Workplace Diversity
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course explores the complexities and benefits of diversity within the modern workplace, focusing on how differences in race, gender, age, ethnicity, religion, sexual orientation, and abilities shape organizational culture and performance. Through a combination of theoretical frameworks and real-world case studies, students examine the legal, ethical, and managerial aspects of diversity, equity, and inclusion. The course aims to equip students with the skills and knowledge to foster a more inclusive environment, address bias and discrimination, and implement effective diversity management strategies that contribute to organizational success and social responsibility.
Recommended Textbook
Organizational Behavior 18th Edition by
Stephen P. Robbins
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Page 2
Chapter 1: What Is Organizational Behavior?
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Q1) The rapid globalization of the world economy has largely eliminated the need for managers to know the cultural norms of the workforce in each country where they do business.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The discretionary behavior that is not part of an employee's formal job requirements and that contributes to the psychological and social environment of the workplace is called organizational ________ behavior.
A) withdrawal
B) associative
C) networked
D) citizenship
E) cohesive
Answer: D
Q3) Productivity refers to the degree to which an organization can achieve its ends at a low cost.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Diversity in Organizations
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Q1) Impaired hearing, rheumatoid arthritis, and insomnia are all examples of hidden disabilities.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Define any four dimensions of intellectual ability.
Answer: Number aptitude refers to the ability to do speedy and accurate arithmetic. Spatial visualization refers to the ability to imagine how an object would look if its position in space were changed. Deductive reasoning refers to the ability to use logic and access implications of an argument. Perceptual speed refers to the ability to identify visual similarities and differences quickly and accurately. Inductive reasoning is the ability to identify a logical sequence in a problem and then solve the problem. Memory is the ability to retain and recall past experiences.
Q3) Women being passed over for promotion even when they are performing better than men is an example of a discriminatory practice.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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4
Chapter 3: Attitudes and Job Satisfaction
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Q1) The statement, "A person who eats meat and then fights for animal rights demonstrates double standards" is an evaluative statement. Such an opinion constitutes the ________ component of an attitude.
A) cognitive
B) affective
C) reflective
D) behavioral
E) reactive
Answer: A
Q2) Is there a relationship between employees whose personal values fit with the organization's CSR mission and job satisfaction? Explain.
Answer: Fifty-nine large and small organizations recently surveyed, 86 percent reported they have happier employees as a result of their CSR programs. The relationship between CSR and job satisfaction is particularly strong for Millennials.
Q3) No individual can completely avoid dissonance.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Emotions and Moods
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Q1) Explain how stress affects emotions and moods.
Q2) On which day of the week does the positive affect tend to be highest for U.S., China, Germany and Japan?
A) Sundays
B) Mondays
C) Saturdays
D) Tuesdays
E) Wednesdays
Q3) Suppression used in crisis situations appears to help an individual recover from the event emotionally, while suppression used as an everyday emotion regulation technique can take a toll on mental ability, emotional ability, health, and relationships.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Emotions tend to last for several days, for a much longer time period than moods.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the difference between felt emotions and displayed emotions?
Q6) Discuss whether there are gender differences regarding emotions.
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Chapter 5: Personality and Values
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true about people with positive core self-evaluations?
A) They are committed to their goals and set ambitious goals.
B) They view themselves as powerless over their environment.
C) They tend to question their capabilities and capacities.
D) They lack persistence to achieve goals.
E) They tend to be disliked by superiors and co-workers.
Q2) An individual's value system is obtained by ranking the person's values in terms of their intensity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to Hofstede's framework, ________ indicates the degree to which people in a country prefer structured over unstructured situations.
A) collectivism
B) power distance
C) long-term orientation
D) uncertainty avoidance
E) individualism
Q4) Describe the typical characteristics associated with a proactive personality.
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Chapter 6: Perception and Individual Decision Making
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Q1) The tendency to seek out information that reaffirms past choices and to discount information that contradicts past judgments is known as ________ bias.
A) distinction
B) omission
C) impact
D) confirmation
E) anchoring
Q2) Which of the following is a decision-making model that describes how individuals should behave in order to maximize some outcome?
A) rational decision-making model
B) flexible decision-making model
C) distributive decision-making model
D) associative decision-making model
E) integrative decision-making model
Q3) Victoria Hastings works as a sales manager at a bank and her behavior is characterized by the fundamental attribution error and halo effect. Explain with the help of an example what Hastings' behavior is most likely to be toward her team in such a situation.
