Women's Health Nursing Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Women's Health Nursing explores the unique health care needs of women across the lifespan, focusing on preventative care, common gynecological conditions, reproductive health, pregnancy, childbirth, and menopause. The course emphasizes holistic and culturally sensitive nursing interventions, health promotion, and patient education, integrating current research and evidence-based practices. Students will develop skills in assessment, planning, and management of womens health issues in diverse clinical settings, fostering advocacy and empowerment for women in their health care journeys.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 7th Edition Murray
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27 Chapters
812 Verified Questions
812 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/168
Page 2
Chapter 1: Maternity and Womens Health Care Today
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2149
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true regarding the shortage of nurses in the United States?
A) There are a larger proportion of younger nurses in the workforce as compared with older nurses.
B) As a result of decreased RN-to-patient ratios, there is a decrease in patient mortality in the clinical setting.
C) Nursing programs are turning away qualified applicants.
D) There are adequate classroom and clinical facilities for training RNs.
Answer: C
Q2) Expectant parents ask a prenatal nurse educator, "Which setting for childbirth limits the amount of parent-infant interaction?" Which answer should the nurse provide for these parents in order to assist them in choosing an appropriate birth setting?
A)Birth center
B)Home birth
C)Traditional hospital birth
D)Labor, birth, and recovery room
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Social, Ethical, and Legal Issues
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2150
Sample Questions
Q1) Which issue is a major concern among members of lower socioeconomic groups?
A) Practicing preventive health care
B) Meeting health needs as they occur
C) Maintaining an optimistic view of life
D) Maintaining group health insurance for their families
Answer: B
Q2) A patient arrives to the clinic 2 hours late for her prenatal appointment. This is the third time she has been late. What is the nurse's best action in response to this patient's tardiness?
A) Ask the patient if she has a way to tell the time.
B) Ask the patient if she is deliberately being late for her appointments.
C) Determine if the patient wants this baby and if this is her way of acting out.
D) Determine if the patient arrives after the start time for other types of appointments. Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2151
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing normal female development with a mother of a 10-year-old daughter. The mother states, "I noticed that my daughter developed breast buds about a year ago. When do you think she will start her menstrual cycle?" What is the nurse's best response?
A) "In about a year."
B) "Likely any time now."
C) "Does your daughter know what to expect?"
D) "It is impossible to predict when she will start her cycle."
Answer: A
Q2) Which characteristic best describes the levator ani?
A) Division of the fallopian tube
B) Collection of three pairs of muscles
C) Imaginary line that divides the true pelvis and false pelvis
D) Basin-shaped structure at the lower end of the spine
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2152
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient presents with curly hair and blue eyes. These findings are consistent with A) phenotype.
B) genotype.
C) dominant alleles.
D) recessive traits.
Q2) Which question posed by the nurse will most likely promote the sharing of sensitive information during a genetic counseling interview?
A) "What kind of defects or diseases seem to run in the family?"
B) "How many people in your family are mentally retarded or handicapped?"
C) "Did you know that you can always have an abortion if the fetus is abnormal?"
D) "Are there any members of your family who have learning or developmental problems?"
Q3) Two healthy parents who carry the same abnormal autosomal recessive gene have what percentage chance of having a child affected with the disorder caused by this gene? Record your answer as a whole number. _____%
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6
Chapter 5: Conception and Prenatal Development
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a newborn immediately after birth. After assigning the first Apgar score of 9, the nurse notes two vessels in the umbilical cord. What is the nurse's next action?
A) Assess for other abnormalities of the infant.
B) Note the assessment finding in the infant's chart.
C) Notify the health care provider of the assessment finding.
D) Call for the neonatal resuscitation team to attend the infant immediately.
Q2) Which physical characteristics decrease as the fetus nears term? (Select all that apply.)
A) Vernix caseosa
B) Lanugo
C) Port wine stain
D) Brown fat
E) Eyebrows or head hair
Q3) The upper uterus is the best place for the fertilized ovum to implant due to which anatomical adaptation?
A) Maternal blood flow is lower.
B) Placenta attaches most firmly.
C) Uterine endometrium is softer.
D) Developing baby is best nourished.
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Chapter 6: Maternal Adaptations to Pregnancy
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2154
Sample Questions
Q1) During vital sign assessment of a pregnant patient in her third trimester, the patient complains of feeling faint, dizzy, and agitated. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A) Have the patient stand up and retake her blood pressure.
B) Have the patient sit down and hold her arm in a dependent position.
