Pediatric Pathophysiology Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Pediatric Pathophysiology explores the mechanisms and processes underlying disease development and progression in infants, children, and adolescents. This course emphasizes the unique physiological differences between pediatric and adult patients, focusing on how genetic, developmental, and environmental factors contribute to the onset and manifestation of diseases in the pediatric population. Students will study major pediatric disorders affecting various organ systems, examine altered homeostasis in common and rare conditions, and gain an understanding of diagnostic and therapeutic implications for pediatric care. The course integrates case studies and current research to enhance clinical reasoning skills and prepare learners for practical application in healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults And Children 5th Edition by
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Page 2
Kathryn L. McCance
Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the action of platelet-derived growth factor? It stimulates production of:
A) platelets.
B) epidermal cells.
C) connective tissue cells.
D) fibroblast cells.
Answer: C
Q2) Facilitated diffusion
A)Passive-mediated transport
B)Active-mediated transport
C)Osmosis
D)Diffusion
Answer: A
Q3) Active transport occurs across membranes that:
A) have a higher concentration of the solute on the outside of the cell.
B) are semipermeable to water and small electrically uncharged molecules.
C) have receptors that are capable of binding with the substances to be transported.
D) have a cell membrane that is hydrophobic rather than hydrophilic.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thymus gland changes during childhood
A)Physiologic atrophy
B)Pathologic atrophy
C)Physiologic hypertrophy
D)Pathologic hypertrophy
E)Compensatory hyperplasia
Answer: A
Q2) The abnormal proliferation of cells in response to excessive hormonal stimulation is called:
A) dysplasiA.
B) pathologic dysplasia.
C) hyperplasia.
D) pathologic hyperplasia.
Answer: D
Q3) Which organs are affected by lead consumption?
A) Heart and blood vessels
B) Muscles and bones
C) Pancreas and adrenal glands
D) Nerves and blood-forming organs
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What initiates the formation of ammonium (NH<sub>4</sub>)from ammonia (NH<sub>3</sub>)in the tubular lumen of the kidney?
A) Arterial pH of 7.25
B) Arterial pH of 7.35
C) Arterial pH of 7.55
D) Arterial pH of 7.65
Answer: A
Q2) Fatigue,weakness,kidney stones,varying degrees of heart block
A)Hyponatremia
B)Hypernatremia
C)Hypercalcemia
D)Hypokalemia
E)Hypomagnesemia
Answer: C
Q3) The two main intracellular fluid compartments are the interstitial fluid contained in the nucleus and the intravascular fluid contained in the cell body.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child born with an autosomal dominant disease was most likely produced by the union of a normal parent with an affected heterozygous parent.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All living organisms use the same DNA codes to specify proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Phenylketonuria (PKU)
A)Autosomal dominant
B)Autosomal recessive
C)X-linked dominant
D)X-linked recessive
Q4) What is the genotype for the person who has sickle cell trait?
A) DD
B) Dd
C) dd
Q5) RNA polymerase is the most important protein in DNA replication.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Genes, Environment-Lifestyle, and Common Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases are based on:
A) chromosomal testing.
B) direct observation.
C) liability thresholds.
D) relative risks.
Q2) The _____ of developing a disease is expressed as the ratio of the disease rate among the exposed population to the disease rate in an unexposed population.
A) attributable risk
B) contingency risk
C) causal risk
D) relative risk
Q3) Traits caused by the combined effects of multiple genes
A)Incidence rate effect of multiple genes
B)Gene-environment interaction
C)Prevalence rate at which some diseases occur
D)Obesity
E)Polygenetic
F)Empiric risk
G)Relative risk
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Chapter 6: Innate Immunity Including Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do many older adults have impaired inflammation and wound healing?
A) Because their circulatory system cannot adequately perfuse tissues.
B) Because they are deficient in complement and chemotaxis.
C) Because they have underlying chronic illnesses.
D) Because they have an insufficient number of mast cells.
Q2) Where is tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF a)secreted?
A) From virally infected cells
B) From bacterial infected cells
C) From macrophages
D) From mast cells
Q3) Which chemical interacts among all plasma protein systems by degrading blood clots,activating complement and activating the Hageman factor?
