to

experience pain when he: a. brushes his teeth. b. eats breakfast. c. walks. d. speaks on the phone.

ANS: C

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50. A physician has diagnosed a patient as having an enlarged liver. According to the patient’s

chart, his liver is measured as being two fingers below the costal margin of the rib cage.

Where was the physician palpating (feeling) to get this measurement? a. Umbilical region b. LUQ c. Hypogastric region d. RUQ ANS: D

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51. A patient was admitted to the emergency department and the physician recorded the patient’s

pain as being substernal, radiating to the left axillary region. Which of the following is a restatement of this description? a. The pain is sharp and is associated with nausea and vomiting. b. The pain is indicative of an inguinal hernia. c. The pain begins in the chest and radiates to the left flank and medial thigh. d. The pain originates behind the breastbone and radiates to the left armpit area.

ANS: D

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52. A patient with a history of gallbladder disease complains of midepigastric pain that radiates to

the right subscapular region. Which of the following best describes the pain?

a. b. c. d.

High abdominal pain that radiates to the groin Crushing chest pain Aching pain behind the breastbone, radiating to the left shoulder High abdominal pain, radiating to below the right shoulder blade area

ANS: D

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53. Which plane preserves an upper and lower half of the body? a. Transverse plane b. Coronal plane c. Frontal plane d. Midsagittal ANS: A

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54. Which of the following is contained in the ventral cavity? a. Thoracic cavity b. Pleural cavities c. Abdominopelvic cavity d. All are correct ANS: D

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55. Which of the following is true? a. The wrist is proximal to the elbow. b. The distal humerus (arm bone) is closer to the axilla than to the elbow. c. The proximal thigh bone is closer to the hip than to the knee. d. The distal tibia (shin bone) is closer to the knee than to the ankle.

ANS: C

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56. Which of the following is true? a. The distal thigh bone (femur) is closer to the hip than to the knee. b. The distal humerus (arm bone) is closer to the axilla than to the elbow. c. The distal shin bone (tibia) is closer to the ankle than to the knee. d. The lateral thigh is closer to the midline of the body than is the medial thigh.

ANS: C

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57. The medial thigh is located: a. along the plantar surface of the foot. b. along the inner surface of the upper extremity. c. on the inner thigh region. d. distal to the popliteal region.

ANS: C

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58. Which term refers to “beneath the ribs”? a. Iliac b. Inguinal c. Hypochondriac d. RLQ

ANS: C

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59. The term viscera refers to: a. the organs of the body. b. the cavities contained within the ventral cavity. c. the cavities contained within the thoracic cavity. d. the divisions of the abdominopelvic cavity.

ANS: A

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60. The ventral cavity is the anterior cavity; the ________ is the posterior cavity. a. thoracic cavity b. dorsal cavity c. pleural cavity d. mediastinum ANS: B

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61. The caudal part of the spinal cord is: a. superior to the thoracic part of the spinal cord. b. located near the tailbone. c. interior to the cervical spinal cord. d. located near the brain.

ANS: B

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62. Which of the following includes the right iliac region? a. RUQ b. Epigastric region c. Umbilical region d. RLQ ANS: D

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63. The medial canthus (corner) of the eye is: a. located near the nose. b. located near the ear. c. superior to the eyebrow. d. inferior to the eyelid.

ANS: A

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64. The plantar region is: a. located in the upper extremities. b. the bottom of the foot. c. proximal to the knee. d. the groin.

ANS: B

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65. Which two words are directional “opposites”? a. Proximal, femoral b. Caudal, cephalic

c. Distal, peripheral d. Anterior, superficial ANS: B

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66. Pedal, patellar, popliteal, and plantar are terms that refer to: a. lower extremities areas. b. arm. c. toes. d. structures that are proximal to the kneecap.

ANS: A

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67. Which of the following terms refers to the area along the lateral trunk between the ribs and the

hip bones? a. Inguinal b. Visceral c. Flank d. Gluteal ANS: C

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68. Buccal, oral, and orbital are terms that refer to the structures in the: a. neck. b. head. c. flank. d. inguinal area.

ANS: B

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69. With which word is lower back pain associated? a. Flank b. Inguinal c. Lumbar d. Popliteal ANS: C

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Chapter 02: Basic Chemistry Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is located in the orbits surrounding the nucleus? a. Isotopes b. Protons c. Electrons d. Neutrons ANS: C

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2. Which of the following is a measurement of hydrogen ion concentration [H+]? a. Atomic number b. Atomic mass c. Isotope d. pH ANS: D

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3. The sharing of electrons is referred to as: a. covalent bonding. b. ionic bonding. c. radioactive decay. d. isotope formation.

ANS: A

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4. Which element must be present for a substance to be classified as organic? a. Iodine b. Iron c. Carbon d. Calcium ANS: C

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5. A cation is a(n): a. positively charged ion. b. electrolyte. c. isotope. d. ion that has an atomic mass of 2.

ANS: A

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6. Which of the following is an anion? a. Sodium ion b. Potassium ion c. Chloride ion d. Calcium ion ANS: C

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7. What kind of ion would have 8 protons in its nucleus and 9 electrons in its orbits? a. Cation b. Electrolyte c. Acid d. Anion ANS: D

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8. Which of the following is true of an anion? a. An anion always ionizes to form electrolytes. b. An anion always has an atomic mass of 15. c. An anion carries a negative charge. d. A hydrogen ion is an anion.

ANS: C

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9. NaCl, table salt, is called a(n): a. anion. b. electrolyte. c. cation. d. ion.

ANS: B

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10. Which process refers to the dissociation of NaCl into Na+ and Cl–? a. Radioactivity b. Ionization c. Covalent bonding d. Hydrogen bonding ANS: B

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11. Which of the following is descriptive of the chemical reaction in the previous question? a. Cation + anion → electrolyte b. Electrolyte → cation + anion c. Electrolyte + anion → cation d. Neutralization of an acid by a base ANS: B

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12. Which of the following is an anion? a. NaCl b. KCl c. H2SO4 d. HCO3– ANS: D

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13. Bases can be classified as being: a. acidic or alkaline. b. weak or strong.

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c. neutral or biased. d. reactive or passive.

ANS: B

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14. Which of the following represents bicarbonate, an anion that is important in acid–base

regulation? a. HCl b. Ca(OH)2 c. HCO3– d. KCl ANS: C

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15. Which compound is the universal solvent? a. Carbon dioxide b. Oxygen c. ATP d. Water ANS: D

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16. [H+] refers to: a. an isotope of hydrogen. b. heavy hydrogen. c. hydrogen bonding. d. hydrogen ion concentration.

ANS: D

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17. Which compound is a waste product of cellular metabolism? a. Oxygen b. Carbon dioxide c. Catalyst d. ATP ANS: B

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18. Which of the following increases the speed of a chemical reaction but is itself not used up in

the chemical reaction? a. An isotope b. A cation c. A catalyst d. ATP ANS: C

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19. What is the energy-transferring molecule? a. H+ b. ATP c. Ca2+ d. NaCl

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ANS: B

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20. Which of the following acts as a catalyst? a. An acid b. An enzyme c. A buffer d. ATP ANS: B

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21. Fe2+ is formed when iron: a. gains 2 protons. b. gains 2 electrons. c. loses 2 protons. d. loses 2 electrons.

ANS: D

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22. Which of the following is true of Na+? a. It is an anion. b. It is an electrolyte. c. It bonds ionically with Ca2+. d. It is a cation.

ANS: D

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23. Which of the following carries lopsided charge? a. An anion b. A cation c. A polar molecule d. An ion ANS: C

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24. Which of the following illustrates antacid activity? a. NaCl → Na+ + Cl– b. HCl → H+ + Cl–c. Mg(OH)2 + HCl → MgCl2 + H2O d. KCl → K+ + Cl– ANS: C

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25. Zinc, selenium, cobalt, and iodine are all: a. trace elements. b. compounds. c. radioactive. d. isotopes of hydrogen.

ANS: A

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26. Iron can be a(n): a. anion.

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b. electrolyte. c. acid. d. cation.

ANS: D

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27. Which of the following is described by this statement? One atom of oxygen bonds covalently

with two atoms of hydrogen. a. Carbon dioxide b. A tincture c. Water d. Neutralization of an acid with a base ANS: C

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28. A solution that has a pH of 6.8: a. has a neutral pH. b. is alkaline. c. is basic. d. is acidic.

ANS: D

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29. What happens when HCl is added to a solution with a pH of 7.45? a. The pH will be higher than 7.45. b. The solution will become more alkaline. c. The [H+] of the solution will increase. d. The pH will be higher than 8.0.

ANS: C

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30. Which pH is considered neutral? a. 7.35 b. 7.45 c. 7.00 d. 14.0 ANS: C

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31. Blood has a pH range of 7.35 to 7.45 and therefore: a. is acidic. b. is three to four times more viscous (thicker) than water. c. has a pH that is similar to urine and stomach contents. d. is alkaline.

ANS: D

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32. As assessment of a patient’s electrolytes is performed by collecting a sample of the patient’s: a. saliva. b. urine. c. blood. d. hair follicles.

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ANS: C

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33. In which of the following is the number of hydrogen ions greater? a. An alkaline solution b. A basic solution c. Blood d. A solution with a pH of 6.2 ANS: D

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34. An atom has 2 protons, 2 neutrons, and 2 electrons; it has an atomic: a. number of 6. b. mass of 2. c. mass of 4. d. number of 4.

ANS: C

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35. An atom has 1 proton, 0 neutrons, and 1 electron; its isotope has: a. 2 electrons and 0 neutrons. b. 2 protons and 2 neutrons. c. 1 proton and 1 neutron. d. 2 protons and 0 neutrons.

ANS: C

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36. An atom has 1 proton, 0 neutrons, and 1 electron. What will convert this atom to a cation? a. Add 1 neutron. b. Add 1 proton. c. Lose 1 electron. d. Add 1 proton, 2 neutrons, and 1 electron.

ANS: C

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37. The heart pushes blood into the blood vessels as chemical energy is converted to which form

of energy? a. Thermal b. Radiant c. Mechanical d. Nuclear ANS: C

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38. Which of the following best describes a solution in which water is the solvent? a. Colloidal suspension b. Aqueous solution c. Tincture d. Isotope ANS: B

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39. Which of the following best describes a solution in which alcohol is the solvent? a. Tincture

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b. Alkaline c. Acid d. Aqueous ANS: A

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40. A combination of sugar granules and iron filings is best described as a(n): a. mixture. b. colloidal suspension. c. tincture. d. isotope.

ANS: A

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41. Which of the following can neutralize H+? a. Ca2+ b. Na+ c. OH– d. H2O ANS: C

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42. Which of the following is incorrect? a. Mixtures: suspension, colloidal suspension, solution b. Ions: Na+, Cl–, Ca2+, K+ c. Electrolytes: NaCl, KCl, CaCl2, HCO3– d. Cations: Na+, Ca2+, K+, H+ ANS: C

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43. The ionization of salt (NaCl): a. produces an acid and a base. b. produces an electrolyte. c. lowers pH. d. produces a cation and an anion.

ANS: D

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44. Which of the following is true of iodine and radioactive iodine? a. Both have the same atomic numbers. b. Both have the same atomic masses. c. Neither has electrons in its orbit. d. Both create radiation hazards.

ANS: A

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45. Which of the following is true of Na+? a. Called the sodium ion. b. Has fewer protons than electrons. c. Called an anion. d. Lowers pH. ANS: A

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46. Which of the following is true of Cl–? a. Is an electrolyte. b. Is an anion. c. Increases pH. d. Decreases pH. ANS: B

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47. Which of the following is most descriptive of HCl? a. Is called bicarbonate. b. Is an acid. c. Raises pH. d. Dissociates into Na+ and Cl–.

ANS: B

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48. Water is a(n): a. molecule. b. aqueous solvent. c. compound. d. All are correct ANS: D

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49. An atom that has 3 protons, 4 neutrons, and 3 electrons: a. has an atomic mass of 7. b. is a cation. c. has an atomic number of 4. d. has an atomic number of 10.

ANS: A

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50. An atom has 3 protons, 4 neutrons, and 3 electrons; another atom has 3 protons, 3 neutrons,

and 3 electrons. Which of the following is most descriptive of this pair of atoms? a. Mixture b. Cation c. Electrolyte d. Isotope ANS: D

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51. An atom has 4 protons, 4 neutrons, and 4 electrons. It: a. has an atomic number of 8. b. is a cation. c. has an atomic mass of 12. d. has an atomic mass of 8.

ANS: D

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52. ATP: a. is a buffer, removing H+ from solution. b. is an energy transfer molecule.

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c. is a radioactive isotope of phosphate. d. ionizes to H+, thereby lowering pH. ANS: B

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53. Which of the following is most descriptive of the nucleus of the atom? a. Contents determine the atomic number b. Contents determine the atomic mass c. “Home” of the protons d. All are correct ANS: D

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54. Which of the following is most descriptive of ionic and covalent? a. Types of bonding in which the electrons are shared. b. Types of bonding in which the electrons are swapped. c. Types of bonding. d. Types of bonding found only in reactions in which H+ is produced.

ANS: C

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55. An electrolyte: a. dissociates into ions. b. yields only cations. c. always yields H+ and lowers pH. d. always removes H+ and increases pH. ANS: A

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56. A catalyst: a. is an H+-yielding molecule. b. is an acid. c. is an alkali. d. increases the speed of a chemical reaction.

ANS: D

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57. Which of the following is most descriptive of the function of an enzyme? a. Neutralization b. Ionization c. Catalyst d. pH ANS: C

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58. A patient with a blood pH of 7.28: a. has an excess of H+ ions. b. has a blood pH that is within normal limits. c. is alkalotic. d. has a blood pH that indicates a deficiency of acid.

ANS: A

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59. A solution with a pH of 8: a. is more acidic than blood. b. is more acidic than stomach contents. c. has more H+ than urine. d. is more alkaline than blood.

ANS: D

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60. The pH of urine: a. is always more alkaline than blood. b. is always acidic. c. can be acidic or alkaline. d. is more acidic than stomach contents.

ANS: C

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61. The addition of H+ to blood: a. increases blood pH. b. makes the blood more acidic. c. makes the blood more alkaline. d. changes the blood pH from 7.4 to 7.8.

ANS: B

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62. Blood is called a colloidal suspension because: a. it has a pH of 7.4. b. it is alkaline. c. it consists of the suspended plasma proteins. d. it consists of the sodium and chloride ions.

ANS: C

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63. Which of the following is correct about the following reaction: NaCl  Na+ + Cl–? a. Neutralization b. Ionization c. Anabolic d. Irreversible ANS: B

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64. An atom of oxygen has an atomic number of 8. Therefore: a. it can share electrons with another identical atom. b. it can share electrons with another oxygen atom. c. it can form O2. d. All are correct ANS: D

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65. An atom of oxygen shares its outer shell electrons with two hydrogen atoms thereby: a. forming an acid. b. ionizing. c. forming a molecule of water.

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d. forming an anion and cation.

ANS: C

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66. A molecule of water has a (+) charge at one and a (–) charge at the other end of the molecule.

What is the best description? a. Radioactive b. Tincture c. Polar molecule d. Ionization ANS: C

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67. Intestinal secretions are alkaline. What can decrease its pH? a. The addition of H+ in the form of HCl b. Drinking baking soda (NaHCO3) c. Neutralization of gastric (stomach) HCl d. Drinking lots of water ANS: A

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68. What do the following have in common: Pb, plumbism, and plumber? All terms refer to: a. persons who work with pipes. b. toxic effects of a trace element. c. toxic cations. d. lead.

ANS: D

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69. Which group is correct? a. Subatomic particles located within the nucleus: protons, neutrons, electrons b. Common cations: Na+, K+, HCO –, NH + 3

4

c. Common molecules: O2, N2, H2O d. Bases: NaOH, Na HCO3–, HCl ANS: C

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70. Which of the following is most descriptive of a precipitate that forms during a chemical

reaction? a. Acid b. Base c. Solid d. Solution ANS: C

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71. In the reaction HCl → H+ + Cl–: a. HCl ionizes, thereby yielding the cation (H+) and anion (Cl–). b. hydrochloric acid dissociates into an anion and cation. c. HCl dissociates into a hydrogen ion and chloride ion. d. All are correct ANS: D

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72. Which group is correct? a. Blood pH 7.50, alkaline, turns litmus paper pink b. Blood pH 7.2, acidosis, turns litmus paper pink c. Blood pH 7.35, normal blood pH, turns litmus paper blue d. More than one of the options are true.

ANS: C

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Chapter 01: Introduction to the Human Body Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is the branch of science that studies how the body functions? a. Anatomy b. Histology c. Pathology d. Physiology ANS: D 2. Which word comes from the Greek word meaning “to dissect”? a. Anatomy b. Histology c. Pathology d. Physiology ANS: A 3. Which of the following is a higher order of organization? a. Molecule b. Cell c. Organ d. Tissue ANS: C

4. The head is located a. anterior b. inferior c. deep d. superior

NURSINGTB.COM to the chest.

ANS: D 5. The foot is located a. proximal b. superior c. superficial d. distal

to the leg.

ANS: D 6. The leg is a. distal b. proximal c. superior d. deep ANS: A

to the thigh.

7. The thigh is a. distal b. proximal c. inferior d. deep

to the foot.

ANS: B 8. The thoracic cavity is a. deep b. distal c. anterior d. superior

to the abdominopelvic cavity.

ANS: D 9. The kneecap is located distal to the a. leg. b. thigh. c. foot. d. toes.

ANS: B 10. Which organ is located in both the ventral and thoracic cavities? a. Stomach b. Liver NURSINGTB.COM c. Lung d. Spinal cord ANS: C

11. Which organ is located in the ventral cavity but not in the thoracic cavity? a. Lung b. Heart c. Liver d. Brain ANS: C 12. Which organ is located in the dorsal cavity? a. Liver b. Brain c. Heart d. Urinary bladder ANS: B 13. Which of the following is descriptive of the location of the reproductive organs? a. Dorsal cavity and vertebral cavity b. Mediastinum and the thoracic cavity c. Ventral cavity and pelvic cavity

d. Pleural cavity and mediastinum ANS: C 14. Which cavity is divided into quadrants? a. Thoracic b. Abdominopelvic c. Dorsal d. Cranial ANS: B 15. Which region is included within the right upper quadrant (RUQ)? a. Umbilical b. Hypogastric c. Right iliac d. Right hypochondriac ANS: D 16. Which region is included within the left lower quadrant (LLQ)? a. Umbilical b. Left hypochondriac c. Epigastric d. Left iliac ANS: D 17. Which of the following r efer N s tU oR thS eI um NbGilTicBus.?COM a. Groin b. Armpit c. Navel d. Patellar ANS: C 18. Which of the following refers to the lower back region? a. Groin b. Axillary c. Umbilical d. Lumbar ANS: D 19. Which of the following refers to the groin region? a. Axillary b. Lumbar c. Cranial d. Inguinal ANS: D 20. Which of the following refers to the area in front of the elbow?

a. b. c. d.

Axillary Brachial Antecubital Popliteal

ANS: C 21. Which area appears only on the anterior part of the body? a. Popliteal b. Umbilical c. Lumbar d. Occipital ANS: B 22. Which area appears only on the posterior part of the body? a. Gluteal b. Patellar c. Umbilical d. Sternal ANS: A 23. Which area is inferior to the diaphragm? a. Axillary b. Inguinal c. Occipital d. Cervical

NURSINGTB.COM

ANS: B

24. What is another name for the frontal plane? a. Sagittal plane b. Cross section c. Transverse plane d. Coronal plane ANS: D 25. Which plane divides the body into right and left halves? a. Sagittal b. Coronal c. Transverse d. Frontal ANS: A 26. In which cavity is the mediastinum located? a. Pelvic b. Dorsal c. Thoracic d. Abdominal

ANS: C 27. Which organ is located within the mediastinum? a. Lungs b. Stomach c. Liver d. Heart ANS: D 28. In which cavity is the heart not located? a. Mediastinum b. Thoracic cavity c. Ventral cavity d. Dorsal cavity ANS: D 29. Which organ is located in the ventral cavity and thoracic cavity but not in the mediastinum? a. Lung b. Liver c. Stomach d. Heart ANS: A 30. Which group is incorrect? a. Planes: transverse, sagitta l, frontal

N R I G B.C M b. Cavities: dorsal, ventral U S N T O c. Ventral cavities: thoracic, vertebral d. Organs: heart, stomach, lungs, brain ANS: C

31. Which group is incorrect? a. Cavities: dorsal, ventral b. Ventral cavities: thoracic, abdominopelvic c. Organ systems: circulatory, digestive, respiratory, brain d. Organs: heart, stomach, lungs, liver ANS: C 32. Which group is incorrect? a. Planes: sagittal, frontal, transverse b. Ventral cavities: thoracic, abdominopelvic, cranial c. Dorsal cavities: cranial, vertebral d. Organ systems: circulatory, digestive, respiratory ANS: B 33. The distal humerus (arm bone) is a. closer to the axillary area than to the elbow. b. closer to the wrist than to the antecubital area.

c. distal to the wrist. d. closer to the elbow than to the axillary area.

ANS: D 34. The proximal end of the thigh bone (femur) is a. distal to the knee. b. closer to the knee than to the inguinal area. c. distal to the pedal area. d. closer to the inguinal area than to the umbilical area.

ANS: D 35. The lung is located in the thoracic cavity. What is the relationship of the lung to the head? a. Inferior b. Deep c. Anterior d. Superior ANS: A 36. Which of the following is superior to the umbilicus? a. Groin b. Popliteal area c. Sternal area d. Pelvic cavity ANS: C

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37. The heart is located in all the following except the a. mediastinum. b. ventral cavity. c. cranial cavity. d. thoracic cavity.

ANS: C

38. The lungs are located in all the following except the a. thoracic cavity. b. mediastinum. c. ventral cavity. d. pleural cavity.

ANS: B 39. Which of the following is true of the dorsal cavity? a. It contains the mediastinum. b. It contains the brain and spinal cord. c. It contains the thoracic cavity. d. It is smaller than the cranial cavity.

ANS: B

40. The sternal area is a. superior to the cervical region. b. the breastbone area. c. deep to the mediastinum. d. inferior to the thoracic cavity.

ANS: B 41. Which of the following is descriptive of the mediastinum? a. Thoracic cavity b. Dorsal cavity c. Abdominopelvic cavity d. RUQ ANS: A 42. The sagittal plane a. is also called the coronal plane. b. splits the body into a top and bottom. c. splits the body into front and back. d. splits the body into right and left.

ANS: D 43. Which of the following is least descriptive of the occipital area? a. Cranial b. Midepigastric c. Posterior head N R I G B.C M

U S N T

O

d. Superior to the cervical area ANS: B 44. A patient has been in a car wreck and is admitted to the emergency department with a chief

complaint of severe cervical pain accompanied by loss of sensation in all extremities. Which of the following indicates the site of pain? a. Lower back b. Both knees c. Neck d. RUQ ANS: C 45. The LUQ is a. inferior to the sternal area. b. inferior to the epigastric region. c. inferior to the umbilical region. d. located in the groin.

ANS: A 46. Which of the following describes pain that is located immediately below the shoulder blade? a. Cervical b. Lumbar

c. Flank pain d. Subscapular ANS: D 47. Which of the following is superior to the lumbar region? a. Scapular b. Inguinal c. Popliteal d. Gluteal ANS: A 48. A 26-year-old man is scheduled for the surgical repair of a right inguinal hernia. Which of the

following areas is involved surgically? a. RUQ b. Umbilical region c. Right iliac region d. Right hypochondriac region ANS: C 49. Refer to the previous question. On the first postoperative day, the patient is most likely to

experience pain when he a. brushes his teeth. b. eats breakfast. c. walks. d. speaks on the phone.

NURSINGTB.COM

ANS: C

50. A physician has diagnosed a patient as having an enlarged liver. According to the patient’s

chart, his liver is measured as being two fingers below the costal margin of the rib cage.

Where was the physician palpating (feeling) to get this measurement? a. Umbilical region b. LUQ c. Hypogastric region d. RUQ ANS: D 51. A patient was admitted to the emergency department and the physician recorded the patient’s

pain as being substernal, radiating to the left axillary region. Which of the following is a restatement of this description? a. The pain is sharp and is associated with nausea and vomiting. b. The pain is indicative of an inguinal hernia. c. The pain begins in the chest and radiates to the left flank and medial thigh. d. The pain originates behind the breastbone and radiates to the left armpit area.

ANS: D 52. A patient with a history of gallbladder disease complains of midepigastric pain that radiates to

the right subscapular region. Which of the following best describes the pain?

a. b. c. d.

High abdominal pain that radiates to the groin Crushing chest pain Aching pain behind the breastbone, radiating to the left shoulder High abdominal pain, radiating to below the right shoulder blade area

ANS: D 53. Which plane preserves an upper and lower half of the body? a. Transverse plane b. Coronal plane c. Frontal plane d. Midsagittal ANS: A 54. Which of the following is contained in the ventral cavity? a. Thoracic cavity b. Pleural cavities c. Abdominopelvic cavity d. All of the above ANS: D 55. Which of the following is true? a. The wrist is proximal to the elbow. b. The distal humerus (arm bone) is closer to the axilla than to the elbow. c. The proximal thigh bone is closer to the hip than to the knee. d. The distal tibia (shin bon e) is clo ser to th e k nee th an to the ankle.

N R I G B.C M U S N T O

ANS: C

56. Which of the following is true? a. The distal thigh bone (femur) is closer to the hip than to the knee. b. The distal humerus (arm bone) is closer to the axilla than to the elbow. c. The distal shin bone (tibia) is closer to the ankle than to the knee. d. The lateral thigh is closer to the midline of the body than is the medial thigh.

ANS: C 57. The medial thigh is located a. along the plantar surface of the foot. b. along the inner surface of the upper extremity. c. on the inner thigh region. d. distal to the popliteal region.

ANS: C 58. Which term refers to “beneath the ribs”? a. Iliac b. Inguinal c. Hypochondriac d. RLQ

ANS: C 59. The term viscera refers to a. the organs of the body. b. the cavities contained within the ventral cavity. c. the cavities contained within the thoracic cavity. d. the divisions of the abdominopelvic cavity.

ANS: A 60. The ventral cavity is the anterior cavity; the a. thoracic cavity b. dorsal cavity c. pleural cavity d. mediastinum ANS: B 61. The caudal part of the spinal cord is a. superior to the thoracic part of the spinal cord. b. located near the tailbone. c. interior to the cervical spinal cord. d. located near the brain.

ANS: B 62. Which of the following includes the right iliac region? a. RUQ NURSINGTB.COM b. Epigastric region c. Umbilical region d. RLQ ANS: D

63. The medial canthus (corner) of the eye is a. located near the nose. b. located near the ear. c. superior to the eyebrow. d. inferior to the eyelid.

ANS: A 64. The plantar region is a. located in the upper extremities. b. the bottom of the foot. c. proximal to the knee. d. the groin.

ANS: B 65. Which two words are directional “opposites”? a. Proximal, femoral b. Caudal, cephalic

is the posterior cavity.

c. Distal, peripheral d. Anterior, superficial ANS: B 66. Pedal, patellar, popliteal, and plantar are terms that refer to a. lower extremities areas. b. arm. c. toes. d. structures that are proximal to the kneecap.

ANS: A 67. Which of the following terms refers to the area along the lateral trunk between the ribs and the

hip bones? a. Inguinal b. Visceral c. Flank d. Gluteal ANS: C 68. Buccal, oral, and orbital are terms that refer to the structures in the a. neck. b. head. c. flank. d. inguinal area.

ANS: B

NURSINGTB.COM

69. With which word is lower back pain associated? a. Flank b. Inguinal c. Lumbar d. Popliteal ANS: C

Chapter 02: Basic Chemistry Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following are located in the orbits surrounding the nucleus? a. Isotopes b. Protons c. Electrons d. Neutrons ANS: C 2. Which of the following is a measurement of hydrogen ion concentration [H+]? a. Atomic number b. Atomic mass c. Isotope d. pH ANS: D 3. The sharing of electrons is referred to as a. covalent bonding. b. ionic bonding. c. radioactive decay. d. isotope formation.

ANS: A

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4. Which element must be present for a substance to be classified as organic? a. Iodine b. Iron c. Carbon d. Calcium ANS: C 5. A cation is a(n) a. positively charged ion. b. electrolyte. c. isotope. d. ion that has an atomic mass of 2.

ANS: A 6. Which of the following is an anion? a. Sodium ion b. Potassium ion c. Chloride ion d. Calcium ion ANS: C

7. What kind of ion would have 8 protons in its nucleus and 9 electrons in its orbits? a. Cation b. Electrolyte c. Acid d. Anion ANS: D 8. Which of the following is true of an anion? a. An anion always ionizes to form electrolytes. b. An anion always has an atomic mass of 15. c. An anion carries a negative charge. d. A hydrogen ion is an anion.

ANS: C 9. NaCl, table salt, is called a(n) a. anion. b. electrolyte. c. cation. d. ion.

ANS: B 10. Which process refers to the dissociation of NaCl into Na+ and Cl–? a. Radioactivity b. Ionization NURSINGTB.COM c. Covalent bonding d. Hydrogen bonding ANS: B

11. Which of the following is descriptive of the chemical reaction in the previous question? a. Cation + anion → electrolyte b. Electrolyte → cation + anion c. Electrolyte + anion → cation d. Neutralization of an acid by a base ANS: B 12. Which of the following is an anion? a. NaCl b. KCl c. H2SO4 d. HCO3– ANS: D 13. Which of the following represents bicarbonate, an anion that is important in acid–base

regulation? a. HCl

b. Ca(OH)2 c. HCO3– d. KCl ANS: C 14. Which compound is the universal solvent? a. Carbon dioxide b. Oxygen c. ATP d. Water ANS: D 15. [H+] refers to a. an isotope of hydrogen. b. heavy hydrogen. c. hydrogen bonding. d. hydrogen ion concentration.

ANS: D 16. Which compound is a waste product of cellular metabolism? a. Oxygen b. Carbon dioxide c. Catalyst d. ATP ANS: B

NURSINGTB.COM

17. Which of the following increases the speed of a chemical reaction but is itself not used up in

the chemical reaction? a. An isotope b. A cation c. A catalyst d. ATP ANS: C 18. What is the energy-transferring molecule? a. H+ b. ATP c. Ca2+ d. NaCl ANS: B 19. Which of the following acts as a catalyst? a. An acid b. An enzyme c. A buffer d. ATP

ANS: B 20. Fe2+ is formed when iron a. gains 2 protons. b. gains 2 electrons. c. loses 2 protons. d. loses 2 electrons.

ANS: D 21. Which of the following is true of Na+? a. It is an anion. b. It is an electrolyte. c. It bonds ionically with Ca2+. d. It is a cation.

ANS: D 22. Which of the following carries no net electrical charge? a. An anion b. A cation c. A polar molecule d. An ion ANS: C 23. Which of the following illustrates antacid activity? a. NaCl → Na+ + Cl– NURSINGTB.COM b. HCl → H+ + Cl– c. Mg(OH)2 + HCl → MgCl2 + H2O d. KCl → K+ + Cl– ANS: C 24. Zinc, selenium, cobalt, and iodine are all a. trace elements. b. compounds. c. radioactive. d. isotopes of hydrogen.

ANS: A 25. Iron can be a(n) a. anion. b. electrolyte. c. acid. d. cation.

ANS: D 26. Which of the following is described by this statement? One atom of oxygen bonds covalently

with two atoms of hydrogen.

a. b. c. d.

Carbon dioxide A tincture Water Neutralization of an acid with a base

ANS: C 27. A solution that has a pH of 6.8 a. has a neutral pH. b. is alkaline. c. is basic. d. is acidic.

ANS: D 28. What happens when HCl is added to a solution with a pH of 7.45? a. The pH will be higher than 7.45. b. The solution will become more alkaline. c. The [H+] of the solution will increase. d. The pH will be higher than 8.0.

ANS: C 29. Which pH is considered neutral? a. 7.35 b. 7.45 c. 7.00 d. 14.0

NURSINGTB.COM

ANS: C

30. Blood has a pH range of 7.35 to 7.45 and therefore a. is acidic. b. is three to four times more viscous (thicker) than water. c. has a pH that is similar to urine and stomach contents. d. is alkaline.

ANS: D 31. In which of the following is the number of hydrogen ions greater? a. An alkaline solution b. A basic solution c. Blood d. A solution with a pH of 6.2 ANS: D 32. An atom has 2 protons, 2 neutrons, and 2 electrons; it has an atomic a. number of 6. b. mass of 2. c. mass of 4. d. number of 4.

ANS: C 33. An atom has 1 proton, 0 neutrons, and 1 electron; its isotope has a. 2 electrons and 0 neutrons. b. 2 protons and 2 neutrons. c. 1 proton and 1 neutron. d. 2 protons and 0 neutrons.

ANS: C 34. An atom has 1 proton, 0 neutrons, and 1 electron. What will convert this atom to a cation? a. Add 1 neutron. b. Add 1 proton. c. Lose 1 electron. d. Add 1 proton, 2 neutrons, and 1 electron.

ANS: C 35. The heart pushes blood into the blood vessels as chemical energy is converted to which form

of energy? a. Thermal b. Radiant c. Mechanical d. Nuclear ANS: C 36. Which of the following best d e sc ri b e s a sol u t i on i n which water is the solvent?

N R I G B.C M a. Colloidal suspension U S N T O b. Aqueous solution c. Tincture d. Isotope ANS: B

37. Which of the following best describes a solution in which alcohol is the solvent? a. Tincture b. Alkaline c. Acid d. Aqueous ANS: A 38. A combination of sugar granules and iron filings is best described as a(n) a. mixture. b. colloidal suspension. c. tincture. d. isotope.

ANS: A 39. Which of the following can neutralize H+? a. Ca2+

b. Na+ c. OH– d. H2O ANS: C 40. Which of the following is incorrect? a. Mixtures: suspension, colloidal suspension, solution b. Ions: Na+, Cl–, Ca2+, K+ c. Electrolytes: NaCl, KCl, CaCl2, HCO3– d. Cations: Na+, Ca2+, K+, H+ ANS: C 41. The ionization of salt (NaCl) a. produces an acid and a base. b. produces an electrolyte. c. lowers pH. d. produces a cation and an anion.

ANS: D 42. Which of the following is true of iodine and radioactive iodine? a. Both have the same atomic numbers. b. Both have the same atomic masses. c. Neither has electrons in its orbit. d. Both create radiation hazards.

ANS: A

NURSINGTB.COM

43. Which of the following is true of Na+? a. Called the sodium ion b. Has fewer protons than electrons c. Called an anion d. Lowers pH ANS: A 44. Which of the following is true of Cl–? a. Is an electrolyte b. Is an anion c. Increases pH d. Decreases pH ANS: B 45. Which of the following is most descriptive of HCl? a. Is called bicarbonate b. Is an acid c. Raises pH d. Dissociates into Na+ and Cl– ANS: B

46. Water is a(n) a. molecule. b. aqueous solvent. c. compound. d. All of the above.

ANS: D 47. An atom that has 3 protons, 4 neutrons, and 3 electrons a. has an atomic mass of 7. b. is a cation. c. has an atomic number of 4. d. has an atomic number of 10.

ANS: A 48. An atom has 3 protons, 4 neutrons, and 3 electrons; another atom has 3 protons, 3 neutrons,

and 3 electrons. Which of the following is most descriptive of this pair of atoms? a. Mixture b. Cation c. Electrolyte d. Isotope ANS: D 49. An atom has 4 protons, 4 neutrons, and 4 electrons. It a. has an atomic number of 8 .

I G B.C M

N R S N T

U b. is a cation. c. has an atomic mass of 12. d. has an atomic mass of 8.

O

ANS: D 50. ATP a. b. c. d.

is a buffer, removing H+ from solution. is an energy transfer molecule. is a radioactive isotope of phosphate. ionizes to H+, thereby lowering pH.

ANS: B 51. Which of the following is most descriptive of the nucleus of the atom? a. Contents determine the atomic number b. Contents determine the atomic mass c. “Home” of the protons d. All of the above ANS: D 52. Which of the following is most descriptive of ionic and covalent? a. Types of bonding in which the electrons are shared b. Types of bonding in which the electrons are swapped

c. Types of bonding d. Types of bonding found only in reactions in which H+ is produced ANS: C 53. An electrolyte a. dissociates into ions. b. yields only cations. c. always yields H+ and lowers pH. d. always removes H+ and increases pH. ANS: A 54. A catalyst a. is an H+-yielding molecule. b. is an acid. c. is an alkali. d. increases the speed of a chemical reaction.

ANS: D 55. Which of the following is most descriptive of the function of an enzyme? a. Neutralization b. Ionization c. Catalyst d. pH ANS: C

NURSINGTB.COM

56. A patient with a blood pH of 7.28 a. has an excess of H+. b. has a blood pH that is within normal limits. c. is alkalotic. d. has a blood pH that indicates a deficiency of acid.

ANS: A 57. A solution with a pH of 8 a. is more acidic than blood. b. is more acidic than stomach contents. c. has more H+ than urine. d. is more alkaline than blood.

ANS: D 58. The pH of urine a. is always more alkaline than blood. b. is always acidic. c. can be acidic or alkaline. d. is more acidic than stomach contents.

ANS: C

59. The addition of H+ to blood a. increases blood pH. b. makes the blood more acidic. c. makes the blood more alkaline. d. changes the blood pH from 7.4 to 7.8.

ANS: B 60. Blood is called a colloidal suspension because a. it has a pH of 7.4. b. it is alkaline. c. it consists of the suspended plasma proteins. d. it consists of the sodium and chloride ions.

ANS: C 61. Which of the following is correct about the following reaction: NaCl  Na+ + Cl–? a. Neutralization b. Ionization c. Anabolic d. Irreversible ANS: B 62. An atom of oxygen has an atomic number of 8. Therefore a. it can share electrons with another identical atom. b. it can share electrons with another oxygen atom. c. it can form O2.

N R I G B.C M

U S N T

O

d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 63. An atom of oxygen shares its outer shell electrons with two hydrogen atoms thereby a. forming an acid. b. ionizing. c. forming a molecule of water. d. forming an anion and cation.

ANS: C 64. A molecule of water has a (+) charge at one and a (–) charge at the other end of the molecule.

What is the best description? a. Radioactive b. Tincture c. Polar molecule d. Ionization ANS: C 65. Intestinal secretions are alkaline. What can decrease its pH? a. The addition of H+ in the form of HCl b. Drinking baking soda (NaHCO3)

c. Neutralization of gastric (stomach) HCl d. Drinking lots of water ANS: A 66. What do the following have in common: Pb, plumbism, and plumber? All terms refer to a. persons who work with pipes. b. toxic effects of a trace element. c. toxic cations. d. lead.

ANS: D 67. Which group is correct? a. Subatomic particles located within the nucleus: protons, neutrons, electrons b. Common cations: Na+, K+, HCO –, NH + 3

4

c. Common molecules: O2, N2, H2O d. Bases: NaOH, Na HCO3–, HCl ANS: C 68. Which of the following is most descriptive of a precipitate that forms during a chemical

reaction? a. Acid b. Base c. Solid d. Solution ANS: C

NURSINGTB.COM

69. In the reaction HCl → H+ + Cl– a. HCl ionizes, thereby yielding the cation (H+) and anion (Cl–). b. hydrochloric acid dissociates into an anion and cation. c. HCl dissociates into a hydrogen ion and chloride ion. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 70. Which group is correct? a. Blood pH 7.50, alkaline, turns litmus paper pink b. Blood pH 7.2, acidosis, turns litmus paper pink c. Blood pH 7.35, normal blood pH, turns litmus paper blue d. More than one of the above are true.

ANS: C

Chapter 03: Cells Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is considered the control center of the cell? a. Mitochondrion b. Nucleus c. Lysosome d. Centriole ANS: B 2. The mitochondrion is called the power plant of the cell because

within the

mitochondrion. a. most of the ATP is produced b. all protein synthesis occurs c. all DNA is located d. all ribosomes are located ANS: A 3. Which of the following is (are) found on the rough endoplasmic reticulum? a. Ribosomes b. Cilia c. Lysosomes d. DNA

NURSINGTB.COM

ANS: A 4. The rough ER is the site of a. b. c. d.

fatty acid and steroid synthesis.

Krebs cycle activity. protein synthesis. intracellular water storage.

ANS: C 5. Which of the following is most associated with the ribosome? a. ATP production b. Intracellular housecleaning c. Glycogen storage d. Protein synthesis ANS: D 6. What is the transport mechanism in this description: A passive process that “pulls” water from

an area where there is more water to an area where there is less water? a. Filtration b. Endocytosis c. An ATP-driven pump

d. Osmosis ANS: D 7. What is the transport mechanism in this description: A passive process that uses a pressure

difference as its driving force? a. Facilitated diffusion b. An ATP-driven pump c. Diffusion d. Filtration ANS: D 8. A beaker is divided into two compartments by a semipermeable membrane. Compartment A

contains a 20% NaCl solution and compartment B contains a 50% NaCl solution. The membrane is permeable to water but not to Na + or Cl–. Initially, a. water diffuses from compartment B to compartment A. b. Na+ diffuses from compartment B to compartment A. c. Na+ diffuses from compartment A to compartment B. d. water diffuses from compartment A to compartment B. ANS: D 9. A beaker is divided into two compartments by a semipermeable membrane. Compartment A

contains a 20% NaCl solution and compartment B contains a 50% NaCl solution. The membrane is permeable to water but not to Na + or Cl–. At equilibrium, the a. volume of water in compartment A will be greater than the volume in compartment B. N R I G B.C M

U S N T

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b. volume in both compartments A and B will be equal. c. concentration of compartment A will decrease. d. volume in compartment B will be greater than the volume in compartment A. ANS: D 10. A beaker is divided into two compartments by a semipermeable membrane. Compartment A

contains a 20% NaCl solution while compartment B contains a 50% NaCl solution. The membrane is permeable to both water and Na + and Cl–. Initially, a. Na+ and Cl– diffuse from compartment B to compartment A. b. water diffuses from compartment B to compartment A. c. Na+ and Cl– diffuse from compartment A to compartment B. d. Na+ diffuses from compartment A to compartment B and Cl– diffuses from compartment B to compartment A. ANS: A 11. A beaker is divided into two compartments by a semipermeable membrane. Compartment A

contains a 20% NaCl solution and compartment B contains a 50% NaCl solution. The membrane is permeable to both water and Na + and Cl–. At equilibrium, the a. volume in compartment A will be greater than the volume in compartment B. b. volume in compartment B will be greater than the volume in compartment A. c. concentrations and volumes will be the same in both compartments. d. concentration of salt is greater in compartment A than in compartment B.

ANS: C 12. What are the hairlike structures located on the outer surface of the cell membrane? a. Mitochondria b. Ribosomes c. Cilia d. Centrioles ANS: C 13. What is the extensive internal membrane system that forms channels and is concerned with

the synthesis of protein and steroids? a. Mitochondria b. Lysosomes c. Endoplasmic reticulum d. DNA ANS: C 14. Lysosomes are filled with a. powerful enzymes that destroy cellular debris and pathogens. b. cilia. c. DNA. d. blood.

ANS: A 15. Which of the following best N d e s cU r orM driving force for active transport?

Rr i bSeIsNt hGTe poBw.eO C a. ATP b. Pressure c. DNA d. H+ ANS: A 16. What is the transport mechanism in this description: A passive process that uses a carrier

molecule to move a solute from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration? a. Osmosis b. An ATP-driven pump c. Filtration d. Facilitated diffusion ANS: D 17. What is the name of the process in which an intracellular protein–containing vesicle fuses

with the cell membrane and expels the protein to the outside of the cell? a. Endocytosis b. Pinocytosis c. Exocytosis d. Phagocytosis ANS: C

18. Which process describes phagocytosis and pinocytosis? a. Facilitated diffusion b. Endocytosis c. Filtration d. Exocytosis ANS: B 19. Which word means “the bursting of red blood cells”? a. Endocytosis b. Hemolysis c. Crenation d. Catalyst ANS: B 20. If a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution such as water, the cell will a. crenate. b. shrink. c. swell and burst. d. differentiate.

ANS: C 21. Which type of solution causes crenation or shrinkage of submerged red blood cells? a. Hypotonic b. Isotonic NURSINGTB.COM c. Hypertonic d. Water ANS: C

22. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase are phases of a. active transport. b. mitosis. c. differentiation. d. pinocytosis.

ANS: B 23. G1, G2, the S phase, and the M phase are phases of a. the cell cycle. b. mitosis. c. protein synthesis. d. the cell cycle that is specific to cancer cells.

ANS: A 24. Pinocytosis a. is a passive process. b. requires a pressure gradient as its driving force. c. refers to cellular drinking.

d. is a form of exocytosis.

ANS: C 25. Which of the following best describes normal saline? a. Radioactive b. Hemolytic to red blood cells c. Isotonic d. Crenating to red blood cells ANS: C 26. Which of the following best describes the eating of a bacterium by a lysosome? a. Differentiation b. Phagocytosis c. Meiosis d. Hemolysis ANS: B 27. In which structure is most DNA found? a. Nucleus b. Mitochondrion c. Lysosome d. Golgi apparatus ANS: A 28. Which structure is described N asUrR ouSgI hN orGsT mB oo.thC?OM a. Ribosome b. Mitochondrion c. Cilia d. Endoplasmic reticulum ANS: D 29. Which of the following is a gel-like substance located inside the cell but outside the nucleus? a. Nucleoplasm b. Isotonic saline c. Cytoplasm d. Lysosomal enzymes ANS: C 30. Which of the following most accurately describes diffusion? a. ATP-driven b. Passive transport c. Requires a pressure or pushing force d. Causes solute to move uphill ANS: B 31. The skunk makes his presence known by

a. b. c. d.

filtration. osmosis. active transport. diffusion.

ANS: D 32. Oxygen moves from the lungs (high concentration) into the blood (low concentration) in

response to a. filtration. b. osmosis. c. diffusion. d. endocytosis.

ANS: C 33. Which process describes the pushing of water across the capillary (blood vessel) membrane? a. Facilitated diffusion b. Osmosis c. Filtration d. Pinocytosis ANS: C 34. Which structure puts the finishing touches on and packages the protein for export from the

cell? a. Mitochondrion b. Golgi apparatus c. Lysosome d. Nucleolus

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ANS: B

35. Which of the following structures make the rough endoplasmic reticulum look like

sandpaper? a. Ribosomes b. Globs of cytoplasm c. ATP d. Fragments of DNA ANS: A 36. Which structure is described as a semipermeable lipid bilayer? a. Lysosome b. Mitochondrion c. Ribosome d. Cell membrane ANS: D 37. The selectively permeable membrane a. is a result of its composition; it is tough connective tissue, much like a ligament. b. determines which substances enter and leave the cell.

c. allows for the unrestricted movement of water and electrolytes across the cell

membrane. d. permits diffusion but not osmosis.

ANS: B 38. Which of the following is least true of mitochondria? a. Found only within liver cells b. Make most of the body’s ATP c. Contain enzymes that function aerobically d. Located within the cytoplasm ANS: A 39. Which of the following is a correct statement? a. Most ATP is produced in the mitochondria. b. Mitochondria contain potent enzymes that digest cellular waste and debris. c. Most DNA is located within the mitochondria. d. The RER is concerned with phagocytosis.

ANS: A 40. A beaker contains two compartments. Compartment A (CA) contains a 10% salt solution and

Compartment B (CB) contains a 20% salt solution. The membrane is permeable to the salt and water. At equilibrium, a. the volume in CA is greater than the volume in CB. b. the volume in CA is less than the volume in CB. c. the volume is the same i n b o t h compartments.

N R I G B.C M d. all water accumulates in C BU.

S N T

O

ANS: C 41. A beaker contains two compartments. Compartment A (CA) contains a 10% salt solution and

Compartment B (CB) contains a 20% salt solution. The membrane is permeable only to water.

At equilibrium, the volume in a. CA is greater than the volume in CB. b. CA is less than the volume in CB. c. CB is less than the volume in CA. d. CA is the same as the volume in CB. ANS: B 42. Most K+ is located in the cells, with little K+ in the tissue spaces. What accounts for the

movement of additional K+ into the cells? a. K+ in the tissue fluid diffuses into the cell. b. K+ enters the cell in response to facilitated diffusion. c. K+ is actively pumped into the cell. d. K+ enters the cell because of pinocytosis.

ANS: C 43. A child has experienced a blow to the head causing a slow bleed. Although the bleeding has

stopped, the blood clot continues to expand because

a. brain tissue grows into the blood clot. b. plasma protein is used by the brain to make additional nerve tissue to replace what

was damaged. c. the particles of the blood clot are osmotically active and draw water into the clot. d. pieces of the blood clot dissolve and are carried by the blood to the other side of

the brain.

ANS: C 44. What is the primary difference between diffusion and facilitated diffusion? a. One is active and the other is passive. b. One requires ATP and the other does not. c. Diffusion involves the movement of a substance from high concentration to a

lower concentration. Facilitated diffusion moves a substance from a lower concentration to a higher concentration. d. Facilitated diffusion uses a “helper” molecule to move a substance passively.

ANS: D 45. What is the effect of an intravenous infusion of pure water? a. It is the same response as to the infusion of isotonic saline. b. It is the same response as to the infusion of Ringer’s solution. c. The RBCs burst. d. The RBCs shrink (crenation).

ANS: C 46. Which of the following d escrNi b esRtheIresGponB se.oCf a M red blood cell (RBC) to immersion in an

isotonic solution? a. b. c. d.

U S N T

O

The RBC swells and bursts.

The RBC undergoes hemolysis.

The RBC undergoes crenation; it shrinks.

There is no net movement of water between the RBC and solution.

ANS: D 47. Plasma proteins determine a. plasma oncotic (osmotic) pressure. b. capillary filtration pressure. c. the rate of diffusion out of the capillary. d. the size of the capillary pores.

ANS: A 48. If plasma protein leaks into the tissue spaces, a. edema develops. b. the tissue space becomes dehydrated as excess tissue fluid enters the capillaries. c. blood volume expands as excess fluid is absorbed into the blood vessels

(capillaries). d. All of the above occur.

ANS: A

49. Mitosis a. occurs only within sex cells. b. produces two genetically identical cells. c. occurs only within red blood cells. d. causes a 50% reduction in chromosome number.

ANS: B 50. The first gap phase (G1), second gap phase (G2), and synthesis phase (S) a. occur during interphase. b. include prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. c. are stages of mitosis. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: A 51. An anticancer drug that interferes only with mitosis a. is described as cell cycle M phase–specific. b. is cell cycle phase–nonspecific. c. is nontoxic. d. stimulates neoplastic cell growth.

ANS: A 52. With regard to the cell cycle, a. the M phase is the same as interphase. b. cells cannot enter phase G0 when they complete the cycle. c. cell division occurs durin g t h e M ph ase.

N R I G B.C M

d. prophase, metaphase, anap U haseS, a nNd teT lophaseOoccur during phase G1.

ANS: C

53. A cell that “drops out” of the cell cycle a. enters G0. b. splits into two genetically identical cells. c. reduces its chromosome number by 50%. d. becomes a stem cell.

ANS: A 54. Which of the following best describes a cell that is necrotic? a. Dehydrated b. Stem cell c. Undifferentiated d. Dead ANS: D 55. Which of the following is true of a benign neoplasm? a. Metastatic lesion b. Secondary tumor site c. Cancerous d. Noncancerous tumor

ANS: D 56. A cervical Pap smear indicates well-differentiated cells. You would interpret this as a. a normal cellular appearance. b. evidence of edema. c. evidence of necrosis. d. evidence of cancer.

ANS: A 57. This cytoplasmic organelle contains the enzymes of the Krebs cycle and electron transport

chain and is primarily concerned with the formation of ATP: a. Rough endoplasmic reticulum b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum c. Mitochondrium d. Centriole ANS: C 58. What programmed sequence of events helps rid the body of old, unnecessary, and unhealthy

cells? a. apoptosis b. necrosis c. transcytosis d. differentiation ANS: A

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59. Which of the following is common to the ribosomes, rough ER, and Golgi apparatus? a. ATP-producing organelles b. Protein synthesis c. Ammonia producing d. Glycogen storage ANS: B 60. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase a. are stages of cytokinesis. b. occur during G1. c. are concerned with the synthesis of DNA and the doubling of the chromosomes. d. are stages of mitosis.

ANS: D 61. Telophase and cytokinesis a. mark the beginning of mitosis. b. complete the splitting of a single cell into two identical cells. c. are called the “resting” phases. d. occur only within sex cells.

ANS: B

62. Methotrexate, an anticancer drug that interferes with cell replication, is most effective when

the cancer cell is in the S phase of the cell cycle. Which of the following best describes methotrexate? a. Cell cycle phase–specific b. Stem cell stimulator c. Anaplastic d. Keratinized ANS: A 63. A stem cell develops into a muscle cell. Which of the following most accurately describes this

process? a. Differentiation b. Malignant c. Neoplastic d. Necrotic ANS: A 64. Compartment A contains a 5% glucose solution. Compartment B contains a 15% glucose

solution. The membrane (dividing the beaker into compartments A and B) is permeable to both solute and solvent. Which of the following statements is true regarding the initial net flux? a. Water diffuses from compartment A to compartment B. b. Glucose diffuses from compartment A to compartment B. c. Solute diffuses from compartment A to compartment B. d. Solvent diffuses from compartment B to compartment A. ANS: A

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65. Compartment A contains a 25% glucose solution. Compartment B contains a 15% glucose

solution. The membrane (dividing the beaker into compartments A and B) is permeable to water but impermeable to glucose. Which of the following statements is true regarding the initial net flux? a. Water diffuses from compartment B to compartment A. b. Glucose diffuses from compartment A to compartment B. c. Solute diffuses from compartment A to compartment B. d. Solvent diffuses from compartment A to compartment B. ANS: A 66. At equilibrium the volume in compartment B is greater than the volume in compartment A. In

which initial situation would this be achieved? a. There is a 5% glucose solution in compartment A and a 15% glucose solution in compartment B. The membrane (separating the beaker into compartments A and B) is impermeable to the solute and permeable to the solvent. b. There is a 15% glucose solution in compartment A and a 5% glucose solution in compartment B. The membrane (separating the beaker into compartments A and B) is permeable to water and impermeable to glucose. c. There is a 15% glucose solution in compartment A and a 15% glucose solution in compartment B. The membrane (separating the beaker into compartments A and

B) is permeable to both solute and solvent. d. There is a 25% glucose solution in compartment A and a 5% glucose solution in

compartment B. The membrane (separating the beaker into compartments A and B) is permeable to solvent but impermeable to glucose.

ANS: A 67. The capillary filtration pressure (arterial end of the capillary) is 30 mm Hg and 7 mm Hg at

the venous end. The capillary oncotic pressure is 15 mm Hg. Which of the following is true? a. Most water is filtered out of the capillary into the interstitium at the arterial end of the capillary. b. The capillary oncotic pressure is responsible for the movement of water from the capillary into the interstitium. c. The capillary oncotic pressure is responsible for the flow of blood from the arterial end of the capillary to the venous end of the capillary. d. A decline in capillary oncotic pressure causes excess water to be reabsorbed from the interstitium.

ANS: A 68. Most body potassium (K+) is located intracellularly. Through what transport mechanism

would additional K+ move from the extracellular compartment to the intracellular compartment? a. Osmosis b. Active transport pump c. Facilitated diffusion d. Filtration ANS: B

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69. A red blood cell (RBC) is immersed in hypertonic saline. Which of the following describes

the consequence? The RBC will a. replicate by mitosis. b. actively pump water into the cell. c. undergo hemolysis and burst. d. shrink.

ANS: D 70. Which of the following is not true of glycogen? Glycogen a. is a storage form of glucose. b. is an alcohol to which three fatty acids attach thereby forming a triglyceride. c. helps in the regulation of blood glucose. d. is stored within the liver and skeletal muscle.

ANS: B 71. This substance is composed of glycerol and three fatty acids. a. Glycogen b. Polypeptide c. Steroid d. Triglyceride

ANS: D 72. Which of the following is not a lipid or lipoid substance? a. Steroids b. Vitamins A, D, E, and K c. Prostaglandins d. Ammonia ANS: D 73. Which group is correct? a. Lipids: triglycerides and urea b. Polysaccharides: glycogen and glucose c. Amino acids: ammonia and glycerol d. Nitrogen-containing waste: urea and creatinine ANS: D

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Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank

Chapter 04: Integumentary System LaFleur: Exploring Medical Language, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The pronunciation for the anatomic structure referring to the outer layer of the skin is a. (DUR-mis). b. (MEL-a-nin). c. (ep-i-DER-mis). d. (KAR-a-tin).

ANS: C REF: 86 OBJ: 1 TOP: Pronunciation of Anatomic Structures 2. The pronunciation for the anatomic structure referring to the scleroprotein component of the

horny, or cornified, layer of the epidermis is a. (KAR-a-tin). b. (MEL-a-nin). c. d. (soo-da-RIF-er-as) (glandz).

ANS: A REF: 86 OBJ: 1 TOP: Pronunciation of Anatomic Structures 3. The combining form for the horny plates made from flattened epithelial cells is a. hidr/o. b. onych/o.

NURSINGTB.COM c. derm/o. d. kerat/o.

ANS: B

REF: 87

OBJ: 2

TOP: Word Parts

4. The combining form cutane/o names which of the following anatomic structures? a. Organ covering the body; made up of layers. b. Compressed, keratinized cells that arise from hair follicles, the sacs that enclose

the hair fibers. c. Horny plates made from flattened epithelial cells; found on the dorsal surface of

the ends of the fingers and toes. d. Dark pigment produced by melanocytes; amount present determines skin color.

ANS: A

REF: 87

OBJ: 2

TOP: Word Parts

OBJ: 2

TOP: Word Parts

5. The combining form that means self is a. bi/o. b. myc/o. c. aut/o. d. heter/o.

ANS: C

REF: 88

6. The combining form that means hidden is

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Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank a. b. c. d.

coni/o. rhytid/o. xer/o. crypt/o.

ANS: D

REF: 88

OBJ: 2

TOP: Word Parts

OBJ: 2

TOP: Word Parts

OBJ: 2

TOP: Word Parts

7. The combining form that means dust is a. coni/o. b. necr/o. c. myc/o. d. crypt/o.

ANS: A

REF: 88

8. The combining form myc/o is defined as a. fungus. b. muscle. c. oil. d. dust.

ANS: A

REF: 88

9. The combining form that means death is a. necr/o. b. pachy/o. c. coni/o. d. aut/o.

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ANS: A

REF: 88

OBJ: 2

TOP: Word Parts

OBJ: 2

TOP: Word Parts

10. The combining form xer/o means a. wrinkles. b. life. c. dry, dryness. d. nail.

ANS: C

REF: 88

11. The combining form that means grapelike clusters is a. staphyl/o. b. strept/o. c. xer/o. d. pachy/o.

ANS: A

REF: 88

OBJ: 2

12. The prefix that means on, upon, or over is a. intra-. b. pro-. c. epi-. d. trans-.

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TOP: Word Parts

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank ANS: C

REF: 89

OBJ: 2

TOP: Word Parts

13. The prefix that means beside, beyond, around, or abnormal is a. trans-. b. para-. c. per-. d. sub-.

ANS: B

REF: 89

OBJ: 2

TOP: Word Parts

OBJ: 2

TOP: Word Parts

OBJ: 2

TOP: Word Parts

14. The suffix -rrhea is defined as a. discharge. b. surgical removal. c. abnormal condition. d. softening.

ANS: A

REF: 89

15. The suffix that means viewing is a. -ia. b. -opsy. c. -plasty. d. -phagia.

ANS: B

REF: 89

16. The suffix -ectomy is defined as a. surgical repair.

N R

U SINGTB.COM

b. an instrument used to cut. c. excision. d. inflammation.

ANS: C

REF: 89

OBJ: 2

TOP: Word Parts

OBJ: 2

TOP: Word Parts

OBJ: 2

TOP: Word Parts

17. The suffix -phagia is defined as a. surgical repair. b. softening. c. diseased or abnormal state. d. eating or swallowing.

ANS: D

REF: 89

18. The suffix that means berry-shaped is a. -ia. b. -phagia. c. -coccus. d. -malacia.

ANS: C

REF: 89

19. The combining form hidr/o is defined as a. oil. b. sweat.

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Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank c. horny tissue (keratin), hard. d. thick.

ANS: B

REF: 87

OBJ: 2

TOP: Word Parts

OBJ: 2

TOP: Word Parts

OBJ: 2

TOP: Word Parts

OBJ: 2

TOP: Word Parts

20. The combining form rhytid/o means a. dry. b. wrinkles. c. fungus. d. dust.

ANS: B

REF: 88

21. The suffix -malacia is defined as a. viewing. b. softening. c. eating. d. swallowing.

ANS: B

REF: 89

22. The word part that means within is a. epi-. b. per-. c. -ia. d. intra-.

ANS: D

REF: 89

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23. In the medical term ungu/al, the word root means a. skin. b. nail. c. sweat. d. horny tissue.

ANS: B

REF: 87

OBJ: 2

24. An abnormal condition of a fungus in the nails is called a. onychomalacia. b. onychocryptosis. c. onychophagia. d. onychomycosis.

ANS: D REF: 92 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Built from Word Parts 25. The term that means fibrous tumor of the skin is a. pachyderma. b. dermatofibroma. c. dermatoconiosis. d. xeroderma.

ANS: B

REF: 91

OBJ: 3

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TOP: Word Parts

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Built from Word Parts 26. The term hidradenitis is defined as a. inflammation of a sweat gland. b. an abnormal condition of a hidden nail. c. inflammation of the skin. d. a diseased state of a gland.

ANS: A REF: 91 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Built from Word Parts 27. The term seborrhea is defined as a. dry skin. b. thickening of the skin. c. inflammation. d. discharge of sebum (excessive).

ANS: D REF: 92 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Built from Word Parts 28. The term paronychia is defined as a. inflammation of a sweat gland. b. an ingrown nail. c. diseased state around the nail. d. inflammation of a hair follicle.

ANS: C REF: 92 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Built from Word Parts

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29. The term xeroderma means a. inflammation of the skin. b. thickening of the skin. c. dry skin. d. an abnormal skin condition caused by dust.

ANS: C REF: 92 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Built from Word Parts 30. The medical term meaning abnormal condition (growth) of horny tissue (keratin) is a. leiodermia. b. keratosis. c. seborrhea. d. onychocryptosis.

ANS: B REF: 91 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Built from Word Parts 31. The term leiodermia is defined as a. basal cell carcinoma. b. condition of smooth skin. c. white skin. d. fungus of the hair.

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Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank ANS: B REF: 92 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Built from Word Parts 32. The invasion of pathogens in body tissue is referred to as a. infection. b. psoriasis. c. scabies. d. impetigo.

ANS: A REF: 97 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Not Built from Word Parts 33. The term that means localized collection of pus is a. lesion. b. psoriasis. c. abscess. d. carbuncle.

ANS: C REF: 95 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Not Built from Word Parts 34. The term that means scraping away of the skin by mechanical process or injury is a. laceration. b. abrasion. c. contusion. d. lesion.

ANS: B

REF: 95

OBJ: 3

.C TOP: Disease and Disorder TeN rm om WO orM d Parts UsRNSotIBNuiGltTfrB 35. The term that means bruise is a. contusion. b. laceration. c. erythema. d. ecchymosis.

ANS: A REF: 96 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Not Built from Word Parts 36. The term that means invasion into the skin and hair by lice is a. scabies. b. cellulitis. c. impetigo. d. pediculosis.

ANS: D REF: 97 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Not Built from Word Parts 37. A precancerous condition of horny tissue that results from excessive exposure to sunlight is a. Kaposi sarcoma. b. squamous cell carcinoma. c. actinic keratosis. d. cellulitis.

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Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank

ANS: C REF: 95 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Not Built from Word Parts 38. Death of tissue caused by loss of blood supply is called a. gangrene. b. scleroderma. c. pallor. d. furuncle.

ANS: A REF: 97 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Not Built from Word Parts 39. A fissure is defined as a a. painful skin node caused by bacteria. b. slit or crack-like sore in the skin. c. torn, ragged-edged wound. d. fungal infection of the skin of the feet.

ANS: B REF: 97 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Not Built from Word Parts 40. A chronic skin condition producing red lesions covered with silvery scales is a. psoriasis. b. scabies. c. impetigo. d. cellulitis.

ANS: A REF: 97N R I GOBB J:.C 3 M U Not S Built N Tfrom O Parts TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Word 41. A cancerous condition that spreads through the skin to the lymph nodes and is commonly

associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a. squamous cell carcinoma. b. basal cell carcinoma. c. Kaposi sarcoma. d. actinic keratosis.

ANS: C REF: 97 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Not Built from Word Parts 42. The medical term for hives is a. urticaria. b. verruca. c. tinea. d. impetigo.

ANS: A REF: 98 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Not Built from Word Parts 43. The medical term cellulitis means a. painful skin node caused by staphylococcal bacteria. b. inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissue caused by infection.

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Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank c. inflammatory disease of the skin involving the sebaceous glands and hair follicles. d. torn, ragged-edged wound.

ANS: B REF: 96 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Not Built from Word Parts 44. A condition characterized by white patches on the skin caused by the destruction of

melanocytes is called a. vitiligo. b. cellulitis. c. scabies. d. rosacea.

ANS: A REF: 98 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Not Built from Word Parts 45. The term dermatoplasty is defined as a. the surgical repair of wrinkles. b. the excision of a nail. c. the surgical repair of the skin. d. a skin biopsy.

ANS: C REF: 105 OBJ: 4 TOP: Surgical Terms Built from Word Parts 46. The term referring to a procedure using an instrument that emits a high-powered beam of light

used to cut, burn, vaporize, or destroy tissue is a. laser surgery.

NURSINGTB.COM b. Mohs surgery. c. cryosurgery. d. incision and drainage.

ANS: A REF: 107 OBJ: 4 TOP: Surgical Terms Not Built from Word Parts 47. The term rhytidoplasty means the a. surgical repair of wrinkles. b. excision of a nail. c. surgical repair of the skin. d. excision of wrinkles.

ANS: A REF: 105 OBJ: 4 TOP: Surgical Terms Built from Word Parts 48. The term rhytidectomy is built from which of the following combinations of word parts? a. A word root and a suffix b. A word root, a combining vowel, and a suffix c. A prefix, a word root, and a suffix d. Two word roots and a suffix ANS: A REF: 88 | 89 OBJ: 4 TOP: Surgical Terms Built from Word Parts

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Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank 49. Local anesthesia is seldom employed for a procedure using extreme cold to remove small skin

lesions. This procedure is called a. cryosurgery. b. laser surgery. c. Mohs surgery. d. cauterization.

ANS: A REF: 106 OBJ: 4 TOP: Surgical Terms Not Built from Word Parts 50. A small child with a laceration to the head would require surgical stitching at the edges of the

wound or a. incision and drainage. b. excision. c. suturing. d. incision.

ANS: C REF: 107 OBJ: 4 TOP: Surgical Terms Not Built from Word Parts 51. Removal of skin scars with an abrasive material such as sandpaper is called a. cauterization. b. excision. c. debridement. d. dermabrasion.

ANS: D REF: 106 OBJ: 4 TOP: Surgical Terms Not Buil t fro m W o rd Par ts

N RU IS G N TB .C OM

52. A definition of leukoderma is a. dry b. thickening of c. red d. white

skin.

ANS: D REF: 108 OBJ: 5 TOP: Complementary Terms Built from Word Parts 53. The meaning of the medical term subungual is a. surgical repair of a nail. b. pertaining to under the nail. c. view of life. d. surgical repair using one’s own skin.

ANS: B REF: 109 OBJ: 5 TOP: Complementary Terms Built from Word Parts 54. The term epidermal is defined as pertaining to a. the b. an instrument used to cut the c. within the d. upon the

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skin.

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank ANS: D REF: 108 OBJ: 5 TOP: Complementary Terms Built from Word Parts 55. The term that means pertaining to under the skin is a. ungual. b. percutaneous. c. intradermal. d. hypodermic.

ANS: D REF: 108 OBJ: 5 TOP: Complementary Terms Built from Word Parts 56. The term that means berry-shaped bacterium in twisted chains is a. streptococcus. b. cytomegalovirus. c. staphylococci. d. erythroderma.

ANS: A REF: 109 OBJ: 5 TOP: Complementary Terms Built from Word Parts 57. The term percutaneous is defined as pertaining to a. under b. within c. on d. through ANS: D

REF: 109

OBJ: 5

NuUiltRfS TOP: Complementary Terms B roI mN WG oT rdB P. artC s OM 58. The term that means pertaining to within the skin is a. intradermal. b. subcutaneous. c. hypodermic. d. percutaneous.

ANS: A REF: 108 OBJ: 5 TOP: Complementary Terms Built from Word Parts 59. The term for yellow skin (jaundice) is a. xanthoderma. b. erythroderma. c. xanthoma. d. xeroderma.

ANS: A REF: 109 OBJ: 5 TOP: Complementary Terms Built from Word Parts 60. Subcutaneous has the same translation as a. epidermal. b. percutaneous. c. intradermal. d. hypodermic.

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the skin.

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank

ANS: D REF: 108 | 109 OBJ: 5 TOP: Complementary Terms Built from Word Parts 61. The term cicatrix is defined as a. baldness. b. blueness. c. scar. d. mole.

ANS: C REF: 113 OBJ: 5 TOP: Complementary Terms Not Built from Word Parts 62. The term that means profuse sweating is a. edema. b. diaphoresis. c. alopecia. d. cicatrix.

ANS: B REF: 114 OBJ: 5 TOP: Complementary Terms Not Built from Word Parts 63. A patient with swelling of tissue from accumulation of fluid would be diagnosed as having a. a nevus. b. a cyst. c. edema. d. alopecia.

ANS: C REF: 1 1N4 R I GOBB J:.C 5 M UBuilt S from N TWord O TOP: Complementary Terms Not Parts 64. The term that means paleness is a. pruritus. b. keloid. c. pallor. d. papule.

ANS: C REF: 114 OBJ: 5 TOP: Complementary Terms Not Built from Word Parts 65. Which of the following terms is spelled incorrectly? a. nevus b. cicatrix c. diaphoresis d. echymosis ANS: D REF: 114 OBJ: 5 TOP: Complementary Terms Not Built from Word Parts 66. Pinpoint hemorrhages are called a. purpura. b. leukoplakia. c. an urticaria.

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Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank d. petechiae.

ANS: D REF: 114 OBJ: 5 TOP: Complementary Terms Not Built from Word Parts 67. The term that means wart is a. verruca. b. macule. c. wheal. d. keloid.

ANS: A REF: 116 OBJ: 5 TOP: Complementary Terms Not Built from Word Parts 68. Pruritus is defined as a. circumscribed malformation of the skin. b. itching. c. escape of blood into the skin. d. redness.

ANS: B REF: 116 OBJ: 5 TOP: Complementary Terms Not Built from Word Parts 69. The term that means a small, solid skin elevation is a a. papule. b. vesicle. c. pustule. d. macule.

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ANS: A REF: 114 OBJ: 5 TOP: Complementary Terms Not Built from Word Parts 70. The term induration means abnormal spots on the skin that are a. scattered. b. hard. c. soft. d. colored.

ANS: B REF: 114 OBJ: 5 TOP: Complementary Terms Not Built from Word Parts 71. The term meaning flat, colored spot on the skin is a. nevus. b. keloid. c. macule. d. cicatrix.

ANS: C REF: 114 OBJ: 5 TOP: Complementary Terms Not Built from Word Parts 72. An overgrowth of scar tissue is called a a. keloid. b. papule.

NURSINGTB.COM

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank c. nevus. d. vesicle.

ANS: A REF: 114 OBJ: 5 TOP: Complementary Terms Not Built from Word Parts 73. The term that means erosion of the skin or mucous membrane is a. papule. b. purpura. c. macule. d. ulcer.

ANS: D REF: 116 OBJ: 5 TOP: Complementary Terms Not Built from Word Parts 74. Which of the following is the abbreviation for chronic inflammatory disease involving the

skin, joint, kidneys, and nervous system? a. CMV b. SLE c. SCC d. MRSA ANS: B

REF: 119

OBJ: 6

TOP: Abbreviations

75. The abbreviation BCC indicates a. view of life. b. herpes type virus that causes disease when immunity is low. c. malignant growth that develops from scalelike epithelial tissue.

NU RSI G idermis B.C OM d. an epithelial tumor arising from thN e epT .

ANS: D

REF: 119

OBJ: 6

TOP: Abbreviations

76. Which of the following is the abbreviation for berry-shaped (bacterium) in twisted chains? a. Strep b. SLE c. Subcut d. Staph ANS: A

REF: 119

OBJ: 6

TOP: Abbreviations

77. The abbreviation SCC indicates a. chronic inflammatory disease involving the skin, joint, kidneys, and nervous

system. b. berry-shaped (bacteria) in grapelike clusters. c. malignant growth that develops from scalelike epithelial tissue. d. an epithelial tumor arising from the epidermis.

ANS: C

REF: 119

OBJ: 6

TOP: Abbreviations

78. The abbreviation for the term that means pertaining to through the skin is a. TD. b. ID. c. I&D.

NURSINGTB.COM

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank d. derm.

ANS: A

REF: 119

OBJ: 6

TOP: Abbreviations

79. The patient was to receive a skin graft from her mother; the operation was listed as a. dermatoplasty. b. dermatoautoplasty. c. dermatoheteroplasty. d. dermatoconiosis.

ANS: C

REF: 104

OBJ: 7

TOP: Practical Application

80. According to the case history, Mrs. Wharton is a 59-year-old woman who presented in the

dermatologist’s office with a complaint of changes in a mole or a a. cyst. b. papule. c. pustule. d. nevus.

ANS: D

REF: 114

OBJ: 7

TOP: Practical Application

81. The physician observed that the patient’s injury site had tissue death or a. xeroderma. b. necrosis. c. cicatrix. d. induration.

ANS: B

REF: 109

OBJ: 7

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TOP: Practical Application

82. The patient diagnosed with an infection of his mouth caused by a yeast type of fungus, or a. candidiasis. b. gangrene. c. herpes. d. impetigo.

ANS: A

REF: 96

OBJ: 7

TOP: Practical Application

83. The physician ordered that the medication be administered by subcut injection, or a. percutaneous. b. scleroderma. c. epidermal. d. subcutaneous.

ANS: D

REF: 109

OBJ: 7

TOP: Practical Application

84. An elevated androgen level may cause hair loss or a. alopecia. b. keratosis. c. hidradenitis. d. diaphoresis.

ANS: A

REF: 113

OBJ: 7

NURSINGTB.COM

TOP: Practical Application

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank 85. The hospital closed a surgery suite because of an outbreak of what strain of bacteria that is

resistant to methicillin and other antibiotics? a. SLE b. MRSA c. BCC d. SCC ANS: B

REF: 119

OBJ: 7

TOP: Practical Application

86. When on a cruise ship, many people wear a skin patch for the prevention or treatment of sea

sickness; the term that indicates how the medication is administered (through the skin) is a. intradermal. b. transdermal. c. subdermal. d. subcutaneous.

ANS: B

REF: 109

OBJ: 7

TOP: Practical Application

MATCHING

Match each item with the correct description below. a. xer/o b. bi/o c. strept/o d. -a e. -itis f. aut/o N R I G B.C M

U S N T

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

twisted chains noun suffix, no meaning dry, dryness inflammation life self

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

ANS: C ANS: D ANS: A ANS: E ANS: B ANS: F

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

88 89 88 89 88 88

OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ:

O

2 2 2 2 2 2

Match each item with the correct description below. a. -plasty b. derm/o c. heter/o d. transe. subf. pachy/o

NURSINGTB.COM

TOP: Word Parts TOP: Word Parts TOP: Word Parts TOP: Word Parts TOP: Word Parts TOP: Word Parts

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank 7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

under, below skin other thick surgical repair through, across, beyond

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

ANS: E ANS: B ANS: C ANS: F ANS: A ANS: D

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

89 87 88 88 89 89

OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ:

2 2 2 2 2 2

TOP: Word Parts TOP: Word Parts TOP: Word Parts TOP: Word Parts TOP: Word Parts TOP: Word Parts

Match each item with the correct description below. a. onychomalacia b. pachyderma c. rosacea d. dermatologist e. scleroderma f. xerosis 13. disease characterized by chronic hardening (induration) of the connective tissue of the skin

and other body organs 14. chronic disorder of the skin that produces erythema, papules, pustules, and abnormal dilation

of tiny blood vessels, usually occurring on the central area of the face in people older than 30 NURSINGTB.COM years 15. thickening of the skin 16. physician who studies and treats skin (diseases) 17. abnormal condition of dryness (of skin, eye, or mouth) 18. softening of the nails 13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

ANS: E ANS: C ANS: B ANS: D ANS: F ANS: A

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

98 98 92 108 109 92

OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ:

3|4|5 3|4|5 3|4|5 3|4|5 3|4|5 3|4|5

TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP:

Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms

Match each item with the correct description below. a. debridement b. onychocryptosis c. eczema d. dermatoautoplasty e. furuncle f. carbuncle 19. removal of contaminated or dead tissue and foreign matter from an open wound 20. noninfectious—characterized by redness, blisters, scabs, and itching

NURSINGTB.COM

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank 21. surgical repair using one’s own skin 22. painful skin nodule caused by staphylococcal bacteria in a hair follicle 23. infection of skin and subcutaneous tissue composed of a cluster of boils caused by

staphylococcal bacteria 24. abnormal condition of a hidden nail (also called ingrown nail) 19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: E ANS: F ANS: B

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

106 96 104 97 96 92

OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ:

3|4|5 3|4|5 3|4|5 3|4|5 3|4|5 3|4|5

TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP:

Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms

Match each item with the correct description below. a. xanthoma b. excision c. ungual d. incision and drainage e. cytomegalovirus f. vesicle small elevation of the epidermis containing liquid herpes-type virus that usually causes disease when the immune system is compromised removal by cutting surgical cut made to allow the free flow or withdrawal of fluids from a lesion, wound, or cavity NURSINGTB.COM 29. pertaining to the nail 30. yellow tumor 25.

26.

27.

28.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

ANS: F ANS: E ANS: B ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

116 114 106 106 109 92

OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ:

3|4|5 3|4|5 3|4|5 3|4|5 3|4|5 3|4|5

TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP:

Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms

Match each item with the correct description below. a. impetigo b. incision c. dermatome d. jaundice e. erythema f. leukoplakia 31. surgical cut 32. superficial skin infection characterized by pustules and caused by either staphylococci or

streptococci 33. redness 34. instrument used to cut skin

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Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank 35. condition characterized by white spots or patches on mucous membrane, which may be

precancerous 36. condition characterized by a yellow coloring of the skin, mucous membranes, and sclera

(whites of the eyes) caused by the presence of bile 31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

ANS: B ANS: A ANS: E ANS: C ANS: F ANS: D

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

106 97 114 104 114 114

OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ:

3|4|5 3|4|5 3|4|5 3|4|5 3|4|5 3|4|5

TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP:

Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms

Match each item with the correct description below. a. strep b. TD c. CMV d. derm e. ID f. CA-MRSA 37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

community-associated MRSA infection transdermal dermatology cytomegalovirus Streptococcus intradermal

37.

38.

39.

40.

41.

42.

ANS: F ANS: B ANS: D ANS: C ANS: A ANS: E

NURSINGTB.COM

REF: 119 REF: 119 REF: 119 REF: 119 REF: 119 REF: 119

OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ:

6 6 6 6 6 6

TOP: Abbreviations TOP: Abbreviations TOP: Abbreviations TOP: Abbreviations TOP: Abbreviations TOP: Abbreviations

Match each item with the correct description below. a. bx b. subcut c. I&D d. HA-MRSA e. SLE f. staph 43.

44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

subcutaneous biopsy healthcare-associated MRSA infection systemic lupus erythematosus staphylococcus incision and drainage

43. ANS: B

REF: 119

OBJ: 3 | 4 | 5

NURSINGTB.COM

TOP: Medical Terms

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank 44.

45.

46.

47.

48.

ANS: A ANS: D ANS: E ANS: F ANS: C

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

119 119 119 119 119

OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ:

3|4|5 3|4|5 3|4|5 3|4|5 3|4|5

NURSINGTB.COM

NURSINGTB.COM

TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP:

Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms

Chapter 05: Microbiology Basics Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is defined as a disease-producing microorganism? a. Normal flora b. Pathogen c. Arthropod d. Parasite ANS: B 2. Which word best characterizes Typhoid Mary? a. Immune b. Symptomatic c. Carrier d. Fomite ANS: C 3. Which of the following describes the signs and symptoms that develop in response to a

pathogen?

Syndrome Allergy Infection Immunity

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 4. Influenza is best described as a(n) a. localized infection. b. allergic reaction. c. bacterial infection. d. systemic infection.

ANS: D 5. Cocci, bacilli, and curved rods are classified as a. viruses. b. pathogens. c. bacteria. d. parasites.

ANS: C 6. Bacteria a. include cocci, bacilli, and curved rods. b. are not part of the normal flora of the intestines. c. cause mycotic infections. d. include mold and yeast.

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ANS: A 7. An abscess is a. an example of a systemic infection. b. always viral in origin. c. an example of a mycotic infection. d. an example of a localized infection.

ANS: D 8. Which of the following is least descriptive of staphylococci? a. Grapelike arrangement b. Bacterial c. Gram-positive d. Underlying cause of rheumatic fever ANS: D 9. Rickettsiae are a. classified as fungi. b. viruses. c. often carried by fleas, ticks, and body lice. d. arthropod vectors.

ANS: C 10. Streptococci and staphylococci are a. viruses.

ANS: B b. gram-positive bacteria. c. arthropods. d. parasites.

11. Rickettsiae and chlamydiae are classified as a. viruses. b. bacteria. c. arthropods. d. bacilli.

ANS: B 12. Which of the following are classified as gram-positive and gram-negative? a. Viruses b. Bacteria c. Fungi d. Yeast ANS: B 13. Which of the following is least descriptive of Candida albicans? a. Causative organism of impetigo

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b. Fungal infection c. Yeast infection d. Antibiotic-induced superinfection ANS: A 14. Tetanus, tuberculosis, and diphtheria are a. staphylococcal infections. b. caused by a spirochete. c. localized infections. d. bacterial infections.

ANS: D 15. Which highly coiled microorganism resembles a corkscrew? a. Staphylococcus b. Streptococcus c. Bacillus d. Spirillum ANS: D 16. Clostridium tetani and Clostridium difficile a. are gram-negative bacilli. b. are anaerobic. c. are always pathogenic. d. cause the “tineas,” such as athlete’s foot and ringworm.

ANS: B 17. Which of the following is least descriptive of Treponema pallidum? a. Causes syphilis b. Classified as a bacterium c. Is most often spread by the fecal–oral route d. Is a spirochete ANS: C 18. What is the significance of bacterial spore formation? The bacterium a. becomes more sensitive to the effects of antibiotics. b. becomes more resistant to harsh environmental conditions. c. increases its reproductive activity. d. permanently loses its ability to cause disease.

ANS: B 19. Which of the following requires another living host for its continued existence? a. Arthropod b. Pathogen c. Parasite d. Bacterium ANS: C

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20. Which of the following is called the acid-fast bacillus? a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Salmonella typhi c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. Clostridium tetani ANS: C 21. A mycotic infection is caused by a(n) a. parasite. b. bacterium. c. fungus. d. arthropod.

ANS: C 22. With regard to infectious disease, arthropods most often act as a. parasites. b. causative organisms of disease. c. vectors. d. fomites.

ANS: C 23. Which disease is caused by a sporozoan carried by a mosquito? a. Typhoid fever b. Tetanus c. Malaria d. Rocky Mountain spotted fever ANS: C 24. Infections such as athlete’s foot and ringworm are referred to as a. systemic. b. mycotic. c. parasitic. d. bacterial.

ANS: B 25. Which group includes single-cell animal-like microbes, such as amebas? a. Bacilli b. Arthropods c. Viruses d. Protozoa ANS: D 26. Which “bad air” disease is caused by a plasmodium? a. Measles b. Tinea c. Tetanus

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d. Malaria ANS: D 27. Which of the following is most related to the rusty nail infection? a. Clostridium b. Mycotic c. Viral d. Parasitic ANS: A 28. Tinea is most related to a. ringworm. b. tetanus. c. systemic infection. d. treatment with anthelmintics.

ANS: A 29. A fomite is a a. worm. b. parasite. c. vector. d. host.

ANS: C N R I G B.C M

30. A helminth is a(n) a. parasite. b. arthropod. c. worm. d. bacterium.

U S N T

O

ANS: C

31. Amebic dysentery and giardiasis are a. mycotic infections. b. caused by Salmonella. c. worm infestations. d. caused by protozoan parasites.

ANS: D 32. The ova of which of these parasitic and pathogenic multicellular animals usually appear in the

stool of the infected person? a. Worms b. Viruses c. Arthropods d. Spirochetes ANS: A

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33. The tick associated with Rocky Mountain spotted fever is referred to as a(n) a. arthropod vector. b. causative organism. c. spirochete. d. fungus.

ANS: A 34. The acid-fast bacillus is a. most often spread through droplet infection. b. eradicated by a single dose of penicillin. c. pathogenic only in humans. d. most often diagnosed by a urine culture.

ANS: A 35. Rocky Mountain spotted fever is most effectively treated with an a. antiviral b. anthelmintic c. antibiotic d. antifungal

drug.

ANS: C 36. Biting flies, fleas, and ticks a. most often cause systemic infections. b. are best described as ectoparasites. c. are classified as helminthN s. R I G B.C M d. cause mycotic infections. U ANS: B 37. Which of the following lives in the intestinal tract and lays its eggs in the perianal area,

causing severe pruritus? a. Clostridium tetani b. Pinworms c. Salmonella typhi d. Candida albicans ANS: B 38. Ectoparasites are most likely to cause a. itching and discomfort. b. high fever. c. paralysis. d. loss of consciousness.

ANS: A 39. Rickettsiae require a living host for their survival and are therefore considered to be a. pathogenic. b. parasitic. c. fungal.

PRIMEXAM.COM

d. communicable.

ANS: B 40. Which of the following is both a vector and an arthropod? a. Contaminated drinking glass b. Virus c. Worm d. Flea ANS: D 41. Typhoid Mary harbored the Salmonella pathogen in her a. urine (kidneys). b. respiratory secretions (lungs). c. nasal secretions (nose). d. bile (gallbladder).

ANS: D 42. Herpes varicella-zoster a. is a fungus. b. generally causes an antibiotic-induced superinfection. c. causes chickenpox. d. responds well to antibiotics.

ANS: C 43. A pox infection a. is always caused by herpes varicella-zoster. b. occurs only in humans. c. is a skin lesion. d. is communicable but never contagious.

ANS: C 44. Herpes varicella-zoster may lay dormant in the nerves for many years; when awakened in later

life, it causes “the great pox.” shingles. tinea capitis. smallpox.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 45. The puerperal fever described by Dr. Semmelweiss is best described as a. a localized infection. b. age-related degenerative disease. c. nosocomial infection. d. pandemic.

ANS: C

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46. Which of the following is true of commensal organisms that populate the normal flora? a. They live harmoniously without harming the person. b. Unless they are destroyed with an antibiotic, the person develops an infection. c. The organisms are usually walled off as an abscess. d. All commensal organisms are confined to the large intestine (bowel).

ANS: A 47. Iron deficiency anemia is endemic in low economic areas of a city, meaning a. most of the population has iron deficiency anemia. b. the iron deficiency anemia is untreatable. c. the iron deficiency anemia has been eradicated. d. the iron deficiency anemia always exists in small numbers in the community.

ANS: D 48. Which of the following is least descriptive of a vector? a. Is a carrier of pathogens from one host to another b. Can be an insect such as the mosquito carrying the plasmodium to humans c. Must be living d. Can be a contaminated syringe (fomite) ANS: C 49. Humans, other animals, contaminated soil and water, and fomites can serve as a continual

source of infection. Which of the following terms best describes this observation? a. Normal flora b. Incubation period c. Nosocomial d. Reservoir of infection N R I G B.C M

U S N T

O

ANS: D

50. Penicillin exerts its antibiotic effect primarily through destruction of the cell wall of the

pathogen. Which of the following are most apt to be affected by penicillin? a. Viruses b. Bacteria c. Worms d. Ectoparasites ANS: B 51. Which of the following is most descriptive of syphilis? a. Is a luetic infection b. Caused by a virus c. Is a sexually transmitted disease d. Both A and B are correct ANS: D 52. Which group is correct? a. Ringworm, mycotic infection, treatment by anthelmintic drug

PRIMEXAM.COM

b. Syphilis, lues, Treponema pallidum

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c. Gonorrhea, Neisseria, virus d. Trichinae, filariasis, helminthes, penicillin ANS: B 53. Identify the portal of exit and mechanism for most diseases that are spread by droplet

infection.

Urinary system by contaminated urine Respiratory system by coughing or sneezing Digestive system through contaminated feces Central nervous system through contaminated cerebrospinal fluid

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 54. Tinea capitis, Tinea barbae, and Tinea pedis are a. commonly called athlete’s foot. b. ringworm. c. staphylococcus infections. d. manifestations of shingles.

ANS: B 55. Rhinoviruses a. are sensitive to penicillin. b. are capable of causing infection only in an immunosuppressed individual. c. cause the common cold. d. are gram-positive.

N R I G B.C M

U S N T

O

ANS: C

56. The Rubella virus a. is sensitive to penicillin. b. causes German measles. c. is teratogenic. d. Both B and C are correct.

ANS: D 57. Which of the following refers to a process that destroys all living organisms? a. Nosocomial b. Commensal c. Sterilization d. Colonization ANS: C 58. Clostridia a. are viruses. b. cause botulism, gas gangrene, and lockjaw. c. are protozoa. d. respond therapeutically to anthelmintics.

ANS: B

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59. This bacillus forms a large part of the normal flora within the large intestines. It also causes

septic shock, food poisoning, and local infections and is a leading cause of nosocomial infection. a. E. coli b. a plasmodium c. Herpes simplex d. mycobacterium ANS: A

PRIMEXAM.COM

Chapter 06: Tissues and Membranes Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which type of tissue is found in organs that need to stretch (e.g., urinary bladder)? a. Transitional epithelium b. Loose connective tissue c. Adipose tissue d. Simple squamous epithelium ANS: A 2. Which type of cell conducts an action potential or electrical signal? a. Astrocyte b. Glial cell c. Neuron d. Ependymal cell ANS: C 3. Which tissue type is the most abundant? a. Epithelial b. Muscular c. Connective d. Nervous ANS: C 4. In which of the following is intercellular matrix most abundant? a. Pseudostratified columnar b. Simple squamous epithelium c. Connective tissue d. Simple columnar epithelium ANS: C 5. Ligaments, tendons, and cartilage are types of a. epithelial b. connective c. muscle d. nervous

tissue.