C) Have the patient turn to her left side and recheck her blood pressure in 5 minutes.
D) Have the patient lie supine for 5 minutes and recheck her blood pressure on both arms.
Q2) Which physiologic findings related to gallbladder function may lead to the development of gallstones during pregnancy?
A) Decrease in alkaline phosphatase levels compared with nonpregnant women
B) Increase in albumin and total protein as a result of hemodilution
C) Hypertonicity of gallbladder tissue
D) Prolonged emptying time
Q3) The capacity of the uterus in a term pregnancy is how many times its prepregnant capacity? Record your answer as a whole number. ______ times
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Chapter 7: Antepartum Assessment, Care, and Education
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2155
Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the method of childbirth that helps prevent the fear-tension-pain cycle by using slow abdominal breathing in early labor and rapid chest breathing in advanced labor?
A) Bradley
B) Lamaze
C) Leboyer
D) Dick-Read
Q2) A gravida 1 patient at 32 weeks of gestation reports that she has severe lower back pain. What should the nurse's assessment include?
A) Palpation of the lumbar spine
B) Exercise pattern and duration
C) Observation of posture and body mechanics
D) Ability to sleep for at least 6 hours uninterrupted
Q3) Use Nägele's rule to determine the EDD (estimated day of birth) for a patient whose last menstrual period started on April 12.
A) February 19
B) January 19
C) January 21
D) February 7
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Nutrition for Childbearing
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2156
Sample Questions
Q1) For the pregnant patient who is a vegan, what combination of foods will the nurse advise to meet the nutritional needs for all essential amino acids?
A) Eggs and beans
B) Fruits and vegetables
C) Grains and legumes
D) Vitamin and mineral supplements
Q2) Which guidance related to a healthy diet during pregnancy will the nurse provide to a patient in her 1st trimester?
A) "Every day you need to have at least 6 ounces of protein from sources such as meat, fish, eggs, beans, nuts, soybean products, and tofu."
B) "High-dose vitamin A supplements will promote optimal vision while preventing a common cause of blindness in neonates."
C) "Meals such as sushi with a cold deli salad made with raw sprouts combine high-fiber foods with protein sources to meet multiple nutritional needs."
D) "Vitamin and mineral supplements can meet your nutrient needs if you have inadequate intake because of nausea or a sensation of fullness."
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Chapter 9: Assessing the Fetus
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2157
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient at 36 weeks gestation is undergoing a nonstress (NST) test. The nurse observes the fetal heart rate baseline at 135 beats per minute (bpm) and four nonepisodic patterns of the fetal heart rate reaching 160 bpm for periods of 20 to 25 seconds each. How will the nurse record these findings?
A) NST positive, nonreassuring
B) NST negative, reassuring
C) NST reactive, reassuring
D) NST nonreactive, nonreassuring
Q2) A pregnant patient's biophysical profile score is 8. The patient asks the nurse to explain the results. What is the nurse's most appropriate response?
A) "The test results are within normal limits."
B) "Immediate birth by cesarean birth is being considered."
C) "Further testing will be performed to determine the meaning of this score."
D) "An obstetric specialist will evaluate the results of this profile and, within the next week, will inform you of your options regarding birth."
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11
Chapter 10: Complications of Pregnancy
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rh incompatibility can occur if the patient is Rh-negative and the A) fetus is Rh-negative.
B) fetus is Rh-positive.
C) father is Rh-positive.
D) father and fetus are both Rh-negative.
Q2) In which situation would a dilation and curettage (D&C) be indicated?
A) Complete abortion at 8 weeks
B) Incomplete abortion at 16 weeks
C) Threatened abortion at 6 weeks
D) Incomplete abortion at 10 weeks
Q3) The nurse is monitoring a patient with severe preeclampsia who is on IV magnesium sulfate. Which signs of magnesium toxicity should the nurse monitor for? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cool, clammy skin
B) Altered sensorium
C) Pulse oximeter reading of 95%
D) Respiratory rate of less than 12 breaths per minute
E) Absence of deep tendon reflexes
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Chapter 11: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2159
Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant patient who abuses cocaine admits to exchanging sex for her drug habit. This behavior puts her at a greater risk for
A) postmature birth.
B) sexually transmitted diseases.
C) hypotension and vasodilation.
D) depression of the central nervous system.
Q2) Which environment can assist a pregnant teen to achieve the task of establishing a stable identity?
A) Home schooling
B) Alternative education program
C) School-based mothers' program
D) Continuing mainstream high school classes
Q3) Which congenital defects in a newborn are associated with long-term parenting problems? (Select all that apply.)