A) Kallikrein
B) Histamine
C) Bradykinin
D) Plasmin
Q4) Eosinophils phagocytose parasites.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Provide help in developing cell-mediated immunity
A)Helper T1 lymphocytes (Th1)
B)Helper T2 lymphocytes (Th2)
Q2) Produce interleukins 4,5,6,and 13
A)Helper T1 lymphocytes (Th1)
B)Helper T2 lymphocytes (Th2)
Q3) How are the functions of major histocompatibility molecules and CD1 molecules alike?
A) They are both antigen-presenting molecules.
B) They both bind antigens to antibodies.
C) They both secrete interleukins during the immune process.
D) They are both capable of activating cytotoxic T lymphocytes.
Q4) Before birth,humans produce a large number of T lymphocytes (T cells)and B lymphocytes (B cells)that have the capacity to recognize almost any foreign antigen found in the environment.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Are induced by antigens derived from cancer cells
A)Helper T1 lymphocytes (Th1)
B)Helper T2 lymphocytes (Th2)
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Alterations in Immunity and Inflammation
Including Hypersensitivies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which class of immunoglobulins forms isohemagglutinins?
A) Immunoglobulin A (IgA)
B) Immunoglobulin E (IgE)
C) Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
D) Immunoglobulin M (IgM)
Q2) What is the name of the hypersensitivity reaction that occurs after a person who is allergic to bee stings is stung by a bee?
A) Hemolytic shock
B) Anaphylaxis
C) Necrotizing vasculitis
D) Systemic erythematosus
Q3) Atopic individuals tend to produce higher levels of IgM.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Type IV hypersensitivity
A)Agammaglobulinemia
B)Raynaud phenomenon
C)Poison ivy
D)Urticaria
E)Graves' disease
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Chapter 9: Infection Including Hivaids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Once they have penetrated the first line of defense,which microorganisms do neutrophils actively attack,engulf and destroy by phagocytosis?
A) Bacteria
B) Fungi
C) Viruses
D) Mycoplasma
Q2) One systemic manifestation of an acute inflammatory response is fever that is produced by:
A) endogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus.
B) exogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus.
C) immune complexes acting indirectly on the hypothalamus.
D) cytokines acting indirectly on the hypothalamus.
Q3) Invade skin,hair and nails
A)Bacteria
B)Viruses
C)Mycoses
D)Dermatophytes
Q4) Endotoxins are contained in the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Stress and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) What effect does epinephrine have on the immune system during stress response?
A) An increase in natural killer cells
B) An increase in immunoglobulins
C) An increase in cytokines
D) An increase in helper T cells
Q2) Studies have shown a relationship between depression and reduction in lymphocyte proliferation and natural killer activity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What effect do androgens have on lymphocytes?
A) Suppression of B cells and enhancement of T cells
B) Suppression of T cells and enhancement of B cells
C) Suppression of both B cells and T cells
D) Enhancement of both B cells and T cells
Q4) What effect does estrogen have on lymphocytes?
A) Depression of B cells and enhancement of T cells
B) Depression of T cells and enhancement of B cells
C) Depression of both B cells and T cells
D) Enhancement of both B cells and T cells
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Chapter 11: Biology of Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which characteristic among women correlates with a high morbidity of cancer of the colon,liver,gallbladder,pancreas,breast,uterus,and kidney?
A) Women over 45 years
B) Women who never had children
C) Women who had a high body mass index
D) Woman who smoked for more than 10 years
Q2) Caretaker gene
A)Loss of differentiation
B)Cancer cells secrete growth factor for their own growth
C)Cells that vary in size and shape
D)Unaltered normal allele
E)Responsible for maintenance of genomic integrity
Q3) The term "neoplasm" can refer to a benign tumor.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses?
A) Papovaviruses,adenoviruses,and herpesviruses
B) Retroviruses,papovaviruses,and adenoviruses
C) Adenoviruses,herpesviruses,and retroviruses
D) Herpesviruses,retroviruses,and papovaviruses
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Tumor Invasion and Metastasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Interleukin is used as adjuvant therapy for a patient with metastatic renal cell carcinoma.The goal of this type of therapy is to:
A) improve the cellular response to chemotherapy.