Q4) Discuss attribution theory.
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Chapter 7: Motivation Concepts
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Q1) ________ refers to an individual's belief that he or she is capable of performing a task.
A) Emotional contagion
B) Affect intensity
C) Self-efficacy
D) Self-determination
E) Reinforcement
Q2) The ________ theory is also known as the social cognitive theory or the social learning theory.
A) two-factor
B) self-determination
C) goal-setting
D) self-efficacy
E) reinforcement
Q3) A self-regulation strategy that involves striving for goals through advancement and accomplishment is the prevention focus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss distributive justice, procedural justice, and interpersonal justice.
Q5) Why are people motivated by challenging goals?
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Chapter 8: Motivation: From Concepts to Applications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding job rotation?
A) It decreases the flexibility with which an organization can adapt to a change.
B) It decreases employee motivation.
C) It decreases productivity in the short run.
D) It decreases supervisory workload.
E) It decreases the flexibility in scheduling work.
Q2) Jobs with high autonomy give workers a feeling of personal responsibility for the results.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The external competitiveness of an organization's pay relative to elsewhere in the industry is measured by its ________.
A) external benefit
B) external rotation
C) external costs
D) external equity
E) external liability
Q4) What is job enrichment? Describe how enriching a job is different from enlarging a job.
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Chapter 9: Foundations of Group Behavior
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Q1) Michael is devout and very active in his church. He is also a very dedicated employee. His manager offers him a promotion, but the new role will require him to work Sundays. Michael would like the promotion but realizes that it would force him to miss some church activities. In this situation, Michael is most likely to experience ________.
A) role conflict
B) social loafing
C) groupthink
D) role fuzziness
E) groupshift
Q2) The popular thinking is that to increase creativity in groups, for instance, norms should be loosened. However, research on gender-diverse groups indicates that strong political correctness (P.C.) norms increase group creativity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain the relationship between role conflict and reference groups.
Q4) Role expectations at work are often conveyed through the psychological contract.
A)True
B)False
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11
Chapter 10: Understanding Work Teams
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Q1) What is the relationship between task conflicts and reflexivity among team members?
Q2) The controller role in a team is responsible for ________.
A) initiating creative ideas
B) examining details and enforcing rules
C) offering insightful analysis of options
D) coordinating and integrating group tasks
E) providing directions and following up with implementation
Q3) What are some special challenges that virtual teams face? For virtual teams to be effective, what should management ensure?
Q4) The work of your group would be better done in teams if the members of the team are ________.
A) independent
B) autonomous
C) individualistic
D) interdependent
E) reflexive
Q5) How does a climate of trust improve effectiveness of teams?
Q6) Compare the role of a leader in (a) a self-managed team, (b) a multiteam, and (c) a diverse team.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Communication
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Q1) Filtering is a barrier to effective communication that takes place when ________.
A) the interpretation of the message is affected by the receiver's emotion
B) the information we have to work with exceeds our processing capacity
C) a sender purposely manipulates information so the receiver will see it more favorably
D) the receivers in the communication process selectively see and hear based on their motivations, experience, and other personal characteristics
E) receivers also project their interests and expectations into communications as they decode them
Q2) Before communication can take place, a ________ is required.
A) filter
B) channel
C) receiver
D) purpose
E) decoder
Q3) How would you relate the concepts of wheel network and information overload?
Q4) When communicating with people from a different culture, how can you reduce misinterpretations?
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Chapter 12: Leadership
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Q1) Genetics and experiences shape young people, and the relationship between these factors and CEO success is complex.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In terms of the full range of leadership models, which leadership behavior represents the most active and effective approach for leaders?
A) contingent reward
B) idealized influence
C) management by exception (active)
D) individualized consideration
E) laissez-faire
Q3) According to the path-goal theory, directive leadership is likely to be welcomed and accepted by employees with high ability or considerable experience.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How do substitutes and neutralizers challenge the effectiveness of leadership?
Q5) What are the key characteristics of charismatic leaders?
Q6) Describe the full range of leadership model.