A) Polydactyl
B) Cleft lip and palate
C) Ventral septal defect
D) Ambiguous genitalia
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13
Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2160
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is directing an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to obtain maternal vital signs between contractions. Which statement is the appropriate rationale for assessing maternal vital signs between contractions rather than at another interval?
A) Vital signs taken during contractions are inaccurate.
B) During a contraction, assessing fetal heart rate is the priority.
C) Maternal blood flow to the heart is reduced during contractions.
D) Maternal circulating blood volume increases temporarily during contractions.
Q2) An increase in urinary frequency and leg cramps after the 36th week of pregnancy are an indication of A) lightening.
B) breech presentation.
C) urinary tract infection.
D) onset of Braxton-Hicks contractions.
Q3) A patient in labor presents with a breech presentation. The nurse understands that a breech presentation is associated with A) more rapid labor.
B) a high risk of infection.
C) maternal perineal trauma.
D) umbilical cord compression.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Pain Management During Childbirth
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2161
Sample Questions
Q1) The method of anesthesia in labor that is considered the safest for the fetus is
A) epidural block.
B) pudendal block.
C) local infiltration.
D) spinal (subarachnoid) block.
Q2) A woman with a known heroin habit is admitted in early labor. Which drug is contraindicated with opiate-dependent patients?
A) Nalbuphine (Nubain)
B) Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
C) Promethazine (Phenergan)
D) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
Q3) Which patient will be most receptive to teaching about nonpharmacologic pain control methods?
A) Gravida 1, para 0, in transition
B) Gravida 2, para 1, admitted at 8 cm
C) Gravida 1, para 0, dilated 2 cm, 80% effaced
D) Gravida 3, para 2, complaining of intense perineal pressure
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Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2162
Sample Questions
Q1) In which situation would a baseline fetal heart rate of 160 to 170 bpm be considered a normal finding?
A) The fetus is at 30 weeks of gestation.
B) The mother has a history of fast labors.
C) The mother has been given an epidural block.
D) The mother has mild preeclampsia but is not in labor.
Q2) If the position of a fetus in a cephalic presentation is right occiput anterior, the nurse should assess the fetal heart rate in which quadrant of the maternal abdomen?
A) Right upper
B) Left upper
C) Right lower
D) Left lower
Q3) Which nursing action is correct when initiating electronic fetal monitoring?
A) Lubricate the tocotransducer with an ultrasound gel.
B) Securely apply the tocotransducer with a strap or belt.
C) Inform the patient that she should remain in the semi-Fowler position.
D) Determine the position of the fetus before attaching the electrode to the maternal abdomen.
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Chapter 15: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2163
Sample Questions
Q1) At 1 minute after birth, the nurse assesses the newborn to assign an Apgar score. The apical heart rate is 110 bpm, and the infant is crying vigorously with the limbs flexed. The infant's trunk is pink and the hands and feet are blue. The Apgar score for this infant is A) 7.
B) 8.
C) 9.
D) 10.
Q2) On vaginal exam, the patient's cervix is anterior, soft, 70% effaced, dilated 2 cm, and the presenting part is at 0 station. The Bishop's score for this patient is A) 6.
B) 9.
C) 10.
D) 12.
Q3) The nurse thoroughly dries the infant immediately after birth primarily to A) reduce heat loss from evaporation. B) stimulate crying and lung expansion. C) increase blood supply to the hands and feet. D) remove maternal blood from the skin surface.
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17
Chapter 16: Intrapartum Complications
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2164
Sample Questions
Q1) An obstetric patient has been identified as being high risk. The patient has had activities restricted (placed on bed rest) until the end of the pregnancy. Currently, she is at 32 weeks' gestation and has two other children at home, ages 3 and 6. The patient's husband works at home. A nursing diagnosis of Impaired Home Maintenance is noted. Which statement potentially identifies a long-term goal?
A) The patient and husband will be able to adapt their schedules accordingly to meet activities of daily living until the patient's next scheduled antepartum visit the following week.
B) The patient and husband will hire a nanny to act as an additional caregiver for the next month.
C) The patient will continue to take care of her children at home, taking frequent rest periods.
D) The patient and husband will make arrangements for child care routine activity assistance for the rest of the pregnancy.
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Chapter 17: Postpartum Adaptations and Nursing Care
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2165
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing care to a patient 2 hours after a cesarean birth. In the hand-off report, the preceding nurse indicated that the patient's lochia was scant rubra. On initial assessment, the oncoming nurse notes the patient's peripad is saturated with lochia rubra immediately after breastfeeding her infant. What is the nurse's priority action with this finding?