ANS: B 6. Which type of tissue is most likely to prevent a kidney from “floating”? a. Simple squamous epithelium b. Muscle tissue c. Adipose tissue d. Stratified columnar epithelium ANS: C

PRIMEXAM.COM

7. In which type of tissue is plasma the interstitial matrix? a. Simple squamous epithelium b. Adipose tissue c. Blood d. Cartilage ANS: C 8. Fascia and capsular tissue are most similar to a. tendons and ligaments. b. fat. c. epithelial lining of the alveoli. d. bone.

ANS: A 9. Which of the following membranes form(s) the outer layer of the membrane lining the lungs? a. Parietal pleura b. Visceral peritoneum c. Meninges d. Visceral pleura ANS: D 10. Which of the following is most related to a carcinoma and sarcoma? a. Decubitus ulcer b. Cancer c. Pressure sore d. Bed sore N R I G B.C M

U S N T

O

ANS: B

11. Which type of membrane lines the body cavities that open to the exterior of the body? a. Serous membrane b. Synovial membrane c. Mucous membrane d. Meninges ANS: C 12. Which of the following is most descriptive of a bed sore? a. Decubitus ulcer b. Sarcoma c. Malignant neoplasm d. Metastatic ANS: A 13. Which of the following is most related to mucous membrane? a. Forms the dermis b. Lines all the body cavities that open to the exterior of the body

PRIMEXAM.COM

c. Is also called the skin

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d. Is the same as the epidermis ANS: B 14. Which type of membrane lines the ventral body cavities that are not open to the exterior of the

body?

Serous membrane Mucous membrane Synovial membrane Meninges

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 15. Which of the four major tissue types is able to regenerate and repair quickly when injured? a. Nervous b. Muscle c. Epithelial d. Connective ANS: C 16. Which of the following is true of an exocrine gland? a. Made of connective tissue b. Secretes hormones c. Secretes its products to the outside or onto a surface d. Secretes only sweat ANS: C 17. Which of the following is most related to bone? a. Epithelial tissue b. Plasma c. Adipose d. Hard intercellular matrix ANS: D 18. Which of the following is the culprit in obesity? a. Osseous tissue b. Adipose tissue c. Squamous epithelium d. Glia cells ANS: B 19. Which word refers to the flattened appearance of fish scales? a. Striated b. Stratified c. Squamous d. Glia ANS: C

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20. Stratified means a. flat and shiny. b. layered. c. striped. d. hard.

ANS: B 21. Which type of tissue allows for the rapid diffusion of oxygen from the alveoli in the lungs to

the blood?

Osseous Fascia Simple squamous epithelium Synovial membrane

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 22. A ligament is best described as a. malignant. b. glandular epithelium. c. tough band of connective tissue. d. squamous epithelium.

ANS: C 23. Endocrine and exocrine glands are a. connective b. epithelial c. adipose d. glial

tissue.

N R I G B.C M

U S N T

O

ANS: B

24. Collagen and elastic fibers are found in the intercellular matrix of a. squamous epithelial b. glandular c. connective d. nervous

tissue.

ANS: C 25. Chondrocytes and osteocytes form a. squamous epithelium. b. transitional epithelium. c. astrocytes and ependymal cells. d. cartilage and bone.

ANS: D 26. Which of the following is characterized by cells that are arranged like tiles on a floor? a. Osseous tissue b. Fascia

PRIMEXAM.COM

c. Ligaments

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d. Squamous epithelium ANS: D 27. The intercellular matrix of which tissue is the hardest of all connective tissue? a. Fibrocartilage b. Collagen c. Osseous tissue d. Muscle ANS: C 28. Which of the following is least descriptive of epithelial tissue? a. Squamous b. Glial c. Cuboidal d. Columnar ANS: B 29. Osseous tissue is a. also called bone tissue. b. formed from chondrocytes. c. classified as squamous, cuboidal, and columnar. d. classified as skeletal, smooth, and cardiac.

ANS: A 30. The pleura, pericardium, andNpU erR itoSnI euNmGaTreB.COM a. confined to the thoracic cavity. b. confined to the abdominopelvic cavity. c. serous membranes. d. mucous membranes.

ANS: C 31. Which group is incorrect? a. Types of serous membranes: pleura, peritoneum, mucosa b. Types of muscles: skeletal, cardiac, smooth c. Types of membranes: epithelial, connective tissue d. Types of epithelial membranes: cutaneous, mucous, serous ANS: A 32. Which group is incorrect? a. Appearance of muscle: striated and smooth b. Types of cartilage: hyaline, elastic, fibrocartilage c. Types of epithelial membranes: cutaneous, mucous, serous d. Types of connective tissue: tendons, ligaments, fat, glia ANS: D 33. Transitional epithelial tissue

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a. b. c. d.

is found in organs that need to stretch (e.g., urinary bladder). contracts, causing movement. has a hard intercellular matrix. is nervous tissue.

ANS: A 34. Intercellular matrix is a. most abundant in connective tissue. b. absent in blood and lymph. c. always hard. d. always elastic and stretchy.

ANS: A 35. Ligaments, tendons, and cartilage are a. made of connective tissue. b. classified as squamous, cuboidal, and columnar. c. classified as simple and stratified. d. classified as smooth, skeletal, and cardiac.

ANS: A 36. Which of the following is most descriptive of fascia? a. Contractile b. Fatty c. Tough and supportive d. Glandular N R I G B.C M

U S N T

O

ANS: C 37. Serous membranes a. b. c. d.

line all cavities that open to the outside. cover the brain and spinal cord. are connective tissue membranes. line the abdominopelvic and thoracic cavities.

ANS: D 38. Meninges a. are connective tissue membranes. b. cover the brain and spinal cord. c. are located in cranial and vertebral cavities. d. are all of the above.

ANS: D 39. The words visceral and parietal a. describe pleural and peritoneal membranes. b. describe two types of glands. c. refer to connective tissue membranes. d. are layers of meninges.

PRIMEXAM.COM

ANS: A 40. The cutaneous membrane a. is a synovial membrane. b. is the skin. c. has a visceral and parietal layer. d. has three layers: squamous, cuboidal, and columnar.

ANS: B 41. An exocrine gland a. is made of epithelial tissue. b. secretes hormones. c. is ductless. d. secretes only sweat.

ANS: A 42. Squamous a. means striated or striped. b. means joint lining. c. refers to the flattened appearance of fish scales. d. refers to electrical conduction.

ANS: C 43. Endocrine is least often described as a. hormone secreting. b. ductless. c. glandular epithelium. d. contractile.

ANS: D 44. Stratified and squamous refer to a. layered and striped. b. solid and liquid. c. layered and flat. d. columnar and cube shaped.

ANS: C 45. Simple squamous, pseudostratified, simple cuboidal, and stratified squamous a. form tendons and connect muscle to bone. b. form ligaments and connect bone to bone. c. form continuous sheets and function in secretion, transport, and protection. d. are types of nervous tissue.

ANS: C 46. The epithelium is described as being avascular, meaning that it a. is single-layered. b. has no blood supply of its own.

PRIMEXAM.COM

c. is colorless. d. contains sudoriferous glands but not sebaceous glands.

ANS: B 47. The alveolar wall in the distal lungs is designed for rapid diffusion of the respiratory gases,

O2, and CO2 across the alveolar wall. The alveolar wall is composed of a. adipose tissue. b. transitional epithelium. c. dense, fibrous connective tissue. d. simple squamous epithelium.

ANS: D 48. Endocrine and exocrine glands are composed of a. cuboidal epithelia. b. dense, fibrous connective tissue. c. transitional epithelium. d. glial tissue.

ANS: A 49. Adipose, dense fibrous, areolar, blood, and osseous are all a. stratified epithelia. b. connective tissue. c. glial. d. fat storing.

ANS: B 50. Which of the following is fat-storing connective tissue? a. Glial b. Adipose c. Transitional epithelia d. Tissue that arises from chondrocytes ANS: B 51. Which of the following is most descriptive of tendons, ligaments, fascia, and capsules? a. Designed for rapid diffusion of O2 and CO2 b. Hormone secreting c. Tough, dense, fibrous, connective d. Cells form large sheets resembling floor tiles ANS: C 52. Fibro-, elastic, and hyaline are a. striated epithelia. b. found exclusively in the lungs where they function in gas exchange. c. types of cartilage. d. formed by osteocytes.

ANS: C

PRIMEXAM.COM

53. Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth are a. all striped or striated. b. types of connective tissue. c. all concerned with the movement of bones. d. types of muscle.

ANS: D 54. Which of the following best describes glia? a. Basement membrane b. Dense fibrous connective tissue c. Nervous tissue d. Matrix ANS: C 55. The pericardium and pleurae a. surround the lungs. b. line the dorsal cavity. c. are located in the thoracic cavity. d. are mucous membranes.

ANS: C 56. Which of the following is descriptive of the peritoneum? a. Serous membrane b. Abdominopelvic cavity c. Parietal and visceral layers d. All of the above ANS: D 57. Damaged skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, and nervous tissue are replaced by a. the same tissue type. b. scar tissue. c. epithelial tissue. d. adhesions.

ANS: B 58. This type of connective tissue membrane lines many joints and secretes a lubricating fluid that

has the consistency of egg white.

Meningeal Synovial Pleural Pericardial

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 59. Which of the following membranes secretes serous fluid? a. Membrane that lines the respiratory tract b. Membrane that lines the digestive tract

PRIMEXAM.COM

c. Membrane that lines the inner wall of the pleural cavity d. Membrane that lines the urinary tract ANS: C 60. To which of the following is glandular epithelium most related? a. Endocrine and exocrine b. Striated and smooth c. Neuronal and glial d. Periosteum and pericardial ANS: A 61. This tissue connects ribs to the breastbone (sternum), forms the rigid rings in the windpipe

(trachea), and is found at the end of long bones in the joints. a. Glial tissue b. Hyaline cartilage c. Cutaneous membrane d. Serous membrane ANS: B 62. These membranes are restricted to the thoracic cavity. a. Meninges b. Pleurae c. Peritoneum d. Smooth muscle ANS: B 63. Chondrocytes, perichondrium, and chondroblasts are most associated with a. immature cells. b. tissue that is classified as striated and nonstriated. c. cartilage. d. simple squamous epithelium.

ANS: C 64. Which of the following groups is correct? a. Types of cartilage: hyaline, fibrocartilage, and elastic cartilage b. Types of loose connective tissue: areolar, adipose, and reticular c. Layers of epithelial tissue: simple and stratified d. Connective tissue membranes: mucous, serous, and synovial ANS: D 65. Regeneration occurs in injured tissue a. when the tissue is replaced with the same type of tissue as the injured tissue. b. when a blood clot forms. c. when fibrous connective tissue replaces the injured tissue. d. after scar tissue forms.

ANS: A

PRIMEXAM.COM

MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Fibrosis refers to a. tissue regeneration. b. repair of damaged muscle fibers. c. regeneration of nerve fibers. d. replacement of injured tissue with fibrous connective tissue.

ANS: C, D

PRIMEXAM.COM

Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

Chapter 07: Integumentary System and Body Temperature Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The stratum germinativum and the stratum corneum are layers of the a. epidermis. b. hypodermis. c. subcutaneous tissue. d. dermis.

ANS: A 2. Which of the following is associated with tanning? a. Sudoriferous glands b. Apocrine glands c. Arrector pili muscles d. Melanocytes ANS: D 3. Who or what is covered with vernix caseosa? a. A pregnant woman b. A toddler c. A fetus d. The pregnant uterus ANS: C

NURSINGTB.COM

4. Which word is most descriptive of sudoriferous? a. Yellow b. Sweat c. Hot d. Tan ANS: B 5. If the blood vessels of the skin dilate, the person appears a. jaundiced. b. flushed. c. cyanotic. d. pale and washed out.

ANS: B 6. Ceruminous glands secrete a. vernix caseosa. b. sweat. c. wax in the outer ear. d. melanin.

ANS: C

NURSINGTB.COM

Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

7. Freckles and moles are caused by an accumulation of a. bilirubin. b. vernix caseosa. c. melanin. d. keratin.

ANS: C 8. Which of the following is a consequence of a congenital absence of eccrine glands? a. Jaundice b. Vitiligo c. Acne vulgaris d. Inability to regulate body temperature ANS: D 9. Radiation, conduction, convection, and evaporation are terms that are concerned with a. heat loss. b. skin color. c. sweat glands. d. exocrine secretions.

ANS: A 10. Hives are called a. impetigo. b. urticaria. c. psoriasis. d. vitiligo.

NURSINGTB.COM

ANS: B

11. The color of skin that is supplied by oxygen-poor blood is described as a. flushed. b. jaundiced. c. cyanotic. d. pink.

ANS: C 12. Which of the following lies on the subcutaneous layer? a. Stratum corneum b. Epidermis c. Dermis d. Stratum germinativum ANS: C 13. Which of the following substances makes the skin water resistant? a. Melanin b. Iron pigments c. Keratin

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. Carotene ANS: C 14. What is the result of the contraction of the arrector pili muscles? a. Nail growth b. Goosebumps c. Sweating d. Tanning ANS: B 15. Which type of gland secretes vernix caseosa in the fetus? a. Sudoriferous b. Apocrine c. Eccrine d. Sebaceous ANS: D 16. Which gland is most likely to develop a blackhead or pimple? a. Sebaceous b. Apocrine c. Eccrine d. Sudoriferous ANS: A 17. Which glands are most respoN nsU ibRleSfI orNbG odTyBo. doCrO ?M a. Apocrine b. Arrector pili c. Eccrine d. Sebaceous ANS: A 18. Both the mammary glands and ceruminous glands a. are sebaceous glands. b. are modified sweat glands. c. are concerned with temperature regulation. d. secrete earwax.

ANS: B 19. Which of the following is associated with the conservation of heat? a. The person appears flushed. b. The person sweats. c. Melanin is secreted. d. Blood vessels constrict.

ANS: D 20. A person sweats and becomes flushed while exercising to

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. b. c. d.

decrease heat production. keep the heat in the core or center of the body. lose heat. prevent hypothermia.

ANS: C 21. What is the effect of shivering? a. Increases heat production b. Increases heat loss c. Causes the blood vessels of the skin to dilate d. Decreases sweating ANS: A 22. Which of the following has the poorest prognosis (expected outcome)? a. Freckles b. Vitiligo c. Melanoma d. Albinism ANS: C 23. The layer that insulates the body from extreme temperature changes in the external

environment is the a. epidermis. b. subcutaneous layer. c. stratum germinativum. d. dermis.

NURSINGTB.COM

ANS: B

24. Which of the following structures is avascular? a. Epidermis b. Subcutaneous layer c. Dermis d. Underlying muscle ANS: A 25. The name of the yellow pigment found in skin is a. keratin. b. collagen. c. carotene. d. vitamin D. ANS: C 26. This substance is produced by the skin and is necessary for the absorption of calcium from the

digestive tract. a. Keratin b. Vitamin D c. Carotene

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. Collagen ANS: B 27. Anticancer drugs often cause hair loss, a condition called a. alopecia. b. hirsutism. c. vitiligo. d. keratinization.

ANS: A 28. Sweat glands usually associated with hair follicles and found in the axillary and genital areas

are called a. ceruminous glands. b. eccrine glands. c. sebaceous glands. d. apocrine glands.

ANS: D 29. Which action is most likely to lower body temperature? a. Shivering b. Vasoconstriction c. Cyanosis d. Vasodilation ANS: D

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30. What is the name of the thickening of the epidermis that develops in response to constant

pressure or irritation? a. Nevus b. Vitiligo c. Callus d. Blister ANS: C 31. The stratum germinativum is a. dead. b. mitotically active. c. found in the derma layer. d. located in the subcutaneous layer.

ANS: B 32. Which of the following occurs as a result of the secretion of fetal sebaceous glands? a. Amniotic fluid surrounds the fetus. b. The fetus is covered by vernix caseosa. c. The fetus raises its body temperature. d. Melanin is released and the fetus attains its natural skin color.

ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

33. The hypodermis a. contains the stratum germinativum and stratum corneum. b. gives rise to the hair follicle. c. is also called the subcutaneous layer. d. is the cutaneous membrane.

ANS: C 34. The sebaceous, apocrine, and eccrine glands are a. sweat b. endocrine c. sebum-secreting d. exocrine

glands.

ANS: D 35. Nonshivering thermogenesis is accomplished by a. involuntary contraction of skeletal muscles. b. constriction of the dermal blood vessels. c. metabolism associated with brown fat. d. involuntary contraction of the arrector pili muscles.

ANS: C 36. Which of the following is descriptive of the epidermal layer? a. It is nourished by blood vessels in the dermal layer. b. It sits on the subcutaneou s layer.

G B.C M

N R I

UgeSrmiN c. It sits inferior to the stratum natiT v um. O d. It contains the cutaneous blood vessels, free nerve endings, tactile receptors, and arrector pili muscles.

ANS: A 37. Which of the following is least descriptive of the dermal layer? a. It is nourished by blood vessels in the epidermal layer. b. It sits on the subcutaneous layer. c. It supports the epidermis. d. It contains the cutaneous blood vessels, free nerve endings, tactile receptors, and

arrector pili muscles.

ANS: A 38. What is the structure in this description: The cells are continuously dividing, pushing older

cells toward the surface of the cutaneous membrane? a. Sudoriferous glandular epithelium b. Dermis c. Arrector pili d. Stratum germinativum ANS: D 39. The stratum corneum is

NURSINGTB.COM

Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. b. c. d.

the outermost layer of the epidermis. an epidermal layer. nourished by blood vessels within the dermis. all of the above.

ANS: D 40. The subcutaneous layer a. is composed of the stratum germinativum and stratum corneum. b. contains adipose tissue. c. cushions, binds, and insulates. d. Two of the above are true.

ANS: D 41. Melanocytes a. secrete a tanning pigment in response to exposure to sunlight. b. secrete bilirubin and cause jaundice. c. are located only in the external ear and secrete cerumen. d. secrete carotene, giving the skin a yellow tint.

ANS: A 42. Cyanosis a. refers to a bluish coloring of the skin caused by hypoxemia. b. refers to a yellow coloring of the skin caused by elevated blood levels of bilirubin. c. is caused by abnormal and spotty deposition of melanin. d. is a hardening of the skin due to kera tin.

N R I G B.C M U S N T O

ANS: A

43. Which of the following is true of sebaceous glands? a. They are exocrine glands. b. They are primarily responsible for temperature regulation. c. They secrete melanin in response to ultraviolet radiation. d. They secrete vitamin D in response to ultraviolet radiation.

ANS: A 44. Eccrine glands a. are sweat glands. b. secrete sebum. c. are active only after puberty. d. arise within the hypodermis.

ANS: A 45. Apocrine glands a. become active at puberty. b. are exocrine glands. c. are found primarily in the axillary and genital areas. d. All of the above are true.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: D 46. Vernix caseosa is a. secreted by eccrine glands. b. a cream cheese-like substance covering the skin of the fetus. c. found in a pimple. d. primarily concerned with temperature regulation.

ANS: B 47. The hypothalamus a. is the body’s thermostat. b. can be affected by pyrogens. c. is involved in thermoregulation. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 48. To lose heat, flushing is generally accompanied by a. activation of the eccrine glands. b. secretion of sebum. c. contraction of the arrector pili muscles. d. constriction of the cutaneous blood vessels.

ANS: A 49. Shivering a. can restore temperature to normal but can never elevate temperature above 99F. N R I G fB.C M b. involves the involuntary c oU n t r aSc t i oNn oT only thOe arrector pili muscles. c. produces heat. d. activates the sebaceous glands.

ANS: C 50. Brown fat is found in the fetus and neonate and is concerned with a. regulation of thirst. b. urine production by the fetal kidney. c. nonshivering thermogenesis. d. regulation of fetal and neonatal blood glucose.

ANS: D 51. Rectal temperature is a. a measure of shell temperature. b. lower than oral and axillary temperatures. c. higher in the early morning than in late afternoon. d. a measurement of core temperature.

ANS: D 52. Keratin is a. found only in the hypodermis. b. carried to the stratum corneum by the dermal blood vessels.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. a protein that hardens and makes an epidermal cell water resistant. d. pigment that makes the skin dark when exposed to the sun.

ANS: C 53. Which of the following is least true of the epidermis? a. Is the thin outer layer of the skin b. Sits on the subcutaneous layer c. Is avascular d. Contains the stratum germinativum and the stratum corneum ANS: B 54. Which of the following describes exfoliation and desquamation? a. The sloughing off by the stratum corneum of dead cells b. The elimination of heat as part of the thermoregulatory mechanism c. The conservation of heat as part of the thermoregulatory mechanism d. Tanning as a protective mechanism from ultraviolet radiation ANS: A 55. Dander and dandruff are a. composed of dead skin cells. b. clumps of infected sebum. c. called striae. d. worn out tactile receptors.

ANS: A

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56. Which of the following is a true statement about hirsutism? a. It is also called alopecia. b. It may occur in response to abnormal secretion of hormones such as steroids. c. It is an abnormal color change of the skin. d. It refers to an inability to regulate body temperature.

ANS: B 57. The hair follicle is a. the part of the hair that is above the surface of the skin. b. composed of epithelial cells. c. composed of dead and keratinized cells. d. that which we brush, blow dry, curl, and iron.

ANS: B 58. With aging the hair becomes gray and then white as a. melanocytes become less active. b. eccrine glands become less functional. c. keratin secretion slows. d. the arrector pili muscles lose their tone.

ANS: A

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 59. Sudoriferous glands a. are sweat glands. b. participate in temperature regulation. c. include the eccrine and apocrine glands. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 60. The normal body temperature a. is 96.8. b. is highest at 7 AM and gradually decreases over the 24 hours. c. is maintained through thermoregulatory mechanisms. d. is 40C. ANS: C 61. The use of a cooling blanket lowers body temperature through a. radiation. b. convection. c. conduction. d. evaporation.

ANS: C 62. A person feels warmer on a humid day because a. the decrease in evaporation of water from the skin surface decreases the loss of

heat. b. the body produces more hNe a t Ro n I a humidBd.aC y. M S N Gday T and O c. a person breathes slower onUa humid exhales less heated air. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: A 63. Which of the following is least true of hyperthermia? a. Body temperature is elevated. b. The elevated temperature is due to the inability of the body to get rid of excess

heat. c. Hyperthermia is most often due to infection. d. Hyperthermia does not respond to the antipyretic effect of aspirin.

ANS: C 64. Which of the following is least true of a fever? a. Involves the upward resetting of the hypothalamus b. Often responds to the antipyretic effect of aspirin c. Is generally caused by an inability of the body to get rid of excess heat, as in heat

stroke d. Is “broken” in response to vasodilation and sweating ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

Chapter 08: Skeletal System Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The humerus a. is located in the arm. b. is distal to the radius and ulna. c. articulates with the clavicle at the acromioclavicular joint. d. is a bone of the axial skeleton.

ANS: A 2. The humerus a. contains the olecranon process. b. articulates distally with the ulna. c. forms a ball-and-socket joint where the olecranon process articulates with the

olecranon fossa. d. articulates with the scapula at the sternomanubrial joint.

ANS: B 3. The maxilla a. is the cheekbone. b. is a cranial bone. c. contains the upper teeth.

d. articulates with the tempoNraUl R boSnI eN atGthTeBT. MCJ.OM ANS: C

4. Which bone is found in the skull but not in the cranium? a. Occipital b. Parietal c. Sphenoid d. Mandible ANS: D 5. Which bone is found in the skull but is not a facial bone? a. Mandible b. Maxilla c. Occipital d. Zygomatic ANS: C 6. The zygomatic bone a. is a cranial bone. b. articulates with the mandible. c. holds the upper teeth. d. is called the cheekbone.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

ANS: D 7. Which of the following is most descriptive of the atlas and the axis? a. Carpal b. Vertebral c. Coxal d. Cranial ANS: B 8. The occipital bone a. is a facial bone. b. contains the foramen magnum. c. is the cheekbone. d. articulates with the frontal bone at the coronal suture.

ANS: B 9. Which of the following word(s) is (are) related to the ribs? a. Acetabulum b. True, false, and floating c. Supination and pronation d. Fontanels ANS: B 10. Fontanels a. are present in fetal and inN fantU RskuSIlls.

NGTB.COM b. allow expansion of the infant skull during growth. c. eventually fuse or seal. d. involve all of the above.

ANS: D 11. Which bone is described by the following: leg, shin, and medial malleolus? a. Fibula b. Tibia c. Talus d. Femur ANS: B 12. Which bone is distal to the acetabulum and proximal to the patella? a. Femur b. Tibia c. Fibula d. Calcaneus ANS: A 13. Which bone is distal to the femur and proximal to the tibia? a. Fibula

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. Patella c. Talus d. Coxal bone ANS: B 14. Which bone is formed by the ischium, ilium, and pubis? a. Sacrum b. Cranium c. Coxal bone d. Breastbone ANS: C 15. Which of the following is not a bone of the vertebral column? a. Atlas b. Sacrum c. Coccyx d. Coxal bone ANS: D 16. Which bones form the palm of the hand? a. Tarsals b. Phalanges c. Metacarpals d. Metatarsals ANS: C

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17. Which bones are distal to the radius and ulna and proximal to the metacarpals? a. Pollux b. Carpals c. Tarsals d. Hallux ANS: B 18. The humerus is a a. bone of the axial skeleton. b. short bone. c. bone of the upper limbs. d. bone found only in the fetal skeleton.

ANS: C 19. Which of the following is located at the ends of a long bone? a. Diaphysis b. Periosteum c. Epiphysis d. Medullary cavity ANS: C

NURSINGTB.COM

Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

20. Cancellous refers to a(n) a. irregular bone. b. cartilage. c. spongy bone. d. osteon.

ANS: C 21. Which structure is the site of attachment for tendons? a. Endosteum b. Articular cartilage c. Periosteum d. Osteon ANS: C 22. Osteons are found primarily a. within the medullary cavity. b. in the diaphysis. c. on the outer surface of the articular cartilage. d. within the epiphyseal disc.

ANS: B 23. The palatine process of this facial bone forms which anterior part of the hard palate? a. Mandible b. Zygomatic NURSINGTB.COM c. Maxilla d. Sphenoid ANS: C

24. The coronal suture forms an immovable joint between the parietal bones and which bone? a. Occipital b. Frontal c. Temporal d. Sphenoid ANS: B 25. A foramen and meatus are a. short bones. b. curvatures. c. openings. d. joints.

ANS: C 26. Which structure refers to the shaft of a long bone? a. Diaphysis b. Epiphysis c. Periosteum

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. Bursa ANS: A 27. Which word(s) best reflect(s) the function of the epiphyseal disc? a. Blood cell formation b. Phagocytosis c. Secretion of synovial fluid d. Longitudinal growth ANS: D 28. Which of the following bones is not located in the lower limbs? a. Femur b. Tibia c. Ulna d. Tarsal ANS: C 29. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal refer to a. vertebrae. b. long bones. c. spinal curves. d. phalanges.

ANS: A 30. At which joint do the humeruN sU anRdSuI lnN aG mT eeB t?.COM a. Hip b. Elbow c. Knee d. Wrist ANS: B 31. At which joint do the femur and tibia meet? a. Hip b. Knee c. Ankle d. Elbow ANS: B 32. At which joint do the femur and tibia meet? a. Tibiofemoral b. Proximal tibiofibular c. Distal tibiofibular d. Sacroiliac ANS: A 33. At which joint do the femur and coxal bone meet?

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. b. c. d.

Hip Knee Ankle Wrist

ANS: A 34. At which joint do the scapula and humerus meet? a. Hip b. Wrist c. Shoulder d. Elbow ANS: C 35. At which joint do the scapula and humerus meet? a. Humeroulnar b. Radiocarpal c. Glenohumeral d. Sternoclavicular ANS: C 36. Injury to the epiphyseal disc of the tibia may a. stunt the growth of the injured leg. b. stimulate the bone to become cancerous. c. inhibit blood cell formation. d. cause arthritis.

NURSINGTB.COM

ANS: A

37. What do the following terms have in common: arthrosis, arthroplasty, and arthritis? a. Are orthopedic surgical procedures b. Refer to joints c. Are inflammatory joint diseases d. Are malignant bone diseases ANS: B 38. Which of the following refers to an exaggerated thoracic curvature of the spine (hunchback)? a. Kyphosis b. Rickets c. Scoliosis d. Lordosis ANS: A 39. What is the outer lining of connective tissue that surrounds the diaphysis of a long bone and

contains the blood vessels that supply the bone? a. Periosteum b. Endosteum c. Osteon d. Articular cartilage

NURSINGTB.COM

Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

ANS: A 40. The acetabulum a. receives the head of the femur. b. is the crest part of the iliac crest. c. is located anterior to the symphysis pubis. d. is a depression in the scapula.

ANS: A 41. Which of the following is true of the following terms: osteoblast, osteoclast, osteocyte, and

osseous tissue? a. All are immature bone cells b. All increase blood calcium c. All refer to bone d. All refer to abnormal bone conditions ANS: C 42. The olecranon process is most associated with which joint? a. Hip b. Elbow c. Wrist d. Ball-and-socket joint ANS: B 43. The olecranon process is m o sNt U asR soScI iaN teG d wi TBth.wChOicMh joint? a. Glenohumeral b. Humeroulnar c. Radiocarpal d. Acromioclavicular ANS: B 44. Which of the following is a hinge joint? a. Sternomanubrial b. Metacarpophalangeal joint c. Coronal suture d. Anterior fontanel ANS: B 45. The ischial tuberosity a. is a part of the femur. b. is the part of the coxal bone upon which you sit. c. articulates with the head of the femur at the acetabulum. d. articulates with the head of the humerus at the glenoid cavity.

ANS: B 46. The obturator foramen is the

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. b. c. d.

large foramen in the coxal bone. opening through which the medulla oblongata descends as the spinal cord. meeting place of the ilium, ischium, and pubis. space between the two iliac crests.

ANS: A 47. Which structure includes the calcaneus? a. Kneecap b. Wrist c. Heel d. Groin ANS: C 48. What group of bones includes the calcaneus? a. Metatarsals b. Tarsals c. Phalanges d. Carpals ANS: B 49. The greater and lesser trochanters are located on which bone? a. Tibia b. Fibula c. Coccyx d. Femur

NURSINGTB.COM

ANS: D

50. What is the type of projection that articulates with the glenoid cavity? a. Crest b. Trochanter c. Spine d. Head ANS: D 51. What is the term that refers to the replacement of cartilage by bone? a. Osteoporosis b. Osteomalacia c. Ossification d. Myelosuppression ANS: C 52. The ilium, ischium, and pubis a. are part of the appendicular skeleton. b. are processes located on the femur. c. are muscles that attach to the femur. d. form the coxal bone.

NURSINGTB.COM

Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: D 53. The lambdoidal suture in the skull is a(n) a. synovial b. hinge c. freely movable d. immovable

joint.

ANS: D 54. What is the classification of the intervertebral discs and the symphysis pubis? a. Fused b. Suture c. Immovable d. Slightly movable ANS: D 55. A synovial joint is a. freely movable. b. a suture. c. found only in the lower extremities. d. found only within the vertebral column and at the symphysis pubis.

ANS: A 56. What is the name of the “soft spots” in a baby’s skull? a. Sinuses NURSINGTB.COM b. Fontanels c. Synovial joints d. Sutures ANS: B 57. The diaphysis is the a. b. c. d.

site of blood cell formation. growth plate. bone structure that is covered by articular cartilage. shaft of a long bone.

ANS: D 58. Which group is incorrect? a. Abnormal curvatures of the spine: scoliosis, kyphosis, lordosis b. Types of ribs: true, false, floating c. Bones of the upper extremities: humerus, radius, ulna d. Bones of the lower extremities: femur, tibia, clavicle ANS: D 59. Which group is incorrect? a. Spinal curvatures: cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral b. Abnormal curvatures of the spine: scoliosis, kyphosis, lordosis

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. Types of ribs: true, false, floating d. Types of freely movable joints: hinge, ball-and-socket, and suture ANS: D 60. Which group is incorrect? a. Types of bones: long, short, flat, irregular b. Long bones: humerus, femur, tibia, parietal c. Bones of the skull: frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital d. Abnormal curvatures of the spine: scoliosis, kyphosis, lordosis ANS: B 61. Which group is incorrect? a. Sinuses: frontal, maxillary, sphenoidal, ethmoidal b. Spinal curvatures: cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral c. Bones of the lower extremities: femur, tibia, fibula d. Bones of the vertebral column: atlas, axis, coxal bone ANS: D 62. Which group is incorrect? a. Sinuses: frontal, maxillary, sphenoidal, ethmoidal b. Abnormal curvatures of the spine: scoliosis, kyphosis, lordosis c. Types of freely movable joints: hinge and ball-and-socket d. Types of movement: flexion, pronation, abduction, ossification ANS: D 63. Osteoclastic activity a. builds bone.

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b. raises blood calcium levels. c. secretes synovial fluid into joints. d. regulates the production of blood cells.

ANS: B 64. To measure the length of the humerus, you would measure from the a. olecranon process to the styloid process of the radius. b. acromion to the olecranon process. c. suprasternal notch to the xiphoid process. d. greater trochanter to the medial malleolus.

ANS: B 65. To measure the length of the breastbone, you would measure from the a. olecranon process to the styloid process of the radius. b. acromion to the olecranon process. c. suprasternal notch to the xiphoid process. d. greater trochanter to the medial malleolus.

ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 66. The olecranon process articulates with the humerus to form a (the) a. ball-and-socket joint. b. shoulder joint. c. carpal tunnel. d. elbow.

ANS: D 67. Estrogen, progesterone, and growth hormone a. fuse the epiphyseal disc at age 6 years. b. stimulate the articular cartilage of one bone to fuse with the articular cartilage of an

opposing bone. c. affect the activity of the epiphyseal disc. d. stimulate osteoclastic activity, thereby increasing blood calcium.

ANS: C 68. The Haversian system (osteon) is a. the cylindrical arrangement of dense bone. b. found only in cancellous bone. c. the red bone marrow. d. the connective tissue that surrounds a long bone.

ANS: A 69. Which of the following is not associated with the femur? a. Acetabulum b. Vertebra prominens NURSINGTB.COM c. Tibia d. Coxal bone ANS: B 70. The tibia a. b. c. d.

articulates with the femur and the proximal and distal fibulae. is part of the axial skeleton. is the thin outer (lateral) bone of the leg. articulates with the acetabulum.

ANS: A 71. The mandible a. is the upper jaw bone. b. fuses to form the hard palate. c. articulates with the temporal bone. d. is part of the cranium.

ANS: C 72. Which of the following joints can engage in flexion, extension, adduction, abduction, and

circumduction? a. Glenohumeral b. TMJ

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. Lambdoidal suture d. Tibiofemoral ANS: A 73. The lateral and medial malleoli a. are located on the proximal tibia. b. are located on the distal fibula. c. articulate with the calcaneus. d. are associated with the ankles.

ANS: D 74. The sternomanubrial joint a. moves the clavicle. b. is a ball-and-socket joint. c. is located at the level of the second rib. d. is also called the jugular notch.

ANS: C 75. The diaphysis is a. composed primarily of compact bone. b. the growth plate. c. referred to as melogenous tissue. d. the inner lining of the medullary cavity.

ANS: A 76. The periosteum a. b. c. d.

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is a tough connective tissue. is the outer lining of a long bone. provides a site of attachment for tendons.

All of the above are true.

ANS: D 77. The carpals a. are short bones. b. articulate with the radius and ulna. c. are wrist bones. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 78. Which of the following is not a long bone or a long bone marking? a. Radius b. Femur c. Greater trochanter d. Suture ANS: D

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 79. Which of the following is not associated with the glenohumeral joint? a. Ball and socket b. Shoulder c. Olecranon process d. Freely movable ANS: C 80. The type of joint movement at the humeroulnar joint is most similar to the movement at the a. b. c. d.

joint. proximal radioulnar distal tibiofibular glenohumeral tibiofemoral

ANS: D 81. Which bones form the elbow? a. Distal humerus, scapula b. Distal ulna, carpals c. Proximal humerus, distal ulna d. Distal humerus, proximal ulna ANS: D 82. With which of the following is the patella least associated? a. Tibiofemoral joint b. Proximal tibia NURSINGTB.COM c. Acetabulum d. Distal femur ANS: C 83. The lateral malleolus a. b. c. d.

articulates with the proximal tibia. articulates with the medial malleolus. is a process on the distal tibia. is a process on the distal fibula.

ANS: D 84. The acetabulum a. receives the greater trochanter of the femur to form a ball-and-socket joint. b. is part of the femur. c. is formed by portions of the ilium, ischium, and pubis. d. articulates with the sacrum.

ANS: C 85. What is true of all these joints: tibiofemoral, hip, glenohumeral, and humeroulnar? They are

all a. freely movable. b. ball and socket.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. restricted to the axial skeleton. d. restricted to the upper extremities.

ANS: A 86. Which of the following bones articulate at a suture? a. Occipital and atlas b. Temporal and mandible c. Frontal and parietal d. Atlas and axis ANS: C 87. C1 to C7 refer to a. vertebrae. b. true ribs. c. false ribs. d. intervertebral discs.

ANS: A 88. Which of the following is true of the sternum? a. Composed of the manubrium, body, and xiphoid process b. Articulates with floating ribs c. Is part of the appendicular skeleton d. Articulates with the scapulae ANS: A 89. The vertebrae prominens a. b. c. d.

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is the space between L3 and L4 where a lumbar puncture is normally performed. refers to C1 and C2, the atlas, and axis. is a fontanel. is C7.

ANS: D 90. Fontanels are a. paranasal sinuses. b. bone marrow structures that produce blood cells. c. composed entirely of compact bone. d. areas found in the infant skull that are membranous.

ANS: D 91. Which of the following is not true of the sphenoid bone? a. Contains the sella turcica, seat of the pituitary gland b. Forms the floor of the cranium c. Forms part of the eye socket d. Contains the foramen magnum ANS: D

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 92. Which of the following is least true of the occipital bone? a. Contains condyles that articulate with C1 b. Contains the mastoid process and the external auditory meatus c. Contains the foramen magnum d. Is a cranial bone ANS: B 93. Measurement from the acromion to the olecranon process determines a. leg length. b. chest diameter. c. arm length. d. length of the forearm.

ANS: C 94. Which of the following is not part of the thoracic cage? a. True ribs b. Sternum c. Thoracic vertebrae d. Coxal bones ANS: D 95. The carpals, metacarpals, and phalanges a. are part of the axial skeleton. b. are facial bones. c. form the hand.

NURSINGTB.COM d. include the hallux.

ANS: C

96. Which of the following is most descriptive of the calcaneus? a. Pollex b. Phalange c. Hand d. Tarsal bone ANS: D 97. The symphysis pubis is a slightly movable joint associated with the a. coxal bones. b. femur. c. sacrum. d. ischial tuberosity.

ANS: A 98. What is it called: The person moves his left thigh away from the midline of the body? a. Abduction b. Flexion c. Plantar flexion d. Inversion

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

ANS: A 99. Which of the following is least true of the knee? a. Is a synovial joint that can normally be flexed, extended, and abducted b. Contains bursae, ligaments, and cartilage c. Is a hinge joint d. Is called the tibiofemoral joint ANS: A 100. Which of the following describes both the hallux and pollex? a. Hand b. Metacarpal c. Phalanges d. Ball and socket ANS: C 101. Which of the following is least true of the mandible? a. Is the lower jaw b. Forms the TMJ c. Articulates with the occipital bone d. Site of attachment for the muscles of mastication ANS: C 102. Osteoclastic activity a. breaks down bone.

NURSINGTB.COM b. decreases blood calcium. c. strengthens bones. d. is restricted to the epiphyseal disc.

ANS: A

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

Chapter 10: Nervous System: Nervous Tissue and Brain Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which branching structures carry information toward the cell body of a neuron? a. Synapses b. Axons c. Dendrites d. Nodes of Ranvier ANS: C 2. The neurotransmitters such as acetylcholine (ACh) are stored within the a. tips of the dendrites. b. cell body. c. postsynaptic receptors. d. axon terminals.

ANS: D 3. What is the name of the space between the axon of one neuron and the dendrite of a second

neuron? a. Vesicle b. Cell body c. Synapse d. Node of Ranvier

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ANS: C

4. What is the name of the enzyme that destroys acetylcholine? a. Dopamine b. ACh c. Acetylcholinesterase d. Norepinephrine ANS: C 5. What term describes the hopping of the action potential (nerve impulse) along the axon from

one node (of Ranvier) to the next? a. Myelination b. Depolarization c. Saltatory conduction d. Repolarization ANS: C 6. The frontal, temporal, occipital, and parietal lobes form the a. brain stem. b. cerebrum. c. cerebellum.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. reticular formation.

ANS: B 7. The primary somatosensory area and the primary motor area are separated by a. Broca’s area. b. the central sulcus. c. the pia mater. d. the longitudinal fissure.

ANS: B 8. There are four major areas of the brain: the cerebrum, diencephalon, brain stem, and a. hypothalamus. b. medulla oblongata. c. limbic system. d. cerebellum.

ANS: D 9. Which word best describes the precentral gyrus? a. Olfactory b. Visual c. Motor d. Language ANS: C 10. The midbrain, pons, and medN uU llaRoS blI oN ngG atT aB ar. eC r eOf eMr r e d to as the a. diencephalons. b. brain stem. c. limbic system. d. emotional brain.

ANS: B 11. Excessive opioids (narcotics) depress the medulla oblongata and therefore cause a. Parkinson’s disease. b. blindness. c. respiratory depression. d. hypertension.

ANS: C 12. Endorphins are a. natural morphine-like substances that can reduce anxiety and induce a sense of

well-being. b. energy sources much like ATP. c. secreted by the choroid plexus and circulated within the subarachnoid space. d. waste products generated by depolarizing neurons.

ANS: A

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 13. The surface of the cerebrum is folded into elevations that resemble speed bumps; these speed

bumps are called a. fissures. b. sulci. c. foramen. d. convolutions, or gyri.

ANS: D 14. The depression between the convolutions of the cerebrum is called a a. pons. b. gyrus. c. sulcus. d. corpus callosum.

ANS: C 15. The medulla oblongata descends as the a. diencephalons. b. hypothalamus. c. cerebellum. d. spinal cord.

ANS: D 16. The pituitary gland sits beneath the a. medulla oblongata. b. brain stem.

NURSINGTB.COM c. hypothalamus. d. cerebellum.

ANS: C

17. Which of the following best describes the arachnoid mater? a. Limbic system b. Meninges c. Blood–brain barrier d. Cranium ANS: B 18. The corpus callosum a. connects the right and left hemispheres. b. connects the hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary gland. c. lines the cerebral ventricles. d. connects the brain stem to the cerebellum.

ANS: A 19. In which cerebral lobe is Broca’s area located? a. Parietal b. Occipital c. Frontal

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. Temporal ANS: C 20. Which of the following structures is most associated with “wake up”? a. Broca’s area b. Cerebellum c. Reticular activating system d. Thalamus ANS: C 21. The temporal lobe a. is a brain stem structure. b. is a cerebellar structure. c. contains the primary auditory cortex. d. is a large mass of white matter that joins the right and left cerebral hemispheres.

ANS: C 22. The occipital lobe a. is a brain stem structure. b. performs the “executive” functions. c. is called the vital center. d. contains the primary visual cortex.

ANS: D

NURSINGTB.COM 23. The nodes of Ranvier a. are located along the postsynaptic membrane. b. increase the speed of the action potential. c. synthesize the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. d. store ACh in tiny vesicles.

ANS: B 24. Which of the following is located within the subarachnoid space? a. Blood b. Lymph c. Cerebrospinal fluid d. Cytoplasm ANS: C 25. What is the function of the ependymal cells of the choroid plexus? a. Synthesize neurotransmitters such as ACh b. Form cerebrospinal fluid c. Phagocytose debris d. Secrete myelin ANS: B 26. Which of the following is the type of nervous tissue that conducts a nerve impulse?

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. b. c. d.

Astrocyte Neuroglia Neuron Ependymal cell

ANS: C 27. The astrocytes a. support and protect the neurons and help form the blood–brain barrier. b. secrete myelin. c. secrete cerebrospinal fluid. d. are concentrated within the choroid plexus.

ANS: A 28. What is the name of clusters of cell bodies that are located outside the central nervous system? a. Glia b. Nodes of Ranvier c. Nuclei d. Ganglia ANS: D 29. What is the fatty insulating material that surrounds the axons? a. Glia b. Choroid plexus c. Myelin d. Sarcolemma

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ANS: C

30. Which of the following is most related to “saltatory conduction”? a. Dendrites b. Choroid plexus c. Nodes of Ranvier d. Astrocytes ANS: C 31. Which of the following structures bring information toward the cell body? a. Dendrites b. Axons c. Nodes of Ranvier d. Axon terminals ANS: A 32. What makes white matter “white”? a. Cell bodies b. Neurotransmitters c. Synapses d. Myelin

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: D 33. The inside of the unstimulated neuron is negative; this electrical charge is caused by the

outward leak of potassium and is called a. depolarization. b. the action potential. c. the resting membrane potential. d. the refractory period.

ANS: C 34. What is the name of the first phase of the action potential that is caused by the inward

movement of sodium? a. Repolarization b. Refractory period c. Depolarization d. Saltatory conduction ANS: C 35. The cerebral spinal fluid a. is produced by the corpus callosum. b. cushions the brain, delivers nutrients to the brain, and removes wastes. c. circulates between the cranium and the brain. d. is secreted by the astrocytes.

ANS: B

N R I G B.C M

O 36. The repolarizing phase of the aU ctioS n poNtenT tial a. means that the inside of the cell is becoming more positive. b. is caused by the movement of sodium (Na+) into the cell. c. is caused by the movement of potassium (K+) out of the cell. d. is caused by the Na+/K+ pump located in the membrane.

ANS: C 37. Which of the following is the convolution located on the frontal lobe just anterior to the

central sulcus? a. Broca’s area b. Primary motor area c. Somatosensory area d. Visual cortex ANS: B 38. What is the name of the motor speech area located in the frontal lobe? a. The brain stem b. The pons c. Broca’s area d. The diencephalon ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 39. Which structure is also called the emotional brain? a. Cerebellum b. Basal ganglia c. Medulla oblongata d. Limbic system ANS: D 40. The purpose of the Na+/K+-ATPase pump in the neuronal membrane is to a. depolarize the membrane. b. repolarize the membrane. c. establish the Na+ and K+ gradients necessary for the development of an action

potential. d. secrete myelin.

ANS: C 41. This structure is part of the diencephalon; it regulates the anterior pituitary gland, water

balance, appetite, body temperature, and the autonomic nervous system. a. Cerebellum b. Pons c. Medulla oblongata d. Hypothalamus ANS: D 42. Which structure plays a key role in personality development and emotional and behavioral

expression and carries out t h eN“ e R xe c uIt i v G e” fuBn. ctC ionsM? a. Cerebellum U S N T O b. Frontal lobe c. Basal ganglia d. Medulla oblongata ANS: B 43. Injury to the occipital lobe is most likely to cause a. hearing loss. b. paralysis. c. loss of vision. d. disturbances in gait.

ANS: C 44. Which structure is called the lateral, third, and fourth? a. Meninges b. Ventricles c. Cerebral lobes d. Parts of the brain stem ANS: B 45. Which of the following contains cerebrospinal fluid? a. Central sulcus

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. Precentral gyrus c. Broca’s area d. Subarachnoid space ANS: D 46. Which of the following is the middle layer of the meninges and looks like a spiderweb? a. Dura mater b. Arachnoid mater c. Pia mater d. Reticular formation ANS: B 47. The corpus callosum a. connects the medulla oblongata and the spinal cord. b. is a band of gray matter that lines the ventricles. c. is the point at which all motor fibers decussate. d. connects the right and left cerebral hemispheres.

ANS: D 48. Parkinson’s disease a. is caused by a deficiency of dopamine within the basal ganglia. b. refers to any increase in intracranial pressure. c. is a demyelinating disease. d. is caused by a slow cerebral bleeding episode.

ANS: A

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49. The medulla oblongata descends into the vertebral cavity through the a. corpus callosum. b. obturator foramen. c. central canal. d. foramen magnum.

ANS: D 50. The postcentral gyrus a. is the primary visual cortex. b. is located in the parietal lobe. c. contains the primary motor cortex. d. performs the “executive” functions.

ANS: B 51. The precentral gyrus a. is the primary motor area. b. is located in the parietal lobe. c. is called the vital center. d. contains the medulla oblongata.

ANS: A

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

52. Broca’s area a. is concerned with motor speech. b. allows a person to hear and interpret sound. c. is located in the temporal lobe. d. coordinates eye movements, as in scanning a page in a book.

ANS: A 53. Frontal eye fields a. perform a motor role regarding the eyes. b. receive sensory information from the optic nerve. c. allow a person to interpret visual information. d. determine the color of the eyes.

ANS: A 54. Which group is incorrect? a. Parts of the brain: cerebrum, diencephalon, brain stem, cerebellum b. Meninges: pia mater, corpus callosum, dura mater c. Protective structures of the CNS: bone, meninges, cerebrospinal fluid, blood–brain

barrier d. Types of glia: astrocytes, ependymal cells, oligodendrocytes, microglia ANS: B 55. Which group is incorrect? a. Lobes of the cerebrum: frontal, parietal, occipital, temporal N R IponGT B.CllaMoblongata b. Parts of the brain stem: cer U e bruSm, N s, meduO c. Divisions of the nervous system: central nervous system, peripheral nervous

system d. Electrical events: depolarization, repolarization, action potential ANS: B 56. The precentral gyrus a. is located in the frontal lobe. b. is the primary visual cortex. c. contains the primary somatosensory area. d. is called the vital center.

ANS: A 57. Which of the following is least descriptive of Broca’s area? a. Located in the frontal lobe b. Concerned with motor speech c. Most often located in the left cerebral hemisphere d. Is a brain stem structure ANS: D 58. Which of the following “brain claims” is true? a. The medulla oblongata is the upper part of the diencephalon.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. The hypothalamus is a brain stem structure. c. The medulla oblongata performs the “executive functions.” d. The midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata are infratentorial structures.

ANS: D 59. The medulla oblongata is a. an infratentorial structure. b. located in the brain stem. c. sensitive to the effects of opioids (narcotics). d. all of the above.

ANS: D 60. The postcentral gyrus a. is located in the frontal lobe. b. controls voluntary motor activity. c. sends all its information to the occipital lobe. d. contains the somatosensory area.

ANS: D 61. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) a. is formed by the choroid plexus. b. circulates around the CNS within the subarachnoid space. c. does not normally contain blood. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D

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62. Which of the following best describes the primary visual cortex and the primary auditory

cortex? a. Choroid plexus and central canal b. Infratentorial and supratentorial c. Occipital and temporal d. Precentral gyrus and postcentral gyrus ANS: C 63. The choroid plexus a. is the site where cerebrospinal fluid is formed. b. is part of the internal carotid artery. c. drains cerebrospinal fluid from the subarachnoid space. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: A 64. Which of the following relationships is true? a. Temporal lobe: Broca’s area b. Frontal lobe: somatosensory (touch, pressure, pain) c. Precentral gyrus: motor homunculus d. Temporal lobe: vital center

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: C 65. Neuroglia a. are confined to the peripheral nervous system. b. include astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, Schwann cells, and ependymal cells. c. fire action potentials when stimulated. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: B 66. The phases of the action potential (nerve impulse) are a. excitatory and inhibitory. b. sensory and motor. c. depolarization and repolarization. d. dendrites and axons.

ANS: C 67. Myelination of the axon a. protects the neuron from wear and tear. b. waterproofs the axon from cerebrospinal fluid. c. increases the speed of the nerve impulse along the axon. d. keeps the axon warm so that it is sensitive to stimulation.

ANS: C 68. Which of the following is most descriptive of the nodes of Ranvier? a. Neurotransmitter-storing ves icle s in the axon terminals N R I G TB.C OM b. Exposed (unmyelinated) a xUo n aSl m N e m b r ane c. Enlargements formed by a concentration of Schwann cells d. Patches of blood vessels called the choroid plexus ANS: B 69. The hypothalamus a. is superior to the brain stem. b. controls the pituitary gland. c. is also considered a gland because it secretes releasing hormones. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 70. Which of the following describes cerebral lateralization? a. Sensory and motor b. Afferent and efferent c. Right brain and left brain d. Neuronal and neuroglial ANS: C 71. The chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) a. sends information to the emetic center in the medulla oblongata. b. is called the vital center.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. is located in the precentral gyrus. d. is part of the visual cortex.

ANS: A 72. Which of the following best describes the tentorium? a. Extension of the dura mater b. Lining of the cerebral ventricles and central canal c. Another name for the arachnoid mater d. Another name for the corpus callosum ANS: A 73. The emetic center a. receives information from the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ). b. is located in the vertebra prominens. c. is the target of antipyretics. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: A 74. The gaze center a. is located in the postcentral gyrus. b. enables the eyes to track an object. c. is part of the primary auditory cortex. d. enables the brain to ignore repetitive background noise.

ANS: B 75. The resting neuron a. is polarized.

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b. has an internal (+) charge. c. has an internal negativity because of the outward leak of Na+. d. has an internal negativity because of the inward leak of K+.

ANS: A 76. With regard to the action potential, a. the efflux of K+ causes repolarization. b. movement from the resting membrane potential to threshold potential is due to the

outward leak of K+. c. the Na+/K+ pump is responsible for repolarization. d. both depolarization and repolarization are due to an influx of Na+.

ANS: A 77. What happens when the resting nerve is stimulated to threshold potential? a. The efflux of K+ restores the resting membrane potential. b. An action potential fires. c. The Na+/K+ pump further depolarizes the cell. d. The membrane permeability to Na+ decreases.

ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

78. Which of the following is true of myelination? a. Occurs only at the nodes of Ranvier b. Increases the speed of the action potential along the axon c. Is responsible for the gray appearance of gray matter d. Increases the synthesis of neurotransmitters ANS: B 79. Neurotransmitters a. are released by the presynaptic axon terminals into the synapse. b. are stored within the axon terminals. c. are responsible in part for communication at the synapses. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 80. With regard to an action potential, the rapid efflux of K+ a. raises the resting membrane potential to threshold potential. b. restores the internal negativity of the neuron. c. causes depolarization. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: B 81. Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes a. are sensory neurons. b. synthesize myelin sheath of n e u r o n s i n the brain, spinal cord, and peripheral

nerves.

N R I G B.C M U S N T O

c. synthesize all neurotransmitters in the CNS. d. generate and conduct action potentials.

ANS: B 82. To which of the following are the words blood–brain barrier and glia most related? a. Saltatory conduction b. Nodes of Ranvier c. Action potentials d. Astrocytes ANS: D 83. Ependymal cells are a. Motor neurons b. Myelinated c. Concerned with the secretion of cerebrospinal fluid d. Meninges ANS: C 84. Which of the following structures contains the precentral gyrus, Broca’s area, and the primary

motor cortex? a. Frontal lobe

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. Cerebellum c. Temporal lobe d. Parietal lobe ANS: A 85. With which of the following is the parietal lobe most associated? a. Precentral gyrus b. Somatosensory area c. Motor speech area d. “Executive” functions ANS: B 86. Which of the following is true of the occipital lobe? a. Contains the primary visual cortex b. Is a brain stem structure c. Is responsible for all signals sent along the pyramidal tract d. Contains the emetic center ANS: A 87. The emetic center and the CTZ a. are frontal lobe structures. b. are located within the floor of the fourth ventricle. c. are concerned with vomiting. d. receive sensory input only from a distended stomach.

ANS: C

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88. Which is true of both the occipital and temporal lobes? Both a. are anterior to the central sulcus. b. are concerned exclusively with motor activity. c. are brain stem structures. d. are cerebral lobes.

ANS: D 89. Which of the following is not descriptive of the medulla oblongata? a. Brain stem structure b. Vital center c. Control of respirations d. “Executive” function ANS: D 90. The postcentral gyrus a. is a temporal lobe structure. b. contains the primary visual cortex. c. is a brain stem structure. d. performs a sensory role.

ANS: D

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

91. Opioid-induced depression of the medulla oblongata is most likely to a. cause skeletal muscle paralysis. b. depress respiratory activity. c. decrease the synthesis of cerebrospinal fluid. d. induce a motor aphasia.

ANS: B 92. The pituitary gland is connected to a. the hypothalamus. b. the medulla oblongata. c. the corpus callosum. d. Broca’s area.

ANS: A 93. Which of the following is true of the diencephalon? a. Contains the thalamus and hypothalamus b. Is a brain stem structure c. Contains the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata d. Is called the vital center ANS: A 94. The corpus callosum a. is composed of gray matter. b. is one of the meningeal layers.

N R I G B.C M TispherO c. connects the right and left cUereS b ralNhem es. d. is the stalk that connects the hypothalamus with the pituitary gland.

ANS: C

95. Which of the following best illustrates cerebral lateralization? a. Narcotics depress medullary respiratory activity. b. In most people speech is a left hemisphere function. c. The precentral gyrus is motor, while the postcentral gyrus is sensory. d. The occipital lobe receives sensory information from both eyes.

ANS: B 96. Wernicke’s area a. is a frontal lobe structure. b. is the vomiting center. c. translates thought into words. d. is located within Broca’s area.

ANS: C 97. Which of the following is least related to basal nuclei? a. Dopamine-secreting cells b. Bands of white matter that connect the right and left cerebral hemispheres c. Deficit: Parkinson’s disease

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. Deficit: shaking palsy ANS: B 98. A person is admitted to the ER following an auto accident. He has suffered a transsection of

the spinal cord at C3. Which statement is true? a. All sensation below C3 is intact; motor function is lost. b. All motor function below C3 is lost; sensation is intact. c. He is ventilator dependent; all sensory and motor activity below C3 is lost. d. He is hemiplegic.

ANS: C 99. In an adult an increased intracranial pressure may a. cause a downward displacement of the brain stem. b. cause herniation of the medulla oblongata through the foramen magnum. c. cause sudden respiratory arrest and death. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 100. Antiemetic drugs a. dissolve any blood clots in the vomiting center. b. can affect the vomiting center and CTZ to relieve nausea and vomiting. c. induce vomiting in a person who ingests poison. d. reverse narcotic-induced respiratory depression.

ANS: B

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101. Which of the following is least true of the reticular formation? a. Extends from the brain stem into the cerebral cortex b. Contains the RAS c. Nuclei within the reticular formation include the gaze center d. Also known as the emotional brain ANS: D 102. Which of the following is least true of the term REM? a. The most obvious characteristic is rapid eye movements. b. The key to restorative sleep is the elimination of REM. c. Most dreaming occurs during REM sleep. d. Characterized by fluctuations in blood pressure, heart rate, and rhythm.

ANS: B 103. LOC a. is an important assessment of a patient’s condition. b. refers to Lack Of Consciousness. c. cannot be affected by drugs or hypoxemia. d. is a stage of NREM sleep.

ANS: A

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 104. Which of the following is true of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? a. Is formed from the blood within the dural sinuses b. Is formed across the walls of the arachnoid villi and is drained by the choroid plexi c. Contains water, electrolytes, and blood d. Circulates within the subarachnoid space and central canal ANS: D 105. CSF circulates through all of the following structures except the a. Subarachnoid space b. Foramen magnum c. Fourth ventricle d. Cerebral aqueduct ANS: B 106. Which of the following is true of the ependymal cells? a. Form the tentorium cerebelli b. Secrete dopamine c. Are part of the choroid plexus and secrete CSF d. Are myelinated and are responsible for the white appearance of the corpus

callosum ANS: C 107. What is the function of the arachnoid villi? a. Secretion of CSF from the blood within the dural sinuses into the subarachnoid

space

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b. Phagocytosis of germ-laden CSF c. Diffusion of CSF from the subarachnoid space into the blood within the dural

sinuses d. Synthesis of myelin sheath ANS: C 108. Which of the following best describes the location of arachnoid villi? a. Sitting within the choroid plexus b. Lining the central sulcus c. Protruding into the dural sinuses from the subarachnoid space d. Protruding from the dural sinuses into the subarachnoid space ANS: C 109. Which of the following is a consequence of a blocked cerebral aqueduct within the fetal

brain? a. Meningitis b. Spina bifida c. Hydrocephalus d. Microcephalia ANS: C 110. A supratentorial brain tumor is

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. b. c. d.

always malignant. superior to the cerebral cortex. a brain stem tumor. superior to the tentorium cerebelli.

ANS: D 111. The “maters” a. are membranes that are restricted to the cranial cavity. b. are tough connective tissue membranes. c. are motor neurons. d. are meninges.

ANS: D

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

Chapter 11: Nervous System: Spinal Cord and Peripheral Nerves Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is the major motor tract? a. Cauda equina b. Spinocerebellar c. Pyramidal d. Spinothalamic ANS: C 2. Which of the following is the best description of a motor tract? a. Spinothalamic tract b. Ascending tract c. Descending tract d. Gray matter ANS: C 3. To achieve spinal anesthesia, a -caine drug is injected into the a. lateral ventricle. b. central canal. c. subarachnoid space. d. dorsal root ganglia.

ANS: C

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4. A hammer strikes the Achilles tendon to elicit which stretch reflex? a. Babinski b. Baroreceptor c. Patellar tendon d. Ankle jerk ANS: D 5. The fifth cranial nerve, called the

nerve, is a mixed nerve that detects sensations from

the scalp, face, and teeth. a. olfactory b. facial c. vestibulocochlear d. trigeminal ANS: D

nerve, “wanders” outside the head area and innervates the

6. The tenth cranial nerve, the

heart and gastrointestinal systems. a. trigeminal b. vagus c. olfactory

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. spinal accessory ANS: B 7. The oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens are cranial nerves that a. innervate the extrinsic eye muscles (move the eyeball). b. innervate the levator palpebrae superioris (lift the eyelid). c. interpret sensory information from the optic nerve. d. innervate the muscles of mastication.

ANS: A 8. Which of the following is not descriptive of the optic nerve? a. Sensory b. Cranial nerve c. Move the eyeball d. Vision ANS: C 9. Which of the following is descriptive of cranial nerve VIII? a. Motor nerve b. Spinal nerve c. Vestibulocochlear d. Concerned with vision ANS: C 10. Which of the following is moNstUdR esScI ripNtiG veToBf. thC eO phMrenic nerve? a. Concerned with the sensation of smell b. Innervates the muscles of the eyeball c. Motor nerve supplying the diaphragm d. Sensory nerve concerned with balance ANS: C 11. Which of the following is least descriptive of the olfactory nerve? a. Sensory b. Concerned with the sense of smell c. Cranial nerve I d. Moves the tongue ANS: D 12. The somatic motor branch of the peripheral nervous system a. exits the spinal cord through the dorsal root. b. regulates heart rate. c. is the afferent branch of the peripheral nervous system. d. is an efferent branch of the peripheral nervous system.

ANS: D 13. Ptosis of the eyelid and dilated and fixed pupils reflect pressure on which nerve?

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. b. c. d.

Optic Vagus Oculomotor Facial

ANS: C 14. Which of the following is located within the spinal cavity? a. Cauda equina b. Cervical plexus c. Brachial plexus d. Vagus nerve ANS: A 15. Damage to which nerve prevents extension of the hip and flexion of the knee? a. Axillary b. Phrenic c. Sciatic d. Median cubital ANS: C 16. Damage to the common peroneal nerve causes a. crutch palsy. b. deafness. c. footdrop. d. inability to breathe.

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ANS: C

17. The ulnar, radial, and median nerves supply the a. forearm and hand. b. breathing muscles. c. jaw. d. hip and thigh.

ANS: A 18. A spinal cord injury at the level of C2 causes a. hemiplegia and blindness. b. paraplegia and deafness. c. quadriplegia and an inability to breathe. d. ptosis of the eyelid and dilated and fixed pupils.

ANS: C 19. An intramuscular injection into the buttocks is given in the upper outer quadrant in an attempt

to avoid injuring which nerve? a. Common peroneal b. Phrenic c. Femoral d. Sciatic

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

ANS: D 20. An area of skin innervated by a spinal nerve is called a a. plexus. b. tract. c. dermatome. d. gyrus.

ANS: C 21. To evaluate this cranial nerve, the person is asked to stick out the tongue and the nurse notes

any deviation in the position of the protruded tongue. a. Trigeminal b. Hypoglossal c. Facial d. Olfactory ANS: B 22. A lumbar puncture is done by inserting a needle into the a. dural sinus. b. central canal. c. arachnoid villus. d. subarachnoid space.

ANS: D 23. The baroreceptor reflex contrN oU ls RSINGTB.COM a. posture. b. the amount of light that enters the eyes. c. body temperature. d. blood pressure.

ANS: D 24. The Babinski reflex is elicited by a. shining light into the eyes. b. tapping the patellar tendon. c. tapping the Achilles tendon. d. stroking the sole of the foot.

ANS: D 25. Which word best describes the following: spinothalamic, pyramidal, corticospinal? a. Meninges b. Plexuses c. Tracts d. Motor tracts ANS: C 26. The pyramidal tract

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. originates in the pyramidal cells of the medulla oblongata and carries information

to the parietal lobe. b. is also called the corticospinal tract. c. is a sensory tract. d. is also called the spinothalamic tract.

ANS: B 27. The first, second, and eighth cranial nerves a. are concerned with vision. b. descend in the corticospinal tract. c. are sensory nerves. d. carry sensory information to the occipital lobe.

ANS: C 28. Which reflex is concerned with the regulation of blood pressure? a. Achilles’ tendon b. Babinski c. Patellar d. Baroreceptor ANS: D 29. Which reflex is stimulated by stroking the sole of the foot with a sharp object? a. Patellar b. Baroreceptor c. Babinski NURSINGTB.COM d. Gag ANS: C

30. If this reflex is not working, a person is in danger of choking on food. a. Baroreceptor b. Withdrawal c. Babinski d. Gag ANS: D 31. Damage to which cranial nerve causes blindness? a. I b. II c. III d. VIII ANS: B 32. Sensory nerve fibers travel from the periphery to the spinal cord through the a. dorsal root. b. efferent branch. c. pyramidal tracts d. descending tracts.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

ANS: A 33. A “dilated and fixed” pupil indicates pressure on which cranial nerve? a. Cranial nerve II b. Olfactory nerve c. Cranial nerve III d. Vestibulocochlear ANS: C 34. The gag reflex is mediated by which nerve? a. Optic nerve b. Oculomotor nerve c. Cranial nerve VIII d. Glossopharyngeal nerve ANS: D 35. Damage to which nerve causes crutch palsy? a. Sciatic b. Radial c. Axillary d. Pudendal ANS: C 36. Which of the following nerves is often “deadened” or anesthetized for the purpose of

childbirth? a. Pudendal b. Sciatic c. Cauda equina d. Phrenic

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ANS: A

37. At which structure are spinal nerves grouped and sorted? a. A ganglion b. A nucleus c. A plexus d. The cauda equina ANS: C 38. Which large nerve emerges from the distal end of the spinal cord and innervates the lower

extremities? a. Pudendal b. Phrenic c. Sciatic d. Radial ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 39. If the phrenic nerve were cut or severed, the patient would not be able to a. walk. b. speak. c. breathe. d. swallow.

ANS: C 40. Both the trigeminal and facial nerves participate in the a. gag b. Babinski c. baroreceptor d. corneal

reflex.

ANS: D 41. A person with damage to a. the facial nerve b. the vagus nerve c. cranial nerve II d. cranial nerve VIII

has the weakest blink.

ANS: A 42. A person with is most likely to require eyedrops in order to moisten the cornea. a. Bell’s palsy b. anosmia c. a severed optic nerve NURSINGTB.COM d. an impaired gag reflex ANS: A

43. Which of the following is true of the spinothalamic tract? a. Sensory for touch, pressure, and pain b. Pyramidal tract c. Descending tract d. Stimulates the skeletal muscles ANS: A 44. A surgical patient is given a curare-like drug intravenously, thereby blocking his NM

receptors. You would expect this patient to a. become jaundiced. b. bleed excessively during the postoperative period. c. require assistance breathing. d. have restraints on all four extremities to limit movement.

ANS: C 45. The dermatome is most related to which of the following? a. Cranial nerves b. Lumbar puncture c. Spinal nerve distribution

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. The autonomic nervous system ANS: C 46. The nerve (tract) carries sensory information toward the brain. a. phrenic b. pyramidal c. corticospinal d. spinothalamic ANS: D 47. Tic douloureux, or trigeminal neuralgia, is characterized by a. intense facial pain. b. diminished vision. c. hearing loss. d. hemiplegia.

ANS: A 48. Which group is incorrect? a. Cranial nerves: olfactory, optic, oculomotor b. Spinal nerves: phrenic, axillary, sciatic, vagus c. Plexuses: cervical, brachial, lumbosacral d. States of paralysis: paraplegia, quadriplegia, hemiplegia ANS: B 49. Which group is incorrect? NURSINGTB.COM a. Spinal nerves: phrenic, axillary, pudendal b. Reflexes: baroreceptor, withdrawal, pupillary, patellar, gag c. Nerve damage: crutch palsy, wristdrop, footdrop, Bell’s palsy d. Cranial nerves: vagus, facial, median cubital, oculomotor ANS: D 50. Which group is incorrect? a. Cranial nerves: olfactory, optic, oculomotor, vagus b. Plexuses: cervical, brachial, lumbosacral, cauda equina c. States of paralysis: paraplegia, quadriplegia, hemiplegia d. Nerves that affect eye movement: oculomotor, abducens, trochlear ANS: B 51. Which of the following is least true of the spinal cord? a. The spinal cord, like the brain, is protected by bone, meninges, CSF, and the

blood–brain barrier. b. The adult spinal cord extends the length of the spinal cavity. c. The gray matter is composed primarily of cell bodies and interneurons. d. The white matter is white because of myelin.

ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 52. Which tract arises within the spinal cord and ascends to the diencephalon? a. Corticospinal b. Spinothalamic c. Spinocerebellar d. Pyramidal ANS: B 53. Which of the following is true about the pyramidal tract? a. Its destination is the primary somatosensory cortex. b. It descends to the medulla oblongata, where most fibers decussate and descend on

the contralateral side of the body. c. It descends from the primary motor cortex on the ipsilateral side of the body. d. It connects the right and left cerebral hemispheres.

ANS: B 54. To which of the following do these characteristics apply: light touch, pressure, pain, and

temperature? a. Corticospinal tract b. Pyramidal tract c. Corpus callosum d. Spinothalamic tract ANS: D 55. A patient has suffered an injury to the right cerebral hemisphere and has left-sided paralysis.

I G B.C M U S N T O

Which word best explains t h iNs? R a. b. c. d.

Cerebral lateralization Demyelination Neuroplasticity Decussation

ANS: D

56. Which of the following occurs last (patellar tendon reflex)? a. The effector organ contracts. b. The action potential travels along the efferent neuron to the quadriceps femoris. c. The action potential travels along the sensory neuron to the spinal cord. d. The muscle receptors of the quadriceps femoris are stimulated when the patellar

ligament is stretched.

ANS: A 57. All nervous reflexes a. are activated by stretch. b. are restricted to the movement of the appendicular skeleton. c. require a sensory and motor arm. d. involve the spinal cord.

ANS: C 58. The Roman numerals that designate the cranial nerves indicate

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. b. c. d.

whether the nerves are sensory, motor, or mixed. the order in which the nerves exit the brain. the nerves that emerge from the frontal lobe. the nerves that use ACh as their neurotransmitters.

ANS: B 59. Which of the following is true of CNs III, IV, and VI? All a. are sensory and send information to the primary visual cortex. b. stimulate the levator palpebrae superioris to raise the eyelid. c. send information to the occipital lobe. d. move the eyeballs.

ANS: D 60. Which of the following is true of CN I, II, and VIII? All are a. sensory and send information to the primary visual cortex. b. motor and stimulate muscles that move the eyeballs. c. sensory and send information to the primary auditory cortex. d. sensory.

ANS: D 61. Excess pressure on this cranial nerve affects pupillary size and the activity of the levator

palpebrae superioris. a. VIII b. II c. X d. III

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ANS: D

62. Which of the following is least related to CN VIII? a. Vestibular branch b. Primary auditory cortex c. Cochlear branch d. Wernicke’s area ANS: D 63. Sensory information is carried by the cochlear branch of CN VIII to the a. primary auditory cortex. b. occipital lobe. c. temporal lobe. d. More than one of the above are true.

ANS: D 64. Which of the following is least related to the olfactory nerve? a. CN I b. Impairment: anosmia c. Motor, causing flaring of the nares d. Smell

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

ANS: C 65. Spinal nerves a. exit the spinal cord at the medulla oblongata. b. are purely sensory. c. all exit the spinal cord as extensions of the cauda equina. d. are mixed.

ANS: D 66. Which of the following is not true of Bell’s palsy? a. Facial nerve involvement b. CN VII c. Spasm: sternocleidomastoid bilaterally d. Impairment: blinking ANS: C 67. Ptosis of the eyelid and fixed/dilated pupil are indicative of a. damaged CN II. b. damage: primary visual cortex. c. inflammation of the facial nerve. d. excess pressure on the oculomotor nerve.

ANS: D 68. A piece of dirt blows into your left eye, embedding in the cornea. Which of the following is

not part of a reflex that is act N ivU at R edS? I N G T B.C O M a. CN V carries pain information to the brain. b. The ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve carries sensory information to the primary visual cortex. c. Facial nerve stimulation results in blinking. d. CN VII stimulation causes tearing or an increase in lacrimation.

ANS: B

69. Which of the following is least related to tic douloureux? a. Trigeminal neuralgia b. Excruciating face pain c. Triggers: chewing, shaving, talking, smiling, and exposure to cold d. Impairment: bone conduction deafness ANS: D 70. Which of the following is the most serious consequence of a damaged or anesthetized

glossopharyngeal nerve? Impaired a. secretion of salivary glands and dry mouth. b. corneal reflex and corneal scarring. c. gag reflex and aspiration of food and water into the respiratory passages. d. swallowing causing starvation.

ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

71. Unlike most cranial nerves, this cranial nerve innervates organs in the thorax and

abdominopelvic cavity. a. Glossopharyngeal b. Phrenic c. Vagus d. Trigeminal ANS: C 72. Which of the following is least descriptive of the phrenic nerve? a. Primarily afferent fibers b. Spinal nerve c. Diaphragm and ventilation d. Cervical plexus ANS: A 73. What is described: cervical (8), thoracic (12), lumbar (5), sacral (5), and coccygeal (1)? a. Number of nerve plexi b. Sensory nerves of the peripheral nervous system c. Levels at which most motor neurons decussate d. Spinal nerves ANS: D 74. Which of the following is not true of the median, radial, and ulnar nerves? a. Innervate the muscles of t h e upper extremities b. Spinal nerves c. Mixed nerves

N R I G B.C M U S N T O

d. Emerge from the cervical plexus ANS: D 75. Identify the disorder: clusters of vesicles develop along cranial or spinal dermatomes; herpes

zoster; postherpetic neuralgia. a. Multiple sclerosis b. Shingles c. Myasthenia gravis d. Trigeminal neuralgia ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

Chapter 12: Autonomic Nervous System Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is most related to the “feed-and-breed” system? a. Pyramidal tracts b. Sympathetic nervous system c. Craniosacral outflow d. Rapid heart rate, palpitations, sweating ANS: C 2. Which of the following is most characteristic of the parasympathetic nervous system? a. Adrenergic b. Norepinephrine c. Fight-or-flight response d. Feed-and-breed system ANS: D 3. Which neurotransmitter is secreted by a cholinergic fiber? a. Adrenaline b. Epinephrine c. Acetylcholine d. Norepinephrine ANS: C

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4. What is another term for thoracolumbar outflow? a. Vagal discharge b. Parasympathetic nervous system c. Sympathetic nervous system d. Limbic system ANS: C 5. Which of the following is not an effector organ for the autonomic nerves? a. Skeletal muscle b. Visceral smooth muscle c. Glands d. Cardiac muscle ANS: A 6. Which of the following is characteristic of the parasympathetic nervous system? a. Fight-or-flight response b. Thoracolumbar c. Paravertebral ganglia d. Postganglionic fiber is cholinergic ANS: D This study source was downloaded by 100000872359968 from CourseHero.com on 11-09-2023 16:03:31 GMT -06:00

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

7. Which of the following is characteristic of the sympathetic nervous system? a. Craniosacral outflow b. Cholinergic fibers only c. Paravertebral ganglia d. Postganglionic transmitter is ACh ANS: C 8. The effects of adrenal medullary secretion most resemble a. craniosacral outflow. b. firing of the somatic motor neurons. c. sympathetic nerve discharge. d. vagal discharge.

ANS: C 9. An adrenergic fiber is one that a. innervates the adrenal medulla. b. is a preganglionic fiber. c. originates in the midbrain. d. secretes norepinephrine as its transmitter.

ANS: D 10. Which of the following is an adrenergic fiber? a. Postganglionic parasympathetic b. Preganglionic sympathetic NURSINGTB.COM c. Preganglionic parasympathetic d. Postganglionic sympathetic ANS: D 11. Sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves a. are somatic motor neurons. b. supply voluntary skeletal muscles. c. include the phrenic, sciatic, and brachial nerves. d. innervate the viscera.

ANS: D 12. A drug that causes the heart to beat stronger and faster is called a. parasympatholytic. b. sympathomimetic. c. sympatholytic. d. anticholinergic.

ANS: B 13. Which of the following is an effect of postganglionic parasympathetic discharge? a. Slowed heart rate b. Increased blood pressure c. Dilation of the pupil of the eye

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. Stronger contraction of the heart ANS: A 14. Vasomotor tone is a. a vasoconstrictor effect caused by background firing of the sympathetic nerves. b. a vagally induced peripheral vasodilation. c. caused by parasympathomimetic drugs. d. caused by sympatholytic drugs.

ANS: A 15. Paravertebral ganglia a. are part of the craniosacral outflow. b. “drive” the vagus nerve. c. are located within the organs of innervation. d. are also called the sympathetic chain ganglia.

ANS: D 16. Which of the following is least descriptive of thoracolumbar outflow? a. Fight or flight b. Muscarinic and nicotinic receptors c. Sympathetic nervous system d. Paravertebral ganglia ANS: B 17. Alpha and beta receptors areNURSINGTB.COM a. associated with the parasympathetic nervous system. b. associated with craniosacral outflow. c. located on the paravertebral ganglia. d. activated by norepinephrine.

ANS: D 18. Which of the following is least associated with monoamine oxidase (MAO)? a. Enzyme that degrades norepinephrine b. Found within all cholinergic nerve terminals c. Associated with sympathetic activity d. Associated with adrenergic fibers ANS: B 19. A beta1-adrenergic agonist a. increases heart rate. b. causes the release of acetylcholine. c. blocks the effects of norepinephrine at its receptor site. d. lowers blood pressure.

ANS: A 20. Atropine is classified as a muscarinic antagonist or blocker and therefore is

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. b. c. d.

parasympathomimetic. sympatholytic. vagolytic. sympathomimetic.

ANS: C 21. Muscarinic receptors are a. activated by norepinephrine. b. located on the effector organs of the sympathetic nervous system. c. activated by catecholamines such as adrenalin and dopamine. d. activated by ACh. ANS: D 22. Which of the following is least true of the vagus nerve? a. Cholinergic b. Slows heart rate c. Effect on the heart is eliminated by a beta1-adrenergic blocker d. Transmitter is ACh ANS: C 23. Vagal discharge activates a. muscarinic receptors. b. alpha1-adrenergic receptors. c. beta1-adrenergic receptors. d. the paravertebral ganglia.

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ANS: A 24. Sympathetic nervous system stimulation causes vasoconstriction of the blood vessels, thereby

elevating blood pressure. Which of the following drug classifications lowers blood pressure? a. Vagolytic b. Sympatholytic c. Parasympathomimetic d. Vagomimetic ANS: B 25. Sympathetic nerve stimulation causes relaxation of the breathing passages (bronchodilation).

Which of the following drug classifications achieves this effect? a. Beta2-adrenergic agonist b. Alpha1-adrenergic blocker c. Vagomimetic d. Parasympathomimetic ANS: A 26. A preoperative patient received an antimuscarinic drug (atropine). Which drug-related

postoperative consequence is this patient likely to experience? a. Decreased heart rate b. Difficult urination

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. Elevated blood pressure d. Excess salivation ANS: B 27. A patient has vagally induced bradycardia (slow heart rate). Which of the following will

relieve the bradycardia? a. Muscarinic antagonist b. Beta1-adrenergic blocker c. Vagomimetic drug d. Alpha1-adrenergic agonist ANS: A 28. Which of the following is most descriptive of dual innervation of the autonomic nervous

system? a. Muscarinic and nicotinic b. Alpha and beta c. Sympathetic and parasympathetic d. Beta1 and beta2 ANS: C 29. Which group is incorrect? a. Adrenergic receptors: alpha, beta b. Cholinergic receptors: muscarinic, nicotinic c. Neurotransmitters: norepinephrine, ACh, dopamine d. Sympathetic responses: d e c r e a s e d bl ood p r e ssu r e , decreased heart rate, anxiety

N R I G B. C M U S N T O

ANS: D

30. Which of the following is least related to the sympathetic nervous system? a. Vagomimetic effect b. Adrenergic fibers c. Alpha and beta receptors d. Paravertebral ganglia ANS: A 31. Which of the following is most related to the postganglionic sympathetics? a. Muscarinic receptors b. ACh c. Alpha and beta receptor activation d. Craniosacral outflow ANS: C 32. Muscarinic receptors are associated with a. paravertebral ganglia. b. preganglionic parasympathetic fibers. c. postganglionic parasympathetic fibers. d. all fibers that secrete ACh.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: C 33. Which of the following is (are) most related to the muscarinic receptors? a. Paravertebral ganglia b. ACh c. Fight-or-flight response d. Adrenergic fibers ANS: B 34. Which of the following is true of the preganglionic fibers of both the sympathetic and

parasympathetic nervous systems? Both a. are adrenergic. b. secrete ACh. c. synapse at the paravertebral ganglia. d. are targets of beta blockers.

ANS: B 35. Muscarinic activation is a. a consequence of vagal discharge. b. a response to the binding of NE to its adrenergic receptors. c. a fight-or-flight response. d. achieved by sympathetic discharge.

ANS: A 36. A vagolytic effect a. b. c. d.

NURSINGTB.COM

is a fight-or-flight response. is achieved by beta blockade. increases heart rate. refers to muscarinic activation.

ANS: C 37. Beta adrenergic blockade a. dilates the respiratory bronchioles and therefore relieves the symptoms of asthma. b. is apt to induce tachycardia. c. decreases heart rate but also causes bronchoconstriction. d. mimics sympathetic outflow.

ANS: C 38. Which of the following is true of AChase, MAO, and COMT? a. Terminate adrenergic receptor activation b. Are enzymes that degrade neurotransmitters c. Are adrenergic neurotransmitters d. Are neurotransmitters that activate nicotinic receptors ANS: B 39. An anticholinergic or antimuscarinic effect a. causes miosis and bradycardia.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. is characterized by an increased heart rate and urinary retention. c. resembles a vagomimetic response. d. resembles a fight-or-flight response.

ANS: B 40. Which of the following is descriptive of a panic attack? a. Muscarinic activation b. Vagomimetic c. Fight or flight d. All of the above ANS: C 41. Increased heart rate, increased blood pressure, bronchodilation, diaphoresis, and pupillary

dilation (mydriasis) are consequences of a. activation of the adrenergic receptors. b. anticholinergic effect. c. vagomimetic activity. d. alpha1 blockade.

ANS: A 42. Thoracolumbar outflow is described as a. fight or flight. b. vagomimetic. c. sympathomimetic. d. More than one of the abo ve a r e true.

N R I G B.C M U S N T O

ANS: D

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Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank Chapter 14: Musculoskeletal System LaFleur: Exploring Medical Language, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The pronunciation for the third set of five larger vertebrae that forms the inward curve of the spine is called a. (tha-RAS-ik) (VER-te-bray). b. c. (LUM-bar) (VER-te-bray). d. (SUR-vi-kal) (VER-te-bray).

ANS: C REF: 530 OBJ: TOP: Pronunciation of Anatomic Structures

1

2. The pronunciation for the anatomical term for the collarbone is a. b. (KLAV-i-kul). c. (STUR-num). d. (MAN-di-bul).

ANS: B REF: 530 OBJ: TOP: Pronunciation of Anatomic Structures

1

3. The pronunciation for the anatomic term that means shoulder blade is a.

NURSINGTB.COM b. (KLAV-i-kul). c. d.

ANS: C REF: 530 OBJ: TOP: Pronunciation of Anatomic Structures

1

4. The upper arm bone is called the a. b. c. d.

ANS: D REF: 531 OBJ: TOP: Pronunciation of Anatomic Structures

1

5. The pronunciation for the anatomic term referring to the upper, wing-shaped portion of the pelvic bone is a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

REF: 534

OBJ:

NURSINGTB.COM

1

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank TOP: Pronunciation of Anatomic Structures 6. The pronunciation for the anatomic term that means upper leg bone is a. b. (pa-TEL-a). c. d.

ANS: D REF: 534 OBJ: TOP: Pronunciation of Anatomic Structures

1

7. The pronunciation for the anatomic term referring to the small, fluid-filled sac that allows for easy movement of one part of a joint over another is called the a. (BUR-sa). b. c. d. (me-NIS-kus).

ANS: A REF: 535 OBJ: TOP: Pronunciation of Anatomic Structures

1

8. The pronunciation for the anatomic term referring to the structure that attaches muscle to bone is a. (LIG-a-ment). b. (BUR-sa). c. (TEN-don). d.

N R I G B.C M

U S N T

O

ANS: C REF: 535 OBJ: TOP: Pronunciation of Anatomic Structures

1

9. Movement that turns the palms up is called a. supination. b. extension. c. inversion. d. pronation.

ANS: A REF: 577 TOP: Types of Body Movement

OBJ:

7

10. Moving away from the midline is a movement called a. abduction. b. eversion. c. adduction. d. flexion.

ANS: A REF: 576 TOP: Types of Body Movement

OBJ:

11. Rotation is a movement described as a. turning around its own axis.

NURSINGTB.COM

7

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank b. placing into a bent position. c. turning inward. d. placing into an outstretched position.

ANS: A REF: 577 TOP: Types of Body Movement

OBJ:

7

12. The movement in which a limb is placed in a straight position is a. eversion. b. inversion. c. flexion. d. extension.

ANS: D REF: 576 TOP: Types of Body Movement

OBJ:

7

OBJ:

2

13. The combining form that means rib is a. chondr/o. b. clavic/o. c. clavicul/o. d. cost/o.

ANS: D

REF: 539

TOP: Word Parts

14. The combining form that means kneecap is a. patell/o. b. phalang/o.

NURSINGTB.COM c. rachi/o. d. orth/o.

ANS: A

REF: 539

OBJ:

2

TOP: Word Parts

OBJ:

2

TOP: Word Parts

OBJ:

2

TOP: Word Parts

15. The combining form stern/o is defined as a. collarbone. b. shoulder blade. c. xiphoid process. d. breast bone.

ANS: D

REF: 539

16. The combining form spondyl/o is defined as a. scapula. b. vertebra. c. cranium. d. symphysis pubis.

ANS: B

REF: 539

17. The combining form that means lower jawbone is a. maxill/o. b. mandibul/o. c. radi/o.

NURSINGTB.COM

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank d. ischi/o.

ANS: B

REF: 539

OBJ:

2

TOP: Word Parts

OBJ:

2

TOP: Word Parts

OBJ:

2

TOP: Word Parts

2

TOP: Word Parts

OBJ:

2

TOP: Word Parts

OBJ:

2

TOP: Word Parts

OBJ:

2

TOP: Word Parts

18. The combining form that means cartilage is a. menisc/o. b. chondr/o. c. arthr/o. d. ten/o.

ANS: B

REF: 543

19. The combining form that means joint is a. aponeur/o. b. arthr/o. c. burs/o. d. tendin/o.

ANS: B

REF: 543

20. In the medical term ankyl/osis, the word root means a. bent forward. b. stiff, bent. c. crooked, curved. d. hump.

ANS: B

REF: 544

OBJ:

N R I G B.COM

U S Nis T 21. The combining form that means bone a. my/o. b. arthr/o. c. synovi/o. d. oste/o.

ANS: D

REF: 544

22. A combining form for tendon is a. aponeur/o. b. disk/o. c. synovi/o. d. tend/o.

ANS: D

REF: 543

23. The combining form for bone marrow is a. myel/o. b. myc/o. c. myos/o. d. cost/o.

ANS: A

REF: 544

NURSINGTB.COM

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank 24. The combining form that means movement, motion is a. kyph/o. b. kinesi/o. c. ankyl/o. d. lord/o.

ANS: B

REF: 544

OBJ:

2

TOP: Word Parts

OBJ:

2

TOP: Word Parts

25. Scoli/o is defined as a. (lateral) curved (spine). b. bent forward. c. stiff, bent. d. soft.

ANS: A

REF: 544

26. The combining form that means hump (increased convexity) of the spine is a. kyph/o. b. ankyl/o. c. spondyl/o. d. lord/o.

ANS: A

REF: 544

27. The prefix inter- means a. holding. b. between. c. within. d. connecting.

ANS: B

OBJ:

2

TOP: Word Parts

NURSINGTB.COM

REF: 545

OBJ:

2

TOP: Word Parts

OBJ:

2

TOP: Word Parts

OBJ:

2

TOP: Word Parts

28. A prefix for together, joined is a. syn-. b. intra-. c. -physis. d. supra-.

ANS: A

REF: 545

29. The combining form sarc/o is defined as a a. flash, connective tissue. b. synovia, synovial membrane. c. stiff, bent. d. sacrum.

ANS: A

REF: 544

30. The suffix -asthenia is defined as a a. surgical fixation, fusion. b. split, fissure. c. weakness.

NURSINGTB.COM

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank d. growth.

ANS: C

REF: 545

OBJ:

2

TOP: Word Parts

OBJ:

2

TOP: Word Parts

OBJ:

2

TOP: Word Parts

31. The suffix -physis is defined as a a. growth. b. weakness. c. surgical fixation, fusion. d. split, fissure.

ANS: A

REF: 545

32. The suffix -trophy is defined as a. growth. b. split, fissure. c. weakness. d. nourishment, development.

ANS: D

REF: 545

33. The term rhabdomyolysis is defined as a. weakness b. split c. dissolution d. surgical fixation

of striated muscle.

ANS: C REF: 548 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and DisordN er TR ermI s BG uilt B fr. om C WMord Parts

U S N T

O

34. The term chondromalacia is defined as a. an abnormal condition of stonelike bones. b. muscle weakness. c. softening of cartilage. d. an abnormal condition of a hump.

ANS: C REF: 546 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Built from Word Parts 35. The term that means inflammation of a tendon is a. tenosynovitis. b. polymyositis. c. tendinitis. d. tenorrhaphy.

ANS: C REF: 548 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Built from Word Parts 36. The term that means inflammation of the bone is a. osteitis. b. arthritis. c. osteonecrosis. d. osteopathy.

NURSINGTB.COM

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank

ANS: A REF: 546 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Built from Word Parts 37. The term myasthenia is defined as a. pain in muscle. b. difficult movement. c. muscle degeneration. d. muscle weakness.