B) enhance the immune response to tumor cells.
C) reduce the metastasis of malignant cells.
D) prevent bone marrow depression.
Q2) Biologic response modifiers
A)Provides cell-derived antiviral and immunomodulating proteins
B)Provides direct cytotoxic effect on cancer cells
C)Forms antibodies specific for tumor antigen
D)Attacks cancerous cells in the cell cycle
E)Provides nonspecific stimulation of the immune system
Q3) As a tumor increases in size,some cells undergo apoptosis.The only cells to survive and multiply are those with mutations to one copy of the p53 gene.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cancer cells adhere to one another better than normal cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Cancer in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Secondary cancers are a late effect faced by children cured of cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Mutations of proto-oncogenes into oncogenes have been identified with pediatric lymphoma and leukemia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Prenatal exposure to diethylstilbestrol can result in:
A) breast cancer.
B) leukemia.
C) vaginal cancer.
D) lymphoma.
Q4) What congenital malformation is commonly linked to acute leukemia in children?
A) Down syndrome
B) Wilms tumor
C) Retinoblastoma
D) Neuroblastoma
Q5) Cancer is the leading cause of death in children.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a synapse,what change occurs after the neurotransmitter binds to the receptor?
A) The permeability of the presynaptic neuron changes and consequently its membrane potential.
B) The permeability of the postsynaptic neuron changes and consequently its membrane potential.
C) The postsynaptic cell prevents any change in permeability and destroys the action potential.
D) The presynaptic cell synthesizes and secretes additional neurotransmitter.
Q2) Which nerves are capable for regeneration?
A) Nerves within the brain and spinal cord
B) Peripheral nerves that are cut or severed
C) Myelinated nerves in the peripheral nervous system
D) Unmyelinated nerves of the peripheral nervous system.
Q3) From which part of the midbrain do cranial nerves IX to XII emerge?
A) Midbrain
B) Pons
C) Medulla oblongata
D) Lateral colliculi
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Pain, Temperature Regulation, Sleep, and
Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the major relay station of sensory information?
A) Basal ganglia
B) Midbrain
C) Thalamus
D) Hypothalamus
Q2) Individuals who recover from heat exhaustion may have permanent damage to the thermoregulatory center.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Thought to be caused by development of hyperactivity of neurons in the spinal cord and thalamus as a result of the accumulation of sodium ion channels at sites of nerve injury and demyelination
A)Myofascial pain syndrome
B)Neuropathic pain
C)Deafferentation pain
D)Sympathetically maintained pain (SMP)
Q4) The gate theory of pain control states that a "closed gate" increases pain perception.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Concepts of Neurologic Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excess cerebrospinal fluid within the cranial vault,subarachnoid space,or both is called cerebral edema.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are the areas of the brain that mediate several cognitive functions,including vigilance,reasoning,and executive functions?
A) Limbic
B) Prefrontal
C) Parietal
D) Occipital
Q3) What pathologic alteration produces tremors at rest,rigidity,akinesia,and postural abnormalities?
A) Atrophy of neurons in the caudate that produce serotonin
B) Atrophy of neurons in the putamen that produce gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)
C) Atrophy of neurons in the substantia nigra that produce dopamine
D) Atrophy of neurons in the hypothalamus that produce acetylcholine
Q4) The reticular activating system provides arousal to the cerebral hemispheres.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Disorders of Neurologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lyme disease
A)Complication of mastoiditis
B)Opportunistic infection
C)CNS manifestation of tuberculosis
D)Mosquito-borne viral infection
E)Tick-borne bacterial infection
Q2) Most people with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis live symptom free for at least 10 years following diagnosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which are characteristics of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?
A) It is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder.
B) It results in demyelination of the central nervous system.
C) It results in upper and lower motor neuron degeneration.
D) It is an autoimmune disorder caused by a virus.
Q4) Where are most intracranial tumors located in adults?