A) Weigh the peripad.
B) Replace the peripad.
C) Contact the health care provider.
D) Document the finding in the patient's chart.
Q2) Which maternal event is abnormal in the early postpartal period?
A) Diuresis and diaphoresis
B) Flatulence and constipation
C) Extreme hunger and thirst
D) Lochial color changes from rubra to alba
Q3) When assessing the A of the acronym REEDA, the nurse should evaluate the A) skin color.
B) degree of edema.
C) edges of the episiotomy.
D) episiotomy for discharge.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2166
Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient data received during report should the nurse recognize as being at risk for postpartum complications?
A) Gravida 5, para 5
B) Labor duration of 4 hours
C) Infant weight greater than 3800 g
D) Epidural anesthesia for labor and birth
Q2) If a late postpartum hemorrhage is documented on a patient who delivered 3 days ago, the nurse recognizes that this hemorrhage occurred
A) on the first postpartum day.
B) during recovery phase of labor.
C) during the third stage of labor.
D) on the second postpartum day.
Q3) Which measure may prevent mastitis in a breastfeeding patient?
A) Wearing a tight-fitting bra.
B) Applying ice packs prior to feeding.
C) Initiating early and frequent feedings.
D) Nursing the infant for 5 minutes on each breast.
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20
Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2167
Sample Questions
Q1) Which action by the nurse can result in hyperthermia in the newborn?
A) Placing a cap on the newborn
B) Wrapping the newborn in a warm blanket
C) Placing the newborn in a skin to skin position with the mother
D) Placing the newborn in the radiant warmer without attaching the skin probe
Q2) A nursing student is helping the mother-baby nurse with morning vital signs. A baby born 10 hours ago via cesarean birth is found to have moist lung sounds. Which is the best interpretation of this information?
A) This is an emergency situation.
B) The neonate must have aspirated surfactant.
C) If this baby was born vaginally, it could indicate a pneumothorax.
D) The lungs of a baby delivered by cesarean birth may sound moist for 24 hours after birth.
Q3) During the first few minutes after birth, which physiologic change occurs in the newborn as a response to vascular pressure changes in increased oxygen levels?
A) Increased pulmonary vascular resistance
B) Decreased systemic resistance
C) Decreased pressure in the left heart
D) Dilation of pulmonary vessels
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2168
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement best explains why a newborn with a congenital defect of the penis should not be circumcised?
A) There is increased risk of infection.
B) The foreskin might be needed for future repairs.
C) A circumcision will make the defect more visible.
D) There is no medical rationale for a circumcision.
Q2) Which newborn reflex is elicited by stroking the lateral sole of the infant's foot from the heel to the ball of the foot?
A) Babinski
B) Stepping
C) Tonic neck
D) Plantar grasp
Q3) A newborn that is a large-for-gestational-age (LGA) infant is in which percentile(s) for weight?
A) Below the 90th
B) Less than the 10th
C) Greater than the 90th
D) Between the 10th and 90th
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Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing student has been caring for a patient and newborn all morning. After taking the newborn to the nursery for hearing screening, the student is returning the infant to his mother. Which procedure is correct for identifying the newborn?
A) Ask the mother to state her name and the name of her infant.
B) Call out the mother's full name before leaving the infant with her.
C) Have the mother read her printed band number and verify that it matches the infant's number.
D) Return the infant with no special procedure because the student knows the mother and infant.
Q2) Which of the following guidelines should the nurse implement to prevent the abduction of a newborn from the hospital?
A) Restricting the amount of time infants are out of the nursery
B) Questioning anyone who is seen walking in the hallways carrying an infant
C) Allowing no visitors in the maternity area except those who have identification bracelets
D) Instructing the parents not to give the baby to anyone except the nurse assigned that day
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Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2170
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most serious consequence of propping an infant's bottle?
A) Colic
B) Aspiration
C) Dental caries
D) Ear infections
Q2) A breastfeeding patient who was discharged yesterday calls to ask about a tender hard area on her right breast. What should the nurse's first response be?
A) "This is a normal response in breastfeeding mothers."
B) "Notify your doctor so he can start you on antibiotics."
C) "Stop breastfeeding because you probably have an infection."
D) "Try massaging the area and apply heat; it is probably a plugged duct."
Q3) For which infant should the nurse anticipate the use of soy formula? (Select all that apply.)