ANS: D REF: 546 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Built from Word Parts 38. The term that means abnormal condition of the vertebrae is a. rachischisis. b. scoliosis. c. spondylosis. d. fibromyalgia.

ANS: C REF: 548 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Built from Word Parts 39. The term that means (congenital) fissure (split) of the cranium is a. rachischisis. b. spondylosis. c. cranioschisis. d. spina bifida.

ANS: C

N R ING TB.COM

REF: U546S

OBJ:

3

TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Built from Word Parts 40. The term that means abnormal condition of (lateral) curved (spine) a. scoliosis. b. kyphosis. c. ankylosis. d. lordosis.

ANS: A REF: 548 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Built from Word Parts 41. The term that means inflammation of fluid-filled sac that allows for easy movement of one part of a joint over another is a. spondylarthritis. b. tenosynovitis. c. bursitis. d. polymyositis.

ANS: C REF: 546 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Built from Word Parts 42. The term spondylarthritis is defined as inflammation of the a. vertebral joints.

NURSINGTB.COM

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank b. lumbar vertebrae. c. sacroiliac joints. d. intervertebral disks.

ANS: A REF: 548 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Built from Word Parts 43. A malignant tumor of the bone is called a. synoviosarcoma. b. osteofibroma. c. osteosarcoma. d. myeloma.

ANS: C REF: 548 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Built from Word Parts 44. An abnormal prominence of the joint at the base of the great toe is called a. bunion. b. exostosis. c. bursolith. d. gout.

ANS: A REF: 553 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Not Built from Word Parts 45. A form of arthritis that first affects the spine and adjacent structures and, as it progresses, causes a forward bend of the spine is NURSINGTB.COM a. osteoporosis. b. myasthenia gravis. c. ankylosing spondylitis. d. rheumatoid arthritis.

ANS: C REF: 553 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Not Built from Word Parts 46. The term that means abnormal loss of bone density, which may lead to fractures from slight trauma, is a. osteopetrosis. b. osteopenia. c. osteoporosis. d. osteoarthritis.

ANS: C REF: 554 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Not Built from Word Parts 47. Colles fracture is defined as a. abnormal prominence of the joint at the base of the great toe, the metatarsal-phalangeal joint. b. abnormal loss of bone density that may lead to an increase in fractures of the ribs, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae, hips, and wrists after slight trauma. c. forward slipping of one vertebra over another.

NURSINGTB.COM

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank d. type of wrist fracture at the distal end of the radius, the distal fragment being displaced backward.

ANS: D REF: 553 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Not Built from Word Parts 48. The term for a common nerve entrapment disorder of the wrist is a. Colles fracture. b. exostosis. c. carpal tunnel syndrome. d. repetitive motion syndrome.

ANS: C REF: 553 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Not Built from Word Parts 49. A disease in which an excessive amount of uric acid in the blood causes sodium urate crystals to be deposited in the joints is a. gout. b. osteogenesis imperfecta. c. exostosis. d. bunion.

ANS: A REF: 553 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Not Built from Word Parts 50. The term that means an abnormal benign growth on the surface of a bone is a. bunion.

NURSINGTB.COM b. osteoblast. c. exostosis. d. osteofibroma.

ANS: C REF: 553 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Not Built from Word Parts 51. A bacterial infection carried by a deer tick is a. myasthenia gravis. b. Lyme disease. c. rheumatoid arthritis. d. spinal stenosis.

ANS: B REF: 554 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Not Built from Word Parts 52. Forward slipping of one vertebra over another is a. spinal stenosis. b. a herniated disk. c. spondylolisthesis. d. spondylarthritis.

ANS: C REF: 554 OBJ: 3 TOP: Disease and Disorder Terms Not Built from Word Parts

NURSINGTB.COM

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank 53. The term arthrodesis is defined as a. surgical repair of a joint. b. incision of a bone. c. excision of articular cartilage. d. surgical fixation of a joint.

ANS: D REF: 558 OBJ: TOP: Surgical Terms Built from Word Parts

4

54. The surgical repair of cartilage is called a. chondroplasty. b. meniscectomy. c. prosthesis. d. arthroplasty.

ANS: A REF: 558 OBJ: TOP: Surgical Terms Built from Word Parts

4

55. The fusing together of the vertebrae or spinal fusion is termed a. laminectomy. b. rachiotomy. c. spondylosyndesis. d. diskectomy.

ANS: C REF: 560 OBJ: TOP: Surgical Terms Built from Word Parts

4

56. The surgical repair of a tenN doUnRaS ndIaNmGuT scBle.iC s cOaM ll ed a. myorrhaphy. b. tenotomy. c. tenorrhaphy. d. tenomyoplasty.

ANS: D REF: 560 OBJ: TOP: Surgical Terms Built from Word Parts

4

57. The anatomic structure excised in a phalangectomy is the a. patella. b. finger or toe bone. c. meniscus. d. calcaneus.

ANS: B REF: 558 OBJ: TOP: Surgical Terms Built from Word Parts

4

58. The term vertebroplasty is defined as a. incision into the vertebral column. b. fusing together of vertebrae. c. excision of an intervertebral disk. d. surgical repair of a vertebra.

ANS: D

REF: 560

OBJ:

NURSINGTB.COM

4

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank TOP: Surgical Terms Built from Word Parts 59. The term rachiotomy is defined as an incision a. into the vertebral column. b. of a bone. c. of a bursa. d. of a joint.

ANS: A REF: 558 OBJ: TOP: Surgical Terms Built from Word Parts

4

60. The term that means suturing of a muscle is a. tenorrhaphy. b. myorrhaphy. c. aponeurorrhaphy. d. myoplasty.

ANS: B REF: 558 OBJ: TOP: Surgical Terms Built from Word Parts

4

61. The term osteotomy is defined as the a. incision into the vertebral column. b. surgical repair of a bone. c. incision into a bone. d. fusing together of the vertebrae.

ANS: C REF: 558 OBJ: 4 TOP: Surgical Terms BuiN lt U frR om WNoG rdTPB ar. tsCOM SI 62. The visual examination of a joint is an a. electromyogram. b. arthroscopy. c. arthrography. d. arthrocentesis.

ANS: B REF: 564 OBJ: TOP: Diagnostic Terms Built from Word Parts

5

63. The diagnostic term that means the radiographic imaging of a joint is a. arthroplasty. b. arthrography. c. arthrodesis. d. arthrocentesis.

ANS: B REF: 564 OBJ: TOP: Diagnostic Terms Built from Word Parts 64. The term that means pertaining to below the ribs is a. substernal. b. subcostal. c. subscapular.

NURSINGTB.COM

5

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank d. submaxillary.

ANS: B REF: 568 OBJ: 6 TOP: Complementary Terms Built from Word Parts 65. The term that means pertaining to the ribs and cartilage is a. costochondral. b. intervertebral. c. intercostal. d. sternoclavicular.

ANS: A REF: 567 OBJ: 6 TOP: Complementary Terms Built from Word Parts 66. An abnormal condition of bone death (due to lack of blood supply) is a. osteofibroma. b. osteonecrosis. c. atrophy. d. osteocyte.

ANS: B REF: 568 OBJ: 6 TOP: Complementary Terms Built from Word Parts 67. The term dyskinesia is defined as movement that is a. slow. b. excessive. c. normal.

NURSINGTB.COM d. difficult.

ANS: D REF: 567 OBJ: 6 TOP: Complementary Terms Built from Word Parts 68. The term that means pertaining to the wrist is a. radial. b. carpal. c. ulnar. d. humeral.

ANS: B REF: 567 OBJ: 6 TOP: Complementary Terms Built from Word Parts 69. The term that means a developing bone cell is a. osteocyte. b. osteoblast. c. osteopath. d. osteofibroma.

ANS: B REF: 568 OBJ: 6 TOP: Complementary Terms Built from Word Parts 70. The term symphysis is defined as a. an artificial substitute for a missing body part.

NURSINGTB.COM

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank b. a cartilaginous joint at which two bones fuse. c. growing together. d. an abnormal development.

ANS: C REF: 568 OBJ: 6 TOP: Complementary Terms Built from Word Parts 71. The meaning of the medical term hyperkinesia is a. slow b. abnormal c. difficult d. excessive

movement.

ANS: D REF: 567 OBJ: 6 TOP: Complementary Terms Built from Word Parts 72. A term that references two lower arm bones is a. ulnoradial. b. suprascapular. c. substernal. d. clavicular.

ANS: A REF: 568 OBJ: 6 TOP: Complementary Terms Built from Word Parts 73. A specialist who treats and diagnoses foot diseases and disorders, such as corns and ingrown toenails, is a(n) NURSINGTB.COM a. orthopedics. b. podiatrist. c. orthopedist. d. orthotist.

ANS: B REF: 575 OBJ: 6 TOP: Complementary Terms Not Built from Word Parts 74. The term that means a system of treatment that consists of manipulation of the vertebral column is a. orthotics. b. orthopedics. c. osteopathy. d. chiropractic.

ANS: D REF: 574 OBJ: 6 TOP: Complementary Terms Not Built from Word Parts 75. A type of bone cell that works in balance with osteoblasts to maintain healthy bone tissue is a. osteoclast. b. crepitus. c. osteopath. d. exostosis.

ANS: A

REF: 574

OBJ:

NURSINGTB.COM

6

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank TOP: Complementary Terms Not Built from Word Parts 76. A physician who specializes in the study and treatment of diseases and abnormalities of the musculoskeletal system is a(n) a. chiropractor. b. osteopath. c. orthopedist. d. orthotist.

ANS: C REF: 574 OBJ: 6 TOP: Complementary Terms Not Built from Word Parts 77. A physician who specializes in the study and treatment of rheumatic diseases is a. rheumatology. b. chiropractor. c. rheumatologist. d. podiatrist.

ANS: C REF: 575 OBJ: 6 TOP: Complementary Terms Not Built from Word Parts 78. A record of the electrical activity in a (skeletal) muscle is abbreviated as a. CTS. b. RA. c. EMG. d. MG. ANS: C

REFN : U5R 78SINGTB.OCBO J:M 8

TOP: Abbreviations

79. The abbreviation for the first vertebra in the neck is a. C1. b. T1. c. L1. d. CTS. ANS: A

REF: 578

OBJ:

8

TOP: Abbreviations

80. To assist in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis, the doctor may use a procedure involving a surgical puncture to aspirate fluid from a joint called an a. arthroscopy. b. arthrodesis. c. arthroplasty. d. arthrocentesis.

ANS: D REF: 558 TOP: Practical Application

OBJ:

9

81. A muscle biopsy and electromyography confirmed the patient’s diagnosis as a group of hereditary diseases characterized by degeneration of muscle and weakness or a. ankylosing spondylitis. b. muscular dystrophy.

NURSINGTB.COM

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank c. myasthenia gravis. d. rheumatoid arthritis.

ANS: B REF: 554 TOP: Practical Application

OBJ:

9

82. Because of the patient’s open fracture, she had contracted inflammation of the bone and bone marrow or a. osteochondritis. b. osteonecrosis. c. osteomyelitis. d. osteomalacia.

ANS: C REF: 548 TOP: Practical Application

OBJ:

9

83. A vitamin D deficiency in adults may cause the softening of bone or a. osteomalacia. b. osteomyelitis. c. rachischisis. d. scoliosis.

ANS: A REF: 546 TOP: Practical Application

OBJ:

9

84. An abnormal condition of stiffness, causing the footplate of the stapes to become fixed resulting in conductive hearing loss is called NURSINGTB.COM a. lordosis. b. arthritis. c. ankylosis. d. kyphosis.

ANS: C REF: 546 TOP: Practical Application

OBJ:

9

85. The physician’s assistant, during a routine physical examination, recorded on the patient’s medical record “crepitus of the right knee.” She observed a. stiffness. b. pain. c. sound. d. weakness.

ANS: C REF: 574 TOP: Practical Application

OBJ:

9

86. The patient is scheduled in surgery for a THA. She is having surgery on her a. tendon. b. ankle. c. hip. d. humerus.

ANS: C

REF: 578

OBJ:

NURSINGTB.COM

9

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank TOP: Practical Application 87. The elderly patient was diagnosed as having an abnormal reduction of connective tissue (loss of skeletal muscle mass) or a. rhabdomyolysis. b. sarcopenia. c. osteosarcoma. d. chondromalacia.

ANS: B REF: 548 TOP: Practical Application

OBJ:

9

88. The physician, after hearing the patient’s complaints of widespread pain and stiffness, fatigue, and inability to get a good night’s sleep, suspected that the pain involved the fibrous tissues and muscles and that the patient had a. fibromyalgia. b. osteomalacia. c. cranioschisis. d. tenosynovitis.

ANS: A REF: 546 TOP: Practical Application

OBJ:

9

MATCHING Match each item with the correct description below.

NURSINGTB.COM a. b. (SUR-vi-kal) (VER-te-bray) c. (mak-SIL-a) d. e. f. (UL-na) 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

upper jawbone contains little spaces like a sponge a lower arm bone seven bones that form the neck shoulder blade dense, hard layers of bone tissue

1. ANS: C REF: 530 OBJ: 1 TOP: Pronunciation of Anatomic Structures 2. ANS: D REF: 529 OBJ: 1 TOP: Pronunciation of Anatomic Structures 3. ANS: F REF: 531 OBJ: 1 TOP: Pronunciation of Anatomic Structures 4. ANS: B REF: 530 OBJ: 1 TOP: Pronunciation of Anatomic Structures 5. ANS: E REF: 530 OBJ: 1

NURSINGTB.COM

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank TOP: Pronunciation of Anatomic Structures 6. ANS: A REF: 529 OBJ: TOP: Pronunciation of Anatomic Structures

1

Match each item with the correct description below. a. (KOK-siks) b. (STUR-num) c. (KLAV-i-kul) d. e. f.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

12.

upper leg bone forms the inward curve of the spine four vertebrae fused together to form the tailbone breastbone collarbone outermost layer of the bone

7. ANS: TOP: 8. ANS: TOP: 9. ANS: TOP: 10. ANS: TOP: 11. ANS: TOP: 12. ANS: TOP:

F REF: 534 OBJ: 1 Pronunciation of Anatomic Structures E REF: 530 OBJ: 1 Pronunciation of Anatomic Structures A REF: 530 OBJ: 1 Pronunciation of Anatomic Structures B REFN : U5R 31SINGTB.OCBO J:M 1 Pronunciation of Anatomic Structures C REF: 530 OBJ: 1 Pronunciation of Anatomic Structures D REF: 529 OBJ: 1 Pronunciation of Anatomic Structures

Match each item with the correct description below. a. pronation b. inversion c. adduction d. extension e. rotation 13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

turning around its own axis movement in which a limb is placed in a straight position moving toward the midline turning inward movement that turns the palm down

13. ANS: E REF: 577 TOP: Types of Body Movement 14. ANS: D REF: 576

OBJ:

7

OBJ:

7

NURSINGTB.COM

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank TOP: 15. ANS: TOP: 16. ANS: TOP: 17. ANS: TOP:

Types of Body Movement C REF: 576 Types of Body Movement B REF: 576 Types of Body Movement A REF: 577 Types of Body Movement

OBJ: 7 OBJ: 7 OBJ: 7

Match each item with the correct description below. a. flexion b. abduction c. eversion d. supination 18.

19.

20.

21.

movement that turns the palm up moving away from the midline movement in which a limb is bent turning outward

18. ANS: TOP: 19. ANS: TOP: 20. ANS: TOP: 21. ANS: TOP:

D REF: 577 OBJ: 7 Types of Body Movement B REF: 576 OBJ: 7 Types of Body Movement A REF: 576 OBJ: 7 Types of Body Movement C REFN : 5R 76 I G B.OCBJ:M 7 U S N T O Types of Body Movement

Match each item with the correct description below. a. kyph/o b. cost/o c. -schisis d. sarc/o e. ischi/o f. arthr/o 22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

split, fissure rib flesh, connective tissue hump (increased convexity of the spine) ischium joint

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS:

C B D A E

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

545 539 544 544 539

OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ:

NURSINGTB.COM

2 2 2 2 2

TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP:

Word Parts Word Parts Word Parts Word Parts Word Parts

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank 27. ANS: F

REF: 543

OBJ:

2

TOP: Word Parts

2 2 2 2 2 2

TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP:

Match each item with the correct description below. a. lumb/o b. uln/o c. suprad. kinesi/o e. interf. -asthenia 28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

weakness loin, lumbar region of the spine between ulna movement, motion above

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

33.

ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS:

F A E B D C

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

545 539 545 539 544 545

OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ:

Word Parts Word Parts Word Parts Word Parts Word Parts Word Parts

Match each item with the correct description below. a. diskitis NURSINGTB.COM b. electromyogram c. arthralgia d. orthopedics e. prosthesis f. herniated disk 34. record of the electrical activity in a muscle 35. pain in the joint 36. branch of medicine dealing with the study and treatment of diseases and abnormalities of the musculoskeletal system 37. artificial substitute for a missing body part 38. rupture of the intervertebral disk cartilage, which allows the contents to protrude through it, putting pressure on the spinal nerve roots 39. inflammation of an intervertebral disk 34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS:

B C D E F A

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

564 567 574 575 554 546

OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ:

NURSINGTB.COM

3|5 |6 |7 3|5 |6 |7 3|5 |6 |7 3|5 |6 |7 3|5 |6 |7 3|5 |6 |7

TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP:

Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank Match each item with the correct description below. a. myasthenia gravis b. arthroplasty c. clavicular d. myalgia e. ostectomy f. rachischisis 40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

excision of bone surgical repair of a joint fissure (split) of the vertebral column pertaining to the clavicle pain in muscle chronic disease characterized by muscle weakness

40.

41.

42.

43.

44.

45.

ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS:

E B F C D A

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

558 558 548 567 568 554

OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ:

3|5 |6 |7 3|5 |6 |7 3|5 |6 |7 3|5 |6 |7 3|5 |6 |7 3|5 |6 |7

TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP:

Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms

Match each item with the correct description below. a. lordosis b. spinal stenosis c. tenorrhaphy NURSINGTB.COM d. plantar fasciitis e. bradykinesia f. osteocyte 46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

narrowing of the spinal canal suturing of a tendon slow movement abnormal condition of bending forward bone cell inflammation of connective tissue of the sole of the foot due to repetitive injury

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS:

B C E A F D

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

554 560 567 546 568 554

OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ:

Match each item with the correct description below. a. arthritis b. fracture c. chondrectomy

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3|5 |6 |7 3|5 |6 |7 3|5 |6 |7 3|5 |6 |7 3|5 |6 |7 3|5 |6 |7

TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP:

Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank d. intercostal e. orthotist f. osteopath 52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

person who specializes in orthotics excision of a cartilage physician who specializes in osteopathy inflammation of a joint broken bone pertaining to between the ribs

52.

53.

54.

55.

56.

57.

ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS:

E C F A B D

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

574 558 574 546 553 567

OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ:

3|5 |6 |7 3|5 |6 |7 3|5 |6 |7 3|5 |6 |7 3|5 |6 |7 3|5 |6 |7

TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP:

Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms Medical Terms

TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP:

Abbreviations Abbreviations Abbreviations Abbreviations Abbreviations Abbreviations

Match each item with the correct description below. a. THA b. RA c. Fx d. MD e. T1-T12 f. L1-L5 58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

fracture muscular dystrophy thoracic vertebrae total hip arthroplasty lumbar vertebrae rheumatoid arthritis

58.

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS:

C D E A F B

NURSINGTB.COM

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

578 578 578 578 578 578

OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ:

Match each item with the correct description below. a. C1-C7 b. HNP c. CTS d. Ortho e. TKA 64. orthopedics 65. cervical vertebrae

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8 8 8 8 8 8

Exploring Medical Language 10th Edition Brooks Test Bank 66. carpal tunnel syndrome 67. herniated nucleus pulposus 68. total knee arthroplasty 64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS:

D A C B E

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

578 578 578 578 578

OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ: OBJ:

NURSINGTB.COM

NURSINGTB.COM

8 8 8 8 8

TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP:

Abbreviations Abbreviations Abbreviations Abbreviations Abbreviations

Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

Chapter 16: Anatomy of the Heart Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which layer of the heart allows it to act as a pump? a. Epicardium b. Myocardium c. Pericardium d. Endocardium ANS: B 2. Which slinglike structure supports the heart? a. Pericardium b. Chordae tendineae c. Myocardium d. Endocardium ANS: A 3. What is the hardest working cardiac chamber and therefore has the thickest myocardium? a. Right atrium b. Right ventricle c. Left atrium d. Left ventricle ANS: D

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4. The right ventricle pumps blood to the a. right atrium. b. pulmonary veins. c. pulmonary artery. d. aorta.

ANS: C 5. A vessel(s) that carry(ies) blood from the pulmonary capillaries to the left atrium is (are) the a. aorta. b. pulmonary artery. c. pulmonary veins. d. vena cava.

ANS: C 6. The aorta receives blood from the a. right ventricle. b. pulmonary veins. c. pulmonary artery. d. left ventricle.

ANS: D

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

7. Blood flows from the right atrium through which atrioventricular valve to the right ventricle? a. Bicuspid b. Mitral c. Pulmonic d. Tricuspid ANS: D 8. Which of the following structures receives unoxygenated blood? a. Aorta b. Left ventricle c. Pulmonary artery d. Pulmonary veins ANS: C 9. Which of the following receives oxygenated blood? a. Venae cavae b. Pulmonary veins c. Right atrium d. Pulmonic valve ANS: B 10. Chordae tendineae are not associated with this valve. a. Aortic b. Mitral NURSINGTB.COM c. Tricuspid d. Bicuspid ANS: A

11. With which of the following is “lubb-dupp” associated? a. Myocardial contraction b. Ventricular depolarization c. Closing of heart valves d. Diffusion of O2 from the lungs to the blood in the pulmonary capillaries ANS: C 12. Which of the following supplies oxygenated blood to the heart muscle? a. Coronary arteries b. Pulmonary artery c. Pulmonary veins d. Cardiac veins ANS: A 13. Where does the cardiac action potential (cardiac impulse) normally originate? a. AV node b. Purkinje fibers c. Ectopic focus

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. SA node ANS: D 14. The pacemaker of the heart is located in the upper wall of the a. right atrium. b. right ventricle. c. left atrium. d. left ventricle.

ANS: A 15. Referring to the ECG, the P wave represents a. atrial contraction. b. ventricular relaxation. c. atrial depolarization. d. atrial repolarization.

ANS: C 16. Referring to the ECG, the QRS complex represents ventricular a. contraction. b. repolarization. c. relaxation. d. depolarization.

ANS: D 17. Which structure connects theNcU usR psSoIf N thG eT AB V.vC alO veM s to the ventricles? a. Purkinje fibers b. AV node c. Bundle of His d. Chordae tendineae ANS: D 18. What are the conducting fibers that rapidly spread the electrical signal throughout the

ventricles? a. Bundle of His b. Purkinje fibers c. SA node d. AV node ANS: B 19. Which of the following is least related to the mitral valve? a. Left heart b. Bicuspid c. Semilunar d. Chordae tendineae ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 20. All of the following are electrical terms except a. sarcomere. b. depolarization. c. action potential. d. repolarization.

ANS: A 21. Which of the following must precede ventricular contraction? a. Ventricular systole b. “Lubb-dupp” c. Ventricular depolarization d. Closing of the AV valves ANS: C 22. Through which of the following semilunar valves does oxygenated blood pass? a. Mitral b. Bicuspid c. Aortic d. Pulmonic ANS: C 23. The correct sequence is: Blood flows from the right atrium to the right ventricle to the

pulmonary artery to the a. pulmonary veins. b. coronary arteries. c. pulmonary capillaries. d. vena cava.

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ANS: C

24. What event causes the pulmonic valve to open? a. The P wave b. An increase in the pressure within the right ventricle c. “Lubb-dupp” d. Contraction of the chordae tendineae ANS: B 25. Which layer of the heart also lines the valves and is continuous with blood vessels? a. Myocardium b. Endocardium c. Epicardium d. Pericardium ANS: B 26. The epicardium is a layer of the a. myocardium. b. diaphragm. c. pericardium.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. endocardium.

ANS: C 27. The mitral and the bicuspid valves a. are semilunar valves. b. are both located on the right side of the heart. c. “see” only unoxygenated blood. d. are the same valves.

ANS: D 28. The pulmonic and aortic valves a. are atrioventricular valves. b. “see” only oxygenated blood. c. are attached to the ventricular walls by chordae tendineae. d. are semilunar valves.

ANS: D 29. The correct sequence is: Blood flows from the pulmonary capillaries to the pulmonary veins

to the left atrium to the left ventricle to the a. vena cava. b. pulmonary artery. c. aorta. d. circle of Willis.

ANS: C

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30. The atrioventricular node (AV node) a. is the pacemaker of the heart. b. is located in the upper part of the right atrium. c. has a rate that is normally faster than the SA node. d. delays the electrical signal coming from the atria into the ventricles.

ANS: D 31. The purpose of this structure is to delay the spread of the signal from the atrium to the

ventricles. a. SA node b. Purkinje fibers c. Bundle of His d. AV node ANS: D 32. Which of the following is an electrical event? a. “Lubb-dupp” b. Actin and myosin interaction c. Murmur d. Depolarization ANS: D

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

33. Which of the following is a result of ventricular contraction? a. The AV valves open. b. The semilunar valves close. c. Blood is pumped into the pulmonary artery and the aorta. d. Blood flows back into the atria.

ANS: C 34. Under what condition is blood most likely to flow “backward” (e.g., from the left ventricle

back into the left atrium)? a. Pulmonary artery hypertension b. Left ventricular hypertrophy c. An insufficient mitral valve d. Pulmonary edema ANS: C 35. What are ventricles “doing” during atrial contraction? a. Pumping blood into the great vessels b. Closing their AV valves c. Relaxing d. Opening their semilunar valves ANS: C 36. The Purkinje fibers a. open valves.

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b. pull on the cusps of the valves. c. conduct electrical signals throughout the ventricles. d. close valves.

ANS: C 37. Which cavity first receives unoxygenated blood from the vena cava? a. Right ventricle b. Left atrium c. Left ventricle d. Right atrium ANS: D 38. What is the name of the valve that prevents backflow of blood into the right atrium when the

right ventricle contracts? a. Mitral b. Pulmonic c. Semilunar d. Tricuspid ANS: D 39. What is the cause of the heart sounds “lubb-dupp”? a. Closing of the heart valves

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. Flow of blood through the coronary arteries c. The electrical signal as it moves through the AV node d. The firing of the autonomic nerves to the SA node ANS: A 40. Which of the following is not true of the heart? a. The heart is located within the mediastinum. b. The apex is located left of the sternal midline at the level of the fifth intercostal

space. c. The base of the heart is located at the level of the second rib. d. The pericardium is composed of actin and myosin.

ANS: D 41. Which of the following is least descriptive of the myocardium? a. Supplied with blood by the coronary arteries b. Thicker in the ventricles than the atria c. Thicker in the left ventricle than the right ventricle d. Thicker in the left atrium than the right ventricle ANS: D 42. Which of the following is a function of a valve? a. Regulates the direction of blood flow through the heart b. Regulates the amount of oxygen bound to hemoglobin c. Regulates heart rate d. Directs the movement of the cardiac impulse

N R I G B.C M U S N T O

ANS: A

43. Which of the following is true of the structures of the electrical conduction system? a. The AV valve is the pacemaker. b. In normal sinus rhythm, the electrical signal arises within the SA node. c. The His-Purkinje system spreads the electrical system from the right atrium to the

left atrium. d. The purpose of the AV node is to increase the speed at which the cardiac impulse moves from the atria to the ventricles.

ANS: B 44. Which of the following is least true of the aortic valve? a. It is also called the left semilunar valve. b. It “sees” oxygenated blood. c. Blood flows from the ventricle through this valve into the pulmonary artery. d. An incompetent aortic valve allows blood to leak from the aorta back into the left

ventricle.

ANS: C 45. An accumulation of excess fluid in the pericardial space a. causes external compression of the heart. b. depresses the SA node, thereby eliminating pacemaker activity.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. causes valvular stenosis. d. causes a left-to-right shunt.

ANS: A 46. A hole in the interventricular septum causes a. blood to shunt from left atrium to the right atrium. b. extreme cyanosis. c. blood to shunt from the left ventricle to the right ventricle. d. blood to shunt from the left ventricle to the pulmonary artery.

ANS: C 47. Which structure “sees” oxygenated blood? a. Tricuspid valve b. Pulmonary artery c. Pulmonary veins d. Right semilunar valve ANS: C 48. Which group is incorrect? a. Semilunar valves: pulmonic, aortic b. Atrioventricular valves: tricuspid, bicuspid, mitral c. Structures that carry oxygenated blood: pulmonary veins, left ventricle, aorta d. Structures that carry unoxygenated blood: right ventricle, venae cavae, pulmonary

veins ANS: D

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49. Which group is incorrect? a. b. c. d.

Semilunar valves: pulmonic, aortic Structures that carry oxygenated blood: pulmonary veins, left ventricle, aorta Layers of the heart: epicardium, myocardium, endocardium Abnormal heart rates: tachycardia, bradycardia, normal sinus rhythm

ANS: D 50. Which group is incorrect? a. Atrioventricular valves: tricuspid, bicuspid, mitral b. Layers of the heart: epicardium, myocardium, endocardium c. Abnormal heart rates: tachycardia, bradycardia d. Parts of the conduction system: SA node, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers,

medulla oblongata ANS: D 51. Which of the following is true of the myocardium? a. Is nourished by the coronary arteries b. Contracts in response to electrical signals c. Is thicker in the left ventricle than in the right ventricle d. All of the above

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: D 52. During ventricular contraction, the a. AV valves close in response to intraventricular pressure. b. ECG is displaying the T wave. c. semilunar valves close, causing S1. d. ECG is displaying the P-R interval.

ANS: A 53. Which of the following is most related to “lubb” (of the lubb-dupp duo)? a. Called S1 b. Caused by the closure of the AV valves c. Occurs in response to ventricular contraction d. All of the above ANS: D 54. S2 is a. caused by the closure of the AV valves at the beginning of ventricular contraction. b. the second heart sound. c. the heart sound caused by the opening of valves. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: B 55. The purpose of the right heart is to pump blood a. to the systemic circulatio n.

I G B.C b. into the aorta.

N R U S N T

M O

c. to the left anterior descending and circumflex arteries. d. to the lungs for oxygenation.

ANS: D 56. Which of the following is not considered a “great” vessel? a. Left anterior descending artery b. Aorta c. Venae cavae d. Pulmonary artery ANS: A 57. Which of the following spaces is not related to the heart? a. Thoracic cavity b. Pericardial cavity c. Dorsal cavity d. Mediastinum ANS: C 58. The semilunar valves a. receive blood from the contracting ventricles. b. are anchored by chordae tendineae.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. “see” only oxygenated blood. d. “see” only unoxygenated blood.

ANS: A 59. Cells that spontaneously depolarize from resting membrane potential to threshold potential a. are called pacemaker cells. b. normally “live” within the chordae tendineae. c. are restricted to the SA node. d. are stored within the pericardium.

ANS: A 60. The heart a. lies within the mediastinal and thoracic cavities. b. beats only in response to stimulation by the autonomic nerves. c. is located within the pleural cavity. d. is located between the fifth and twelfth ribs in the left thoracic region.

ANS: A 61. Stenosis of which valve causes right ventricular hypertrophy? a. Mitral b. Tricuspid c. Right semilunar d. Left semilunar ANS: C

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62. Which of the following is true about the left ventricular myocardium? a. Pumps blood into the pulmonary artery b. Contraction pumps blood into the aorta c. Receives oxygenated blood from the precordium d. Contains unoxygenated blood ANS: B 63. What is located at the second rib and fifth intercostal space? a. Base and apex of the heart b. Semilunar valves c. AV valves d. SA node and AV nodes ANS: A 64. The bicuspid and mitral valves a. are semilunar valves. b. “see” only unoxygenated blood. c. “see” only oxygenated blood d. are exit valves.

ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 65. What are the two phases of the ventricular action potential (cardiac impulse)? a. Systole and diastole b. Filling and ejecting c. Depolarization and repolarization d. P wave and T wave ANS: C 66. Under what condition will the AV node become the pacemaker? a. When its rate of spontaneous depolarization exceeds that of the ventricular

conduction cells b. As a normal response to sympathetic nerve discharge c. When its rate of spontaneous depolarization exceeds that of the SA node d. In the presence of normal sinus rhythm ANS: C 67. In normal sinus rhythm (NSR), the a. cardiac impulse originates in the sinoatrial node. b. action potential originates in the AV node. c. AV node activates the SA node. d. action potential is generated by the sympathetic nerve.

ANS: A 68. During ventricular filling, the a. semilunar valves are open. b. AV valves are closed. N

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c. QRS complex is “happening.” d. ventricles are relaxed.

ANS: D 69. Which of the following is true regarding the mediastinum? a. It is located within the pleural cavity. b. The lungs are located within the mediastinum. c. The mediastinum is located to the right of the midline of the sternum. d. The mediastinum is a space between the lungs.

ANS: D 70. Which of the following is located between the visceral and parietal pericardium? a. The mediastinum b. A space that contains serous fluid c. The precordium d. The endocardium ANS: B 71. Which structure is not perfused by the blood that is pumped from the right ventricle to the left

ventricle? a. Mitral valve b. Pulmonary artery

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. Pulmonary veins d. Aorta ANS: D 72. Which structure is not perfused by blood that flows from the pulmonary capillaries to the

aorta? a. Right atrium b. Aortic semilunar valve c. Mitral valve d. Pulmonary veins ANS: A 73. What structure is not perfused as blood flows from the venae cavae to the pulmonary veins? a. Right ventricle b. Left anterior descending artery c. Pulmonary artery d. Pulmonary capillaries ANS: B 74. Which of the following is part of the blood flow through the heart? a. Left atrium b. Left anterior descending artery c. Circumflex artery d. Right coronary artery ANS: A

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75. In which structure is oxygen saturation lowest? a. Right atrium b. Pulmonary capillaries c. Pulmonary veins d. Left ventricle ANS: A 76. In which structure is the oxygen saturation highest? a. Pulmonary veins b. Venae cavae c. Right ventricle d. Pulmonary artery ANS: A 77. Which of the following is not part of coronary circulation? a. Left anterior descending artery b. Circumflex artery c. Pulmonary veins d. Posterior descending artery ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

78. Which of the following best indicates why the left ventricular myocardium is thicker than the

right ventricular myocardium? a. Ventricular oxygen saturation is greater in the left ventricle. b. The left ventricle works harder than the right ventricle. c. The aortic valve is narrower than the pulmonic valve. d. Left ventricular volume is less than right ventricular volume.

ANS: B 79. Which of the following is true of the aorta? a. It distributes unoxygenated blood to the systemic circulation. b. It distributes oxygenated blood to the pulmonic circulation. c. It arises within the left ventricle. d. It is color coded blue to indicate its degree of oxygen saturation.

ANS: C 80. Which of the following best describes the function of the pulmonary artery? a. It carries unoxygenated blood to the right atrium. b. It supplies lung tissue with oxygenated blood. c. It carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium. d. It carries unoxygenated blood to the pulmonary capillaries, where gas exchange

occurs.

ANS: D 81. Which of the following is mo st d esc ripti ve of the tricuspid valve?

N R I G B.C M O a. “Sees” oxygenated blood U S N T b. Entrance valve: right ventricle c. Exit valve: right ventricle d. Semilunar valve ANS: B 82. Into what structure does blood reflux as a consequence of an incompetent aortic semilunar

valve? a. Right atrium b. Circumflex artery c. Left ventricle d. Pulmonary artery ANS: C 83. Which is true of the semilunar valves? a. They are both located in the left heart. b. They are entrance valves. c. They have chordae tendineae attached to their cusps. d. They prevent the backflow of blood from the aorta and pulmonary artery into their

respective ventricles.

ANS: D

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 84. Which of the following is responsible for the opening and closing of the heart valves? a. Pressure exerted on the valves as the heart contracts and relaxes b. Electrical signals arising in the SA node c. The degree of oxygen concentration of blood in the ventricles d. The amount of blood in the heart ANS: A 85. What is the cause of ventricular hypertrophy? a. The heart muscle is not receiving sufficient oxygen. b. The ventricle is working too hard. c. The person has an infection. d. There is excess fluid accumulating in the pericardial space.

ANS: B 86. What is the valvular response to the contraction of the ventricles? a. The AV valves open. b. The semilunar valves close. c. The pulmonic and aortic valves open. d. The entrance valves open.

ANS: C 87. Describe the valvular response to the relaxation of the right ventricle. a. The tricuspid valve opens b. The right AV valve snaps closed c. The pulmonic valve opens N RSINGTB.COM d. The semilunar valve in the U right heart opens ANS: A 88. The intent is to measure pulmonary wedge pressure, a procedure that requires the

advancement of a catheter up to the pulmonary capillaries. The catheter is inserted into the left subclavian vein. Identify the structure that the catheter does not pass through on its way to the pulmonary capillaries. a. Right atrium b. Tricuspid valve c. Pulmonic valve d. Pulmonary veins ANS: D 89. Which of the following is a correct valvular position when the atria are contracting? a. The tricuspid valve is closed. b. The pulmonic valve is open. c. Both semilunar valves are open. d. Both AV valves are open.

ANS: D 90. Which of the following best describes a pacemaker cell? a. Restricted to the SA node

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. Spontaneous depolarization c. Incapable of repolarization d. Stable resting membrane potential ANS: B 91. When is coronary blood flow greatest? a. During ventricular contraction b. Immediately following the QRS complex on the ECG c. During myocardial relaxation d. During myocardial contraction ANS: C 92. Why may a “racing heart” (170 bpm) cause chest pain? a. Chemicals produced by the metabolizing cells stimulate the vagal pain receptors. b. A racing heart decreases diastole, the period when coronary blood flow is

maximal. c. A racing heart decreases the time that the heart spends in systole. d. Excess waste produced by metabolizing myocardial cells causes microthrombi to

accumulate in the coronary arteries.

ANS: B 93. What causes S1 and S2? a. Closure of heart valves b. Firing of the SA node c. Opening of heart valves NURSINGTB.COM d. Movement of the cardiac impulse along the His-Purkinje fibers ANS: A 94. Which of the following is least true of S2? a. Also known as dupp b. Heart sound c. Indicative of a gallop rhythm d. Heard at the beginning of ventricular relaxation (diastole) ANS: C 95. Which of the following is most true of S1? a. Also known as dupp b. Indicative of gallop rhythm c. Occurs during the beginning of ventricular systole with the closure of the tricuspid

and mitral valves d. It is the heart sound caused by the rapid movement of the action potential along the

His-Purkinje system.

ANS: C 96. Which of the following best describes the heart as a double pump? a. Atria and ventricles b. Right and left

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. AV and semilunar d. Interatrial septum, interventricular septum ANS: B 97. A signal is generated by the SA node and is regularly discharged to the rest of the conduction

system. Which of the following best describes this activity? a. Contraction and relaxation b. Automaticity and rhythmicity c. Sinoatrial node and atrioventricular node d. Lubb dupp ANS: B 98. Which of the following is true regarding cardiac blood flow? a. In the normal heart, coronary blood flow increases with exercise. b. In a diseased heart coronary blood flow may be maximal at rest. c. In a diseased heart exertion may cause ischemia and angina. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 99. What is the significance of elevated plasma levels of AST, CPK, and LDH? a. Myocardial damage as in myocardial infarction b. A normal myocardial response to exercise c. An increase in coronary blood flow d. Early-onset exertional angina ANS: A

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100. With which of the following are these words most related: electrical signal, action potential,

cardiac impulse, and nerve impulse? a. Tricuspid and mitral atrioventricular valves b. Aortic and pulmonic semilunar valves c. Depolarization and repolarization d. Contraction and relaxation ANS: C 101. Which of the following defines a nodal rhythm? a. Sinus rhythm is normal. b. The electrical signal arises within the SA node. c. The electrical signal arises within the AV node. d. The ventricular myocardium is fibrillating.

ANS: C 102. Heart rate is slowest if the pacemaker activity signal originates in the a. SA node. b. AV node. c. normal pacemaker of the heart. d. ventricular pacemaker cells.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: D

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

Chapter 19: Functions of the Blood Vessels Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A sphygmomanometer measures a. blood flow. b. hematocrit. c. blood pressure. d. oxygen saturation.

ANS: C 2. Blood pressure is lowest in the a. inferior vena cava. b. aorta. c. circle of Willis. d. femoral artery.

ANS: A 3. The characteristic of the arteriole that allows it to function as a resistance vessel is its a. thin membrane. b. porous membrane. c. valves. d. smooth muscle.

ANS: D

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4. Which condition can occur as a result of low blood volume? a. Hypertension b. Pulmonary edema c. Varicose veins d. Postural hypotension ANS: D 5. Which artery is most often used to measure blood pressure? a. Carotid b. Brachial c. Femoral d. Circle of Willis ANS: B 6. ANP and BNP are secreted by the heart in response to a. distension of the heart walls. b. low blood pressure. c. tachycardia. d. low blood volume.

ANS: A

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

7. Which of the following is true? (CO is cardiac output, BP is blood pressure, SV is stroke

volume, HR is heart rate, SVR is systemic vascular resistance.) a. CO = HR  SV  pulse pressure b. BP = CO  SV  SVR c. BP = SV  pulse pressure d. BP = SV  HR  SVR ANS: D 8. Plasma oncotic pressure is caused primarily by a. blood pressure. b. plasma proteins, especially albumin. c. lymph. d. electrolytes such as sodium and chloride.

ANS: B 9. Which of the following is most likely to induce carotid sinus syncope? a. Development of hypovolemic (low blood volume) shock, as in hemorrhage b. Exertion of pressure over the carotid sinus (tight collar) c. Administration of nitroglycerine (a vasodilator drug) d. Administration of a diuretic for hypertension ANS: B 10. If a child with nephrotic syndrome loses large amounts of albumin in the urine (albuminuria), a. plasma oncotic pressure dNe c rR eU a s eI de. mCa O dM evelops.

Ss aNnGd TeB b. capillary hydrostatic pressure increases, causing edema. c. plasma oncotic pressure increases, thereby “pulling” fluid into the capillary,

causing poor skin turgor. d. lymph flow decreases.

ANS: A 11. If capillary pressure exceeds plasma oncotic pressure, a. more fluid enters the capillary from the interstitial b. no net flux of fluid occurs. c. blood volume expansion occurs. d. more fluid leaves the capillaries to enter the interstitium ANS: D 12. If plasma oncotic pressure exceeds capillary pressure, a. more fluid is filtered from the capillary into the interstitium. b. more fluid moves into the capillary from the interstitium. c. plasma proteins diffuse from the capillary into the interstitium. d. blood volume decreases.

ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 13. Which of the following is most related to the systolic reading, diastolic reading, and Korotkoff

sounds? a. Cardiac output b. Blood pressure c. The electrical activity of the heart d. Coronary blood flow ANS: B 14. What do the baroreceptors sense? a. Blood volume b. Hematocrit c. Blood pressure d. Rate of capillary filtration ANS: C 15. Which of the following increases systemic vascular resistance, stroke volume, and heart rate? a. Stimulation of the vagus nerve b. Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system c. Administration of a sympatholytic drug d. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system ANS: D 16. Which of the following structures has the greatest effect on systemic vascular resistance? a. Veins b. Arterioles NURSINGTB.COM c. Heart d. Capillaries ANS: B 17. Blood flow is slowest in the a. aorta. b. capillaries. c. venules. d. arterioles.

ANS: B

18. Which blood vessels have very thin walls and are called the exchange vessels? a. Arterioles b. Veins c. Capillaries d. Arteries ANS: C 19. What is the pulse pressure when a person’s blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg? a. 120 mm Hg b. 80 mm Hg c. 40 mm Hg

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. Can’t determine the pulse pressure from this information ANS: C 20. Which of the following is most likely to develop if the pressure in the pulmonary capillaries

increases? a. Pedal edema b. Pulsating jugular veins c. Pulmonary edema d. Varicose veins ANS: C 21. What is the term that refers to the difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure

readings? a. Pulse deficit b. Cardiac output c. Stroke volume d. Pulse pressure ANS: D 22. Which of the following elevates blood pressure? a. Diuretics b. Vasodilators c. Vasopressors d. Antihypertensive drugs ANS: C

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23. What effects do ANP and BNP have? a. Stimulate vasodilation and decrease blood volume b. Stimulate vasoconstriction and increase blood volume c. Stimulate vasoconstriction and decrease blood volume d. Stimulate vasodilation and increase blood volume ANS: A 24. Which part of the brain participates in the baroreceptor reflex? a. Cerebrum b. Corpus callosum c. Cerebellum d. Medulla oblongata ANS: D 25. Both epinephrine and norepinephrine are a. steroids. b. secreted by the adrenal medulla. c. vasodilators. d. blood pressure-lowering hormones.

ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

26. ADH increases blood pressure by all of the following except a. acting as a vasopressor. b. increasing blood volume by reabsorption of water by the kidneys. c. vasoconstriction. d. activating baroreceptors.

ANS: D 27. Which statement is not true about baroreceptors? a. Can induce a reflex tachycardia b. Located in the carotid sinus and aortic arch c. Activated by hypoxemia d. Activated by a hemorrhage-induced decline in blood pressure ANS: C 28. If plasma osmolarity increases, as in dehydration or the infusion of mannitol (a sugar

solution), a. filtration rate increases. b. fluid is forced out of the capillary into the interstitium. c. fluid is “pulled” into the capillary from the interstitium. d. plasma proteins diffuse out of the capillary into the interstitium.

ANS: C 29. If the lymphatic vessels are blocked or surgically removed, a. excess fluid is filtered o u t of the cap illar y.

N R I G B .C M

b. plasma oncotic pressure deU creaSses,NtheT reby caO using fluid to leak out of the

capillary. c. fluid and protein accumulate in the interstitium, thereby causing edema. d. excess fluid moves into the capillary, thereby “drying out” the interstitium.

ANS: C 30. Edema is least likely to occur in which of the following situations? a. Plasma oncotic pressure decreases because of starvation. b. Plasma oncotic pressure decreases because the child filters large amounts of

albumin into the urine. c. Plasma osmolarity increases when the patient becomes dehydrated. d. A woman with breast cancer has surgery that involves a breast amputation and

removal of the lymph nodes and vessels.

ANS: C 31. If the left ventricle of the heart fails, blood backs up in the pulmonary capillary, a. decreasing plasma oncotic pressure and drying out the lungs. b. blocking the flow of lymph and drying out the lungs. c. increasing capillary pressure and forcing fluid into the lungs. d. increasing plasma oncotic pressure, causing pulmonary edema.

ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 32. A pregnant woman notices that her ankles are swollen after standing for 6 hours at her place

of employment. In the evening, when she elevates her feet, the swelling diminishes because a. capillary pressure in the blood vessels of the lower extremities decreases. b. plasma oncotic pressure decreases. c. plasma oncotic pressure increases. d. lymphatic drainage decreases.

ANS: A 33. An IV infusion of mannitol (a sugar solution) is used to decrease intracranial pressure in a

head-injured patient because the mannitol a. provides calories for the healing of the injured brain. b. is absorbed by the injured brain cells and pulls water into the brain cells from the tissue fluid. c. pulls water out of the interstitium of the brain into the capillaries, thereby relieving edema. d. “clumps” the plasma proteins together, thereby severely diminishing plasma oncotic pressure.

ANS: C 34. Capillary pressure is a reflection of a. plasma proteins. b. albumin. c. lymph. d. blood pressure.

ANS: D

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35. Which of the following drugs is most likely to increase systemic vascular resistance? a. (+) Inotropic agent b. Arteriolar constrictor c. Arteriolar dilator d. Vasodilator ANS: B 36. In which direction does blood flow shift in response to exercise? a. Increased blood flow to kidneys and digestive tract b. Increased blood flow to skin and skeletal muscles c. Increased blood flow to abdominal organs and kidneys d. Decreased blood flow to the heart and skeletal muscles ANS: B 37. Which of the following exerts a vasopressor effect? a. BNP b. ADH c. ANP d. Both A and C ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 38. Which of the following is true regarding the sympathetic and parasympathetic arms of the

baroreceptor reflex? They carry a. sensory information from the baroreceptors to the SA and AV nodes of the heart. b. sensory information from the SA and AV nodes to the spinal cord. c. motor information from the spinal cord to the heart and blood vessels. d. motor information from the heart and blood vessels to the aortic and carotid sinus baroreceptors.

ANS: C 39. A tight collar might trigger the baroreceptor reflex because the a. carotid baroreceptors sense a change in the osmolarity of the blood flowing

through the carotid arteries. b. carotid baroreceptors interpret the elevated carotid pressure as an elevation of

blood pressure. c. tight collar occludes blood flow to the brain, causing cerebral artery spasms. d. tight collar impairs drainage of cerebral venous blood, causing cerebral edema.

ANS: B 40. Which of the following is a consequence of sympathetic nerve stimulation? a. Increased myocardial force of contraction b. Peripheral vasoconstriction c. Increased systemic vascular resistance d. All of the above ANS: D

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UossSibleNdeaTth can Obe caused by 41. Loss of speech, paralysis, and p a. hypertension. b. rupture of a blood vessel in the brain. c. decreased oncotic pressure. d. edema.

ANS: B 42. With regard to the baroreceptor reflex, which event occurs first? a. Activation of the baroreceptors in response to a drop in blood pressure b. Reflex tachycardia c. Stimulation of the sympathetic nerves d. Stimulation of the glossopharyngeal (CN IX) and the vagus (CN X) nerves ANS: A 43. In the dehydrated state, a. capillary oncotic pressure decreases and fluid accumulates in the tissue spaces. b. capillary filtration pressure decreases and tissue fluid is pulled back into blood

vessels. c. capillary filtration rate increases, thereby increasing lymph formation. d. plasma protein is filtered into the tissue spaces, causing edema.

ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 44. If capillary pore size increases, as in severe burns, a. capillary filtration of water decreases. b. albumin is filtered from the capillaries and is deposited in the tissue space. c. blood volume overload develops, causing the heart to fail. d. all of the above occur.

ANS: B 45. A decreased plasma oncotic pressure is caused by a. loss of plasma proteins, such as albumin. b. leukocytosis. c. a hypoxemia-induced polycythemia. d. dehydration and “tenting.”

ANS: A 46. If digital (finger press) pressure is exerted over the carotid sinus, you would expect a. the sympathetics to fire, thereby increasing blood pressure. b. that the medulla oblongata will interpret the signal as high blood pressure and

therefore fire the vagus nerve. c. no effect, because the baroreceptors are “crushed.” d. reflex tachycardia.

ANS: B 47. Which of the following is not true about blood pressure? a. The brachial artery is most commonly used to monitor blood pressure. b. Blood pressure is higher in the arteries than in the capillaries.

N R Iillar GTiesB.C M c. Blood pressure is higher inUtheScapN thanOin the veins. d. Blood pressure is higher in the vena cava than in the arterioles.

ANS: D 48. Which of the following is true of vasoconstriction? a. Caused by parasympathetic nerve stimulation b. Increases SVR c. Caused by vagal discharge d. Generally accompanied by arteriolar dilation ANS: B 49. The function of the nozzle on a garden hose most closely resembles the function of the a. heart. b. parasympathetic nervous system. c. arterioles. d. venous valves.

ANS: C 50. An intense vagal discharge is most apt to cause a. tachycardia. b. decreased heart rate. c. deep vein thrombosis.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. white coat hypertension.

ANS: B 51. Baroreceptors a. are found in all arterioles and sense plasma levels of CO2. b. affect respiratory rate. c. monitor [H+] and therefore regulate blood pH. d. are located in the carotid sinus and aortic arch and sense changes in blood pressure.

ANS: D 52. An agent that is described as a vasopressor a. causes peripheral vasodilation. b. elevates blood pressure. c. decreases systemic vascular resistance. d. decreases cardiac output.

ANS: B 53. A patient has a heart rate of 128 beats/min, a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, and an ejection

fraction of 35%. The pulse pressure is a. 65%. b. 30 mm Hg. c. 150 mm Hg. d. unknown from the data.

ANS: B

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54. To maintain a consistent cardiac output, what happens to SV as HR increases? a. Stroke volume increases. b. Stroke volume decreases. c. Stroke volume stays the same. d. Cannot be determined from the information given.

ANS: B 55. A patient has hemorrhaged 1 liter of blood; he is diaphoretic (profuse perspiration), oliguric

(decreased urinary output), and tachycardic. Physiologically, what is happening? a. The patient has lost so much plasma protein (albumin) that fluid has shifted into his tissue spaces. b. In response to the blood loss and declining blood pressure, the baroreceptor reflex has kicked in, causing a sympathetic discharge. c. The shock-induced low blood pressure has caused a vagal discharge. d. The shock-induced hypotension has inactivated all autonomic receptors.

ANS: B 56. Systemic vascular resistance decreases when the a. blood viscosity increases. b. stroke volume increases. c. arterioles dilate. d. arterioles respond to sympathetic nerve stimulation.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

ANS: C 57. Which of the following is most responsible for the plasma oncotic pressure? a. Albumin b. Cl– c. Na+ d. HCO3– ANS: A 58. Which of the following is not true of an adult male who has a blood pressure of 116/72 mm

Hg? a. It is a normotensive reading. b. The 116 mm Hg is the systolic reading. c. The 72 mm Hg is the diastolic reading. d. The pulse pressure is 100 mm Hg. ANS: D 59. What is the mean arterial pressure of a blood pressure of 140/80? a. 40 mm Hg b. 100 mm Hg c. 60 mm Hg d. Can’t determine from this data ANS: B 60. While “taking” a blood pressN urU e,RyS ouIrN ecGoT rdBt. heCfO irsM t Korotkoff sounds as the a. pulse pressure. b. mean arterial blood pressure. c. diastolic reading. d. systolic reading.

ANS: D 61. The disappearance of Korotkoff sounds a. indicates that blood flow has been restored in the previously occluded blood

vessel. b. is recorded as the diastolic reading. c. is indicative of a life-threatening hypotension. d. Both A and B are true.

ANS: D 62. Your patient’s initial blood pressure was 155/95 mm Hg. After 10 minutes his blood pressure

was 125/75 mm Hg. Which of the following best reflects this observation? a. Hemorrhage-induced hypotension b. Hypertensive crisis c. White coat hypertension d. The “silent killer” ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

63. Why does blood flow from the arterial side of the circulation to the venous side of the

circulation? a. Capillary pressure is higher than the pressure within the large arteries and veins. b. The oncotic pressure in the venous side of the circulation is greater than the oncotic pressure on the venous side of the circulation. c. The pressure on the arterial side of the circulation is higher than the pressure on the venous side of the circulation. d. Blood volume is greater on the arterial side of the circulation than on the venous side of the circulation.

ANS: C 64. A patient takes a drug that immediately causes a reflex tachycardia. What is the most likely

explanation for this effect on heart rate? a. The drug causes a sudden decline in blood pressure, thereby activating the baroreceptor reflex. b. The drug spikes or elevates the blood pressure, thereby activating the baroreceptor reflex. c. The drug causes venoconstriction. d. The drug causes an increase in SVR (systemic vascular resistance).

ANS: A 65. Which of the following is a true statement regarding baroreceptors? a. Baroreceptor activation is a response to pedal edema. b. Baroreceptors are located in the carotid sinus and aortic arch. c. Baroreceptors are activatN edUoR nlS yI inNrG esT poBn. seCtO oM a sudden decline in blood pressure. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: B 66. An elderly person has been on bed rest for 2 weeks. On her first attempt to get out of bed, she

experiences an episode of syncope. What is the most likely cardiovascular explanation for her fainting episode? a. White coat hypertension b. Postural hypotension c. Elevated blood pressure d. Hypoglycemia ANS: B 67. Which of the following refers to an insufficient blood supply to an organ or body part? a. Pallor b. Ischemia c. Paresthesia d. Paresis ANS: B 68. Which statement is the best explanation of the following: Sympathetic nerve stimulation

increases systemic vascular resistance.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. Sympathetic nerve stimulation causes many of the arterioles in the peripheral

circulation to constrict. b. Sympathetic nerve stimulation causes peripheral venodilation and a decrease in

preload. c. Sympathetic nerve stimulation reduces afterload in the systemic circulation. d. Sympathetic nerve stimulation causes a vasodepressor effect.

ANS: A 69. Which of the following might result from ischemia? a. Tissue damage b. Pain c. Gangrene d. All of the above ANS: A 70. Which of the following is the most likely consequence of venodilation, or “pooling” of the

blood in the venous circulation? a. Increased EDV (end-diastolic volume) b. Increased myocardial contraction c. Decreased venous return d. Increased blood pressure ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

Chapter 20: Lymphatic System Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Where does lymph originally come from? a. Spleen b. Thoracic duct c. Interstitium d. Lymph nodes ANS: C 2. Lymph from the right arm and the right side of the head and thorax drains into the a. thoracic duct. b. vena cava. c. right atrium. d. right lymphatic duct.

ANS: D 3. Thymosin a. is a hormone. b. is the fluid within the lymph nodes. c. is secreted by all lymph nodes. d. plays no known role.

ANS: A

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4. The spleen a. b. c. d.

removes worn-out blood cells from circulation. is avascular. is located in the RUQ. secretes splenic hormones that control the entire lymphoid system.

ANS: A 5. The right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct empty into the a. jugular vein. b. inferior vena cava. c. portal vein. d. subclavian veins.

ANS: D 6. What is the name of the lymph nodes that drain the head and neck region? a. Inguinal b. Cervical c. Thoracic d. Pelvic ANS: B This study source was downloaded by 100000872359968 from CourseHero.com on 11-09-2023 15:51:15 GMT -06:00

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

7. What structures are located near the opening of the nasal cavity in the upper throat and are

also called the adenoids? a. Palatine tonsils b. Thymus glands c. Lingual tonsils d. Pharyngeal tonsils ANS: D 8. The inguinal lymph nodes a. line the entrance of the spleen. b. are the Kupffer cells within the liver. c. are located in the groin. d. are part of the hepatic portal circulation.

ANS: C 9. What happens if the lymphatic vessels and nodes are removed from the right axillary region? a. All lymph will drain directly into the superior vena cava. b. The right arm will become gangrenous from lack of oxygen. c. The right arm will become edematous. d. The patient will experience anginal pain.

ANS: C 10. If proteins are allowed to accumulate in the interstitial space, they will a. dehydrate the tissue space.

Npores.

RSINGTB.COM b. block or clog the capillary U c. “hold water” and cause edema. d. act as antigens and cause an allergic reaction.

ANS: C 11. Lymphatic capillaries a. absorb tissue fluid and transport it toward the heart. b. are close to and parallel the distribution of arterioles. c. are composed of smooth muscle and determine SVR (systemic vascular

resistance). d. transport protein-free interstitial fluid.

ANS: A 12. What is the term that refers to the removal of the palatine tonsils? a. Appendectomy b. Lymph node resection c. Adenoidectomy d. Tonsillectomy ANS: D 13. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause a platelet deficiency? a. Lymphedema

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. A hyperactive spleen c. Lymphadenopathy d. Infectious mononucleosis ANS: B 14. What structure is concerned with the processing and maturation of T lymphocytes? a. Medulla oblongata b. Thymus gland c. Coronary sinus d. Pericardium ANS: B 15. Which lymphoid organ is located in the ventral cavity, thoracic cavity, and mediastinum? a. Spleen b. Liver c. Thymus gland d. Adenoids ANS: C 16. The subclavian veins a. receive lymph from the large lymphatic ducts. b. pump blood into the large lymphatic ducts. c. form the thoracic duct. d. are called lacteals.

ANS: A

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17. The spleen, thymus gland, tonsils, and lymph nodes are a. confined to the thoracic cavity. b. lymphoid organs. c. primarily concerned with hematopoiesis. d. concerned only with phagocytosis.

ANS: B 18. What is (are) the lymphoid structure(s) that is (are) generally removed during a mastectomy? a. Spleen b. Liver c. Axillary lymph nodes d. Adenoids ANS: C 19. Which of the following is (are) described as partially encapsulated lymph nodes located in the

throat area? a. Spleen b. Tonsils c. Thymus gland d. Lacteal

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: B 20. A lacteal is located within the a. adenoid. b. tonsil. c. thymus gland. d. intestinal villus.

ANS: D 21. Which of the following is least characteristic of the pharyngeal tonsils? a. Lymphoid organs b. Called adenoids c. Protect body from infection d. Most commonly removed by tonsillectomy ANS: D 22. Lymph is a. pumped by the left heart into the systemic circulation. b. formed when fluid is filtered across the subclavian veins into the tissue spaces. c. formed from tissue fluid. d. red, like blood.

ANS: C 23. Why does lymph contain protein? a. Protein is synthesized by the lym ph nodes.

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b. Protein leaks out of the capU illarSies N intoTthe tissOue spaces and is absorbed into the

lymphatic capillaries. c. The cells that line the lymphatic vessels synthesize protein. d. Adenoids transport plasma protein into the lymphatic vessels.

ANS: B 24. An overly active spleen may prematurely remove platelets from the circulation, thereby

predisposing a person to a. arteriolar vasospasm and hypertension. b. granulocytopenia and infection. c. thrombocytopenia and bleeding. d. hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice.

ANS: C 25. Elephantiasis is a. CO = HR  SV  pulse pressure. b. caused by the destruction of valves within the lymphatic vessels. c. edema formation in response to impaired lymphatic drainage. d. caused by the removal of the spleen.

ANS: C 26. A person has a severe streptococcal pharyngitis (sore throat). He is most likely to develop

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. b. c. d.

hypertrophied thymus gland. cervical lymphoma. enlarged inguinal lymph nodes. painful cervical lymph nodes.

ANS: D 27. A young woman is diagnosed with breast cancer. She is most apt to have a. a sentinel node biopsy before the mastectomy is performed. b. a sentinel node biopsy after breast reconstruction surgery. c. the sentinel node radiated during the mastectomy surgical procedure. d. a mastectomy and excision of all axillary lymph nodes; only then is the sentinel

node biopsied.

ANS: A 28. Which of the following best describes the lymphatic capillaries? a. They closely follow the path of the aorta. b. They have large pores and follow venous pathways. c. They are found only in lymph nodes. d. They are found only in the spleen.

ANS: B 29. Which of the following is true about lymph? It is a. absorbed by lymphatic capillaries from the interstitium. b. filtered by the lymphatic capillaries into the interstitium. c. secreted by the subclavian veins into the large lymphatic ducts.

N Rh eIlNymp GThB.C M d. synthesized and stored withUin tS nodeO s.

ANS: A 30. The thoracic duct a. filters lymph into the subclavian veins. b. receives lymph from large lymphatic vessels that drain the left side of the body. c. functions like a heart that pumps lymph throughout the body. d. is a collection of lymph nodes.

ANS: B 31. What is the similarity between the thoracic duct and the right lymphatic duct? Both a. drain lymph exclusively from the lower extremities. b. empty their lymph into the left subclavian vein. c. are large lymphatic ducts that collect lymph from smaller lymphatic vessels. d. are lymphatic capillaries associated exclusively with the cerebral circulation.

ANS: C 32. With which of the following are lymph nodes populated? a. Megakaryocytes and platelets b. Reticulocytes and erythrocytes c. Lymphocytes and macrophages d. Granulocytes and Kupffer cells

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

ANS: C 33. With which of the following is MALT least associated? a. Immune function b. Mucosa c. Erythropoiesis d. Phagocytosis ANS: C 34. Which of the following is least associated with tonsils? a. Palatine, pharyngeal, and lingual b. Thrombopoiesis c. Lymph node–like d. Lymphoid tissue ANS: B 35. Red pulp and white pulp a. compose splenic tissue. b. synthesize clotting factors. c. secrete red and white blood cells in the adult. d. are only found in the fetal liver.

ANS: A 36. This organ engages in erythropoiesis in the fetus, produces lymphocytes in the adult, and

stores platelets. a. Liver b. Spleen c. Adenoids d. Tonsils

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ANS: B 37. The lymphatic circulation a. b. c. d.

is most closely associated with the venous side of the circulation. accompanies the aorta and its branches. is concerned with the transport of oxygen. plays a vital role in hemostasis.

ANS: A 38. Lymph node dissection is most likely to cause a. Edema b. Hypoxemia c. Ischemia d. Thrombosis ANS: A

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

Chapter 22: Respiratory System Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which structure is called the windpipe and is supported by rings of cartilage? a. Bronchus b. Alveolus c. Pharynx d. Trachea ANS: D 2. Which of the following respiratory tubes are primarily composed of smooth muscle and

determine the flow of air to the alveoli? a. Trachea b. Bronchi c. Bronchioles d. Nares ANS: C 3. The trachea branches into the right and left a. alveoli. b. bronchi. c. nares. d. pulmonary arteries.

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ANS: B

4. The lungs are located within the a. mediastinum. b. dorsal cavity. c. spinal cavity. d. thoracic cavity.

ANS: D 5. Oxygen diffuses from the alveoli into the a. bronchioles. b. trachea. c. pulmonary capillaries. d. eustachian tube.

ANS: C 6. Which nerve innervates the diaphragm? a. Intercostal nerve b. Sciatic c. Phrenic d. Cranial nerve XI

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

ANS: C 7. The diaphragm a. is smooth muscle that forms the bronchioles. b. is skeletal muscle. c. contracts in response to the firing of the vagus nerve. d. forms the outer lining of the lungs.

ANS: B 8. The pleural membranes a. line the respiratory passages. b. form the bronchioles. c. are serous membranes. d. are confined to the mediastinum.

ANS: C 9. Which respiratory muscles are located between the ribs? a. Diaphragm b. Bronchiolar smooth muscle c. Intercostals d. Sternocleidomastoids ANS: C 10. Contraction of the diaphragm and the external intercostal muscles a. stimulates the phrenic a n N d i nR tU ercS o sta rv. esC . OM I Gl ne B N T b. decreases thoracic volume. c. causes air to move out of the lungs. d. is responsible for inhalation.

ANS: D 11. Stimulation of the phrenic and intercostal nerves causes the release of which neurotransmitter

into the neuromuscular junction? a. Adrenaline b. Norepinephrine c. Acetylcholine d. Myosin ANS: C 12. Dyspnea means a. “puffed up” alveoli. b. pneumonia. c. cyanosis. d. difficulty breathing.

ANS: D 13. The Adam’s apple is

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. b. c. d.

cartilage. the epiglottis. the primary site of gas exchange. the pharynx.

ANS: A 14. Frontal, maxillary, sphenoidal, and ethmoidal a. refer to the bones of the thorax. b. are saliva-secreting glands. c. are paranasal sinuses. d. are lined with serous membrane.

ANS: C 15. What happens when the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles relax? a. air moves out of the lungs. b. inhalation occurs. c. ventilation ceases. d. chest volume increases.

ANS: A 16. Which of the following best describes eupnea? a. Kussmaul respirations b. Vital capacity c. Normal, quiet breathing d. Hypoxemia

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ANS: C

17. The respiratory passages are lined with a. pleura. b. mucous membrane. c. serous membrane. d. muscle.

ANS: B 18. How is most oxygen transported through the blood? a. attached to hemoglobin. b. as bicarbonate. c. as a surfactant. d. as a lysozyme.

ANS: A 19. Which of the following is the dome-shaped muscle that is the chief muscle of inhalation? a. Diaphragm b. Epiglottis c. Mediastinum d. Pericardium

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: A 20. Bronchiolar constriction is most likely to cause a. pneumothorax. b. pulmonary edema. c. wheezing. d. laryngitis.

ANS: C 21. Surfactants are found within the a. pulmonary capillaries. b. trachea. c. alveoli. d. intrapleural space.

ANS: C 22. Which of the following is the major regulator of respiratory activity? a. PO2 b. PCO2 c. Bicarbonate d. Albumin ANS: B 23. Which of the following structures controls respirations? a. Medulla oblongata NURSINGTB.COM b. Basal ganglia c. Postcentral gyrus d. Limbic system ANS: A 24. As plasma PCO2 increases, a. b. c. d.

hemoglobin synthesis increases. ventilation increases. vital capacity increases. respirations cease.

ANS: B 25. Intra-alveolar surface tension is caused by a. acid. b. mucus. c. water. d. bicarbonate.

ANS: C 26. Hypoventilation decreases the respiratory excretion of a. oxygen. b. water.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. carbon dioxide. d. albumin.

ANS: C 27. Hypoventilation can cause a. bleeding and hypotension. b. alkalosis and Kussmaul respirations. c. hypoxemia and acidosis. d. hyperglycemia and acidosis.

ANS: C 28. Which of the following is most likely to cause hypoxemia? a. Kussmaul respirations b. Hyperventilation c. Medullary depression d. Brain stem stimulation ANS: C 29. Boyle’s law forms the basis of a. ventilation. b. chemical regulation of breathing. c. oxygen transport in the blood. d. carbon dioxide transport in the blood.

ANS: A

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30. Boyle’s law states the relationship between volume and a. O2. b. CO2. c. pressure. d. H2O. ANS: C 31. Which of the following is necessary for the lungs to remain expanded? a. The alveolar cells must secrete surfactant. b. The intrapulmonic pressure must be negative. c. The glottis must be closed. d. The intrapleural pressure must be negative.

ANS: D 32. The nares, nostrils, and nasal septum a. are concerned with gas exchange. b. are located in the upper respiratory tract. c. contain gustatory organs. d. are parts of the bronchial tree.

ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 33. Which of the following is most related to the transport of the respiratory gases by the blood? a. Inhalation, exhalation b. Oxyhemoglobin, carbaminohemoglobin c. Inspiration, expiration d. Breathing in, breathing out ANS: B 34. Which of the following contributes to the wheezing of asthma? a. Constriction of the bronchiolar smooth muscle b. Edema of the esophagus c. Inflammation of the trachea and pharynx d. Pneumothorax ANS: A 35. Anatomical dead air space is most associated with which structure? a. Frontal sinus b. Alveoli c. Trachea d. Esophagus ANS: C 36. The water molecule is polar, meaning that each end of the molecule has an electrical charge.

Because of this characteristic, water a. has a high surface tension. b. can only dissolve lipids.

NURSINGTB.COM c. is a poor solvent. d. is lipid-soluble.

ANS: A 37. Which of the following structures is located in the lungs? a. Pharynx b. Epiglottis c. Alveoli d. Larynx ANS: C 38. Which of the following is most related to the relaxation of the diaphragm and the intercostal

muscles? a. Results from the firing of the inspiratory neurons b. Caused by the firing of the phrenic and intercostal nerves c. Decreased thoracic volume d. Causes air to move into the lungs ANS: C 39. What is the transport mechanism necessary for the movement of oxygen from the alveoli

across the pulmonary capillary membranes into the blood? a. Osmosis

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. Filtration c. Diffusion d. Active transport pump ANS: C 40. What is the effect of an overdose of an opioid (narcotic)? a. Alters the shape of the hemoglobin so that it cannot bind to oxygen b. Depresses the medulla oblongata and depresses ventilation c. Causes spasm of the epiglottis resulting in an upper airway obstruction d. Causes hyperventilation and alkalosis ANS: B 41. Which substance greatly reduces the attractive forces among the water molecules lining the

alveoli? a. Lysozyme b. Converting enzyme c. Mucus d. Surfactant ANS: D 42. What is the effect of curare? a. Depresses the inspiratory neurons in the medulla oblongata b. Changes the shape of the hemoglobin so that it cannot bind to oxygen c. Interferes with the activation of the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles by their

motor nerves

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d. Inactivates acetylcholinesterase ANS: C 43. The epiglottis a. is innervated by the phrenic nerve. b. prevents air from entering the esophagus. c. prevents food from entering the trachea. d. is the Adam’s apple.

ANS: C 44. The trachea is a. “the problem” in asthma. b. the site of gas exchange. c. composed primarily of smooth muscle. d. a large airway that splits into two bronchi.

ANS: D 45. Which of the following is most likely to cause pulmonary edema? a. Bronchitis b. Coryza c. Exercise-induced asthma d. Left ventricular heart failure

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

ANS: D 46. Kussmaul respirations a. cause hypoxemia. b. increase PCO2. c. refer to an acidosis-induced increased respiratory activity. d. are caused by a decrease in the plasma [H+].

ANS: C 47. In reference to a normally expanded lung, the a. intrapulmonic pressure is less than intrapleural pressure. b. intrapleural pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure. c. intrapulmonic pressure is greater than intrapleural pressure. d. intrapleural, intrapulmonic, and atmospheric pressures are equal.

ANS: C 48. In which structure is the PO2 104 mm Hg? a. Pulmonary artery b. Alveolus c. Right ventricle d. Vena cava ANS: B 49. Across which structure(s) does most gas exchange occur? a. Trachea NURSINGTB.COM b. Bronchus c. Bronchioles d. Alveoli ANS: D 50. The Hering-Breuer reflex a. b. c. d.

prevents overinflation of the lungs. is a chemical reflex; no nerves are involved. is important only in disease states. is concerned only with sneezing and coughing.

ANS: A 51. The central chemoreceptors are primarily sensitive to blood levels of a. oxygen. b. carbon dioxide and [H+]. c. sodium. d. potassium.

ANS: B 52. Which structure has the thinnest wall? a. Trachea

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. Bronchi c. Larynx d. Alveoli ANS: D 53. Which event occurs first? a. The diaphragm contracts. b. Air moves into the lungs. c. The phrenic nerve fires. d. The inspiratory neurons in the medulla fire.

ANS: D 54. What is the effect of phrenic nerve stimulation? a. Expiration b. Relaxation of the diaphragm and the intercostals c. Inhalation d. A decrease in chest diameter ANS: C 55. Which of the following events occurs last? a. Contraction of the diaphragm and the intercostals b. Movement of air into the lungs c. Firing of the inspiratory neurons in the medulla d. Firing of the phrenic and intercostal nerves ANS: B

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56. The phrenic nerve fires. Which event occurs next? a. The inspiratory neurons fire. b. The diaphragm contracts. c. Air moves into the lungs. d. Thoracic volume decreases.

ANS: B 57. Which respiratory structure is distal to the trachea and proximal to the alveoli? a. Pharynx b. Larynx c. Bronchus d. Glottis ANS: C 58. Laryngospasm is most likely to cause a. emphysema. b. pneumothorax. c. acute respiratory obstruction. d. asthma.

ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

59. Atelectasis a. decreases the surface area for gas exchange. b. causes pneumothorax. c. causes acute respiratory obstruction. d. is best treated with antibiotics.

ANS: A 60. Activation of the beta2-adrenergic receptors of the airway a. causes laryngospasm. b. constricts the bronchioles. c. restricts air flow. d. causes bronchodilation.

ANS: D 61. The collection of mucus in the lower airways is most likely to cause a. laryngospasm. b. pneumothorax. c. atelectasis. d. pharyngitis.

ANS: C 62. Which of the following is most likely to stimulate coughing that may be accompanied by a

life-threatening bradycardia? a. Suctioning of the lower a i r w a y s N R I

G B.C M b. Administration of albuterolU(a S b e t aN renergiO c agonist) via inhalation 2 - adT c. Administration of O2 via nasal cannula d. Performance of a thoracentesis ANS: A 63. A preterm infant is most likely to develop respiratory distress because of a. bacterial pneumonia. b. a deficiency of surfactant. c. excess mucus in the upper airways. d. an inability of the immature diaphragm to contract.

ANS: B 64. Which group is incorrect? a. Pulmonary volumes: tidal, inspiratory reserve, expiratory reserve b. Structures of the bronchial tree: bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli c. Respiratory gases: oxygen, carbon dioxide d. Parts of the pharynx: oropharynx, nasopharynx, laryngopharynx, bronchiopharynx ANS: D 65. Which group is incorrect? a. Structures of the bronchial tree: trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli b. Paranasal sinuses: frontal, maxillary, sphenoidal, ethmoidal

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. Structures of the upper respiratory tract: trachea, pharynx, larynx d. Parts of the pharynx: oropharynx, nasopharynx, laryngopharynx ANS: A 66. The respiratory tract a. includes the mouth, pharynx, trachea, and esophagus. b. contains conductance, resistance, and exchange structures. c. is lined with serous pleural membranes and cilia. d. begins with the nose and mouth and ends at the bronchioles.

ANS: B 67. Contraction and relaxation of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles a. change thoracic volume. b. close the glottis. c. occur in response to firing of the vagus nerve. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: A 68. Cartilaginous rings a. prevent the collapse of the trachea. b. surround each alveolus. c. are innervated by the phrenic nerve. d. attach the diaphragm to the thoracic wall.

ANS: A

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69. Which of the following statements is true of the right bronchus? a. Food and small objects are more likely to be aspirated into the right bronchus

because it is more vertical and larger than the left bronchus. b. The right bronchus has an opening to the pleural cavity. c. Oxygen content is higher in the right bronchus than the left bronchus. d. The right bronchus is bigger than the left bronchus, so it has higher levels of

carbon dioxide.

ANS: A 70. The lungs contain the a. inspiratory and expiratory neurons. b. structures of the bronchial tree. c. pharynx, larynx, and trachea. d. pleural membranes.

ANS: B 71. Which of the following best describes the visceral and parietal pleura? a. Line the inner wall of the trachea and bronchi b. Line the mediastinum c. Are serous membranes that line the pleural cavity d. Are surfactant-secreting membranes

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: C 72. Surfactants a. prevent collapse of the alveoli. b. induce anaphylaxis. c. cause upper respiratory obstruction. d. decrease thoracic volume.

ANS: A 73. Which of the following occurs on inhalation? a. Air moves into the intrapulmonic space. b. Thoracic volume increases. c. The diaphragm contracts. d. All of the above occur.

ANS: D 74. Which of the following occurs on exhalation? a. Respiratory expiratory neurons fire. b. The diaphragm relaxes. c. Thoracic volume decreases. d. All of the above occur.

ANS: D 75. Which of the following describes Boyle’s law? a. An increase in thoracic volume causes an increase in intrapulmonic pressure.

Nw eR G TB.C Oc pressure and thoracic volume. b. There is no relationship be tU eSn I inNtrap ulmoniM c. An increase in thoracic volume decreases intrapulmonic pressure. d. An increase in thoracic volume forces air out of the lungs.

ANS: C 76. Severing the phrenic nerve a. stops ventilation. b. impairs exhalation but has no effect on inhalation. c. causes hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. d. does all of the above.

ANS: A 77. Most CO2 is transported in the blood a. by the hemoglobin, as carbaminohemoglobin. b. by megakaryocytes. c. loosely bound to the iron molecule in heme. d. as bicarbonate.

ANS: D 78. Respirations are primarily controlled by the a. medulla oblongata. b. cerebellum.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. spinal cord. d. frontal lobe.

ANS: A 79. The pneumotaxic center and apneustic center are located within the a. aortic bodies. b. alveoli. c. pons. d. spinal cord.

ANS: C 80. Inspiratory and expiratory neurons a. are located within the respiratory control center in the brain stem. b. are sensitive primarily to PO2. c. line the breathing tubes, especially the bronchioles. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: A 81. Which of the following is an upper respiratory structure? a. Alveoli b. Larynx c. Bronchi d. Bronchioles ANS: B

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82. Which of the following represents a correct air flow? a. Bronchus to trachea to bronchioles b. Trachea to bronchioles to alveoli c. Bronchi to bronchioles to alveoli d. Nasopharynx to larynx to bronchioles to bronchi ANS: C

83. Which of the following is true of the lower respiratory tract? a. Contains the respiratory organs in the chest b. Contains all respiratory organs c. Contains all respiratory structures lined with mucous membrane d. Contains all organs distal to the larynx ANS: A 84. The olfactory receptors a. are located on the tongue. b. are located within the nasal cavities and nasal septum. c. are also called taste buds. d. carry sensory information to the brain via CN II. ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 85. As part of the respiratory structures, the oropharynx and laryngopharynx a. carry only air. b. are located distal to the larynx. c. carry food and water to the esophagus. d. carry air to respiratory structures distal to the pharynx.

ANS: C 86. Which of the following represents a correct anatomical sequence? a. Larynx, laryngopharynx, trachea b. Oropharynx, laryngopharynx, larynx c. Larynx, pharynx, bronchi d. Voicebox, windpipe, alveoli ANS: B 87. Which of the following structures prevents entrance of food and water into the respiratory

passages? a. Larynx b. Glottis c. Epiglottis d. Thyroid cartilage ANS: C 88. Which of the following structures is located both in the thoracic cavity and mediastinum but

not in the pleural cavities? a. Lungs b. Heart c. Alveoli d. Bronchioles

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ANS: B

89. The epiglottis, glottis, and vocal cords a. vibrate on exhalation, causing sound. b. prevent the entrance of food and water into the respiratory passages. c. are structures of the larynx. d. are composed of tough cartilage.

ANS: C 90. Identify the names of the following: voicebox, throat, and windpipe. a. Larynx, vocal cords, trachea b. Larynx, laryngopharynx, bronchi c. Larynx, pharynx, trachea d. Laryngopharynx, pharynx, alveoli ANS: C 91. A tracheostomy is performed in order to a. ensure an open airway. b. humidify inhaled air.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. administer high dose oxygen into the laryngopharynx. d. introduce food and water into the esophagus and stomach.

ANS: A 92. What causes a boy’s voice to “break” or change at the onset of puberty? a. Rapid growth of the throat region stretches the vocal cords. b. Testosterone causes the vocal cords to thicken. c. Testosterone closes the glottis permanently. d. Testosterone enlarges the thyroid cartilage (Adam’s apple).

ANS: B 93. What is the primary concern with laryngospasm and swelling of the lips and tongue? a. Interruption of the negative pressure within the intrapleural space b. Indication of accumulation of water in the alveoli as in pulmonary edema c. Acute upper airway obstruction d. Indication of damage of the phrenic nerve ANS: C 94. “Clubbing” of the fingers is a response to a. chronic hypoxemia. b. CO2 retention and acidosis. c. acute hyperventilation in response to metabolic acidosis. d. chronic dry hacking cough.

ANS: A

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95. Which of the following is a structure located within the lungs? a. Visceral pleura b. Primary bronchi c. Parietal pleura d. Intrapleural space ANS: B 96. Which of the following is the first step in inhalation? a. Phrenic nerve stimulation b. Activation of the NM receptors (neuromuscular junction of the phrenic nerve and

diaphragm) c. Firing of the medullary inspiratory neurons d. Contraction of the diaphragm ANS: C 97. Where is blood oxygenated? a. Within the left ventricle b. Within the left anterior descending artery c. Within the coronary sinus d. Across the alveolus/pulmonary capillary membrane ANS: D

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

98. Central and peripheral chemoreceptors (aortic and carotid bodies) a. are responsive only to hypoxemia. b. are both sensitive to [H+] concentrations. c. can regulate the rate and depth of respirations. d. More than one of the above are true.

ANS: D 99. Which of the following are the accessory muscles of respiration (used in forced exhalation)? a. Intercostals and diaphragm b. Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius c. Internal intercostals and the abdominal muscles d. Pectoralis major and serratus anterior ANS: C 100. At which point in the respiratory cycle is thoracic volume the smallest? a. At end inhalation b. With contraction of the diaphragm c. With contraction of the external intercostals d. At end of exhalation ANS: D 101. The trachea a. contains C-shaped cartilaginous rings. b. encircles the pulmonary a rter y, where ga s ex cha nge occurs.

N R I G B . C OM

c. is lined with surfactant-se c U r eti nSg cN ells.T d. is located within the pleural cavity.

ANS: A

102. Firing of the intercostal and phrenic nerves a. activates the respiratory control center in the medulla oblongata. b. causes relaxation of the muscles of respiration. c. causes a skeletal muscle response that increases thoracic volume. d. dilates the bronchioles.

ANS: C 103. The diaphragm a. is the chief muscle of inhalation. b. is innervated by the phrenic nerve. c. increases thoracic volume when contracted. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 104. Which event occurs in response to an increase in thoracic volume? a. The respiratory control center is activated. b. Air moves into and through the respiratory passages. c. Intrapleural pressure becomes greater than intrapulmonic pressure.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. Air is exhaled.

ANS: B 105. When the muscles of respiration relax, a. thoracic volume decreases and air moves out of the lungs. b. thoracic volume increases and air moves out of the lung. c. thoracic volume decreases and air moves into the lungs. d. thoracic volume decreases and intrapulmonic pressure decreases.

ANS: A 106. Laryngospasm and epiglottal swelling is most apt to cause a. pulmonary edema. b. upper airway obstruction. c. pleural effusion. d. pneumothorax.

ANS: B 107. Ventilation a. refers to the regulation of blood pH by the lungs. b. refers to loading and unloading of oxygen by hemoglobin. c. has two phases: inhalation and exhalation. d. is exclusively responsive to pCO2.

ANS: C 108. Which of the following will cNaU usR eS thI eN inG trT apB ul. mC oO niM c pressure to become less than atmospheric

pressure? a. Relaxation of the respiratory muscles b. Increase in thoracic volume c. Secretion of surfactants d. 95% oxygen saturation ANS: B

109. What will happen under the following conditions: the pO2 is 95 mm Hg (arterial blood) and

40 mm Hg (tissue)? a. Oxygen diffuses from the tissues into the blood. b. Blood pH shifts from an acid to an alkaline range. c. Carbon dioxide diffuses from the blood to the tissues. d. Oxygen diffuses from the blood to the tissues.

ANS: D 110. A stab wound to the chest causes the lung to collapse because a. of a sudden increase in surface tension. b. intrapulmonic pressure becomes less than atmospheric pressure. c. intrapulmonic pressure becomes higher than intrapleural pressure. d. intrapleural pressure becomes greater than intrapulmonic pressure.

ANS: D

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

111. The alveoli a. are supported by C-shaped cartilaginous rings. b. are the primary site of respiratory gas exchange. c. contract and relax, thereby determining resistance to air flow through the

respiratory passages. d. are composed primarily of smooth muscle.

ANS: B 112. Surfactants a. are secreted by cells within the alveoli. b. increase surface tension. c. transport oxygen across the alveolar-pulmonary capillary membrane. d. relax the epiglottis so as prevent upper respiratory obstruction.

ANS: A 113. A deficiency of surfactants in the neonate a. makes it difficult to expand the lungs. b. decreases alveolar surface tension. c. causes epiglottal swelling and laryngospasm. d. causes upper airway irritation.

ANS: A 114. Because of their smooth muscle content,

flow. a. trachea b. bronchi c. alveoli d. bronchioles

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ANS: D

115. Hyperventilation is most apt to induce a. alkalosis. b. hypoxemia. c. a decline in blood pH. d. metabolic acidosis.

ANS: A 116. Hypoventilation is most apt to a. increase blood pH. b. induce acidosis. c. cause ketosis. d. cause hyperglycemia.

ANS: B 117. Pleural membranes a. line the inside of the lungs.

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are the primary determinants of air

Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. secrete surfactants. c. secrete mucus and other viscous secretions to minimize friction between the

pleural membranes. d. are serous membranes.

ANS: D

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

Chapter 25: Water, Electrolyte, and Acid–Base Balance Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is true about interstitial fluid, plasma, lymph, and transcellular fluid? a. Contain no electrolytes b. Protein-free fluids c. Classified as extracellular d. pH less than 6 (highly acidic) ANS: C 2. Which of the following forms the greatest extracellular fluid compartment? a. Lymph b. Interstitial c. Plasma d. Transcellular ANS: B 3. Which fluid compartment is located between the cells and is also called tissue fluid? a. Lymph b. Plasma c. Interstitial d. Transcellular ANS: C

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4. Which of the following is descriptive of normal saline? a. Distilled water b. 0.9% sodium chloride c. Highly acidic d. Contains albumin ANS: B 5. Which of the following is most likely to occur when output exceeds intake? a. Diuresis b. Polyuria c. Hematuria d. Dehydration ANS: D 6. Water and chloride usually follow the movement of which cation? a. Bicarbonate b. Sodium c. Potassium d. Albumin ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

7. Poor skin turgor is most indicative of a. cystitis. b. acidosis. c. edema. d. dehydration.

ANS: D 8. Kaliuresis refers to the urinary loss of a. water. b. albumin. c. potassium. d. sodium.

ANS: C 9. K+ a. is a cation. b. is an acid. c. neutralizes H+. d. is the chief extracellular cation.

ANS: A 10. Bicarbonate (HCO3–) is considered an anion because it a. contains hydrogen. b. contains carbon.

NURSINGTB.COM c. contains oxygen. d. carries a negative charge.

ANS: D 11. Which of the following can be defined as an H+ donor? a. Ion b. Tincture c. Acid d. Bicarbonate ANS: C 12. Which of the following acts as a base? a. H+ b. OH– c. Calcium ion d. Gastric juice ANS: B 13. Excess diuresis is most likely to cause a. edema. b. overhydration. c. blood volume depletion.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. acidosis.

ANS: C 14. Which of the following is most likely to occur when output is less than intake? a. Dehydration b. Edema c. Hypovolemia d. Polyuria ANS: B 15. Hypoventilation is most likely to cause a. acidosis. b. edema. c. renal excretion of bicarbonate. d. hypokalemia.

ANS: A 16. Which of the following is not a function of the lungs? a. Oxygenation of blood b. Excretion of carbon dioxide c. Secretion of aldosterone and the regulation of Na+ d. Regulation of blood pH ANS: C 17. Hyperventilation is most likeN lyUtoRcSaI u sN e GTB.COM a. a blood pH higher than 7.45. b. diuresis. c. edema. d. acidosis.

ANS: A 18. Metabolic acidosis, such as diabetic ketoacidosis, is most likely to cause a. hypoventilation. b. Kussmaul respirations. c. the renal excretion of bicarbonate. d. the renal retention of H+.

ANS: B 19. Most body water is located within which space? a. Interstitial b. Intravascular c. Intracellular d. Transcellular ANS: C 20. Which of the following is not true of extracellular fluid?

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. b. c. d.

Most body water is extracellular.

Plasma is extracellular fluid.

Transcellular fluid is extracellular.

There is more interstitial fluid than intravascular fluid.