A) Above the tentorium cerebelli
B) Below the tentorium cerebelli
C) Laterally
D) Posterolaterally
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Chapter 18: Neurobiology of Schizophrenia, Mood Disorders, and Anxiety Disorders
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Q1) Intensive autonomic arousal including lightheadedness,dyspnea,generalized sweating,and racing heart
A)Schizophrenia
B)Mania
C)Depression
D)Panic disorder
E)Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Q2) What is the link between major depression and cortisol secretion?
A) Individuals with depression show suppression of plasma cortisol when given dexamethasone.
B) Individuals with depression have a decreased plasma cortisol level despite administration of exogenous corticosteroids.
C) Individuals with depression continue to exhibit elevated plasma cortisol levels throughout the evening and early morning.
D) Individuals with depression have normal plasma cortisol levels throughout the day when they take antidepressant medication as prescribed.
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Chapter 19: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Children with juvenile myoclonic epilepsy commonly have normal neurologic examinations,normal intelligence,and positive family history of seizures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Spina bifida occulta occurs in 10% to 25% of infants.
A)True
B)False
Q3) True microcephaly can be caused by an _____ gene.
A) autosomal dominant
B) autosomal recessive
C) X-linked recessive
D) X-linked dominant
Q4) Originates from the pituitary or hypothalamus
A)Medulloblastoma
B)Ependymoma
C)Cerebella astrocytoma
D)Craniopharyngioma
E)Neuroblastoma
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Chapter 20: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes?
A) It increases serum calcium.
B) It decreases serum calcium.
C) It decreases serum magnesium.
D) It increases serum magnesium.
Q2) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)directly affects melanocyte stimulation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are the effects of high levels of aldosterone?
A) Hypokalemia and alkalosis
B) Hyperkalemia and alkalosis
C) Hyperkalemia and acidosis
D) Hypokalemia and acidosis
Q4) Deficiencies in calcitonin lead to hypocalcemia.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The pituitary gland is located in the bony sella turcica.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does a primary adenoma cause thyroid and adrenal hypofunction?
A) The tumor metastasizes to the thyroid and adrenal glands through the lymphatic system causing reduce secretion of necessary hormones.
B) The tumor has a paradoxical effect on adjacent cells,which results in hyposecretion of other anterior pituitary hormones.
C) The tumor invades the hypothalamus adjacent to it and causes a reduction in the amount of hormones produced.
D) The tumor releases tumor markers that occupy the hormone receptor sites of other endocrine organs.
Q2) What is a difference in clinical manifestations between diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperglycemic,hyperosmolar non-ketosis syndrome?
A) Fluid loss
B) Glycosuria
C) Increased serum glucose
D) Kussmaul respirations
Q3) Type 2 diabetes mellitus is much more common than type 1.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ are a pair of glands that lie posterior to the urinary bladder in the male.
A) Seminal vesicles
B) Prostate glands
C) Cowper's glands
D) Parabladder glands
Q2) Stimulates theca cells of the ovarian follicle to produce androgens
A)Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
B)Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
C)Luteinizing hormone (LH)
D)Estrogen
E)Progesterone
Q3) Induces the conversion of androgens to estrogens
A)Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
B)Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
C)Luteinizing hormone (LH)
D)Estrogen
E)Progesterone
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Chapter 23: Alterations of the Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is a fibrotic condition that causes lateral curvature of the penis during erection,which is associated with a local vasculitis-like inflammatory reaction and decreased tissue oxygenation.
A) Phimosis
B) Lateral phimosis
C) Lateral paraphimosis
D) Peyronie disease
Q2) Which factors increase the risk for ovarian cancer?
A) Use of fertility drugs
B) Oral contraceptive use
C) Multiple pregnancies
D) Prolonged lactation
Q3) Which breast disorder is characterized by bilateral nodularity and breast tenderness that waxes and wanes with the menstrual cycle?
A) Paget disease
B) Fibroadenoma
C) Fibrocystic changes
D) Lobular carcinoma in situ
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Chapter 24: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Q1) There have been no recent sexually transmitted disease epidemics.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All virally induced sexually transmitted infections are incurable.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which laboratory test is considered adequate for an accurate and reliable diagnosis of gonococcal urethritis in a symptomatic male?