A) Preterm infant
B) Infant with galactosemia
C) Infant with phenylketonuria
D) Infant with lactase deficiency
E) Infant with a malabsorption disorder
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Chapter 23: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational
Age and Development
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because late preterm infants are more stable than early preterm infants, they may receive care that is much like that of a full-term baby. The mother-baby or nursery nurse knows that these infants are at increased risk for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Sepsis
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Hyperbilirubinemia
D) Cardiac distress
E) Problems with thermoregulation
Q2) Decreased surfactant production in the preterm lung is a problem because
A) surfactant keeps the alveoli open during expiration.
B) surfactant causes increased permeability of the alveoli.
C) surfactant dilates the bronchioles, decreasing airway resistance.
D) surfactant provides transportation for oxygen to enter the blood supply.
Q3) Which nursing diagnosis would be considered a priority for a newborn infant who is receiving phototherapy in an isolette?
A) Hypothermia because of phototherapy treatment
B) Impaired skin integrity related to diarrhea as a result of phototherapy
C) Fluid volume deficit related to phototherapy treatment
Page 25
D) Knowledge deficit (parents) related to initiation of medical therapy
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Chapter 24: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which diagnostic test is used to help confirmation of hyperbilirubinemia in an infant?
A) Direct Coombs test based on maternal blood sample
B) Indirect Coombs test based on infant cord blood sample
C) Infant bilirubin level
D) Maternal blood type
Q2) In an infant with cyanotic cardiac anomaly, the nurse should expect to see A) feedings taken eagerly.
B) a consistent and rapid weight gain.
C) a decrease in the heart rate with activity.
D) little to no improvement in color with oxygen administration.
Q3) The nurse notes that the infant has been feeding poorly over the last 24 hours. The nurse should immediately assess for other signs of A) hyperglycemia.
B) neonatal infection.
C) hemolytic anemia.
D) increased bilirubin levels.
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Chapter 25: Family Planning
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which symptom in a patient using oral contraceptives should be reported to the physician immediately?
A) 5-lb weight gain
B) Leg pain and edema
C) Decrease in menstrual flow
D) Increased pigmentation of the face
Q2) A patient is 27 years old and delivered her first baby yesterday. She and her husband do not want to have another baby for at least 3 to 4 years. The most appropriate method of birth control to meet their needs is
A) withdrawal.
B) fertility awareness method.
C) combination of condoms and foam.
D) vasectomy with a reversal in 3 years.
Q3) Which of the following is a potential disadvantage for the patient who wishes to use an intrauterine device (IUD) as a method of birth control?
A) Insertion of the device prior to coitus resulting in decreased spontaneity
B) Ectopic pregnancy
C) Protection against STDs
D) Decrease in dysmenorrhea
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Infertility
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chromosome analysis is a diagnostic test that should be offered to which couple?
A) Never conceived
B) Has long-standing infertility
C) Has had repeated pregnancy losses
D) Has a normal child but has not conceived again
Q2) A woman undergoing evaluation of infertility states, "At least when we're through with all of these tests, we will know what is wrong." The nurse's best response is
A) "I know the test will identify what is wrong."
B) "I'm sure that once you finish these tests, your problem will be resolved."
C) "Even with diagnostic testing, infertility remains unexplained in about 20% of couples."
D) "Once you've identified your problem, you may want to look at the option of adoption."
Q3) Which situation best describes secondary infertility in a couple?
A) Never conceived.
B) Had repeated spontaneous abortions.
C) Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.
D) Has one child but cannot conceive a second time.
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Chapter 27: Womens Health
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2175
Sample Questions
Q1) Which information should the nurse stress in teaching a patient how best to relieve the symptoms of premenstrual syndrome (PMS)?
A) Decrease her consumption of caffeine.
B) Drink a small glass of wine with her evening meal.
C) Decrease her fluid intake to prevent fluid retention.
D) Eat three large meals a day to maintain glucose levels.
Q2) The physician diagnoses a 3-cm cyst in the ovary of a 28-year-old patient. You expect the initial treatment to include
A) initiating hormone therapy.
B) scheduling a laparoscopy to remove the cyst.
C) examining the patient after her next menstrual period.
D) aspirating the cyst and sending the fluid to pathology.
Q3) You are taking care of a patient who has had a colporrhaphy. Which option would indicate a priority assessment during the postoperative period?
A) Documentation of a pessary in the operative procedure notes by the physician
B) Removal of vaginal packing as ordered by the physician
C) Use of a cell saver for transfusion therapy in the postoperative period
D) Order for removal of staples 2 to 3 days post-procedure
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