ANS: A 21. Which ion determines pH? a. Sodium b. Hydrogen c. Bicarbonate d. Potassium ANS: B 22. Hyperkalemia refers to an increase in the blood levels of which ion? a. Hydrogen b. Bicarbonate c. Calcium d. Potassium ANS: D 23. Retention of which ion causes water retention and edema formation? a. Potassium b. Hydrogen c. Sodium d. Bicarbonate

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ANS: C

24. More than 99% of which cation is stored in the bones and teeth? a. Potassium b. Hydrogen c. Chloride d. Calcium ANS: D 25. Which of the following is the chief extracellular cation? a. Chloride b. Calcium c. Sodium d. Potassium ANS: C 26. Which ion determines the resting membrane potential of nerve and muscle? a. Sodium b. Calcium c. Hydrogen d. Potassium

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: D 27. Most diuretics increase urine production by blocking the effects of which cation? a. Calcium b. Bicarbonate c. Chloride d. Sodium ANS: D 28. Which hormone causes the kidneys to retain sodium and to excrete potassium? a. ADH b. Erythropoietin c. Aldosterone d. PTH ANS: C 29. Which hormone stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb calcium and to excrete phosphate? a. ADH b. Aldosterone c. Parathyroid hormone d. Erythropoietin ANS: C 30. Respiratory rate is most sensitive to the effects of which ion? a. Na+ NURSINGTB.COM b. K+ + c. H d. Cl– ANS: C

31. Which of the following anions buffers H+? a. Ca2+ b. HCO3– c. Na+ d. K+ ANS: B 32. Which of the following is characteristic of acidosis? a. pH of 7.55 b. A decrease in the concentration of hydrogen ion in the blood c. Urinary excretion of bicarbonate d. pH less than 7.35 ANS: D 33. Which of the following is most likely to develop in a patient who hypoventilates because of a

chronic respiratory disease, such as emphysema? a. Kussmaul respirations

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. A decrease in the plasma concentration of hydrogen ion c. An increase in plasma pH d. Acidosis ANS: D 34. Which of the following is most likely to develop in an anxious hyperventilating patient? a. Respiratory acidosis b. Alkalosis c. A decrease in plasma pH d. Ketoacidosis ANS: B 35. Which condition is caused by vomiting stomach contents? a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypernatremia and blood volume expansion c. Hypocalcemic tetany d. Alkalosis ANS: D 36. Which condition stimulates Kussmaul respirations? a. Respiratory acidosis b. Respiratory alkalosis c. Ketoacidosis d. Hypocalcemic tetany ANS: C

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37. Which of the following is a buffer pair? a. PTH, aldosterone b. ADH, ANF c. HCO3–, H2CO3 d. Sodium, potassium ANS: C 38. What does urinary specific gravity measure? a. Plasma H+ concentration b. Hydration status of the body c. Plasma potassium d. The buffering capacity of the blood ANS: B 39. A patient is admitted with severe emphysema and a PO2 of 85. He also has a blood pH of 7.25

and a serum bicarbonate of 40 mEq/liter. Which of the following is the accurate description? a. Metabolic acidosis and respiratory compensation b. Metabolic alkalosis with a respiratory compensation c. Respiratory alkalosis with a renal compensation d. Respiratory acidosis with a renal compensation

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: D 40. Which group is incorrect? a. Cations: sodium, potassium, calcium b. Acid–base imbalances: acidosis, alkalosis c. Lines of defense against acid–base imbalance: buffers, lungs, kidneys d. Transcellular fluids: aqueous humor, cerebrospinal fluid, plasma ANS: D 41. Which group is incorrect? a. Anions: bicarbonate, chloride, phosphate b. Lines of defense against acid–base imbalance: buffers, lungs, kidneys c. Transcellular fluids: aqueous humor, cerebrospinal fluid, synovial fluid d. Hormones: aldosterone, ADH, ANP, urea ANS: D 42. Which group is incorrect? a. Ions: sodium, potassium, calcium, bicarbonate, chloride b. Lines of defense against acid–base imbalance: buffers, lungs, kidneys c. Extracellular fluid: intravascular, interstitial, transcellular d. Substances that are normally found in a sample of urine: urea, creatinine, glucose ANS: D 43. Hyperkalemia a. refers to an elevated seru m c alciu m l eve l.

N R S IN GT B .CO M b. generally develops in respoU nse to d ecl i ning re nal function. c. is often caused by a kaliuretic diuretic. d. is caused by excess aldosterone.

ANS: B 44. Which of the following best indicates the role of albumin in water balance? a. Blocks the renal reabsorption of Na+ b. Enhances the renal excretion of K+ c. Maintains plasma oncotic pressure d. “Plugs up” capillary pores, keeping water in the plasma ANS: C 45. Plasma oncotic pressure a. is caused primarily by salt (sodium chloride). b. “pulls” water into the capillaries from the interstitium. c. pushes water out of the capillaries into the interstitium. d. increases the flow of lymph.

ANS: B 46. Which of the following is (are) true of Na+? a. Is the chief extracellular anion b. Helps regulate extracellular volume

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. Is regulated by ADH d. All of the above ANS: B 47. Which of the following is most likely to happen when fatty acids are broken down rapidly and

incompletely? a. The plasma pH decreases, causing metabolic alkalosis. b. The patient hypoventilates in an attempt to correct the pH disturbance. c. Ketoacids are produced, causing metabolic acidosis. d. The plasma [H+] decreases.

ANS: C 48. Hypocalcemia is most likely to a. cause blood volume expansion (hypervolemia). b. be treated with IV potassium. c. cause tetany. d. be caused by excess parathyroid hormone activity.

ANS: C 49. A patient with pulmonary edema is receiving furosemide (Lasix), a kaliuretic diuretic. He has

lost 6.6 lb over a 48-hr period. Which of the following statements is true? a. He is probably hyperkalemic secondary to the diuretic therapy. b. He has lost 12 L of water. c. His skin is “tenting.” d. He has lost 3 L of water.

N R I G B.C M

U S N T

O

ANS: D 50. A patient with pulmonary edema is receiving furosemide (Lasix), a kaliuretic diuretic. He has

lost 6.6 lb over a 48-hr period. Which statement is true? a. His urinary output has decreased. b. He has lost water weight. c. He will become hyperkalemic if the furosemide is continued. d. The loss of 6.6 lb causes “tenting.”

ANS: B 51. Aldosterone a. is released in response to hypovolemia. b. causes Na+ excretion. c. causes K+ reabsorption. d. determines the permeability of the collecting duct to water.

ANS: A 52. A drug that decreases the synthesis of aldosterone a. decreases blood pressure. b. causes hypernatremia. c. causes hypokalemia. d. does all of the above.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

ANS: A 53. Which of the following is the trigger for the release of ADH? a. Decreased blood volume b. Renin c. Dehydration d. More than one of the above are true.

ANS: D 54. The determination of daily weights is used to monitor a. serum K+. b. diuretic therapy. c. concentration of plasma protein. d. pH. ANS: B 55. Which of the following is least descriptive of dehydration? a. Tenting b. Anasarca c. Hypovolemia d. Concentrated plasma ANS: B 56. Third spacing a. is caused by aggressive dN iuU reR ticStI heNrG apT y.B.COM b. describes a severe state of hypovolemia and dehydration. c. involves only the interstitial space. d. can result in an abnormal accumulation of large amounts of water.

ANS: D 57. Which of the following is an example of metabolic acidosis with a respiratory compensation? a. Morphine overdose and diuresis b. Persistent vomiting and hypoventilation c. Ketoacidosis and Kussmaul respirations d. Hypocalcemic tetany and hyperventilation ANS: C 58. Which of the following is most likely to cause acidosis? a. Persistent vomiting b. Accumulation of plasma H+ c. Renal loss of albumin d. Diuresis ANS: B 59. A change of pH from 7.40 to 7.25 a. is indicative of expanded blood volume.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. is indicative of alkalosis. c. reflects an increase in the amount of H+ in the blood. d. is within normal limits.

ANS: C 60. An unconscious diabetic patient with a blood sugar of 450 mg/dL has an elevated temperature

and is experiencing Kussmaul respirations. You suspect that a. he is excreting large amounts of bicarbonate in his urine. b. his PO2 is normal or high-normal. c. his blood pH is 7.25. d. Two of the above are true.

ANS: D 61. A patient is ventilating at a rate of 8 to 10 respirations/min, having been heavily medicated for

pain. Which of the following is true? The patient is (may) a. develop a respiratory acidosis. b. experiencing Kussmaul respirations. c. experiencing diuresis. d. likely to develop a metabolic alkalosis.

ANS: A 62. Which of the following is true of dehydration? a. Is characterized by poor skin turgor and “tenting” b. Is accompanied by an decrease in urine specific gravity c. Causes a shift of water fr om the vasc ula tu re into the interstitium

N R I G B.C M O d. Is generally treated with a dUiu r S eti c N T ANS: A

63. Which of the following is true of hyperkalemia? a. Also causes blood volume expansion and hypertension b. Refers to an elevation in serum potassium c. Is most often due to impaired respiratory function d. Is due to an accumulation of urea in the blood ANS: B 64. Excessive secretion of ADH, as occurs with head injury, is most likely to cause a. tenting. b. blood volume expansion. c. diuresis. d. hypernatremia.

ANS: B 65. A deficiency of ADH, called diabetes insipidus, is characterized by a. glucosuria and an osmotic diuresis. b. polyuria and polydipsia. c. Kussmaul respirations and hyperventilation. d. edema formation and sodium retention.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

ANS: B 66. Which of the following is a pH descriptive of ketoacidosis? a. 7.50 b. pH > 7.45 c. 14.0 d. 7.25 ANS: D 67. A drug that blocks the renal reabsorption of sodium a. decreases the renal excretion of Na+. b. increases the amount of urine. c. decreases the excretion of bicarbonate. d. always increases the reabsorption of K+.

ANS: B 68. Under which condition will the renal reabsorption of bicarbonate increase? a. As a compensatory mechanism for respiratory acidosis b. Whenever blood pH exceeds 7.45 c. As a compensatory mechanism for metabolic alkalosis d. Whenever a person hyperventilates ANS: A 69. Which of the following is true about these percentages: 60% and 28%? They represent the

amount of a. b. c. d.

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water eliminated as urine and through the skin and lungs.

Na+ and K+ reabsorbed by the kidneys in response to aldosterone. water ingested through moist food and metabolism.

Na+ and K+ reabsorbed in response to ADH secretion.

ANS: A 70. Which of the following conditions is most apt to decrease glomerular filtration rate (GFR)? a. Overhydration b. Hypotension c. Administration of a diuretic for the treatment of edema d. Water intoxication ANS: B 71. This anion is an important part of a major buffer pair and therefore plays an important role in

acid–base regulation. a. Na+ b. Bicarbonate c. HCO3– d. Both B and C are true ANS: D

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 72. Generally speaking the movement of Na+ determines the a. blood pH. b. blood glucose. c. secretion of PTH. d. movement of water.

ANS: D 73. Which of the following conditions is most apt to cause a dilutional hyponatremia? a. Excess ingestion of water b. Dehydration c. Hypotension d. Diaphoresis ANS: A 74. Where does most of the body’s acid come from? a. It is reabsorbed from the urine by the kidneys. b. Metabolic reactions within the body c. Ingestion of fruit juices d. Ingestion of a variety of sources of bicarbonate ANS: B 75. Which of the following is most apt to cause a hypocalcemic tetany? a. Hyperventilation b. Rapid and excess fat catabolism c. Metabolic acidosis NURSINGTB.COM d. pH < 7.35 ANS: A

76. With carbon dioxide retention, CO2 + H2O  a. H2O2. b. H+ + HCO3–. c. bicarbonate. d. H2O + H2O. ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

Chapter 26: Reproductive Systems Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The seminiferous tubules a. are located in the pelvic cavity. b. are tightly coiled structures that produce sperm. c. secrete testosterone. d. are primarily concerned with ejaculation.

ANS: B 2. The scrotum a. makes sperm. b. is a sac located between the thighs and holds the testicles. c. secretes androgens. d. contains the prostate gland and urethra.

ANS: B 3. What is the coiled structure that sits on top of the testes and is the place where sperm mature? a. Scrotum b. Epididymis c. Prostate gland d. Prepuce ANS: B

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4. Which term refers to the penis and scrotum? a. External genitals b. Gonads c. Gametes d. Zygotes ANS: A 5. Which piece of skin, also called the foreskin, is removed during circumcision? a. Scrotum b. Penis c. Epididymis d. Prepuce ANS: D 6. Which structure carries both urine and semen? a. Vagina b. Urethra c. Ejaculatory duct d. Vas deferens ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

7. What is the male copulatory organ called? a. Penis b. Vas deferens c. Prostate gland d. Testes ANS: A 8. Which cells secrete testosterone? a. Prostate gland b. Prepuce c. Interstitial cells d. Seminiferous tubules ANS: C 9. What state is caused by the filling of erectile tissue with blood? a. Impotence b. Orgasm c. Erection d. Emission ANS: C 10. What is the androgen that is necessary for sperm formation and for the development of the

male secondary sex characteristics? a. ACTH NURSINGTB.COM b. Progesterone c. Chorionic gonadotropin d. Testosterone ANS: D

11. Which term refers to the movement of sperm and glandular secretions from the testes and

genital ducts into the urethra? a. Ejaculation b. Emission c. Orgasm d. Erection ANS: B 12. Which hormone is also called interstitial cell-stimulating hormone and stimulates the

interstitial cells to secrete testosterone? a. FSH b. Estrogen c. Luteinizing hormone d. Chorionic gonadotropin ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 13. Which of the following is the skin-covered muscular region located between the vaginal

orifice and anus? a. Hymen b. Perineum c. Fallopian tubes d. Fimbriae ANS: B 14. Implantation of the trophoblast occurs within which organ? a. Ovaries b. Fallopian tubes c. Oviducts d. Uterus ANS: D 15. The placenta forms in which organ? a. Uterus b. Fallopian tube c. Vagina d. Perineum ANS: A 16. The cervix is part of which organ? a. Uterus b. Fallopian tube NURSINGTB.COM c. Vagina d. Perineum ANS: A

17. The myometrium and the endometrium are layers of which structure? a. Ovaries b. Uterus c. Fallopian tubes d. Vagina ANS: B 18. Which of the following consists of a midpiece, head, and flagellum? a. Zygote b. Ovum c. Corpus luteum d. Sperm ANS: D 19. The fundus forms the upper part of which structure? a. Vagina b. Corpus luteum c. Graafian follicle

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. Uterus ANS: D 20. On what organ is the corpus luteum found? a. Uterus b. Fallopian tube c. Ovary d. Vagina ANS: C 21. If implantation occurs within the fallopian tube, the pregnancy is described as a. normal. b. ectopic. c. embryonic. d. menstrual.

ANS: B 22. Which of the following is referred to as external genitals? a. Gonads b. Vulva c. Oviducts d. Perineum ANS: B 23. What is the target of FSH andNL UHR?SINGTB.COM a. Uterus b. Vagina c. Ovaries d. Cervix ANS: C 24. Which hormone promotes the maturation of the egg and helps develop the female

characteristics? a. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) b. Androgen c. Estrogen d. Interstitial cell-stimulating hormone ANS: C 25. Which of the following is a “guy thing”? a. Ovulation b. Emission c. Implantation d. Midcycle surge of LH ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 26. What is the primary secretion of the corpus luteum? a. FSH b. hCG c. Progesterone d. Androgen ANS: C 27. What is the midcycle event stimulated by a surge of LH? a. Orgasm b. Menstruation c. Emission d. Ovulation ANS: D 28. What is the uterine lining called that is most responsive to the hormonal effects of estrogen

and progesterone? a. Perineum b. Myometrium c. Fundus d. Endometrium ANS: D 29. Which of the following is true of the ovaries and the testes? a. Secrete gonadotropins b. Located in the pelvic cav ity I G B.C M c. Called gametes d. Called gonads

N R U S N T

O

ANS: D

30. Which of the following is true of the ova and sperm? a. Called gonads b. Incapable of meiosis c. Called gametes d. Require androgens for maturation ANS: C 31. Which structure is the major producer of testosterone in the male? a. Corpus luteum b. Testes c. Anterior pituitary gland d. Adrenal medulla ANS: B 32. Which structure contains 23 chromosomes? a. A fertilized ovum b. The corpus luteum c. A sperm

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. The corpus albicans ANS: C 33. Which structure secretes the gonadotropins? a. Adrenal cortex b. Testes c. Anterior pituitary gland d. Ovum ANS: C 34. Where are sperm produced? a. Vas deferens b. Ejaculatory duct c. Urethra d. Seminiferous tubules ANS: D 35. Which of the following is true of the vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, and urethra? a. Located in the scrotum b. Located in the testes c. Produce sperm d. Carry sperm ANS: D 36. Which structure surrounds t hNe U upRpS erIpN orG tiT onBo. fC thO eM urethra and contributes to the formation of

semen? a. Cowper’s glands b. Adenohypophysis c. Seminal vesicles d. Prostate gland ANS: D

37. Which of the following can be detected by a rectal exam? a. An enlarged prostate gland b. Cystitis c. Sterility d. Gonorrhea ANS: A 38. Which of the following is not located in or on the ovary? a. Corpus luteum b. Graafian follicle c. Fertilized ovum d. Corpus albicans ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 39. The cervix, fundus, and body a. are contents of the scrotum. b. are parts of the ovary. c. secrete estrogen and progesterone. d. are parts of the uterus.

ANS: D 40. Which structure is the primary secretor of estrogen and progesterone? a. Corpus albicans b. Endometrium c. Ovaries d. Anterior pituitary gland ANS: C 41. The broad ligament supports the a. prostate gland. b. testes. c. breasts. d. uterus.

ANS: D 42. The oviduct or fallopian tube a. is located between the cervix and the vagina. b. is the site of fertilization. c. is an anatomical extensio n of the ova ry.

N R I G B.C M O d. connects the fundus with t hUe c eSr v i xN. T ANS: B

43. The acrosome a. secretes testosterone. b. is the tail of the sperm. c. contains enzymes that assist the sperm to fertilize an ovum. d. is an ovarian structure.

ANS: C 44. Semen a. is formed and stored within the scrotum. b. contains only testosterone. c. means seed. d. is made and stored within the prostate gland.

ANS: C 45. Which of the following always occurs during an erection? a. Ejaculation b. Secretion of testosterone c. Spermatogenesis d. Engorgement of the erectile tissue of the penis with blood

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

ANS: D 46. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) a. is secreted by the ovaries and testes. b. is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. c. exerts its effects primarily on the endometrium. d. stimulates the female and male gonads.

ANS: D 47. What is detected by a Pap smear? a. Cancer of the cervix b. Cystitis c. Genital warts d. Genital herpes ANS: A 48. Which of the following is most likely to cause sterility in the female? a. Benign prostatic hypertrophy b. Cystitis c. Repeated bouts of gonorrhea d. Torn hymen ANS: C 49. What is in the “pill” that makes it contraceptive? a. Estrogen and progesteronN e URSINGTB.COM b. Prostaglandins c. Human chorionic gonadotropin d. Prolactin ANS: A 50. Which hormone stimulates the secretion of testosterone? a. FSH b. LH or ICSH c. Estrogen d. Human chorionic gonadotropin ANS: B 51. Which of the following is true of the interstitial cells? a. Secrete testosterone b. Are located within the prostate gland c. Produce sperm d. Line the ejaculatory ducts ANS: A 52. What is the consequence of severing the vas deferens? a. Interferes with testosterone secretion and therefore causes feminization

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. Prevents erection c. Prevents orgasm d. Induces sterility ANS: D 53. Which of the following is true of implantation? a. Occurs within the fallopian tubes or the oviducts b. Is achieved by the morula c. Is a uterine event achieved by the blastocyst d. Occurs within the ovaries ANS: C 54. The myometrium a. is the layer that sloughs during menstruation. b. is responsive to oxytocin. c. thickens in response to estrogen and progesterone. d. is the target of the gonadotropins.

ANS: B 55. Estrogen and progesterone are a. gonadotropins. b. secreted by the trophoblastic cells as they implant in the uterine wall. c. secreted by the ovaries. d. hormonal stimuli for the release of FSH and LH. ANS: C

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56. In the nonpregnant state, a. the corpus albicans becomes hormonally active, secreting estrogen and

progesterone. b. the endometrium secretes hCG. c. hormonal secretion of the corpus luteum gradually declines. d. the zygote becomes hormonally active.

ANS: C 57. The proliferative phase of the uterine cycle a. immediately precedes the uterine secretory phase. b. is caused primarily by hCG. c. corresponds hormonally to the ovarian luteal phase. d. is the stage during which implantation occurs.

ANS: A 58. The corpus luteum a. is located within the uterus. b. is a placental structure. c. secretes gonadotropins. d. secretes large amounts of progesterone.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: D 59. If implantation occurs within the fallopian tube, the a. greatest concern is the placenta previa. b. pregnancy is described as ectopic. c. pregnancy is considered normal. d. woman will continue to menstruate throughout the 9 months of fetal growth.

ANS: B 60. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) a. promotes the maturation of the egg. b. is responsible for female characteristics. c. maintains the corpus luteum. d. promotes the transformation of the corpus luteum into the corpus albicans.

ANS: C 61. An elevation of plasma levels of estrogen and progesterone a. stimulates the release of gonadotropins. b. prevents the release of FSH and LH. c. transforms the corpus luteum into the corpus albicans. d. causes menstruation.

ANS: B 62. Trophoblastic cells a. secrete oxytocin.

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b. are responsible for the milk let-down reflex. c. assist with implantation. d. are incorporated within the graafian follicle.

ANS: C 63. In the absence of human chorionic gonadotropin, a. the corpus albicans starts secreting progesterone. b. the rate of placental development accelerates. c. labor is initiated. d. the corpus luteum deteriorates into the corpus albicans.

ANS: D 64. The luteal phase of the ovarian cycle a. is responsible for menstruation. b. is responsible for the uterine secretory phase. c. elevates plasma levels of estrogen, progesterone, and hCG. d. precedes the LH surge.

ANS: B 65. The endometrium a. is the uterine lining that is most responsive to the hormonal effects of estrogen and

progesterone.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. is the target of FSH and LH. c. forms the graafian follicle. d. is responsive to oxytocin during labor.

ANS: A 66. The zygote a. implants within the uterine lining. b. matures into the graafian follicle. c. is the fertilized ovum. d. is formed within the uterus.

ANS: C 67. The proliferative phase of the uterine cycle a. describes the deterioration of the corpus luteum into the corpus albicans. b. is primarily caused by the hormonal effects of progesterone. c. is primarily caused by the hormonal effects of hCG. d. refers to the estrogen-induced thickening of the endometrium.

ANS: D 68. Which of the following characterizes the Graafian follicle? a. Matures within the fallopian tube b. Is the mature follicle c. Secretes gonadotropins d. Causes the midcycle surge of LH ANS: B

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69. The secretory phase of the uterine cycle a. is the endometrial response to progesterone. b. immediately follows the menstrual phase. c. refers to the hormonal response of the endometrium to the corpus albicans. d. refers to the adenohypophyseal response to declining plasma levels of estrogen and

progesterone.

ANS: A 70. Menstruation occurs in response to a. an LH surge. b. diminished plasma levels of estrogen and progesterone. c. elevated plasma levels of hCG. d. elevation of plasma levels of FSH and LH. ANS: B 71. Enlargement of the prostate may impede urination because a. the bladder becomes compressed. b. the prostate surrounds and compresses the urethra. c. the ureters are blocked. d. the ejaculatory duct is constricted.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: B 72. The prostate a. surrounds the upper portion of the urethra and contributes to the formation of

semen. b. is an extension of the epididymis. c. is located within the seminiferous tubules. d. produces androgens.

ANS: A 73. Which of the following is least true of or least associated with the placenta? a. The site at which baby-to-be breathes b. A very vascular structure c. Replaces the glandular secretion of the corpus luteum d. Nourishes the zygote as it matures into the morula ANS: D 74. Which group is incorrect? a. Parts of a sperm: head, body, tail b. Parts of the uterus: fundus, body, cervix c. Layers of the uterus: perimetrium, myometrium, endometrium d. Genital ducts: epididymis, ejaculatory ducts, vas deferens, prostate gland ANS: D 75. Which group is incorrect? a. b. c. d.

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Phases of the ovarian cycle: follicular phase, luteal phase Phases of the uterine cycle: menstrual phase, proliferative phase, secretory phase Reproductive hormones: estrogen, progesterone, hCG, testosterone External genitals: penis, scrotum, labia, mons pubis, cervix

ANS: D 76. Which group is incorrect? a. Parts of a sperm: head, body, tail b. Genital ducts: epididymis, ejaculatory ducts, vas deferens, urethra c. Phases of the uterine cycle: menstrual phase, proliferative phase, secretory phase d. Phases of the ovarian cycle: proliferative phase, luteal phase ANS: D 77. Which of the following is true of the fimbriae of the fallopian tubes? a. They carry the fertilized ovum into the uterus. b. They sweep the ovum into fallopian tubes at ovulation. c. They help the sperm move from the uterus into the fallopian tubes. d. They are hormone-secreting cells that help maintain the pregnant state.

ANS: B 78. Which group is correct? a. Uterine layers: perimetrium, myometrium, cervix

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. Gonads: zygote, ovaries, testes c. Steroids: testosterone, estrogen, progesterone, oxytocin d. Uterine parts: fundus, body, cervix ANS: D 79. Which of the following refers to “middle” pain ovulation? a. Impotence b. Mittelschmerz c. Chocolate cyst d. Corpus albicans ANS: B 80. Which of the following explains why the pregnant woman does not menstruate? a. The secretion of hCG maintains the integrity of the corpus luteum. b. The luteal secretion of estrogen and progesterone prevents the secretion of

gonadotropins. c. The luteal secretion of estrogen and progesterone prevents the adenohypophyseal

secretion of FSH and LH. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 81. The labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, and vestibular glands a. are called the vulva. b. are external genitals. c. are called the pudendum.

N R I G B.COM d. All of the above are true. U S N T ANS: D 82. To which organ do these terms refer: womb, hysterectomy, and hystera? a. Vagina b. Ovary c. Uterus d. Oviduct ANS: C 83. Which of the following are secreted by the adenohypophysis? a. Oxytocin, prolactin b. FSH, LH, interstitial cell-stimulating hormone c. Estrogen, progesterone d. Testosterone, hCG ANS: B 84. Identify the glands that secrete these hormones: estrogen, testosterone, oxytocin, and

prolactin. a. Testis, neurohypophysis, thyroid, adrenal medulla b. Ovary, corpus albicans, hypothalamus, adrenal medulla c. Ovary, testis, neurohypophysis, anterior pituitary gland

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. Ovary, adrenal medulla, adenohypophysis, endometrium ANS: C 85. Which of the following is the stimulus for the secretion of FSH and LH in the female? a. Elevated plasma levels of androgens b. Low plasma levels of estrogen and progesterone c. Elevated ovarian hormones d. Increased plasma levels of hCG ANS: B 86. Which hormone is characterized by the following: androgen, steroid, and interstitial cells? a. Gonadotropin b. Oxytocin c. Testosterone d. Prolactin ANS: C 87. Which of the following structures is characterized by the words infundibulum, fimbriae, and

fallopian tubes? a. Ovaries b. Oviducts c. Uterus d. External genitalia ANS: B

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88. Which of the following are exocrine glands found in the male reproductive tract? a. Adenohypophysis, seminal vesicles, testes b. Testes, Cowper’s glands, prostate gland c. Bulbourethral glands, prostate gland, seminal vesicles d. Interstitial cells, seminiferous tubules, prostate gland ANS: C 89. Which of the following is a correct sequence regarding the flow of semen or semen-to-be? a. Vas deferens, seminiferous tubules, urethra b. Urethra, ejaculatory duct, vas deferens c. Seminiferous tubules, vas deferens, epididymis d. Vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra ANS: D 90. Sixty percent of the volume of semen comes from these glands. a. Seminal vesicles b. Prostate c. Bulbourethral glands d. Testes ANS: A

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Chapter 01: Introduction to the Human Body Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is the branch of science that studies how the body functions? a. Anatomy b. Histology c. Pathology d. Physiology ANS: D 2. Which word comes from the Greek word meaning “to dissect”? a. Anatomy b. Histology c. Pathology d. Physiology ANS: A 3. Which of the following is a higher order of organization? a. Molecule b. Cell c. Organ d. Tissue ANS: C 4. The head is located a. anterior b. inferior c. deep d. superior

to the chest.

ANS: D 5. The foot is located a. proximal b. superior c. superficial d. distal

to the leg.

ANS: D 6. The leg is

to the thigh.

a. b. c. d.

distal proximal superior deep

ANS: A 7. The thigh is a. distal b. proximal c. inferior d. deep

to the foot.

ANS: B 8. The thoracic cavity is a. deep b. distal c. anterior d. superior

to the abdominopelvic cavity.

ANS: D 9. The kneecap is located distal to the a. leg. b. thigh. c. foot. d. toes.

ANS: B 10. Which organ is located in both the ventral and thoracic cavities? a. Stomach b. Liver c. Lung d. Spinal cord ANS: C 11. Which organ is located in the ventral cavity but not in the thoracic cavity? a. Lung b. Heart c. Liver d. Brain ANS: C 12. Which organ is located in the dorsal cavity? a. Liver b. Brain c. Heart d. Urinary bladder ANS: B

13. Which of the following is descriptive of the location of the reproductive organs? a. Dorsal cavity and vertebral cavity b. Mediastinum and the thoracic cavity c. Ventral cavity and pelvic cavity

d. Pleural cavity and mediastinum ANS: C 14. Which cavity is divided into quadrants? a. Thoracic b. Abdominopelvic c. Dorsal d. Cranial ANS: B 15. Which region is included within the right upper quadrant (RUQ)? a. Umbilical b. Hypogastric c. Right iliac d. Right hypochondriac ANS: D 16. Which region is included within the left lower quadrant (LLQ)? a. Umbilical b. Left hypochondriac c. Epigastric d. Left iliac ANS: D 17. Which of the following refer N s tU oR thS eI um NbGilTicBus.?COM a. Groin b. Armpit c. Navel d. Patellar ANS: C 18. Which of the following refers to the lower back region? a. Groin b. Axillary c. Umbilical d. Lumbar ANS: D 19. Which of the following refers to the groin region? a. Axillary b. Lumbar c. Cranial d. Inguinal ANS: D 20. Which of the following refers to the area in front of the elbow?

a. b. c. d.

Axillary Brachial Antecubital Popliteal

ANS: C 21. Which area appears only on the anterior part of the body? a. Popliteal b. Umbilical c. Lumbar d. Occipital ANS: B 22. Which area appears only on the posterior part of the body? a. Gluteal b. Patellar c. Umbilical d. Sternal ANS: A 23. Which area is inferior to the diaphragm? a. Axillary b. Inguinal c. Occipital d. Cervical ANS: B 24. What is another name for the frontal plane? a. Sagittal plane b. Cross section c. Transverse plane d. Coronal plane ANS: D 25. Which plane divides the body into right and left halves? a. Sagittal b. Coronal c. Transverse d. Frontal ANS: A 26. In which cavity is the mediastinum located? a. Pelvic b. Dorsal c. Thoracic d. Abdominal

ANS: C 27. Which organ is located within the mediastinum? a. Lungs b. Stomach c. Liver d. Heart ANS: D 28. In which cavity is the heart not located? a. Mediastinum b. Thoracic cavity c. Ventral cavity d. Dorsal cavity ANS: D 29. Which organ is located in the ventral cavity and thoracic cavity but not in the mediastinum? a. Lung b. Liver c. Stomach d. Heart ANS: A 30. Which group is incorrect? a. Planes: transverse, sagitta l, fr o n t al N R I b. Cavities: dorsal, ventral c. Ventral cavities: thoracic, vertebral d. Organs: heart, stomach, lungs, brain USNT

O

ANS: C 31. Which group is incorrect? a. Cavities: dorsal, ventral b. Ventral cavities: thoracic, abdominopelvic c. Organ systems: circulatory, digestive, respiratory, brain d. Organs: heart, stomach, lungs, liver ANS: C 32. Which group is incorrect? a. Planes: sagittal, frontal, transverse b. Ventral cavities: thoracic, abdominopelvic, cranial c. Dorsal cavities: cranial, vertebral d. Organ systems: circulatory, digestive, respiratory ANS: B 33. The distal humerus (arm bone) is a. closer to the axillary area than to the elbow. b. closer to the wrist than to the antecubital area.

c. distal to the wrist. d. closer to the elbow than to the axillary area.

ANS: D 34. The proximal end of the thigh bone (femur) is a. distal to the knee. b. closer to the knee than to the inguinal area. c. distal to the pedal area. d. closer to the inguinal area than to the umbilical area.

ANS: D 35. The lung is located in the thoracic cavity. What is the relationship of the lung to the head? a. Inferior b. Deep c. Anterior d. Superior ANS: A 36. Which of the following is superior to the umbilicus? a. Groin b. Popliteal area c. Sternal area d. Pelvic cavity ANS: C 37. The heart is located in all the following except the a. mediastinum. b. ventral cavity. c. cranial cavity. d. thoracic cavity.

ANS: C 38. The lungs are located in all the following except the a. thoracic cavity. b. mediastinum. c. ventral cavity. d. pleural cavity.

ANS: B 39. Which of the following is true of the dorsal cavity? a. It contains the mediastinum. b. It contains the brain and spinal cord. c. It contains the thoracic cavity. d. It is smaller than the cranial cavity.

ANS: B

40. The sternal area is a. superior to the cervical region. b. the breastbone area. c. deep to the mediastinum. d. inferior to the thoracic cavity.

ANS: B 41. Which of the following is descriptive of the mediastinum? a. Thoracic cavity b. Dorsal cavity c. Abdominopelvic cavity d. RUQ ANS: A 42. The sagittal plane a. is also called the coronal plane. b. splits the body into a top and bottom. c. splits the body into front and back. d. splits the body into right and left.

ANS: D 43. Which of the following is least descriptive of the occipital area? a. Cranial b. Midepigastric c. Posterior head d. Superior to the cervical area ANS: B 44. A patient has been in a car wreck and is admitted to the emergency department with a chief

complaint of severe cervical pain accompanied by loss of sensation in all extremities. Which of the following indicates the site of pain? a. Lower back b. Both knees c. Neck d. RUQ ANS: C 45. The LUQ is a. inferior to the sternal area. b. inferior to the epigastric region. c. inferior to the umbilical region. d. located in the groin.

ANS: A 46. Which of the following describes pain that is located immediately below the shoulder blade? a. Cervical b. Lumbar

c. Flank pain d. Subscapular ANS: D 47. Which of the following is superior to the lumbar region? a. Scapular b. Inguinal c. Popliteal d. Gluteal ANS: A 48. A 26-year-old man is scheduled for the surgical repair of a right inguinal hernia. Which of the

following areas is involved surgically? a. RUQ b. Umbilical region c. Right iliac region d. Right hypochondriac region ANS: C 49. Refer to the previous question. On the first postoperative day, the patient is most likely to

experience pain when he a. brushes his teeth. b. eats breakfast. c. walks. d. speaks on the phone.

ANS: C 50. A physician has diagnosed a patient as having an enlarged liver. According to the patient’s

chart, his liver is measured as being two fingers below the costal margin of the rib cage.

Where was the physician palpating (feeling) to get this measurement? a. Umbilical region b. LUQ c. Hypogastric region d. RUQ ANS: D 51. A patient was admitted to the emergency department and the physician recorded the patient’s

pain as being substernal, radiating to the left axillary region. Which of the following is a restatement of this description? a. The pain is sharp and is associated with nausea and vomiting. b. The pain is indicative of an inguinal hernia. c. The pain begins in the chest and radiates to the left flank and medial thigh. d. The pain originates behind the breastbone and radiates to the left armpit area.

ANS: D 52. A patient with a history of gallbladder disease complains of midepigastric pain that radiates to

the right subscapular region. Which of the following best describes the pain?

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a. b. c. d.

High abdominal pain that radiates to the groin Crushing chest pain Aching pain behind the breastbone, radiating to the left shoulder High abdominal pain, radiating to below the right shoulder blade area

ANS: D 53. Which plane preserves an upper and lower half of the body? a. Transverse plane b. Coronal plane c. Frontal plane d. Midsagittal ANS: A 54. Which of the following is contained in the ventral cavity? a. Thoracic cavity b. Pleural cavities c. Abdominopelvic cavity d. All of the above ANS: D 55. Which of the following is true? a. The wrist is proximal to the elbow. b. The distal humerus (arm bone) is closer to the axilla than to the elbow. c. The proximal thigh bone is closer to the hip than to the knee. d. The distal tibia (shin bonN e) isRcloI ser G to t hBe.kC nee Mth an to the ankle.

ANS: C 56. Which of the following is true? a. The distal thigh bone (femur) is closer to the hip than to the knee. b. The distal humerus (arm bone) is closer to the axilla than to the elbow. c. The distal shin bone (tibia) is closer to the ankle than to the knee. d. The lateral thigh is closer to the midline of the body than is the medial thigh.

ANS: C 57. The medial thigh is located a. along the plantar surface of the foot. b. along the inner surface of the upper extremity. c. on the inner thigh region. d. distal to the popliteal region.

ANS: C 58. Which term refers to “beneath the ribs”? a. Iliac b. Inguinal c. Hypochondriac d. RLQ

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ANS: C 59.

The term viscera refers to a. the organs of the body. b. the cavities contained within the ventral cavity. c. the cavities contained within the thoracic cavity. d. the divisions of the abdominopelvic cavity.

ANS: A 60. The ventral cavity is the anterior cavity; the a. thoracic cavity b. dorsal cavity c. pleural cavity d. mediastinum ANS: B 61. The caudal part of the spinal cord is a. superior to the thoracic part of the spinal cord. b. located near the tailbone. c. interior to the cervical spinal cord. d. located near the brain.

ANS: B 62. Which of the following includes the right iliac region? a. RUQ b. Epigastric region c. Umbilical region d. RLQ ANS: D 63. The medial canthus (corner) of the eye is a. located near the nose. b. located near the ear. c. superior to the eyebrow. d. inferior to the eyelid.

ANS: A 64. The plantar region is a. located in the upper extremities. b. the bottom of the foot. c. proximal to the knee. d. the groin.

ANS: B 65. Which two words are directional “opposites”? a. Proximal, femoral b. Caudal, cephalic

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is the posterior cavity.

c. Distal, peripheral d. Anterior, superficial ANS: B 66. Pedal, patellar, popliteal, and plantar are terms that refer to a. lower extremities areas. b. arm. c. toes. d. structures that are proximal to the kneecap.

ANS: A 67. Which of the following terms refers to the area along the lateral trunk between the ribs and the

hip bones? a. Inguinal b. Visceral c. Flank d. Gluteal ANS: C 68. Buccal, oral, and orbital are terms that refer to the structures in the a. neck. b. head. c. flank. d. inguinal area.

ANS: B 69. With which word is lower back pain associated? a. Flank b. Inguinal c. Lumbar d. Popliteal ANS: C

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Chapter 02: Basic Chemistry Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following are located in the orbits surrounding the nucleus? a. Isotopes b. Protons c. Electrons d. Neutrons ANS: C 2. Which of the following is a measurement of hydrogen ion concentration [H+]? a. Atomic number b. Atomic mass c. Isotope d. pH ANS: D 3. The sharing of electrons is referred to as a. covalent bonding. b. ionic bonding. c. radioactive decay. d. isotope formation.

ANS: A 4. Which element must be present for a substance to be classified as organic? a. Iodine b. Iron c. Carbon d. Calcium ANS: C 5. A cation is a(n) a. positively charged ion. b. electrolyte. c. isotope. d. ion that has an atomic mass of 2.

ANS: A 6. Which of the following is an anion? a. Sodium ion b. Potassium ion c. Chloride ion d. Calcium ion ANS: C

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7. What kind of ion would have 8 protons in its nucleus and 9 electrons in its orbits? a. Cation b. Electrolyte c. Acid d. Anion ANS: D 8. Which of the following is true of an anion? a. An anion always ionizes to form electrolytes. b. An anion always has an atomic mass of 15. c. An anion carries a negative charge. d. A hydrogen ion is an anion.

ANS: C 9. NaCl, table salt, is called a(n) a. anion. b. electrolyte. c. cation. d. ion.

ANS: B 10. Which process refers to the dissociation of NaCl into Na+ and Cl–? a. Radioactivity b. Ionization c. Covalent bonding d. Hydrogen bonding ANS: B 11. Which of the following is descriptive of the chemical reaction in the previous question? a. Cation + anion → electrolyte b. Electrolyte → cation + anion c. Electrolyte + anion → cation d. Neutralization of an acid by a base ANS: B 12. Which of the following is an anion? a. NaCl b. KCl c. H2SO4 d. HCO3– ANS: D 13. Which of the following represents bicarbonate, an anion that is important in acid–base

regulation? a. HCl

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b. Ca(OH)2 c. HCO3– d. KCl ANS: C 14. Which compound is the universal solvent? a. Carbon dioxide b. Oxygen c. ATP d. Water ANS: D 15. [H+] refers to a. an isotope of hydrogen. b. heavy hydrogen. c. hydrogen bonding. d. hydrogen ion concentration.

ANS: D 16. Which compound is a waste product of cellular metabolism? a. Oxygen b. Carbon dioxide c. Catalyst d. ATP ANS: B 17. Which of the following increases the speed of a chemical reaction but is itself not used up in

the chemical reaction?

An isotope A cation A catalyst ATP

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 18. What is the energy-transferring molecule? a. H+ b. ATP c. Ca2+ d. NaCl ANS: B 19. Which of the following acts as a catalyst? a. An acid b. An enzyme c. A buffer d. ATP

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ANS: B 20. Fe2+ is formed when iron a. gains 2 protons. b. gains 2 electrons. c. loses 2 protons. d. loses 2 electrons.

ANS: D 21. Which of the following is true of Na+? a. It is an anion. b. It is an electrolyte. c. It bonds ionically with Ca2+. d. It is a cation.

ANS: D 22. Which of the following carries no net electrical charge? a. An anion b. A cation c. A polar molecule d. An ion ANS: C 23. Which of the following illustrates antacid activity? a. NaCl → Na+ + Cl– b. HCl → H+ + Cl– c. Mg(OH)2 + HCl → MgCl2 + H2O d. KCl → K+ + Cl– ANS: C 24. Zinc, selenium, cobalt, and iodine are all a. trace elements. b. compounds. c. radioactive. d. isotopes of hydrogen.

ANS: A 25. Iron can be a(n) a. anion. b. electrolyte. c. acid. d. cation.

ANS: D 26. Which of the following is described by this statement? One atom of oxygen bonds covalently

with two atoms of hydrogen.

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a. b. c. d.

Carbon dioxide A tincture Water Neutralization of an acid with a base

ANS: C 27. A solution that has a pH of 6.8 a. has a neutral pH. b. is alkaline. c. is basic. d. is acidic.

ANS: D 28. What happens when HCl is added to a solution with a pH of 7.45? a. The pH will be higher than 7.45. b. The solution will become more alkaline. c. The [H+] of the solution will increase. d. The pH will be higher than 8.0.

ANS: C 29. Which pH is considered neutral? a. 7.35 b. 7.45 c. 7.00 d. 14.0 ANS: C 30. Blood has a pH range of 7.35 to 7.45 and therefore a. is acidic. b. is three to four times more viscous (thicker) than water. c. has a pH that is similar to urine and stomach contents. d. is alkaline.

ANS: D 31. In which of the following is the number of hydrogen ions greater? a. An alkaline solution b. A basic solution c. Blood d. A solution with a pH of 6.2 ANS: D 32. An atom has 2 protons, 2 neutrons, and 2 electrons; it has an atomic a. number of 6. b. mass of 2. c. mass of 4. d. number of 4.

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ANS: C 33. An atom has 1 proton, 0 neutrons, and 1 electron; its isotope has a. 2 electrons and 0 neutrons. b. 2 protons and 2 neutrons. c. 1 proton and 1 neutron. d. 2 protons and 0 neutrons.

ANS: C 34. An atom has 1 proton, 0 neutrons, and 1 electron. What will convert this atom to a cation? a. Add 1 neutron. b. Add 1 proton. c. Lose 1 electron. d. Add 1 proton, 2 neutrons, and 1 electron.

ANS: C 35. The heart pushes blood into the blood vessels as chemical energy is converted to which form

of energy?

Thermal Radiant Mechanical Nuclear

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 36. Which of the following best d e s c r i b e s a solu ti on in which water is the solvent?

N R I G B.C M a. Colloidal suspension b. Aqueous solution c. Tincture d. Isotope ANS: B 37. Which of the following best describes a solution in which alcohol is the solvent? a. Tincture b. Alkaline c. Acid d. Aqueous ANS: A 38. A combination of sugar granules and iron filings is best described as a(n) a. mixture. b. colloidal suspension. c. tincture. d. isotope.

ANS: A 39. Which of the following can neutralize H+? a. Ca2+

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b. Na+ c. OH– d. H2O ANS: C 40. Which of the following is incorrect? a. Mixtures: suspension, colloidal suspension, solution b. Ions: Na+, Cl–, Ca2+, K+ c. Electrolytes: NaCl, KCl, CaCl2, HCO3– d. Cations: Na+, Ca2+, K+, H+ ANS: C 41. The ionization of salt (NaCl) a. produces an acid and a base. b. produces an electrolyte. c. lowers pH. d. produces a cation and an anion.

ANS: D 42. Which of the following is true of iodine and radioactive iodine? a. Both have the same atomic numbers. b. Both have the same atomic masses. c. Neither has electrons in its orbit. d. Both create radiation hazards.

ANS: A 43. Which of the following is true of Na+? a. Called the sodium ion b. Has fewer protons than electrons c. Called an anion d. Lowers pH ANS: A 44. Which of the following is true of Cl–? a. Is an electrolyte b. Is an anion c. Increases pH d. Decreases pH ANS: B 45. Which of the following is most descriptive of HCl? a. Is called bicarbonate b. Is an acid c. Raises pH d. Dissociates into Na+ and Cl– ANS: B

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46.

Water is a(n) molecule. aqueous solvent. compound.

All of the above.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 47. An atom that has 3 protons, 4 neutrons, and 3 electrons a. has an atomic mass of 7. b. is a cation. c. has an atomic number of 4. d. has an atomic number of 10.

ANS: A 48. An atom has 3 protons, 4 neutrons, and 3 electrons; another atom has 3 protons, 3 neutrons,

and 3 electrons. Which of the following is most descriptive of this pair of atoms?

Mixture Cation Electrolyte Isotope

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 49. An atom has 4 protons, 4 neutrons, and 4 electrons. It a. has an atomic number of 8.

N b. is a cation. c. has an atomic mass of 12. d. has an atomic mass of 8.

ANS: D 50. ATP a. is a buffer, removing H+ from solution. b. is an energy transfer molecule. c. is a radioactive isotope of phosphate. d. ionizes to H+, thereby lowering pH. ANS: B 51. Which of the following is most descriptive of the nucleus of the atom? a. Contents determine the atomic number b. Contents determine the atomic mass c. “Home” of the protons d. All of the above ANS: D 52. Which of the following is most descriptive of ionic and covalent? a. Types of bonding in which the electrons are shared b. Types of bonding in which the electrons are swapped

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c. Types of bonding d. Types of bonding found only in reactions in which H+ is produced ANS: C 53. An electrolyte a. dissociates into ions. b. yields only cations. c. always yields H+ and lowers pH. d. always removes H+ and increases pH. ANS: A 54. A catalyst a. is an H+-yielding molecule. b. is an acid. c. is an alkali. d. increases the speed of a chemical reaction.

ANS: D 55. Which of the following is most descriptive of the function of an enzyme? a. Neutralization b. Ionization c. Catalyst d. pH ANS: C 56. A patient with a blood pH of 7.28 a. has an excess of H+. b. has a blood pH that is within normal limits. c. is alkalotic. d. has a blood pH that indicates a deficiency of acid.

ANS: A 57. A solution with a pH of 8 a. is more acidic than blood. b. is more acidic than stomach contents. c. has more H+ than urine. d. is more alkaline than blood.

ANS: D 58. The pH of urine a. is always more alkaline than blood. b. is always acidic. c. can be acidic or alkaline. d. is more acidic than stomach contents.

ANS: C

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59. The addition of H+ to blood a. increases blood pH. b. makes the blood more acidic. c. makes the blood more alkaline. d. changes the blood pH from 7.4 to 7.8.

ANS: B 60. Blood is called a colloidal suspension because a. it has a pH of 7.4. b. it is alkaline. c. it consists of the suspended plasma proteins. d. it consists of the sodium and chloride ions.

ANS: C 61. Which of the following is correct about the following reaction: NaCl  Na+ + Cl–? a. Neutralization b. Ionization c. Anabolic d. Irreversible ANS: B 62. An atom of oxygen has an atomic number of 8. Therefore a. it can share electrons with another identical atom. b. it can share electrons with another oxygen atom. c. it can form O2. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 63. An atom of oxygen shares its outer shell electrons with two hydrogen atoms thereby a. forming an acid. b. ionizing. c. forming a molecule of water. d. forming an anion and cation.

ANS: C 64. A molecule of water has a (+) charge at one and a (–) charge at the other end of the molecule.

What is the best description?

Radioactive Tincture Polar molecule Ionization

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 65. Intestinal secretions are alkaline. What can decrease its pH? a. The addition of H+ in the form of HCl b. Drinking baking soda (NaHCO3)

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c. Neutralization of gastric (stomach) HCl d. Drinking lots of water ANS: A 66. What do the following have in common: Pb, plumbism, and plumber? All terms refer to a. persons who work with pipes. b. toxic effects of a trace element. c. toxic cations. d. lead.

ANS: D 67. Which group is correct? a. Subatomic particles lo+ cat +e d within– the n+ucleus: protons, neutrons, electrons b. Common cations: Na , K , HCO , NH 3

4

c. Common molecules: O2, N2, H2O d. Bases: NaOH, Na HCO3–, HCl ANS: C 68. Which of the following is most descriptive of a precipitate that forms during a chemical

reaction?

Acid Base Solid Solution

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 69. In the reaction HCl → H+ + Cl– a. HCl ionizes, thereby yielding the cation (H+) and anion (Cl–). b. hydrochloric acid dissociates into an anion and cation. c. HCl dissociates into a hydrogen ion and chloride ion. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 70. Which group is correct? a. Blood pH 7.50, alkaline, turns litmus paper pink b. Blood pH 7.2, acidosis, turns litmus paper pink c. Blood pH 7.35, normal blood pH, turns litmus paper blue d. More than one of the above are true.

ANS: C

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Chapter 03: Cells Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is considered the control center of the cell? a. Mitochondrion b. Nucleus c. Lysosome d. Centriole ANS: B 2. The mitochondrion is called the power plant of the cell because

within the

mitochondrion. most of the ATP is produced all protein synthesis occurs all DNA is located all ribosomes are located

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 3. Which of the following is (are) found on the rough endoplasmic reticulum? a. Ribosomes b. Cilia c. Lysosomes d. DNA ANS: A 4. The rough ER is the site of a. fatty acid and steroid synthesis. b. Krebs cycle activity. c. protein synthesis. d. intracellular water storage.

ANS: C 5. Which of the following is most associated with the ribosome? a. ATP production b. Intracellular housecleaning c. Glycogen storage d. Protein synthesis ANS: D 6. What is the transport mechanism in this description: A passive process that “pulls” water from

an area where there is more water to an area where there is less water? a. Filtration b. Endocytosis c. An ATP-driven pump

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d. Osmosis ANS: D 7. What is the transport mechanism in this description: A passive process that uses a pressure

difference as its driving force?

Facilitated diffusion An ATP-driven pump Diffusion Filtration

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 8. A beaker is divided into two compartments by a semipermeable membrane. Compartment A

contains a 20% NaCl solution and compartment B contains a 50% NaCl solution. The membrane is permeable to water but not to Na + or Cl–. Initially, a. water diffuses from compartment B to compartment A. b. Na+ diffuses from compartment B to compartment A. c. Na+ diffuses from compartment A to compartment B. d. water diffuses from compartment A to compartment B. ANS: D 9. A beaker is divided into two compartments by a semipermeable membrane. Compartment A

contains a 20% NaCl solution and compartment B contains a 50% NaCl solution. The membrane is permeable to water but not to Na + or Cl–. At equilibrium, the a. volume of water in compartment A will be greater than the volume in compartment B. b. volume in both compartments A and B will be equal. c. concentration of compartment A will decrease. d. volume in compartment B will be greater than the volume in compartment A. ANS: D 10. A beaker is divided into two compartments by a semipermeable membrane. Compartment A

contains a 20% NaCl solution while compartment B contains a 50% NaCl solution. The membrane is permeable to both water and Na + and Cl–. Initially, a. Na+ and Cl– diffuse from compartment B to compartment A. b. water diffuses from compartment B to compartment A. c. Na+ and Cl– diffuse from compartment A to compartment B. d. Na+ diffuses from compartment A to compartment B and Cl– diffuses from compartment B to compartment A. ANS: A 11. A beaker is divided into two compartments by a semipermeable membrane. Compartment A

contains a 20% NaCl solution and compartment B contains a 50% NaCl solution. The membrane is permeable to both water and Na + and Cl–. At equilibrium, the a. volume in compartment A will be greater than the volume in compartment B. b. volume in compartment B will be greater than the volume in compartment A. c. concentrations and volumes will be the same in both compartments. d. concentration of salt is greater in compartment A than in compartment B.

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ANS: C 12. What are the hairlike structures located on the outer surface of the cell membrane? a. Mitochondria b. Ribosomes c. Cilia d. Centrioles ANS: C 13. What is the extensive internal membrane system that forms channels and is concerned with

the synthesis of protein and steroids?

Mitochondria Lysosomes Endoplasmic reticulum DNA

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 14. Lysosomes are filled with a. powerful enzymes that destroy cellular debris and pathogens. b. cilia. c. DNA. d. blood.

ANS: A

beIs N thG eT poBw.eC r oOr Mdrivi n g force for active transport?

15. Which of the following best d NeUscRriS a. ATP b. Pressure c. DNA d. H+ ANS: A 16. What is the transport mechanism in this description: A passive process that uses a carrier

molecule to move a solute from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration? a. Osmosis b. An ATP-driven pump c. Filtration d. Facilitated diffusion ANS: D 17. What is the name of the process in which an intracellular protein–containing vesicle fuses

with the cell membrane and expels the protein to the outside of the cell? a. Endocytosis b. Pinocytosis c. Exocytosis d. Phagocytosis ANS: C

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18. Which process describes phagocytosis and pinocytosis? a. Facilitated diffusion b. Endocytosis c. Filtration d. Exocytosis ANS: B 19. Which word means “the bursting of red blood cells”? a. Endocytosis b. Hemolysis c. Crenation d. Catalyst ANS: B 20. If a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution such as water, the cell will a. crenate. b. shrink. c. swell and burst. d. differentiate.

ANS: C 21. Which type of solution causes crenation or shrinkage of submerged red blood cells? a. Hypotonic b. Isotonic c. Hypertonic d. Water ANS: C 22. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase are phases of a. active transport. b. mitosis. c. differentiation. d. pinocytosis.

ANS: B 23. G1, G2, the S phase, and the M phase are phases of a. the cell cycle. b. mitosis. c. protein synthesis. d. the cell cycle that is specific to cancer cells.

ANS: A 24. Pinocytosis a. is a passive process. b. requires a pressure gradient as its driving force. c. refers to cellular drinking.

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d. is a form of exocytosis.

ANS: C 25. Which of the following best describes normal saline? a. Radioactive b. Hemolytic to red blood cells c. Isotonic d. Crenating to red blood cells ANS: C 26. Which of the following best describes the eating of a bacterium by a lysosome? a. Differentiation b. Phagocytosis c. Meiosis d. Hemolysis ANS: B 27. In which structure is most DNA found? a. Nucleus b. Mitochondrion c. Lysosome d. Golgi apparatus ANS: A 28. Which structure is d escri be d N asUrR ouSgI hN orGsT mB oo.thC?OM a. Ribosome b. Mitochondrion c. Cilia d. Endoplasmic reticulum ANS: D 29. Which of the following is a gel-like substance located inside the cell but outside the nucleus? a. Nucleoplasm b. Isotonic saline c. Cytoplasm d. Lysosomal enzymes ANS: C 30. Which of the following most accurately describes diffusion? a. ATP-driven b. Passive transport c. Requires a pressure or pushing force d. Causes solute to move uphill ANS: B 31. The skunk makes his presence known by

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a. b. c. d.

filtration. osmosis. active transport. diffusion.

ANS: D 32. Oxygen moves from the lungs (high concentration) into the blood (low concentration) in

response to filtration. osmosis. diffusion. endocytosis.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 33. Which process describes the pushing of water across the capillary (blood vessel) membrane? a. Facilitated diffusion b. Osmosis c. Filtration d. Pinocytosis ANS: C 34. Which structure puts the finishing touches on and packages the protein for export from the

cell? a. Mitochondrion b. Golgi apparatus c. Lysosome d. Nucleolus ANS: B 35. Which of the following structures make the rough endoplasmic reticulum look like

sandpaper? a. Ribosomes b. Globs of cytoplasm c. ATP d. Fragments of DNA ANS: A 36. Which structure is described as a semipermeable lipid bilayer? a. Lysosome b. Mitochondrion c. Ribosome d. Cell membrane ANS: D 37. The selectively permeable membrane a. is a result of its composition; it is tough connective tissue, much like a ligament. b. determines which substances enter and leave the cell.

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c. allows for the unrestricted movement of water and electrolytes across the cell

membrane. d. permits diffusion but not osmosis.

ANS: B 38. Which of the following is least true of mitochondria? a. Found only within liver cells b. Make most of the body’s ATP c. Contain enzymes that function aerobically d. Located within the cytoplasm ANS: A 39.

Which of the following is a correct statement? a. Most ATP is produced in the mitochondria. b. Mitochondria contain potent enzymes that digest cellular waste and debris. c. Most DNA is located within the mitochondria. d. The RER is concerned with phagocytosis.

ANS: A 40. A beaker contains two compartments. Compartment A (CA) contains a 10% salt solution and

Compartment B (CB) contains a 20% salt solution. The membrane is permeable to the salt and water. At equilibrium, a. the volume in CA is greater than the volume in CB. b. the volume in CA is less than the volume in CB. c. the volume is the same i nNb o tRh co ImpGartmBe.ntCs. M U d. all water accumulates in C B ANS: C 41. A beaker contains two compartments. Compartment A (CA) contains a 10% salt solution and

Compartment B (CB) contains a 20% salt solution. The membrane is permeable only to water.

At equilibrium, the volume in a. CA is greater than the volume in CB. b. CA is less than the volume in CB. c. CB is less than the volume in CA. d. CA is the same as the volume in CB. ANS: B 42. Most K+ is located in the cells, with little K+ in the tissue spaces. What accounts for the

movement of additional K+ into the cells? a. K+ in the tissue fluid diffuses into the cell. b. K+ enters the cell in response to facilitated diffusion. c. K+ is actively pumped into the cell. d. K+ enters the cell because of pinocytosis.

ANS: C 43. A child has experienced a blow to the head causing a slow bleed. Although the bleeding has

stopped, the blood clot continues to expand because

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a. brain tissue grows into the blood clot. b. plasma protein is used by the brain to make additional nerve tissue to replace what

was damaged. c. the particles of the blood clot are osmotically active and draw water into the clot. d. pieces of the blood clot dissolve and are carried by the blood to the other side of

the brain.

ANS: C 44. What is the primary difference between diffusion and facilitated diffusion? a. One is active and the other is passive. b. One requires ATP and the other does not. c. Diffusion involves the movement of a substance from high concentration to a

lower concentration. Facilitated diffusion moves a substance from a lower concentration to a higher concentration. d. Facilitated diffusion uses a “helper” molecule to move a substance passively.

ANS: D 45. What is the effect of an intravenous infusion of pure water? a. It is the same response as to the infusion of isotonic saline. b. It is the same response as to the infusion of Ringer’s solution. c. The RBCs burst. d. The RBCs shrink (crenation).

ANS: C 46. Which of the following d esc rNib e sRtheIresGpo nBse.oCf a M red blood cell (RBC) to immersion in an

isotonic solution? a. The RBC swells and bursts. b. The RBC undergoes hemolysis. c. The RBC undergoes crenation; it shrinks. d. There is no net movement of water between the RBC and solution.

ANS: D 47. Plasma proteins determine a. plasma oncotic (osmotic) pressure. b. capillary filtration pressure. c. the rate of diffusion out of the capillary. d. the size of the capillary pores.

ANS: A 48. If plasma protein leaks into the tissue spaces, a. edema develops. b. the tissue space becomes dehydrated as excess tissue fluid enters the capillaries. c. blood volume expands as excess fluid is absorbed into the blood vessels

(capillaries). d. All of the above occur.

ANS: A

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49. Mitosis a. occurs only within sex cells. b. produces two genetically identical cells. c. occurs only within red blood cells. d. causes a 50% reduction in chromosome number.

ANS: B 50. The first gap phase (G1), second gap phase (G2), and synthesis phase (S) a. occur during interphase. b. include prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. c. are stages of mitosis. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: A 51. An anticancer drug that interferes only with mitosis a. is described as cell cycle M phase–specific. b. is cell cycle phase–nonspecific. c. is nontoxic. d. stimulates neoplastic cell growth.

ANS: A 52. With regard to the cell cycle, a. the M phase is the same as interphase. b. cells cannot enter phase G0 when they complete the cycle. c. cell division occurs durinN g t hRe MIph G ase.B.C M U S N d. prophase, metaphase, an aph ase , a n d teT lophaseOoccur during phase G1.

ANS: C 53. A cell that “drops out” of the cell cycle a. enters G0. b. splits into two genetically identical cells. c. reduces its chromosome number by 50%. d. becomes a stem cell.

ANS: A 54. Which of the following best describes a cell that is necrotic? a. Dehydrated b. Stem cell c. Undifferentiated d. Dead ANS: D 55. Which of the following is true of a benign neoplasm? a. Metastatic lesion b. Secondary tumor site c. Cancerous d. Noncancerous tumor

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ANS: D 56. A cervical Pap smear indicates well-differentiated cells. You would interpret this as a. a normal cellular appearance. b. evidence of edema. c. evidence of necrosis. d. evidence of cancer.

ANS: A 57. This cytoplasmic organelle contains the enzymes of the Krebs cycle and electron transport

chain and is primarily concerned with the formation of ATP: a. Rough endoplasmic reticulum b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum c. Mitochondrium d. Centriole ANS: C 58. What programmed sequence of events helps rid the body of old, unnecessary, and unhealthy

cells? apoptosis necrosis transcytosis differentiation

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 59. Which of the following is common to the ribosomes, rough ER, and Golgi apparatus? a. ATP-producing organelles b. Protein synthesis c. Ammonia producing d. Glycogen storage ANS: B 60. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase a. are stages of cytokinesis. b. occur during G1. c. are concerned with the synthesis of DNA and the doubling of the chromosomes. d. are stages of mitosis.

ANS: D 61. Telophase and cytokinesis a. mark the beginning of mitosis. b. complete the splitting of a single cell into two identical cells. c. are called the “resting” phases. d. occur only within sex cells.

ANS: B

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62. Methotrexate, an anticancer drug that interferes with cell replication, is most effective when

the cancer cell is in the S phase of the cell cycle. Which of the following best describes methotrexate? a. Cell cycle phase–specific b. Stem cell stimulator c. Anaplastic d. Keratinized ANS: A 63. A stem cell develops into a muscle cell. Which of the following most accurately describes this

process?

Differentiation Malignant Neoplastic Necrotic

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 64. Compartment A contains a 5% glucose solution. Compartment B contains a 15% glucose

solution. The membrane (dividing the beaker into compartments A and B) is permeable to both solute and solvent. Which of the following statements is true regarding the initial net flux? a. Water diffuses from compartment A to compartment B. b. Glucose diffuses from compartment A to compartment B. c. Solute diffuses from compartment A to compartment B. d. Solvent diffuses from compartment B to compartment A. ANS: A 65. Compartment A contains a 25% glucose solution. Compartment B contains a 15% glucose

solution. The membrane (dividing the beaker into compartments A and B) is permeable to water but impermeable to glucose. Which of the following statements is true regarding the initial net flux? a. Water diffuses from compartment B to compartment A. b. Glucose diffuses from compartment A to compartment B. c. Solute diffuses from compartment A to compartment B. d. Solvent diffuses from compartment A to compartment B. ANS: A 66. At equilibrium the volume in compartment B is greater than the volume in compartment A. In

which initial situation would this be achieved? a. There is a 5% glucose solution in compartment A and a 15% glucose solution in compartment B. The membrane (separating the beaker into compartments A and B) is impermeable to the solute and permeable to the solvent. b. There is a 15% glucose solution in compartment A and a 5% glucose solution in compartment B. The membrane (separating the beaker into compartments A and B) is permeable to water and impermeable to glucose. c. There is a 15% glucose solution in compartment A and a 15% glucose solution in compartment B. The membrane (separating the beaker into compartments A and

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B) is permeable to both solute and solvent. d. There is a 25% glucose solution in compartment A and a 5% glucose solution in

compartment B. The membrane (separating the beaker into compartments A and B) is permeable to solvent but impermeable to glucose.

ANS: A 67. The capillary filtration pressure (arterial end of the capillary) is 30 mm Hg and 7 mm Hg at

the venous end. The capillary oncotic pressure is 15 mm Hg. Which of the following is true? a. Most water is filtered out of the capillary into the interstitium at the arterial end of the capillary. b. The capillary oncotic pressure is responsible for the movement of water from the capillary into the interstitium. c. The capillary oncotic pressure is responsible for the flow of blood from the arterial end of the capillary to the venous end of the capillary. d. A decline in capillary oncotic pressure causes excess water to be reabsorbed from the interstitium.

ANS: A 68. Most body potassium (K+) is located intracellularly. Through what transport mechanism

would additional K+ move from the extracellular compartment to the intracellular compartment? a. Osmosis b. Active transport pump c. Facilitated diffusion d. Filtration ANS: B 69. A red blood cell (RBC) is immersed in hypertonic saline. Which of the following describes

the consequence? The RBC will replicate by mitosis. actively pump water into the cell. undergo hemolysis and burst. shrink.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 70. Which of the following is not true of glycogen? Glycogen a. is a storage form of glucose. b. is an alcohol to which three fatty acids attach thereby forming a triglyceride. c. helps in the regulation of blood glucose. d. is stored within the liver and skeletal muscle.

ANS: B 71. This substance is composed of glycerol and three fatty acids. a. Glycogen b. Polypeptide c. Steroid d. Triglyceride

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ANS: D 72. Which of the following is not a lipid or lipoid substance? a. Steroids b. Vitamins A, D, E, and K c. Prostaglandins d. Ammonia ANS: D 73. Which group is correct? a. Lipids: triglycerides and urea b. Polysaccharides: glycogen and glucose c. Amino acids: ammonia and glycerol d. Nitrogen-containing waste: urea and creatinine ANS: D

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Chapter 04: Cell Metabolism Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is a nitrogen-containing waste product? a. Glucose b. Adenosine triphosphate c. Carbon dioxide d. Urea ANS: D 2. Which of the following is a waste product of the aerobic glucose metabolism? a. ATP b. CO2 c. Urea d. Glycogen ANS: B 3. Glucose is usually broken down to a. make carbon dioxide. b. provide energy (ATP) for the working cells. c. use up urea. d. make glycogen.

ANS: B 4. Which of the following are building blocks of protein? a. Monosaccharides b. Glucose, fructose, and galactose c. Amino acids d. Cellulose and glycogen ANS: C 5. Which of the following is true of glycogen? a. It is an end-product of fatty acid catabolism. b. It is stored in adipose tissue. c. It is the storage form of glucose. d. It is an essential amino acid.

ANS: C 6. Sucrose, lactose, and maltose are classified as a. enzymes. b. disaccharides. c. peptides. d. nucleotides.

ANS: B

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7. Which of the following are joined together by peptide bonds? a. Amino acids b. Monosaccharides c. Lipids d. Steroids ANS: A 8. Cholesterol is a. an essential amino acid. b. stored as glycogen. c. degraded to sucrose, lactose, and maltose. d. used to synthesize steroids.

ANS: D 9. Which of the following is not a carbohydrate term? a. Glycogen b. Monosaccharide c. Glycerol d. Sucrose, maltose, and lactose ANS: C 10. Starch is classified as a(n) a. lipid. b. fatty acid. c. amino acid. d. polysaccharide.

ANS: D 11. Which of the following describes the breakdown of glucose to lactic acid? a. Aerobic b. Krebs cycle c. Glycolysis d. Gluconeogenesis ANS: C 12. Which of the following delivers cholesterol to non-hepatic tissue? a. HDL b. LDL c. VLDL d. Fatty acids ANS: B 13. The best method for decreasing blood cholesterol level is to a. decrease dietary intake of cholesterol. b. decrease dietary intake of saturated fat. c. increase protein intake.

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d. increase carbohydrate intake.

ANS: B 14. Which of the following is most related to glycolysis? a. Krebs cycle b. Mitochondria c. Lactic acid d. Aerobic ANS: C 15. In the absence of oxygen, glucose is catabolized to a. lactic acid. b. carbon dioxide and water. c. urea. d. fatty acid.

ANS: A 16. Which of the following is least related to lactic acid? a. Glycolysis b. Krebs cycle c. Anaerobic d. Cytoplasm ANS: B 17. Which of the following is moNstUdR esScI ripNtiG veToBf. glC ucOoM se? a. Disaccharide b. Peptide c. Glycerol d. Carbohydrate ANS: D 18. Starches, amylases, and disaccharidases are related to a. carbohydrates. b. steroids. c. enzymes. d. peptides.

ANS: A 19. Which of the following terms is most descriptive of ribose and deoxyribose? a. Steroids b. Lipids c. Sugars d. Disaccharides ANS: C 20. Which of the following processes forms the most ATP?

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a. b. c. d.

Glycolysis Conversion of glucose to glycogen Aerobic catabolism of glucose Catabolism of glucose to lactic acid

ANS: C 21. An –NH2 group and a –COOH group are most characteristic of a(n) a. fatty acid. b. amino acid. c. monosaccharide. d. ketoacid.

ANS: B 22. DNA a. is double stranded and stores the genetic code. b. contains ribose as its sugar. c. is located within the cytoplasm. d. contains the following bases: cytosine, guanine, adenine, and uracil.

ANS: A 23. Which of the following is true of base sequencing? a. Occurs within the mitochondrion b. Occurs along the ribosome c. Stores the genetic code d. Is a function of the KrebsNcycRle I ANS: C 24. Adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine are a. bases of DNA. b. sugars used to synthesize nucleotides. c. intermediates of the Krebs cycle. d. amino acids.

ANS: A 25.

Adenine, uracil, cytosine, and guanine are a. sugars used to synthesize nucleotides. b. bases of RNA. c. nonessential amino acids. d. ketone bodies.

ANS: B 26. Which of the following is a double-stranded nucleic acid that is called the blueprint for life? a. Urea b. DNA c. Gene d. RNA

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ANS: B 27. With which process are both DNA and mRNA involved? a. Transcription b. Translation c. Glycolysis d. ATP production ANS: A 28. Which of the following carries the individual amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosome

for assembly into a protein? a. DNA b. tRNA c. mRNA d. ATP ANS: B 29. With which base can adenine pair? a. Guanine b. Cytosine c. Ribose d. Uracil ANS: D 30. tRNA reads the genetic code stor ed in N R I a. DNA. b. ribosomes. c. mRNA. d. nuclear membrane.

ANS: C 31. mRNA “gets” the genetic code from a. DNA. b. tRNA. c. the ribosomes on the ER. d. centrioles.

ANS: A 32. Which of the following is least related to urea? a. Hepatic synthesis b. Nitrogenous waste c. Chemical formula is NH4+ d. Excreted in the urine ANS: C 33. Hepatic encephalopathy can be caused by increasing blood levels of a. ammonia.

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b. urea. c. nitrogen. d. lactic acid.

ANS: A 34. Gluconeogenesis is a process that makes a. glucose from glycogen. b. glucose from protein. c. protein from glucose. d. protein from fat.

ANS: B 35. Gluconeogenesis a. increases blood cholesterol. b. increases urea synthesis. c. increases blood glucose. d. causes hypoglycemia.

ANS: C 36. Which of the following is descriptive of monosaccharides? a. They are fatty acids. b. They are stored as glycogen. c. They are joined together by peptide bonds. d. The most important is trypsin.

N R I G B.C M

U S N T

O

ANS: B 37. Glycogen is a(n) a. alcohol, an end-product of fat digestion. b. indigestible polysaccharide also called cellulose. c. polysaccharide that is the storage form of glucose. d. plant starch.

ANS: C 38. Dietary cellulose a. is absorbed from the digestive tract and converted to glucose and fuels the cells. b. is converted to protein by the process of gluconeogenesis. c. is catabolized by the liver to ketone bodies. d. cannot be metabolized but is beneficial because it provides fiber and bulk.

ANS: D 39. Lactic acidosis a. is caused only by rapid and incomplete catabolism of fatty acids. b. is accompanied by the formation of large amounts of ATP. c. develops in response to prolonged anaerobic catabolism. d. is caused only by extreme exercise characterized by muscle soreness.

ANS: C

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40. The Krebs cycle and electron transport chain enzymes a. are located within the mitochondria. b. function under anaerobic conditions. c. generate lactic acid. d. are responsible for glycolysis.

ANS: A 41. What does the following describe: Three long-chain fatty acids that are attached to a glycerol

molecule?

Steroid Polysaccharide Pyrimidine Triglyceride

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 42. What does the following describe: Alanine–leucine–

cysteine–phenylalanine–proline–arginine? a. Fatty acid b. Peptide c. Disaccharide d. Nucleotide ANS: B 43. Which of the following is d e N s c ri pRti v I e ofGchoB le. stC erolM ? a. Protein U S N T O b. Functions as an enzyme c. Can be synthesized by the liver d. Primary sequence and peptide bonds ANS: C 44. Which of the following is characteristic of glycolysis? a. Occurs within the cytoplasm b. Functions aerobically c. Converts protein to glucose d. Completely metabolizes glucose to CO2, H2O, and ATP ANS: A 45. Translation involves a. ribose and deoxyribose. b. thymine and uracil. c. DNA and mRNA. d. mRNA and tRNA. ANS: D 46. Which of the following is descriptive of mitochondrial function? a. Lactic acid production

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b. Glycolysis c. Aerobic catabolism d. Protein synthesis ANS: C 47. Which of the following is characteristic of urea? a. Formed in the kidneys and excreted by the liver into bile b. Nitrogen-containing waste formed in the liver c. Characterized as an essential amino acid d. Classified as a disaccharide ANS: B 48. Amino acids are a. joined together by peptide bonds. b. the building blocks of protein. c. characterized as essential and nonessential. d. All of the above.

ANS: D 49. Which of the following is most descriptive of ammonia? a. Nitrogen containing and brain toxic b. A catalyst c. An essential amino acid d. Derived from glycogen catabolism ANS: A 50. Monosaccharides a. include glucose, fructose, and galactose. b. include sucrose, lactose, and maltose. c. are classified as saturated and unsaturated. d. are carbohydrate-splitting enzymes.

ANS: A 51. Which of the following represents a strand of DNA complementary to TTT CGC GGG TCG? a. UUU GCG AAA UGC b. UUU GCG CCC AGC c. AAA GCG CCC AGC d. AAA GCG CCC UGC ANS: C 52. Which of the following represents a complementary strand of mRNA: TTT CGC GGG TCG? a. UUU GCG CCC UGC b. UUU GCG CCC AGC c. AAA GCG CCC AGC d. AAA GCG CCC UGC ANS: C

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53. Which of the following represents a base sequence of tRNA that will bind to mRNA UUU? a. UUU b. AAA c. TTT d. CCC ANS: B 54. Transcription produces a. tRNA. b. a complementary strand of DNA. c. deoxyribose. d. mRNA. ANS: D 55. Which of the following is not true of glycogen? Glycogen a. is a storage form of glucose. b. is an alcohol to which three fatty acids attach, thereby forming a triglyceride. c. helps in the regulation of blood glucose. d. is stored within the liver and skeletal muscle.

ANS: B 56. Which of the following is a monosaccharide that is measured as the “blood sugar”? a. Glycerol b. Glycogen c. Glucose d. Lactose ANS: C 57. This substance is composed of glycerol and three fatty acids. a. Glycogen b. Polypeptide c. Steroid d. Triglyceride ANS: D 58. Which of the following is not a lipid or lipoid substance? a. Steroids b. Vitamins A, D, E, and K c. Prostaglandins d. Ammonia ANS: D 59. Which group is correct? a. Lipids: triglycerides and urea b. Polysaccharides: glycogen and glucose c. Amino acids: ammonia and glycerol

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d. Nitrogen-containing waste: urea and creatinine ANS: D 60. Gluconeogenesis converts a. glucose to amino acids for protein synthesis. b. glucose to fatty acids for storage of excess sugar as fat. c. body protein to glucose in an insulin-deficient state. d. ammonia to urea for excretion into the urine.

ANS: C 61. Which of the following occurs first? a. Reading the mRNA code by tRNA b. mRNA leaves the nucleus through the nuclear pores c. Transcription d. Translation ANS: C 62. Which of the following is least related to the aerobic metabolism of glucose? a. Intramitochondrial b. Ketones c. CO2 + H2O + ATP d. Oxygen ANS: B

–N 63. The reaction of –COOH and N UHR2 a. forms urea. b. creates a peptide bond. c. forms glycogen. d. forms a ketone body.

ANS: B 64. Which of the following is (are) necessary for the synthesis of urea? a. Ketone bodies b. Insulin c. Glycogen d. Liver enzymes ANS: D 65. Which of the following is true of urea? Urea is a. nitrogen containing. b. produced by hepatic cells. c. eliminated in the urine. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 66. Which of the following is characteristic of RNA but not DNA?

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a. b. c. d.

Deoxyribose Adenine and thymine Double stranded Uracil and adenine

ANS: D 67. Transcription a. occurs within the nucleus. b. involves DNA and mRNA. c. involves tRNA and mRNA. d. Both A and B are true.

ANS: D 68. Translation a. occurs within the nucleus. b. involves DNA and tRNA. c. involves tRNA and mRNA. d. refers to the production of a complementary strand of DNA. ANS: C 69. A strand of DNA reads ATTCGCAGG. A strand of mRNA reads a. TAGGCGTCC. b. UUGGCGCUC. c. UTTCGCTCC. d. UAAGCGUCC. ANS: D 70. Which of the following represents base pairing? a. CCGTTACTG b. Sugar–phosphate, sugar–phosphate, sugar–phosphate c. Ribose–deoxyribose, ribose–deoxyribose, ribose–deoxyribose d. A–T, T–A, C–G, A–U ANS: D

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Chapter 05: Microbiology Basics Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is defined as a disease-producing microorganism? a. Normal flora b. Pathogen c. Arthropod d. Parasite ANS: B 2. Which word best characterizes Typhoid Mary? a. Immune b. Symptomatic c. Carrier d. Fomite ANS: C 3. Which of the following describes the signs and symptoms that develop in response to a

pathogen?

Syndrome Allergy Infection Immunity

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 4. Influenza is best described as a(n) a. localized infection. b. allergic reaction. c. bacterial infection. d. systemic infection.

ANS: D 5. Cocci, bacilli, and curved rods are classified as a. viruses. b. pathogens. c. bacteria. d. parasites.

ANS: C 6. Bacteria a. include cocci, bacilli, and curved rods. b. are not part of the normal flora of the intestines. c. cause mycotic infections. d. include mold and yeast.

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ANS: A 7. An abscess is a. an example of a systemic infection. b. always viral in origin. c. an example of a mycotic infection. d. an example of a localized infection.

ANS: D 8. Which of the following is least descriptive of staphylococci? a. Grapelike arrangement b. Bacterial c. Gram-positive d. Underlying cause of rheumatic fever ANS: D 9. Rickettsiae are a. classified as fungi. b. viruses. c. often carried by fleas, ticks, and body lice. d. arthropod vectors.

ANS: C 10. Streptococci and staphylococci are a. viruses.

ANS: B b. gram-positive bacteria. c. arthropods. d. parasites.

11. Rickettsiae and chlamydiae are classified as a. viruses. b. bacteria. c. arthropods. d. bacilli.

ANS: B 12. Which of the following are classified as gram-positive and gram-negative? a. Viruses b. Bacteria c. Fungi d. Yeast ANS: B 13. Which of the following is least descriptive of Candida albicans? a. Causative organism of impetigo

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b. Fungal infection c. Yeast infection d. Antibiotic-induced superinfection ANS: A 14. Tetanus, tuberculosis, and diphtheria are a. staphylococcal infections. b. caused by a spirochete. c. localized infections. d. bacterial infections.

ANS: D 15. Which highly coiled microorganism resembles a corkscrew? a. Staphylococcus b. Streptococcus c. Bacillus d. Spirillum ANS: D 16. Clostridium tetani and Clostridium difficile a. are gram-negative bacilli. b. are anaerobic. c. are always pathogenic. d. cause the “tineas,” such as athlete’s foot and ringworm.

ANS: B 17. Which of the following is least descriptive of Treponema pallidum? a. Causes syphilis b. Classified as a bacterium c. Is most often spread by the fecal–oral route d. Is a spirochete ANS: C 18. What is the significance of bacterial spore formation? The bacterium a. becomes more sensitive to the effects of antibiotics. b. becomes more resistant to harsh environmental conditions. c. increases its reproductive activity. d. permanently loses its ability to cause disease.

ANS: B 19. Which of the following requires another living host for its continued existence? a. Arthropod b. Pathogen c. Parasite d. Bacterium ANS: C

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20. Which of the following is called the acid-fast bacillus? a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Salmonella typhi c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. Clostridium tetani ANS: C 21. A mycotic infection is caused by a(n) a. parasite. b. bacterium. c. fungus. d. arthropod.

ANS: C 22. With regard to infectious disease, arthropods most often act as a. parasites. b. causative organisms of disease. c. vectors. d. fomites.

ANS: C 23. Which disease is caused by a sporozoan carried by a mosquito? a. Typhoid fever b. Tetanus c. Malaria d. Rocky Mountain spotted fever ANS: C 24. Infections such as athlete’s foot and ringworm are referred to as a. systemic. b. mycotic. c. parasitic. d. bacterial.

ANS: B 25. Which group includes single-cell animal-like microbes, such as amebas? a. Bacilli b. Arthropods c. Viruses d. Protozoa ANS: D 26. Which “bad air” disease is caused by a plasmodium? a. Measles b. Tinea c. Tetanus

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d. Malaria ANS: D 27. Which of the following is most related to the rusty nail infection? a. Clostridium b. Mycotic c. Viral d. Parasitic ANS: A 28. Tinea is most related to a. ringworm. b. tetanus. c. systemic infection. d. treatment with anthelmintics.

ANS: A 29. A fomite is a a. worm. b. parasite. c. vector. d. host.

ANS: C N R I G B.C M

30. A helminth is a(n) a. parasite. b. arthropod. c. worm. d. bacterium.

U S N T

O

ANS: C

31. Amebic dysentery and giardiasis are a. mycotic infections. b. caused by Salmonella. c. worm infestations. d. caused by protozoan parasites.

ANS: D 32. The ova of which of these parasitic and pathogenic multicellular animals usually appear in the

stool of the infected person? a. Worms b. Viruses c. Arthropods d. Spirochetes ANS: A

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33. The tick associated with Rocky Mountain spotted fever is referred to as a(n) a. arthropod vector. b. causative organism. c. spirochete. d. fungus.

ANS: A 34. The acid-fast bacillus is a. most often spread through droplet infection. b. eradicated by a single dose of penicillin. c. pathogenic only in humans. d. most often diagnosed by a urine culture.

ANS: A 35. Rocky Mountain spotted fever is most effectively treated with an a. antiviral b. anthelmintic c. antibiotic d. antifungal

drug.

ANS: C 36. Biting flies, fleas, and ticks a. most often cause systemic infections. b. are best described as ectoparasites. c. are classified as helminthN s. R I G B.C M d. cause mycotic infections. U ANS: B 37. Which of the following lives in the intestinal tract and lays its eggs in the perianal area,

causing severe pruritus? a. Clostridium tetani b. Pinworms c. Salmonella typhi d. Candida albicans ANS: B 38. Ectoparasites are most likely to cause a. itching and discomfort. b. high fever. c. paralysis. d. loss of consciousness.

ANS: A 39. Rickettsiae require a living host for their survival and are therefore considered to be a. pathogenic. b. parasitic. c. fungal.

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d. communicable.

ANS: B 40. Which of the following is both a vector and an arthropod? a. Contaminated drinking glass b. Virus c. Worm d. Flea ANS: D 41. Typhoid Mary harbored the Salmonella pathogen in her a. urine (kidneys). b. respiratory secretions (lungs). c. nasal secretions (nose). d. bile (gallbladder).

ANS: D 42. Herpes varicella-zoster a. is a fungus. b. generally causes an antibiotic-induced superinfection. c. causes chickenpox. d. responds well to antibiotics.

ANS: C 43. A pox infection a. is always caused by herpes varicella-zoster. b. occurs only in humans. c. is a skin lesion. d. is communicable but never contagious.

ANS: C 44. Herpes varicella-zoster may lay dormant in the nerves for many years; when awakened in later

life, it causes “the great pox.” shingles. tinea capitis. smallpox.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 45. The puerperal fever described by Dr. Semmelweiss is best described as a. a localized infection. b. age-related degenerative disease. c. nosocomial infection. d. pandemic.

ANS: C

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46. Which of the following is true of commensal organisms that populate the normal flora? a. They live harmoniously without harming the person. b. Unless they are destroyed with an antibiotic, the person develops an infection. c. The organisms are usually walled off as an abscess. d. All commensal organisms are confined to the large intestine (bowel).

ANS: A 47. Iron deficiency anemia is endemic in low economic areas of a city, meaning a. most of the population has iron deficiency anemia. b. the iron deficiency anemia is untreatable. c. the iron deficiency anemia has been eradicated. d. the iron deficiency anemia always exists in small numbers in the community.

ANS: D 48. Which of the following is least descriptive of a vector? a. Is a carrier of pathogens from one host to another b. Can be an insect such as the mosquito carrying the plasmodium to humans c. Must be living d. Can be a contaminated syringe (fomite) ANS: C 49. Humans, other animals, contaminated soil and water, and fomites can serve as a continual

source of infection. Which of the following terms best describes this observation? a. Normal flora b. Incubation period c. Nosocomial d. Reservoir of infection N R I G B.C M

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ANS: D

50. Penicillin exerts its antibiotic effect primarily through destruction of the cell wall of the

pathogen. Which of the following are most apt to be affected by penicillin? a. Viruses b. Bacteria c. Worms d. Ectoparasites ANS: B 51. Which of the following is most descriptive of syphilis? a. Is a luetic infection b. Caused by a virus c. Is a sexually transmitted disease d. Both A and B are correct ANS: D 52. Which group is correct? a. Ringworm, mycotic infection, treatment by anthelmintic drug

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b. Syphilis, lues, Treponema pallidum

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c. Gonorrhea, Neisseria, virus d. Trichinae, filariasis, helminthes, penicillin ANS: B 53. Identify the portal of exit and mechanism for most diseases that are spread by droplet

infection.

Urinary system by contaminated urine Respiratory system by coughing or sneezing Digestive system through contaminated feces Central nervous system through contaminated cerebrospinal fluid

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 54. Tinea capitis, Tinea barbae, and Tinea pedis are a. commonly called athlete’s foot. b. ringworm. c. staphylococcus infections. d. manifestations of shingles.

ANS: B 55. Rhinoviruses a. are sensitive to penicillin. b. are capable of causing infection only in an immunosuppressed individual. c. cause the common cold. d. are gram-positive.

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ANS: C

56. The Rubella virus a. is sensitive to penicillin. b. causes German measles. c. is teratogenic. d. Both B and C are correct.

ANS: D 57. Which of the following refers to a process that destroys all living organisms? a. Nosocomial b. Commensal c. Sterilization d. Colonization ANS: C 58. Clostridia a. are viruses. b. cause botulism, gas gangrene, and lockjaw. c. are protozoa. d. respond therapeutically to anthelmintics.

ANS: B

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59. This bacillus forms a large part of the normal flora within the large intestines. It also causes

septic shock, food poisoning, and local infections and is a leading cause of nosocomial infection. a. E. coli b. a plasmodium c. Herpes simplex d. mycobacterium ANS: A

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Chapter 06: Tissues and Membranes Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which type of tissue is found in organs that need to stretch (e.g., urinary bladder)? a. Transitional epithelium b. Loose connective tissue c. Adipose tissue d. Simple squamous epithelium ANS: A 2. Which type of cell conducts an action potential or electrical signal? a. Astrocyte b. Glial cell c. Neuron d. Ependymal cell ANS: C 3. Which tissue type is the most abundant? a. Epithelial b. Muscular c. Connective d. Nervous ANS: C 4. In which of the following is intercellular matrix most abundant? a. Pseudostratified columnar b. Simple squamous epithelium c. Connective tissue d. Simple columnar epithelium ANS: C 5. Ligaments, tendons, and cartilage are types of a. epithelial b. connective c. muscle d. nervous

tissue.

ANS: B 6. Which type of tissue is most likely to prevent a kidney from “floating”? a. Simple squamous epithelium b. Muscle tissue c. Adipose tissue d. Stratified columnar epithelium ANS: C

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7. In which type of tissue is plasma the interstitial matrix? a. Simple squamous epithelium b. Adipose tissue c. Blood d. Cartilage ANS: C 8. Fascia and capsular tissue are most similar to a. tendons and ligaments. b. fat. c. epithelial lining of the alveoli. d. bone.

ANS: A 9. Which of the following membranes form(s) the outer layer of the membrane lining the lungs? a. Parietal pleura b. Visceral peritoneum c. Meninges d. Visceral pleura ANS: D 10. Which of the following is most related to a carcinoma and sarcoma? a. Decubitus ulcer b. Cancer c. Pressure sore d. Bed sore N R I G B.C M

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ANS: B

11. Which type of membrane lines the body cavities that open to the exterior of the body? a. Serous membrane b. Synovial membrane c. Mucous membrane d. Meninges ANS: C 12. Which of the following is most descriptive of a bed sore? a. Decubitus ulcer b. Sarcoma c. Malignant neoplasm d. Metastatic ANS: A 13. Which of the following is most related to mucous membrane? a. Forms the dermis b. Lines all the body cavities that open to the exterior of the body

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c. Is also called the skin

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d. Is the same as the epidermis ANS: B 14. Which type of membrane lines the ventral body cavities that are not open to the exterior of the

body?

Serous membrane Mucous membrane Synovial membrane Meninges

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 15. Which of the four major tissue types is able to regenerate and repair quickly when injured? a. Nervous b. Muscle c. Epithelial d. Connective ANS: C 16. Which of the following is true of an exocrine gland? a. Made of connective tissue b. Secretes hormones c. Secretes its products to the outside or onto a surface d. Secretes only sweat ANS: C 17. Which of the following is most related to bone? a. Epithelial tissue b. Plasma c. Adipose d. Hard intercellular matrix ANS: D 18. Which of the following is the culprit in obesity? a. Osseous tissue b. Adipose tissue c. Squamous epithelium d. Glia cells ANS: B 19. Which word refers to the flattened appearance of fish scales? a. Striated b. Stratified c. Squamous d. Glia ANS: C

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20. Stratified means a. flat and shiny. b. layered. c. striped. d. hard.

ANS: B 21. Which type of tissue allows for the rapid diffusion of oxygen from the alveoli in the lungs to

the blood?

Osseous Fascia Simple squamous epithelium Synovial membrane

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 22. A ligament is best described as a. malignant. b. glandular epithelium. c. tough band of connective tissue. d. squamous epithelium.

ANS: C 23. Endocrine and exocrine glands are a. connective b. epithelial c. adipose d. glial

tissue.

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ANS: B

24. Collagen and elastic fibers are found in the intercellular matrix of a. squamous epithelial b. glandular c. connective d. nervous

tissue.