A) Ligase chain reaction (LCR)
B) Gram stain technique
C) Polymerase chair reaction (PCR)
D) DNA testing
Q4) Treponema pallidum
A)Trichomoniasis
B)Bacterial vaginosis
C)Amebiasis
D)Syphilis
E)Chancroid
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Chapter 25: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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Q1) Platelets are not cells;they are disk-shaped cytoplasmic fragments.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the role of thromboxane A (TXA<sub>2</sub>)in the secretion stage of hemostasis?
A) Thromboxane A (TXA<sub>2</sub>)stimulates the synthesis of serotonin.
B) Thromboxane A (TXA<sub>2</sub>)promotes vasodilation.
C) Thromboxane A (TXA<sub>2</sub>)stimulates platelet aggregation.
D) Thromboxane A (TXA<sub>2</sub>)promotes formation of cyclooxygenase.
Q3) Hematopoiesis
A)Clotting
B)Red blood cell development
C)Red blood cell destruction
D)Platelet formation
E)Blood cell production
Q4) What is the life span of platelets?
A) 10 days
B) 30 days
C) 90 days
D) 120 days
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Chapter 26: Alterations of Erythrocyte Function
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Q1) When a woman has pernicious anemia,how long will she need to continue this therapy?
A) For 6 to 8 weeks
B) For 8 to 12 months
C) Until her iron level is normal
D) For the rest of her life
Q2) How is pernicious anemia treated?
A) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub> by oral intake
B) Cyanocobalamin by intramuscular injection
C) Ferrous fumarate by intramuscular injection,Z track
D) Folate by oral intake
Q3) After a patient has a subtotal gastrectomy,what type of anemia would result?
A) Iron deficiency
B) Pernicious
C) Folic acid
D) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
Q4) Sideroblastic anemia
A)Normocytic-normochromic anemia
B)Microcytic-hypochromic anemia
C)Macrocytic-normochromic anemia
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Chapter 27: Alterations in Hematologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant's hemoglobin must fall below ___ g/dl before signs of pallor,anoxia,tachycardia,and systolic murmurs occur.
A) 11
B) 9
C) 7
D) 5
Q2) Hemolytic disease of the newborn can occur if:
A) the mother is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative.
B) the mother is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive.
C) the mother has type A blood and the fetus has type O.
D)the mother has type AB blood and the fetus has type B.
Q3) Caused by clotting factor VIII deficiency and an autosomal dominant trait
A)Hemophilia A
B)Hemophilia B
C)Hemophilia C
D)von Willebrand disease
Q4) Hemoglobin in a fetus has less affinity for oxygen than hemoglobin in an adult.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where are the receptors for neurotransmitters located in the heart?
A) Semilunar and atrioventricular valves
B) Endocardium and sinoatrial node
C) Myocardium and coronary vessels
D) Epicardium and atrioventricular node
Q2) Autoregulation ensures constant coronary blood flow despite normal shifts in perfusion pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The coronary sinus empties into the:
A) right atrium.
B) left atrium.
C) superior vena cava.
D) aorta.
Q4) The Bainbridge reflex is thought to be initiated by sensory neurons in the:
A) atriA.
B) aorta.
C) atrioventricular node.
D) ventricles.
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Chapter 29: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aortic stenosis
A)Impairs flow from left atrium to left ventricle
B)Impairs flow from the left ventricle
C)Backflow into left atrium
D)Backflow into right atrium
E)Backflow into left ventricle
Q2) Mitral regurgitation
A)Impairs flow from left atrium to left ventricle
B)Impairs flow from the left ventricle
C)Backflow into left atrium
D)Backflow into right atrium
E)Backflow into left ventricle
Q3) When fluid collects gradually in a pericardial effusion,the pericardium stretches to accommodate large quantities of fluid without compressing the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Chorea or St.Vitus dance is the most definitive sign of rheumatic fever.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All hypertension in children is considered primary hypertension.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
A) At birth,both systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance fall.
B) At birth,there is a shift in gas exchange from the placenta to the lung.
C) At birth,systemic resistance falls and pulmonary resistance rises.
D) At birth,both systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance rise.