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Chapter 13: Power and Politics
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Q1) At the PR firm where Gerald works, everyone considers him to be very good with his work and depends heavily on his knowledge to help the organization to solve its problems. Gerald is often seen teaching interns a simpler way to present an article, helping project managers with scheduling, and even the CEO often asks him for his opinion on important matters because of his experience and skill. Gerald's specialized knowledge depicts his ________.
A) expert power
B) coercive power
C) legitimate power
D) referent power
E) reward power
Q2) When the production manager at CalTrack was asked to provide reasons for the delay in the last batch of stock to be produced for the month, he clearly stated that this was the result of one of his front-level managers taking two days off and that the fault was not his. The manager is using buffing as a defensive behavior here.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Define sexual harassment and identify ways managers can protect themselves and their employees from it.
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Chapter 14: Conflict and Negotiation
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Q1) In third-party negotiations, a third party who provides an informal communication link between the negotiator and the opponent is known as a(n) ________.
A) plaintiff
B) arbitrator
C) consultant
D) conciliator
E) executor
Q2) In the case of a distributive bargaining, the ________ point indicates what a person would like to achieve out of the negotiation.
A) resistance
B) distribution
C) target
D) bargaining
E) focus
Q3) Explain how self-efficacy impacts negotiation outcomes.
Q4) The potential for conflict increases when too much communication takes place.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is BATNA? Discuss the significance of BATNA.
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Chapter 15: Foundations of Organization Structure
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Q1) Which of the following statements, if true, would support the argument favoring increased span of control?
A) Mike's team consists of highly experienced and skilled labor.
B) Porco Rosso recently became the world's leading aircraft manufacturer.
C) Mike is receiving increasing complaints about interpersonal conflicts within the team.
D) Mike's team is highly dependent on his guidance, even on minor issues.
E) When additional workers were assigned to Mike on a previous occasion, it led to unfavorable results.
Q2) AgriProducers has customers all over the United States that need their soil and crops tested in their labs. The crops and soil are different in the various large areas of the nation, such as the West Coast and the Midwest. Which type of departmentalization would be best for AgriProducers?
A) functional
B) process
C) product
D) geographic
E) temporal
Q3) Compare and contrast centralized and decentralized organizations.
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17
Chapter 16: Organizational Culture
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Q1) In the ________ employees value growth, variety, attention to detail, stimulation, and autonomy.
A) market
B) adhocracy
C) clan
D) bureaucracy
E) hierarchy
Q2) An aircraft manufacturer with a strong presence in the United States, is looking to expand its market overseas. The firm currently sells its aircraft to several airlines in the United Kingdom but now wants to establish manufacturing units there as well in order to acquire a bigger share in the European market. Hence, it plans to merge with QueenAir, a British aircraft manufacturer. Which of the following, if true, would weaken the company's decision to merge with QueenAir?
A) Merging with QueenAir would increase its profits considerably.
B) There is increasing economic uncertainty in its U.S. market.
C) The preferences of airline customers in Europe and the U.S. are similar.
D) There is a striking difference in the organizational cultures of the two firms.
E) A competitor in the U.S. market recently went out of business.
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Chapter 17: Human Resource Policies and Practices
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Q1) The critical incidents method of performance evaluation focuses the evaluator's attention on the difference between executing a job effectively and executing it ineffectively.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding downsizing is true?
A) Organizations that are able to demonstrate fairness are more likely to make the hoped-for gains from downsizing.
B) Employees who have been laid off almost always feel badly about their previous employer.
C) Employees who have been laid off are unlikely to return to the company if asked.
D) It is generally in the best interests of the employee to challenge the decision.
E) The initial screening process can be considered a failure.
Q3) Companies are increasingly turning away from outside recruiting agencies and relying on their own executives and HR professionals for talent searches.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Organizational Change and Stress Management
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Q1) If individuals resisting change are included in making change decisions in an attempt to gain their support, this approach is called ________.
A) cooptation
B) exploitation
C) arbitration
D) coercion
E) conciliation
Q2) A paper sales company designs and offers a new method of purchasing and shipping commercial quantities of paper through its Web site. The company used to do its business through its sales representative. This is an example of a(n) ________ change.
A) accidental
B) secondary
C) planned
D) cognitive
E) integrated
Q3) Who are change agents?
Q4) What are the various organizational sources of resistance to change?
Q5) Describe the process of appreciative inquiry (AI).
Q6) Discuss the various individual approaches toward managing stress. Page 20
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