ANS: C 25. Chondrocytes and osteocytes form a. squamous epithelium. b. transitional epithelium. c. astrocytes and ependymal cells. d. cartilage and bone.

ANS: D 26. Which of the following is characterized by cells that are arranged like tiles on a floor? a. Osseous tissue b. Fascia

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c. Ligaments

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d. Squamous epithelium ANS: D 27. The intercellular matrix of which tissue is the hardest of all connective tissue? a. Fibrocartilage b. Collagen c. Osseous tissue d. Muscle ANS: C 28. Which of the following is least descriptive of epithelial tissue? a. Squamous b. Glial c. Cuboidal d. Columnar ANS: B 29. Osseous tissue is a. also called bone tissue. b. formed from chondrocytes. c. classified as squamous, cuboidal, and columnar. d. classified as skeletal, smooth, and cardiac.

ANS: A 30. The pleura, pericardium, andNpU erR itoSnI euNmGaTreB.COM a. confined to the thoracic cavity. b. confined to the abdominopelvic cavity. c. serous membranes. d. mucous membranes.

ANS: C 31. Which group is incorrect? a. Types of serous membranes: pleura, peritoneum, mucosa b. Types of muscles: skeletal, cardiac, smooth c. Types of membranes: epithelial, connective tissue d. Types of epithelial membranes: cutaneous, mucous, serous ANS: A 32. Which group is incorrect? a. Appearance of muscle: striated and smooth b. Types of cartilage: hyaline, elastic, fibrocartilage c. Types of epithelial membranes: cutaneous, mucous, serous d. Types of connective tissue: tendons, ligaments, fat, glia ANS: D 33. Transitional epithelial tissue

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a. b. c. d.

is found in organs that need to stretch (e.g., urinary bladder). contracts, causing movement. has a hard intercellular matrix. is nervous tissue.

ANS: A 34. Intercellular matrix is a. most abundant in connective tissue. b. absent in blood and lymph. c. always hard. d. always elastic and stretchy.

ANS: A 35. Ligaments, tendons, and cartilage are a. made of connective tissue. b. classified as squamous, cuboidal, and columnar. c. classified as simple and stratified. d. classified as smooth, skeletal, and cardiac.

ANS: A 36. Which of the following is most descriptive of fascia? a. Contractile b. Fatty c. Tough and supportive d. Glandular N R I G B.C M

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ANS: C 37. Serous membranes a. b. c. d.

line all cavities that open to the outside. cover the brain and spinal cord. are connective tissue membranes. line the abdominopelvic and thoracic cavities.

ANS: D 38. Meninges a. are connective tissue membranes. b. cover the brain and spinal cord. c. are located in cranial and vertebral cavities. d. are all of the above.

ANS: D 39. The words visceral and parietal a. describe pleural and peritoneal membranes. b. describe two types of glands. c. refer to connective tissue membranes. d. are layers of meninges.

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ANS: A 40. The cutaneous membrane a. is a synovial membrane. b. is the skin. c. has a visceral and parietal layer. d. has three layers: squamous, cuboidal, and columnar.

ANS: B 41. An exocrine gland a. is made of epithelial tissue. b. secretes hormones. c. is ductless. d. secretes only sweat.

ANS: A 42. Squamous a. means striated or striped. b. means joint lining. c. refers to the flattened appearance of fish scales. d. refers to electrical conduction.

ANS: C 43. Endocrine is least often described as a. hormone secreting. b. ductless. c. glandular epithelium. d. contractile.

ANS: D 44. Stratified and squamous refer to a. layered and striped. b. solid and liquid. c. layered and flat. d. columnar and cube shaped.

ANS: C 45. Simple squamous, pseudostratified, simple cuboidal, and stratified squamous a. form tendons and connect muscle to bone. b. form ligaments and connect bone to bone. c. form continuous sheets and function in secretion, transport, and protection. d. are types of nervous tissue.

ANS: C 46. The epithelium is described as being avascular, meaning that it a. is single-layered. b. has no blood supply of its own.

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c. is colorless. d. contains sudoriferous glands but not sebaceous glands.

ANS: B 47. The alveolar wall in the distal lungs is designed for rapid diffusion of the respiratory gases,

O2, and CO2 across the alveolar wall. The alveolar wall is composed of a. adipose tissue. b. transitional epithelium. c. dense, fibrous connective tissue. d. simple squamous epithelium.

ANS: D 48. Endocrine and exocrine glands are composed of a. cuboidal epithelia. b. dense, fibrous connective tissue. c. transitional epithelium. d. glial tissue.

ANS: A 49. Adipose, dense fibrous, areolar, blood, and osseous are all a. stratified epithelia. b. connective tissue. c. glial. d. fat storing.

ANS: B 50. Which of the following is fat-storing connective tissue? a. Glial b. Adipose c. Transitional epithelia d. Tissue that arises from chondrocytes ANS: B 51. Which of the following is most descriptive of tendons, ligaments, fascia, and capsules? a. Designed for rapid diffusion of O2 and CO2 b. Hormone secreting c. Tough, dense, fibrous, connective d. Cells form large sheets resembling floor tiles ANS: C 52. Fibro-, elastic, and hyaline are a. striated epithelia. b. found exclusively in the lungs where they function in gas exchange. c. types of cartilage. d. formed by osteocytes.

ANS: C

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53. Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth are a. all striped or striated. b. types of connective tissue. c. all concerned with the movement of bones. d. types of muscle.

ANS: D 54. Which of the following best describes glia? a. Basement membrane b. Dense fibrous connective tissue c. Nervous tissue d. Matrix ANS: C 55. The pericardium and pleurae a. surround the lungs. b. line the dorsal cavity. c. are located in the thoracic cavity. d. are mucous membranes.

ANS: C 56. Which of the following is descriptive of the peritoneum? a. Serous membrane b. Abdominopelvic cavity c. Parietal and visceral layers d. All of the above ANS: D 57. Damaged skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, and nervous tissue are replaced by a. the same tissue type. b. scar tissue. c. epithelial tissue. d. adhesions.

ANS: B 58. This type of connective tissue membrane lines many joints and secretes a lubricating fluid that

has the consistency of egg white.

Meningeal Synovial Pleural Pericardial

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 59. Which of the following membranes secretes serous fluid? a. Membrane that lines the respiratory tract b. Membrane that lines the digestive tract

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c. Membrane that lines the inner wall of the pleural cavity d. Membrane that lines the urinary tract ANS: C 60. To which of the following is glandular epithelium most related? a. Endocrine and exocrine b. Striated and smooth c. Neuronal and glial d. Periosteum and pericardial ANS: A 61. This tissue connects ribs to the breastbone (sternum), forms the rigid rings in the windpipe

(trachea), and is found at the end of long bones in the joints. a. Glial tissue b. Hyaline cartilage c. Cutaneous membrane d. Serous membrane ANS: B 62. These membranes are restricted to the thoracic cavity. a. Meninges b. Pleurae c. Peritoneum d. Smooth muscle ANS: B 63. Chondrocytes, perichondrium, and chondroblasts are most associated with a. immature cells. b. tissue that is classified as striated and nonstriated. c. cartilage. d. simple squamous epithelium.

ANS: C 64. Which of the following groups is correct? a. Types of cartilage: hyaline, fibrocartilage, and elastic cartilage b. Types of loose connective tissue: areolar, adipose, and reticular c. Layers of epithelial tissue: simple and stratified d. Connective tissue membranes: mucous, serous, and synovial ANS: D 65. Regeneration occurs in injured tissue a. when the tissue is replaced with the same type of tissue as the injured tissue. b. when a blood clot forms. c. when fibrous connective tissue replaces the injured tissue. d. after scar tissue forms.

ANS: A

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MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Fibrosis refers to a. tissue regeneration. b. repair of damaged muscle fibers. c. regeneration of nerve fibers. d. replacement of injured tissue with fibrous connective tissue.

ANS: C, D

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Chapter 07: Integumentary System and Body Temperature Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The stratum germinativum and the stratum corneum are layers of the a. epidermis. b. hypodermis. c. subcutaneous tissue. d. dermis.

ANS: A 2. Which of the following is associated with tanning? a. Sudoriferous glands b. Apocrine glands c. Arrector pili muscles d. Melanocytes ANS: D 3. Who or what is covered with vernix caseosa? a. A pregnant woman b. A toddler c. A fetus d. The pregnant uterus ANS: C 4. Which word is most descriptive of sudoriferous? a. Yellow b. Sweat c. Hot d. Tan ANS: B 5. If the blood vessels of the skin dilate, the person appears a. jaundiced. b. flushed. c. cyanotic. d. pale and washed out.

ANS: B 6. Ceruminous glands secrete a. vernix caseosa. b. sweat. c. wax in the outer ear. d. melanin.

ANS: C

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7. Freckles and moles are caused by an accumulation of a. bilirubin. b. vernix caseosa. c. melanin. d. keratin.

ANS: C 8. Which of the following is a consequence of a congenital absence of eccrine glands? a. Jaundice b. Vitiligo c. Acne vulgaris d. Inability to regulate body temperature ANS: D 9. Radiation, conduction, convection, and evaporation are terms that are concerned with a. heat loss. b. skin color. c. sweat glands. d. exocrine secretions.

ANS: A 10. Hives are called a. impetigo. b. urticaria. c. psoriasis. d. vitiligo.

ANS: B

11. The color of skin that is supplied by oxygen-poor blood is described as a. flushed. b. jaundiced. c. cyanotic. d. pink.

ANS: C 12. Which of the following lies on the subcutaneous layer? a. Stratum corneum b. Epidermis c. Dermis d. Stratum germinativum ANS: C 13. Which of the following substances makes the skin water resistant? a. Melanin b. Iron pigments c. Keratin

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d. Carotene ANS: C 14. What is the result of the contraction of the arrector pili muscles? a. Nail growth b. Goosebumps c. Sweating d. Tanning ANS: B 15. Which type of gland secretes vernix caseosa in the fetus? a. Sudoriferous b. Apocrine c. Eccrine d. Sebaceous ANS: D 16. Which gland is most likely to develop a blackhead or pimple? a. Sebaceous b. Apocrine c. Eccrine d. Sudoriferous ANS: A 17. Which glands are most respoN n sU ibRleSfI orNbG odTyBo. doCr?O M a. Apocrine b. Arrector pili c. Eccrine d. Sebaceous ANS: A 18. Both the mammary glands and ceruminous glands a. are sebaceous glands. b. are modified sweat glands. c. are concerned with temperature regulation. d. secrete earwax.

ANS: B 19. Which of the following is associated with the conservation of heat? a. The person appears flushed. b. The person sweats. c. Melanin is secreted. d. Blood vessels constrict.

ANS: D 20. A person sweats and becomes flushed while exercising to

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a. b. c. d.

decrease heat production. keep the heat in the core or center of the body. lose heat. prevent hypothermia.

ANS: C 21. What is the effect of shivering? a. Increases heat production b. Increases heat loss c. Causes the blood vessels of the skin to dilate d. Decreases sweating ANS: A 22. Which of the following has the poorest prognosis (expected outcome)? a. Freckles b. Vitiligo c. Melanoma d. Albinism ANS: C 23. The layer that insulates the body from extreme temperature changes in the external

environment is the epidermis. subcutaneous layer. stratum germinativum. dermis.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 24. Which of the following structures is avascular? a. Epidermis b. Subcutaneous layer c. Dermis d. Underlying muscle ANS: A 25. The name of the yellow pigment found in skin is a. keratin. b. collagen. c. carotene. d. vitamin D. ANS: C 26. This substance is produced by the skin and is necessary for the absorption of calcium from the

digestive tract. a. Keratin b. Vitamin D c. Carotene

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d. Collagen ANS: B 27. Anticancer drugs often cause hair loss, a condition called a. alopecia. b. hirsutism. c. vitiligo. d. keratinization.

ANS: A 28. Sweat glands usually associated with hair follicles and found in the axillary and genital areas

are called ceruminous glands. eccrine glands. sebaceous glands. apocrine glands.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 29. Which action is most likely to lower body temperature? a. Shivering b. Vasoconstriction c. Cyanosis d. Vasodilation ANS: D 30. What is the name of the thickening of the epidermis that develops in response to constant

pressure or irritation?

Nevus Vitiligo Callus Blister

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 31. The stratum germinativum is a. dead. b. mitotically active. c. found in the derma layer. d. located in the subcutaneous layer.

ANS: B 32. Which of the following occurs as a result of the secretion of fetal sebaceous glands? a. Amniotic fluid surrounds the fetus. b. The fetus is covered by vernix caseosa. c. The fetus raises its body temperature. d. Melanin is released and the fetus attains its natural skin color.

ANS: B

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33. The hypodermis a. contains the stratum germinativum and stratum corneum. b. gives rise to the hair follicle. c. is also called the subcutaneous layer. d. is the cutaneous membrane.

ANS: C 34. The sebaceous, apocrine, and eccrine glands are _ a. sweat b. endocrine c. sebum-secreting d. exocrine

glands.

ANS: D 35. Nonshivering thermogenesis is accomplished by a. involuntary contraction of skeletal muscles. b. constriction of the dermal blood vessels. c. metabolism associated with brown fat. d. involuntary contraction of the arrector pili muscles.

ANS: C 36. Which of the following is descriptive of the epidermal layer? a. It is nourished by blood vessels in the dermal layer. b. It sits on the subcutaneous la yer.

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N R I

UgeSrmiN c. It sits inferior to the stratum n atiT v um. O d. It contains the cutaneous blood vessels, free nerve endings, tactile receptors, and arrector pili muscles.

ANS: A

37. Which of the following is least descriptive of the dermal layer? a. It is nourished by blood vessels in the epidermal layer. b. It sits on the subcutaneous layer. c. It supports the epidermis. d. It contains the cutaneous blood vessels, free nerve endings, tactile receptors, and

arrector pili muscles.

ANS: A 38. What is the structure in this description: The cells are continuously dividing, pushing older

cells toward the surface of the cutaneous membrane?

Sudoriferous glandular epithelium Dermis Arrector pili Stratum germinativum

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 39. The stratum corneum is

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a. b. c. d.

the outermost layer of the epidermis. an epidermal layer. nourished by blood vessels within the dermis. all of the above.

ANS: D 40. The subcutaneous layer a. is composed of the stratum germinativum and stratum corneum. b. contains adipose tissue. c. cushions, binds, and insulates. d. Two of the above are true.

ANS: D 41. Melanocytes a. secrete a tanning pigment in response to exposure to sunlight. b. secrete bilirubin and cause jaundice. c. are located only in the external ear and secrete cerumen. d. secrete carotene, giving the skin a yellow tint.

ANS: A 42. Cyanosis a. refers to a bluish coloring of the skin caused by hypoxemia. b. refers to a yellow coloring of the skin caused by elevated blood levels of bilirubin. c. is caused by abnormal and spotty deposition of melanin. d. is a hardening of the skinNdueRto I keraGtin.B.C M ANS: A 43. Which of the following is true of sebaceous glands? a. They are exocrine glands. b. They are primarily responsible for temperature regulation. c. They secrete melanin in response to ultraviolet radiation. d. They secrete vitamin D in response to ultraviolet radiation.

ANS: A 44. Eccrine glands a. are sweat glands. b. secrete sebum. c. are active only after puberty. d. arise within the hypodermis.

ANS: A 45. Apocrine glands a. become active at puberty. b. are exocrine glands. c. are found primarily in the axillary and genital areas. d. All of the above are true.

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ANS: D 46. Vernix caseosa is a. secreted by eccrine glands. b. a cream cheese-like substance covering the skin of the fetus. c. found in a pimple. d. primarily concerned with temperature regulation.

ANS: B 47. The hypothalamus a. is the body’s thermostat. b. can be affected by pyrogens. c. is involved in thermoregulation. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 48. To lose heat, flushing is generally accompanied by a. activation of the eccrine glands. b. secretion of sebum. c. contraction of the arrector pili muscles. d. constriction of the cutaneous blood vessels.

ANS: A 49. Shivering a. can restore temperature to normal but can never elevate temperature above 99F. b. involves the involuntary cNoU ntR raS ctI ioN nG ofToBnl.y C thOe M arrector pili muscles. c. produces heat. d. activates the sebaceous glands.

ANS: C 50. Brown fat is found in the fetus and neonate and is concerned with a. regulation of thirst. b. urine production by the fetal kidney. c. nonshivering thermogenesis. d. regulation of fetal and neonatal blood glucose.

ANS: D 51. Rectal temperature is a. a measure of shell temperature. b. lower than oral and axillary temperatures. c. higher in the early morning than in late afternoon. d. a measurement of core temperature.

ANS: D 52. Keratin is a. found only in the hypodermis. b. carried to the stratum corneum by the dermal blood vessels.

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c. a protein that hardens and makes an epidermal cell water resistant. d. pigment that makes the skin dark when exposed to the sun.

ANS: C 53. Which of the following is least true of the epidermis? a. Is the thin outer layer of the skin b. Sits on the subcutaneous layer c. Is avascular d. Contains the stratum germinativum and the stratum corneum ANS: B 54. Which of the following describes exfoliation and desquamation? a. The sloughing off by the stratum corneum of dead cells b. The elimination of heat as part of the thermoregulatory mechanism c. The conservation of heat as part of the thermoregulatory mechanism d. Tanning as a protective mechanism from ultraviolet radiation ANS: A 55. Dander and dandruff are a. composed of dead skin cells. b. clumps of infected sebum. c. called striae. d. worn out tactile receptors.

ANS: A 56. Which of the following is a true statement about hirsutism? a. It is also called alopecia. b. It may occur in response to abnormal secretion of hormones such as steroids. c. It is an abnormal color change of the skin. d. It refers to an inability to regulate body temperature.

ANS: B 57. The hair follicle is a. the part of the hair that is above the surface of the skin. b. composed of epithelial cells. c. composed of dead and keratinized cells. d. that which we brush, blow dry, curl, and iron.

ANS: B 58. With aging the hair becomes gray and then white as a. melanocytes become less active. b. eccrine glands become less functional. c. keratin secretion slows. d. the arrector pili muscles lose their tone.

ANS: A

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59.

Sudoriferous glands a. are sweat glands. b. participate in temperature regulation. c. include the eccrine and apocrine glands. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 60. The normal body temperature a. is 96.8. b. is highest at 7 AM and gradually decreases over the 24 hours. c. is maintained through thermoregulatory mechanisms. d. is 40C. ANS: C 61. The use of a cooling blanket lowers body temperature through a. radiation. b. convection. c. conduction. d. evaporation.

ANS: C 62. A person feels warmer on a humid day because a. the decrease in evaporation of water from the skin surface decreases the loss of

heat. b. the body produces more hNe a t Ro n I d.aC y. M S a NhuGmid TBand O c. a person breathes slower onUa humid day exhales less heated air. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: A 63. Which of the following is least true of hyperthermia? a. Body temperature is elevated. b. The elevated temperature is due to the inability of the body to get rid of excess

heat. c. Hyperthermia is most often due to infection. d. Hyperthermia does not respond to the antipyretic effect of aspirin.

ANS: C 64. Which of the following is least true of a fever? a. Involves the upward resetting of the hypothalamus b. Often responds to the antipyretic effect of aspirin c. Is generally caused by an inability of the body to get rid of excess heat, as in heat

stroke d. Is “broken” in response to vasodilation and sweating ANS: C

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Chapter 08: Skeletal System Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The humerus a. is located in the arm. b. is distal to the radius and ulna. c. articulates with the clavicle at the acromioclavicular joint. d. is a bone of the axial skeleton.

ANS: A 2. The humerus a. contains the olecranon process. b. articulates distally with the ulna. c. forms a ball-and-socket joint where the olecranon process articulates with the

olecranon fossa. d. articulates with the scapula at the sternomanubrial joint.

ANS: B 3. The maxilla a. is the cheekbone. b. is a cranial bone. c. contains the upper teeth. d. articulates with the tempoNraUl R boSnI eN atGthTeBT. MCJ.OM ANS: C 4. Which bone is found in the skull but not in the cranium? a. Occipital b. Parietal c. Sphenoid d. Mandible ANS: D 5. Which bone is found in the skull but is not a facial bone? a. Mandible b. Maxilla c. Occipital d. Zygomatic ANS: C 6.

The zygomatic bone is a cranial bone. articulates with the mandible. holds the upper teeth. is called the cheekbone.

a. b. c. d.

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ANS: D 7. Which of the following is most descriptive of the atlas and the axis? a. Carpal b. Vertebral c. Coxal d. Cranial ANS: B 8.

The occipital bone a. is a facial bone. b. contains the foramen magnum. c. is the cheekbone. d. articulates with the frontal bone at the coronal suture.

ANS: B 9. Which of the following word(s) is (are) related to the ribs? a. Acetabulum b. True, false, and floating c. Supination and pronation d. Fontanels ANS: B 10. Fontanels a. are present in fetal and inN faU ntRsS kuIllN s. T O b. allow expansion of the infant skull during growth. c. eventually fuse or seal. d. involve all of the above.

ANS: D 11. Which bone is described by the following: leg, shin, and medial malleolus? a. Fibula b. Tibia c. Talus d. Femur ANS: B 12. Which bone is distal to the acetabulum and proximal to the patella? a. Femur b. Tibia c. Fibula d. Calcaneus ANS: A 13. Which bone is distal to the femur and proximal to the tibia? a. Fibula

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b. Patella c. Talus d. Coxal bone ANS: B 14. Which bone is formed by the ischium, ilium, and pubis? a. Sacrum b. Cranium c. Coxal bone d. Breastbone ANS: C 15. Which of the following is not a bone of the vertebral column? a. Atlas b. Sacrum c. Coccyx d. Coxal bone ANS: D 16. Which bones form the palm of the hand? a. Tarsals b. Phalanges c. Metacarpals d. Metatarsals ANS: C 17. Which bones are distal to the radius and ulna and proximal to the metacarpals? a. Pollux b. Carpals c. Tarsals d. Hallux ANS: B 18. The humerus is a a. bone of the axial skeleton. b. short bone. c. bone of the upper limbs. d. bone found only in the fetal skeleton.

ANS: C 19. Which of the following is located at the ends of a long bone? a. Diaphysis b. Periosteum c. Epiphysis d. Medullary cavity ANS: C

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20. Cancellous refers to a(n) a. irregular bone. b. cartilage. c. spongy bone. d. osteon.

ANS: C 21. Which structure is the site of attachment for tendons? a. Endosteum b. Articular cartilage c. Periosteum d. Osteon ANS: C 22. Osteons are found primarily a. within the medullary cavity. b. in the diaphysis. c. on the outer surface of the articular cartilage. d. within the epiphyseal disc.

ANS: B 23. The palatine process of this facial bone forms which anterior part of the hard palate? a. Mandible b. Zygomatic ANS: C c. Maxilla d. Sphenoid

24. The coronal suture forms an immovable joint between the parietal bones and which bone? a. Occipital b. Frontal c. Temporal d. Sphenoid ANS: B 25. A foramen and meatus are a. short bones. b. curvatures. c. openings. d. joints.

ANS: C 26. Which structure refers to the shaft of a long bone? a. Diaphysis b. Epiphysis c. Periosteum

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d. Bursa ANS: A 27. Which word(s) best reflect(s) the function of the epiphyseal disc? a. Blood cell formation b. Phagocytosis c. Secretion of synovial fluid d. Longitudinal growth ANS: D 28. Which of the following bones is not located in the lower limbs? a. Femur b. Tibia c. Ulna d. Tarsal ANS: C 29. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal refer to a. vertebrae. b. long bones. c. spinal curves. d. phalanges.

ANS: A 30. At which joint do the humeruNsU anRdSuI lnN aG mT eeB t?.COM a. Hip b. Elbow c. Knee d. Wrist ANS: B 31. At which joint do the femur and tibia meet? a. Hip b. Knee c. Ankle d. Elbow ANS: B 32. At which joint do the femur and tibia meet? a. Tibiofemoral b. Proximal tibiofibular c. Distal tibiofibular d. Sacroiliac ANS: A 33. At which joint do the femur and coxal bone meet?

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a. b. c. d.

Hip Knee Ankle Wrist

ANS: A 34. At which joint do the scapula and humerus meet? a. Hip b. Wrist c. Shoulder d. Elbow ANS: C 35. At which joint do the scapula and humerus meet? a. Humeroulnar b. Radiocarpal c. Glenohumeral d. Sternoclavicular ANS: C 36. Injury to the epiphyseal disc of the tibia may a. stunt the growth of the injured leg. b. stimulate the bone to become cancerous. c. inhibit blood cell formation. d. cause arthritis.

ANS: A 37. What do the following terms have in common: arthrosis, arthroplasty, and arthritis? a. Are orthopedic surgical procedures b. Refer to joints c. Are inflammatory joint diseases d. Are malignant bone diseases ANS: B 38. Which of the following refers to an exaggerated thoracic curvature of the spine (hunchback)? a. Kyphosis b. Rickets c. Scoliosis d. Lordosis ANS: A 39. What is the outer lining of connective tissue that surrounds the diaphysis of a long bone and

contains the blood vessels that supply the bone?

Periosteum Endosteum Osteon Articular cartilage

a. b. c. d.

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ANS: A 40. The acetabulum a. receives the head of the femur. b. is the crest part of the iliac crest. c. is located anterior to the symphysis pubis. d. is a depression in the scapula.

ANS: A 41. Which of the following is true of the following terms: osteoblast, osteoclast, osteocyte, and

osseous tissue? a. All are immature bone cells b. All increase blood calcium c. All refer to bone d. All refer to abnormal bone conditions ANS: C 42. The olecranon process is most associated with which joint? a. Hip b. Elbow c. Wrist d. Ball-and-socket joint ANS: B 43. The olecranon process is m o sNt U asR soScI iatNedGT wiB th.wChO icM h joint? a. Glenohumeral b. Humeroulnar c. Radiocarpal d. Acromioclavicular ANS: B 44. Which of the following is a hinge joint? a. Sternomanubrial b. Metacarpophalangeal joint c. Coronal suture d. Anterior fontanel ANS: B 45. The ischial tuberosity a. is a part of the femur. b. is the part of the coxal bone upon which you sit. c. articulates with the head of the femur at the acetabulum. d. articulates with the head of the humerus at the glenoid cavity.

ANS: B 46. The obturator foramen is the

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a. b. c. d.

large foramen in the coxal bone. opening through which the medulla oblongata descends as the spinal cord. meeting place of the ilium, ischium, and pubis. space between the two iliac crests.

ANS: A 47. Which structure includes the calcaneus? a. Kneecap b. Wrist c. Heel d. Groin ANS: C 48. What group of bones includes the calcaneus? a. Metatarsals b. Tarsals c. Phalanges d. Carpals ANS: B 49. The greater and lesser trochanters are located on which bone? a. Tibia b. Fibula c. Coccyx d. Femur ANS: D 50. What is the type of projection that articulates with the glenoid cavity? a. Crest b. Trochanter c. Spine d. Head ANS: D 51. What is the term that refers to the replacement of cartilage by bone? a. Osteoporosis b. Osteomalacia c. Ossification d. Myelosuppression ANS: C 52. The ilium, ischium, and pubis a. are part of the appendicular skeleton. b. are processes located on the femur. c. are muscles that attach to the femur. d. form the coxal bone.

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ANS: D 53. The lambdoidal suture in the skull is a(n) a. synovial b. hinge c. freely movable d. immovable

joint.

ANS: D 54. What is the classification of the intervertebral discs and the symphysis pubis? a. Fused b. Suture c. Immovable d. Slightly movable ANS: D 55.

A synovial joint is a. freely movable. b. a suture. c. found only in the lower extremities. d. found only within the vertebral column and at the symphysis pubis.

ANS: A 56. What is the name of the “soft spots” in a baby’s skull? a. Sinuses 57. The diaphysis is the b. Fontanels c. Synovial joints d. Sutures ANS: B a. b. c. d.

site of blood cell formation. growth plate. bone structure that is covered by articular cartilage. shaft of a long bone.

ANS: D 58. Which group is incorrect? a. Abnormal curvatures of the spine: scoliosis, kyphosis, lordosis b. Types of ribs: true, false, floating c. Bones of the upper extremities: humerus, radius, ulna d. Bones of the lower extremities: femur, tibia, clavicle ANS: D 59. Which group is incorrect? a. Spinal curvatures: cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral b. Abnormal curvatures of the spine: scoliosis, kyphosis, lordosis

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c. Types of ribs: true, false, floating d. Types of freely movable joints: hinge, ball-and-socket, and suture ANS: D 60. Which group is incorrect? a. Types of bones: long, short, flat, irregular b. Long bones: humerus, femur, tibia, parietal c. Bones of the skull: frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital d. Abnormal curvatures of the spine: scoliosis, kyphosis, lordosis ANS: B 61. Which group is incorrect? a. Sinuses: frontal, maxillary, sphenoidal, ethmoidal b. Spinal curvatures: cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral c. Bones of the lower extremities: femur, tibia, fibula d. Bones of the vertebral column: atlas, axis, coxal bone ANS: D 62. Which group is incorrect? a. Sinuses: frontal, maxillary, sphenoidal, ethmoidal b. Abnormal curvatures of the spine: scoliosis, kyphosis, lordosis c. Types of freely movable joints: hinge and ball-and-socket d. Types of movement: flexion, pronation, abduction, ossification ANS: D a. builds bone.

63. Osteoclastic activity a. raises blood calcium levels. b. secretes synovial fluid into joints. c. regulates the production of blood cells.

ANS: B 64. To measure the length of the humerus, you would measure from the a. olecranon process to the styloid process of the radius. b. acromion to the olecranon process. c. suprasternal notch to the xiphoid process. d. greater trochanter to the medial malleolus.

ANS: B 65. To measure the length of the breastbone, you would measure from the a. olecranon process to the styloid process of the radius. b. acromion to the olecranon process. c. suprasternal notch to the xiphoid process. d. greater trochanter to the medial malleolus.

ANS: C

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66. The olecranon process articulates with the humerus to form a (the) a. ball-and-socket joint. b. shoulder joint. c. carpal tunnel. d. elbow.

ANS: D 67. Estrogen, progesterone, and growth hormone a. fuse the epiphyseal disc at age 6 years. b. stimulate the articular cartilage of one bone to fuse with the articular cartilage of an

opposing bone. c. affect the activity of the epiphyseal disc. d. stimulate osteoclastic activity, thereby increasing blood calcium.

ANS: C 68. The Haversian system (osteon) is a. the cylindrical arrangement of dense bone. b. found only in cancellous bone. c. the red bone marrow. d. the connective tissue that surrounds a long bone.

ANS: A 69. Which of the following is not associated with the femur? a. Acetabulum b. Vertebra prominens c. Tibia d. Coxal bone ANS: B 70. The tibia a. articulates with the femur and the proximal and distal fibulae. b. is part of the axial skeleton. c. is the thin outer (lateral) bone of the leg. d. articulates with the acetabulum.

ANS: A 71. The mandible a. is the upper jaw bone. b. fuses to form the hard palate. c. articulates with the temporal bone. d. is part of the cranium.

ANS: C 72. Which of the following joints can engage in flexion, extension, adduction, abduction, and

circumduction? a. Glenohumeral b. TMJ

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c. Lambdoidal suture d. Tibiofemoral ANS: A 73. The lateral and medial malleoli a. are located on the proximal tibia. b. are located on the distal fibula. c. articulate with the calcaneus. d. are associated with the ankles.

ANS: D 74. The sternomanubrial joint a. moves the clavicle. b. is a ball-and-socket joint. c. is located at the level of the second rib. d. is also called the jugular notch.

ANS: C 75. The diaphysis is a. composed primarily of compact bone. b. the growth plate. c. referred to as melogenous tissue. d. the inner lining of the medullary cavity.

ANS: A 76. The periosteum a. is a tough connective tissue. b. is the outer lining of a long bone. c. provides a site of attachment for tendons. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 77. The carpals a. are short bones. b. articulate with the radius and ulna. c. are wrist bones. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 78. Which of the following is not a long bone or a long bone marking? a. Radius b. Femur c. Greater trochanter d. Suture ANS: D

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79. Which of the following is not associated with the glenohumeral joint? a. Ball and socket b. Shoulder c. Olecranon process d. Freely movable ANS: C 80. The type of joint movement at the humeroulnar joint is most similar to the movement at the a. b. c. d.

joint. proximal radioulnar distal tibiofibular glenohumeral tibiofemoral

ANS: D 81. Which bones form the elbow? a. Distal humerus, scapula b. Distal ulna, carpals c. Proximal humerus, distal ulna d. Distal humerus, proximal ulna ANS: D 82. With which of the following is the patella least associated? a. Tibiofemoral joint b. Proximal tibia 83. The lateral malleolus c. Acetabulum d. Distal femur ANS: C

a. b. c. d.

articulates with the proximal tibia. articulates with the medial malleolus. is a process on the distal tibia. is a process on the distal fibula.

ANS: D 84. The acetabulum a. receives the greater trochanter of the femur to form a ball-and-socket joint. b. is part of the femur. c. is formed by portions of the ilium, ischium, and pubis. d. articulates with the sacrum.

ANS: C 85. What is true of all these joints: tibiofemoral, hip, glenohumeral, and humeroulnar? They are

all a. freely movable. b. ball and socket.

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c. restricted to the axial skeleton. d. restricted to the upper extremities.

ANS: A 86. Which of the following bones articulate at a suture? a. Occipital and atlas b. Temporal and mandible c. Frontal and parietal d. Atlas and axis ANS: C 87. C1 to C7 refer to a. vertebrae. b. true ribs. c. false ribs. d. intervertebral discs.

ANS: A 88. Which of the following is true of the sternum? a. Composed of the manubrium, body, and xiphoid process b. Articulates with floating ribs c. Is part of the appendicular skeleton d. Articulates with the scapulae ANS: A 89. The vertebrae prominens a. is the space between L3 and L4 where a lumbar puncture is normally performed. b. refers to C1 and C2, the atlas, and axis. c. is a fontanel. d. is C7.

ANS: D 90. Fontanels are a. paranasal sinuses. b. bone marrow structures that produce blood cells. c. composed entirely of compact bone. d. areas found in the infant skull that are membranous.

ANS: D 91.

Which of the following is not true of the sphenoid bone? a. Contains the sella turcica, seat of the pituitary gland b. Forms the floor of the cranium c. Forms part of the eye socket d. Contains the foramen magnum ANS: D

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92. Which of the following is least true of the occipital bone? a. Contains condyles that articulate with C1 b. Contains the mastoid process and the external auditory meatus c. Contains the foramen magnum d. Is a cranial bone ANS: B 93. Measurement from the acromion to the olecranon process determines a. leg length. b. chest diameter. c. arm length. d. length of the forearm.

ANS: C 94. Which of the following is not part of the thoracic cage? a. True ribs b. Sternum c. Thoracic vertebrae d. Coxal bones ANS: D 95. The carpals, metacarpals, and phalanges a. are part of the axial skeleton. b. are facial bones. c. form the hand. d. include the hallux.

ANS: C 96. Which of the following is most descriptive of the calcaneus? a. Pollex b. Phalange c. Hand d. Tarsal bone ANS: D 97. The symphysis pubis is a slightly movable joint associated with the a. coxal bones. b. femur. c. sacrum. d. ischial tuberosity.

ANS: A 98. What is it called: The person moves his left thigh away from the midline of the body? a. Abduction b. Flexion c. Plantar flexion d. Inversion

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ANS: A 99. Which of the following is least true of the knee? a. Is a synovial joint that can normally be flexed, extended, and abducted b. Contains bursae, ligaments, and cartilage c. Is a hinge joint d. Is called the tibiofemoral joint ANS: A 100. Which of the following describes both the hallux and pollex? a. Hand b. Metacarpal c. Phalanges d. Ball and socket ANS: C 101. Which of the following is least true of the mandible? a. Is the lower jaw b. Forms the TMJ c. Articulates with the occipital bone d. Site of attachment for the muscles of mastication ANS: C 102. Osteoclastic activity a. breaks down bone. b. decreases blood calcium. c. strengthens bones. d. is restricted to the epiphyseal disc.

ANS: A

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Chapter 09: Muscular System Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following muscles is described as striated and involuntary? a. Aponeurosis b. Smooth c. Skeletal d. Cardiac ANS: D 2. Actin is a. located within the neuromuscular junction. b. a contractile protein that is part of the thin filament. c. called the thick filament. d. stored within the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

ANS: B 3. Which of the following forms cross-bridges with actin? a. Sarcoplasmic reticulum b. T tubules c. Myosin d. Sarcolemma ANS: C 4. “Pumping iron” is most likely to cause a. atrophy. b. contracture formation. c. hypertrophy. d. muscular dystrophy.

ANS: C 5. The orbicularis oris muscle a. surrounds the mouth. b. flexes the head. c. is the smiling muscle. d. closes the eye.

ANS: A 6. Which of the following is not a facial muscle? a. Orbicularis oculi b. Zygomaticus c. Sternocleidomastoid d. Frontalis ANS: C

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7. Which muscle is located on the posterior area of the body? a. Latissimus dorsi b. Pectoralis major c. Quadriceps femoris d. Sternocleidomastoid ANS: A 8. Which group of muscles is located on the posterior thigh? a. Rotator cuff muscles b. Quadriceps femoris c. Hamstrings d. Muscles of mastication ANS: C 9. The biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus a. flex the foot. b. attach to the patella. c. are the hamstrings. d. are located on the anterior thigh.

ANS: C 10. The rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, and vastus intermedius a. insert on the calcaneus. b. flex the leg at the knee. c. are antagonistic to the quadriceps femoris. d. are the muscles of the quadriceps femoris.

ANS: D 11. The quadriceps femoris group and the hamstrings a. lie along the anterior part of the leg. b. flex the foot. c. lie along the thigh. d. shrug the shoulders.

ANS: C 12. Which flat muscle covers the forehead and raises the eyebrows (for a “surprised” look)? a. Frontalis b. Zygomaticus c. Masseter d. Buccinator ANS: A 13. The levator palpebrae superioris a. purses the lips. b. allows one to whistle. c. raises the eyelids.

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d. wiggles the nose.

ANS: C 14. The smiling muscle is the a. buccinator. b. zygomaticus. c. frontalis. d. orbicularis oris.

ANS: B 15. Which muscles are located between the ribs and help move the rib cage during breathing? a. Diaphragm b. Sternocleidomastoid c. Serratus anterior d. Intercostal muscles ANS: D 16. Which muscle is located in the lower extremities? a. Peroneus longus b. Latissimus dorsi c. Serratus anterior d. Pectoralis major ANS: A 17. Which group of muscles movNeU s tR heSaIrm hoOuM lder?

NGatTthBe.sC a. Quadriceps femoris group b. Hamstrings c. Rotator cuff muscles d. Muscles of mastication ANS: C 18.

The brachialis and brachioradialis a. flex the forearm at the elbow. b. extend the hand. c. are antagonistic to the biceps brachii. d. shrug the shoulders.

ANS: A 19. Which large muscle or muscle group extends the thigh at the hip? a. Sartorius b. Hamstring c. Rotator cuff d. Latissimus dorsi ANS: B 20. Which muscle attaches to the cranial aponeurosis and wrinkles the forehead?

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a. b. c. d.

Frontalis Buccinator Orbicularis oculi Platysma

ANS: A 21. “Make like a scarecrow” by contracting which muscle? a. Frontalis b. Trapezius c. Latissimus dorsi d. Deltoid ANS: D 22. Which muscle lies along the anterior surface of the humerus and acts synergistically with the

brachialis and brachioradialis to flex the forearm at the elbow?

Deltoid Triceps brachii Biceps brachii Latissimus dorsi

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 23. The gastrocnemius and the soleus are commonly called the a. swimmer’s muscles. b. toe dancer’s muscles. c. rotator cuff muscles. d. trumpeter’s muscles.

ANS: B 24. What is the name of the cord of connective tissue that connects muscle to bone? a. Ligament b. Tendon c. Linea alba d. Aponeurosis ANS: B 25. Which of the following is a series of contractile units that make up each myofibril (each unit

extends from Z line to Z line)?

Sarcomeres Synapses Fascicles Sarcoplasmic reticulum

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 26. Which structure is an extension of the sarcolemma or cell membrane, which penetrates the

interior of the muscle and carries the electrical signal to the deepest part of the muscle? a. Sarcoplasmic reticulum b. T tubule

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. Z line d. Tendon ANS: B 27. The sarcoplasmic reticulum a. stores ACh. b. is located within the neuromuscular junction. c. envelops the sarcomere-containing myofibrils. d. is a contractile protein.

ANS: C 28. What is the site of calcium storage in a relaxed skeletal muscle? a. T tubule b. Neuromuscular junction c. Fascicle d. Sarcoplasmic reticulum ANS: D 29. Acetylcholine is released from the neuron’s membrane in response to the a. nerve impulse. b. binding of the myosin heads to actin. c. release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. d. inactivation of acetylcholinesterase.

ANS: A 30. Which of the following is responsible for muscle relaxation? a. The sarcomere runs out of ATP. b. Calcium floods the area of the sarcomere, allowing for the interaction of actin and

myosin. c. Calcium is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. d. Acetylcholinesterase in the neuromuscular junction is depleted.

ANS: C 31. Which of the following describes a muscle that remains in a contracted state? a. Twitch b. Tetany c. Atrophy d. Hypertrophy ANS: B 32. Joey has had his leg in a non–weight-bearing cast for 8 weeks. When the cast is removed, the

diameter of the leg appears smaller than the uninjured leg. Which term best describes this observation? a. Contracture b. Hypertrophy c. Muscle dystrophy d. Disuse atrophy

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ANS: D 33. Which muscle covers the shoulder like a shoulder pad? a. Deltoid b. Trapezius c. Biceps brachii d. Sternocleidomastoid ANS: A 34. Which of the following “muscle words” refers to the chest? a. Rectus b. Latissimus c. Vastus d. Pectoralis ANS: D 35. Which muscle is located in the upper back and posterior neck region (contraction of this

muscle causes you to look up at the sky)?

Pectoralis major Sternocleidomastoid Trapezius Diaphragm

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 36. Which muscle separates the tN horR acicIandGabB do. mC inaM l cavities and is also the chief breathing

muscle? a. Serratus anterior b. Intercostal muscle c. Sternocleidomastoid d. Diaphragm

U S N T

ANS: D 37. Which muscle are you using as you turn your head down and to the left and then to the right? a. Sternocleidomastoid b. Frontalis c. Pectoralis major d. Diaphragm ANS: A 38. Which muscles are located on the inner (medial) surface of the thigh and move the thigh

toward the midline of the body?

Gastrocnemius Quadriceps femoris Adductors Sartorius

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

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39. Where is the vastus lateralis located? a. Arm b. Thigh c. Chest d. Back ANS: B 40. What is the function of the masseter muscle? a. Adducts the thigh b. Chews food c. Lifts the eyelid d. Flexes the forearm at the elbow ANS: B 41. The Achilles tendon attaches the soleus and which muscle to the calcaneus? a. Sartorius b. Quadriceps femoris c. Gastrocnemius d. Vastus lateralis ANS: C 42. On which large muscle do you sit? a. Latissimus dorsi b. Gastrocnemius c. Gluteus maximus d. Rectus femoris N R I G B.C M

U S N T

O

ANS: C

43. The rectus, transversus, internal oblique, and external oblique refer to a. smooth muscles. b. abdominal muscles. c. breathing muscles. d. muscles that are located on the back and work synergistically with the latissimus

dorsi.

ANS: B 44. Which muscle lies along the posterior surface of the arm and extends the forearm and is used

to bear weight in crutch walking? a. Biceps brachii b. Biceps femoris c. Deltoid d. Triceps brachii ANS: D 45. Which of the following increases the force of contraction of a whole muscle?

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a. Twitch

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b. Contracture c. Ossification d. Recruitment ANS: D 46. The force of muscle contraction is most related to the a. amount of calcium that is stored within the sarcoplasmic reticulum. b. amount of neurotransmitter released from the prejunctional vesicles. c. numbers of cross-bridges formed between actin and myosin. d. size of the somatic motor neuron.

ANS: C 47. With regard to skeletal muscle contraction, which event comes first? a. Cross-bridge formation between actin and myosin b. Release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum c. Activation of the NM receptor within the neuromuscular junction d. Release of neurotransmitter (ACh) from the somatic motor neuron ANS: D 48. With regard to skeletal muscle contraction, which event comes last? a. Shortening of the sarcomere b. Release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum c. Activation of the NM receptors by ACh d. Release of neurotransmitter (ACh) from the somatic motor neuron ANS: A 49. Which group is incorrect? a. Dysfunction at the neuromuscular junction: botulism, myasthenia gravis b. Contractile proteins: thin filaments, myosin, aponeurosis c. Terms that describe the muscle activity of a whole muscle: twitch, tetany d. Movements: flexion, supination, abduction ANS: B 50. Which group is incorrect? a. Types of striated muscle: skeletal, cardiac, smooth b. Movements: extension, pronation, adduction c. Movements: flexion, supination, abduction d. Muscles of the face: frontalis, buccinator, masseter ANS: A 51. Which group is incorrect? a. Muscles in the lower extremities: hamstrings, quadriceps, gastrocnemius b. Muscles involved in breathing: diaphragm, intercostals, hamstrings c. Terms that describe the muscle activity of a whole muscle: twitch, tetany d. Muscles in the upper extremities: triceps brachii, biceps brachii, pronators ANS: B

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52. Which type of muscle requires stimulation by a somatic motor neuron? a. Visceral b. Smooth c. Cardiac d. Skeletal ANS: D 53. Which of the following “slide” in the sliding filament hypothesis? a. Calcium and ATP b. Sarcoplasm and T tubules c. Actin and myosin d. Epimysium and perimysium ANS: C 54. Which of the following generates the force that causes the filaments to slide past each other? a. Binding of the acetylcholine to the NM receptor in the neuromuscular junction b. The interaction of acetylcholine and cholinesterase c. The rotation of the myosin head on the actin d. The pumping of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum ANS: C 55. Which of the following describes actin and myosin? a. Considered contractile proteins b. Form force-generating c rN o ss -Rb r i dIg e sG B.C M c. Sliding filaments d. All of the above

U S N T

O

ANS: D 56. Muscle relaxation a. b. c. d.

is a response to the binding of ACh to the receptor. occurs when calcium is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. is a response to the inactivation of acetylcholinesterase by ACh. occurs when the tendons lengthen.

ANS: B 57. As the electrical signal travels through the T tubules, it causes the a. release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. b. release of the neurotransmitter ACh from the axon terminal in the neuromuscular

junction. c. inactivation of the ACh within the neuromuscular junction. d. myosin heads to detach from the actin.

ANS: A 58. The somatic motor nerve that supplies the muscles of the thigh has been severed; therefore,

the person

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a. will be able to walk only if he or she receives IV calcium.

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b. cannot walk. c. can walk but has no feeling in the lower extremities. d. can stand but cannot walk.

ANS: B 59. Recruitment increases the a. force of muscle contraction. b. amount of cholinesterase in the neuromuscular junction. c. number of motor units that are activated. d. Two of the above are true.

ANS: D 60. Which of the following is an event that occurs within the neuromuscular junction? a. Sliding of actin and myosin b. Pumping of calcium back into the SR c. Binding of the acetylcholine to the nicotinic receptor on the muscle membrane d. Release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum ANS: C 61. Curare-induced muscle blockade at the NM receptors within the neuromuscular junction a. causes paralysis. b. induces tetanus. c. stimulates recruitment. d. causes loss of sensation with no effect on motor activity (muscle contraction).

ANS: A 62. Contraction of the right sternocleidomastoid muscle a. acts antagonistically to the pectoralis major. b. acts synergistically with the trapezius. c. hyperextends the head. d. rotates the head down and to the left.

ANS: D 63. Which of the following is true of the chewing muscles? a. Must be attached to the mandible b. Are smooth muscle c. Are called the muscles of deglutition d. Cannot tetanize ANS: A 64. The biceps brachii, brachioradialis, and brachialis muscles a. have their origin on the scapula. b. act synergistically with the triceps brachii. c. extend the forearm. d. flex the forearm at the elbow.

ANS: D

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65. Which of the following muscles is (are) located on the posterior body? a. Pectoralis major b. Latissimus dorsi c. Quadriceps femoris d. Rectus abdominis, transversus abdominis, internal oblique, external oblique ANS: B 66. Where are the pronators and supinators located? a. Thigh b. Abdomen c. Lower back d. Upper extremities ANS: D 67. A tendon a. is a series of sarcomeres. b. attaches muscle to bone. c. forms the Z line between each sarcomere. d. is also called an aponeurosis.

ANS: B 68. Which of the following does not refer to the thin filament? a. Myosin binding site b. Troponin c. Tropomyosin N R I G B.C M

U S N T

d.

O

Myosin

ANS: D 69. The somatic motor neuron a. b. c. d.

causes release of ACh into the NMJ. stimulates the SR to release calcium into the sarcomeres. moves the tropomyosin away from the myosin binding sites on actin. stimulates the axon terminal to release calcium into the NMJ.

ANS: A 70. Clinically, an elevated blood level of creatine phosphate is indicative of a. calcium deficiency. b. muscle damage. c. flaccid paralysis. d. hypertrophy.

ANS: B 71. A stronger force of muscle contraction develops when additional motor units are stimulated.

This is called a. recruitment.

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b. atrophy.

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c. hypertrophy. d. myasthenia.

ANS: A 72. The purpose of myoglobin is to a. store oxygen. b. sequester calcium. c. convert lactic acid to glucose. d. make the muscle red.

ANS: A 73. An aponeurosis a. is flat, sheetlike fascia. b. is composed of connective tissue. c. forms a site of attachment for skeletal muscle. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 74. Which of the following is composed of a series of sarcomeres? a. Myofibrils b. Aponeuroses c. Tendons d. Ligaments ANS: A 75. Which of the following activates the NM receptors within the neuromuscular junction? a. Acetylcholinesterase b. Calcium c. Troponin d. ACh ANS: D 76. Which of the following normally terminates muscle contraction? a. Depletion of ACh in the neuromuscular junction b. Binding of ACh to the NM receptors c. Pumping of calcium back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum d. Depletion of ATP within the sarcomere ANS: C 77. What is the stimulus for the release of ACh from the prejunctional membrane? a. Acetylcholinesterase b. Nerve action potential c. Release of calcium by the SR d. Muscle membrane electrical signal ANS: B

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78. To which contractile protein does calcium bind? a. Troponin b. Tropomyosin c. Actin d. Thick filament ANS: A 79. How does curare paralyze a muscle? a. Depletes the sarcomere of calcium b. Blocks the prejunctional release of ACh c. Blocks the postjunctional NM receptors d. Degrades the cholinesterase within the NMJ ANS: C 80. Creatine phosphate provides the skeletal muscle with a. energy used to synthesize ATP. b. lactic acid. c. oxygen. d. myoglobin.

ANS: A 81. Which of the following words means “muscle weakness”? a. Myoglobin b. Myopathy c. Myasthenia d. Atrophy N R I G B.C M

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O

ANS: C 82. Fascicles are a. b. c. d.

muscle fibers bound together by connective tissue.

ACh-filled vesicles.

ATP-filled vesicles. contractile proteins.

ANS: A 83. Acetylcholinesterase a. inactivates the NM receptors. b. is the stimulus for the release of calcium from the SR. c. degrades ACh. d. binds calcium, making it unavailable to the sarcomere.

ANS: C 84. Which of the following is classified as disuse, denervation, and senile? a. Hypertrophy b. Recruitment c. Dystrophy

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d.

Atrophy

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ANS: D 85. The muscles of mastication must insert on the a. maxilla. b. palatine bone. c. mandible. d. zygomatic bone.

ANS: C 86.

The orbicularis oculi encircles the eye. is the kissing muscle. purses the lips. lifts the eyelid.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 87. This muscle flattens the cheek and positions the food between the teeth. a. Masseter b. Temporalis c. Buccinator d. Zygomaticus ANS: C 88. Which of the following best describes a sphincter muscle? a. Oblique b. Encircle c. Straight d. Aponeurosis N R I G B.C M

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O

ANS: B

89. Which of the following is least related to the platysma? a. Pouting muscle b. Squinting c. Inserts on the mandible d. “Close your mouth,” says the dentist ANS: B 90. This muscle group has four muscles: two oblique, one rectus, and one transverse. a. Quadriceps femoris b. Hamstrings c. Adductors d. Abdominal ANS: D

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91. This large anterior chest muscle inserts on the anterior humerus and has its origins on the

clavicle, upper ribs, and sternum. It allows a person to point toward an object directly in front of him. a. Sternocleidomastoid b. Deltoid c. Erector spinae d. Pectoralis major ANS: D 92. This muscle group attaches to the linea alba. a. Hamstrings b. Adductors c. Abdominal d. Muscles of respiration ANS: C 93. The supinator and pronator muscles a. have their origin on the sternum and clavicle. b. act synergistically with the sternocleidomastoid muscles. c. are located in the lower extremities. d. change the position of the hand.

ANS: D 94. Which of the following is least related to the rectus femoris? a. Quadriceps femoris b. Anterior thigh c. Flexion of thigh at hip d. Forms the popliteal fossa ANS: D 95. Which of the following is true of the hamstrings? a. Extension of the thigh b. Forms posterior fossa c. Biceps femoris d. All of the above ANS: D 96. This long muscle lies obliquely across the anterior thigh. It allows you to sit in a crossed-leg

(lotus) position. It flexes the leg at the knee and abducts and laterally rotates the thigh at the hip. a. Hamstrings b. Quadriceps femoris c. Sartorius d. Gastrocnemius ANS: C 97. The calf muscle (gastrocnemius) attaches to the calcaneus by the

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a. b. c. d.

Achilles tendon. soleus. quadriceps ligament. popliteal ligaments.

ANS: A 98. The

inserts on the quadriceps ligament, causing extension of the leg at

the knee. rectus femoris semimembranosus gastrocnemius sartorius

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 99. If you are pointing directly behind you, your a. hamstrings b. pectoralis major c. gluteal muscles d. latissimus dorsi

is (are) contracting.

ANS: D 100. The rotator cuff muscles a. stabilize the shoulder joint. b. include the biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus. c. attach the radius and ulnaNto R t he I humGeru B s. .C M U S N T d. include the quadriceps fe m o ris , va stus lateraliO s, and vastus medialis.

ANS: A 101. The flexor carpi radialis and the flexor carpi ulnaris a. flex the forearm at the elbow. b. extend the forearm. c. flex the hand at the wrist. d. adduct the arm.

ANS: C 102. Muscles that cause movement of the hip attach to both the a. femur and tibia. b. sacrum and coxal bone. c. coxal bone and femur. d. hip bone and the coxal bone.

ANS: C

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Chapter 10: Nervous System: Nervous Tissue and Brain Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which branching structures carry information toward the cell body of a neuron? a. Synapses b. Axons c. Dendrites d. Nodes of Ranvier ANS: C 2. The neurotransmitters such as acetylcholine (ACh) are stored within the a. tips of the dendrites. b. cell body. c. postsynaptic receptors. d. axon terminals.

ANS: D 3. What is the name of the space between the axon of one neuron and the dendrite of a second

neuron?

Vesicle Cell body Synapse Node of Ranvier

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 4. What is the name of the enzyme that destroys acetylcholine? a. Dopamine b. ACh c. Acetylcholinesterase d. Norepinephrine ANS: C 5. What term describes the hopping of the action potential (nerve impulse) along the axon from

one node (of Ranvier) to the next?

Myelination Depolarization Saltatory conduction Repolarization

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 6. The frontal, temporal, occipital, and parietal lobes form the a. brain stem. b. cerebrum. c. cerebellum.

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d. reticular formation.

ANS: B 7. The primary somatosensory area and the primary motor area are separated by a. Broca’s area. b. the central sulcus. c. the pia mater. d. the longitudinal fissure.

ANS: B 8. There are four major areas of the brain: the cerebrum, diencephalon, brain stem, and a. hypothalamus. b. medulla oblongata. c. limbic system. d. cerebellum.

ANS: D 9. Which word best describes the precentral gyrus? a. Olfactory b. Visual c. Motor d. Language ANS: C 10. The midbrain, pons, and medN ulU laRoS blI oN ngG atT aB ar. eC reO feM rred to as the a. diencephalons. b. brain stem. c. limbic system. d. emotional brain.

ANS: B 11. Excessive opioids (narcotics) depress the medulla oblongata and therefore cause a. Parkinson’s disease. b. blindness. c. respiratory depression. d. hypertension.

ANS: C 12. Endorphins are a. natural morphine-like substances that can reduce anxiety and induce a sense of

well-being. b. energy sources much like ATP. c. secreted by the choroid plexus and circulated within the subarachnoid space. d. waste products generated by depolarizing neurons.

ANS: A

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13. The surface of the cerebrum is folded into elevations that resemble speed bumps; these speed

bumps are called a. fissures. b. sulci. c. foramen. d. convolutions, or gyri.

ANS: D 14. The depression between the convolutions of the cerebrum is called a a. pons. b. gyrus. c. sulcus. d. corpus callosum.

ANS: C 15. The medulla oblongata descends as the a. diencephalons. b. hypothalamus. c. cerebellum. d. spinal cord.

ANS: D 16. The pituitary gland sits beneath the a. medulla oblongata. b. brain stem. c. hypothalamus. d. cerebellum.

N R I G B.C M

U S N T

O

ANS: C

17. Which of the following best describes the arachnoid mater? a. Limbic system b. Meninges c. Blood–brain barrier d. Cranium ANS: B 18. The corpus callosum a. connects the right and left hemispheres. b. connects the hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary gland. c. lines the cerebral ventricles. d. connects the brain stem to the cerebellum.

ANS: A 19. In which cerebral lobe is Broca’s area located? a. Parietal b. Occipital

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c. Frontal

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d. Temporal ANS: C 20. Which of the following structures is most associated with “wake up”? a. Broca’s area b. Cerebellum c. Reticular activating system d. Thalamus ANS: C 21. The temporal lobe a. is a brain stem structure. b. is a cerebellar structure. c. contains the primary auditory cortex. d. is a large mass of white matter that joins the right and left cerebral hemispheres.

ANS: C 22. The occipital lobe a. is a brain stem structure. b. performs the “executive” functions. c. is called the vital center. d. contains the primary visual cortex.

ANS: D 23. The nodes of Ranvier a. are located along the postsynaptic membrane. b. increase the speed of the action potential. c. synthesize the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. d. store ACh in tiny vesicles.

ANS: B 24. Which of the following is located within the subarachnoid space? a. Blood b. Lymph c. Cerebrospinal fluid d. Cytoplasm ANS: C 25. What is the function of the ependymal cells of the choroid plexus? a. Synthesize neurotransmitters such as ACh b. Form cerebrospinal fluid c. Phagocytose debris d. Secrete myelin ANS: B 26. Which of the following is the type of nervous tissue that conducts a nerve impulse?

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a. b. c. d.

Astrocyte Neuroglia Neuron Ependymal cell

ANS: C 27. The astrocytes a. support and protect the neurons and help form the blood–brain barrier. b. secrete myelin. c. secrete cerebrospinal fluid. d. are concentrated within the choroid plexus.

ANS: A 28. What is the name of clusters of cell bodies that are located outside the central nervous system? a. Glia b. Nodes of Ranvier c. Nuclei d. Ganglia ANS: D 29. What is the fatty insulating material that surrounds the axons? a. Glia b. Choroid plexus c. Myelin d. Sarcolemma ANS: C 30. Which of the following is most related to “saltatory conduction”? a. Dendrites b. Choroid plexus c. Nodes of Ranvier d. Astrocytes ANS: C 31. Which of the following structures bring information toward the cell body? a. Dendrites b. Axons c. Nodes of Ranvier d. Axon terminals ANS: A 32. What makes white matter “white”? a. Cell bodies b. Neurotransmitters c. Synapses d. Myelin

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ANS: D 33. The inside of the unstimulated neuron is negative; this electrical charge is caused by the

outward leak of potassium and is called depolarization. the action potential. the resting membrane potential. the refractory period.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 34. What is the name of the first phase of the action potential that is caused by the inward

movement of sodium?

Repolarization Refractory period Depolarization Saltatory conduction

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 35. The cerebral spinal fluid a. is produced by the corpus callosum. b. cushions the brain, delivers nutrients to the brain, and removes wastes. c. circulates between the cranium and the brain. d. is secreted by the astrocytes.

ANS: B

N R I G B.C M

O 36. The repolarizing phase of the aU ctioS n poNtenT tial a. means that the inside of the cell is becoming more positive. b. is caused by the movement of sodium (Na+) into the cell. c. is caused by the movement of potassium (K+) out of the cell. d. is caused by the Na+/K+ pump located in the membrane.

ANS: C 37. Which of the following is the convolution located on the frontal lobe just anterior to the

central sulcus?

Broca’s area Primary motor area Somatosensory area Visual cortex

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 38. What is the name of the motor speech area located in the frontal lobe? a. The brain stem b. The pons c. Broca’s area d. The diencephalon ANS: C

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39. Which structure is also called the emotional brain? a. Cerebellum b. Basal ganglia c. Medulla oblongata d. Limbic system ANS: D 40. The purpose of the Na+/K+-ATPase pump in the neuronal membrane is to a. depolarize the membrane. b. repolarize the membrane. c. establish the Na+ and K+ gradients necessary for the development of an action

potential. d. secrete myelin.

ANS: C 41. This structure is part of the diencephalon; it regulates the anterior pituitary gland, water

balance, appetite, body temperature, and the autonomic nervous system.

Cerebellum Pons Medulla oblongata Hypothalamus

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 42. Which structure plays a key role in personality development and emotional and behavioral

expression and carries out t h eN“ eR x e c uIt i veG” fuBn. ctC ionsM? a. Cerebellum U S N T O b. Frontal lobe c. Basal ganglia d. Medulla oblongata ANS: B

43. Injury to the occipital lobe is most likely to cause a. hearing loss. b. paralysis. c. loss of vision. d. disturbances in gait.

ANS: C 44. Which structure is called the lateral, third, and fourth? a. Meninges b. Ventricles c. Cerebral lobes d. Parts of the brain stem ANS: B 45. Which of the following contains cerebrospinal fluid?

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a. Central sulcus

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b. Precentral gyrus c. Broca’s area d. Subarachnoid space ANS: D 46. Which of the following is the middle layer of the meninges and looks like a spiderweb? a. Dura mater b. Arachnoid mater c. Pia mater d. Reticular formation ANS: B 47. The corpus callosum a. connects the medulla oblongata and the spinal cord. b. is a band of gray matter that lines the ventricles. c. is the point at which all motor fibers decussate. d. connects the right and left cerebral hemispheres.

ANS: D 48. Parkinson’s disease a. is caused by a deficiency of dopamine within the basal ganglia. b. refers to any increase in intracranial pressure. c. is a demyelinating disease. d. is caused by a slow cerebral bleeding episode.

ANS: A 49. The medulla oblongata descends into the vertebral cavity through the a. corpus callosum. b. obturator foramen. c. central canal. d. foramen magnum.

ANS: D 50. The postcentral gyrus a. is the primary visual cortex. b. is located in the parietal lobe. c. contains the primary motor cortex. d. performs the “executive” functions.

ANS: B 51. The precentral gyrus a. is the primary motor area. b. is located in the parietal lobe. c. is called the vital center. d. contains the medulla oblongata.

ANS: A

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52. Broca’s area a. is concerned with motor speech. b. allows a person to hear and interpret sound. c. is located in the temporal lobe. d. coordinates eye movements, as in scanning a page in a book.

ANS: A 53. Frontal eye fields a. perform a motor role regarding the eyes. b. receive sensory information from the optic nerve. c. allow a person to interpret visual information. d. determine the color of the eyes.

ANS: A 54. Which group is incorrect? a. Parts of the brain: cerebrum, diencephalon, brain stem, cerebellum b. Meninges: pia mater, corpus callosum, dura mater c. Protective structures of the CNS: bone, meninges, cerebrospinal fluid, blood–brain

barrier d. Types of glia: astrocytes, ependymal cells, oligodendrocytes, microglia ANS: B 55. Which group is incorrect? a. Lobes of the cerebrum: frontal, parietal, occipital, temporal

b. Parts of the brain stem: ceNrU ebR ruS mI ,N p oG nT s, B m. edCuO llaMoblongata c. Divisions of the nervous system: central nervous system, peripheral nervous

system d. Electrical events: depolarization, repolarization, action potential ANS: B 56. The precentral gyrus a. is located in the frontal lobe. b. is the primary visual cortex. c. contains the primary somatosensory area. d. is called the vital center.

ANS: A 57. Which of the following is least descriptive of Broca’s area? a. Located in the frontal lobe b. Concerned with motor speech c. Most often located in the left cerebral hemisphere d. Is a brain stem structure ANS: D 58. Which of the following “brain claims” is true? a. The medulla oblongata is the upper part of the diencephalon.

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b. The hypothalamus is a brain stem structure. c. The medulla oblongata performs the “executive functions.” d. The midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata are infratentorial structures.

ANS: D 59. The medulla oblongata is a. an infratentorial structure. b. located in the brain stem. c. sensitive to the effects of opioids (narcotics). d. all of the above.

ANS: D 60. The postcentral gyrus a. is located in the frontal lobe. b. controls voluntary motor activity. c. sends all its information to the occipital lobe. d. contains the somatosensory area.

ANS: D 61. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) a. is formed by the choroid plexus. b. circulates around the CNS within the subarachnoid space. c. does not normally contain blood. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 62. Which of the following best describes the primary visual cortex and the primary auditory

cortex?

Choroid plexus and central canal Infratentorial and supratentorial Occipital and temporal Precentral gyrus and postcentral gyrus

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 63. The choroid plexus a. is the site where cerebrospinal fluid is formed. b. is part of the internal carotid artery. c. drains cerebrospinal fluid from the subarachnoid space. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: A 64. Which of the following relationships is true? a. Temporal lobe: Broca’s area b. Frontal lobe: somatosensory (touch, pressure, pain) c. Precentral gyrus: motor homunculus d. Temporal lobe: vital center

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ANS: C 65. Neuroglia a. are confined to the peripheral nervous system. b. include astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, Schwann cells, and ependymal cells. c. fire action potentials when stimulated. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: B 66. The phases of the action potential (nerve impulse) are a. excitatory and inhibitory. b. sensory and motor. c. depolarization and repolarization. d. dendrites and axons.

ANS: C 67. Myelination of the axon a. protects the neuron from wear and tear. b. waterproofs the axon from cerebrospinal fluid. c. increases the speed of the nerve impulse along the axon. d. keeps the axon warm so that it is sensitive to stimulation.

ANS: C 68. Which of the following is most descriptive of the nodes of Ranvier? a. Neurotransmitter-storing vesicles in the axon terminals N R I G B.C M Exposed U S N T(unmyObe.linated) axonal membrane c. Enlargements formed by a concentration of Schwann cells d. Patches of blood vessels called the choroid plexus ANS: B 69. The hypothalamus a. is superior to the brain stem. b. controls the pituitary gland. c. is also considered a gland because it secretes releasing hormones. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 70. Which of the following describes cerebral lateralization? a. Sensory and motor b. Afferent and efferent c. Right brain and left brain d. Neuronal and neuroglial ANS: C 71. The chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) a. sends information to the emetic center in the medulla oblongata. b. is called the vital center.

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c. is located in the precentral gyrus. d. is part of the visual cortex.

ANS: A 72. Which of the following best describes the tentorium? a. Extension of the dura mater b. Lining of the cerebral ventricles and central canal c. Another name for the arachnoid mater d. Another name for the corpus callosum ANS: A 73. The emetic center a. receives information from the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ). b. is located in the vertebra prominens. c. is the target of antipyretics. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: A 74. The gaze center a. is located in the postcentral gyrus. b. enables the eyes to track an object. c. is part of the primary auditory cortex. d. enables the brain to ignore repetitive background noise.

ANS: B N R I G B.C M

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75. The resting neuron a. is polarized. b. has an internal (+) charge. c. has an internal negativity because of the outward leak of Na+. d. has an internal negativity because of the inward leak of K+.

ANS: A 76. With regard to the action potential, a. the efflux of K+ causes repolarization. b. movement from the resting membrane potential to threshold potential is due to the

outward leak of K+. c. the Na+/K+ pump is responsible for repolarization. d. both depolarization and repolarization are due to an influx of Na+.

ANS: A 77. What happens when the resting nerve is stimulated to threshold potential? a. The efflux of K+ restores the resting membrane potential. b. An action potential fires. c. The Na+/K+ pump further depolarizes the cell. d. The membrane permeability to Na+ decreases.

ANS: B

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78. Which of the following is true of myelination? a. Occurs only at the nodes of Ranvier b. Increases the speed of the action potential along the axon c. Is responsible for the gray appearance of gray matter d. Increases the synthesis of neurotransmitters ANS: B 79. Neurotransmitters a. are released by the presynaptic axon terminals into the synapse. b. are stored within the axon terminals. c. are responsible in part for communication at the synapses. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 80. With regard to an action potential, the rapid efflux of K+ a. raises the resting membrane potential to threshold potential. b. restores the internal negativity of the neuron. c. causes depolarization. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: B 81. Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes a. are sensory neurons. b. synthesize myelin sheath of n e u r o n s i n the brain, spinal cord, and peripheral

N R I G B.C M

nerves. c. synthesize all neurotransmitters in the CNS. d. generate and conduct action potentials.

ANS: B

82. To which of the following are the words blood–brain barrier and glia most related? a. Saltatory conduction b. Nodes of Ranvier c. Action potentials d. Astrocytes ANS: D 83. Ependymal cells are a. Motor neurons b. Myelinated c. Concerned with the secretion of cerebrospinal fluid d. Meninges ANS: C 84. Which of the following structures contains the precentral gyrus, Broca’s area, and the primary

motor cortex? a. Frontal lobe

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b. Cerebellum c. Temporal lobe d. Parietal lobe ANS: A 85. With which of the following is the parietal lobe most associated? a. Precentral gyrus b. Somatosensory area c. Motor speech area d. “Executive” functions ANS: B 86. Which of the following is true of the occipital lobe? a. Contains the primary visual cortex b. Is a brain stem structure c. Is responsible for all signals sent along the pyramidal tract d. Contains the emetic center ANS: A 87. The emetic center and the CTZ a. are frontal lobe structures. b. are located within the floor of the fourth ventricle. c. are concerned with vomiting. d. receive sensory input only from a distended stomach.

ANS: C 88. Which is true of both the occipital and temporal lobes? Both a. are anterior to the central sulcus. b. are concerned exclusively with motor activity. c. are brain stem structures. d. are cerebral lobes.

ANS: D 89. Which of the following is not descriptive of the medulla oblongata? a. Brain stem structure b. Vital center c. Control of respirations d. “Executive” function ANS: D 90. The postcentral gyrus a. is a temporal lobe structure. b. contains the primary visual cortex. c. is a brain stem structure. d. performs a sensory role.

ANS: D

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91. Opioid-induced depression of the medulla oblongata is most likely to a. cause skeletal muscle paralysis. b. depress respiratory activity. c. decrease the synthesis of cerebrospinal fluid. d. induce a motor aphasia.

ANS: B 92. The pituitary gland is connected to a. the hypothalamus. b. the medulla oblongata. c. the corpus callosum. d. Broca’s area.

ANS: A 93. Which of the following is true of the diencephalon? a. Contains the thalamus and hypothalamus b. Is a brain stem structure c. Contains the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata d. Is called the vital center ANS: A 94. The corpus callosum a. is composed of gray matter. b. is one of the meningeal layers. I G B.C M N bralNhemTispherO c. connects the right and left cUereS e s. d. is the stalk that connects the hypothalamus with the pituitary gland.

ANS: C 95. Which of the following best illustrates cerebral lateralization? a. Narcotics depress medullary respiratory activity. b. In most people speech is a left hemisphere function. c. The precentral gyrus is motor, while the postcentral gyrus is sensory. d. The occipital lobe receives sensory information from both eyes.

ANS: B 96. Wernicke’s area a. is a frontal lobe structure. b. is the vomiting center. c. translates thought into words. d. is located within Broca’s area.

ANS: C 97. Which of the following is least related to basal nuclei? a. Dopamine-secreting cells b. Bands of white matter that connect the right and left cerebral hemispheres c. Deficit: Parkinson’s disease

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d. Deficit: shaking palsy ANS: B 98. A person is admitted to the ER following an auto accident. He has suffered a transsection of

the spinal cord at C3. Which statement is true?

All sensation below C3 is intact; motor function is lost.

All motor function below C3 is lost; sensation is intact.

He is ventilator dependent; all sensory and motor activity below C3 is lost.

He is hemiplegic.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 99. In an adult an increased intracranial pressure may a. cause a downward displacement of the brain stem. b. cause herniation of the medulla oblongata through the foramen magnum. c. cause sudden respiratory arrest and death. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 100. Antiemetic drugs a. dissolve any blood clots in the vomiting center. b. can affect the vomiting center and CTZ to relieve nausea and vomiting. c. induce vomiting in a person who ingests poison. d. reverse narcotic-induced respiratory depression.

ANS: B 101. Which of the following is least true of the reticular formation? a. Extends from the brain stem into the cerebral cortex b. Contains the RAS c. Nuclei within the reticular formation include the gaze center d. Also known as the emotional brain ANS: D 102. Which of the following is least true of the term REM? a. The most obvious characteristic is rapid eye movements. b. The key to restorative sleep is the elimination of REM. c. Most dreaming occurs during REM sleep. d. Characterized by fluctuations in blood pressure, heart rate, and rhythm.

ANS: B 103. LOC a. is an important assessment of a patient’s condition. b. refers to Lack Of Consciousness. c. cannot be affected by drugs or hypoxemia. d. is a stage of NREM sleep.

ANS: A

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104. Which of the following is true of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? a. Is formed from the blood within the dural sinuses b. Is formed across the walls of the arachnoid villi and is drained by the choroid plexi c. Contains water, electrolytes, and blood d. Circulates within the subarachnoid space and central canal ANS: D 105. CSF circulates through all of the following structures except the a. Subarachnoid space b. Foramen magnum c. Fourth ventricle d. Cerebral aqueduct ANS: B 106. Which of the following is true of the ependymal cells? a. Form the tentorium cerebelli b. Secrete dopamine c. Are part of the choroid plexus and secrete CSF d. Are myelinated and are responsible for the white appearance of the corpus

callosum ANS: C 107. What is the function of the arachnoid villi? a. Secretion of CSF from the blood within the dural sinuses into the subarachnoid

space b. Phagocytosis of germ-laden CSF c. Diffusion of CSF from the subarachnoid space into the blood within the dural

sinuses d. Synthesis of myelin sheath ANS: C 108. Which of the following best describes the location of arachnoid villi? a. Sitting within the choroid plexus b. Lining the central sulcus c. Protruding into the dural sinuses from the subarachnoid space d. Protruding from the dural sinuses into the subarachnoid space ANS: C 109. Which of the following is a consequence of a blocked cerebral aqueduct within the fetal

brain?

Meningitis Spina bifida Hydrocephalus Microcephalia

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 110. A supratentorial brain tumor is

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a. b. c. d.

always malignant. superior to the cerebral cortex. a brain stem tumor. superior to the tentorium cerebelli.

ANS: D 111. The “maters” a. are membranes that are restricted to the cranial cavity. b. are tough connective tissue membranes. c. are motor neurons. d. are meninges.

ANS: D

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Chapter 11: Nervous System: Spinal Cord and Peripheral Nerves Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is the major motor tract? a. Cauda equina b. Spinocerebellar c. Pyramidal d. Spinothalamic ANS: C 2. Which of the following is the best description of a motor tract? a. Spinothalamic tract b. Ascending tract c. Descending tract d. Gray matter ANS: C 3. To achieve spinal anesthesia, a -caine drug is injected into the a. lateral ventricle. b. central canal. c. subarachnoid space. d. dorsal root ganglia.

ANS: C 4. A hammer strikes the Achilles tendon to elicit which stretch reflex? a. Babinski b. Baroreceptor c. Patellar tendon d. Ankle jerk ANS: D 5. The fifth cranial nerve, called the

nerve, is a mixed nerve that detects sensations from

the scalp, face, and teeth. a. olfactory b. facial c. vestibulocochlear d. trigeminal ANS: D

nerve, “wanders” outside the head area and innervates the

6. The tenth cranial nerve, the

heart and gastrointestinal systems. a. trigeminal b. vagus c. olfactory

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d. spinal accessory ANS: B 7. The oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens are cranial nerves that a. innervate the extrinsic eye muscles (move the eyeball). b. innervate the levator palpebrae superioris (lift the eyelid). c. interpret sensory information from the optic nerve. d. innervate the muscles of mastication.

ANS: A 8. Which of the following is not descriptive of the optic nerve? a. Sensory b. Cranial nerve c. Move the eyeball d. Vision ANS: C 9. Which of the following is descriptive of cranial nerve VIII? a. Motor nerve b. Spinal nerve c. Vestibulocochlear d. Concerned with vision ANS: C 10. Which of the following is moNstUdR esScI ripNtiG veToBf. thC eO phMrenic nerve? a. Concerned with the sensation of smell b. Innervates the muscles of the eyeball c. Motor nerve supplying the diaphragm d. Sensory nerve concerned with balance ANS: C 11. Which of the following is least descriptive of the olfactory nerve? a. Sensory b. Concerned with the sense of smell c. Cranial nerve I d. Moves the tongue ANS: D 12. The somatic motor branch of the peripheral nervous system a. exits the spinal cord through the dorsal root. b. regulates heart rate. c. is the afferent branch of the peripheral nervous system. d. is an efferent branch of the peripheral nervous system.

ANS: D 13. Ptosis of the eyelid and dilated and fixed pupils reflect pressure on which nerve?

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a. b. c. d.

Optic Vagus Oculomotor Facial

ANS: C 14. Which of the following is located within the spinal cavity? a. Cauda equina b. Cervical plexus c. Brachial plexus d. Vagus nerve ANS: A 15. Damage to which nerve prevents extension of the hip and flexion of the knee? a. Axillary b. Phrenic c. Sciatic d. Median cubital ANS: C 16. Damage to the common peroneal nerve causes a. crutch palsy. b. deafness. c. footdrop. d. inability to breathe.

ANS: C 17. The ulnar, radial, and median nerves supply the a. forearm and hand. b. breathing muscles. c. jaw. d. hip and thigh.

ANS: A 18. A spinal cord injury at the level of C2 causes a. hemiplegia and blindness. b. paraplegia and deafness. c. quadriplegia and an inability to breathe. d. ptosis of the eyelid and dilated and fixed pupils.

ANS: C 19. An intramuscular injection into the buttocks is given in the upper outer quadrant in an attempt

to avoid injuring which nerve?

Common peroneal Phrenic Femoral Sciatic

a. b. c. d.

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ANS: D 20. An area of skin innervated by a spinal nerve is called a a. plexus. b. tract. c. dermatome. d. gyrus.

ANS: C 21. To evaluate this cranial nerve, the person is asked to stick out the tongue and the nurse notes

any deviation in the position of the protruded tongue. a. Trigeminal b. Hypoglossal c. Facial d. Olfactory ANS: B 22. A lumbar puncture is done by inserting a needle into the a. dural sinus. b. central canal. c. arachnoid villus. d. subarachnoid space.

ANS: D 23. The baroreceptor reflex contrNoU ls R a. posture. b. the amount of light that enters the eyes. c. body temperature. d. blood pressure.

ANS: D 24. The Babinski reflex is elicited by a. shining light into the eyes. b. tapping the patellar tendon. c. tapping the Achilles tendon. d. stroking the sole of the foot.

ANS: D 25. Which word best describes the following: spinothalamic, pyramidal, corticospinal? a. Meninges b. Plexuses c. Tracts d. Motor tracts ANS: C 26. The pyramidal tract

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a. originates in the pyramidal cells of the medulla oblongata and carries information

to the parietal lobe. b. is also called the corticospinal tract. c. is a sensory tract. d. is also called the spinothalamic tract.

ANS: B 27. The first, second, and eighth cranial nerves a. are concerned with vision. b. descend in the corticospinal tract. c. are sensory nerves. d. carry sensory information to the occipital lobe.

ANS: C 28. Which reflex is concerned with the regulation of blood pressure? a. Achilles’ tendon b. Babinski c. Patellar d. Baroreceptor ANS: D 29. Which reflex is stimulated by stroking the sole of the foot with a sharp object? a. Patellar b. Baroreceptor c. Babinski d. Gag N R I G B.C M

U S N T

O

ANS: C

30. If this reflex is not working, a person is in danger of choking on food. a. Baroreceptor b. Withdrawal c. Babinski d. Gag ANS: D 31. Damage to which cranial nerve causes blindness? a. I b. II c. III d. VIII ANS: B 32. Sensory nerve fibers travel from the periphery to the spinal cord through the a. dorsal root. b. efferent branch. c. pyramidal tracts

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d. descending tracts.

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ANS: A 33. A “dilated and fixed” pupil indicates pressure on which cranial nerve? a. Cranial nerve II b. Olfactory nerve c. Cranial nerve III d. Vestibulocochlear ANS: C 34. The gag reflex is mediated by which nerve? a. Optic nerve b. Oculomotor nerve c. Cranial nerve VIII d. Glossopharyngeal nerve ANS: D 35. Damage to which nerve causes crutch palsy? a. Sciatic b. Radial c. Axillary d. Pudendal ANS: C 36. Which of the following nerves is often “deadened” or anesthetized for the purpose of N R I G B.C M

childbirth? a. Pudendal b. Sciatic c. Cauda equina d. Phrenic

U S N T

O

ANS: A

37. At which structure are spinal nerves grouped and sorted? a. A ganglion b. A nucleus c. A plexus d. The cauda equina ANS: C 38. Which large nerve emerges from the distal end of the spinal cord and innervates the lower

extremities?

Pudendal Phrenic Sciatic Radial

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

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39. If the phrenic nerve were cut or severed, the patient would not be able to a. walk. b. speak. c. breathe. d. swallow.

ANS: C 40. Both the trigeminal and facial nerves participate in the a. gag b. Babinski c. baroreceptor d. corneal

reflex.

ANS: D 41. A person with damage to a. the facial nerve b. the vagus nerve c. cranial nerve II d. cranial nerve VIII

has the weakest blink.

ANS: A 42. A person with is most likely to require eyedrops in order to moisten the cornea. a. Bell’s palsy b. anosmia c. a severed optic nerve d. an impaired gag reflex ANS: A 43. Which of the following is true of the spinothalamic tract? a. Sensory for touch, pressure, and pain b. Pyramidal tract c. Descending tract d. Stimulates the skeletal muscles ANS: A 44. A surgical patient is given a curare-like drug intravenously, thereby blocking his NM

receptors. You would expect this patient to become jaundiced. bleed excessively during the postoperative period. require assistance breathing. have restraints on all four extremities to limit movement.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 45. The dermatome is most related to which of the following? a. Cranial nerves b. Lumbar puncture c. Spinal nerve distribution

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d. The autonomic nervous system ANS: C 46. The nerve (tract) carries sensory information toward the brain. a. phrenic b. pyramidal c. corticospinal d. spinothalamic ANS: D 47. Tic douloureux, or trigeminal neuralgia, is characterized by a. intense facial pain. b. diminished vision. c. hearing loss. d. hemiplegia.

ANS: A 48. Which group is incorrect? a. Cranial nerves: olfactory, optic, oculomotor b. Spinal nerves: phrenic, axillary, sciatic, vagus c. Plexuses: cervical, brachial, lumbosacral d. States of paralysis: paraplegia, quadriplegia, hemiplegia ANS: B 49. Which group is incorrect? a. Spinal nerves: phrenic, axillary, pudendal b. Reflexes: baroreceptor, withdrawal, pupillary, patellar, gag c. Nerve damage: crutch palsy, wristdrop, footdrop, Bell’s palsy d. Cranial nerves: vagus, facial, median cubital, oculomotor ANS: D 50. Which group is incorrect? a. Cranial nerves: olfactory, optic, oculomotor, vagus b. Plexuses: cervical, brachial, lumbosacral, cauda equina c. States of paralysis: paraplegia, quadriplegia, hemiplegia d. Nerves that affect eye movement: oculomotor, abducens, trochlear ANS: B 51. Which of the following is least true of the spinal cord? a. The spinal cord, like the brain, is protected by bone, meninges, CSF, and the

blood–brain barrier. b. The adult spinal cord extends the length of the spinal cavity. c. The gray matter is composed primarily of cell bodies and interneurons. d. The white matter is white because of myelin.

ANS: B

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52. Which tract arises within the spinal cord and ascends to the diencephalon? a. Corticospinal b. Spinothalamic c. Spinocerebellar d. Pyramidal ANS: B 53. Which of the following is true about the pyramidal tract? a. Its destination is the primary somatosensory cortex. b. It descends to the medulla oblongata, where most fibers decussate and descend on

the contralateral side of the body. c. It descends from the primary motor cortex on the ipsilateral side of the body. d. It connects the right and left cerebral hemispheres.

ANS: B 54. To which of the following do these characteristics apply: light touch, pressure, pain, and

temperature?

Corticospinal tract Pyramidal tract Corpus callosum Spinothalamic tract

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 55. A patient has suffered an injury to the right cerebral hemisphere and has left-sided paralysis.

Which word best explains t h iNs ? R I G B.C M a. Cerebral lateralization b. Demyelination c. Neuroplasticity d. Decussation ANS: D

56. Which of the following occurs last (patellar tendon reflex)? a. The effector organ contracts. b. The action potential travels along the efferent neuron to the quadriceps femoris. c. The action potential travels along the sensory neuron to the spinal cord. d. The muscle receptors of the quadriceps femoris are stimulated when the patellar

ligament is stretched.

ANS: A 57. All nervous reflexes a. are activated by stretch. b. are restricted to the movement of the appendicular skeleton. c. require a sensory and motor arm. d. involve the spinal cord.

ANS: C 58. The Roman numerals that designate the cranial nerves indicate

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a. b. c. d.

whether the nerves are sensory, motor, or mixed. the order in which the nerves exit the brain. the nerves that emerge from the frontal lobe. the nerves that use ACh as their neurotransmitters.

ANS: B 59. Which of the following is true of CNs III, IV, and VI? All a. are sensory and send information to the primary visual cortex. b. stimulate the levator palpebrae superioris to raise the eyelid. c. send information to the occipital lobe. d. move the eyeballs.

ANS: D 60. Which of the following is true of CN I, II, and VIII? All are a. sensory and send information to the primary visual cortex. b. motor and stimulate muscles that move the eyeballs. c. sensory and send information to the primary auditory cortex. d. sensory.

ANS: D 61. Excess pressure on this cranial nerve affects pupillary size and the activity of the levator

palpebrae superioris.

VIII II X III

a. b. c. d.

N R I G B.C M

U S N T

O

ANS: D

62. Which of the following is least related to CN VIII? a. Vestibular branch b. Primary auditory cortex c. Cochlear branch d. Wernicke’s area ANS: D 63. Sensory information is carried by the cochlear branch of CN VIII to the a. primary auditory cortex. b. occipital lobe. c. temporal lobe. d. More than one of the above are true.

ANS: D 64. Which of the following is least related to the olfactory nerve? a. CN I b. Impairment: anosmia c. Motor, causing flaring of the nares

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d. Smell

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ANS: C 65. Spinal nerves a. exit the spinal cord at the medulla oblongata. b. are purely sensory. c. all exit the spinal cord as extensions of the cauda equina. d. are mixed.

ANS: D 66. Which of the following is not true of Bell’s palsy? a. Facial nerve involvement b. CN VII c. Spasm: sternocleidomastoid bilaterally d. Impairment: blinking ANS: C 67. Ptosis of the eyelid and fixed/dilated pupil are indicative of a. damaged CN II. b. damage: primary visual cortex. c. inflammation of the facial nerve. d. excess pressure on the oculomotor nerve.

ANS: D 68. A piece of dirt blows into your left eye, embedding in the cornea. Which of the following is

not part of a reflex that is actN i vU at R e dS? I N G T B.C O M

a. CN V carries pain information to the brain. b. The ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve carries sensory information to the

primary visual cortex. c. Facial nerve stimulation results in blinking. d. CN VII stimulation causes tearing or an increase in lacrimation.

ANS: B 69. Which of the following is least related to tic douloureux? a. Trigeminal neuralgia b. Excruciating face pain c. Triggers: chewing, shaving, talking, smiling, and exposure to cold d. Impairment: bone conduction deafness ANS: D 70. Which of the following is the most serious consequence of a damaged or anesthetized

glossopharyngeal nerve? Impaired a. secretion of salivary glands and dry mouth. b. corneal reflex and corneal scarring. c. gag reflex and aspiration of food and water into the respiratory passages. d. swallowing causing starvation.

ANS: C

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71. Unlike most cranial nerves, this cranial nerve innervates organs in the thorax and

abdominopelvic cavity.

Glossopharyngeal Phrenic Vagus Trigeminal

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 72. Which of the following is least descriptive of the phrenic nerve? a. Primarily afferent fibers b. Spinal nerve c. Diaphragm and ventilation d. Cervical plexus ANS: A 73. What is described: cervical (8), thoracic (12), lumbar (5), sacral (5), and coccygeal (1)? a. Number of nerve plexi b. Sensory nerves of the peripheral nervous system c. Levels at which most motor neurons decussate d. Spinal nerves ANS: D 74. Which of the following is not true of the median, radial, and ulnar nerves? a. Innervate the muscles of t h e upper extremities N R I G B.C M b. Spinal nerves c. Mixed nerves d. Emerge from the cervical plexus ANS: D 75. Identify the disorder: clusters of vesicles develop along cranial or spinal dermatomes; herpes

zoster; postherpetic neuralgia.

Multiple sclerosis Shingles Myasthenia gravis Trigeminal neuralgia

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

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Chapter 12: Autonomic Nervous System Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is most related to the “feed-and-breed” system? a. Pyramidal tracts b. Sympathetic nervous system c. Craniosacral outflow d. Rapid heart rate, palpitations, sweating ANS: C 2. Which of the following is most characteristic of the parasympathetic nervous system? a. Adrenergic b. Norepinephrine c. Fight-or-flight response d. Feed-and-breed system ANS: D 3. Which neurotransmitter is secreted by a cholinergic fiber? a. Adrenaline b. Epinephrine c. Acetylcholine d. Norepinephrine ANS: C 4. What is another term for thoracolumbar outflow? a. Vagal discharge b. Parasympathetic nervous system c. Sympathetic nervous system d. Limbic system ANS: C 5. Which of the following is not an effector organ for the autonomic nerves? a. Skeletal muscle b. Visceral smooth muscle c. Glands d. Cardiac muscle ANS: A 6. Which of the following is characteristic of the parasympathetic nervous system? a. Fight-or-flight response b. Thoracolumbar c. Paravertebral ganglia d. Postganglionic fiber is cholinergic ANS: D

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

7. Which of the following is characteristic of the sympathetic nervous system? a. Craniosacral outflow b. Cholinergic fibers only c. Paravertebral ganglia d. Postganglionic transmitter is ACh ANS: C 8. The effects of adrenal medullary secretion most resemble a. craniosacral outflow. b. firing of the somatic motor neurons. c. sympathetic nerve discharge. d. vagal discharge.