Q3) Truncus arteriosus
A)Causes atrial separation
B)Gap between the septum primum and the septum secundum
C)Conal portion of the ventricular septum
D)Communication between the aorta and the pulmonary artery
E)Allows right-to-left shunting
Q4) Which of the following is consistent with the cardiac defect of transposition of the great vessels?
A) The aorta arises from the right ventricle.
B) The pulmonary trunk arises from the right ventricle.
C) The right ventricle pumps blood to the lungs.
D) All of the above.
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Chapter 31: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does surfactant produced by type II pneumocytes facilitate alveolar distention and ventilation?
A) By decreasing thoracic compliance
B) By attracting water to the alveolar surface
C) By decreasing surface tension in alveoli
D) By increasing surface tension in alveoli
Q2) How is most carbon dioxide carried in the blood?
A) Attached to oxygen
B) In the form of bicarbonate
C) Combined with albumin
D) Dissolved in the plasma
Q3) Pressure in the pleural space is:
A) atmospheric.
B) below atmospheric.
C) above atmospheric.
D) variable.
Q4) Veins of the pulmonary circulation are similar to the veins of the systemic circulation,but contain no one-way valves.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pulmonary artery pressure of 23 mm Hg is normal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which pleural abnormality involves a site of pleural rupture that act as a one-way valve,permitting air to enter on inspiration,but preventing its escape by closing during expiration?
A) Spontaneous pneumothorax
B) Tension pneumothorax
C) Open pneumothorax
D) Secondary pneumothorax
Q3) Pulmonary hypertension results from which alteration?
A) Narrowed pulmonary capillaries
B) Narrowed bronchi and bronchioles
C) Destruction of alveoli
D) Ischemia of the myocardium
Q4) Which statement about silicosis and asbestosis is false?
A) Both are caused by inhalation of inorganic dust particles.
B) Both are types of pneumoconiosis.
C) Both cause lung cancer.
D) Both cause inflammation and cellular apoptosis of lung cells.
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which glucoprotein protects against urolithiasis and is a ligand for lymphokines?
A) Uromedulin
B) Nephrin
C) Urodilantin
D) Cystatin
Q2) What is an indication that the carrier molecule for glucose is saturated?
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Glucosuria
C) Polyuria
D) Proteinuria
Q3) Blood vessels of the kidneys are innervated by the:
A) vagus nerve.
B) sympathetic nervous system.
C) somatic nervous system.
D) parasympathetic nervous system.
Q4) The target tissue for angiotensin II is the blood vessels and adrenal medulla.
A)True
B)False
Page 35
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Chapter 34: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is false about the usual causes of hypercalciuria?
A) Hypercalciuria is usually attributable to hyperthyroidism.
B) Hypercalciuria is usually attributable to intestinal hyperabsorption of dietary calcium.
C) Hypercalciuria is usually attributable to bone demineralization caused by prolonged immobilization.
D) Hypercalciuria is usually attributable to hyperparathyroidism.
Q2) Which kidney disorder is characterized by hypoalbuminemia,edema,hyperlipidemia and lipiduria?
A) Nephrotic syndrome
B) Acute glomerulonephritis
C) Chronic glomerulonephritis
D) Pyelonephritis
Q3) From which cells does renal cell carcinoma arise?
A) Proximal tubule epithelial cells
B) Distal tubule epithelial cells
C) Nephron epithelial cells
D) Glomerulus epithelial cells
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Chapter 35: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does vesicoureteral reflux occur in children?
A) Because they do not ask for help in urinating in a timely manner and urine is forced up into the ureters
B) Because the submucosal segment of the ureter is short,making the antireflux mechanism inefficient
C) Because the trigone lying between the opening to the ureters and the urethra is underdeveloped
D) Because as the bladder in infants and children fill,it pulls the smooth lining of the transitional epithelium away from the ureters so that the reflux valves are ineffective
Q2) The most common cause of hydronephrosis in neonates
A)Hemolytic-uremic syndrome
B)Henoch-Schönlein nephritis
C)Renal dysplasia
D)Ureteropelvic junction obstruction
E)Polycystic kidney disease
Q3) The number of nephrons in the kidneys increases from birth until puberty.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which gastric hormone inhibits acid and pepsinogen secretion and release of gastrin?