ANS: C 9. An adrenergic fiber is one that a. innervates the adrenal medulla. b. is a preganglionic fiber. c. originates in the midbrain. d. secretes norepinephrine as its transmitter.

ANS: D 10. Which of the following is an adrenergic fiber? a. Postganglionic parasympathetic b. Preganglionic sympathetic c. Preganglionic parasympathetic d. Postganglionic sympathetic ANS: D 11. Sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves a. are somatic motor neurons. b. supply voluntary skeletal muscles. c. include the phrenic, sciatic, and brachial nerves. d. innervate the viscera.

ANS: D 12. A drug that causes the heart to beat stronger and faster is called a. parasympatholytic. b. sympathomimetic. c. sympatholytic. d. anticholinergic.

ANS: B 13. Which of the following is an effect of postganglionic parasympathetic discharge? a. Slowed heart rate b. Increased blood pressure c. Dilation of the pupil of the eye

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d. Stronger contraction of the heart ANS: A 14. Vasomotor tone is a. a vasoconstrictor effect caused by background firing of the sympathetic nerves. b. a vagally induced peripheral vasodilation. c. caused by parasympathomimetic drugs. d. caused by sympatholytic drugs.

ANS: A 15. Paravertebral ganglia a. are part of the craniosacral outflow. b. “drive” the vagus nerve. c. are located within the organs of innervation. d. are also called the sympathetic chain ganglia.

ANS: D 16. Which of the following is least descriptive of thoracolumbar outflow? a. Fight or flight b. Muscarinic and nicotinic receptors c. Sympathetic nervous system d. Paravertebral ganglia ANS: B 17. Alpha and beta receptors are a. associated with the parasympathetic nervous system. b. associated with craniosacral outflow. c. located on the paravertebral ganglia. d. activated by norepinephrine.

ANS: D 18. Which of the following is least associated with monoamine oxidase (MAO)? a. Enzyme that degrades norepinephrine b. Found within all cholinergic nerve terminals c. Associated with sympathetic activity d. Associated with adrenergic fibers ANS: B 19. A beta1-adrenergic agonist a. increases heart rate. b. causes the release of acetylcholine. c. blocks the effects of norepinephrine at its receptor site. d. lowers blood pressure.

ANS: A 20. Atropine is classified as a muscarinic antagonist or blocker and therefore is

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a. b. c. d.

parasympathomimetic. sympatholytic. vagolytic. sympathomimetic.

ANS: C 21. Muscarinic receptors are a. activated by norepinephrine. b. located on the effector organs of the sympathetic nervous system. c. activated by catecholamines such as adrenalin and dopamine. d. activated by ACh. ANS: D 22. Which of the following is least true of the vagus nerve? a. Cholinergic b. Slows heart rate c. Effect on the heart is eliminated by a beta1-adrenergic blocker d. Transmitter is ACh ANS: C 23.

Vagal discharge activates a. muscarinic receptors. b. alpha1-adrenergic receptors. c. beta1-adrenergic receptors. d. the paravertebral ganglia.

ANS: A

24. Sympathetic nervous system stimulation causes vasoconstriction of the blood vessels, thereby

elevating blood pressure. Which of the following drug classifications lowers blood pressure? a. Vagolytic b. Sympatholytic c. Parasympathomimetic d. Vagomimetic ANS: B 25. Sympathetic nerve stimulation causes relaxation of the breathing passages (bronchodilation).

Which of the following drug classifications achieves this effect?

Beta2-adrenergic agonist Alpha1-adrenergic blocker Vagomimetic Parasympathomimetic

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 26. A preoperative patient received an antimuscarinic drug (atropine). Which drug-related

postoperative consequence is this patient likely to experience? a. Decreased heart rate b. Difficult urination

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. Elevated blood pressure d. Excess salivation ANS: B 27. A patient has vagally induced bradycardia (slow heart rate). Which of the following will

relieve the bradycardia?

Muscarinic antagonist Beta1-adrenergic blocker Vagomimetic drug Alpha1-adrenergic agonist

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 28. Which of the following is most descriptive of dual innervation of the autonomic nervous

system?

Muscarinic and nicotinic Alpha and beta Sympathetic and parasympathetic Beta1 and beta2

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 29. Which group is incorrect? a. Adrenergic receptors: alpha, beta b. Cholinergic receptors: muscarinic, nicotinic c. Neurotransmitters: norepinephrine, ACh, dopamine d. Sympathetic responses: dNe c r eRa s eI d b lG o o dBp.r eCs s u rMe , decreased heart rate, anxiety ANS: D 30. Which of the following is least related to the sympathetic nervous system? a. Vagomimetic effect b. Adrenergic fibers c. Alpha and beta receptors d. Paravertebral ganglia ANS: A 31. Which of the following is most related to the postganglionic sympathetics? a. Muscarinic receptors b. ACh c. Alpha and beta receptor activation d. Craniosacral outflow ANS: C 32. Muscarinic receptors are associated with a. paravertebral ganglia. b. preganglionic parasympathetic fibers. c. postganglionic parasympathetic fibers. d. all fibers that secrete ACh.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: C 33. Which of the following is (are) most related to the muscarinic receptors? a. Paravertebral ganglia b. ACh c. Fight-or-flight response d. Adrenergic fibers ANS: B 34. Which of the following is true of the preganglionic fibers of both the sympathetic and

parasympathetic nervous systems? Both are adrenergic. secrete ACh. synapse at the paravertebral ganglia. are targets of beta blockers.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 35. Muscarinic activation is a. a consequence of vagal discharge. b. a response to the binding of NE to its adrenergic receptors. c. a fight-or-flight response. d. achieved by sympathetic discharge.

ANS: A 36. A vagolytic effect a. is a fight-or-flight response. b. is achieved by beta blockade. c. increases heart rate. d. refers to muscarinic activation.

ANS: C 37. Beta adrenergic blockade a. dilates the respiratory bronchioles and therefore relieves the symptoms of asthma. b. is apt to induce tachycardia. c. decreases heart rate but also causes bronchoconstriction. d. mimics sympathetic outflow.

ANS: C 38. Which of the following is true of AChase, MAO, and COMT? a. Terminate adrenergic receptor activation b. Are enzymes that degrade neurotransmitters c. Are adrenergic neurotransmitters d. Are neurotransmitters that activate nicotinic receptors ANS: B 39. An anticholinergic or antimuscarinic effect a. causes miosis and bradycardia.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. is characterized by an increased heart rate and urinary retention. c. resembles a vagomimetic response. d. resembles a fight-or-flight response.

ANS: B 40. Which of the following is descriptive of a panic attack? a. Muscarinic activation b. Vagomimetic c. Fight or flight d. All of the above ANS: C 41. Increased heart rate, increased blood pressure, bronchodilation, diaphoresis, and pupillary

dilation (mydriasis) are consequences of activation of the adrenergic receptors. anticholinergic effect. vagomimetic activity. alpha1 blockade.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 42. Thoracolumbar outflow is described as a. fight or flight. b. vagomimetic. c. sympathomimetic. d. More than one of the abo ve a r e true.

N R I G B.C M U S N T O

ANS: D

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Chapter 13: Sensory System Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is the name of the specialized area of a sensory neuron that detects a specific stimulus? a. Tract b. Receptor c. Dorsal root d. Node of Ranvier ANS: B 2. Photoreceptors detect a. heat. b. acid. c. light. d. tissue distortion.

ANS: C 3. A nociceptor detects a. pain. b. light. c. radiation. d. [H+].

ANS: A 4. Olfaction refers to the sense of a. vision. b. taste. c. smell. d. equilibrium.

ANS: C 5. The gustatory sensation is most related to the a. eighth cranial nerve. b. rods and cones. c. organ of Corti. d. taste buds.

ANS: D 6. The colored part of the eye that contains the intrinsic eye muscles, including the circular

muscle and the radial muscles, is known as (the) suspensory ligaments. iris. retina. macula lutea.

a. b. c. d.

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ANS: B 7. Which structure is attached to the lens, causing its shape to be changed? a. Retina b. Iris c. Cornea d. Suspensory ligaments ANS: D 8. Which of the following is least related to the retina? a. Rods and cones b. Fovea centralis c. Cornea d. Macula lutea ANS: C 9. Which cerebral lobe is concerned primarily with vision? a. Precentral gyrus b. Postcentral gyrus c. Occipital d. Corpus callosum ANS: C 10. Which of the following structures secretes tears? a. Lacrimal gland ANS: A b. Optic disc c. Canal of Schlemm d. Ciliary body

11. Which of the following structures is located outside the eye? a. Conjunctiva b. Ciliary body c. Lens d. Vitreous humor ANS: A 12. Rods a. are concentrated in the macula lutea. b. detect red, yellow, and blue colors. c. are concerned with night vision. d. are located in the occipital lobe.

ANS: C 13. Which layer of the eyeball supplies blood to the retina? a. Rods and cones

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b. Sclera c. Choroid d. Iris ANS: C 14. The superior rectus muscle a. causes miosis. b. causes mydriasis. c. moves the eyeball. d. regulates accommodation.

ANS: C 15. Which of the following is located in the posterior cavity of the eyeball? a. Vitreous humor b. Cornea c. Lens d. Ciliary muscle ANS: A 16. Which of the following is least related to the optic nerve? a. Cranial nerve II b. Sensory nerve c. Conveys information from the retina to the occipital lobe d. Innervates the extrinsic eye muscles ANS: D 17. An increase of intraocular pressure is most likely to cause a. cataracts. b. damage to the retina, leading to blindness. c. macular degeneration. d. night blindness.

ANS: B 18. The sclera a. is the outer layer of the eyeball. b. contains the rods and cones. c. secretes aqueous humor. d. is the attachment site for the suspensory ligaments.

ANS: A 19. A cataract is a a. retinal detachment. b. bulging optic disc. c. cloudy lens. d. scarred cornea.

ANS: C

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20. What is the location of the semicircular canals and the cochlea? a. Inner ear b. Middle ear c. Outer ear d. Pharynx ANS: A 21. The malleus, incus, and stapes are called (the) a. organ of Corti. b. hearing receptors. c. ossicles. d. cartilage.

ANS: C 22. These hairlike receptors are located in the cochlea. a. Ossicles b. Rods and cones c. Organ of Corti d. Adenoids ANS: C 23. What is the name of the tube that connects the pharynx and middle ear? a. Vestibule b. Oval window c. Eustachian d. Cochlea ANS: C 24. Which structure separates the outer ear from the middle ear? a. Tympanic membrane b. Pinna c. Round window d. Oval window ANS: A 25. Which ossicle sits in the oval window? a. Malleus b. Hammer c. Stapes d. Incus ANS: C 26. Bone conduction occurs in the a. outer ear. b. middle ear. c. inner ear.

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d. semicircular canals.

ANS: B 27. Cerumen collects in the a. middle ear. b. inner ear. c. outer ear. d. eustachian tube.

ANS: C 28. Which of the following is least related to the vestibulocochlear nerve? a. Cranial nerve VIII b. Cochlear branch sends information to the temporal lobe c. Concerned with both hearing and balance d. Classified as a motor nerve ANS: D 29. The semicircular canals are concerned with a. the secretion of cerumen. b. equalizing pressure across the tympanic membrane. c. balance. d. smell.

ANS: C 30. Which cerebral lobe is conceN rnU edRpSriI mNarGilT yB w. ithChOeM aring? a. Occipital b. Cerebellum c. Corpus callosum d. Temporal ANS: D 31. What is the condition caused by impaired drainage of aqueous humor through the canal of

Schlemm that increases intraocular pressure?

Cataracts Glaucoma Strabismus Conjunctivitis

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 32. Rods and cones are a. glial cells. b. refracting structures. c. visual reflexes. d. visual receptors.

ANS: D

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33. What is the condition caused by unequal tension exerted by the extrinsic eye muscles? a. Pink eye b. Strabismus c. Glaucoma d. Cataracts ANS: B 34. What does a “choked disc,” or papilledema, indicate? a. Increased intraocular pressure b. Glaucoma c. Increased intracranial pressure d. Strabismus ANS: C 35. What is the effect of contraction and relaxation of the ciliary muscle? a. Dilated pupil b. Change in the shape of the lens c. Raised eyelid d. Blinking ANS: B 36. The gel-like substance that gently pushes the retina against the choroid and maintains the

shape of the eyeball is a. aqueous humor. b. vitreous humor. c. lacrimal secretions. d. perilymph.

ANS: B

37. What is the function of the vestibule and the semicircular canals? a. Hearing b. Smell c. Balance d. Touch and pressure ANS: C 38. Which of the following is most related to refraction? a. Rods and cones b. Retina c. Lens d. Light ANS: C 39. Which of the following is one of the special senses? a. Touch b. Pain c. Balance

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d. Proprioception ANS: C 40. Which of the following is concerned with the sense of smell? a. Vestibulocochlear nerve b. Eighth cranial nerve c. Organ of Corti d. Olfaction ANS: D 41. There is a heavy concentration of cones in this area of the retina. a. Fovea centralis b. Iris c. Optic disc d. Cornea ANS: A 42. What is the name of the venous sinuses that drain the aqueous humor? a. Lateral canthus b. Macula lutea c. Canal of Schlemm d. Pupil ANS: C 43. Which structure is affected bN yU thR eS coI ntN raGctT ioB n. anCdOrM elaxation of the ciliary muscles? a. Cornea b. Lens c. Macula lutea d. Optic chiasm ANS: B 44. Which of the following is considered the blind spot? a. Macula lutea b. Optic chiasm c. Fovea centralis d. Optic disc ANS: D 45. In which condition is the eyelid not completely raised, thereby making the person appear

sleepy?

Glaucoma Cataracts Ptosis of the lid Lid lag

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

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46. Myopia, farsightedness, and astigmatism are a. errors of refraction. b. infections of the eye. c. types of strabismus. d. conditions of elevated intraocular pressure.

ANS: A 47. Lysozyme, an enzyme with antimicrobial activity, is found in a. tears. b. vitreous humor. c. aqueous humor. d. endolymph.

ANS: A 48. The Eustachian tube connects the pharynx (throat) with which structure? a. Cochlea b. Semicircular canals c. Middle ear d. External auditory meatus ANS: C 49. Which of the following is most related to the sense of hearing? a. Semicircular canals b. First cranial nerve c. Organ of Corti d. Vestibular nerve ANS: C 50. What is another name for the tympanic membrane? a. Stirrup b. Oval window c. Eardrum d. Organ of Corti ANS: C 51. Which ossicle picks up vibrations from the tympanic membrane? a. Stapes b. Malleus c. Stirrup d. Incus ANS: B 52.

Cerumen is a. earwax. b. inner ear fluid. c. fluid that bends the organ of Corti. d. inner ear fluid that stimulates the balance receptors in the semicircular canals.

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ANS: A 53. Which of the following is most related to the stapes? a. Cerumen b. Semicircular canal c. Organ of Corti d. Middle ear ossicle ANS: D 54. The optic nerve a. receives sensory information from mechanoreceptors. b. transmits sensory information to the temporal lobe. c. is cranial nerve III. d. receives sensory information from the retina.

ANS: D 55. The occipital lobe a. receives information from cranial nerve III. b. sends motor information to the iris, thereby controlling pupillary size. c. receives sensory information from cranial nerve II. d. contains the primary auditory cortex.

ANS: C 56. The choroid a. contains the blood vesselN s tU haRtS noIuN riG shTthBe.rC etiO naM. b. secretes aqueous humor. c. is the window of the eye. d. is avascular.

ANS: A 57. Tactile receptors are a. located behind the lens in the vitreous humor. b. located within the semicircular canals. c. activated by touch and pressure. d. nociceptors.

ANS: C 58. The medial canthus and lateral canthus are a. corners of the eye where the upper and lower eyelids meet. b. lacrimal glands. c. ducts through which tears drain into the nose. d. sites of attachment for the medial and lateral rectus muscles.

ANS: A 59. Contraction of the orbicularis oculi a. raises the eyelid.

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b. is innervated by the optic nerve. c. closes the eye. d. flattens the lens during refraction.

ANS: C 60. The conjunctiva a. covers the cornea. b. is a mucous membrane. c. contains blood vessels that nourish the retina. d. secretes aqueous humor.

ANS: B 61. Which of the following best describes pupillary dilation? a. Miosis b. Refraction c. Amblyopia d. Mydriasis ANS: D 62. Which of the following equipment is used to elicit the photopupillary reflex? a. Hammer b. Penlight c. Bell d. Snellen chart ANS: B

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63. Contraction of the radial muscles of the iris causes a. mydriasis. b. pinpoint pupils. c. both eyeballs to gaze skyward. d. both eyeballs to deviate medially.

ANS: A 64. Pinpoint pupils a. describe the size of the pupils in a darkened room. b. are caused by the contraction of the circular muscles of the iris. c. are caused by mydriatic drugs. d. are caused by the contraction of the radial muscles of the iris.

ANS: B 65. Which group is incorrect? a. Tunics of the eyeball: sclera, choroid, retina b. General senses: pain, temperature, touch, pressure, proprioception c. Special senses: hearing, sight, smell, taste, balance d. Errors of refraction: myopia, farsightedness, astigmatism, glaucoma ANS: D

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66. Which group is incorrect? a. Special senses: hearing, sight, smell, taste, balance, pain, pressure b. Errors of refraction: myopia, farsightedness, astigmatism, presbyopia c. Structures of the inner ear: semicircular canals, vestibule, cochlea d. Ossicles: malleus, incus, stapes ANS: A 67. Which of the following groups is incorrect? a. Photoreceptors: rods, cones b. Mechanoreceptors: blood concentrations of glucose and H+ c. Light: photoreceptors d. Mechanoreceptors: bending, distortion ANS: B 68. Pain, proprioception, touch, and pressure are a. general senses. b. experienced only in the frontal lobe. c. experienced largely in the brain stem. d. dependent on intact pyramidal and extrapyramidal tracts.

ANS: A 69. Which of the following words best explains phantom limb pain? a. Adaptation b. Cerebral lateralization NURSINGTB.COM c. Projection d. Convergence ANS: C

70. Which of the following is the best example of referred pain? a. A person has an abscessed tooth and is complaining of severe pain in the same

jaw. b. A person with a history of gallbladder disease eats a high-fat meal. She complains

of midepigastric pain and pain beneath her right scapula. c. A person stubs his right great toe and is observed hopping along on his left leg. d. A football wide receiver pulls a hamstring and must be supported while walking

off the field obviously favoring the affected leg.

ANS: B 71. With which of the following is the spinothalamic tract associated? a. Sensation of touch, pressure, temperature, and pain b. Photopupillary reflex c. Movement of the eyeballs d. Primary motor cortex ANS: A 72. With which word is a drug-induced metallic taste and umami most associated?

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a. b. c. d.

Proprioception Ataxia Adaptation Gustatory sensation

ANS: D 73. Eyelids are described by which of the following? a. Palpebrae and canthi (medial and lateral) b. Circular and radial muscles c. Cornea and sclera d. Accommodation and convergence ANS: A 74. The levator palpebrae superioris a. moves the eyeball. b. closes the eye. c. raises the eyebrows as in the “surprised” look. d. lifts the eyelids when contracted.

ANS: D 75. Mydriasis a. refers to pupillary dilation. b. is a response to muscarinic activation. c. occurs when the circular muscle of the iris constricts. d. reduces the amount of ligN ht thRat eInt eG rs thBe.eC ye. M ANS: A

U S N T

O

76. An anticholinergic drug such as atropine a. causes miosis. b. causes the circular muscles to contract. c. causes ptosis of the eyelid. d. dilates the pupil.

ANS: D 77. Which of the following “pupil events” is a true statement? a. Muscarinic activation causes mydriasis. b. Muscarinic blockade induces miosis. c. Alpha1 activation causes the radial muscle to contract, causing mydriasis. d. Pupil diameter is determined by the rectus and oblique extrinsic eye muscles.

ANS: C 78. Which of the following is true regarding the corneal reflex? a. The trigeminal nerve is its motor arm, carrying pain information. b. CN VII is the motor arm of the reflex causing tearing and blinking. c. The facial nerve is the sensory arm of the reflex. d. CN VII carries pain signals from the cornea to the brain.

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ANS: B 79. Which of the following is most related to the conjunctiva? a. Is the mucous membrane that forms the inner lining of the eyelids b. Is the vascular layer of the eyeball; it supplies the retina with blood c. Is composed of circular and radial muscles d. Forms the cornea, the window of the eye ANS: A 80. On its way to the retina light does not pass through this structure. a. Pupil b. Vitreous humor c. Choroid d. Cornea ANS: C 81. Which of the following is not true of the lens? a. Changes in the shape of the lens affect the refraction of light. b. Clouding of the lens is called a cataract. c. Cataracts impair vision by decreasing the amount of light that reaches the retina. d. Its shape is changed by contraction of the muscles of the iris.

ANS: D 82. Aqueous humor a. is secreted by the macula lute a.

N R I G B.C M b. circulates in the space betwU eenStheNchoTroid a nO d retina. c. is drained through the canal of Schlemm. d. gently pushes the retina against the choroid.

ANS: C

83. Diminished drainage of aqueous humor through the canal of Schlemm a. elevates intraocular pressure causing glaucoma. b. causes a choked disc or papilledema. c. causes strabismus. d. paralyzes the muscles of accommodation.

ANS: A 84. The vitreous humor a. is found in the anterior cavity of the eyeball. b. is drained through the canal of Schlemm. c. gently pushes the retina against the vascular choroid. d. circulates from the posterior cavity into the anterior cavity through the pupil.

ANS: C 85. Refracted light should focus on the a. lens. b. optic chiasm.

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c. optic disc. d. retina.

ANS: D 86. The four rectus muscles and two oblique muscles a. determine pupillary size. b. move the eyeball. c. are innervated by CNs III, IV, and VI. d. More than one of the above are true.

ANS: D 87. The ciliary muscles a. move the eyeball. b. change the shape of the lens. c. regulate pupillary response to light. d. cause blinking and tearing as the motor response of the corneal reflex.

ANS: B 88. Which of the following is not part of the visual pathway? a. Optic chiasm b. Optic nerve c. Photoreceptors d. Vitreous humor ANS: D

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89. The fovea centralis and macula lutea a. secrete aqueous humor. b. are richly populated with cones. c. are primarily responsible for night vision. d. cover the surface of the optic disc.

ANS: B

90. The optic disc a. is densely populated with cones. b. is densely populated with rods. c. refracts light. d. contains no photoreceptors; it is the blind spot.

ANS: D 91. What happens at the optic chiasm? a. Fibers from CN III and the optic nerve join together and travel to the primary

visual cortex. b. Fibers of the optic nerve cross to the opposite side of the brain. c. Light is refracted. d. Muscle contraction moves the eyeball in its socket.

ANS: B

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92. Bending of light waves is a. called convergence. b. the function of the lens. c. called accommodation. d. determined by CNs III, IV, and VI. ANS: B 93. The macula lutea, fovea centralis, and photoreceptors are most associated with this structure. a. Choroid b. Optic chiasm c. Lens d. Retina ANS: D 94. The optic nerve a. carries electrical signals from the retina to the primary visual cortex. b. is CN III. c. is the sensory arm of the corneal reflex. d. is mixed.

ANS: A 95. Which of the following occur as an object is moved closer to the eyes? a. Mydriasis and miosis b. Accommodation and convergence G B.C M O c. Muscarinic and alpha1 actiN vUatR i oSn N T d. Contraction of the levator palpebrae superioris and relaxation of the orbicularis

oculi ANS: B 96. Select the word that means the ability of the eyes to refract light without the assistance of

correctives lenses.

Emmetropia Presbyopia Accommodation Myopia

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 97. Rhodopsin a. requires vitamin A. b. is a requirement for color vision only. c. is synthesized within the occipital lobe. d. is necessary for the refraction of light by the lens.

ANS: A 98. Which of the following is defined as the involuntary rhythmic oscillating movements of the

eyes?

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a. b. c. d.

Presbyopia Nystagmus Emmetropia Myopia

ANS: B 99. Astigmatism, myopia, and hyperopia are or create a. errors of refraction. b. due to defects within the primary visual cortex. c. consequences of vitamin A deficiency. d. types of blindness.

ANS: A 100. Retrolental fibroplasia or the retinopathy of prematurity is a. synonymous with congenital cataracts. b. caused by continuous high doses of oxygen administered in an attempt to relieve

hypoxemia. c. caused by corneal scarring sustained during the birth process. d. induced by an elevation of intracranial pressure and compression of the primary

visual cortex.

ANS: B 101. The external auditory canal a. connects the pharynx (throat) and the middle ear. b. connects the cochlea and Nthe R vesI tibuG le. B.C M U S c. connects all three semicircu lar canN als. T O d. ends at the tympanic membrane.

ANS: D 102. The tympanic membrane a. separates the external ear from the middle ear. b. separates the cochlea from the vestibule. c. separates the external ear from the internal ear. d. separates two compartments that contain endolymph.

ANS: A 103. Cerumen is a. an inner ear secretion. b. secreted by the organ of Corti. c. found in the external ear. d. drained by the Eustachian tube.

ANS: C 104. Which of the following has no anatomical connection with the middle ear? a. Tympanic membrane b. Endolymph c. Eustachian tube

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d. Oval window ANS: B 105. Which of the following is true of the cochlea, organ of Corti, and CN VIII? All are a. concerned with hearing. b. concerned with balance. c. middle ear structures. d. concerned with bone conduction.

ANS: A 106. Which of the following vibrates in direct response to the tympanic membrane? a. Hammer b. Endolymph c. Organ of Corti d. Semicircular canals ANS: A 107. Which of the following moves in response to the vibration of the stapes? a. Tympanic membrane b. Oval window c. Malleus d. Hammer ANS: B

NURSINGTB.COM 108. The organ of Corti a. is an exocrine gland that secretes cerumen. b. contains mechanoreceptors. c. is the receptor for balance or equilibrium. d. is a middle ear structure.

ANS: B 109. The receptors for hearing and balance a. when activated send electrical signals (action potentials) along CN VIII. b. when activated send action potentials to the occipital lobe. c. activate only the cochlear nerves. d. are middle ear structures.

ANS: A 110. Vertigo a. refers to ringing or buzzing in the ear. b. is apt to stimulate the emetic center. c. is most apt to be caused by external ear infection. d. refers to a cerumen-impacted tympanic membrane.

ANS: B 111. Bone-conduction deafness is

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a. b. c. d.

due to destruction of the organ of Corti. most often caused by constant loud noise. most related to the middle ear. an inner ear disorder.

ANS: C 112. Movement of the oval window a. moves the endolymph in the inner ear, thereby bending the mechanoreceptors of

the organ of Corti. b. vibrates the middle ear ossicles and eardrum. c. pushes endolymph from the cochlea into the semicircular canals. d. pushes perilymph from the semicircular canals into the cochlea.

ANS: A 113. Which of the following structures is common to both balance and hearing? a. Tympanic membrane b. Organ of Corti c. Middle ear ossicles d. Mechanoreceptors ANS: D 114. Adaptation occurs a. when sensory receptors send fewer signals when continuously stimulated. b. because of amputation. c. as a result of projection oN f p aRi n . I G B.C M O d. in order to maintain homeoU stasS is. N T ANS: A

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Chapter 14: Endocrine System Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is least descriptive of the hypothalamus? a. Secretes releasing hormones b. Controls the secretion of the anterior pituitary gland c. Secretes ACTH, TSH, and gonadotropins d. Synthesizes oxytocin and ADH ANS: C 2. T3, T4, and calcitonin are a. secreted by the thyroid gland. b. secreted by the parathyroid glands. c. secreted in response to declining plasma levels of calcium. d. steroids.

ANS: A 3. Insulin and glucagon a. are secreted by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans. b. elevate blood glucose levels. c. are secreted in response to declining plasma levels of glucose. d. are secreted by the pancreas to regulate blood glucose.

ANS: D

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4. The islets of Langerhans a. b. c. d.

are cells found in the adenohypophysis. secrete insulin and glucagon. secrete steroids. secrete releasing hormones.

ANS: B 5. Steroids a. are secreted by the adrenal medulla. b. include the glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and androgens. c. stimulate the membranes of the target cells to produce the second chemical

messenger, cAMP. d. are secreted by the pancreas.

ANS: B 6. The adrenal medulla a. is controlled primarily by ACTH. b. secretes steroids. c. is associated with the fight-or-flight response. d. secretes iodine-containing hormones.

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ANS: C 7. Iodine-containing hormones a. include thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). b. are secreted by the hypothalamus as releasing hormones. c. are steroids. d. regulate the metabolic rate.

ANS: D 8. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin a. are secreted by the neurohypophysis. b. are mineralocorticoids. c. are secreted by the islets of Langerhans. d. stimulate the kidney to excrete Na+ and water.

ANS: A 9. Portal capillaries carry releasing hormones from the brain to the a. neurohypophysis. b. pancreas. c. anterior pituitary gland. d. posterior pituitary gland.

ANS: C 10. Which of the following is the response to low plasma levels of calcium? a. Secretion of calcitonin NURSINGTB.COM b. Secretion of the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans c. Inhibition of the adenohypophyseal release of ACTH d. Secretion of PTH ANS: D 11. What is the stimulus for the release of insulin? a. Low plasma levels of calcium b. High plasma levels of potassium c. High plasma levels of glucose d. Low blood volume ANS: C 12. The adenohypophysis a. secretes ADH and oxytocin. b. refers to the anterior pituitary gland. c. secretes releasing hormones. d. secretes glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and androgens.

ANS: B 13. Which gland secretes TSH, ACTH, and growth hormone? a. Neurohypophysis

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b. Pancreas c. Adrenal medulla d. Anterior pituitary gland ANS: D 14. The adrenal cortex a. is the target gland of ACTH. b. secretes catecholamines. c. is an extension of the sympathetic nervous system. d. secretes ADH and oxytocin.

ANS: A 15. Which gland is associated with “sugar, salt, and sex”? a. Adrenal cortex b. Pancreas c. Parathyroid gland d. Neurohypophysis ANS: A 16. Which of the following is least associated with the adrenal medulla? a. Catecholamines b. Epinephrine and norepinephrine c. Fight-or-flight response d. Sugar, salt, and sex ANS: D

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17. Catecholamines a. b. c. d.

include cortisol, aldosterone, and testosterone. are secreted by the adrenal cortex. lower plasma glucose levels. include epinephrine (adrenalin) and norepinephrine.

ANS: D 18. Enlargement of the thyroid gland a. is called a goiter. b. causes Addisonian crisis. c. makes a person appear cushingoid. d. causes hypocalcemic tetany.

ANS: A 19. “Sugar, salt, and sex” is descriptive of a. ACTH, TSH, and somatotropic hormone. b. cortisol, aldosterone, and testosterone. c. epinephrine, norepinephrine, and estrogen. d. insulin, glucagon, and cortisol.

ANS: B

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20. Insulin, cortisol, thyroxine, and oxytocin a. are hypothalamic-releasing hormones. b. are secreted by the adenohypophysis. c. increase blood glucose levels. d. are hormones.

ANS: D 21. Lactogenic hormone a. is also called oxytocin. b. is a gonadotropin. c. stimulates the mammary glands to produce milk. d. exerts its greatest effect on the gonads.

ANS: C 22. Which of the following is not controlled by a hypothalamic-releasing hormone? a. ACTH b. ADH c. Growth hormone d. Prolactin ANS: B 23. Growth hormone a. is secreted by the adenohypophysis. b. stimulates growth of the m u s cul o s k e l et a l system.

N R I G B .C M c. is also called somatotropic U O horS monNe. T d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 24. Estrogen, progesterone, and testosterone a. are feminizing hormones. b. induce virilization. c. are secreted by the gonads. d. are secreted by the adenohypophysis.

ANS: C 25. Testosterone is best described as a. virilizing. b. lactogenic. c. adenohypophyseal. d. pancreatic.

ANS: A 26. Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone a. are both secreted by the parathyroid glands. b. increase plasma levels of calcium. c. decrease plasma levels of calcium.

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d. control plasma levels of calcium.

ANS: D 27. Which of the following structures connects the hypothalamus and the adenohypophysis? a. Islets of Langerhans b. Portal capillaries c. Corpus callosum d. Medulla oblongata ANS: B 28. Which of the following hormones are found within the hypophyseal-hypothalamic portal

capillaries?

Gonadotropins Releasing hormones Catecholamines Mineralocorticoids

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 29. A deficiency of insulin causes a. hypocalcemia. b. hyperglycemia. c. Cushing’s syndrome. d. adrenal shock.

ANS: B 30. Oxytocin

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a. is a neurohypophyseal hormone that stimulates the uterine muscle to contract,

thereby assisting in labor. b. is a gonadotropin. c. stimulates the kidney to reabsorb Na+ and water, thereby expanding blood volume. d. is a mineralocorticoid.

ANS: A 31. Which of the following is most descriptive of cAMP? a. Second chemical messenger b. Catecholamine that contributes to the fight-or-flight response c. Steroid d. Releasing hormone ANS: A 32. TSH a. stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete calcitonin. b. is secreted by the neurohypophysis. c. stimulates the hypothalamus to secrete TRH, thyrotropin-releasing hormone. d. is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland.

ANS: D

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33. The only hormone that lowers blood glucose levels is a. glucagon. b. insulin. c. epinephrine. d. cortisol.

ANS: B 34. PTH a. lowers plasma calcium. b. stimulates osteoclastic activity. c. is an iodine-containing hormone. d. stimulates osteoblastic activity and causes blood calcium levels to increase.

ANS: B 35. Insulin a. is secreted by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans. b. is secreted by the liver. c. raises blood glucose levels. d. is released by the pancreas in response to low blood glucose levels.

ANS: A 36. ACTH stimulates the a. hypothalamus to secrete corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH). b. adenohypophysis to secre te c orti sol.

B.C M

N R I G

c. adrenal cortex to secrete c oU rt i soSl . N T d. adrenal medulla to secrete glucagon.

O

ANS: C 37. The secretion of cortisol by the adrenal gland suppresses further secretion of ACTH by the

anterior pituitary gland. What is this interaction called?

Cerebral lateralization Circadian rhythm Cellular differentiation Negative feedback control

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 38. Which of the following steroids is an androgen? a. Progesterone b. Testosterone c. Estrogen d. Aldosterone ANS: B 39. Which of the following is a function of parathyroid hormone? a. It causes the excretion of calcium in the urine. b. It stimulates osteoblastic activity to form bone.

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c. It stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete calcitonin. d. It increases plasma levels of calcium.

ANS: D 40. Cretinism, myxedema, and Graves’ disease are all a. thyroid hormone deficiency diseases. b. thyroid hormone disorders caused by oversecretion of thyroxine. c. calcium imbalances due primarily to the lack of calcitonin. d. disorders of thyroid gland function.

ANS: D 41. Hypocalcemic tetany a. causes a flaccid paralysis. b. resembles neuromuscular blockade by curare. c. may be caused by a deficiency of PTH. d. is caused by a deficiency of insulin.

ANS: C 42. The neurohypophysis a. is the anterior pituitary gland. b. secretes ACTH, TSH, and the gonadotropins. c. secretes the releasing hormones. d. is the posterior pituitary gland.

ANS: D

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43. What is the most likely effect of a deficiency of aldosterone? a. High blood pressure b. Low level of potassium in the blood c. Low blood volume and hypotension d. Goiter formation ANS: C 44. Which gland secretes melatonin and is concerned with our biological rhythms? a. Pancreas b. Adenohypophysis c. Pineal gland d. Adrenal gland ANS: C 45. The person with is most likely to receive insulin therapy. a. myxedema b. Graves’ disease c. diabetes insipidus d. hyperglycemia ANS: D

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46. The hypersecretion of which hormone is least likely to cause hyperglycemia? a. Cortisol b. Growth hormone c. Insulin d. Epinephrine (adrenalin) ANS: C 47. Which of the following is most likely to cause the secretion of calcitonin? a. Hypocalcemia b. Hyperglycemia c. Dehydration d. Elevated plasma calcium level ANS: D 48. Ketoacidosis is most related to a. adrenocortical insufficiency. b. Cushing’s syndrome. c. excess fatty acid catabolism. d. hyperglycemia.

ANS: C 49. Which of the following is characterized by excess urine production resulting in low blood

volume? a. Cushing syndrome b. Tetany NURSINGTB.COM c. Diabetes insipidus d. Oversecretion of ACTH ANS: C 50. Bronzing a. b. c. d.

always accompanies hyperglycemia. is the most prominent symptom of Cushing syndrome. is characteristic of chronic adrenal cortical insufficiency (Addison’s disease). is a consequence of ADH insufficiency.

ANS: C 51. Insulin a. stimulates the formation of glycogen. b. increases the transport of glucose into a cell. c. stimulates the synthesis of proteins and fats. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 52. Obesity a. antagonizes insulin. b. elevates blood glucose levels. c. increases blood pressure.

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d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 53. Excess secretion of epinephrine a. relieves anxiety. b. stimulates the synthesis of glycogen. c. elevates blood glucose levels. d. slows heart rate and lowers blood pressure.

ANS: C 54. A benign tumor of the adrenal medulla a. causes life-threatening low blood pressure. b. is called a pheochromocytoma. c. causes Addison’s disease. d. causes excess secretion of cortisol.

ANS: B 55. Which of the following is most responsive to treatment with thyroxine? a. Diabetes mellitus b. Hyperglycemia c. Myxedema d. Graves’ disease ANS: C 56. Which gland secretes two h oN r m oRn e s I , o nG e t h aBt .e lC e v aM te s blood glucose levels and another that

U S N T decreases blood glucose levels? a. Pancreas b. Adenohypophysis c. Thyroid d. Adrenal cortex ANS: A

57. Iodine, colloid, and goiter refer to which gland? a. Pancreas b. Parathyroid c. Thyroid d. Neurohypophysis ANS: C 58. Excessive eating despite plenty of glucose in the blood is called a. acidosis b. polyuria c. polydipsia d. polyphagia ANS: D

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59. Which group is incorrect? a. Hormones of the anterior pituitary gland: ACTH, prolactin, TSH, growth hormone b. Hormones of the posterior pituitary gland: ADH, oxytocin c. Steroids: cortisol, aldosterone, testosterone, epinephrine d. Secretions of the gonads: estrogen, progesterone, testosterone ANS: C 60. Which group is incorrect? a. Hormones of the anterior pituitary gland: ACTH, prolactin, TSH, oxytocin b. Steroids: cortisol, aldosterone, testosterone c. Secretions of the gonads: estrogen, progesterone, testosterone d. Hormones secreted by the thyroid gland: T3, T4, calcitonin ANS: A 61. Which of the following is true of the hypothalamus? a. Secretes releasing hormones into the portal capillaries b. Composed of glandular tissue c. Called the adenohypophysis d. Connected to the neurohypophysis by the portal capillaries ANS: A 62. The anterior pituitary gland a. is called the neurohypophysis. b. releases ADH and oxytocin. c. secretes releasing hormonNes.R I G B.C M d. is connected to the hypothaU lamS us bNythTe portaO l capillaries.

ANS: D 63. ACTH, TSH, and gonadotropins are a. hypothalamic-releasing hormones. b. secreted by the neurohypophysis. c. “aimed at” the adrenal cortex. d. tropic hormones.

ANS: D 64. The adrenal medulla a. is an extension of the “feed-and-breed” division of the autonomic nervous system. b. secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine. c. secretes steroids. d. causes Cushing syndrome when it is overactive.

ANS: B 65. Aldosterone a. is a mineralocorticoid secreted by the adrenal cortex. b. functions in the regulation of blood glucose levels. c. stimulates the kidney to excrete sodium and reabsorb potassium. d. All of the above are true.

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ANS: A 66. The pancreas a. secretes steroids that are concerned with sugar, salt, and sex. b. is controlled by the adenohypophysis. c. secretes hormones that affect blood glucose levels. d. secretes iodine-containing hormones that regulate the basal metabolic rate.

ANS: C 67. Which of the following best describes the function of insulin? a. Lowers blood glucose levels b. Stimulates cells to make glucose (gluconeogenesis) c. Deficiency causes diabetes insipidus d. Decreases blood volume ANS: A 68. As plasma levels of calcium decrease a. insulin is secreted. b. the parathyroid glands secrete an osteoclastic hormone. c. the kidneys excrete calcium and phosphorus. d. calcitonin is secreted.

ANS: B 69. Hypocalcemic tetany a. is a consequence of a defN iciU enRcS yI ofNcG alT ciB to. niC n.OM b. is caused by a lack of TSH. c. is caused by osteoclastic activity. d. develops in response to a deficiency of parathyroid activity.

ANS: D 70. T3 and T4 a. stimulate the adenohypophysis to secrete TSH. b. regulate the basal metabolic rate (BMR). c. stimulate osteoclastic activity, thereby elevating plasma calcium levels. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: B 71. Which of the following suppress(es) the secretion of ACTH? a. Elevated blood glucose levels b. Dietary iodine c. Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) d. Elevated plasma cortisol levels ANS: D 72. Glucagon, growth hormone, cortisol, and epinephrine a. are all secreted by the adrenal gland.

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b. expand blood volume. c. raise blood glucose levels. d. stimulate osteoclastic activity.

ANS: C 73. Which of the following is descriptive of prolactin? a. Secreted by the posterior pituitary gland b. Also called lactogenic hormone c. Causes the milk let-down reflex d. Stimulates the neurohypophysis to synthesize oxytocin ANS: B 74. Which of the following are concerned with “sugar, salt, and sex”? a. Epinephrine, norepinephrine, and adrenaline b. Glucagon, insulin, and thymosin c. ICSH, FSH, and LH d. Glucocorticoid, mineralocorticoid, and androgen ANS: D 75. A deficiency of dietary iodine a. lowers plasma calcium levels. b. causes low blood volume and shock. c. decreases the synthesis of calcitonin. d. causes a goiter.

ANS: D

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76. Which of the following is not a function of insulin? a. Lowering blood glucose levels b. Promoting protein synthesis c. Simulating hepatic gluconeogenesis d. Promoting fatty acid synthesis ANS: C 77.

A deficiency of ADH most likely elevates blood glucose levels. causes diabetes mellitus. induces polyuria. expands blood volume.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 78. Hyperglycemia a. is caused by excess insulin. b. causes glucosuria and polyuria. c. causes hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia. d. is characteristic of adrenal insufficiency.

ANS: B

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79. Cushing syndrome a. may be caused by steroid (prednisone) therapy. b. is caused by adrenal insufficiency. c. is characterized by hypoglycemia and low blood volume. d. is treated with growth hormone.

ANS: A 80. Abrupt, sudden withdrawal of prednisone (cortisol) is most likely to cause a. Cushing syndrome. b. hypocalcemic tetany. c. diabetes insipidus. d. acute adrenal insufficiency.

ANS: D 81. Virilization is characterized by a. excess facial hair. b. buffalo hump. c. truncal obesity. d. gonadal atrophy.

ANS: A 82. Which of the following is not under the direct control of the pituitary gland? a. Adrenal cortical secretion of glucocorticoid b. Parathyroid secretion of PTH I G B.C M

N R

c. Thyroid gland secretion of U T 3 aSn d N T4 T

O

d. Ovarian secretion of estrogen and progesterone ANS: B 83. The secretion of this gland enhances a sympathetic response. a. Adrenal medulla b. Pancreas c. Adrenal cortex d. Parathyroid ANS: A 84. Which of the following hormones exerts negative feedback control on the secretion of ACTH? a. PTH b. Glucagon c. Cortisol d. Corticotrophin-releasing hormone ANS: C 85. Which of the following is descriptive of the adrenal cortex? a. It is the target gland of ACTH. b. It secretes catecholamines. c. It secretes hormones that lower blood glucose.

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d. It secretes iodine-containing hormones.

ANS: A 86. The bones, kidneys, and intestine are target organs of this calcium-regulator hormone. a. T3 and T4 b. PTH c. ACTH d. Oxytocin ANS: B 87. This hormone stimulates osteoclastic activity, causing bone resorption. a. Calcitonin b. Androgen c. PTH d. Thyroxine ANS: C 88. What do the following hormones have in common: growth hormone, cortisol, and

epinephrine? All are secreted by the adrenal glands. raise blood glucose. suppress gluconeogenesis. are steroids.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

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89. Why is the posterior pituitary gland called the neurohypophysis? a. The posterior pituitary gland is an extension of the hypothalamus. b. The neurohypophysis secretes releasing hormones. c. The posterior pituitary gland secretes hormones that regulate adenohypophyseal

function. d. The posterior pituitary gland secretes releasing hormones.

ANS: A 90. Which of the following is true of both prolactin and oxytocin? Both a. are concerned with lactation. b. are secreted by the adenohypophysis. c. stimulate the mammary glands to make milk. d. are concerned only with lactation.

ANS: A 91. Which of the following is the most important effect of somatotropic hormone? a. Promotion of the urinary excretion of calcium b. Growth of the musculoskeletal system c. Regulation of sodium and water balance d. Initiates and sustains labor to terminate pregnancy ANS: B

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92. What two effects does PTH exert on the kidneys? a. Blocks sodium reabsorption and increases the excretion of water b. Increases calcium reabsorption and increases the excretion of phosphate in the

urine c. Decreases the reabsorption of both calcium and phosphate d. Increases the excretion of H+ and the excretion of bicarbonate ANS: B 93. Which of the following posterior pituitary hormones causes the kidney to decrease its

excretion of urine?

ADH ACTH Aldosterone Oxytocin

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 94. This adrenal cortical mineralocorticoid helps regulate salt and water balance. a. Aldosterone b. Glucagon c. Cortisol d. ADH ANS: A 95. Thyroxine a. is TSH. b. is T4.

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c. exerts negative feedback control on the secretion of T3. d. lowers basal metabolic rate.

ANS: B 96. Myxedema, Graves’ disease, and cretinism are a. hypothyroid disorders. b. due to a deficiency of TSH. c. disorders of the thyroid gland. d. best treated with T3 and/or T4.

ANS: C 97. What is the most critical need for the child with newly diagnosed cretinism? a. Thyroidectomy b. Administration of a radioactive cocktail of 131I (radioactive iodine) c. Replacement dose of thyroid hormones d. Replacement dose of calcitonin ANS: C 98. A patient has been receiving a large dose of prednisone for the relief of arthritic pain for 6

months. He suddenly stops taking his medication. What is the most serious concern?

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a. b. c. d.

His arthritic pain will recur.

He will develop an acute adrenal insufficiency.

He will continue to exhibit symptoms of Cushing syndrome.

He will develop a moon face and buffalo hump.

ANS: B 99. Cushing syndrome and Addison’s disease are a. forms of chronic adrenal cortical hypofunction. b. forms of chronic adrenal cortical hypersecretion. c. treated with replacement doses of cortisol (i.e., prednisone). d. disorders of the adrenal cortex.

ANS: D 100. Excess insulin is most apt to cause a. ketosis. b. hypoglycemia. c. hypertension. d. diuresis.

ANS: B 101. The beta cells of the islets of Langerhans a. are the hormone-secreting cells of the adrenal cortex. b. are insulin-secreting pancreatic cells. c. secrete releasing hormones. d. secrete steroids.

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ANS: B 102. Iodine is a. b. c. d.

used by the adenohypophysis to synthesize TSH. necessary for the synthesis of calcitonin by the thyroid gland. necessary for the synthesis of thyroid hormones. necessary for the synthesis of both PTH and calcitonin.

ANS: C 103. A hormone that suppresses gluconeogenesis a. increases the renal excretion of sodium and water. b. prevents hyperglycemia. c. causes diuresis. d. causes hypocalcemia.

ANS: B 104. Glucagon a. is secreted in response to a decrease in blood glucose. b. regulates sodium and water balance. c. is a steroid. d. is a glucocorticoid.

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ANS: A 105. Which of the following is least characteristic of the function of insulin? a. Increases glucose transport (into the cell) b. Suppresses gluconeogenesis c. Lowers blood glucose d. Increases the generation of ketone bodies ANS: D 106. Identify the glands associated with these hormones: gonadotropins, aldosterone, and

epinephrine. a. Adenohypophysis, neurohypophysis, pancreas b. Adenohypophysis, anterior pituitary, adrenal cortex c. Adenohypophysis, posterior pituitary, adrenal medulla d. Anterior pituitary, adrenal cortex, adrenal medulla ANS: D 107. Hyperglycemia, glucosuria, polyuria, and acidosis are a. most apt to be caused by a deficiency of insulin. b. characteristic of diabetes insipidus. c. the consequences of a hormone-secreting tumor of the beta cells of the islets of

Langerhans. d. indicative of a deficiency of ADH. ANS: A

N R I G B.C M

U S N T O 108. Ketosis and acidosis are a. most apt to be caused by an excess of insulin. b. characteristic of diabetes insipidus. c. best treated with ADH. d. indicative of a rapid and incomplete metabolism of fatty acids.

ANS: D 109. Identify the hormones that are secreted by these glands: adrenal cortex, pancreas, and

adenohypophysis.

ADH, aldosterone, glucagon Epinephrine, insulin, ACTH Androgen, glucagon, ADH Cortisol, insulin, growth hormone

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 110. Identify the glands that secrete these hormones: glucagon, PTH, and TSH. a. Neurohypophysis, pancreas, ovary b. Adrenal cortex, pancreas, neurohypophysis c. Pancreas, parathyroid, anterior pituitary d. Testes, thymus, adenohypophysis ANS: C

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111. The “melting of flesh into urine,” an old-timey name, is most descriptive of untreated a. diabetes mellitus. b. Addison’s disease. c. diabetes insipidus. d. Cushing syndrome.

ANS: A 112. This cone-shaped gland is located in the head and is called the “biological clock.” a. Posterior pituitary b. Hypothalamus c. Pineal d. Thymus ANS: C 113. Epinephrine (adrenaline) increases blood glucose by a. increasing transport of glucose into the cell. b. stimulating gluconeogenesis. c. stimulating the hepatic conversion of glycogen into glucose. d. converting fatty acids into glucose.

ANS: C

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Chapter 15: Blood Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is an oxygen-carrying blood cell? a. Granulocyte b. Erythrocyte c. Thrombocyte d. Eosinophil ANS: B 2. Which blood cell fits this description: granulocytic, phagocytic, and motile? a. Thrombocyte b. Eosinophil c. Neutrophil d. Lymphocyte ANS: C 3. Monocytes and lymphocytes a. contain hemoglobin. b. are thrombocytes. c. are nongranular leukocytes. d. are hemostatic.

ANS: C 4. Which of the following is most descriptive of a reticulocyte? a. Thrombocyte b. Granulocyte c. Platelet d. Immature erythrocyte ANS: D 5. Rapid breakdown of which blood cell causes jaundice? a. Granulocyte b. Platelet c. Red blood cell d. Lymphocyte ANS: C 6. Which of the following causes granulocytopenia? a. Myelosuppression b. Hemolysis c. Phagocytosis d. Petechiae ANS: A

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7. Thrombocytopenia a. refers to a deficiency of platelets. b. is caused by myelosuppression. c. may be accompanied by aplastic anemia and granulocytopenia. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 8. An infection is most often accompanied by a. thrombocytopenia. b. anemia. c. jaundice. d. leukocytosis.

ANS: D 9. Heme contains a. albumin. b. plasma. c. iron. d. erythropoietin.

ANS: C 10.

Erythropoietin is secreted by the kidneys. stimulates the bone marrow to produce RBCs. is released in response to hypoxemia.

All of the above are true.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 11. Which of the following is the stimulus for the release of erythropoietin? a. Hypoxemia b. Low blood volume c. Low plasma pH (acidosis) d. Infection ANS: A 12.

Which of the following best describes prothrombin and fibrinogen? a. Thrombolytic agents b. Anticoagulants c. Clotting factors d. Plasminogen activators ANS: C

13.

Which of the following is least associated with hemostasis? a. Coagulation b. Platelet plug c. Phagocytosis

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d. Blood vessel spasm ANS: C 14.

Hemolysis causes leukocytosis. acidosis. hyperbilirubinemia. a prolonged prothrombin time and bleeding.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 15.

An antithrombin agent causes jaundice. prevents blood coagulation. fights infection. stimulates the synthesis of hemoglobin.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 16.

TPA (tissue plasminogen activator) prevents blood coagulation. causes thrombocytopenia. dissolves blood clots. prevents the formation of a platelet plug.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 17.

Which of the following is vitamin K dependent?

Heparin Erythropoietin Intrinsic factor Prothrombin

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 18.

Intrinsic factor a. is necessary for the synthesis of prothrombin. b. is a clotting factor. c. is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12. d. stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells.

ANS: C

19.

Which of the following is called extrinsic factor?

Vitamin B12 Iron Heme Prothrombin

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 20.

Which of the following is most associated with a blood clot?

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a. b. c. d.

Agglutination Hemophilia Fibrin strands Rh factor

ANS: C 21.

Which type of anemia is associated with myelosuppression? a. Folic acid deficiency b. Aplastic c. Hemolytic d. Sickle cell ANS: B

22.

Bilirubin is a breakdown product of leukocytes. neutrophils. red blood cells. platelets.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 23.

Leukocytosis and leukopenia are increased numbers of white blood cells. decreased numbers of white blood cells. abnormal numbers of white blood cells. the result of myelosuppression.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 24.

A decrease in the numbers of erythrocytes is called granulocytopenia. thrombocytopenia. polycythemia. anemia.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 25.

Which of the following is descriptive of a neutrophil?

Platelet Phagocyte Plasma protein Oxygen carrier

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 26.

What is the normal pH of blood? a. 7.00 to 7.45 b. 7.35 to 7.45 c. 6.92 to 7.25 d. 7.45 to 7.80

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ANS: B 27.

Which cell is the “parent cell” of the three types of blood cells produced in the bone marrow? a. Erythrocyte b. Leukocyte c. Stem cell d. Megakaryocyte ANS: C

28.

What is the name of the condition caused by a diet that is deficient in iron?

Leukopenia Anemia Jaundice Kernicterus

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 29.

Which type of blood is called the universal donor?

O AB A B

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 30.

Which of the following is caused by agglutination of the RBCs? a. Hemolysis b. Coagulation c. Crenation d. Hemostasis ANS: A

31.

Why may a person who has had a gastrectomy (removal of the stomach) develop pernicious anemia? a. The lack of gastric hydrochloric acid causes myelosuppression. b. Iron absorption is impaired. c. A major source of erythropoietin has been removed. d. Vitamin B12 absorption is impaired because of the lack of intrinsic factor.

ANS: D

32.

What is the breakdown product of heme?

Thrombin Plasmin Bilirubin Albumin

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 33.

Which of the following is descriptive of hyperbilirubinemia and kernicterus? a. Flushed

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b. Yellow c. Blue d. Ecchymotic ANS: B 34.

Which of the following types of blood can a person with type O blood receive safely?

A type B type AB type O type

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 35.

Which of the following is most related to biconcave disc, hemoglobin, and erythropoietin? a. Granulocyte b. Thrombocyte c. “Poly” d. Red blood cell ANS: D

36.

Which of the following is related to the white blood cell?

Phagocytosis Oxygen transport Hemoglobin Bilirubin

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 37.

Which type of blood is called the universal recipient?

Type O Type AB Type A Type B

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 38.

Which of the following is characteristic of the activated platelet? a. Granulocyte b. Bilirubin c. O2 transport d. Stickiness ANS: D

39.

Kernicterus is most related to elevated plasma levels of which substance?

Iron Bilirubin Fibrinogen Albumin

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

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40.

Which of the following is most descriptive of the physiological role of the “poly”? a. Oxygen transport b. Phagocytosis c. Bilirubin metabolism d. Clot dissolution ANS: B

41.

Which of the following is most likely to be depressed in the myelosuppressed patient?

Prothrombin Albumin White blood cells Myelin sheath

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 42.

To which component of the red blood cell does oxygen loosely bind?

Cell membrane Globin portion of the hemoglobin Iron molecule within heme Bilirubin component of the heme

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 43.

Which of the following is most likely to happen with the activation of plasminogen?

The blood clots, or coagulates.

The blood clot dissolves.

Red blood cells agglutinate.

Jaundice develops.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 44.

At the end of 120 days, the red blood cell is removed from the circulation and broken down. becomes known as a “poly.” becomes known as a reticulocyte. is converted to fibrin.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 45.

Plasma a. gives blood its red color. b. is the primary oxygen-carrying part of the blood. c. is considered intracellular fluid. d. is the fluid part of the blood.

ANS: D

46.

Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause erythroblastosis? a. The baby is Rh– and the mother is Rh–. b. The baby is Rh+ and the mother is Rh+. c. The baby is Rh+ and the mother is Rh–.

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d. The baby is Rh– and the mother is Rh–.

ANS: C 47.

Which of the following best characterizes the effects of hemophilia?

High fever Infection Jaundice Bleeding

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 48.

Which of the following is most descriptive of the cause of hemophilia?

Dietary induced Genetically induced Drug-induced myelosuppression Anemia of chronic renal failure

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 49.

Which function is most associated with fibrinogen, prothrombin, and calcium?

Blood coagulation Platelet aggregation Fibrinolysis Blood cell production

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 50.

Which of the following conditions is caused by an overdose of heparin or warfarin sodium (Coumadin)? a. Bleeding b. Infection c. Jaundice d. Thrombosis ANS: A

51.

What is another name for TPA (tissue plasminogen activator)?

Anticoagulant Antiplatelet “Clot buster” (thrombolytic) Antihistamine

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 52.

Which of the following is necessary for prothrombin synthesis? a. Heparin b. Calcium c. Hemophilic factor d. Vitamin K ANS: D

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53.

What does the hematocrit measure?

Phagocytic activity Blood-clotting activity Percentage of red blood cells in the blood The amount of bilirubin in the blood

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 54.

Which of the following does the prothrombin time measure?

The amount of oxygen in the blood Clotting activity of the blood Bone marrow activity The degree or intensity of jaundice

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 55.

Donor blood is typed and cross-matched with the recipient’s blood to prevent which conditions? a. Infection and leukocytosis b. Myelosuppression and aplastic anemia c. Agglutination and hemolysis d. Petechiae formation and ecchymosis ANS: C

56.

Both the red blood cell and white blood cell a. are classified as granulocytes or agranulocytes. b. contain iron that acts as a binding site for oxygen. c. contain hemoglobin. d. are produced in the bone marrow.

ANS: D

57.

The word icterus refers to infection. bleeding. jaundice. fever.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 58.

Which of the following is most likely to be caused by the immobility of bed rest?

Venous thrombosis Hemophilia Anemia Myelosuppression

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 59.

Which of the following is the most common cause of myelosuppression? a. Drugs, especially the anticancer drugs b. Bed rest c. Dietary deficiencies

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d. Hereditary abnormalities of the bone marrow ANS: A 60.

Which of the following is least descriptive of blood?

The average man has 4 to 6 L of blood.

The normal pH of blood is 7.35 to 7.45.

Oxygenated blood is redder than unoxygenated blood.

Water is three to five times more viscous than blood.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 61.

Petechiae formation is characteristic of sickle cell anemia. is most often prevented by a diet that is high in vitamin K. refers to pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin. is caused by a deficiency of reticulocytes.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 62.

Which of the following is most similar to fibrinolysis?

Coagulation Petechiae formation Myelosuppression Thrombolytic effect

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 63.

Segs, polys, and band cells are immature red blood cells. agranulocytes. fragments of megakaryocytes. neutrophils.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 64.

Neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils are all a. lymphocytes. b. granulocytes. c. phagocytic. d. heparin secreting.

ANS: B

65.

Prothrombin, thrombin, and fibrinogen form the platelet plug. activate factor VIII (antihemophilic factor). are involved in coagulation. are responsible for agglutination.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 66.

Which anticoagulant is secreted by mast cells (basophils)?

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a. b. c. d.

Plasmin EPO Vitamin K Heparin

ANS: D 67.

Erythroblastosis fetalis is primarily a problem involving a. myelosuppression. b. lack of intrinsic factor. c. inability of the kidneys to secrete erythropoietin. d. agglutination and hemolysis.

ANS: D

68.

Which group is incorrect?

Steps in hemostasis: blood vessel spasm, platelet plug, coagulation Antigens: A, B, Rh factor Blood cells: fibrinogen, albumin, globulins Types of anemia: iron deficiency, pernicious, sickle cell

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 69.

Which group is incorrect?

Plasma proteins: albumin, fibrinogen, globulins Antigens: A, B, Rh factor Types of anemia: iron deficiency, pernicious, sickle cell White blood cells: granulocytes, agranulocytes, megakaryocytes

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 70.

Which group is incorrect?

Results of myelosuppression: granulocytopenia, aplastic anemia, hemophilia Antigens: A, B, Rh factor White blood cells: granulocytes, agranulocytes Plasma proteins: albumin, fibrinogen, globulins

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 71.

Which of the following is characteristic of erythrocytes?

Formed by myeloid erythropoiesis Deficiency causes petechiae and bleeding Activation characterized by stickiness and formation of a plug Primarily concerned with phagocytosis

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 72.

Erythropoietin a. is synthesized in the bone marrow. b. stimulates the bone marrow to make RBCs. c. stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb iron from the urine. d. stimulates the digestive tract to absorb iron.

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ANS: B 73.

Which of the following is true of iron? a. Is in the heme part of hemoglobin b. Is necessary for erythropoiesis c. Binds reversibly to oxygen d. All of the above ANS: D

74.

Chronic hypoxemia is most likely to induce leukocytosis. secondary polycythemia. platelet stickiness. jaundice.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

The anemia of chronic kidney failure is caused by bone marrow depression. treated with EPO (erythropoietin). characterized by an elevated hematocrit. treated with IM injections of vitamin B12.

75.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 76.

A deficiency of intrinsic factor a. decreases the absorption of vitamin K by the digestive tract. b. causes hemolysis and jaundice. c. is evidenced by a prolonged prothrombin time. d. causes a type of anemia that is treated with vitamin B12.

ANS: D

77.

Which of the following is most likely to be characterized by severe pain, organ damage, and hemolysis? a. A shift to the left b. Neutropenia c. Sickle cell anemia d. Hypoprothrombinemia ANS: C

78.

Which of the following is descriptive of leukocytes?

Fight infection Include granulocytes and nongranulocytes Include phagocytes All of the above

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 79.

Neutrophils and monocytes a. are megakaryocytes.

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b. initiate the hemostatic mechanism. c. engage in phagocytosis. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: C 80.

Rapid hemolysis causes hypoxemia and cyanosis. thrombocytopenia and bleeding. hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice. myelosuppression and infection.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 81.

What condition is most likely to cause “dilutional” anemia? a. Dehydration b. Infection c. Hypervolemia d. Neutropenia ANS: C

82.

The administration of warfarin (Coumadin) blocks the absorption of vitamin K in the digestive tract. causes hypoprothrombinemia. removes thrombin from the circulation. activates plasminogen.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

Hypoprothrombinemia inhibits coagulation. is thrombolytic. is caused by a factor VIII deficiency.

All of the above are true.

83.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 84.

A person who is taking warfarin (Coumadin) is advised to limit the intake of spinach and broccoli because they a. are irritating to the lining of the digestive tract and can cause bleeding. b. interfere with the absorption of vitamin K by the digestive tract. c. contain lots of vitamin K, the antidote to Coumadin therapy. d. contain excess extrinsic factor.

ANS: C

85.

Activation of plasminogen a. depresses the bone marrow. b. dissolves blood clots. c. causes hemolysis and jaundice. d. All of the above are true.

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ANS: B 86.

Which of the following best describes a granulocyte? a. Myelocytic and hemostatic b. Granulocytic and antigenic c. Phagocytic and myelocytic d. Hemostatic and lymphocytic ANS: C

87.

Which of the following blood cells is myelocytic and immature?

Megakaryocyte Platelet Neutrophil Reticulocyte

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 88.

With which descriptive word(s) are the terms anisocytosis and poikilocytosis associated?

Color and degree of immaturity Granular and agranular Shape Antigenic and hive producing

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 89.

Erythropoiesis is least associated with which of the following? a. Monoblast b. Bone marrow c. Reticulocyte d. Hemoglobin ANS: A

90.

Identify the following: vascular spasm, platelet plug, coagulation.

Hemopoiesis Hemostasis Homeostasis Poikilocytosis

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 91.

Which of the following words best describes the fate of iron following the normal degradation of RBCs? a. Recycled b. Excreted in the urine c. Converted to bilirubin and excreted by the liver into the bile d. Converted to urea in the liver and excreted by the kidneys ANS: A

92.

Which of the following is true of the platelet? a. Is derived from the megakaryocyte

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b. Is phagocytic c. Has a half-life of 3 months d. Is a mature reticulocyte ANS: A 93.

In what way is the neutrophil similar to the monocyte? Both are phagocytic. hemostatic. derived from the megakaryocyte. granulocytic.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 94.

Erythropoietin is secreted a. in response to thrombopoiesis. b. in response to increasing blood levels of CO2. c. when prothrombin is activated to thrombin. d. when blood levels of oxygen decline.

ANS: D

95.

What information is provided by the differential white count?

The rate at which blood clots The percentage of white blood cells in a sample of blood The rate at which blood cells are produced by the bone marrow The lifespans of the different blood cells

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 96.

A hematocrit of 35% (male) is most often indicative of dehydration. the body’s response to exercise-induced heavy sweating. the physiological response to chronic lung disease (e.g., hypoxemia). deficiency of RBCs as in anemia.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 97.

Which of the following words is descriptive of a blast cell? a. Immature b. Enlarged c. Misshapen d. Excessive ANS: A

98.

What is the most important role of hemoglobin?

Transport of bilirubin Regulation of blood pH Regulation of blood glucose Transport of oxygen

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

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99.

Leukopenia, granulocytopenia, and neutropenia a. define pancytopenia. b. cause jaundice. c. develop in response to erythropoietin. d. are terms that refer to a deficiency of white blood cells.

ANS: D

100.

PMNs, polys, segs, and “shift to the left” are all terms that refer to blood clots. are related to erythrocytes. are related to white blood cells. indicate impending hemorrhage.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 101.

Stickiness, plug, and hemostasis are terms that are most related to neutrophils. phagocytes. platelets. albumin.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 102.

Which of the following best describes albumin?

RBC, O2 transport Water balance, plasma protein Plasma protein, phagocytosis CO2 transport, immune response

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 103.

Which of the following is least descriptive of prothrombin?

Hepatic synthesis Vitamin K dependent Albumin Activated by PTA and calcium

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 104.

PTA and calcium generate a. Thrombin b. Vitamin K c. Prothrombin d. Hemophilic factor ANS: A

105.

Which of the following is least descriptive of hemophilia? a. Bleeding disorder b. Factor VIII deficiency c. Males are symptomatic; females are “carriers”

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d. A pancytopenic event ANS: D 106.

Which of the following is least related to the other words?

Fibrinolysis Platelet plug formation tPA Plasmin

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 107.

Name the anticoagulant that interferes with the hepatic utilization of vitamin K in the synthesis of prothrombin. a. Clopidogrel (Plavix) b. Digoxin c. Coumadin d. Heparin ANS: C

108.

Which term best describes the following: A, B, AB, and O? Antibodies Megakaryocyte fragments Fibrin strands Antigens

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 109.

The prothrombin time is prolonged whenever blood fails to clot. as a response to anemia. in the presence of hypoprothrombinemia. whenever the patient becomes thrombocytopenic.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 110.

What happens when thrombin levels elevate locally?

The patient bleeds.

The patient becomes jaundiced.

The blood clots.

Prothrombin time is prolonged.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 111.

Which of the following is most apt to cause deep vein thrombosis? a. Thrombocytopenia b. Neutropenia c. Hemolysis d. Venous stasis ANS: D

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112.

Which of the following is common to all forms of severe anemia?

Bone pain Hypoxemia Folic acid deficiency Iron deficiency

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 113.

Which of the following mom-baby combinations is most apt to induce erythroblastosis fetalis?

Mom A(–), baby A(+) Mom A(–), baby O(–) Mom A(+), baby A(–) Mom A(+), baby A(+)

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 114.

Which of the following mom-baby combinations is most apt to induce erythroblastosis fetalis? a. Mom O(+), baby O(+) b. Mom AB(+), baby AB(–) c. Mom AB(–). Baby O(–) d. Mom AB(–), baby O(+) ANS: D

115.

Which of the following is common to all forms of anemia?

Elevated WBC count Thrombocytopenia Low hematocrit Leukocytosis

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 116.

A patient has had a (+) Guaiac test (stools) for 1 year. He is most apt to present to his primary care physician (PCP) with a. low hematocrit and hematuria. b. vitamin B12 deficiency and pernicious anemia. c. low hematocrit and iron-deficiency anemia. d. hypoxemia and secondary polycythemia.

ANS: C

117.

A secondary polycythemia is most often due to hyperventilation. chronic hypoxemia. hypoglycemia. glucosuria.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 118.

The antithrombin activity of a drug a. delays clotting. b. is the major cause of petechiae formation. c. is caused by a platelet deficiency.

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d. is reversed by vitamin K. ANS: A 119.

What organ synthesizes many vitamin K–dependent clotting factors?

Bone marrow Spleen Liver Kidney

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 120.

This blood cell is elevated in persons with allergies and parasitic diseases.

Basophil Eosinophil Neutrophil Lymphocyte

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 121.

This blood cell secretes both histamine and heparin.

Basophil Eosinophil Neutrophil Lymphocyte

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

PRIMEXAM.COM

Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

Chapter 16: Anatomy of the Heart Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which layer of the heart allows it to act as a pump? a. Epicardium b. Myocardium c. Pericardium d. Endocardium ANS: B 2. Which slinglike structure supports the heart? a. Pericardium b. Chordae tendineae c. Myocardium d. Endocardium ANS: A 3. What is the hardest working cardiac chamber and therefore has the thickest myocardium? a. Right atrium b. Right ventricle c. Left atrium d. Left ventricle ANS: D

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4. The right ventricle pumps blood to the a. right atrium. b. pulmonary veins. c. pulmonary artery. d. aorta.

ANS: C 5. A vessel(s) that carry(ies) blood from the pulmonary capillaries to the left atrium is (are) the a. aorta. b. pulmonary artery. c. pulmonary veins. d. vena cava.

ANS: C 6. The aorta receives blood from the a. right ventricle. b. pulmonary veins. c. pulmonary artery. d. left ventricle.

ANS: D

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

7. Blood flows from the right atrium through which atrioventricular valve to the right ventricle? a. Bicuspid b. Mitral c. Pulmonic d. Tricuspid ANS: D 8. Which of the following structures receives unoxygenated blood? a. Aorta b. Left ventricle c. Pulmonary artery d. Pulmonary veins ANS: C 9. Which of the following receives oxygenated blood? a. Venae cavae b. Pulmonary veins c. Right atrium d. Pulmonic valve ANS: B 10. Chordae tendineae are not associated with this valve. a. Aortic b. Mitral NURSINGTB.COM c. Tricuspid d. Bicuspid ANS: A

11. With which of the following is “lubb-dupp” associated? a. Myocardial contraction b. Ventricular depolarization c. Closing of heart valves d. Diffusion of O2 from the lungs to the blood in the pulmonary capillaries ANS: C 12. Which of the following supplies oxygenated blood to the heart muscle? a. Coronary arteries b. Pulmonary artery c. Pulmonary veins d. Cardiac veins ANS: A 13. Where does the cardiac action potential (cardiac impulse) normally originate? a. AV node b. Purkinje fibers c. Ectopic focus

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. SA node ANS: D 14. The pacemaker of the heart is located in the upper wall of the a. right atrium. b. right ventricle. c. left atrium. d. left ventricle.

ANS: A 15. Referring to the ECG, the P wave represents a. atrial contraction. b. ventricular relaxation. c. atrial depolarization. d. atrial repolarization.

ANS: C 16. Referring to the ECG, the QRS complex represents ventricular a. contraction. b. repolarization. c. relaxation. d. depolarization.

ANS: D 17. Which structure connects theNcU usR psSoIf N thG eT AB V.vC alO veM s to the ventricles? a. Purkinje fibers b. AV node c. Bundle of His d. Chordae tendineae ANS: D 18. What are the conducting fibers that rapidly spread the electrical signal throughout the

ventricles?

Bundle of His Purkinje fibers SA node AV node

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 19. Which of the following is least related to the mitral valve? a. Left heart b. Bicuspid c. Semilunar d. Chordae tendineae ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 20. All of the following are electrical terms except a. sarcomere. b. depolarization. c. action potential. d. repolarization.

ANS: A 21. Which of the following must precede ventricular contraction? a. Ventricular systole b. “Lubb-dupp” c. Ventricular depolarization d. Closing of the AV valves ANS: C 22. Through which of the following semilunar valves does oxygenated blood pass? a. Mitral b. Bicuspid c. Aortic d. Pulmonic ANS: C 23. The correct sequence is: Blood flows from the right atrium to the right ventricle to the

pulmonary artery to the pulmonary veins. coronary arteries. pulmonary capillaries. vena cava.

a. b. c. d.

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ANS: C

24. What event causes the pulmonic valve to open? a. The P wave b. An increase in the pressure within the right ventricle c. “Lubb-dupp” d. Contraction of the chordae tendineae ANS: B 25. Which layer of the heart also lines the valves and is continuous with blood vessels? a. Myocardium b. Endocardium c. Epicardium d. Pericardium ANS: B 26. The epicardium is a layer of the a. myocardium. b. diaphragm. c. pericardium.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. endocardium.

ANS: C 27. The mitral and the bicuspid valves a. are semilunar valves. b. are both located on the right side of the heart. c. “see” only unoxygenated blood. d. are the same valves.

ANS: D 28.

The pulmonic and aortic valves are atrioventricular valves. “see” only oxygenated blood. are attached to the ventricular walls by chordae tendineae. are semilunar valves.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 29. The correct sequence is: Blood flows from the pulmonary capillaries to the pulmonary veins

to the left atrium to the left ventricle to the vena cava. pulmonary artery. aorta. circle of Willis.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

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30. The atrioventricular node (AV node) a. is the pacemaker of the heart. b. is located in the upper part of the right atrium. c. has a rate that is normally faster than the SA node. d. delays the electrical signal coming from the atria into the ventricles.

ANS: D 31. The purpose of this structure is to delay the spread of the signal from the atrium to the

ventricles. a. SA node b. Purkinje fibers c. Bundle of His d. AV node ANS: D 32. Which of the following is an electrical event? a. “Lubb-dupp” b. Actin and myosin interaction c. Murmur d. Depolarization ANS: D

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

33. Which of the following is a result of ventricular contraction? a. The AV valves open. b. The semilunar valves close. c. Blood is pumped into the pulmonary artery and the aorta. d. Blood flows back into the atria.

ANS: C 34. Under what condition is blood most likely to flow “backward” (e.g., from the left ventricle

back into the left atrium)?

Pulmonary artery hypertension Left ventricular hypertrophy An insufficient mitral valve Pulmonary edema

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 35. What are ventricles “doing” during atrial contraction? a. Pumping blood into the great vessels b. Closing their AV valves c. Relaxing d. Opening their semilunar valves ANS: C 36. The Purkinje fibers a. open valves.

NURSINGTB.C OM b. pull on the cusps of the valves. c. conduct electrical signals throughout the ventricles. d. close valves.

ANS: C 37. Which cavity first receives unoxygenated blood from the vena cava? a. Right ventricle b. Left atrium c. Left ventricle d. Right atrium ANS: D 38. What is the name of the valve that prevents backflow of blood into the right atrium when the

right ventricle contracts?

Mitral Pulmonic Semilunar Tricuspid

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 39. What is the cause of the heart sounds “lubb-dupp”? a. Closing of the heart valves

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. Flow of blood through the coronary arteries c. The electrical signal as it moves through the AV node d. The firing of the autonomic nerves to the SA node ANS: A 40. Which of the following is not true of the heart? a. The heart is located within the mediastinum. b. The apex is located left of the sternal midline at the level of the fifth intercostal

space. c. The base of the heart is located at the level of the second rib. d. The pericardium is composed of actin and myosin.

ANS: D 41. Which of the following is least descriptive of the myocardium? a. Supplied with blood by the coronary arteries b. Thicker in the ventricles than the atria c. Thicker in the left ventricle than the right ventricle d. Thicker in the left atrium than the right ventricle ANS: D 42. Which of the following is a function of a valve? a. Regulates the direction of blood flow through the heart b. Regulates the amount of oxygen bound to hemoglobin c. Regulates heart rate d. Directs the movement of N the R cardIiacGimpBu. lsC eM ANS: A

U S N T

O

43. Which of the following is true of the structures of the electrical conduction system? a. The AV valve is the pacemaker. b. In normal sinus rhythm, the electrical signal arises within the SA node. c. The His-Purkinje system spreads the electrical system from the right atrium to the

left atrium. d. The purpose of the AV node is to increase the speed at which the cardiac impulse

moves from the atria to the ventricles.

ANS: B 44. Which of the following is least true of the aortic valve? a. It is also called the left semilunar valve. b. It “sees” oxygenated blood. c. Blood flows from the ventricle through this valve into the pulmonary artery. d. An incompetent aortic valve allows blood to leak from the aorta back into the left

ventricle.

ANS: C 45. An accumulation of excess fluid in the pericardial space a. causes external compression of the heart. b. depresses the SA node, thereby eliminating pacemaker activity.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. causes valvular stenosis. d. causes a left-to-right shunt.

ANS: A 46. A hole in the interventricular septum causes a. blood to shunt from left atrium to the right atrium. b. extreme cyanosis. c. blood to shunt from the left ventricle to the right ventricle. d. blood to shunt from the left ventricle to the pulmonary artery.

ANS: C 47. Which structure “sees” oxygenated blood? a. Tricuspid valve b. Pulmonary artery c. Pulmonary veins d. Right semilunar valve ANS: C 48. Which group is incorrect? a. Semilunar valves: pulmonic, aortic b. Atrioventricular valves: tricuspid, bicuspid, mitral c. Structures that carry oxygenated blood: pulmonary veins, left ventricle, aorta d. Structures that carry unoxygenated blood: right ventricle, venae cavae, pulmonary

veins ANS: D

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49. Which group is incorrect? a. b. c. d.

Semilunar valves: pulmonic, aortic Structures that carry oxygenated blood: pulmonary veins, left ventricle, aorta Layers of the heart: epicardium, myocardium, endocardium Abnormal heart rates: tachycardia, bradycardia, normal sinus rhythm

ANS: D 50. Which group is incorrect? a. Atrioventricular valves: tricuspid, bicuspid, mitral b. Layers of the heart: epicardium, myocardium, endocardium c. Abnormal heart rates: tachycardia, bradycardia d. Parts of the conduction system: SA node, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers,

medulla oblongata ANS: D 51. Which of the following is true of the myocardium? a. Is nourished by the coronary arteries b. Contracts in response to electrical signals c. Is thicker in the left ventricle than in the right ventricle d. All of the above

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: D 52. During ventricular contraction, the a. AV valves close in response to intraventricular pressure. b. ECG is displaying the T wave. c. semilunar valves close, causing S1. d. ECG is displaying the P-R interval.

ANS: A 53. Which of the following is most related to “lubb” (of the lubb-dupp duo)? a. Called S1 b. Caused by the closure of the AV valves c. Occurs in response to ventricular contraction d. All of the above ANS: D 54. S2 is a. caused by the closure of the AV valves at the beginning of ventricular contraction. b. the second heart sound. c. the heart sound caused by the opening of valves. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: B 55. The purpose of the right heart is to pump blood a. to the systemic circulatio n.

I G B.C M

N R

b. into the aorta.

U S N T O c. to the left anterior descending and circumflex arteries. d. to the lungs for oxygenation.

ANS: D 56. Which of the following is not considered a “great” vessel? a. Left anterior descending artery b. Aorta c. Venae cavae d. Pulmonary artery ANS: A 57. Which of the following spaces is not related to the heart? a. Thoracic cavity b. Pericardial cavity c. Dorsal cavity d. Mediastinum ANS: C 58. The semilunar valves a. receive blood from the contracting ventricles. b. are anchored by chordae tendineae.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. “see” only oxygenated blood. d. “see” only unoxygenated blood.

ANS: A 59. Cells that spontaneously depolarize from resting membrane potential to threshold potential a. are called pacemaker cells. b. normally “live” within the chordae tendineae. c. are restricted to the SA node. d. are stored within the pericardium.

ANS: A 60. The heart a. lies within the mediastinal and thoracic cavities. b. beats only in response to stimulation by the autonomic nerves. c. is located within the pleural cavity. d. is located between the fifth and twelfth ribs in the left thoracic region.

ANS: A 61. Stenosis of which valve causes right ventricular hypertrophy? a. Mitral b. Tricuspid c. Right semilunar d. Left semilunar ANS: C

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62. Which of the following is true about the left ventricular myocardium? a. Pumps blood into the pulmonary artery b. Contraction pumps blood into the aorta c. Receives oxygenated blood from the precordium d. Contains unoxygenated blood ANS: B 63. What is located at the second rib and fifth intercostal space? a. Base and apex of the heart b. Semilunar valves c. AV valves d. SA node and AV nodes ANS: A 64. The bicuspid and mitral valves a. are semilunar valves. b. “see” only unoxygenated blood. c. “see” only oxygenated blood d. are exit valves.

ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 65. What are the two phases of the ventricular action potential (cardiac impulse)? a. Systole and diastole b. Filling and ejecting c. Depolarization and repolarization d. P wave and T wave ANS: C 66. Under what condition will the AV node become the pacemaker? a. When its rate of spontaneous depolarization exceeds that of the ventricular

conduction cells b. As a normal response to sympathetic nerve discharge c. When its rate of spontaneous depolarization exceeds that of the SA node d. In the presence of normal sinus rhythm ANS: C 67. In normal sinus rhythm (NSR), the a. cardiac impulse originates in the sinoatrial node. b. action potential originates in the AV node. c. AV node activates the SA node. d. action potential is generated by the sympathetic nerve.

ANS: A 68.

During ventricular filling, the a. semilunar valves are open. b. AV valves are closed. N R I G B.C M U S N T O c. QRS complex is “happening.” d. ventricles are relaxed.

ANS: D 69. Which of the following is true regarding the mediastinum? a. It is located within the pleural cavity. b. The lungs are located within the mediastinum. c. The mediastinum is located to the right of the midline of the sternum. d. The mediastinum is a space between the lungs.

ANS: D 70. Which of the following is located between the visceral and parietal pericardium? a. The mediastinum b. A space that contains serous fluid c. The precordium d. The endocardium ANS: B 71. Which structure is not perfused by the blood that is pumped from the right ventricle to the left

ventricle? a. Mitral valve b. Pulmonary artery

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. Pulmonary veins d. Aorta ANS: D 72. Which structure is not perfused by blood that flows from the pulmonary capillaries to the

aorta? a. Right atrium b. Aortic semilunar valve c. Mitral valve d. Pulmonary veins ANS: A 73. What structure is not perfused as blood flows from the venae cavae to the pulmonary veins? a. Right ventricle b. Left anterior descending artery c. Pulmonary artery d. Pulmonary capillaries ANS: B 74. Which of the following is part of the blood flow through the heart? a. Left atrium b. Left anterior descending artery c. Circumflex artery d. Right coronary artery ANS: A

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75. In which structure is oxygen saturation lowest? a. Right atrium b. Pulmonary capillaries c. Pulmonary veins d. Left ventricle ANS: A 76. In which structure is the oxygen saturation highest? a. Pulmonary veins b. Venae cavae c. Right ventricle d. Pulmonary artery ANS: A 77. Which of the following is not part of coronary circulation? a. Left anterior descending artery b. Circumflex artery c. Pulmonary veins d. Posterior descending artery ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

78. Which of the following best indicates why the left ventricular myocardium is thicker than the

right ventricular myocardium? a. Ventricular oxygen saturation is greater in the left ventricle. b. The left ventricle works harder than the right ventricle. c. The aortic valve is narrower than the pulmonic valve. d. Left ventricular volume is less than right ventricular volume.

ANS: B 79. Which of the following is true of the aorta? a. It distributes unoxygenated blood to the systemic circulation. b. It distributes oxygenated blood to the pulmonic circulation. c. It arises within the left ventricle. d. It is color coded blue to indicate its degree of oxygen saturation.

ANS: C 80. Which of the following best describes the function of the pulmonary artery? a. It carries unoxygenated blood to the right atrium. b. It supplies lung tissue with oxygenated blood. c. It carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium. d. It carries unoxygenated blood to the pulmonary capillaries, where gas exchange

occurs.

ANS: D 81. Which of the following is moNst dResc I rip tiG ve oBf. thC e trM icuspid valve?

U a. “Sees” oxygenated blood S N T O b. Entrance valve: right ventricle c. Exit valve: right ventricle d. Semilunar valve ANS: B 82. Into what structure does blood reflux as a consequence of an incompetent aortic semilunar

valve? a. Right atrium b. Circumflex artery c. Left ventricle d. Pulmonary artery ANS: C 83. Which is true of the semilunar valves? a. They are both located in the left heart. b. They are entrance valves. c. They have chordae tendineae attached to their cusps. d. They prevent the backflow of blood from the aorta and pulmonary artery into their

respective ventricles.

ANS: D

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 84. Which of the following is responsible for the opening and closing of the heart valves? a. Pressure exerted on the valves as the heart contracts and relaxes b. Electrical signals arising in the SA node c. The degree of oxygen concentration of blood in the ventricles d. The amount of blood in the heart ANS: A 85. What is the cause of ventricular hypertrophy? a. The heart muscle is not receiving sufficient oxygen. b. The ventricle is working too hard. c. The person has an infection. d. There is excess fluid accumulating in the pericardial space.

ANS: B 86. What is the valvular response to the contraction of the ventricles? a. The AV valves open. b. The semilunar valves close. c. The pulmonic and aortic valves open. d. The entrance valves open.

ANS: C 87. Describe the valvular response to the relaxation of the right ventricle. a. The tricuspid valve opens b. The right AV valve snaps closed c. The pulmonic valve o p e nNs R I G B.C M Sheart N T d. The semilunar valve in the U right opens O ANS: A 88. The intent is to measure pulmonary wedge pressure, a procedure that requires the

advancement of a catheter up to the pulmonary capillaries. The catheter is inserted into the left subclavian vein. Identify the structure that the catheter does not pass through on its way to the pulmonary capillaries. a. Right atrium b. Tricuspid valve c. Pulmonic valve d. Pulmonary veins ANS: D 89. Which of the following is a correct valvular position when the atria are contracting? a. The tricuspid valve is closed. b. The pulmonic valve is open. c. Both semilunar valves are open. d. Both AV valves are open.

ANS: D 90. Which of the following best describes a pacemaker cell? a. Restricted to the SA node

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. Spontaneous depolarization c. Incapable of repolarization d. Stable resting membrane potential ANS: B 91. When is coronary blood flow greatest? a. During ventricular contraction b. Immediately following the QRS complex on the ECG c. During myocardial relaxation d. During myocardial contraction ANS: C 92. Why may a “racing heart” (170 bpm) cause chest pain? a. Chemicals produced by the metabolizing cells stimulate the vagal pain receptors. b. A racing heart decreases diastole, the period when coronary blood flow is

maximal. c. A racing heart decreases the time that the heart spends in systole. d. Excess waste produced by metabolizing myocardial cells causes microthrombi to accumulate in the coronary arteries.

ANS: B 93. What causes S1 and S2? a. Closure of heart valves b. Firing of the SA node c. Opening of heart valves N R I G B.C M U S along N T the His-Purkinje O d. Movement of the cardiac impulse fibers ANS: A 94. Which of the following is least true of S2? a. Also known as dupp b. Heart sound c. Indicative of a gallop rhythm d. Heard at the beginning of ventricular relaxation (diastole) ANS: C 95. Which of the following is most true of S1? a. Also known as dupp b. Indicative of gallop rhythm c. Occurs during the beginning of ventricular systole with the closure of the tricuspid

and mitral valves d. It is the heart sound caused by the rapid movement of the action potential along the

His-Purkinje system.

ANS: C 96. Which of the following best describes the heart as a double pump? a. Atria and ventricles b. Right and left

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. AV and semilunar d. Interatrial septum, interventricular septum ANS: B 97. A signal is generated by the SA node and is regularly discharged to the rest of the conduction

system. Which of the following best describes this activity? a. Contraction and relaxation b. Automaticity and rhythmicity c. Sinoatrial node and atrioventricular node d. Lubb dupp ANS: B 98. Which of the following is true regarding cardiac blood flow? a. In the normal heart, coronary blood flow increases with exercise. b. In a diseased heart coronary blood flow may be maximal at rest. c. In a diseased heart exertion may cause ischemia and angina. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 99. What is the significance of elevated plasma levels of AST, CPK, and LDH? a. Myocardial damage as in myocardial infarction b. A normal myocardial response to exercise c. An increase in coronary blood flow d. Early-onset exertional angina ANS: A

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100. With which of the following are these words most related: electrical signal, action potential,

cardiac impulse, and nerve impulse? a. Tricuspid and mitral atrioventricular valves b. Aortic and pulmonic semilunar valves c. Depolarization and repolarization d. Contraction and relaxation ANS: C 101. Which of the following defines a nodal rhythm? a. Sinus rhythm is normal. b. The electrical signal arises within the SA node. c. The electrical signal arises within the AV node. d. The ventricular myocardium is fibrillating.

ANS: C 102. Heart rate is slowest if the pacemaker activity signal originates in the a. SA node. b. AV node. c. normal pacemaker of the heart. d. ventricular pacemaker cells.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: D

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

Chapter 17: Function of the Heart Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Systole and diastole describe the function of the a. pericardium. b. SA node. c. myocardium. d. mediastinum.

ANS: C 2.

During atrial systole, the AV valves are closed. ventricles are relaxed. ventricles are in systole. semilunar valves are open.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 3. What happens during ventricular diastole? a. The ventricles are filling with blood. b. All semilunar valves are open. c. Both AV valves are closed. d. Blood is pumped to the lungs and systemic circulation.

ANS: A

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4. Which of the following is the most likely consequence of a very rapid heart rate? a. Decreased ventricular filling (with blood) b. Failure of the AV valves to open c. Failure of the SA node to fire d. Failure of the cardiac impulse to enter the His-Purkinje system ANS: A 5. Which of the following does not happen to a ventricle? a. Activation of the beta1-adrenergic receptors b. Discharge of sympathetic nerves c. Discharge of the vagal nerve d. Binding of norepinephrine to its receptor ANS: C 6. Which of the following is most likely to relieve an anxiety-induced tachycardia? a. Vagolytic drug b. Beta1-adrenergic agonist c. Sympathomimetic d. Beta1-adrenergic blocker ANS: D

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

7. Which of the following is responsible for the Starling effect? a. Sympathetic nerve firing b. Vagal discharge c. Activation of the beta1-adrenergic receptors d. End-diastolic volume (EDV) or preload ANS: D 8. Which of the following is most likely to increase stroke volume? a. A (+) inotropic drug b. A vagolytic drug c. A (–) chronotropic drug d. A beta1-adrenergic blocker ANS: A 9. Which of the following is most likely to increase ejection fraction? a. Activation of beta1-adrenergic receptors b. Vagal discharge c. Blockade of beta1-adrenergic receptors d. Activation of the muscarinic receptors ANS: A 10. Which of the following is the same as end-diastolic volume? a. Stroke volume b. Cardiac output NURSINGTB.COM c. Preload d. Cardiac reserve ANS: C

11. What term refers to the amount of blood pumped by the ventricle in one beat? a. Cardiac output b. Blood volume c. Hematocrit d. Stroke volume ANS: D 12. Which term refers to the amount of blood pumped by the heart in 1 minute? a. Stroke volume b. Cardiac output c. Starling’s law of the heart d. Inotropic effect ANS: B 13. Sympathetic nerve stimulation of the myocardium a. causes a (+) inotropic effect. b. decreases cardiac output. c. decreases heart rate.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. decreases stroke volume.