A) Bombesin
B) Histamine
C) Somatostatin
D) Acetylcholine
Q2) Which statement is false about characteristics of vitamin B<sub>12</sub>?
A) Normally the liver can store vitamin B<sub>12</sub> for years.
B) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub> attaches to the carrier protein transcobalamin and is transported into tissue.
C) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub> is necessary for platelet maturation.
D) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub> binds to intrinsic factor and is absorbed in the terminal ileum.
Q3) Decreases pancreatic bicarbonate and enzyme secretions
A)Peptide YY
B)Secretin
C)Cholecystokinin
D)Enteroglucagon
E)Pancreatic polypeptide
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Chapter 37: Alterations of Digestive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alterations in immunoglobulin A production have been found in individuals with this disorder.
A)Ulcerative colitis
B)Crohn disease
Q2) Which statement is false about the sources of increased ammonia that contribute to hepatic encephalopathy?
A) End products of intestinal protein digestion
B) Digested blood leaking from ruptured varices
C) Accumulation of short chain fatty acids attaches to ammonia
D) Ammonia-forming bacteria in the colon
Q3) Normal bowel habits range from two or three evacuations per day to one per:
A) day.
B) 2 days.
C) week.
D) month.
Q4) Which statement is false about the pathophysiology of alcoholic cirrhosis?
A) Inflammation and damage leading to cirrhosis begin in the bile canaliculi.
B) Alcohol is transformed to acetaldehyde,which promotes liver fibrosis.
C) Mitochondrial function is impaired,decreasing oxidation of fatty acids.
D) Acetaldehyde inhibits export of proteins from the liver.
Page 39
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Chapter 38: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Failure to thrive is a disorder having both organic (e.g. ,gastrointestinal and endocrine disorders)and nonorganic (e.g. ,psychosocial)deprivation causes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In newborns,gastroesophageal reflux (GER)is normal because neuromuscular control of the gastroesophageal sphincter is not fully developed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Meconium ileus is often associated with:
A) muscular dystrophy.
B) cerebral palsy.
C) cystic fibrosis.
D) congenital aganglionic megacolon.
Q4) Prolonged diarrhea is more severe in children than in adults because:
A) less water is absorbed from the colon in children.
B) fluid reserves are smaller in children.
C) children have a higher fluid volume intake.
D) children have diarrhea more often than adults.
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Chapter 39: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which hormone influences the rate of protein synthesis of skeletal muscles?
A) Insulin
B) Cortisol
C) Parathyroid hormone
D) Growth hormone
Q2) Which statement is false about aging and the musculoskeletal system?
A) Haversian systems erode,canals nearest the marrow cavity become widened,and the endosteal cortex converts to spongy bone.
B) The remodeling cycle increases because of a decreased ability of the basic multicellular units to resorb and deposit bone.
C) Cartilaginous rigidity increases because of decreasing water content and increasing concentrations of glycosaminoglycans.
D) Muscle RNA synthesis declines,although the regenerative function of muscle tissue is reportedly normal in the elderly population.
Q3) Remodeling is a three-phase process in which existing bone is resorbed and new bone is laid down to replace it.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Considering the pathophysiology of osteoporosis,which cytokines and hormones decrease receptor activator of nuclear factor <sub>k</sub>ß ligand (RANKL)expression?
A) Interleukin 4 (IL-4)and transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-ß)
B) Interleukin 1 (IL-1)and tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-)
C) Interleukin 11 (IL-11)and glucocorticoids
D) Interleukin 17 (IL-17)and parathyroid hormone (PTH)
Q2) The pathophysiology of gout is closely linked to _____ metabolism.
A) purine
B) pyrimidine
C) vitamin E
D) amino acid
Q3) Considering the pathophysiology of osteoporosis,what is the action of the receptor RANK after being activated by receptor activator of nuclear factor <sub>k</sub>ß ligand (RANKL)?
A) RANK increases osteoclast apoptosis.
B) RANK activates and prolongs osteoblast survival.
C) RANK activates osteoprotegerin (OPG).
D) RANK activates and prolongs osteoclast survival.
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Chapter 41: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a very late sign or symptom of developmental dysplasia of the hip?
A) Asymmetry of the gluteal or thigh folds
B) Leg length discrepancy
C) Waddling gait
D) Pain
Q2) In scoliosis,curves in the thoracic spine greater than _____ degrees result in decreased pulmonary function.
A) 40
B) 50
C) 60
D) 70
Q3) Which disorder is characterized by failure of bones to ossify resulting in soft bones and skeletal deformity?
A) Osteogenesis imperfecta
B) Rickets
C) Osteochondrosis
D) Perthes disease
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Chapter 42: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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Sample Questions
Q1) The alteration of which gene is associated with basal cell carcinoma?
A) myc
B) Tp53
C) src
D) RAS
Q2) Older adults have impaired wound healing because of a decreased blood supply and depressed immune system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which skin disorder begins with a single lesion that is circular,demarcated,salmon-pink,approximately 3 to 4 cm in diameter and usually located on the trunk?
A) Lichen planus
B) Pityriasis rosea
C) Psoriasis
D) Acne rosacea
Q4) Erysipelas is an acute infection of the skin most often caused by group A streptococci.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 43: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Red papules,vesicles,and pustules in clusters on the trunk,scalp,or face
A)Rubella (German measles)
B)Rubeola (red measles)
C)Roseola (exanthema subitum)
D)Varicella (chicken pox)
E)Herpes zoster (shingles)
Q2) _____ is a contagious disease caused by the itch mite.
A) Miliaria
B) Tinea corporis
C) Pediculosis
D) Scabies
Q3) What is the most significant complication of streptococcal impetigo?
A) Acute glomerulonephritis
B) Valvular heart disease
C) Streptococcal pneumonia
D) Liver failure
Q4) Scalded-skin syndrome is the result of staphylococcal infection of burned skin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in
Adults
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Sample Questions
Q1) Secondary multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)results from excessive inflammatory reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Acute burn injury results in _____ shock.
A) hypovolemic
B) septic
C) cardiogenic
D) vasogenic
Q3) The cause of organ failure in shock is depletion of protein.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the action of vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone)administration in the treatment of shock?
A) Vasopressin counteracts the chemical mediators that cause vasodilation.
B) Vasopressin stimulates ß<sub>1</sub> adrenergic receptors to increase heart rate.
C) Vasopressin retains sodium to increase fluid volume.
D) Vasopressin constricts arterioles to increase systemic vascular resistance.
46
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Chapter 45: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in
Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) In children in shock,crystalloids and colloids are generally administered in boluses of ___ ml/kg.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
Q2) Children younger than _____ years of age lack the ability to concentrate urine.
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
Q3) Results from direct contact with high and low voltage current
A)Scald burns
B)Contact burns
C)Flame burns
D)Electrical burns
E)Chemical burns
Q4) Scar tissue is metabolically inactive and avascular.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 46: Alterations of Leukocyte, Lymphoid, and Hemostatic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Early detection of acute leukemia would include which of the following symptoms?
A) Dizziness,dehydration,palpitations,hypotension
B) Dyspnea,paresthesia,malaise
C) Bradycardia,abdominal pain,fever
D) Bruising,fatigue,bone pain,anorexia
Q2) Infectious mononucleosis
A)Epstein-Barr virus
B)Bence Jones protein
C)Diagnosed by the Reed-Sternberg cell
D)Diagnosed by the Philadelphia chromosome
Q3) How are local signs and symptoms of Hodgkin disease caused?
A) Ischemia and pressure
B) Pressure and obstruction
C) Inflammation and ischemia
D) Obstruction and inflammation
Q4) _____ is the virus associated with Burkitt lymphoma in African children.
A) Cytomegalovirus
B) Adenovirus
C) Human papillomavirus
D) Epstein-Barr virus
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Chapter 47: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Asthma is one of the leading chronic illnesses in children and has become more prevalent in the past two decades.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Surfactant production is being produced by the fourth week of gestation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)decreases for premature infants when they are born after _____ weeks of gestation.
A) 16
B) 20
C) 24
D) 30
Q4) Chest wall compliance in infants is __________ in adults.
A) lower than
B) higher than C) the same as
D) variable,unlike
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