ANS: A 14. Vagal stimulation to the heart causes a. a (+) inotropic effect. b. heart rate to slow. c. cardiac output to increase. d. stroke volume to increase.

ANS: B 15. Excess vagal stimulation to the SA node is most likely to cause a. hypertension. b. bradycardia. c. tachycardia. d. anemia.

ANS: B 16. Which of the following is descriptive of the vagus nerve? a. Fight-or-flight b. Parasympathetic c. Sympathetic d. Adrenergic ANS: B 17. Heart rate and stroke volumeNdU etR erS mI inN e GTB.COM a. hematocrit. b. total blood volume. c. cardiac output. d. the size of the heart valves.

ANS: C 18. A drug (e.g., atropine) that blocks the effects of the vagus nerve a. stops the heart. b. increases heart rate. c. decreases cardiac output. d. decreases stroke volume.

ANS: B 19. Activation of the muscarinic receptors by acetylcholine a. increases myocardial contractile force. b. causes a (+) chronotropic effect. c. increases cardiac output. d. slows heart rate.

ANS: D 20. Decreased blood flow through the coronary arteries is most likely to cause

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. b. c. d.

valve damage. pulmonary edema. angina pectoris. bradycardia.

ANS: C 21. Which term refers to a heart rate less than 60 beats/min? a. Bradycardia b. Heart block c. Fight-or-flight response d. Tachycardia ANS: A 22. Vagal stimulation on the heart a. increases the force of myocardial contraction. b. increases the amount of blood that flows into the heart from the vena cava. c. causes tachycardia. d. slows the heart rate.

ANS: D 23. Which of the following most accurately describes the vagus nerve? a. Fight or flight b. Norepinephrine c. Parasympathetic d. Causes tachycardia

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ANS: C

24. What is the term for the sequence of events that occur during one heartbeat? a. Stroke volume b. Cardiac output c. Cardiac cycle d. Systole ANS: C 25. Which of the following is approximately 70 mL? a. The cardiac output b. The volume of a ventricle c. An average stroke volume d. The amount of blood that flows through the pulmonary capillaries in one minute ANS: C 26. Which of the following refers to a positive inotropic effect? a. Heart block b. A slow heart rate c. A rapid heartbeat d. An increased myocardial contractile force

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: D 27. Sympathetic stimulation to the heart a. decreases stroke volume. b. increases heart rate. c. causes bradycardia. d. decreases cardiac output.

ANS: B 28. Cardiac output is determined by heart rate and a. systemic vascular resistance. b. stroke volume. c. hematocrit. d. hemoglobin concentration.

ANS: B 29. What is the term that refers to an increase in stroke volume in response to the stretching of the

heart?

Starling’s law of the heart A positive inotropic effect Heart block Angina pectoris

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 30. Atropine is a muscarinic antagon ist a nd is th e re fo re u sed to N R I G B. C M a. relieve bradycardia.

U S N T O b. decrease heart rate. c. block the effects of norepinephrine. d. increase myocardial contractile force.

ANS: A 31. Which of the following is descriptive of a drug that causes a (+) inotropic effect, a (+)

dromotropic effect, and a (+) chronotropic effect?

Vagomimetic Sympathomimetic Antimuscarinic Vagolytic

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 32. Which of the following drugs is sympathomimetic? a. Beta1-adrenergic blocker b. Muscarinic agonist c. Vagolytic d. Beta1-adrenergic agonist ANS: D 33. An increased preload

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. b. c. d.

decreases cardiac output. increases stroke volume. increases cardiac reserve. increases afterload.

ANS: B 34. Increased afterload (e.g., hypertension) a. is usually caused by arteriolar dilation. b. increases the work of the heart. c. can only occur when preload increases. d. is usually caused by intense parasympathetic (vagal) discharge.

ANS: B 35. Cardiac output a. is determined by heart rate and pulse. b. decreases in response to sympathetic nerve stimulation. c. increases in response to vagal discharge. d. is determined by heart rate and stroke volume.

ANS: D 36. Increased return of the blood to the heart stretches the muscle, thereby a. stimulating the sympathetic nerve. b. activating the beta1-adrenergic receptors. c. closing the AV valves. d. increasing stroke volumeN . R I G B.C M

U S N T

O

ANS: D 37. An ejection fraction of 30% is a. normal. b. characteristic of a healthy person who is engaged in aerobic exercise. c. characteristic of a failing heart. d. the amount of oxygenated hemoglobin in the blood in the left ventricle.

ANS: C 38. A stenotic aortic valve a. causes right ventricular hypertrophy and right-sided heart failure. b. increases afterload, thereby increasing the work of the left ventricle. c. causes a right-to-left shunt. d. is a narrowing of the right semilunar valve.

ANS: B 39. Which of the following is the most likely consequence of acute left ventricular failure? a. Jugular vein distention b. Hepatomegaly and splenomegaly c. Pulmonary edema d. Pedal edema

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: C 40. Most of the symptoms of acute left-sided heart failure are a. relieved by morphine. b. cured by an antibiotic. c. respiratory in nature (e.g., dyspnea, orthopnea). d. confined to the lower extremities, as in pedal edema.

ANS: C 41. Which of the following is an example of forward failure? a. Blood accumulates in the pulmonary capillaries, elevating pressure and causing

pulmonary edema. b. Diminished renal blood flow stimulates the kidney to decrease urinary output and retain Na+ and water. c. Blood distends the jugular vein. d. Blood distends the liver, causing hepatomegaly and digestive symptoms.

ANS: B 42. Furosemide (Lasix), a potent diuretic, is administered in acute ventricular failure to a. strengthen myocardial contractile force. b. increase plasma K+ levels. c. excrete excess water and relieve the edema. d. relieve pain.

ANS: C

N R I G B.C M

43. Digoxin, a drug used in the treaUtmeSnt oNf hT eart failO ure, increases contractile force and is

therefore called a diuretic. (+) dromotropic agent. (+) inotropic agent. (+) chronotropic agent.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 44. An increase in venous return causes an increase in cardiac output. This is accomplished by a. a (+) inotropic effect. b. depolarization. c. Starling’s law of the heart. d. a (+) chronotropic effect.

ANS: C 45. Milliliters/beat  beats/min defines a. stroke volume. b. ejection fraction. c. cardiac reserve. d. cardiac output.

ANS: D

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 46. The amount of blood in the ventricle at the end of its resting phase is the a. end-diastolic volume (EDV). b. amount of blood in the ventricle at the end of its resting phase. c. preload. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 47. Under what condition is end-diastolic volume (EDV) most likely to increase while ejection

fraction decreases?

Exercise Sympathetic nerve stimulation (+) Inotropic response Heart failure

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 48. A change in preload causes a change in myocardial contractile force. This response is known

as (a) (+) inotropic effect. (+) dromotropic effect.

Starling’s law of the heart.

(–) chronotropic effect.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 49. A drug causes a (+) inotropic effect, a (–) dromotropic effect, and a (–) chronotropic effect.

What drug response would yN ou eRx p eIc t toGobB se. rvCe? M Tachycardia U S N T O Low blood pressure Ankle edema Slow heart rate

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

50. A patient in heart failure is given a drug that is classified as a beta1-adrenergic agonist. The

drug a. blocks the beta1-adrenergic receptors and causes a (–) chronotropic and (–) inotropic effect. b. activates the beta1-adrenergic receptors and causes bronchoconstriction. c. activates the beta1-adrenergic receptors and causes a (+) inotropic effect. d. activates the vagus nerve, thereby slowing heart rate and strengthening myocardial contraction.

ANS: C 51. Which of the following statements is correct about cardiac output? a. Cardiac output is determined by the heart rate and pulse. b. Stimulation of the sympathetic nerves decreases cardiac output. c. Vagal discharge increases cardiac output. d. Cardiac output is determined by heart rate and stroke volume.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: D 52. Increased return of blood to the heart stretches the heart muscle, thereby a. stimulating the vagus nerve. b. increasing stroke volume. c. closing the atrioventricular valves. d. increasing coronary blood flow.

ANS: B 53. Ventricular systole refers to a. ventricular depolarization. b. the opening of the valves of the ventricles. c. ventricular filling. d. contraction of the ventricular myocardium.

ANS: D 54. Milliliters per minute describes a. stroke volume. b. heart rate. c. pulse. d. cardiac output.

ANS: D 55. Which of the following is least related to a bradycardia? a. Greater than 60 beats/min NURSINGTB.COM b. Vagal discharge c. (–) Chronotropic effect d. Parasympathetic nerve stimulation of the SA node ANS: A 56. Which of the following is least likely to increase cardiac output? a. Increased heart rate b. Increased stroke volume c. Increased venous return d. Vagal discharge ANS: D 57. Which of the following is least related to tachydysrhythmias? a. Sympathetic nervous system activation b. Beta1-adrenergic receptor activation c. (+) Dromotropic effect d. Vagal discharge ANS: D 58. Atropine, a muscarinic blocker, a. increases heart rate. b. causes bradycardia.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. is also classified as sympathomimetic. d. is vagomimetic.

ANS: A 59. Starling’s law of the heart relates force of myocardial contraction with a. heart rate. b. preload. c. end-systolic volume. d. blood pressure.

ANS: B 60. Venodilation a. increases afterload. b. decreases preload. c. increases end-diastolic volume. d. stretches the ventricular myocardium.

ANS: B 61. An elevation in pulmonary artery pressure is most likely to cause a. pleural effusion. b. pulmonary edema. c. right ventricular hypertrophy. d. left ventricular failure and pulmonary edema.

ANS: C

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62. Which of the following is least likely to be used in the treatment of left ventricular failure and

pulmonary edema? (+) Inotropic agent such as digoxin or dopamine Diuretic such as furosemide (Lasix) Peripheral vasoconstrictor such as norepinephrine (Levophed) Oxygen

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 63. Jugular vein distention is most associated with a. right-sided heart failure. b. aortic valve stenosis. c. left wall infarct and left ventricular failure. d. low volume shock right-sided heart failure.

ANS: A 64. Which of the following is the best description of systole and diastole? a. Atria and ventricles b. Depolarization and repolarization c. Contraction and relaxation d. Heart rate and stroke volume ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

65. Which of the following does not happen during ventricular diastole? a. Blood is being pumped into the great vessels. b. The semilunar valves are closed. c. Blood is filling the ventricles. d. Blood is flowing from the atria into the ventricles.

ANS: A 66. Which of the following is happening during atrial systole? a. The ventricles are relaxed. b. The AV valves are closed. c. The atria pump blood into the ventricles. d. Both A and C are true.

ANS: D 67. Which of the following is not the result of the firing of the sympathetic nerves on the heart? a. (+) Inotropic effect b. (+) Chronotropic effect c. Increased heart rate d. Vagally induced bradycardia ANS: D 68. Which of the following is most apt to induce an autonomically induced bradycardia? a. Secretion of norepinephrine by the postganglionic adrenergic fibers b. Activation of the beta1-a dNrenR e rgiI c reG c e pB t o. rs C M c. Activation of the muscarinic U receptors S N T O d. Sympathetic nerve stimulation ANS: C 69. Which of the following defines cardiac output? a. Cardiac index  ejection fraction b. Heart rate  stroke volume c. Stroke volume  ejection fraction d. Afterload  heart rate ANS: B 70. Atropine is anticholinergic and antimuscarinic and therefore a. causes a (+) inotropic effect. b. increases the force of myocardial contraction. c. decreases heart rate. d. is used to treat bradydysrhythmias such as heart block and a prolonged P-R

interval.

ANS: D 71. With which of the following is inotropism most associated? a. Heart rate

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. Force of myocardial contraction c. Oxygen saturation d. Systemic vascular resistance ANS: B 72. A very anxious person appears in the ER. He has a heart rate of 160 beats/min and indicates

that he has a history of panic attacks. He is prescribed an antianxiety agent and a drug to slow his heart rate. Identify the drug (to slow heart rate). a. Muscarinic antagonist b. Beta1-adrenergic blocker c. Sympathomimetic d. Vagolytic ANS: B 73. Which of the following is most apt to cause a (+) inotropic effect? a. Activation of the alpha1-adrenergic receptors by ACh b. Activation of the muscarinic receptors by NE c. Blockade of alpha1-adrenergic receptors d. Use of a beta1-adrenergic agonist ANS: D 74. Which of the following elicits the same effect as vagomimetic activity? a. Beta1 blockade b. Activation of the alpha1-adrenergic receptors by ACh c. Activation of the muscariN nic R receIptoG rs bB y.

NC E M d. Use of a muscarinic a gon isU t S

N T

O

ANS: D 75. Which of the following describes Starling’s law of the heart? a. An increase in venous return to the ventricles causes an increase in cardiac output. b. An increase in preload increases cardiac output. c. A decrease in preload decreases cardiac output. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 76. With which term is afterload most associated? a. Preload b. End-diastolic volume c. Resistance d. Hypoxemia ANS: C 77. With which term is preload synonymous? a. Cardiac reserve b. End-diastolic volume c. Afterload d. Ejection fraction

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

ANS: B 78. Digoxin exerts a (–) chronotropic effect and (+) inotropic effect. Which of the following

describes these effects? a. Slows heart rate and decreases cardiac output b. Increases heart rate and increases systemic vascular resistance c. Decreases heart rate and decreases stroke volume d. Decreases heart rate and strengthens myocardial contraction ANS: D 79. Cor pulmonale refers to a. elevation in pulmonary artery pressure and right ventricular hypertrophy. b. backward failure and pulmonary edema. c. pulmonary edema. d. a major cause of left ventricular failure.

ANS: A

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

Chapter 18: Anatomy of the Blood Vessels and Special Circulations Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is the “main vein that drains the brain”? a. Carotid b. Brachial c. Jugular d. Saphenous ANS: C 2. Which is the longest vein in the body that is located in the lower extremity? a. Vena cava b. Subclavian c. Jugular d. Saphenous ANS: D 3. All arteries directly or indirectly emerge from which large artery? a. Pulmonary b. Aorta c. Vena cava d. Subclavian ANS: B

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4. Which blood vessel carries unoxygenated blood? a. Pulmonary artery b. Aorta c. Carotid d. Circle of Willis ANS: A 5. The carotid and vertebral arteries supply the a. heart. b. liver. c. lungs. d. brain.

ANS: D 6. The correct flow of blood is: ascending aorta → arch of the aorta → descending aorta → a. b. c. d.

artery. carotid axillary brachial common iliac

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: D 7. The correct flow of blood is: axillary vein → subclavian vein → brachiocephalic vein →

superior vena cava → inferior vena cava. hepatic vein. right atrium. pulmonary veins.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 8. Which of the following is a short artery that further divides into the gastric, splenic, and

hepatic arteries?

Portal vein Circle of Willis Renal artery Celiac trunk

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 9. The brachial, radial, and ulnar arteries a. are part of the hepatic portal circulation. b. form the circle of Willis. c. are present only in the fetal circulation. d. supply the arm.

ANS: D

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10. Which blood vessel supplies oxygenated blood to the small intestine and parts of the large

intestine?

Common iliac artery Dorsalis pedis artery Superior mesenteric artery Subclavian artery

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 11.

The radial, median cubital, and basilic veins a. are part of the hepatic portal circulation. b. drain venous blood into the inferior vena cava. c. are found in the arms. d. drain the brain.

ANS: C 12. The common iliac veins drain unoxygenated blood into the a. great saphenous vein. b. inferior vena cava. c. portal vein. d. jugular vein.

ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

13. The tibial, peroneal, and popliteal veins a. are part of the hepatic portal circulation. b. form the circle of Willis. c. are found in the lower extremities. d. empty venous blood into the superior vena cava.

ANS: C 14. Which vein begins in the foot, ascends along the medial side, and merges with the femoral

vein to become the external iliac vein?

Dorsalis pedis Popliteal Saphenous Portal

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 15. Which of the following blood vessels brings unoxygenated blood to the liver? a. Celiac trunk b. Jugular vein c. Portal vein d. Hepatic veins ANS: C 16. The correct flow of blood is: thoracic aorta → abdominal aorta → common iliac artery → a. external iliac artery.

NURSINGTB.COM b. carotid artery. c. portal vein. d. celiac axis.

ANS: A

17. The correct flow of blood is: placenta → umbilical vein → ductus venosus → a. foramen ovale. b. umbilical artery. c. inferior vena cava. d. ductus arteriosus.

ANS: C 18. Blood pressure is lowest in the a. inferior vena cava. b. aorta. c. pulmonary capillaries. d. femoral artery.

ANS: A 19. Which of the following emerges from the descending aorta? a. Coronary arteries b. Carotid artery

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. Brachiocephalic artery d. Common iliac arteries ANS: D 20. Which of the following is least true of the common iliac arteries? a. Located in the pelvic cavity b. Branch into arteries that descend into the lower extremities c. Are formed from the distal abdominal aorta d. Contain large valves that direct blood into the femoral arteries ANS: D 21. The ductus arteriosus a. is a branch of the basilar artery that helps form the circle of Willis. b. shunts blood from the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava, thereby bypassing

the fetal liver. c. shunts blood from the descending aorta to the pulmonary artery. d. diverts blood away from the fetal lungs.

ANS: D 22. The splanchnic circulation a. refers to the blood vessels that supply the stomach, spleen, pancreas, and

intestines. b. is the special circulation that brings oxygenated blood to the base of the brain. c. occurs only in the fetal circulation. d. refers to the blood vesselN s in R the I lowG er eB xt. reC mitM ies.

ANS: A

U S N T

O

23. The subclavian veins a. receive blood from the inferior vena cava. b. pump blood into the jugular veins. c. are part of the hepatic portal circulation. d. deliver blood to the brachiocephalic veins.

ANS: D 24. The characteristic of the arteriole that allows it to function as a resistance vessel is its a. thin membrane. b. porous membrane. c. valves. d. smooth muscle.

ANS: D 25. The adventitia, media, and intima are a. semilunar valves. b. arterioles. c. layers of the blood vessels. d. valves that are found within veins.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: C 26. Which of the following blood vessels are called capacitance vessels? a. Arterioles b. Large arteries c. Capillaries d. Veins ANS: D 27. Which of the following vessels carries unoxygenated blood from the liver to the inferior vena

cava?

Portal vein Celiac axis Hepatic artery Hepatic veins

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 28. If the ductus arteriosus fails to close after birth, blood shunts from the aorta to the a. pulmonary artery. b. pulmonary veins. c. coronary artery. d. vena cava.

ANS: A 29. In which fetal blood vessel is oxygen concent ration greatest?

N R I G B.C M a. Aorta U S N T O b. Umbilical vein c. Umbilical arteries d. Left ventricle ANS: B

30. If this fetal heart structure failed to close after birth, blood would shunt from the left atrium

into the right atrium.

Ductus arteriosus Ductus venosus Foramen ovale Circle of Willis

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 31. Which condition is caused by defective valves in the lower leg veins? a. Portal hypertension b. Varicose veins c. Absent pedal pulse d. Ascites ANS: B 32. Which of the following is most likely to cause portal vein hypertension?

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. b. c. d.

Carotid artery occlusion Defective valves in the deep veins of the legs Cirrhosis of the liver Ruptured aortic aneurysm

ANS: C 33. In which condition is the pedal pulse absent? a. Occlusion of the arteries of the leg b. Cirrhosis of the liver c. Portal vein hypertension d. Occlusion of the carotid artery ANS: A 34. The renal arteries a. are part of the splanchnic circulation. b. are part of the hepatic portal circulation. c. exit from the celiac axis. d. deliver oxygenated blood to the kidneys.

ANS: D 35. What are the blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart? a. Veins b. Arteries c. Capillaries d. Venules

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ANS: B

36. Which artery is most often used to evaluate the pulse? a. Carotid b. Brachial c. Femoral d. Radial ANS: D 37. Which blood vessels have very thin walls and are called the exchange vessels? a. Arterioles b. Veins c. Capillaries d. Arteries ANS: C 38. What is the fetal structure that connects the umbilical vein with the inferior vena cava? a. Foramen ovale b. Ductus venosus c. Ductus arteriosus d. Placenta

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: B 39. The subclavian artery is a. a branch of the abdominal aorta. b. part of the hepatic-portal circulation. c. part of the circle of Willis. d. a branch of the aorta that supplies the upper extremity.

ANS: D 40. What is the artery that supplies the head and neck region? a. Jugular b. Axillary c. Portal d. Carotid ANS: D 41. Which structure(s) is (are) supplied by the femoral, popliteal, and tibial arteries? a. Head b. Arms c. Thighs and legs d. Abdomen ANS: C 42. What is the largest vein in the body? a. Circle of Willis NURSINGTB.COM b. Vena cava c. Portal vein d. Jugular vein ANS: B 43. The saphenous vein a. b. c. d.

is the shortest vein in the body. is part of the hepatic-portal system. extends from the foot to the thigh. joins with the mesenteric vein to form the portal vein.

ANS: C 44. Which of the following is the correct sequence regarding blood flow in the fetal circulation? a. Right atrium, foramen ovale, ductus arteriosus b. Umbilical artery, ductus venosus, placenta, inferior vena cava c. Right ventricle, pulmonary artery, ductus arteriosus, aorta d. Right ventricle, pulmonary artery, ductus arteriosus, left ventricle ANS: C 45. Which of the following structures serves as the “lungs” for the fetus? a. Ductus venosus b. Ductus arteriosus

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. Placenta d. Foramen ovale ANS: C 46. Which of the following blood vessels is not located in the head or neck region? a. Jugular veins b. Vertebral arteries c. Common iliac arteries d. Circle of Willis ANS: C 47. Which of the following should be colored blue? a. Umbilical vein b. Jugulars c. Celiac trunk d. Pulmonary veins ANS: B 48. Which blood vessel name means “slumber”? If pressure is exerted over this vessel, the patient

may lose consciousness.

Carotid artery Portal vein Subclavian vein Dorsalis pedis

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

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49. Which of the following does not describe the aorta? a. Arch b. Thoracic c. Portal d. Descending ANS: C 50. Which of the following is true regarding fetal structures? a. The umbilical arteries carry oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus. b. The umbilical vein receives unoxygenated blood from the fetal inferior vena cava. c. The foramen ovale is a temporary ventricular septal hole designed to divert blood

around the fetal lungs. d. The ductus arteriosus connects two fetal blood vessels.

ANS: D 51. Which part of the aorta is located in the abdominal cavity? a. Ascending aorta b. Arch of the aorta c. Thoracic aorta d. Descending aorta

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: D 52. Which of the following is descriptive of the celiac trunk? a. A branch of the ascending aorta b. Gives rise to the gastric, splenic, and hepatic arteries c. Is part of the hepatic portal system d. A branch of the thoracic aorta ANS: B 53. Arterioles spend most of their time a. contracting and relaxing. b. filtering water and solute at one end and reabsorbing water and waste at the other

end. c. absorbing lymph from the interstitium. d. filtering clots out of the blood entering the capillaries.

ANS: A 54. What commonly happens diagnostically at the radial artery? a. A blood sample indicates the hematocrit. b. Blood pressure is determined. c. The pulse is determined. d. The ECG is recorded.

ANS: C 55. Which of the following is c a u se d b y t h e v i b r a t i o n s of the blood vessel walls and reflects heart

rate? a. Blood pressure b. Pulse pressure c. Pulse d. Skin turgor

N R I G B. C M U S N T O

ANS: C

56. Which of the following is true? a. The jugular vein drains blood from the liver. b. Both the vertebral arteries and the internal carotid arteries carry oxygenated blood

to the brain. c. The portal vein delivers oxygenated blood to the liver. d. Both the superior and inferior venae cavae empty blood into the jugular veins.

ANS: B 57. Which of the following is true of the tunica media? a. It is found only within veins. b. It contains vascular smooth muscle. c. It is the only blood vessel layer that is found in the capillaries. d. It is the thinnest of the three blood vessel layers.

ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 58. Which of the following best describes an artery? a. Blood vessel that always carries oxygenated blood b. Blood vessel that is always color-coded red c. Blood vessel that contains valves ensuring the flow of blood from the arterial to

the venous circulation d. Blood vessel that carries blood away from the heart ANS: D 59. These blood vessels are the smallest and most numerous and are composed of a single layer of

endothelium.

Capillaries Venules Veins Arteries

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 60. The capillaries are color-coded red to purple to blue, thereby reflecting a. the movement of carbon dioxide from the tissues to the blood. b. the change in the amount of vascular smooth muscle in the endothelium. c. the diffusion of oxygen from the blood into the tissues. d. the accumulation of metabolic waste in the capillaries.

ANS: C 61. The function of the arterioles is directly related to the a. amount of oxygen in the N b l o oRd . I G B.C M b. amount of vascular smoothUmuS scleNin T t h e arterO iolar walls. c. amount of metabolic waste in the arteriolar blood. d. number of valves within the arterioles.

ANS: B 62. Which of the following represents a correct direction of blood flow? a. Capillaries to arterioles to venules b. Arteries to arterioles to venules to capillaries c. Capillaries to venules to veins d. Arteries to veins to venules to capillaries ANS: C 63. Which of the following blood vessels can withstand the highest blood pressure? a. Artery b. Venule c. Capillary d. Arteriole ANS: A 64. What type of blood vessel is described as follows: carries blood toward the heart; called

capacitance or storage vessels; contains valve? a. Large artery

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. Venule c. Vein d. Capillary ANS: C 65. The single layer of epithelium of this (these) blood vessel(s) allow(s) for the transport of water

and dissolved solute between the blood and interstitium.

Arterioles Aorta Veins Capillaries

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 66. The arterioles act as resistance vessels because of the a. thick layer of connective tissue that is the main component of the arteriolar wall. b. large pores in the arteriolar walls that allow for the diffusion of large amounts of

water and dissolved solute. c. contractile activity of the vascular smooth muscle. d. ability of the arterioles to stretch and store blood.

ANS: C 67. Which of the following is true of the aorta? a. It is the blood vessel into which all veins drain. b. It is usually color-coded blue. c. It is the largest artery from which most other arteries originate.

N

R

I G B.

d. It extends from the u p p e r t hUo r aSx toNtheTdiaphraOgm, at which point it bifurcates into

the common iliac arteries.

ANS: C 68. Which of the following are branches of the ascending aorta? a. Renal arteries b. Left common carotid artery c. Coronary arteries d. Vertebral arteries ANS: C 69. Which of the following is true of both the vertebral and common carotid arteries? Both a. drain their contents into the jugulars. b. arise from the subclavian arteries. c. are branches of the ascending aorta. d. supply oxygenated blood to the circle of Willis.

ANS: D 70. Which of the following is true of both the aortic arch and the right brachiocephalic arteries?

Both a. arise from the coronary arteries. b. deliver their contents to the jugulars.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. receive oxygenated blood from the circle of Willis. d. give rise to the left and right common carotid arteries.

ANS: D 71. The a. subclavian b. brachiocephalic c. brachial d. vertebral

artery extends as the axillary artery.

ANS: A 72. Which of the following is true of the renal arteries? a. They drain urine from the kidneys. b. They emerge from the abdominal aorta. c. They drain into the superior vena cava. d. They branch directly off the common iliac arteries.

ANS: B 73. The femoral vein enters the pelvic cavity as the external iliac vein and drains into the a. popliteal vein. b. saphenous vein. c. common iliac vein. d. portal vein.

ANS: C

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74. What vein is formed by the merger of the two common iliac veins? a. Inferior vena cava b. Femoral vein c. Saphenous vein d. Internal iliac vein ANS: A 75. The merger of these two arteries forms the basilar artery. a. Internal carotid arteries b. Subclavian arteries c. Vertebral arteries d. Brachiocephalic arteries ANS: C 76. The patient is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. A catheter is inserted into the femoral

artery and threaded in a retrograde direction into the coronary arteries. Regarding the pathway of the catheter, it will be threaded through all the blood vessels except the a. descending aorta. b. ascending aorta. c. abdominal aorta. d. inferior vena cava.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: D 77. An occlusion of this blood vessel is most apt to cause difficulties in cognition. a. Common carotid artery b. Portal vein c. Subclavian artery d. Median cubital vein ANS: A 78. Circulation in the foot is assessed by palpating this artery. a. Radial pulse b. Carotid c. Popliteal d. Dorsalis pedis ANS: D 79. Which of the following is true of the celiac trunk? a. It branches off the thoracic aorta. b. It branches off the descending aorta. c. It is part of the hepatic portal circulation. d. It carries venous blood and drains into the portal vein.

ANS: B 80. Which of the following is not true of the portal vein? a. It carries unoxygenated blood. I G B.C M N Rs toNtheTliver. O b. It carries digestive end pro dUu ctS c. It drains blood from the liver and empties it into the inferior vena cava. d. It is formed by the merger of the superior mesenteric vein and the splenic vein.

ANS: C 81. Which of the following is a function of the hepatic veins? a. Supply oxygenated blood to the hepatic sinusoids b. Receive blood from the organs of digestion and deliver it to the portal vein c. Drain blood from the liver and deliver it to the inferior vena cava d. Carry blood from the vena cava to the liver ANS: C 82. Through which blood vessel does blood not flow on its way from the ascending aorta to the

dorsalis pedis?

Femoral artery Celiac trunk Common iliac artery Aortic arch

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 83. Through which blood vessel does blood not flow on its way from the veins of the small

intestine to the right atrium?

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. b. c. d.

Superior mesenteric vein Portal vein Hepatic artery Inferior vena cava

ANS: C 84. Through which blood vessel does blood not flow on its way from the left ventricle to the right

subclavian artery?

Aortic arch Right brachiocephalic artery Axillary artery Ascending aorta

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 85. Through which blood vessel does blood flow on its way from the axillary vein to the right

atrium? a. Coronary sinus b. Subclavian vein c. Inferior vena cava d. Jugular vein ANS: B 86. Through which blood vessel does blood flow on its way from the subclavian vein to the left

common carotid artery? a. Jugular vein b. Axillary vein c. Ascending aorta

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d. Left internal carotid artery ANS: C 87. Through which blood vessel does blood flow on its way from the pulmonary veins to the right

internal carotid artery?

Right brachiocephalic artery Left subclavian artery Superior vena cava Basilar artery

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 88. Through which blood vessel does blood flow on its way from the right jugular vein to the

coronary arteries?

Inferior vena cava Portal vein Right subclavian vein Aortic arch

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 89. Through which blood vessel does blood not flow on its way from the aortic arch to the

kidney?

Thoracic aorta Descending aorta Ascending aorta Renal artery

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 90. Through which blood vessel does blood not flow on its way from the hepatic vein to the

brachial artery?

Pulmonary artery Ascending aorta Descending aorta Subclavian artery

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 91. Through which blood vessel(s) does blood not flow on its way from the common iliac vein to

the left common carotid artery?

Inferior vena cava Aortic arch Right brachiocephalic artery Pulmonary capillaries

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 92. Through which blood vessel N doeR s bl oIo d Gn o t Bf l. ow C o nMi t s way from the inferior vena cava to the

right internal carotid artery? a. Pulmonary artery

U S N T

O

b. Right brachiocephalic artery c. Vertebral artery d. Right common carotid artery ANS: C 93. A catheter is introduced into the right subclavian vein and advanced to the pulmonary

capillaries. Which blood vessel or cardiac structure is not part of this route?

Right atrium Ascending aorta Pulmonary artery Superior vena cava

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 94. Through which blood vessel(s) does blood not flow on its way from the right axillary vein to

the right axillary artery?

Right subclavian vein Pulmonary veins Right subclavian artery Right common carotid artery

a. b. c. d.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: D 95. Through which structure or blood vessel does blood flow on its way from the pulmonary

capillaries to the coronary arteries? a. Ascending aorta b. Pulmonary artery c. Superior vena cava d. Right brachiocephalic artery ANS: A 96. Which of the following is true of the hepatic portal system? a. Hepatic sinusoids deliver blood to the portal vein. b. The hepatic veins drain into the portal vein. c. The hepatic veins and hepatic artery merge to form the portal vein. d. The hepatic portal system delivers blood rich in digestive end products to the liver.

ANS: D 97. Which of the following is true about the anterior and posterior tibial arteries? They a. merge to form the common iliac arteries. b. give rise to arteries that supply the foot. c. drain directly into the inferior vena cava. d. More than one of the above are true.

ANS: B 98. Which of the following veins drains blood that is rich in digestive end products specifically

Nst pRSa rI from the small intestine and fi rU t oNfGt hTB. e large O intestine? a. Portal vein b. Inferior mesenteric vein c. Splenic vein d. Superior mesenteric vein ANS: D

99. Which of the following is least true of the circle of Willis? a. It is the arterial blood supply to the brain. b. It is supplied by the internal carotid arteries. c. It is supplied by the vertebral arteries. d. Oxygenated blood is delivered to the circle of Willis by the jugulars.

ANS: D 100. These veins carry oxygenated blood. a. Internal and external carotids b. Portal and jugular veins c. Pulmonary and umbilical veins d. Superior and inferior venae cavae ANS: C 101. Which of the following is true of the venae cavae?

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. b. c. d.

Most veins directly or indirectly drain into the venae cavae.

The portal vein drains into the superior vena cava.

The superior and inferior venae cavae merge at the portal vein.

The right atrium pumps blood into the superior vena cava.

ANS: A 102. Elevated pressure of the right atrium is most apt to cause a. pulmonary edema. b. stenosis or narrowing of the aortic valve. c. elevation of systemic blood pressure. d. distension of the jugular veins.

ANS: D 103. Which of the following is true of these vascular structures: coronary sinus, pulmonary artery,

umbilical arteries, and venae cavae? They all are found exclusively in the fetal circulation. carry unoxygenated blood. are attached directly to the heart. are color-coded red.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 104. A ductus arteriosus that fails to close after birth a. allows blood to shunt from the left ventricle to the right ventricle. b. causes immediate and severe cyanosis. c. is called a right-to-left shN unt .R I G B.C M d. allows blood to shunt fromUtheSaorN ta toTthe puO lmonary artery.

ANS: D 105. What is the function of the foramen ovale? a. Shunts blood from the aorta to the pulmonary artery b. Partially shunts oxygenated blood from the umbilical vein to the fetal inferior vena

cava c. Shunts blood from the right ventricle to the left ventricle, thereby bypassing the

fetal lungs d. Shunts blood from the fetal right atrium to the left atrium ANS: D

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

Chapter 19: Functions of the Blood Vessels Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A sphygmomanometer measures a. blood flow. b. hematocrit. c. blood pressure. d. oxygen saturation.

ANS: C 2. Blood pressure is lowest in the a. inferior vena cava. b. aorta. c. circle of Willis. d. femoral artery.

ANS: A 3. The characteristic of the arteriole that allows it to function as a resistance vessel is its a. thin membrane. b. porous membrane. c. valves. d. smooth muscle.

ANS: D

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4. Which condition can occur as a result of low blood volume? a. Hypertension b. Pulmonary edema c. Varicose veins d. Postural hypotension ANS: D 5. Which artery is most often used to measure blood pressure? a. Carotid b. Brachial c. Femoral d. Circle of Willis ANS: B 6. ANP and BNP are secreted by the heart in response to a. distension of the heart walls. b. low blood pressure. c. tachycardia. d. low blood volume.

ANS: A

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

7. Which of the following is true? (CO is cardiac output, BP is blood pressure, SV is stroke

volume, HR is heart rate, SVR is systemic vascular resistance.) a. CO = HR  SV  pulse pressure b. BP = CO  SV  SVR c. BP = SV  pulse pressure d. BP = SV  HR  SVR ANS: D 8. Plasma oncotic pressure is caused primarily by a. blood pressure. b. plasma proteins, especially albumin. c. lymph. d. electrolytes such as sodium and chloride.

ANS: B 9. Which of the following is most likely to induce carotid sinus syncope? a. Development of hypovolemic (low blood volume) shock, as in hemorrhage b. Exertion of pressure over the carotid sinus (tight collar) c. Administration of nitroglycerine (a vasodilator drug) d. Administration of a diuretic for hypertension ANS: B 10. If a child with nephrotic syndrome loses large amounts of albumin in the urine (albuminuria), a. plasma oncotic pressure dNe c rR e a s eIs anGd eB e. mCa deMvelops.

U increases, S N dcausing b. capillary hydrostatic pressure edema. c. plasma oncotic pressure increases, thereby “pulling” fluid into the capillary,

causing poor skin turgor. d. lymph flow decreases.

ANS: A 11.

If capillary pressure exceeds plasma oncotic pressure, a. more fluid enters the capillary from the interstitial b. no net flux of fluid occurs. c. blood volume expansion occurs. d. more fluid leaves the capillaries to enter the interstitium ANS: D 12. If plasma oncotic pressure exceeds capillary pressure, a. more fluid is filtered from the capillary into the interstitium. b. more fluid moves into the capillary from the interstitium. c. plasma proteins diffuse from the capillary into the interstitium. d. blood volume decreases.

ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 13. Which of the following is most related to the systolic reading, diastolic reading, and Korotkoff

sounds?

Cardiac output Blood pressure The electrical activity of the heart Coronary blood flow

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 14. What do the baroreceptors sense? a. Blood volume b. Hematocrit c. Blood pressure d. Rate of capillary filtration ANS: C 15. Which of the following increases systemic vascular resistance, stroke volume, and heart rate? a. Stimulation of the vagus nerve b. Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system c. Administration of a sympatholytic drug d. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system ANS: D 16. Which of the following structures has the greatest effect on systemic vascular resistance? a. Veins b. Arterioles NURSINGTB.COM c. Heart d. Capillaries ANS: B 17. Blood flow is slowest in the a. aorta. b. capillaries. c. venules. d. arterioles.

ANS: B

18. Which blood vessels have very thin walls and are called the exchange vessels? a. Arterioles b. Veins c. Capillaries d. Arteries ANS: C 19. What is the pulse pressure when a person’s blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg? a. 120 mm Hg b. 80 mm Hg c. 40 mm Hg

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. Can’t determine the pulse pressure from this information ANS: C 20. Which of the following is most likely to develop if the pressure in the pulmonary capillaries

increases?

Pedal edema Pulsating jugular veins Pulmonary edema Varicose veins

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 21. What is the term that refers to the difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure

readings?

Pulse deficit Cardiac output Stroke volume Pulse pressure

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 22. Which of the following elevates blood pressure? a. Diuretics b. Vasodilators c. Vasopressors d. Antihypertensive drugs ANS: C

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23. What effects do ANP and BNP have? a. Stimulate vasodilation and decrease blood volume b. Stimulate vasoconstriction and increase blood volume c. Stimulate vasoconstriction and decrease blood volume d. Stimulate vasodilation and increase blood volume ANS: A 24. Which part of the brain participates in the baroreceptor reflex? a. Cerebrum b. Corpus callosum c. Cerebellum d. Medulla oblongata ANS: D 25. Both epinephrine and norepinephrine are a. steroids. b. secreted by the adrenal medulla. c. vasodilators. d. blood pressure-lowering hormones.

ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

26. ADH increases blood pressure by all of the following except a. acting as a vasopressor. b. increasing blood volume by reabsorption of water by the kidneys. c. vasoconstriction. d. activating baroreceptors.

ANS: D 27. Which statement is not true about baroreceptors? a. Can induce a reflex tachycardia b. Located in the carotid sinus and aortic arch c. Activated by hypoxemia d. Activated by a hemorrhage-induced decline in blood pressure ANS: C 28. If plasma osmolarity increases, as in dehydration or the infusion of mannitol (a sugar

solution), filtration rate increases. fluid is forced out of the capillary into the interstitium. fluid is “pulled” into the capillary from the interstitium. plasma proteins diffuse out of the capillary into the interstitium.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 29. If the lymphatic vessels are blocked or surgically removed, a. excess fluid is filtered o u t of the cap illar y.

N R I G B .C M b. plasma oncotic pressure decreases, U S Nthereby T causing O fluid to leak out of the

capillary. c. fluid and protein accumulate in the interstitium, thereby causing edema. d. excess fluid moves into the capillary, thereby “drying out” the interstitium.

ANS: C 30. Edema is least likely to occur in which of the following situations? a. Plasma oncotic pressure decreases because of starvation. b. Plasma oncotic pressure decreases because the child filters large amounts of

albumin into the urine. c. Plasma osmolarity increases when the patient becomes dehydrated. d. A woman with breast cancer has surgery that involves a breast amputation and

removal of the lymph nodes and vessels.

ANS: C 31. If the left ventricle of the heart fails, blood backs up in the pulmonary capillary, a. decreasing plasma oncotic pressure and drying out the lungs. b. blocking the flow of lymph and drying out the lungs. c. increasing capillary pressure and forcing fluid into the lungs. d. increasing plasma oncotic pressure, causing pulmonary edema.

ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 32. A pregnant woman notices that her ankles are swollen after standing for 6 hours at her place

of employment. In the evening, when she elevates her feet, the swelling diminishes because capillary pressure in the blood vessels of the lower extremities decreases. plasma oncotic pressure decreases. plasma oncotic pressure increases. lymphatic drainage decreases.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 33. An IV infusion of mannitol (a sugar solution) is used to decrease intracranial pressure in a

head-injured patient because the mannitol a. provides calories for the healing of the injured brain. b. is absorbed by the injured brain cells and pulls water into the brain cells from the

tissue fluid. c. pulls water out of the interstitium of the brain into the capillaries, thereby relieving

edema. d. “clumps” the plasma proteins together, thereby severely diminishing plasma oncotic pressure.

ANS: C 34. Capillary pressure is a reflection of a. plasma proteins. b. albumin. c. lymph. d. blood pressure.

ANS: D

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35. Which of the following drugs is most likely to increase systemic vascular resistance? a. (+) Inotropic agent b. Arteriolar constrictor c. Arteriolar dilator d. Vasodilator ANS: B 36. In which direction does blood flow shift in response to exercise? a. Increased blood flow to kidneys and digestive tract b. Increased blood flow to skin and skeletal muscles c. Increased blood flow to abdominal organs and kidneys d. Decreased blood flow to the heart and skeletal muscles ANS: B 37. Which of the following exerts a vasopressor effect? a. BNP b. ADH c. ANP d. Both A and C ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 38. Which of the following is true regarding the sympathetic and parasympathetic arms of the

baroreceptor reflex? They carry sensory information from the baroreceptors to the SA and AV nodes of the heart. sensory information from the SA and AV nodes to the spinal cord. motor information from the spinal cord to the heart and blood vessels. motor information from the heart and blood vessels to the aortic and carotid sinus baroreceptors.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 39. A tight collar might trigger the baroreceptor reflex because the a. carotid baroreceptors sense a change in the osmolarity of the blood flowing

through the carotid arteries. b. carotid baroreceptors interpret the elevated carotid pressure as an elevation of

blood pressure. c. tight collar occludes blood flow to the brain, causing cerebral artery spasms. d. tight collar impairs drainage of cerebral venous blood, causing cerebral edema.

ANS: B 40. Which of the following is a consequence of sympathetic nerve stimulation? a. Increased myocardial force of contraction b. Peripheral vasoconstriction c. Increased systemic vascular resistance d. All of the above ANS: D

N R I G B.C M

41. Loss of speech, paralysis, and U possS ibleNdeaTth can O b e c a u s e d by a. b. c. d.

hypertension. rupture of a blood vessel in the brain. decreased oncotic pressure. edema.

ANS: B 42. With regard to the baroreceptor reflex, which event occurs first? a. Activation of the baroreceptors in response to a drop in blood pressure b. Reflex tachycardia c. Stimulation of the sympathetic nerves d. Stimulation of the glossopharyngeal (CN IX) and the vagus (CN X) nerves ANS: A 43. In the dehydrated state, a. capillary oncotic pressure decreases and fluid accumulates in the tissue spaces. b. capillary filtration pressure decreases and tissue fluid is pulled back into blood

vessels. c. capillary filtration rate increases, thereby increasing lymph formation. d. plasma protein is filtered into the tissue spaces, causing edema.

ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 44. If capillary pore size increases, as in severe burns, a. capillary filtration of water decreases. b. albumin is filtered from the capillaries and is deposited in the tissue space. c. blood volume overload develops, causing the heart to fail. d. all of the above occur.

ANS: B 45. A decreased plasma oncotic pressure is caused by a. loss of plasma proteins, such as albumin. b. leukocytosis. c. a hypoxemia-induced polycythemia. d. dehydration and “tenting.”

ANS: A 46. If digital (finger press) pressure is exerted over the carotid sinus, you would expect a. the sympathetics to fire, thereby increasing blood pressure. b. that the medulla oblongata will interpret the signal as high blood pressure and

therefore fire the vagus nerve. c. no effect, because the baroreceptors are “crushed.” d. reflex tachycardia.

ANS: B 47. Which of the following is not true about blood pressure? a. The brachial artery is most commonly used to monitor blood pressure. b. Blood pressure is higher in the arteries than in the capillaries.

N R I G B.

c. Blood pressure is higher inU theS capN illarT ies t h a nOi n the veins. d. Blood pressure is higher in the vena cava than in the arterioles.

ANS: D

48. Which of the following is true of vasoconstriction? a. Caused by parasympathetic nerve stimulation b. Increases SVR c. Caused by vagal discharge d. Generally accompanied by arteriolar dilation ANS: B 49. The function of the nozzle on a garden hose most closely resembles the function of the a. heart. b. parasympathetic nervous system. c. arterioles. d. venous valves.

ANS: C 50. An intense vagal discharge is most apt to cause a. tachycardia. b. decreased heart rate. c. deep vein thrombosis.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. white coat hypertension.

ANS: B 51. Baroreceptors a. are found in all arterioles and sense plasma levels of CO2. b. affect respiratory rate. c. monitor [H+] and therefore regulate blood pH. d. are located in the carotid sinus and aortic arch and sense changes in blood pressure.

ANS: D 52. An agent that is described as a vasopressor a. causes peripheral vasodilation. b. elevates blood pressure. c. decreases systemic vascular resistance. d. decreases cardiac output.

ANS: B 53. A patient has a heart rate of 128 beats/min, a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, and an ejection

fraction of 35%. The pulse pressure is a. 65%. b. 30 mm Hg. c. 150 mm Hg. d. unknown from the data.

ANS: B

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54. To maintain a consistent cardiac output, what happens to SV as HR increases? a. Stroke volume increases. b. Stroke volume decreases. c. Stroke volume stays the same. d. Cannot be determined from the information given.

ANS: B 55. A patient has hemorrhaged 1 liter of blood; he is diaphoretic (profuse perspiration), oliguric

(decreased urinary output), and tachycardic. Physiologically, what is happening? a. The patient has lost so much plasma protein (albumin) that fluid has shifted into his tissue spaces. b. In response to the blood loss and declining blood pressure, the baroreceptor reflex has kicked in, causing a sympathetic discharge. c. The shock-induced low blood pressure has caused a vagal discharge. d. The shock-induced hypotension has inactivated all autonomic receptors.

ANS: B 56. Systemic vascular resistance decreases when the a. blood viscosity increases. b. stroke volume increases. c. arterioles dilate. d. arterioles respond to sympathetic nerve stimulation.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

ANS: C 57. Which of the following is most responsible for the plasma oncotic pressure? a. Albumin b. Cl– c. Na+ d. HCO3– ANS: A 58. Which of the following is not true of an adult male who has a blood pressure of 116/72 mm

Hg? It is a normotensive reading.

The 116 mm Hg is the systolic reading.

The 72 mm Hg is the diastolic reading.

The pulse pressure is 100 mm Hg.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 59. What is the mean arterial pressure of a blood pressure of 140/80? a. 40 mm Hg b. 100 mm Hg c. 60 mm Hg d. Can’t determine from this data ANS: B 60. While “taking” a blood pressN urU e,RyS ouIrN ecGoT rdBth.eCfiO rsM t Korotkoff sounds as the a. pulse pressure. b. mean arterial blood pressure. c. diastolic reading. d. systolic reading.

ANS: D 61. The disappearance of Korotkoff sounds a. indicates that blood flow has been restored in the previously occluded blood

vessel b. is recorded as the diastolic reading. c. is indicative of a life-threatening hypotension. d. Both A and B are true.

ANS: D 62. Your patient’s initial blood pressure was 155/95 mm Hg. After 10 minutes his blood pressure

was 125/75 mm Hg. Which of the following best reflects this observation?

Hemorrhage-induced hypotension Hypertensive crisis White coat hypertension The “silent killer”

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

63. Why does blood flow from the arterial side of the circulation to the venous side of the

circulation? a. Capillary pressure is higher than the pressure within the large arteries and veins. b. The oncotic pressure in the venous side of the circulation is greater than the

oncotic pressure on the venous side of the circulation. c. The pressure on the arterial side of the circulation is higher than the pressure on the

venous side of the circulation. d. Blood volume is greater on the arterial side of the circulation than on the venous

side of the circulation.

ANS: C 64. A patient takes a drug that immediately causes a reflex tachycardia. What is the most likely

explanation for this effect on heart rate? a. The drug causes a sudden decline in blood pressure, thereby activating the baroreceptor reflex. b. The drug spikes or elevates the blood pressure, thereby activating the baroreceptor reflex. c. The drug causes venoconstriction. d. The drug causes an increase in SVR (systemic vascular resistance).

ANS: A 65. Which of the following is a true statement regarding baroreceptors? a. Baroreceptor activation is a response to pedal edema. b. Baroreceptors are located in the carotid sinus and aortic arch. c. Baroreceptors are activatN edUoR nlS yI inNrG esT poBn. seCtO oM a sudden decline in blood pressure. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: B 66. An elderly person has been on bed rest for 2 weeks. On her first attempt to get out of bed, she

experiences an episode of syncope. What is the most likely cardiovascular explanation for her fainting episode? a. White coat hypertension b. Postural hypotension c. Elevated blood pressure d. Hypoglycemia ANS: B 67. Which of the following refers to an insufficient blood supply to an organ or body part? a. Pallor b. Ischemia c. Paresthesia d. Paresis ANS: B 68. Which statement is the best explanation of the following: Sympathetic nerve stimulation

increases systemic vascular resistance.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. Sympathetic nerve stimulation causes many of the arterioles in the peripheral

circulation to constrict. b. Sympathetic nerve stimulation causes peripheral venodilation and a decrease in

preload. c. Sympathetic nerve stimulation reduces afterload in the systemic circulation. d. Sympathetic nerve stimulation causes a vasodepressor effect.

ANS: A 69. Which of the following might result from ischemia? a. Tissue damage b. Pain c. Gangrene d. All of the above ANS: A 70. Which of the following is the most likely consequence of venodilation, or “pooling” of the

blood in the venous circulation?

Increased EDV (end-diastolic volume) Increased myocardial contraction Decreased venous return Increased blood pressure

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

Chapter 20: Lymphatic System Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Where does lymph originally come from? a. Spleen b. Thoracic duct c. Interstitium d. Lymph nodes ANS: C 2. Lymph from the right arm and the right side of the head and thorax drains into the a. thoracic duct. b. vena cava. c. right atrium. d. right lymphatic duct.

ANS: D 3. Thymosin a. is a hormone. b. is the fluid within the lymph nodes. c. is secreted by all lymph nodes. d. plays no known role.

ANS: A

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4. The spleen a. b. c. d.

removes worn-out blood cells from circulation. is avascular. is located in the RUQ. secretes splenic hormones that control the entire lymphoid system.

ANS: A 5. The right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct empty into the a. jugular vein. b. inferior vena cava. c. portal vein. d. subclavian veins.

ANS: D 6. What is the name of the lymph nodes that drain the head and neck region? a. Inguinal b. Cervical c. Thoracic d. Pelvic ANS: B

Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

7. What structures are located near the opening of the nasal cavity in the upper throat and are

also called the adenoids?

Palatine tonsils Thymus glands Lingual tonsils Pharyngeal tonsils

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 8. The inguinal lymph nodes a. line the entrance of the spleen. b. are the Kupffer cells within the liver. c. are located in the groin. d. are part of the hepatic portal circulation.

ANS: C 9. What happens if the lymphatic vessels and nodes are removed from the right axillary region? a. All lymph will drain directly into the superior vena cava. b. The right arm will become gangrenous from lack of oxygen. c. The right arm will become edematous. d. The patient will experience anginal pain.

ANS: C 10. If proteins are allowed to accumulate in the interstitial space, they will a. dehydrate the tissue space.

NURSINGTB.C M O b. block or clog the capillary pores. c. “hold water” and cause edema. d. act as antigens and cause an allergic reaction.

ANS: C 11. Lymphatic capillaries a. absorb tissue fluid and transport it toward the heart. b. are close to and parallel the distribution of arterioles. c. are composed of smooth muscle and determine SVR (systemic vascular

resistance). d. transport protein-free interstitial fluid.

ANS: A 12. What is the term that refers to the removal of the palatine tonsils? a. Appendectomy b. Lymph node resection c. Adenoidectomy d. Tonsillectomy ANS: D 13. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause a platelet deficiency? a. Lymphedema

Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. A hyperactive spleen c. Lymphadenopathy d. Infectious mononucleosis ANS: B 14. What structure is concerned with the processing and maturation of T lymphocytes? a. Medulla oblongata b. Thymus gland c. Coronary sinus d. Pericardium ANS: B 15. Which lymphoid organ is located in the ventral cavity, thoracic cavity, and mediastinum? a. Spleen b. Liver c. Thymus gland d. Adenoids ANS: C 16. The subclavian veins a. receive lymph from the large lymphatic ducts. b. pump blood into the large lymphatic ducts. c. form the thoracic duct. d. are called lacteals.

ANS: A

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17. The spleen, thymus gland, tonsils, and lymph nodes are a. confined to the thoracic cavity. b. lymphoid organs. c. primarily concerned with hematopoiesis. d. concerned only with phagocytosis.

ANS: B 18. What is (are) the lymphoid structure(s) that is (are) generally removed during a mastectomy? a. Spleen b. Liver c. Axillary lymph nodes d. Adenoids ANS: C 19. Which of the following is (are) described as partially encapsulated lymph nodes located in the

throat area?

Spleen Tonsils Thymus gland Lacteal

a. b. c. d.

Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: B 20. A lacteal is located within the a. adenoid. b. tonsil. c. thymus gland. d. intestinal villus.

ANS: D 21. Which of the following is least characteristic of the pharyngeal tonsils? a. Lymphoid organs b. Called adenoids c. Protect body from infection d. Most commonly removed by tonsillectomy ANS: D 22. Lymph is a. pumped by the left heart into the systemic circulation. b. formed when fluid is filtered across the subclavian veins into the tissue spaces. c. formed from tissue fluid. d. red, like blood.

ANS: C 23. Why does lymph contain protein? a. Protein is synthesized b y t h e l ym p h nodes.

N R I G B.C M

b. Protein leaks out of the capU illarSies N intoTthe tissue spaces and is absorbed into the

lymphatic capillaries. c. The cells that line the lymphatic vessels synthesize protein. d. Adenoids transport plasma protein into the lymphatic vessels.

ANS: B 24. An overly active spleen may prematurely remove platelets from the circulation, thereby

predisposing a person to arteriolar vasospasm and hypertension. granulocytopenia and infection. thrombocytopenia and bleeding. hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 25. Elephantiasis is a. CO = HR  SV  pulse pressure. b. caused by the destruction of valves within the lymphatic vessels. c. edema formation in response to impaired lymphatic drainage. d. caused by the removal of the spleen.

ANS: C 26. A person has a severe streptococcal pharyngitis (sore throat). He is most likely to develop

Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. b. c. d.

hypertrophied thymus gland. cervical lymphoma. enlarged inguinal lymph nodes. painful cervical lymph nodes.

ANS: D 27. A young woman is diagnosed with breast cancer. She is most apt to have a. a sentinel node biopsy before the mastectomy is performed. b. a sentinel node biopsy after breast reconstruction surgery. c. the sentinel node radiated during the mastectomy surgical procedure. d. a mastectomy and excision of all axillary lymph nodes; only then is the sentinel

node biopsied.

ANS: A 28. Which of the following best describes the lymphatic capillaries? a. They closely follow the path of the aorta. b. They have large pores and follow venous pathways. c. They are found only in lymph nodes. d. They are found only in the spleen.

ANS: B 29. Which of the following is true about lymph? It is a. absorbed by lymphatic capillaries from the interstitium. b. filtered by the lymphatic capillaries into the interstitium. c. secreted by the subclavian veins into the large lymphatic ducts.

GpThBn. d. synthesized and stored wiN thUinRtS heIlN ym odC eO s. M ANS: A

30. The thoracic duct a. filters lymph into the subclavian veins. b. receives lymph from large lymphatic vessels that drain the left side of the body. c. functions like a heart that pumps lymph throughout the body. d. is a collection of lymph nodes.

ANS: B 31. What is the similarity between the thoracic duct and the right lymphatic duct? Both a. drain lymph exclusively from the lower extremities. b. empty their lymph into the left subclavian vein. c. are large lymphatic ducts that collect lymph from smaller lymphatic vessels. d. are lymphatic capillaries associated exclusively with the cerebral circulation.

ANS: C 32. With which of the following are lymph nodes populated? a. Megakaryocytes and platelets b. Reticulocytes and erythrocytes c. Lymphocytes and macrophages d. Granulocytes and Kupffer cells

Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: C 33. With which of the following is MALT least associated? a. Immune function b. Mucosa c. Erythropoiesis d. Phagocytosis ANS: C 34. Which of the following is least associated with tonsils? a. Palatine, pharyngeal, and lingual b. Thrombopoiesis c. Lymph node–like d. Lymphoid tissue ANS: B 35. Red pulp and white pulp a. compose splenic tissue. b. synthesize clotting factors. c. secrete red and white blood cells in the adult. d. are only found in the fetal liver.

ANS: A 36. This organ engages in erythropoiesis in the fetus, produces lymphocytes in the adult, and

stores platelets.

Liver Spleen Adenoids Tonsils

a. b. c. d.

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ANS: B 37. The lymphatic circulation a. b. c. d.

is most closely associated with the venous side of the circulation. accompanies the aorta and its branches. is concerned with the transport of oxygen. plays a vital role in hemostasis.

ANS: A 38. Lymph node dissection is most likely to cause a. Edema b. Hypoxemia c. Ischemia d. Thrombosis ANS: A

Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

Chapter 21: Immune System Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. B and T cells are a. tonsils. b. lymphocytes. c. lymph nodes. d. antibodies.

ANS: B 2. What is the effect of a massive release of histamine? a. Jaundice b. Anemia c. Thrombosis d. Wheezing and hypotension ANS: D 3. What is the name of a severe hypersensitivity reaction? a. Cyanosis b. Immunocompetence c. Autoimmunity d. Anaphylaxis ANS: D

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4. If you had measles as a child, which of the following best describes your immunity to

measles?

Artificially acquired active immunity Artificially acquired passive immunity Naturally acquired passive immunity Naturally acquired active immunity

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 5. An allergen is a(n) a. antibody. b. macrophage. c. lymphokine. d. antigen.

ANS: D 6. A booster a. increases antibodies to an antigen. b. stimulates the liver to detoxify antigens. c. kills a pathogen. d. conveys passive immunity.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: A 7. A severe anaphylactic reaction causes death by a. renal failure. b. respiratory obstruction. c. bleeding. d. infection.

ANS: B 8. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for an anaphylactic reaction? a. A bronchoconstricting agent b. Gamma globulin c. Epinephrine and steroid d. Histamine ANS: C 9. Which of the following represents specific immunity? a. Inflammation b. Interferons c. Natural killer cells d. B and T cells ANS: D 10. Redness, heat, swelling, and pain are indicative of a. a hypersensitivity reactioN n .UR SI NG TB.C OM b. anaphylaxis. c. inflammation. d. autoimmune disease.

ANS: C 11. Phagocytosis a. is a function only of the T cell. b. is a form of specific immunity. c. does not require a specific antigen. d. is mediated through antibodies.

ANS: C 12. IgE, IgA, IgM, and IgG are a. antigens. b. interferons. c. antibodies. d. complement proteins.

ANS: C 13. Which cell engages in cell-to-cell combat? a. Erythrocyte

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. Platelet c. B cell d. T cell ANS: D 14. Which of the following are most associated with plasma cells and antibodies? a. Neutrophils b. Eosinophils c. B cells d. T cells ANS: C 15. Which of the following is (are) most related to antibody-mediated immunity? a. Tears b. Saliva c. Sneezing d. Plasma cells ANS: D 16. Which of the following cells engulf the pathogen to achieve “antigen presentation”? a. Red blood cells b. Macrophages c. Antibodies d. Vaccines ANS: B

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17. Which of the following are classified as killer, helper, suppressor, and memory? a. Granulocytes b. T cells c. Antibodies d. Vaccines ANS: B 18. Which of the following T cells destroy pathogens by punching holes in their cell membrane

and secreting lymphokines?

Killer Helper Suppressor Memory

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 19. Because antibodies are carried by the blood, this type of immunity is also called a. immunotolerance. b. cell-mediated immunity. c. humoral immunity. d. autoimmunity.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: C 20. Which cells secrete a cytokine that stimulates both T and B cells? a. Platelets b. Killer T cells c. Erythrocytes d. Helper T cells ANS: D 21. A vaccine a. is a gamma globulin. b. conveys active immunity. c. contains antibodies. d. is the same as an antitoxin.

ANS: B 22. Which of the following T cells do not participate in the destruction of the pathogen but allow

for a more rapid response if the antigen is presented at a later time?

Killer T cells Suppressor T cells Thrombocytes Memory T cells

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 23. HIV (human immunodeficiency v i r u s ) p r o d u c e s s e v e r e impairment of the immune system by

attacking which cells? a. Plasma cells b. Suppressor T cells c. Helper T cells d. Platelets

N R I G B.C M U S N T O

ANS: C

24. Which of the following conditions is most common in people with AIDS (acquired

immunodeficiency syndrome)?

Anaphylaxis Autoimmune diseases Infections Hypertension

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 25. Which of the following is most associated with a low plasma level of antibodies? a. The “booster” response b. The primary response c. An autoimmune response d. Anaphylaxis ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 26. What is the term that refers to the level of antibodies in your blood? a. T cell count b. Titer c. White blood cell count d. Hematocrit ANS: B 27. Which of the following indicates why you will not get chickenpox as an adult if you were

infected as a child?

Naturally acquired passive immunity Naturally acquired active immunity Artificially acquired active immunity Artificially acquired passive immunity

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 28. Binding of the bee venom allergen to antibodies on the mast cells causes a massive release of

which substance?

Vaccine Histamine Bilirubin Intrinsic factor

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 29. Which of the following is most related to the placental transfer of antibodies from the mother

to the fetus?

NURSINGTB.COM Naturally acquired active immunity Naturally acquired passive immunity Artificially acquired active immunity Artificially acquired passive immunity

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 30. What is the term that refers to the use of dead or attenuated pathogens to stimulate antibody

production?

Immunotolerance Autoimmunity Immunization Inflammation

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 31. What is the name of the toxin that has been altered so that it is harmless yet still antigenic? a. Vaccine b. Antibody c. Gamma globulin d. Toxoid ANS: D

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 32. The purpose of vaccination is to provide an initial exposure to an antigen to stimulate the

formation of killer T cells. complement. anaphylaxis. memory cells.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 33. A breast-fed infant is initially immune to the same diseases as her mom. Which of the

following describes the infant’s immunity?

Naturally acquired passive immunity Naturally acquired active immunity Artificially acquired active immunity Artificially acquired passive immunity

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 34. Which of the following is characterized by a local tissue response to T cell activity? a. Anaphylaxis b. Wheezing, edema, and hypotension c. Contact dermatitis d. Immunotolerance ANS: C 35. Which of the following is true of activation of mast cells? a. Causes the release of epinNephRrineI G B.C M O b. Is necessary for T-cell ac t ivUati oSn N T c. Prevents the development of anaphylaxis d. Causes the release of histamine ANS: D 36. Which group is incorrect? a. First line of defense: skin, mucous membrane, tears, sneezing b. Specific immunity: B cells, T cells c. Mechanical barriers: skin, mucous membrane d. Chemical barriers: tears, saliva, stomach acid, B cells, T cells ANS: D 37. Which group is incorrect? a. Mechanical barriers: skin, mucous membrane b. Protective proteins: interferons, complement proteins c. Nonspecific immunity: inflammation, NK cells, fever, T cells d. Signs of inflammation: redness, heat, swelling, pain ANS: C 38. Plasma cells a. refer to T cells. b. are the same as NK cells.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. are B-cell clones. d. secrete interferons.

ANS: C 39. What is the primary concern regarding the care of a person experiencing an anaphylactic

reaction? a. The inability to breathe b. The development of hives c. The development of febrile seizures d. Intense itching and discomfort ANS: A 40. Inflammation is a. a reaction that is classified as a specific immune response. b. characterized by redness, heat, swelling, and pain. c. known as cell-mediated immunity. d. initiated only by a pathogen.

ANS: B 41. Which of the following best explains the secondary response to a booster shot? a. The presence of memory cells that can quickly produce plasma cells b. Enhancement of antigen presentation by macrophages c. The immediate release of histamine from mast cells d. The immediate release of IgG antibodies in response to the booster ANS: A

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42. Which of the following is true of Kupffer cells? a. Fixed macrophages b. Located in the thymus gland c. Secrete thymosins d. Destroy plasma cells ANS: A 43. A person has an infection and his phagocytes respond appropriately by releasing pyrogens,

thereby resetting the body’s thermostat. What happens next?

He shivers, thereby producing heat.

He sweats and his blood vessels dilate, thereby losing heat.

He forms pus around the hypothalamus.

His body temperature declines.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 44. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) attacks the helper T cells, thereby a. depressing T-cell function. b. making the person more susceptible to infection. c. depressing B-cell function. d. All of the above are true.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: D 45. Antibodies a. include IgG, IgM, and IgE. b. are secreted by plasma cells. c. react with antigens, causing agglutination. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 46. An antigen–antibody interaction a. is called phagocytosis. b. is called anaphylaxis. c. causes agglutination. d. is prevented by antibiotics.

ANS: C 47. If you have a high measles antibody titer, you a. currently have symptoms of measles. b. are contagious and should avoid contact with others for 5 days. c. have been exposed to the measles virus. d. must have had measles as a child.

ANS: C 48. Which of the following stimulates memory cells to produce antibody-secreting plasma cells? a. An antitoxin NURSINGTB.COM b. A booster shot c. Gamma globulin d. Antivenom ANS: B

49. Which of the following is true about nonspecific immunity? a. It protects the body primarily through the actions of the B and T lymphocytes. b. The response is to a specific antigen such as the chickenpox virus. c. It is achieved through either cell-mediated immunity or antibody-mediated

immunity. d. It includes processes such as inflammation, phagocytosis, and fever.

ANS: D 50. Which of the following describes the effects of phagocytosis? a. Release of histamine, a natural antimicrobial agent b. Correction of hypoxemia by delivery of oxygen to oxygen-starved tissues c. Ingestion and destruction of pathogens and other foreign substances d. Activation of B and T cells ANS: C 51. Which of the following words are least characteristic of phagocytes? a. IgG, IgA, IgM, and IgE

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. Motile and fixed c. Diapedesis and chemotaxis d. Neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages ANS: A 52. The Kupffer cells are fixed macrophages within the walls of the hepatic sinusoids and a. engage in phagocytosis of pathogens in the blood coming from the organs of

digestion. b. are the origin of the B and T cells. c. produce antibodies in response to the antigens within the portal blood coming from

the organs of digestion. d. are the same as natural killer cells.

ANS: A 53. The redness and heat associated with inflammation a. are always caused by the growth of pathogens within the inflamed area. b. are due to the release of histamine from injured tissue; it dilates blood vessels and

increases blood flow to the inflamed area. c. can be relieved by the application of heat over the inflamed area. d. are indicative of an impending anaphylactic reaction.

ANS: B 54. Which of the following is true of the T cell? a. It is activated in response to a specific antigen. b. It engages in cell-mediateNd c R om bIa t . G B.C M U c. Its clones include killer T c e l l s S , h eN l pe rTT cellsO , suppressor T cells, and memory T

cells. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 55. Which of the following is true of the B cell? a. Activated in response to a specific antigen b. Engages in cell-mediated combat c. Called a Kupffer cell when fixed within the hepatic sinusoids d. All of the above are true.

ANS: A 56. The plasma cells a. are part of the T cell clone. b. secrete antibodies. c. are considered nonspecific immunity. d. are the same as memory B cells.

ANS: B 57. Memory cells a. are found exclusively within the nonspecific immune cells/processes. b. are produced only by B cells.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. increase the response time to an antigen. d. store IgG, IgE, and IgA. ANS: C 58. The plasma cells are least related to a. interferons. b. B lymphocytes. c. antibodies. d. IgG, IgA, IgM, and IgE. ANS: A 59. Which of the following best describes an abscess? a. Blood-free serous fluid b. Walled-off area of dead cells and their secretions c. A systemic infection d. Spread of infected cells to the brain ANS: B 60. The terms pyrexia, febrile, and pyrogenic all refer to a. seizures. b. pathogens. c. heat stroke. d. fever.

ANS: D

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61. Which of the following words means “fever producing”? a. Thermoregulation b. Pathogenic c. Febrile d. Pyrogenic ANS: D 62. A febrile seizure is a seizure that a. causes a fever. b. is caused only by intense shivering. c. is caused by a fever. d. is treated with antibiotics.

ANS: C 63. An antipyretic drug a. lowers body temperature below normal so as to obtain the beneficial effects of the

hypothermic state. b. also has antibiotic activity. c. lowers a fever. d. treats the underlying cause of the fever.

ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

64. This is a group of proteins secreted by virally infected cells; the proteins prevent viral

replication. a. Pyrogens b. Antigens c. Complement protein d. Interferons ANS: D 65. Which of the following protective proteins swarm(s) the surface of a pathogen, punching

holes in the membrane and enhancing phagocytosis? a. Interferons b. Albumin c. Complement d. IgG ANS: C 66. Complement and interferons a. activate T cells. b. are antibodies secreted by plasma cells. c. are protective proteins that enhance the immune response to infection. d. include histamine and leukotrienes that cause anaphylaxis.

ANS: C 67. B cell and T cell activity is mNost RrelaI ted G to wBh. icC h ofMthe following?

U S N T O a. AMI and CMI b. Endocytosis and phagocytosis c. Specific and nonspecific d. Interferons and complement protein ANS: A 68. Which of the following describes the function of macrophages? a. Phagocytosis and antigen presentation b. Leukopoiesis and antibody secretion c. Secretion of histamine and leukotrienes d. Phagocytosis and anti-inflammatory activity ANS: A 69. Which of the following is not a step in T-cell activation? a. Antigen presentation b. Production of helper T cells c. Secretion of lymphokines that activate B cells d. Production of antibody-secreting plasma cells ANS: D 70. Which of the following is not a step in the activation of a B lymphocyte? a. Antigen presentation

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. Production of antibody-secreting plasma cells c. Activation by helper T cells d. Activation of cells that engage in cell-to-cell combat ANS: D 71. Agglutination is the consequence of a. antigen–antibody interaction. b. the binding of IgG antibodies to mast cells. c. the effect of histamine on the smooth muscle of the lungs and blood vessels. d. activation of blood coagulation factors.

ANS: A

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

Chapter 22: Respiratory System Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which structure is called the windpipe and is supported by rings of cartilage? a. Bronchus b. Alveolus c. Pharynx d. Trachea ANS: D 2. Which of the following respiratory tubes are primarily composed of smooth muscle and

determine the flow of air to the alveoli? a. Trachea b. Bronchi c. Bronchioles d. Nares ANS: C 3. The trachea branches into the right and left a. alveoli. b. bronchi. c. nares. d. pulmonary arteries.

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4. The lungs are located within the a. mediastinum. b. dorsal cavity. c. spinal cavity. d. thoracic cavity.

ANS: D 5. Oxygen diffuses from the alveoli into the a. bronchioles. b. trachea. c. pulmonary capillaries. d. eustachian tube.

ANS: C 6. Which nerve innervates the diaphragm? a. Intercostal nerve b. Sciatic c. Phrenic d. Cranial nerve XI

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: C 7. The diaphragm a. is smooth muscle that forms the bronchioles. b. is skeletal muscle. c. contracts in response to the firing of the vagus nerve. d. forms the outer lining of the lungs.

ANS: B 8. The pleural membranes a. line the respiratory passages. b. form the bronchioles. c. are serous membranes. d. are confined to the mediastinum.

ANS: C 9. Which respiratory muscles are located between the ribs? a. Diaphragm b. Bronchiolar smooth muscle c. Intercostals d. Sternocleidomastoids ANS: C 10. Contraction of the diaphragm and the external intercostal muscles a. stimulates the phrenic a n N d iU nR terScI osN taG l nTeB rv. esC . OM b. decreases thoracic volume. c. causes air to move out of the lungs. d. is responsible for inhalation.

ANS: D 11. Stimulation of the phrenic and intercostal nerves causes the release of which neurotransmitter

into the neuromuscular junction? a. Adrenaline b. Norepinephrine c. Acetylcholine d. Myosin ANS: C 12. Dyspnea means a. “puffed up” alveoli. b. pneumonia. c. cyanosis. d. difficulty breathing.

ANS: D 13. The Adam’s apple is

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. b. c. d.

cartilage. the epiglottis. the primary site of gas exchange. the pharynx.

ANS: A 14. Frontal, maxillary, sphenoidal, and ethmoidal a. refer to the bones of the thorax. b. are saliva-secreting glands. c. are paranasal sinuses. d. are lined with serous membrane.

ANS: C 15. What happens when the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles relax? a. air moves out of the lungs. b. inhalation occurs. c. ventilation ceases. d. chest volume increases.

ANS: A 16. Which of the following best describes eupnea? a. Kussmaul respirations b. Vital capacity c. Normal, quiet breathing d. Hypoxemia

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ANS: C

17. The respiratory passages are lined with a. pleura. b. mucous membrane. c. serous membrane. d. muscle.

ANS: B 18. How is most oxygen transported through the blood? a. attached to hemoglobin. b. as bicarbonate. c. as a surfactant. d. as a lysozyme.

ANS: A 19. Which of the following is the dome-shaped muscle that is the chief muscle of inhalation? a. Diaphragm b. Epiglottis c. Mediastinum d. Pericardium

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: A 20. Bronchiolar constriction is most likely to cause a. pneumothorax. b. pulmonary edema. c. wheezing. d. laryngitis.

ANS: C 21. Surfactants are found within the a. pulmonary capillaries. b. trachea. c. alveoli. d. intrapleural space.

ANS: C 22. Which of the following is the major regulator of respiratory activity? a. PO2 b. PCO2 c. Bicarbonate d. Albumin ANS: B 23. Which of the following structures controls respirations? a. Medulla oblongata NURSINGTB.COM b. Basal ganglia c. Postcentral gyrus d. Limbic system ANS: A 24. As plasma PCO2 increases, a. b. c. d.

hemoglobin synthesis increases. ventilation increases. vital capacity increases. respirations cease.

ANS: B 25. Intra-alveolar surface tension is caused by a. acid. b. mucus. c. water. d. bicarbonate.

ANS: C 26. Hypoventilation decreases the respiratory excretion of a. oxygen. b. water.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. carbon dioxide. d. albumin.

ANS: C 27. Hypoventilation can cause a. bleeding and hypotension. b. alkalosis and Kussmaul respirations. c. hypoxemia and acidosis. d. hyperglycemia and acidosis.

ANS: C 28. Which of the following is most likely to cause hypoxemia? a. Kussmaul respirations b. Hyperventilation c. Medullary depression d. Brain stem stimulation ANS: C 29. Boyle’s law forms the basis of a. ventilation. b. chemical regulation of breathing. c. oxygen transport in the blood. d. carbon dioxide transport in the blood.

ANS: A

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30. Boyle’s law states the relationship between volume and a. O2. b. CO2. c. pressure. d. H2O. ANS: C 31. Which of the following is necessary for the lungs to remain expanded? a. The alveolar cells must secrete surfactant. b. The intrapulmonic pressure must be negative. c. The glottis must be closed. d. The intrapleural pressure must be negative.

ANS: D 32.

The nares, nostrils, and nasal septum a. are concerned with gas exchange. b. are located in the upper respiratory tract. c. contain gustatory organs. d. are parts of the bronchial tree.

ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 33. Which of the following is most related to the transport of the respiratory gases by the blood? a. Inhalation, exhalation b. Oxyhemoglobin, carbaminohemoglobin c. Inspiration, expiration d. Breathing in, breathing out ANS: B 34. Which of the following contributes to the wheezing of asthma? a. Constriction of the bronchiolar smooth muscle b. Edema of the esophagus c. Inflammation of the trachea and pharynx d. Pneumothorax ANS: A 35. Anatomical dead air space is most associated with which structure? a. Frontal sinus b. Alveoli c. Trachea d. Esophagus ANS: C 36. The water molecule is polar, meaning that each end of the molecule has an electrical charge.

Because of this characteristic, water has a high surface tension. can only dissolve lipids. N R I G B.C M U S N T O is a poor solvent. is lipid-soluble.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 37. Which of the following structures is located in the lungs? a. Pharynx b. Epiglottis c. Alveoli d. Larynx ANS: C 38. Which of the following is most related to the relaxation of the diaphragm and the intercostal

muscles?

Results from the firing of the inspiratory neurons Caused by the firing of the phrenic and intercostal nerves Decreased thoracic volume Causes air to move into the lungs

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 39. What is the transport mechanism necessary for the movement of oxygen from the alveoli

across the pulmonary capillary membranes into the blood? a. Osmosis

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. Filtration c. Diffusion d. Active transport pump ANS: C 40. What is the effect of an overdose of an opioid (narcotic)? a. Alters the shape of the hemoglobin so that it cannot bind to oxygen b. Depresses the medulla oblongata and depresses ventilation c. Causes spasm of the epiglottis resulting in an upper airway obstruction d. Causes hyperventilation and alkalosis ANS: B 41. Which substance greatly reduces the attractive forces among the water molecules lining the

alveoli? a. Lysozyme b. Converting enzyme c. Mucus d. Surfactant ANS: D 42. What is the effect of curare? a. Depresses the inspiratory neurons in the medulla oblongata b. Changes the shape of the hemoglobin so that it cannot bind to oxygen c. Interferes with the activation of the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles by their

motor nerves

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U S d. Inactivates acetylcholinesterase ANS: C

43. The epiglottis a. is innervated by the phrenic nerve. b. prevents air from entering the esophagus. c. prevents food from entering the trachea. d. is the Adam’s apple.

ANS: C 44. The trachea is a. “the problem” in asthma. b. the site of gas exchange. c. composed primarily of smooth muscle. d. a large airway that splits into two bronchi.

ANS: D 45. Which of the following is most likely to cause pulmonary edema? a. Bronchitis b. Coryza c. Exercise-induced asthma d. Left ventricular heart failure

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

ANS: D 46.

Kussmaul respirations a. cause hypoxemia. b. increase PCO2. c. refer to an acidosis-induced increased respiratory activity. d. are caused by a decrease in the plasma [H+].

ANS: C 47. In reference to a normally expanded lung, the a. intrapulmonic pressure is less than intrapleural pressure. b. intrapleural pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure. c. intrapulmonic pressure is greater than intrapleural pressure. d. intrapleural, intrapulmonic, and atmospheric pressures are equal.

ANS: C 48. In which structure is the PO2 104 mm Hg? a. Pulmonary artery b. Alveolus c. Right ventricle d. Vena cava ANS: B 49. Across which structure(s) does most gas exchange occur? a. Trachea NURSINGTB.COM b. Bronchus c. Bronchioles d. Alveoli ANS: D 50. The Hering-Breuer reflex a. b. c. d.

prevents overinflation of the lungs. is a chemical reflex; no nerves are involved. is important only in disease states. is concerned only with sneezing and coughing.

ANS: A 51. The central chemoreceptors are primarily sensitive to blood levels of a. oxygen. b. carbon dioxide and [H+]. c. sodium. d. potassium.

ANS: B 52. Which structure has the thinnest wall? a. Trachea

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. Bronchi c. Larynx d. Alveoli ANS: D 53. Which event occurs first? a. The diaphragm contracts. b. Air moves into the lungs. c. The phrenic nerve fires. d. The inspiratory neurons in the medulla fire.

ANS: D 54. What is the effect of phrenic nerve stimulation? a. Expiration b. Relaxation of the diaphragm and the intercostals c. Inhalation d. A decrease in chest diameter ANS: C 55. Which of the following events occurs last? a. Contraction of the diaphragm and the intercostals b. Movement of air into the lungs c. Firing of the inspiratory neurons in the medulla d. Firing of the phrenic and intercostal nerves ANS: B

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56. The phrenic nerve fires. Which event occurs next? a. The inspiratory neurons fire. b. The diaphragm contracts. c. Air moves into the lungs. d. Thoracic volume decreases.

ANS: B 57. Which respiratory structure is distal to the trachea and proximal to the alveoli? a. Pharynx b. Larynx c. Bronchus d. Glottis ANS: C 58. Laryngospasm is most likely to cause a. emphysema. b. pneumothorax. c. acute respiratory obstruction. d. asthma.

ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

59. Atelectasis a. decreases the surface area for gas exchange. b. causes pneumothorax. c. causes acute respiratory obstruction. d. is best treated with antibiotics.

ANS: A 60. Activation of the beta2-adrenergic receptors of the airway a. causes laryngospasm. b. constricts the bronchioles. c. restricts air flow. d. causes bronchodilation.

ANS: D 61. The collection of mucus in the lower airways is most likely to cause a. laryngospasm. b. pneumothorax. c. atelectasis. d. pharyngitis.

ANS: C 62. Which of the following is most likely to stimulate coughing that may be accompanied by a

life-threatening bradycardia?

NU S R N I GT B.C OM b. Administration of albuterol (a b e t a 2 - ad renergi c agonist) via inhalation a. Suctioning of the lower a i r w a y s

c. Administration of O2 via nasal cannula d. Performance of a thoracentesis ANS: A 63. A preterm infant is most likely to develop respiratory distress because of a. bacterial pneumonia. b. a deficiency of surfactant. c. excess mucus in the upper airways. d. an inability of the immature diaphragm to contract.

ANS: B 64. Which group is incorrect? a. Pulmonary volumes: tidal, inspiratory reserve, expiratory reserve b. Structures of the bronchial tree: bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli c. Respiratory gases: oxygen, carbon dioxide d. Parts of the pharynx: oropharynx, nasopharynx, laryngopharynx, bronchiopharynx ANS: D 65. Which group is incorrect? a. Structures of the bronchial tree: trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli b. Paranasal sinuses: frontal, maxillary, sphenoidal, ethmoidal

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. Structures of the upper respiratory tract: trachea, pharynx, larynx d. Parts of the pharynx: oropharynx, nasopharynx, laryngopharynx ANS: A 66. The respiratory tract a. includes the mouth, pharynx, trachea, and esophagus. b. contains conductance, resistance, and exchange structures. c. is lined with serous pleural membranes and cilia. d. begins with the nose and mouth and ends at the bronchioles.

ANS: B 67. Contraction and relaxation of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles a. change thoracic volume. b. close the glottis. c. occur in response to firing of the vagus nerve. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: A 68. Cartilaginous rings a. prevent the collapse of the trachea. b. surround each alveolus. c. are innervated by the phrenic nerve. d. attach the diaphragm to the thoracic wall.

ANS: A

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69. Which of the following statements is true of the right bronchus? a. Food and small objects are more likely to be aspirated into the right bronchus

because it is more vertical and larger than the left bronchus. b. The right bronchus has an opening to the pleural cavity. c. Oxygen content is higher in the right bronchus than the left bronchus. d. The right bronchus is bigger than the left bronchus, so it has higher levels of carbon dioxide.

ANS: A 70. The lungs contain the a. inspiratory and expiratory neurons. b. structures of the bronchial tree. c. pharynx, larynx, and trachea. d. pleural membranes.

ANS: B 71. Which of the following best describes the visceral and parietal pleura? a. Line the inner wall of the trachea and bronchi b. Line the mediastinum c. Are serous membranes that line the pleural cavity d. Are surfactant-secreting membranes

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: C 72. Surfactants a. prevent collapse of the alveoli. b. induce anaphylaxis. c. cause upper respiratory obstruction. d. decrease thoracic volume.

ANS: A 73. Which of the following occurs on inhalation? a. Air moves into the intrapulmonic space. b. Thoracic volume increases. c. The diaphragm contracts. d. All of the above occur.

ANS: D 74. Which of the following occurs on exhalation? a. Respiratory expiratory neurons fire. b. The diaphragm relaxes. c. Thoracic volume decreases. d. All of the above occur.

ANS: D 75. Which of the following describes Boyle’s law? a. An increase in thoracic volume causes an increase in intrapulmonic pressure.

b. There is no relationship bN etU wR eeSnIinNtrG apTuB lm.oniO c pressure and thoracic volume. c. An increase in thoracic volume decreases intrapulmonic pressure. d. An increase in thoracic volume forces air out of the lungs.

ANS: C

76. Severing the phrenic nerve a. stops ventilation. b. impairs exhalation but has no effect on inhalation. c. causes hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. d. does all of the above.

ANS: A 77. Most CO2 is transported in the blood a. by the hemoglobin, as carbaminohemoglobin. b. by megakaryocytes. c. loosely bound to the iron molecule in heme. d. as bicarbonate.

ANS: D 78. Respirations are primarily controlled by the a. medulla oblongata. b. cerebellum.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. spinal cord. d. frontal lobe.

ANS: A 79. The pneumotaxic center and apneustic center are located within the a. aortic bodies. b. alveoli. c. pons. d. spinal cord.

ANS: C 80. Inspiratory and expiratory neurons a. are located within the respiratory control center in the brain stem. b. are sensitive primarily to PO2. c. line the breathing tubes, especially the bronchioles. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: A 81. Which of the following is an upper respiratory structure? a. Alveoli b. Larynx c. Bronchi d. Bronchioles ANS: B

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82. Which of the following represents a correct air flow? a. Bronchus to trachea to bronchioles b. Trachea to bronchioles to alveoli c. Bronchi to bronchioles to alveoli d. Nasopharynx to larynx to bronchioles to bronchi ANS: C

83. Which of the following is true of the lower respiratory tract? a. Contains the respiratory organs in the chest b. Contains all respiratory organs c. Contains all respiratory structures lined with mucous membrane d. Contains all organs distal to the larynx ANS: A 84. The olfactory receptors a. are located on the tongue. b. are located within the nasal cavities and nasal septum. c. are also called taste buds. d. carry sensory information to the brain via CN II. ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 85. As part of the respiratory structures, the oropharynx and laryngopharynx a. carry only air. b. are located distal to the larynx. c. carry food and water to the esophagus. d. carry air to respiratory structures distal to the pharynx.

ANS: C 86. Which of the following represents a correct anatomical sequence? a. Larynx, laryngopharynx, trachea b. Oropharynx, laryngopharynx, larynx c. Larynx, pharynx, bronchi d. Voicebox, windpipe, alveoli ANS: B 87. Which of the following structures prevents entrance of food and water into the respiratory

passages? a. Larynx b. Glottis c. Epiglottis d. Thyroid cartilage ANS: C 88. Which of the following structures is located both in the thoracic cavity and mediastinum but

not in the pleural cavities? a. Lungs b. Heart c. Alveoli d. Bronchioles

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ANS: B

89. The epiglottis, glottis, and vocal cords a. vibrate on exhalation, causing sound. b. prevent the entrance of food and water into the respiratory passages. c. are structures of the larynx. d. are composed of tough cartilage.

ANS: C 90. Identify the names of the following: voicebox, throat, and windpipe. a. Larynx, vocal cords, trachea b. Larynx, laryngopharynx, bronchi c. Larynx, pharynx, trachea d. Laryngopharynx, pharynx, alveoli ANS: C 91. A tracheostomy is performed in order to a. ensure an open airway. b. humidify inhaled air.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. administer high dose oxygen into the laryngopharynx. d. introduce food and water into the esophagus and stomach.

ANS: A 92. What causes a boy’s voice to “break” or change at the onset of puberty? a. Rapid growth of the throat region stretches the vocal cords. b. Testosterone causes the vocal cords to thicken. c. Testosterone closes the glottis permanently. d. Testosterone enlarges the thyroid cartilage (Adam’s apple).

ANS: B 93. What is the primary concern with laryngospasm and swelling of the lips and tongue? a. Interruption of the negative pressure within the intrapleural space b. Indication of accumulation of water in the alveoli as in pulmonary edema c. Acute upper airway obstruction d. Indication of damage of the phrenic nerve ANS: C 94. “Clubbing” of the fingers is a response to a. chronic hypoxemia. b. CO2 retention and acidosis. c. acute hyperventilation in response to metabolic acidosis. d. chronic dry hacking cough.

ANS: A

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95. Which of the following is a structure located within the lungs? a. Visceral pleura b. Primary bronchi c. Parietal pleura d. Intrapleural space ANS: B 96. Which of the following is the first step in inhalation? a. Phrenic nerve stimulation b. Activation of the NM receptors (neuromuscular junction of the phrenic nerve and

diaphragm) c. Firing of the medullary inspiratory neurons d. Contraction of the diaphragm ANS: C 97.

Where is blood oxygenated?

Within the left ventricle Within the left anterior descending artery Within the coronary sinus Across the alveolus/pulmonary capillary membrane

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

98. Central and peripheral chemoreceptors (aortic and carotid bodies) a. are responsive only to hypoxemia. b. are both sensitive to [H+] concentrations. c. can regulate the rate and depth of respirations. d. More than one of the above are true.

ANS: D 99. Which of the following are the accessory muscles of respiration (used in forced exhalation)? a. Intercostals and diaphragm b. Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius c. Internal intercostals and the abdominal muscles d. Pectoralis major and serratus anterior ANS: C 100. At which point in the respiratory cycle is thoracic volume the smallest? a. At end inhalation b. With contraction of the diaphragm c. With contraction of the external intercostals d. At end of exhalation ANS: D 101. The trachea a. contains C-shaped cartilaginous rings. b. encircles the pulmonary a rter y, where ga s ex cha n ge occurs.

N R I G B. C M c. is lined with surfactant-secrU O etinS g ceNlls. T d. is located within the pleural cavity.

ANS: A 102. Firing of the intercostal and phrenic nerves a. activates the respiratory control center in the medulla oblongata. b. causes relaxation of the muscles of respiration. c. causes a skeletal muscle response that increases thoracic volume. d. dilates the bronchioles.

ANS: C 103. The diaphragm a. is the chief muscle of inhalation. b. is innervated by the phrenic nerve. c. increases thoracic volume when contracted. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 104. Which event occurs in response to an increase in thoracic volume? a. The respiratory control center is activated. b. Air moves into and through the respiratory passages. c. Intrapleural pressure becomes greater than intrapulmonic pressure.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. Air is exhaled.

ANS: B 105. When the muscles of respiration relax, a. thoracic volume decreases and air moves out of the lungs. b. thoracic volume increases and air moves out of the lung. c. thoracic volume decreases and air moves into the lungs. d. thoracic volume decreases and intrapulmonic pressure decreases.

ANS: A 106. Laryngospasm and epiglottal swelling is most apt to cause a. pulmonary edema. b. upper airway obstruction. c. pleural effusion. d. pneumothorax.

ANS: B 107. Ventilation a. refers to the regulation of blood pH by the lungs. b. refers to loading and unloading of oxygen by hemoglobin. c. has two phases: inhalation and exhalation. d. is exclusively responsive to pCO2.

ANS: C 108. Which of the following will cNausR e t hIe inG trapB ul. mC oniM c pressure to become less than atmospheric

U S N T pressure? a. Relaxation of the respiratory muscles b. Increase in thoracic volume c. Secretion of surfactants d. 95% oxygen saturation ANS: B

109. What will happen under the following conditions: the pO2 is 95 mm Hg (arterial blood) and

40 mm Hg (tissue)?

Oxygen diffuses from the tissues into the blood.

Blood pH shifts from an acid to an alkaline range.

Carbon dioxide diffuses from the blood to the tissues.

Oxygen diffuses from the blood to the tissues.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 110. A stab wound to the chest causes the lung to collapse because a. of a sudden increase in surface tension. b. intrapulmonic pressure becomes less than atmospheric pressure. c. intrapulmonic pressure becomes higher than intrapleural pressure. d. intrapleural pressure becomes greater than intrapulmonic pressure.

ANS: D

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

111. The alveoli a. are supported by C-shaped cartilaginous rings. b. are the primary site of respiratory gas exchange. c. contract and relax, thereby determining resistance to air flow through the

respiratory passages. d. are composed primarily of smooth muscle.

ANS: B 112. Surfactants a. are secreted by cells within the alveoli. b. increase surface tension. c. transport oxygen across the alveolar-pulmonary capillary membrane. d. relax the epiglottis so as prevent upper respiratory obstruction.

ANS: A 113. A deficiency of surfactants in the neonate a. makes it difficult to expand the lungs. b. decreases alveolar surface tension. c. causes epiglottal swelling and laryngospasm. d. causes upper airway irritation.

ANS: A 114. Because of their smooth muscle content,

flow. trachea bronchi alveoli bronchioles

a. b. c. d.

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ANS: D

115. Hyperventilation is most apt to induce a. alkalosis. b. hypoxemia. c. a decline in blood pH. d. metabolic acidosis.

ANS: A 116. Hypoventilation is most apt to a. increase blood pH. b. induce acidosis. c. cause ketosis. d. cause hyperglycemia.

ANS: B 117. Pleural membranes a. line the inside of the lungs.

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are the primary determinants of air

Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. secrete surfactants. c. secrete mucus and other viscous secretions to minimize friction between the

pleural membranes. d. are serous membranes.

ANS: D

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

Chapter 23: Digestive System Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following best describes the chewing of food? a. Emulsification b. Mechanical digestion c. Peristalsis d. Absorption ANS: B 2. Which of the following best describes why food moves through the digestive system from the

mouth toward the anus? a. Emulsification b. Mastication c. Defecation d. Peristalsis ANS: D 3. Food moves through the esophagus to the a. cecum. b. duodenum. c. stomach. d. common bile duct.

NURSINGTB.COM ANS: C

4. The fundus, body, and pylorus are parts of the a. small intestine. b. large intestine. c. biliary tree. d. stomach.

ANS: D 5. The stomach mixes and mashes a bolus of food that is called a. feces. b. flatus. c. chyle. d. chyme.

ANS: D 6. A paralytic ileus is caused by a cessation of a. peristalsis. b. mastication. c. emulsification. d. deglutition.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: A 7. The appendix a. is located in the right upper quadrant. b. can rupture and cause peritonitis. c. is attached to the sigmoid colon. d. is located in the dorsal cavity.

ANS: B 8. Which of the following form(s) the large intestine? a. Duodenum, ileum, and jejunum b. Colon c. Fundus, body, and pylorus d. Sphincter of Oddi and ampulla of Vater ANS: B 9. What is the most important nerve of the digestive tract? a. Phrenic b. Sciatic c. Vagus d. Olfactory ANS: C 10. Bile is not found in which structure? a. Cystic duct NURSINGTB.COM b. Liver c. Pancreas d. Duodenum ANS: C

11. What is the site of most chemical digestion? a. Stomach b. Mouth c. Cecum d. Duodenum ANS: D 12. What is the site of absorption for most end-products of digestion? a. Duodenum and jejunum b. Ileum c. Colon d. Stomach ANS: A 13. Which surgical procedure is most likely to cause dumping syndrome? a. Appendectomy

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. Colostomy c. Gastrectomy d. Cholecystectomy ANS: C 14. Which organ secretes the most potent of the digestive enzymes? a. Liver b. Pancreas c. Duodenum d. Spleen ANS: B 15. Which of the following best describes the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum? a. Colon b. Biliary tree c. Hepatic portal circulation d. Small intestine ANS: D 16. The word hepatic refers to the a. pancreas. b. portal vein. c. mesentery. d. liver.

ANS: D

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17. The sigmoid is part of the a. small intestine. b. colon. c. hepatic portal circulation. d. stomach.

ANS: B 18. The common bile duct empties its contents into the a. stomach. b. base of the esophagus. c. duodenum. d. cecum.

ANS: C 19. Which structure prevents gastric reflux? a. Pyloric valve b. Ileocecal valve c. Lower esophageal sphincter d. Anal sphincter ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

20. This organ synthesizes clotting factors, stores vitamins, detoxifies drugs, and helps regulate

blood glucose levels. a. Pancreas b. Liver c. Stomach d. Appendix ANS: B 21. The cecum is part of the a. duodenum. b. large intestine. c. biliary tree. d. stomach.

ANS: B 22. Which membrane resembles an apron draped over the abdominal organs? a. Cecum b. Omentum c. Cementum d. Gingiva ANS: B 23. Enamel, dentin, and cementum are related to which structure? a. Tooth NURSINGTB.COM b. Liver c. Colon d. Villi ANS: A

24. Deciduous, baby, and milk are descriptive for which structure(s)? a. Gums b. Sinuses c. Teeth d. Tonsils ANS: C 25. The appendix is attached to which structure? a. Cecum b. Stomach c. Pylorus d. Sigmoid ANS: A 26. The elimination of gas that is produced during digestion and released from the anus is called a. flatulence. b. eructation.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. deglutition. d. mastication.

ANS: A 27. Emulsification is most associated with which substance? a. Trypsin b. Hydrochloric acid c. Bile d. Ptyalin ANS: C 28. Which enzyme is found in saliva? a. Bile b. Trypsin c. Ptyalin d. Lipase ANS: C 29. Which of the following produces amino acids as its end-product of digestion? a. Bile b. Lipase c. Trypsin d. Amylase ANS: C

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30. Which of the following produces the disaccharides as its end-products of digestion? a. Lipase b. Amylase c. Hydrochloric acid d. Gastrin ANS: B 31. Which of the following is least characteristic of glucose? a. Monosaccharide b. Carbohydrate c. An end-product of digestion by a disaccharidase d. Trypsin ANS: D 32. Gingiva refers to the a. teeth. b. microvilli. c. gums. d. tongue.

ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 33. Deglutition refers to a. chewing. b. peristalsis. c. swallowing. d. burping.

ANS: C 34. Chyle is found in the a. portal vein. b. stomach. c. lacteals. d. pancreas.

ANS: C 35. Which organ produces bile and secretes it into the hepatic ducts? a. Pancreas b. Gallbladder c. Spleen d. Liver ANS: D 36. Parotid, sublingual, and submandibular refer to a. parts of the large intestine. b. digestive enzymes. c. salivary glands.

NURSINGTB.COM d. hepatic ducts.

ANS: C

37. The wall of which structure secretes cholecystokinin? a. Stomach b. Pylorus c. Duodenum d. Cecum ANS: C 38. Gastrin, secretin, and cholecystokinin are a. secreted by the stomach. b. amylases. c. emulsifying agents. d. hormones.

ANS: D 39. Cholecystokinin regulates the secretion of a. ptyalin. b. bile. c. mucus. d. saliva.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

ANS: B 40. The primary function of which organ is to deliver chyme to the duodenum at the proper rate? a. Esophagus b. Colon c. Liver d. Stomach ANS: D 41. The wall of which structure secretes the disaccharidases? a. Gallbladder b. Duodenum c. Pancreas d. Stomach ANS: B 42. What is the chief organ of drug detoxification? a. Pancreas b. Cecum c. Liver d. Stomach ANS: C 43. The portal vein carries blood that is rich in digestive end-products to which organ? a. Liver NURSINGTB.COM b. Pancreas c. Duodenum d. Pylorus ANS: A

44. Which flap of tissue prevents food and water from entering the respiratory passages? a. Appendix b. Uvula c. Palatine tonsils d. Epiglottis ANS: D 45. Which of the following refers to the roof of the mouth? a. Uvula b. Tonsil c. Frenulum d. Palate ANS: D 46. What is the tube that carries food from the pharynx to the stomach? a. Trachea

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. Esophagus c. Pylorus d. Ampulla of Vater ANS: B 47. What is the sphincter that allows food to enter the stomach from the esophagus? a. Sphincter of Oddi b. Pyloric sphincter c. Lower esophageal sphincter d. Oral sphincter ANS: C 48. Which of the following structures allow(s) the stomach to expand? a. Chief cells b. The appendix c. Villi d. Rugae ANS: D 49. Which structure is located between the cecum and the transverse colon? a. Appendix b. Ileocecal valve c. Sigmoid d. Ascending colon ANS: D

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50. The pyloric sphincter is located between the duodenum and what structure? a. Stomach b. Common bile duct c. Jejunum d. Esophagus ANS: A 51. The ampulla of Vater and the sphincter of Oddi are located between the common bile duct and

what structure?

Gallbladder Liver Pylorus Duodenum

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 52. The duodenum a. receives partially digested food from the jejunum. b. pumps food through the sphincter of Oddi into the ampulla of Vater. c. is the site where most digestion and absorption occur. d. forms both the hepatic and splenic flexures.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: C 53. Which structure contains the villi, microvilli, and brush border cells? a. Stomach b. Esophagus c. Cecum d. Duodenum ANS: D 54. The cecum, colon, and rectum are parts of which structure? a. Hepatic portal system b. Small intestine c. Large intestine d. Biliary tree ANS: C 55. The liver lobule secretes a. bile. b. cholecystokinin. c. lipase. d. chyle.

ANS: A 56. The cystic duct, common bile duct, and hepatic ducts a. are parts of the biliary t r e e .

I G B.C M

N R

b. carry chyle.

U S N T c. are parts of the small intestine. d. are parts of the hepatic portal circulation.

O

ANS: A 57. Which of the following is most likely to cause ascites and esophageal varices? a. Common bile duct obstruction b. Gallstones c. Stenosis of the pyloric valve d. Increased portal vein pressure ANS: D 58. Which of the following is a digestive enzyme? a. Gastrin b. Trypsin c. Cholecystokinin d. Secretin ANS: B 59. Which of the following is a hormone? a. HCl b. Cholecystokinin

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. Trypsin d. Lipase ANS: B 60. Which statement is true? a. Cholecystokinin is an amylase. b. Secretin is stored in the gallbladder. c. Trypsin is secreted by the liver. d. Trypsin is an enzyme that digests protein.

ANS: D 61. Sucrase, maltase, and lactase are a. secreted by the pancreas. b. gastric enzymes. c. disaccharidases. d. emulsifying agents.

ANS: C 62. Amylases a. digest carbohydrates. b. emulsify fat. c. are gastric hormones. d. are proteolytic.

ANS: A

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63. Which of the following is true of lipase? a. Digests fats b. Emulsifies fats c. Synthesizes fats from fatty acids and glycerol d. Stimulates the walls of the duodenum to secrete cholecystokinin ANS: A 64. Which condition is most likely to be caused by pyloric stenosis? a. Diarrhea b. Jaundice c. Projectile vomiting d. Ascites ANS: C 65. Which condition is associated with the base of the esophagus, fundus of the stomach, and

diaphragm? a. Pyloric stenosis b. Cholecystitis c. Portal hypertension d. Hiatal hernia ANS: D

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

66. Which of the following is caused by portal hypertension? a. Cholecystitis b. Jaundice c. Esophageal varices d. Cirrhosis of the liver ANS: C 67. Which of the following is most related to esophageal reflux? a. Inguinal hernia b. Hemorrhoids c. Pyrosis d. Appendicitis ANS: C 68. Hydrochloric acid, intrinsic factor, and gastrin are a. hormones. b. enzymes. c. secreted by the stomach. d. disaccharidases.

ANS: C 69. Peristalsis a. cannot be affected by drugs. b. is caused by contraction of s m o o t h muscle.

N R I G B.C M c. only occurs within the sm a U l l i nS t e s t iNn e sT . O d. normally moves chyme into the biliary tree.

ANS: B 70. Which of the following does not communicate with the common bile duct? a. Cystic duct b. Duodenum c. Portal vein d. Hepatic duct ANS: C 71. A drug that blocks vagal activity a. slows GI motility and reduces GI secretions. b. increases the secretion of bile. c. speeds up peristalsis. d. causes diarrhea.

ANS: A 72. An antacid drug exerts its effect in the a. buccal cavity. b. common bile duct. c. hepatic portal circulation.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. stomach.

ANS: D 73. Pain in the RLQ is most characteristic of a. hiatal hernia. b. dumping syndrome. c. appendicitis. d. GERD. ANS: C 74. Which structure is located between the common bile duct and the duodenum? a. Cystic duct b. Hepatic duct c. Pyloric valve d. Sphincter of Oddi ANS: D 75. Obstruction of the common bile duct causes a. pain in the RLQ. b. GERD. c. jaundice. d. lactose intolerance.

ANS: C 76. Lactose intolerance is a a. disaccharidase b. HCl c. bile d. cholecystokinin (CCK)

NUprRoS b lI em N.GTB.COM

ANS: A 77. Impaired hepatic function a. causes a deficiency of intrinsic factor and pernicious anemia. b. often causes plasma drug levels to increase to toxic concentrations. c. causes lactose intolerance. d. causes gastric reflux and pyrosis.

ANS: B 78. Which of the following is least related to fat digestion? a. Trypsin b. Bile c. Cholecystokinin d. Lipase ANS: A 79. The hepatic flexure does not involve the

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. b. c. d.

ascending colon. esophagus. transverse colon. large intestine.

ANS: B 80. The splenic flexure does not involve the a. ascending colon. b. large intestine. c. descending colon. d. transverse colon.

ANS: A 81. Which group is incorrect? a. Salivary glands: sublingual, submandibular, parotid b. Small intestine: duodenum, jejunum, ileum, cecum c. Digestive enzymes: amylase, protease, lipase d. Large intestine: ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid ANS: B 82. Which group is incorrect? a. Cells in the stomach: chief, parietal, mucus-secreting b. Hormones: gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin c. Blood vessels of the portal system: portal vein, superior mesenteric vein, splenic

vein

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d. Biliary tree structures: cystic duct, portal vein, common bile duct ANS: D 83. Which of the following is true of the salivary glands? a. Include the parotid, submandibular, and sublingual glands b. Secrete the most important of the digestive enzymes c. Secrete approximately 1 ml of saliva/day d. Secrete trypsin ANS: A 84. The stomach a. digests and absorbs most dietary fat. b. is lined with microvilli to maximize absorption. c. is attached distally to the jejunum and proximally to the esophagus. d. delivers chyme to the duodenum.

ANS: D 85. Paralytic ileus is the a. inability to swallow. b. aspiration of food into the respiratory structures. c. slowing or cessation of GI motility. d. herniation of the fundus of the stomach into the thoracic cavity.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

ANS: C 86. Which of the following describes gastric function? a. Secretion of intrinsic factor b. Secretion of HCl c. Delivery of chyme to the duodenum d. All of the above ANS: D 87. Which of the following is characteristic of bile? a. Aids in the digestion of fats b. Achieves emulsification c. Classified as a lipase d. Two of the above ANS: D 88. Lipases, proteases, and amylases are a. gastric hormones. b. synthesized by the liver. c. digestive enzymes. d. necessary for the emulsifying action of bile.

ANS: C 89. Fat digestion is accomplished by a. chyme and trypsin.

NURSINGTB.COM b. bile and lipase. c. chyle and bile. d. amylase and ptyalin.

ANS: B

90. Chyle and bile are most related to a. glucose, fructose, and galactose. b. intrinsic and extrinsic factor. c. fat and lacteal. d. trypsin and pepsin.

ANS: C 91. The gallbladder a. contracts in response to cholecystokinin. b. synthesizes bile. c. concentrates and stores lipases. d. does all of the above.

ANS: A 92.

Which of the following is not a function of the liver? a. Makes blood-clotting factors such as prothrombin

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. Synthesizes bile c. Secretes cholecystokinin and secretin d. Stores fat-soluble vitamins ANS: C 93. The pancreas a. secretes the most potent digestive enzymes. b. responds to both CCK and secretin. c. is only important because of its exocrine function. d. A and B are both true.

ANS: D 94. Which of the following is true of the appendix? a. It is located in the RLQ b. Secretes several CCK and secretin c. Hangs off the end of the hepatic flexure d. Secretes trypsinogen ANS: A 95. The common bile duct a. delivers blood to the hepatic portal circulation. b. ejects bile into the main pancreatic duct. c. empties bile into the duodenum. d. delivers bile to the gallbladder for storage.

ANS: C

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96. Which of the following does not directly connect to the duodenum? a. Cecum b. Jejunum c. Pylorus d. Common bile duct ANS: A 97. Relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi allows a. chyme to be delivered to the duodenum. b. bile to enter the duodenum from the common bile duct. c. bile to enter the gallbladder. d. blood to enter the stomach from the esophagus.

ANS: B 98. The canaliculi, hepatic duct, and cystic duct a. carry bile. b. are biliary tree structures. c. are part of the hepatic portal circulation. d. Two of the above are true.

ANS: D

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

99. Which of the following is (are) true of cholecystokinin (CCK)? a. Secreted by the walls of the duodenum in response to the presence of fat b. Stimulates the LES to relax c. Stimulates the pancreas to secrete insulin d. All of the above ANS: A 100. The vagus nerve a. innervates only the upper GI tract. b. is sympathetic. c. secretes norepinephrine as its neurotransmitter. d. speeds up gut motility and secretion.

ANS: D 101. Which drug action increases gut motility and is therefore used in the treatment of paralytic

ileus?

Eliminates acetylcholine (ACh) Activates muscarinic receptors Acts as a vagolytic Blocks norepinephrine

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 102. Which word encompasses the study of the stomach and intestines? a. Choledocholithiasis N R I G B.C OM b. Tracheoesophageal fistula U S N T c. Gastroenterology d. Hepatobiliary dysfunction ANS: C 103. Peristalsis is best described as a. Chemical digestion b. Deglutition c. Motility d. Emulsification ANS: C 104. The mesentery, mesocolon, and omentum are a. peritoneal membranes. b. mucous membranes. c. located within the thorax. d. segments of the small intestine.

ANS: A 105. This structure is located between the pylorus and the jejunum. a. Stomach b. Duodenum

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. Cecum d. Esophagus ANS: B 106. This structure is located between the lower esophageal sphincter and pyloric sphincter. a. Stomach b. Duodenum c. Pancreas d. Esophagus ANS: A 107. The gastric parietal cells a. maintain the gastric pH in the alkaline range. b. secrete acid and all emulsifying agents. c. secrete HCl and intrinsic factor. d. secrete HCl and vitamin B12.

ANS: C 108. Most digestion and absorption takes place within the a. stomach. b. esophagus. c. colon. d. duodenum and part of the jejunum.

ANS: D

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109. Which of the following is not true of CCK (cholecystokinin)? a. Stimulates the gallbladder to secrete bile b. Secreted by the walls of the duodenum in response to the presence of fat c. Classified as a hormone d. Classified as a lipase ANS: D 110. Which of the following is not true of bile? a. It functions as an emulsifying agent. b. It is secreted by the liver lobules into the hepatic portal system. c. It helps absorb fats and fat-soluble vitamins. d. It is secreted in response to CCK. ANS: B 111. This organ secretes most of the plasma proteins, including albumin and many of the clotting

factors.

Pancreas Liver Pylorus Cecum

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

112. Which of the following is not true of the pancreas? a. It secretes bicarbonate in response to secretin. b. Its secretion makes the duodenal contents alkaline. c. It secretes the most potent of the digestive enzymes. d. Its enzymatic secretions drain into the hepatic portal system.

ANS: D 113. Which of the following words is most related to the microvilli? a. Peristalsis b. Digestion c. Emulsification d. Absorption ANS: D 114. Which of the following is true? a. Lipases are emulsifying agents. b. Amylases digest carbohydrates. c. Pepsin is an amylase. d. Trypsin is a lipase.

ANS: B 115. Trypsin a. is secreted by the liver. b. is lipolytic. c. is an emulsifying agent.

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d. produces small peptides and amino acids as digestive end-products.

ANS: D 116. Which of the following is true of the following: pepsin, trypsin, amylase, and lipase? All are a. proteases. b. emulsifying agents. c. hormones secreted by the GI tract. d. digestive enzymes.

ANS: D 117. The common bile duct a. receives bile from the portal vein. b. empties directly into the duodenum. c. pumps bile into the main pancreatic duct. d. delivers bile to the portal vein.

ANS: B 118. The hepatic portal system delivers a. bile from the liver to the gallbladder for storage. b. pancreatic enzymes to the small intestine. c. end-products of digestion from the GI tract to the liver via blood.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. bile from the gallbladder to the common bile duct.

ANS: C 119. The hepatic flexure, splenic flexure, cecum, and colon are all a. parts of the biliary tree. b. proximal to the LES. c. parts of the large intestine. d. parts of the hepatic portal system.

ANS: C 120. The sphincter of Oddi, ampulla of Vater, and cystic duct a. drain into the portal vein. b. are biliary structures. c. carry pancreatic enzymes to the duodenum. d. connect the pylorus to the duodenum.

ANS: B 121. These blood vessel structures allow for the mixing of arterial and venous blood in the liver. a. Bile ducts b. Venules c. Arterioles d. Sinusoids ANS: D 122. Chemical digestion of p r o t e i nNbUeR giS n sIiN nG thT e B.COMand is completed in the a. stomach, small intestine b. small intestine, large intestine c. small intestine, liver d. stomach, large intestine ANS: A 123. Starch digestion begins in the a. stomach. b. small intestine. c. large intestine. d. mouth.

ANS: D 124. The role of HCl in digestion is a. to break down protein to amino acids. b. to unravel proteins so they can be digested by proteases. c. to increase pH to promote digestion. d. All of these are functions of HCl. ANS: B 125. Cellulose

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.

Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. b. c. d.

is broken down into disaccharides. is the storage form of carbohydrates in animals. is dietary fiber that cannot be digested by humans. is an enzyme that breaks down carbohydrates.

ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

Chapter 24: Urinary System Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What vascular structure is found between the afferent and efferent arterioles? a. Peritubular capillaries b. Renal artery c. Glomerulus d. Renal veins ANS: C 2. What is the major artery that supplies the kidneys? a. Carotid b. Portal c. Celiac axis d. Renal ANS: D 3. Which of the following is correct? a. One kidney b. One ureter c. Two urinary bladders d. One urethra ANS: D

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4. The urinary tract is lined with a. serous membrane. b. the renal capsule. c. mucous membrane. d. tubular epithelium.

ANS: C 5. The renal cortex descends between the pyramids as the a. pelvis. b. collecting ducts. c. calyces. d. renal columns.

ANS: D 6. The renal capsule a. lines the tubules. b. lines the urinary bladder. c. surrounds the kidneys. d. outlines the trigone.

ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

7. Which blood vessel(s) is (are) primarily concerned with reabsorption? a. Renal artery b. Glomeruli c. Renal vein d. Peritubular capillaries ANS: D 8. What is the urine-making structure of the kidney? a. Trigone b. Renal pyramid c. Renal capsule d. Nephron unit ANS: D 9. Where does aldosterone exert its effects? a. Glomeruli b. Efferent arteriole c. Distal convoluted tubule d. Ascending limb (loop of Henle) ANS: C 10. The efferent arterioles extend to become the a. peritubular capillaries. b. afferent arterioles.

NURSINGTB.COM c. glomeruli. d. renal artery.

ANS: A

11. The proximal convoluted tubules extend to become the a. peritubular capillaries. b. collecting duct. c. descending limb (loop of Henle). d. glomeruli.

ANS: C 12. Urine flows from the ascending limb (loop of Henle) into the a. glomeruli. b. proximal convoluted tubule. c. distal convoluted tubule. d. ureter.

ANS: C 13. The calyces receive urine from the a. proximal convoluted tubule. b. collecting ducts. c. glomeruli.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. peritubular capillaries.

ANS: B 14. ADH exerts its effects primarily on the a. proximal convoluted tubule. b. afferent arteriole. c. collecting duct. d. renal pelvis.

ANS: C 15. Which of the following is not “plumbing”? a. Glomeruli b. Ureters c. Urinary bladder d. Urethra ANS: A 16. The detrusor muscle is located in the a. urethra. b. renal pelvis. c. urinary bladder. d. glomeruli.

ANS: C 17. The word voiding refers to a. urine formation. b. catheterization. c. micturition. d. cystitis.

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ANS: C

18. Which of the following words best describes the function of the urinary bladder? a. Filtration b. Storage c. Reabsorption d. Buffering of H+ ANS: B 19. Which structure is located between the renal pelvis and the urinary bladder? a. Urethra b. Trigone c. Urinary meatus d. Ureter ANS: D 20. The urinary meatus is a part of the

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. b. c. d.

ureter. urinary bladder. urethra. collecting duct.

ANS: C 21. The detrusor muscle is concerned with a. urine formation. b. micturition. c. sodium reabsorption. d. potassium excretion.

ANS: B 22. Kaliuresis refers to the renal excretion of a. sodium. b. bicarbonate. c. water. d. potassium.

ANS: D 23. Natriuresis refers to the renal excretion of a. K+. b. Na+. c. water. d. bicarbonate.

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ANS: B

24. The renal excretion of Na+ is generally accompanied by the excretion of a. bicarbonate. b. water. c. albumin. d. renin.

ANS: B 25. The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) secretes a. aldosterone. b. ADH. c. angiotensin. d. renin.

ANS: D 26.

Renin activates a. aldosterone. b. converting enzyme. c. angiotensinogen. d. angiotensin II.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: C 27. Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system a. reabsorbs K+ and eliminates Na+ in the urine. b. causes albuminuria. c. expands blood volume. d. causes hematuria.

ANS: C 28. Aldosterone a. depletes blood volume. b. causes potassium reabsorption. c. causes sodium excretion. d. causes Na+ and water reabsorption.

ANS: D 29. The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) is located near the a. collecting duct. b. afferent arteriole. c. ureter. d. renal pelvis.

ANS: B 30. The internal and external sphincters are associated with (the) a. renal pelvis.

NURSINGTB.COM b. Bowman’s capsule. c. juxtaglomerular apparatus. d. urinary bladder.

ANS: D 31. Which of the following is not located within the urinary bladder? a. Trigone b. Detrusor muscle c. Internal sphincter d. Calyces ANS: D 32. Which of the following should not be found in the glomerular filtrate? a. Albumin b. Sodium c. Potassium d. Water ANS: A 33. Which of the following is most likely to cause polyuria? a. Oversecretion of aldosterone b. Decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. Deficiency of ADH d. Activation of angiotensinogen ANS: C 34.

Which of the following is not true of ADH? a. Secreted by the posterior pituitary gland b. Secreted in response to low blood volume and concentrated plasma (as in dehydration) c. Causes the renal excretion of sodium, potassium, and water d. Deficiency causes diabetes insipidus ANS: C 35. Which of the following is absorbed across the walls of the collecting duct under the influence

of ADH? a. Potassium b. Urea c. Water d. Albumin ANS: C 36. Pyuria is indicative of a. infection. b. glomerular damage. c. deficiency of ADH. d. excess secretion of aldosterone.

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ANS: A 37. Which substance is filtered by the glomerulus and is excreted in the urine (there is minimal

reabsorption)?

Albumin Glucose Sodium Creatinine

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 38. Cystitis refers to inflammation of the a. kidneys. b. meatus. c. urinary bladder. d. renal pelvis.

ANS: C 39. Which of the following is found in the kidney? a. Detrusor muscle b. Trigone c. Nephron units d. Urethra

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

ANS: C 40. Bowman’s capsule is part of the a. nephron unit. b. renal pelvis. c. collecting duct. d. urinary bladder.

ANS: A 41. What part of the nephron unit filters 180 L of water per day? a. Peritubular capillaries b. Glomeruli c. Calyces d. Trigone ANS: B 42. Creatinine is a. completely reabsorbed by the peritubular capillaries. b. a waste product that is filtered and not reabsorbed. c. a renal enzyme that activates angiotensinogen. d. a renal hormone that stimulates red blood cell production by the bone marrow.

ANS: B 43. A diuretic a. causes the excretion of soN GaTteBr i.nCthOeMurine. dU iuR mSaI ndNw b. causes hyperglycemia. c. blocks the effects of PTH. d. stimulates the reabsorption of sodium by the peritubular capillaries.

ANS: A 44. Which of the following occurs at the distal convoluted tubule? a. 180 L of water is filtered into the tubules. b. Renin is secreted. c. Urine flows from the distal convoluted tubule into the ascending loop of Henle. d. Sodium and water are reabsorbed.

ANS: D 45. Which of the following terms refers to the voluntary expulsion of urine? a. Polyuria b. Diuresis c. Micturition d. Dialysis ANS: C 46. With regard to reabsorption, which structure plays the most important role? a. Glomeruli

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. Renal pelvis c. Urinary bladder d. Peritubular capillaries ANS: D 47. ADH a. is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland. b. is a mineralocorticoid that is secreted by the adrenal cortex. c. stimulates the collecting duct to reabsorb water. d. increases the GFR. ANS: C 48. Low levels of oxygen stimulate the kidneys to secrete which hormone? a. Renin b. Aldosterone c. Erythropoietin d. Converting enzyme ANS: C 49. In the process of secretion, a substance moves from the peritubular capillaries into what

structure?

Glomeruli Calyces Renal pelvis Renal tubules

a. b. c. d.

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ANS: D

50. Under normal conditions, which substance is present in the urine? a. Creatinine b. Fibrinogen c. Myosin d. Albumin ANS: A 51. Which condition is associated with proteinuria? a. Bladder infection b. Urethritis c. Glomerular damage d. Deficiency of ADH ANS: C 52. Which hormone affects blood volume? a. PTH b. Erythropoietin c. Insulin d. Aldosterone

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: D 53. Aldosterone a. is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. b. acts on the collecting duct blocking the reabsorption of water. c. stimulates the reabsorption of water but has no effect on potassium. d. is a mineralocorticoid that stimulates the reabsorption of sodium.

ANS: D 54. Which of the following is caused by a deficiency of erythropoietin? a. Oliguria b. Anemia c. Albuminuria d. Cystitis ANS: B 55. Which of the following is caused by prolonged hypotension? a. Oliguria b. Albuminuria c. Cystitis d. Glomerulonephritis ANS: A 56. What is the meaning of an elevated serum creatinine? a. The kidneys are making t o o much creatinine.

N R I G B.C M TooNmuch bi.nine is being reabsorbed by the peritubular capillaries.

U S T creatO

c. The kidneys are not filtering creatinine; this is a sign of kidney failure. d. The kidneys are excreting too much urine.

ANS: C 57. A drug is classified as a diuretic. Most likely, the drug a. decreases the GFR. b. blocks the tubular reabsorption of Na+. c. activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. d. causes the release of ADH. ANS: B 58. Which condition is characterized by hematuria and pyuria? a. Renal failure b. Diuresis c. Urinary retention d. Cystitis ANS: D 59. Renal failure causes anemia because of a. a lack of erythropoietin. b. gross hematuria.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. uremia-induced hemolysis. d. uremia-induced hypokalemia.

ANS: A 60. The urinary bladder a. contains only skeletal muscle. b. receives urine from two urethras. c. causes diuresis in response to ADH deficiency. d. causes micturition when the detrusor muscle contracts and the internal sphincter

relaxes.

ANS: D 61. When the arterial blood pressure declines to 70/40 mm Hg, a. GFR decreases. b. diuresis occurs. c. aldosterone secretion decreases. d. ADH secretion diminishes.

ANS: A 62. What happens at the glomerular membrane? a. Water and dissolved solute are filtered into Bowman’s capsule. b. The JGA cells release ADH. c. The JGA cells release aldosterone. d. Na+ is reabsorbed.

ANS: A

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63. The distal convoluted tubule a. b. c. d.

receives urine from the collecting duct. reabsorbs Na+ and water in response to aldosterone. is the nephron structure that is primarily associated with filtration. empties its urine into Bowman’s capsule.

ANS: B 64. A patient with stenosis (narrowing) of the renal artery is most likely to present with a. uremia. b. hypertension. c. albuminuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema. d. glucosuria.

ANS: B 65. Micturition a. is another term for urination. b. occurs across the glomerular membrane. c. is the opposite of voiding. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: A

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

66. Which of the following is true of glomerular function? a. It is unaffected by blood pressure. b. It is concerned with the filtration of 1.5 L/24 hr (of water). c. A decline in GFR (glomerular filtration rate) causes polyuria. d. An increase in GFR increases urine formation.

ANS: D 67. A deficiency of aldosterone causes a decrease in the tubular reabsorption of sodium and water,

causing a significant decrease in blood volume and azotemia and uremia. generalized edema. hypotension. anemia.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 68. Which of the following is true of aldosterone? a. It is an androgen. b. It is the “salt-retaining” hormone. c. It causes the tubular reabsorption of sodium, potassium, and water. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: B 69. Which of the following urine-making processes occurs first? a. Urine concentration by t h e co llec tin g du ct s

N R I G B .C M U S N T O

b. Glomerular filtration c. Reabsorption of Na+ d. Secretion of K+ ANS: B

70. Which of the following is false with regard to normal urine? a. Normal urine has E. coli as part of its normal flora. b. Urinary tract infections are more common in alkaline urine than in acid urine. c. Urine does not contain glucose. d. Urine does not contain significant amounts of albumin.

ANS: A 71. Glucosuria is most likely to cause a. hyperglycemia. b. uremia and azotemia. c. polyuria and dehydration. d. hematuria and anemia.

ANS: C 72. Renin a. is a hormone secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. b. is called converting enzyme.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. activates angiotensinogen. d. Two of the above are true.

ANS: C 73. Angiotensin II a. is secreted by the JGA cells in the kidney. b. is converted to angiotensin I by renin. c. is a potent vasoconstrictor. d. inhibits the release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex.

ANS: C 74.

Most tubular reabsorption takes place a. across the glomerular membrane. b. in response to aldosterone. c. in response to ADH. d. across the proximal tubule.

ANS: D 75. A drug that blocks the effects of aldosterone a. decreases the reabsorption of Na+ and water. b. is kaliuretic. c. causes oliguria. d. Two of the above are true.

ANS: A

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76. Glucose is not normally excreted in the urine because a. glucose cannot be filtered. b. all filtered glucose is reabsorbed. c. glucose is used up by the metabolizing nephron units. d. glucose is converted to ammonia in the distal tubule and excreted as urea.

ANS: B 77. Albuminuria is most indicative of a. an enlarged pore size of the collecting duct membrane. b. urinary incontinence. c. increased pore size of the glomeruli d. a deficiency of ADH and/or aldosterone.

ANS: C 78. Albuminuria and generalized edema (anasarca) are usually accompanied by a. cystitis. b. hypoalbuminemia. c. glucosuria. d. pyuria.

ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 79. What is the earliest consequence of a decreased GFR, as in shock? a. Urinary retention b. Glucosuria c. Albuminuria d. Oliguria ANS: D 80. An anticholinergic (muscarinic antagonist) drug, such as atropine, prevents both the relaxation

of the urinary sphincter and the contraction of the detrusor muscle. You would therefore observe the patient for signs of a. uremia. b. urinary suppression. c. urinary retention. d. nephrotic syndrome.

ANS: C 81. Which of the following structures is considered “plumbing”? a. Collecting duct b. Ureter c. Glomerulus d. Two of the above are true.

ANS: B 82. Urea is a. transported from the liverNto R the I kid nGe ysBb. yC t he M blood. b. made in the liver. c. excreted by the kidneys. d. All of the above are true.

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ANS: D

83. An elevated serum creatinine level is most indicative of a. urinary retention. b. declining renal function. c. urinary bladder infection. d. renal calculi.

ANS: B 84. The “urine-making” structure of the kidney is the a. urinary bladder. b. nephron unit. c. trigone. d. renal pelvis.

ANS: B 85. Glomerular filtration pressure is caused by a. intrathoracic pressure. b. pressure within the renal tubules.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. blood pressure. d. intraabdominal pressure.

ANS: C 86. A sudden decline in blood pressure to 80/45 mm Hg is most apt to a. increase GFR. b. increase glomerular filtration. c. cause oliguria. d. cause hematuria.

ANS: C 87. When does renal reabsorption occur? a. When water and dissolved solute move from the tubules into the peritubular

capillaries b. When water and dissolved solute move from the tubules into the glomerular capillaries c. When water moves from the collecting duct into the renal pelvis d. When water and dissolved solute move from the peritubular capillaries into the renal tubules ANS: A 88. The collecting duct a. is primarily concerned with the concentration of urine. b. collects urine from the renal pelvis and pumps it into the ureters. c. collects urine from Bo w mNan ’Rs c aIp s uG l e aB nd.pCumM ps it into the peritubular capillaries.

U S N T O d. is primarily concerned wi t h m i c t u r i t i o n .

ANS: A 89. Which of the following is handled by the kidneys as either urea or ammonia? a. Carbon dioxide b. Creatinine c. Nitrogen d. Glucose ANS: C 90. Most diuretics work by a. increasing blood flow to the kidneys. b. increasing the urge to urinate. c. stimulating the contraction of the detrusor muscle. d. blocking the tubular reabsorption of Na+.

ANS: D 91. Severe hyperglycemia is most apt to induce a. glucosuria. b. osmotic diuresis. c. increased tubular solute load. d. All of the above are true.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

ANS: D 92. The juxtaglomerular apparatus a. secretes angiotensin in response to a decline in blood pressure. b. is located within the walls of the collecting ducts. c. secretes aldosterone. d. is a blood pressure regulating structure.

ANS: D 93. Angiotensin II a. causes vasodilation. b. is secreted by the JGA. c. elevates blood pressure. d. activates angiotensinogen.

ANS: C 94. Most angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II primarily in the a. kidneys. b. JGA. c. lungs. d. liver.

ANS: C 95. The trigone, detrusor, and rugae are all related to the a. nephron unit.

NURSINGTB.COM b. renal pelvis. c. Bowman’s capsule. d. urinary bladder.

ANS: D

96. Which of the following is true of aldosterone? a. Is secreted by the adrenal medulla b. Stimulates the distal tubule to reabsorb Na+ c. Stimulates the proximal tubule to reabsorb K+ d. Works on the collecting duct membrane to determine membrane permeability to

water ANS: B 97. A severe decline in blood pressure is most apt to induce a. respiratory acidosis. b. osmotic diuresis. c. oliguria. d. hematuria.

ANS: C 98. This hormone increases systemic vascular resistance and causes the release of aldosterone.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. b. c. d.

Renin Erythropoietin Brain natriuretic hormone Angiotensin II

ANS: D 99. Which of the following is true of dehydration? a. Is characterized by an increase in urine specific gravity b. Is accompanied by a decrease in sodium retention c. Causes a shift of water from the vasculature into the interstitium d. Is generally treated with a diuretic ANS: A 100. Which of the following is true of urea? a. Is an excretable form of nitrogen b. Is synthesized by the kidneys c. Is converted to ammonia by converting enzyme in the lungs d. Is a pancreatic proteolytic enzyme ANS: A 101. Hyperkalemia a. causes blood volume expansion and hypertension. b. refers to an elevation in serum potassium. c. is uncomfortable but never serious. d. is due to an accumulationNof R u reaIin G t he B bl. ooCd. M ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

Chapter 25: Water, Electrolyte, and Acid–Base Balance Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is true about interstitial fluid, plasma, lymph, and transcellular fluid? a. Contain no electrolytes b. Protein-free fluids c. Classified as extracellular d. pH less than 6 (highly acidic) ANS: C 2. Which of the following forms the greatest extracellular fluid compartment? a. Lymph b. Interstitial c. Plasma d. Transcellular ANS: B 3. Which fluid compartment is located between the cells and is also called tissue fluid? a. Lymph b. Plasma c. Interstitial d. Transcellular ANS: C

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4. Which of the following is descriptive of normal saline? a. Distilled water b. 0.9% sodium chloride c. Highly acidic d. Contains albumin ANS: B 5. Which of the following is most likely to occur when output exceeds intake? a. Diuresis b. Polyuria c. Hematuria d. Dehydration ANS: D 6. Water and chloride usually follow the movement of which cation? a. Bicarbonate b. Sodium c. Potassium d. Albumin ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

7. Poor skin turgor is most indicative of a. cystitis. b. acidosis. c. edema. d. dehydration.

ANS: D 8. Kaliuresis refers to the urinary loss of a. water. b. albumin. c. potassium. d. sodium.

ANS: C 9. K+ a. is a cation. b. is an acid. c. neutralizes H+. d. is the chief extracellular cation.

ANS: A – 10. Bicarbonate (HCO3 ) is considered an anion because it a. contains hydrogen. b. contains carbon.

NURSINGTB.COM c. contains oxygen.

d. carries a negative charge.

ANS: D 11. Which of the following can be defined as an H+ donor? a. Ion b. Tincture c. Acid d. Bicarbonate ANS: C 12. Which of the following acts as a base? a. H+ b. OH– c. Calcium ion d. Gastric juice ANS: B 13. Excess diuresis is most likely to cause a. edema. b. overhydration. c. blood volume depletion.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. acidosis.

ANS: C 14. Which of the following is most likely to occur when output is less than intake? a. Dehydration b. Edema c. Hypovolemia d. Polyuria ANS: B 15. Hypoventilation is most likely to cause a. acidosis. b. edema. c. renal excretion of bicarbonate. d. hypokalemia.

ANS: A 16. Which of the following is not a function of the lungs? a. Oxygenation of blood b. Excretion of carbon dioxide c. Secretion of aldosterone and the regulation of Na+ d. Regulation of blood pH ANS: C 17. Hyperventilation is most likeN lyUtoRcSaI u sN e GTB.COM a. a blood pH higher than 7.45. b. diuresis. c. edema. d. acidosis.

ANS: A 18. Metabolic acidosis, such as diabetic ketoacidosis, is most likely to cause a. hypoventilation. b. Kussmaul respirations. c. the renal excretion of bicarbonate. d. the renal retention of H+.

ANS: B 19. Most body water is located within which space? a. Interstitial b. Intravascular c. Intracellular d. Transcellular ANS: C 20. Which of the following is not true of extracellular fluid?

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. b. c. d.

Most body water is extracellular.

Plasma is extracellular fluid.

Transcellular fluid is extracellular.

There is more interstitial fluid than intravascular fluid.

ANS: A 21. Which ion determines pH? a. Sodium b. Hydrogen c. Bicarbonate d. Potassium ANS: B 22. Hyperkalemia refers to an increase in the blood levels of which ion? a. Hydrogen b. Bicarbonate c. Calcium d. Potassium ANS: D 23. Retention of which ion causes water retention and edema formation? a. Potassium b. Hydrogen c. Sodium d. Bicarbonate

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ANS: C

24. More than 99% of which cation is stored in the bones and teeth? a. Potassium b. Hydrogen c. Chloride d. Calcium ANS: D 25. Which of the following is the chief extracellular cation? a. Chloride b. Calcium c. Sodium d. Potassium ANS: C 26. Which ion determines the resting membrane potential of nerve and muscle? a. Sodium b. Calcium c. Hydrogen d. Potassium

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: D 27. Most diuretics increase urine production by blocking the effects of which cation? a. Calcium b. Bicarbonate c. Chloride d. Sodium ANS: D 28. Which hormone causes the kidneys to retain sodium and to excrete potassium? a. ADH b. Erythropoietin c. Aldosterone d. PTH ANS: C 29. Which hormone stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb calcium and to excrete phosphate? a. ADH b. Aldosterone c. Parathyroid hormone d. Erythropoietin ANS: C 30. Respiratory rate is most sensitive to the effects of which ion? a. Na+ NURS INGT B.COM b. K+ + c. H d. Cl– ANS: C 31. Which of the following anions buffers H+? a. Ca2+ b. HCO3– c. Na+ d. K+ ANS: B 32. Which of the following is characteristic of acidosis? a. pH of 7.55 b. A decrease in the concentration of hydrogen ion in the blood c. Urinary excretion of bicarbonate d. pH less than 7.35 ANS: D 33. Which of the following is most likely to develop in a patient who hypoventilates because of a

chronic respiratory disease, such as emphysema? a. Kussmaul respirations

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. A decrease in the plasma concentration of hydrogen ion c. An increase in plasma pH d. Acidosis ANS: D 34. Which of the following is most likely to develop in an anxious hyperventilating patient? a. Respiratory acidosis b. Alkalosis c. A decrease in plasma pH d. Ketoacidosis ANS: B 35. Which condition is caused by vomiting stomach contents? a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypernatremia and blood volume expansion c. Hypocalcemic tetany d. Alkalosis ANS: D 36. Which condition stimulates Kussmaul respirations? a. Respiratory acidosis b. Respiratory alkalosis c. Ketoacidosis d. Hypocalcemic tetany ANS: C

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37. Which of the following is a buffer pair? a. PTH, aldosterone b. ADH, ANF c. HCO3–, H2CO3 d. Sodium, potassium ANS: C 38. What does urinary specific gravity measure? a. Plasma H+ concentration b. Hydration status of the body c. Plasma potassium d. The buffering capacity of the blood ANS: B 39. A patient is admitted with severe emphysema and a PO2 of 85. He also has a blood pH of 7.25

and a serum bicarbonate of 40 mEq/liter. Which of the following is the accurate description?

Metabolic acidosis and respiratory compensation Metabolic alkalosis with a respiratory compensation Respiratory alkalosis with a renal compensation Respiratory acidosis with a renal compensation

a. b. c. d.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: D 40. Which group is incorrect? a. Cations: sodium, potassium, calcium b. Acid–base imbalances: acidosis, alkalosis c. Lines of defense against acid–base imbalance: buffers, lungs, kidneys d. Transcellular fluids: aqueous humor, cerebrospinal fluid, plasma ANS: D 41. Which group is incorrect? a. Anions: bicarbonate, chloride, phosphate b. Lines of defense against acid–base imbalance: buffers, lungs, kidneys c. Transcellular fluids: aqueous humor, cerebrospinal fluid, synovial fluid d. Hormones: aldosterone, ADH, ANP, urea ANS: D 42. Which group is incorrect? a. Ions: sodium, potassium, calcium, bicarbonate, chloride b. Lines of defense against acid–base imbalance: buffers, lungs, kidneys c. Extracellular fluid: intravascular, interstitial, transcellular d. Substances that are normally found in a sample of urine: urea, creatinine, glucose ANS: D 43. Hyperkalemia a. refers to an elevated seru m c a l ci u m l eve l.

N R I G B .C M generally U S N T develbOo.ps in response to declining renal function.

c. is often caused by a kaliuretic diuretic. d. is caused by excess aldosterone.

ANS: B 44. Which of the following best indicates the role of albumin in water balance? a. Blocks the renal reabsorption of Na+ b. Enhances the renal excretion of K+ c. Maintains plasma oncotic pressure d. “Plugs up” capillary pores, keeping water in the plasma ANS: C 45. Plasma oncotic pressure a. is caused primarily by salt (sodium chloride). b. “pulls” water into the capillaries from the interstitium. c. pushes water out of the capillaries into the interstitium. d. increases the flow of lymph.

ANS: B 46. Which of the following is (are) true of Na+? a. Is the chief extracellular anion b. Helps regulate extracellular volume

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank c. Is regulated by ADH d. All of the above ANS: B 47. Which of the following is most likely to happen when fatty acids are broken down rapidly and

incompletely? a. The plasma pH decreases, causing metabolic alkalosis. b. The patient hypoventilates in an attempt to correct the pH disturbance. c. Ketoacids are produced, causing metabolic acidosis. d. The plasma [H+] decreases.

ANS: C 48. Hypocalcemia is most likely to a. cause blood volume expansion (hypervolemia). b. be treated with IV potassium. c. cause tetany. d. be caused by excess parathyroid hormone activity.

ANS: C 49. A patient with pulmonary edema is receiving furosemide (Lasix), a kaliuretic diuretic. He has

lost 6.6 lb over a 48-hr period. Which of the following statements is true?

He is probably hyperkalemic secondary to the diuretic therapy.

He has lost 12 L of water.

His skin is “tenting.”

He has lost 3 L of water.N R I G B.C M

a. b. c. d.

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ANS: D 50. A patient with pulmonary edema is receiving furosemide (Lasix), a kaliuretic diuretic. He has

lost 6.6 lb over a 48-hr period. Which statement is true?

His urinary output has decreased.

He has lost water weight.

He will become hyperkalemic if the furosemide is continued.

The loss of 6.6 lb causes “tenting.”

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 51. Aldosterone a. is released in response to hypovolemia. b. causes Na+ excretion. c. causes K+ reabsorption. d. determines the permeability of the collecting duct to water.

ANS: A 52. A drug that decreases the synthesis of aldosterone a. decreases blood pressure. b. causes hypernatremia. c. causes hypokalemia. d. does all of the above.

NURSINGTB.COM

Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

ANS: A 53. Which of the following is the trigger for the release of ADH? a. Decreased blood volume b. Renin c. Dehydration d. More than one of the above are true.

ANS: D 54. The determination of daily weights is used to monitor a. serum K+. b. diuretic therapy. c. concentration of plasma protein. d. pH. ANS: B 55. Which of the following is least descriptive of dehydration? a. Tenting b. Anasarca c. Hypovolemia d. Concentrated plasma ANS: B 56. Third spacing a. is caused by aggressive dN iuU reR tiS c tI heNraGpT y.B.COM b. describes a severe state of hypovolemia and dehydration. c. involves only the interstitial space. d. can result in an abnormal accumulation of large amounts of water.

ANS: D 57. Which of the following is an example of metabolic acidosis with a respiratory compensation? a. Morphine overdose and diuresis b. Persistent vomiting and hypoventilation c. Ketoacidosis and Kussmaul respirations d. Hypocalcemic tetany and hyperventilation ANS: C 58. Which of the following is most likely to cause acidosis? a. Persistent vomiting b. Accumulation of plasma H+ c. Renal loss of albumin d. Diuresis ANS: B 59. A change of pH from 7.40 to 7.25 a. is indicative of expanded blood volume.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. is indicative of alkalosis. c. reflects an increase in the amount of H+ in the blood. d. is within normal limits.

ANS: C 60. An unconscious diabetic patient with a blood sugar of 450 mg/dL has an elevated temperature

and is experiencing Kussmaul respirations. You suspect that he is excreting large amounts of bicarbonate in his urine. his PO2 is normal or high-normal. his blood pH is 7.25.

Two of the above are true.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 61. A patient is ventilating at a rate of 8 to 10 respirations/min, having been heavily medicated for

pain. Which of the following is true? The patient is (may) develop a respiratory acidosis. experiencing Kussmaul respirations. experiencing diuresis. likely to develop a metabolic alkalosis.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 62. Which of the following is true of dehydration? a. Is characterized by poor skin turgor and “tenting” b. Is accompanied by an decrease in urine specific gravity c. Causes a shift of water frN om R the I vascGulaB tu. reCintoMthe interstitium U S N T O d. Is generally treated with a d i ur e ti c ANS: A 63. Which of the following is true of hyperkalemia? a. Also causes blood volume expansion and hypertension b. Refers to an elevation in serum potassium c. Is most often due to impaired respiratory function d. Is due to an accumulation of urea in the blood ANS: B 64. Excessive secretion of ADH, as occurs with head injury, is most likely to cause a. tenting. b. blood volume expansion. c. diuresis. d. hypernatremia.

ANS: B 65. A deficiency of ADH, called diabetes insipidus, is characterized by a. glucosuria and an osmotic diuresis. b. polyuria and polydipsia. c. Kussmaul respirations and hyperventilation. d. edema formation and sodium retention.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

ANS: B 66. Which of the following is a pH descriptive of ketoacidosis? a. 7.50 b. pH > 7.45 c. 14.0 d. 7.25 ANS: D 67. A drug that blocks the renal reabsorption of sodium a. decreases the renal excretion of Na+. b. increases the amount of urine. c. decreases the excretion of bicarbonate. d. always increases the reabsorption of K+.

ANS: B 68. Under which condition will the renal reabsorption of bicarbonate increase? a. As a compensatory mechanism for respiratory acidosis b. Whenever blood pH exceeds 7.45 c. As a compensatory mechanism for metabolic alkalosis d. Whenever a person hyperventilates ANS: A 69. Which of the following is true about these percentages: 60% and 28%? They represent the

NURSINGTB.COM amount of a. water eliminated as urine and through the skin and lungs. b. Na+ and K+ reabsorbed by the kidneys in response to aldosterone. c. water ingested through moist food and metabolism. d. Na+ and K+ reabsorbed in response to ADH secretion.

ANS: A 70. Which of the following conditions is most apt to decrease glomerular filtration rate (GFR)? a. Overhydration b. Hypotension c. Administration of a diuretic for the treatment of edema d. Water intoxication ANS: B 71. This anion is an important part of a major buffer pair and therefore plays an important role in

acid–base regulation.

Na+ Bicarbonate HCO3– Both B and C are true

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 72. Generally speaking the movement of Na+ determines the a. blood pH. b. blood glucose. c. secretion of PTH. d. movement of water.

ANS: D 73. Which of the following conditions is most apt to cause a dilutional hyponatremia? a. Excess ingestion of water b. Dehydration c. Hypotension d. Diaphoresis ANS: A 74. Where does most of the body’s acid come from? a. It is reabsorbed from the urine by the kidneys. b. Metabolic reactions within the body c. Ingestion of fruit juices d. Ingestion of a variety of sources of bicarbonate ANS: B 75. Which of the following is most apt to cause a hypocalcemic tetany? a. Hyperventilation b. Rapid and excess fat catabolism c. Metabolic acidosis NURSINGTB.COM d. pH < 7.35 ANS: A

76. With carbon dioxide retention, CO2 + H2O  a. H2O2. b. H+ + HCO3–. c. bicarbonate. d. H2O + H2O. ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

Chapter 26: Reproductive Systems Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The seminiferous tubules a. are located in the pelvic cavity. b. are tightly coiled structures that produce sperm. c. secrete testosterone. d. are primarily concerned with ejaculation.

ANS: B 2. The scrotum a. makes sperm. b. is a sac located between the thighs and holds the testicles. c. secretes androgens. d. contains the prostate gland and urethra.

ANS: B 3. What is the coiled structure that sits on top of the testes and is the place where sperm mature? a. Scrotum b. Epididymis c. Prostate gland d. Prepuce ANS: B

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4. Which term refers to the penis and scrotum? a. External genitals b. Gonads c. Gametes d. Zygotes ANS: A 5. Which piece of skin, also called the foreskin, is removed during circumcision? a. Scrotum b. Penis c. Epididymis d. Prepuce ANS: D 6. Which structure carries both urine and semen? a. Vagina b. Urethra c. Ejaculatory duct d. Vas deferens ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

7. What is the male copulatory organ called? a. Penis b. Vas deferens c. Prostate gland d. Testes ANS: A 8. Which cells secrete testosterone? a. Prostate gland b. Prepuce c. Interstitial cells d. Seminiferous tubules ANS: C 9. What state is caused by the filling of erectile tissue with blood? a. Impotence b. Orgasm c. Erection d. Emission ANS: C 10. What is the androgen that is necessary for sperm formation and for the development of the

male secondary sex characteristics?

ACTH NURSINGTB.COM Progesterone Chorionic gonadotropin Testosterone

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

11. Which term refers to the movement of sperm and glandular secretions from the testes and

genital ducts into the urethra?

Ejaculation Emission Orgasm Erection

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 12. Which hormone is also called interstitial cell-stimulating hormone and stimulates the

interstitial cells to secrete testosterone?

FSH Estrogen Luteinizing hormone Chorionic gonadotropin

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 13. Which of the following is the skin-covered muscular region located between the vaginal

orifice and anus?

Hymen Perineum Fallopian tubes Fimbriae

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 14. Implantation of the trophoblast occurs within which organ? a. Ovaries b. Fallopian tubes c. Oviducts d. Uterus ANS: D 15. The placenta forms in which organ? a. Uterus b. Fallopian tube c. Vagina d. Perineum ANS: A 16. The cervix is part of which organ? a. Uterus b. Fallopian tube NURSINGTB.COM c. Vagina d. Perineum ANS: A

17. The myometrium and the endometrium are layers of which structure? a. Ovaries b. Uterus c. Fallopian tubes d. Vagina ANS: B 18. Which of the following consists of a midpiece, head, and flagellum? a. Zygote b. Ovum c. Corpus luteum d. Sperm ANS: D 19. The fundus forms the upper part of which structure? a. Vagina b. Corpus luteum c. Graafian follicle

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. Uterus ANS: D 20. On what organ is the corpus luteum found? a. Uterus b. Fallopian tube c. Ovary d. Vagina ANS: C 21. If implantation occurs within the fallopian tube, the pregnancy is described as a. normal. b. ectopic. c. embryonic. d. menstrual.

ANS: B 22. Which of the following is referred to as external genitals? a. Gonads b. Vulva c. Oviducts d. Perineum ANS: B

NLUHR?SINGTB.COM 23. What is the target of FSH and a. Uterus b. Vagina c. Ovaries d. Cervix ANS: C 24. Which hormone promotes the maturation of the egg and helps develop the female

characteristics?

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) Androgen Estrogen Interstitial cell-stimulating hormone

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 25. Which of the following is a “guy thing”? a. Ovulation b. Emission c. Implantation d. Midcycle surge of LH ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 26. What is the primary secretion of the corpus luteum? a. FSH b. hCG c. Progesterone d. Androgen ANS: C 27. What is the midcycle event stimulated by a surge of LH? a. Orgasm b. Menstruation c. Emission d. Ovulation ANS: D 28. What is the uterine lining called that is most responsive to the hormonal effects of estrogen

and progesterone? a. Perineum b. Myometrium c. Fundus d. Endometrium ANS: D 29. Which of the following is true of the ovaries and the testes? a. Secrete gonadotropins b. Located in the pelvic cavN it y R I G B.C M c. Called gametes d. Called gonads

U S N T

O

ANS: D

30. Which of the following is true of the ova and sperm? a. Called gonads b. Incapable of meiosis c. Called gametes d. Require androgens for maturation ANS: C 31. Which structure is the major producer of testosterone in the male? a. Corpus luteum b. Testes c. Anterior pituitary gland d. Adrenal medulla ANS: B 32. Which structure contains 23 chromosomes? a. A fertilized ovum b. The corpus luteum c. A sperm

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. The corpus albicans ANS: C 33. Which structure secretes the gonadotropins? a. Adrenal cortex b. Testes c. Anterior pituitary gland d. Ovum ANS: C 34. Where are sperm produced? a. Vas deferens b. Ejaculatory duct c. Urethra d. Seminiferous tubules ANS: D 35. Which of the following is true of the vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, and urethra? a. Located in the scrotum b. Located in the testes c. Produce sperm d. Carry sperm ANS: D 36. Which structure surrounds t hN e u pRp erIp o rGt i o nBo.f C t he M u rethra and contributes to the formation of

semen? a. Cowper’s glands b. Adenohypophysis c. Seminal vesicles d. Prostate gland

U S N T

ANS: D 37. Which of the following can be detected by a rectal exam? a. An enlarged prostate gland b. Cystitis c. Sterility d. Gonorrhea ANS: A 38. Which of the following is not located in or on the ovary? a. Corpus luteum b. Graafian follicle c. Fertilized ovum d. Corpus albicans ANS: C

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank 39. The cervix, fundus, and body a. are contents of the scrotum. b. are parts of the ovary. c. secrete estrogen and progesterone. d. are parts of the uterus.

ANS: D 40. Which structure is the primary secretor of estrogen and progesterone? a. Corpus albicans b. Endometrium c. Ovaries d. Anterior pituitary gland ANS: C 41. The broad ligament supports the a. prostate gland. b. testes. c. breasts. d. uterus.

ANS: D 42. The oviduct or fallopian tube a. is located between the cervix and the vagina. b. is the site of fertilization. c. is an anatomical extensioN n ofRtheIovaGry. B.C M O d. connects the fundus with t hUe c eSr v i xN. T ANS: B 43. The acrosome a. secretes testosterone. b. is the tail of the sperm. c. contains enzymes that assist the sperm to fertilize an ovum. d. is an ovarian structure.

ANS: C 44. Semen a. is formed and stored within the scrotum. b. contains only testosterone. c. means seed. d. is made and stored within the prostate gland.

ANS: C 45. Which of the following always occurs during an erection? a. Ejaculation b. Secretion of testosterone c. Spermatogenesis d. Engorgement of the erectile tissue of the penis with blood

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

ANS: D 46. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) a. is secreted by the ovaries and testes. b. is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. c. exerts its effects primarily on the endometrium. d. stimulates the female and male gonads.

ANS: D 47. What is detected by a Pap smear? a. Cancer of the cervix b. Cystitis c. Genital warts d. Genital herpes ANS: A 48. Which of the following is most likely to cause sterility in the female? a. Benign prostatic hypertrophy b. Cystitis c. Repeated bouts of gonorrhea d. Torn hymen ANS: C 49. What is in the “pill” that makes it contraceptive? a. Estrogen and progesteronN e URSINGTB.COM b. Prostaglandins c. Human chorionic gonadotropin d. Prolactin ANS: A 50. Which hormone stimulates the secretion of testosterone? a. FSH b. LH or ICSH c. Estrogen d. Human chorionic gonadotropin ANS: B 51. Which of the following is true of the interstitial cells? a. Secrete testosterone b. Are located within the prostate gland c. Produce sperm d. Line the ejaculatory ducts ANS: A 52. What is the consequence of severing the vas deferens? a. Interferes with testosterone secretion and therefore causes feminization

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. Prevents erection c. Prevents orgasm d. Induces sterility ANS: D 53. Which of the following is true of implantation? a. Occurs within the fallopian tubes or the oviducts b. Is achieved by the morula c. Is a uterine event achieved by the blastocyst d. Occurs within the ovaries ANS: C 54. The myometrium a. is the layer that sloughs during menstruation. b. is responsive to oxytocin. c. thickens in response to estrogen and progesterone. d. is the target of the gonadotropins.

ANS: B 55. Estrogen and progesterone are a. gonadotropins. b. secreted by the trophoblastic cells as they implant in the uterine wall. c. secreted by the ovaries. d. hormonal stimuli for the release of FSH and LH. ANS: C

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56. In the nonpregnant state, a. the corpus albicans becomes hormonally active, secreting estrogen and

progesterone. b. the endometrium secretes hCG. c. hormonal secretion of the corpus luteum gradually declines. d. the zygote becomes hormonally active.

ANS: C 57. The proliferative phase of the uterine cycle a. immediately precedes the uterine secretory phase. b. is caused primarily by hCG. c. corresponds hormonally to the ovarian luteal phase. d. is the stage during which implantation occurs.

ANS: A 58. The corpus luteum a. is located within the uterus. b. is a placental structure. c. secretes gonadotropins. d. secretes large amounts of progesterone.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: D 59. If implantation occurs within the fallopian tube, the a. greatest concern is the placenta previa. b. pregnancy is described as ectopic. c. pregnancy is considered normal. d. woman will continue to menstruate throughout the 9 months of fetal growth.

ANS: B 60.

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) promotes the maturation of the egg. is responsible for female characteristics. maintains the corpus luteum. promotes the transformation of the corpus luteum into the corpus albicans.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 61. An elevation of plasma levels of estrogen and progesterone a. stimulates the release of gonadotropins. b. prevents the release of FSH and LH. c. transforms the corpus luteum into the corpus albicans. d. causes menstruation.

ANS: B 62. Trophoblastic cells a. secrete oxytocin.

N RSINGTB.C OM b. are responsible for the milkUlet-down reflex. c. assist with implantation. d. are incorporated within the graafian follicle.

ANS: C 63. In the absence of human chorionic gonadotropin, a. the corpus albicans starts secreting progesterone. b. the rate of placental development accelerates. c. labor is initiated. d. the corpus luteum deteriorates into the corpus albicans.

ANS: D 64. The luteal phase of the ovarian cycle a. is responsible for menstruation. b. is responsible for the uterine secretory phase. c. elevates plasma levels of estrogen, progesterone, and hCG. d. precedes the LH surge.

ANS: B 65. The endometrium a. is the uterine lining that is most responsive to the hormonal effects of estrogen and

progesterone.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. is the target of FSH and LH. c. forms the graafian follicle. d. is responsive to oxytocin during labor.

ANS: A 66. The zygote a. implants within the uterine lining. b. matures into the graafian follicle. c. is the fertilized ovum. d. is formed within the uterus.

ANS: C 67. The proliferative phase of the uterine cycle a. describes the deterioration of the corpus luteum into the corpus albicans. b. is primarily caused by the hormonal effects of progesterone. c. is primarily caused by the hormonal effects of hCG. d. refers to the estrogen-induced thickening of the endometrium.

ANS: D 68. Which of the following characterizes the Graafian follicle? a. Matures within the fallopian tube b. Is the mature follicle c. Secretes gonadotropins d. Causes the midcycle surge of LH ANS: B

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69. The secretory phase of the uterine cycle a. is the endometrial response to progesterone. b. immediately follows the menstrual phase. c. refers to the hormonal response of the endometrium to the corpus albicans. d. refers to the adenohypophyseal response to declining plasma levels of estrogen and

progesterone.

ANS: A 70. Menstruation occurs in response to a. an LH surge. b. diminished plasma levels of estrogen and progesterone. c. elevated plasma levels of hCG. d. elevation of plasma levels of FSH and LH. ANS: B 71. Enlargement of the prostate may impede urination because a. the bladder becomes compressed. b. the prostate surrounds and compresses the urethra. c. the ureters are blocked. d. the ejaculatory duct is constricted.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: B 72. The prostate a. surrounds the upper portion of the urethra and contributes to the formation of

semen. b. is an extension of the epididymis. c. is located within the seminiferous tubules. d. produces androgens.

ANS: A 73. Which of the following is least true of or least associated with the placenta? a. The site at which baby-to-be breathes b. A very vascular structure c. Replaces the glandular secretion of the corpus luteum d. Nourishes the zygote as it matures into the morula ANS: D 74. Which group is incorrect? a. Parts of a sperm: head, body, tail b. Parts of the uterus: fundus, body, cervix c. Layers of the uterus: perimetrium, myometrium, endometrium d. Genital ducts: epididymis, ejaculatory ducts, vas deferens, prostate gland ANS: D 75. Which group is incorrect? N R I G B.C M S N phase, T luteal O phase a. Phases of the ovarian cycle:Ufollicular b. Phases of the uterine cycle: menstrual phase, proliferative phase, secretory phase c. Reproductive hormones: estrogen, progesterone, hCG, testosterone d. External genitals: penis, scrotum, labia, mons pubis, cervix ANS: D 76. Which group is incorrect? a. Parts of a sperm: head, body, tail b. Genital ducts: epididymis, ejaculatory ducts, vas deferens, urethra c. Phases of the uterine cycle: menstrual phase, proliferative phase, secretory phase d. Phases of the ovarian cycle: proliferative phase, luteal phase ANS: D 77. Which of the following is true of the fimbriae of the fallopian tubes? a. They carry the fertilized ovum into the uterus. b. They sweep the ovum into fallopian tubes at ovulation. c. They help the sperm move from the uterus into the fallopian tubes. d. They are hormone-secreting cells that help maintain the pregnant state.

ANS: B 78. Which group is correct? a. Uterine layers: perimetrium, myometrium, cervix

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. Gonads: zygote, ovaries, testes c. Steroids: testosterone, estrogen, progesterone, oxytocin d. Uterine parts: fundus, body, cervix ANS: D 79. Which of the following refers to “middle” pain ovulation? a. Impotence b. Mittelschmerz c. Chocolate cyst d. Corpus albicans ANS: B 80. Which of the following explains why the pregnant woman does not menstruate? a. The secretion of hCG maintains the integrity of the corpus luteum. b. The luteal secretion of estrogen and progesterone prevents the secretion of

gonadotropins. c. The luteal secretion of estrogen and progesterone prevents the adenohypophyseal secretion of FSH and LH. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: D 81. The labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, and vestibular glands a. are called the vulva. b. are external genitals. c. are called the pudendum.N R I G B.C M O d. All of the above are true. U S N T ANS: D 82. To which organ do these terms refer: womb, hysterectomy, and hystera? a. Vagina b. Ovary c. Uterus d. Oviduct ANS: C 83. Which of the following are secreted by the adenohypophysis? a. Oxytocin, prolactin b. FSH, LH, interstitial cell-stimulating hormone c. Estrogen, progesterone d. Testosterone, hCG ANS: B 84. Identify the glands that secrete these hormones: estrogen, testosterone, oxytocin, and

prolactin. a. Testis, neurohypophysis, thyroid, adrenal medulla b. Ovary, corpus albicans, hypothalamus, adrenal medulla c. Ovary, testis, neurohypophysis, anterior pituitary gland

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. Ovary, adrenal medulla, adenohypophysis, endometrium ANS: C 85. Which of the following is the stimulus for the secretion of FSH and LH in the female? a. Elevated plasma levels of androgens b. Low plasma levels of estrogen and progesterone c. Elevated ovarian hormones d. Increased plasma levels of hCG ANS: B 86. Which hormone is characterized by the following: androgen, steroid, and interstitial cells? a. Gonadotropin b. Oxytocin c. Testosterone d. Prolactin ANS: C 87. Which of the following structures is characterized by the words infundibulum, fimbriae, and

fallopian tubes?

Ovaries Oviducts Uterus External genitalia

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

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88. Which of the following are exocrine glands found in the male reproductive tract? a. Adenohypophysis, seminal vesicles, testes b. Testes, Cowper’s glands, prostate gland c. Bulbourethral glands, prostate gland, seminal vesicles d. Interstitial cells, seminiferous tubules, prostate gland ANS: C 89. Which of the following is a correct sequence regarding the flow of semen or semen-to-be? a. Vas deferens, seminiferous tubules, urethra b. Urethra, ejaculatory duct, vas deferens c. Seminiferous tubules, vas deferens, epididymis d. Vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra ANS: D 90. Sixty percent of the volume of semen comes from these glands. a. Seminal vesicles b. Prostate c. Bulbourethral glands d. Testes ANS: A

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

Chapter 27: Human Development and Heredity Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which structure is commonly called the bag of waters (it breaks prior to delivery and often

signals the onset of labor)?

Primary germ layers Morula Amniotic sac Blastocyst

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 2. What term describes the ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm? a. Inner cell mass b. Extraembryonic membranes c. Primary germ layers d. Blastomeres ANS: C 3. What is the outer extraembryonic membrane that forms finger-like projections called villi and

helps form the placenta? a. Amnion b. Chorion c. Umbilicus d. Trophoblast

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ANS: B

4. Which of the following is a disclike structure where the fetal and maternal circulations meet

(baby eats, excretes, and breathes at this site)?

Umbilicus Placenta Primary germ layers Zygote

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 5. Which of the following develops first? a. Morula b. Trophoblast c. Blastomere d. Zygote ANS: D 6. Which cream cheese-like substance is secreted by baby’s sebaceous glands and protects the

skin from the amniotic fluid? a. Lanugo

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. Colostrum c. Vernix caseosa d. Meconium ANS: C 7. Which word refers to milk production by the mammary glands? a. Implantation b. Parturition c. Lactation d. Quickening ANS: C 8. What is the name of the fine downy hair that covers the fetus? a. Vernix caseosa b. Lanugo c. Colostrum d. Meconium ANS: B 9. Which of the following describes the consequence of this event: two ova are fertilized by two

different sperm?

Monozygotic twins Identical twins Dizygotic twins More than one of the above N are R true.

I G

a. b. c. d.

B.C M U S N T O

ANS: C 10. Which hormone is secreted by the trophoblastic cells during implantation and helps preserve

the corpus luteum?

Estrogen Progesterone hCG FSH

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 11. In addition to acting as an exchange site between the mother and fetus, the placenta also

secretes estrogen and progesterone. amniotic fluid. vernix caseosa. colostrum.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 12. Which of the following is divided into trimesters? a. Conception b. Fertilization c. Pregnancy

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. Ovulation ANS: C 13. Which of the following is most related to fertilization? a. Broad ligament b. Implantation c. Menses d. 23 chromosomes plus 23 chromosomes ANS: D 14. Which of the following is true of implantation? a. It is called conception. b. It is divided into trimesters. c. It is stimulated by FSH and LH. d. It occurs within the uterus.

ANS: D 15. Which of the following is most descriptive of a zygote? a. Fertilized ovum b. Mature sperm c. Graafian follicle d. Fetus ANS: A 16. What “lives” in the fallopianN tuUbR e fSoI r aNbGriT efBp. erC ioOdMof time? a. An embryo b. A fetus c. A blastocyst d. A zygote ANS: D 17. The conversion of the corpus luteum to the corpus albicans a. is characteristic of the nonpregnant state. b. is due to the secretion of hCG. c. prevents ovulation in the next menstrual cycle. d. occurs only in twinning.

ANS: A 18. What is the name of the developmental process that refers to the shaping of the cell cluster? a. Implantation b. Conception c. Morphogenesis d. Fertilization ANS: C 19. Afterbirth refers primarily to which structure?

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. b. c. d.

Morula Zygote Fetus Placenta

ANS: D 20. Which hormone literally means “swift birth” and assists in labor? a. Prostaglandin b. Progesterone c. Oxytocin d. Prolactin ANS: C 21. Which of the following is most related to human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)? a. Milk production b. Breasts c. Corpus luteum d. Anterior pituitary gland ANS: C 22. What is the hormonal basis of the pregnancy test? a. Estrogen b. Prostaglandin c. Oxytocin d. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) B.C M

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O

ANS: D 23. Which of the following prevents the deterioration of the corpus luteum during early

pregnancy?

Prolactin Progesterone Oxytocin Human chorionic gonadotropin

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 24. The blastocyst a. lives in the uterus. b. is a fetal structure. c. lives in the fallopian tube. d. is an estrogen-secreting ovarian structure.

ANS: A 25. From week 3 to week 8, the baby-to-be is called a(n) a. zygote. b. morula. c. fetus. d. embryo.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

ANS: D 26. What is the baby-to-be called after 9 weeks of development? a. Zygote b. Fetus c. Embryo d. Neonate ANS: B 27. Which of the following best describes the amnion, chorion, yolk sac, and allantois? a. Primary germ layers b. Inner cell mass c. Dizygotic twins d. extraembryonic membranes ANS: D 28. Which of the following give(s) rise to the endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm? a. The zygote b. The extraembryonic membranes c. Primary germ layers d. The placenta ANS: C 29. The fimbriae sweep the ovum into which structure immediately following ovulation? a. Uterus NURSINGTB.COM b. Fallopian tube c. Vagina d. Ovary ANS: B

30. Which of the following literally means “monster-producing”? a. Abortion b. Involution c. Teratogenic d. Embryonic ANS: C 31. Which of the following is the first event? a. Parturition b. Implantation c. Placental development d. Secretion of vernix caseosa ANS: B 32. A mother-to-be infected with the rubella virus gives birth to a child with multiple birth

defects. Which of the following is descriptive of the defects?

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. b. c. d.

Hereditary Encoded in the mother’s DNA Congenital Contagious

ANS: C 33. Which of the following is most associated with organogenesis? a. Embryonic period b. Implantation c. Third trimester d. Neonatal period ANS: A 34. How is a child with X and Y chromosomes best described? a. Having Down syndrome b. Hemophiliac c. Immature d. Male ANS: D 35. Which of the following is an example of nondisjunction? a. Fetal alcohol syndrome b. Spina bifida secondary to maternal infection with rubella c. Down syndrome d. Twinning

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ANS: C

36. Which of the following is least related to the sex chromosomes? a. XX b. XY c. Autosomes d. X-linked ANS: C 37. Who or what determines the gender of the baby? a. Placenta b. Zygote c. Father d. Mother ANS: C 38. In the later stages of pregnancy, most of the mother’s estrogen and progesterone comes from

the a. b. c. d.

corpus luteum. corpus albicans. ovaries. placenta.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

ANS: D 39. The milk let-down reflex is most associated with a. estrogen. b. oxytocin. c. prolactin. d. hCG. ANS: B 40. Which of the following is least true of prolactin? a. Secreted by the anterior pituitary gland b. Stimulates the mammary gland c. Is an adenohypophyseal hormone d. Plays the primary role in the milk let-down reflex ANS: D 41. Which group is incorrect? a. Extraembryonic membranes: amnion, chorion, yolk sac, allantois b. Stages of labor: dilation, expulsion, lactation c. Ovarian structures: corpus luteum, corpus albicans, graafian follicle d. Genes: dominant, recessive, codominant ANS: B 42. Which group is incorrect? a. Primary germ layers: ectoNdU IeNsG erR mS , m odTerBm., C chOroMmosomes b. Embryonic structures: zygote, blastomere, morula, blastocyst c. Genes: dominant, recessive, codominant d. Genetic disorders: Down, Edward, and Patau syndromes ANS: B 43. Which group is incorrect? a. Primary germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm b. Hormones: estrogen, progesterone, hCG, prolactin, oxytocin c. Genes: dominant, recessive, codominant d. Stages of labor: dilation, expulsion, placental, embryonic ANS: D 44. Which group is incorrect? a. Extraembryonic membranes: graafian follicle, chorion, yolk sac b. Twinning: monozygotic, dizygotic c. Primary germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm d. Genes: dominant, recessive, codominant ANS: A 45. Fertilization is most apt to occur when sexual intercourse takes place close to a. ovulation.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. early adenohypophyseal secretion of gonadotropins. c. the last day of a 28-day cycle. d. the first day of a 28-day cycle.

ANS: A 46. Which of the following is characterized by quickening, lanugo, and vernix caseosa? a. Zygote b. Trophoblast c. Embryo d. Fetus ANS: D 47. With which word is fetal alcohol most associated? a. Colostrum b. Teratogen c. Thalidomide d. Eclampsia ANS: B 48. Which of the following is formed when the chorionic villi burrow into the endometrial lining? a. Yolk sac b. Placenta c. Umbilical cord d. Ductus venosus ANS: B

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49. Which of the following is most apt to develop in response to compression of the umbilical

cord?

Hemolytic jaundice of the newborn (hyperbilirubinemia) Endometriosis (maternal) Fetal hypoxemia Premature separation of the placenta

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 50. Which of the following is accomplished during the eighth month of fetal development? a. Baby fattens up b. Baby’s bone marrow begins to function c. Amniotic fluid begins to accumulate in the amniotic sac d. Mom starts to lactate ANS: A 51. Which of the following is true of parturition? a. The fetus becomes a neonate b. Refers to the birth process c. Can only occur after 36 weeks of pregnancy d. Both A and B are true.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: D 52. The chorionic villi sit in blood-filled endometrial spaces called a. the umbilical cord. b. the lacunae. c. the yolk sac. d. allantois.

ANS: B 53. This structure carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus. a. Umbilical artery b. Ductus arteriosus c. Embryonic disc d. Umbilical vein ANS: D 54. Which of the following is the latest stage of development? a. Morula b. Blastomeres c. Blastocyst d. Zygote ANS: C 55. Which of the following is least characteristic of hCG? a. Secreted by trophoblasts NURSINGTB.COM b. Maintains the corpus luteum c. Maintains maternal levels of estrogen and progesterone d. Exerts an oxytoxic effect ANS: D 56. Which of the following is an ovarian event? a. Fertilization b. Implantation c. Maturation of the graafian follicle d. Cleavage and blastomere formation ANS: C 57. Which of the following is true regarding lactation? a. Suckling causes the alveolar glands to secrete oxytocin. b. Suckling stimulates the sensory nerves of the milk let-down reflex. c. Flow of milk through the lactiferous ducts is the sensory response to suckling. d. Prolactin is secreted in response to suckling.

ANS: B 58. Which of these hormones is released in response to suckling and activation of the

hypothalamus and neurohypophysis? a. Progesterone

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. Estrogen c. Oxytocin d. Prolactin ANS: C 59. Which of the following is (are) most associated with the following: areola, suspensory

ligaments, lactiferous ducts, and alveolar glands?

Uterus Breasts Posterior pituitary gland Ovulation

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

Chapter 27: Human Development and Heredity Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which structure is commonly called the bag of waters (it breaks prior to delivery and often

signals the onset of labor)?

Primary germ layers Morula Amniotic sac Blastocyst

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 2. What term describes the ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm? a. Inner cell mass b. Extraembryonic membranes c. Primary germ layers d. Blastomeres ANS: C 3. What is the outer extraembryonic membrane that forms finger-like projections called villi and

helps form the placenta? a. Amnion b. Chorion c. Umbilicus d. Trophoblast

NURSINGTB.COM

ANS: B

4. Which of the following is a disclike structure where the fetal and maternal circulations meet

(baby eats, excretes, and breathes at this site)?

Umbilicus Placenta Primary germ layers Zygote

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 5. Which of the following develops first? a. Morula b. Trophoblast c. Blastomere d. Zygote ANS: D 6. Which cream cheese-like substance is secreted by baby’s sebaceous glands and protects the

skin from the amniotic fluid? a. Lanugo

NURSINGTB.COM

Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. Colostrum c. Vernix caseosa d. Meconium ANS: C 7. Which word refers to milk production by the mammary glands? a. Implantation b. Parturition c. Lactation d. Quickening ANS: C 8. What is the name of the fine downy hair that covers the fetus? a. Vernix caseosa b. Lanugo c. Colostrum d. Meconium ANS: B 9. Which of the following describes the consequence of this event: two ova are fertilized by two

different sperm?

Monozygotic twins Identical twins Dizygotic twins More than one of the above N are R true.

I G

a. b. c. d.

B.C M U S N T O

ANS: C 10. Which hormone is secreted by the trophoblastic cells during implantation and helps preserve

the corpus luteum?

Estrogen Progesterone hCG FSH

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 11. In addition to acting as an exchange site between the mother and fetus, the placenta also

secretes estrogen and progesterone. amniotic fluid. vernix caseosa. colostrum.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 12. Which of the following is divided into trimesters? a. Conception b. Fertilization c. Pregnancy

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank d. Ovulation ANS: C 13. Which of the following is most related to fertilization? a. Broad ligament b. Implantation c. Menses d. 23 chromosomes plus 23 chromosomes ANS: D 14. Which of the following is true of implantation? a. It is called conception. b. It is divided into trimesters. c. It is stimulated by FSH and LH. d. It occurs within the uterus.

ANS: D 15. Which of the following is most descriptive of a zygote? a. Fertilized ovum b. Mature sperm c. Graafian follicle d. Fetus ANS: A 16. What “lives” in the fallopianN tuUbR e fSoI r aNbGriT efBp. erC ioOdMof time? a. An embryo b. A fetus c. A blastocyst d. A zygote ANS: D 17. The conversion of the corpus luteum to the corpus albicans a. is characteristic of the nonpregnant state. b. is due to the secretion of hCG. c. prevents ovulation in the next menstrual cycle. d. occurs only in twinning.

ANS: A 18. What is the name of the developmental process that refers to the shaping of the cell cluster? a. Implantation b. Conception c. Morphogenesis d. Fertilization ANS: C 19. Afterbirth refers primarily to which structure?

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. b. c. d.

Morula Zygote Fetus Placenta

ANS: D 20. Which hormone literally means “swift birth” and assists in labor? a. Prostaglandin b. Progesterone c. Oxytocin d. Prolactin ANS: C 21. Which of the following is most related to human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)? a. Milk production b. Breasts c. Corpus luteum d. Anterior pituitary gland ANS: C 22. What is the hormonal basis of the pregnancy test? a. Estrogen b. Prostaglandin c. Oxytocin d. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) B.C M

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ANS: D 23. Which of the following prevents the deterioration of the corpus luteum during early

pregnancy?

Prolactin Progesterone Oxytocin Human chorionic gonadotropin

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 24. The blastocyst a. lives in the uterus. b. is a fetal structure. c. lives in the fallopian tube. d. is an estrogen-secreting ovarian structure.

ANS: A 25. From week 3 to week 8, the baby-to-be is called a(n) a. zygote. b. morula. c. fetus. d. embryo.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

ANS: D 26. What is the baby-to-be called after 9 weeks of development? a. Zygote b. Fetus c. Embryo d. Neonate ANS: B 27. Which of the following best describes the amnion, chorion, yolk sac, and allantois? a. Primary germ layers b. Inner cell mass c. Dizygotic twins d. extraembryonic membranes ANS: D 28. Which of the following give(s) rise to the endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm? a. The zygote b. The extraembryonic membranes c. Primary germ layers d. The placenta ANS: C 29. The fimbriae sweep the ovum into which structure immediately following ovulation? a. Uterus NURSINGTB.COM b. Fallopian tube c. Vagina d. Ovary ANS: B

30. Which of the following literally means “monster-producing”? a. Abortion b. Involution c. Teratogenic d. Embryonic ANS: C 31. Which of the following is the first event? a. Parturition b. Implantation c. Placental development d. Secretion of vernix caseosa ANS: B 32. A mother-to-be infected with the rubella virus gives birth to a child with multiple birth

defects. Which of the following is descriptive of the defects?

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank a. b. c. d.

Hereditary Encoded in the mother’s DNA Congenital Contagious

ANS: C 33. Which of the following is most associated with organogenesis? a. Embryonic period b. Implantation c. Third trimester d. Neonatal period ANS: A 34. How is a child with X and Y chromosomes best described? a. Having Down syndrome b. Hemophiliac c. Immature d. Male ANS: D 35. Which of the following is an example of nondisjunction? a. Fetal alcohol syndrome b. Spina bifida secondary to maternal infection with rubella c. Down syndrome d. Twinning

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ANS: C

36. Which of the following is least related to the sex chromosomes? a. XX b. XY c. Autosomes d. X-linked ANS: C 37. Who or what determines the gender of the baby? a. Placenta b. Zygote c. Father d. Mother ANS: C 38. In the later stages of pregnancy, most of the mother’s estrogen and progesterone comes from

the a. b. c. d.

corpus luteum. corpus albicans. ovaries. placenta.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank

ANS: D 39. The milk let-down reflex is most associated with a. estrogen. b. oxytocin. c. prolactin. d. hCG. ANS: B 40. Which of the following is least true of prolactin? a. Secreted by the anterior pituitary gland b. Stimulates the mammary gland c. Is an adenohypophyseal hormone d. Plays the primary role in the milk let-down reflex ANS: D 41. Which group is incorrect? a. Extraembryonic membranes: amnion, chorion, yolk sac, allantois b. Stages of labor: dilation, expulsion, lactation c. Ovarian structures: corpus luteum, corpus albicans, graafian follicle d. Genes: dominant, recessive, codominant ANS: B 42. Which group is incorrect? a. Primary germ layers: ectoNdU IeNsG erR mS , m odTerBm., C chOroMmosomes b. Embryonic structures: zygote, blastomere, morula, blastocyst c. Genes: dominant, recessive, codominant d. Genetic disorders: Down, Edward, and Patau syndromes ANS: B 43. Which group is incorrect? a. Primary germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm b. Hormones: estrogen, progesterone, hCG, prolactin, oxytocin c. Genes: dominant, recessive, codominant d. Stages of labor: dilation, expulsion, placental, embryonic ANS: D 44. Which group is incorrect? a. Extraembryonic membranes: graafian follicle, chorion, yolk sac b. Twinning: monozygotic, dizygotic c. Primary germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm d. Genes: dominant, recessive, codominant ANS: A 45. Fertilization is most apt to occur when sexual intercourse takes place close to a. ovulation.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. early adenohypophyseal secretion of gonadotropins. c. the last day of a 28-day cycle. d. the first day of a 28-day cycle.

ANS: A 46. Which of the following is characterized by quickening, lanugo, and vernix caseosa? a. Zygote b. Trophoblast c. Embryo d. Fetus ANS: D 47. With which word is fetal alcohol most associated? a. Colostrum b. Teratogen c. Thalidomide d. Eclampsia ANS: B 48. Which of the following is formed when the chorionic villi burrow into the endometrial lining? a. Yolk sac b. Placenta c. Umbilical cord d. Ductus venosus ANS: B

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49. Which of the following is most apt to develop in response to compression of the umbilical

cord?

Hemolytic jaundice of the newborn (hyperbilirubinemia) Endometriosis (maternal) Fetal hypoxemia Premature separation of the placenta

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 50. Which of the following is accomplished during the eighth month of fetal development? a. Baby fattens up b. Baby’s bone marrow begins to function c. Amniotic fluid begins to accumulate in the amniotic sac d. Mom starts to lactate ANS: A 51. Which of the following is true of parturition? a. The fetus becomes a neonate b. Refers to the birth process c. Can only occur after 36 weeks of pregnancy d. Both A and B are true.

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank ANS: D 52. The chorionic villi sit in blood-filled endometrial spaces called a. the umbilical cord. b. the lacunae. c. the yolk sac. d. allantois.

ANS: B 53. This structure carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus. a. Umbilical artery b. Ductus arteriosus c. Embryonic disc d. Umbilical vein ANS: D 54. Which of the following is the latest stage of development? a. Morula b. Blastomeres c. Blastocyst d. Zygote ANS: C 55. Which of the following is least characteristic of hCG? a. Secreted by trophoblasts NURSINGTB.COM b. Maintains the corpus luteum c. Maintains maternal levels of estrogen and progesterone d. Exerts an oxytoxic effect ANS: D 56. Which of the following is an ovarian event? a. Fertilization b. Implantation c. Maturation of the graafian follicle d. Cleavage and blastomere formation ANS: C 57. Which of the following is true regarding lactation? a. Suckling causes the alveolar glands to secrete oxytocin. b. Suckling stimulates the sensory nerves of the milk let-down reflex. c. Flow of milk through the lactiferous ducts is the sensory response to suckling. d. Prolactin is secreted in response to suckling.

ANS: B 58. Which of these hormones is released in response to suckling and activation of the

hypothalamus and neurohypophysis? a. Progesterone

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Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition Herlihy Test Bank b. Estrogen c. Oxytocin d. Prolactin ANS: C 59. Which of the following is (are) most associated with the following: areola, suspensory

ligaments, lactiferous ducts, and alveolar glands?

Uterus Breasts Posterior pituitary gland Ovulation

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

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TEST BANK