Virology Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Virology is the scientific study of viruses and similar infectious agents, focusing on their structure, function, replication mechanisms, and interactions with host organisms. This course covers the classification and genetics of viruses, viral pathogenesis, host immune responses, methodologies for virus detection, and current applications in medicine and biotechnology. Students will explore the molecular basis of viral infections, the impact of viruses on human health, and strategies for prevention, control, and treatment of viral diseases, including emerging and re-emerging viral threats.
Recommended Textbook
Brock Biology of Microorganisms 14th Edition by Michael T. Madigan
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Microorganisms and Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Applied microbiology deals with important practical problems in A)medicine.
B)agriculture.
C)industry.
D)medicine,agriculture,and industry.
Answer: D
Q2) Microbes playing a role in nitrogen fixation in plants live in ________,while those playing a role in the digestive tract of certain herbivores live in ________.
A)rumens / nodules
B)nodules / rumens
C)nodules / fortrans
D)fortrans / rumens
Answer: B
Q3) Major classes of macromolecules present in all living microorganisms include A)amino acids,carbohydrates,lipids,and nucleic acids.
B)cell wall,cytoplasmic membrane,nucleoid,and ribosomes.
C)genes,proteins,and vitamins.
D)inorganic and organic compounds.
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Microbial Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is energy required for nutrient transport? Give an example of a system that transports nutrients and describe what source of energy is used to move the nutrients into the cell.
Answer: Energy is required for nutrient transport because nutrient concentration outside of the cell is lower than the nutrient concentrations inside the cell,thus nutrient transport moves solutes against a concentration gradient and requires energy.There are three examples in the text.The student could describe any one of them.They are (i)Simple transporter such as lac permease.Each nutrient molecule is cotransported into the cell with a H+ ion,thus the proton motive force provides the energy to transport nutrients.(ii)Group translocation such as sugar phosphotransferases.Each nutrient molecule is modified during the transport process.The modification,in this case,phosphorylation,releases energy,thus the energy source is an energy-rich compound such as phosphoenol pyruvate or some other phosphorylated compound.(iii)ABC transporters.In this example specific binding proteins bind to nutrient molecules with high affinity.Movement of the nutrient into the cell is coupled to ATP hydrolysis,thus ATP is the source of energy for transporting nutrients.
Q2) Explain the differences between uniporters,symporters,and antiporters.
Answer: Answers should highlight differences in transport direction and energy input.
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) If G ' is negative,the reaction is
A)exergonic and requires the input of energy.
B)endergonic and requires the input of energy.
C)exergonic and energy will be released.
D)endergonic and energy will be released.
Answer: C
Q2) In substrate-level phosphorylation,ATP storage is depleted during the steps in catabolism of the fermentable compounds.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which feature of anaerobic and aerobic respiration is different between the two catabolic strategies?
A)electron donor
B)electron acceptor
C)use of electron transport
D)use of proton motive force
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The flow of biological information begins with A)DNA replication.
B)RNA transcription.
C)mRNA translation.
D)transcriptional regulation.
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning mRNA?
A)mRNA has a very short half-life.
B)mRNA has complex secondary structure.
C)mRNA is catalytic.
D)mRNA is the product of translation.
Q3) Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase catalyzes the reaction between the appropriate amino acid and ATP to form an activated amino acid: amino acid + ATP aminoacyl-AMP + P-P. A)True B)False
Q4) Explain the process of RNA transcription using the terms upstream,Pribnow box,and consensus sequence.
Q5) RNA is incapable of forming secondary structure. A)True B)False
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Chapter 5: Microbial Growth and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) For most purposes of studying bacterial isolates,viable counting usually gives accurate information about the number of active cells present in a culture volume.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Organisms able to live in environments with high sugar concentrations are A)halotolerant.
B)osmophiles.
C)xerophiles.
D)anaerobic fermenting bacteria.
Q3) Propose a growth setup that an industrial microbiologist would create to obtain large quantities of a bacteriocidal product of secondary metabolism.Be certain to explain how temperature and dissolved oxygen parameters would be selected as well as how stationary growth phase would be maintained.
Q4) The rates of exponential growth (in the exponential phase)vary greatly according to the bacterial species as well as the bioavailable nutrients.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Would you expect a xerophilic organism to be halotolerant? Why or why not?
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Chapter 6: Microbial Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Horizontal gene transfer has been thoroughly documented for genes involved in A)DNA replication and repair.
B)virulence and metabolic functions.
C)only very few processes.
D)translation.
Q2) The relative percentage of genes devoted to protein synthesis in small-genome organisms is high compared with that of large-genome organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The pan genome of a species is the genomic content that is
A)common to all strains of the same species.
B)present in one or more strains of the same species.
C)shared with all other prokaryotes.
D)hypothetical or uncharacterized genome content of a species.
Q4) The core genome of a prokaryotic species is the genomic content that is A)unique compared to all other prokaryotes.
B)expressed under all environmental conditions.
C)shared between all other prokaryotes.
D)shared between all strains of a species.
Q5) How does the FoodExpert-ID identify macroorganisms and why is this significant?
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Chapter 7: Metabolic Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why cellular cannibalism is beneficial for sporulating Bacillus subtilis.
Q2) How is transcription in Archaea controlled?
Q3) The most frequent way in which regulatory RNA molecules exert their effects is by A)base pairing with other RNA molecules that have regions of complementary sequence.
B)binding to a repressor and repressing enzyme transcription.
C)acting as an inducer that then binds to an activator protein to allow transcription to proceed.
D)signal transduction.
Q4) Depending on the type of regulatory mechanism,activators and repressors can bind to operator regions which control transcription.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following do NOT bind to the promoter sequence during regulation?
A)activators
B)inducers
C)repressors
D)activators,inducers,and repressors
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Chapter 8: Viruses and Virology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although T4 encodes over 250 proteins,it does not encode its own RNA polymerase.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Viral replication occurs
A)intracellularly.
B)extracellularly.
C)both intracellularly and extracellularly.
D)either intracellularly or extracellularly,depending on the virus involved.
Q3) Viral replication is
A)independent of the host cell's DNA but dependent on the host cell's enzymes and metabolism.
B)independent of both the host cell's DNA and the host cell's enzymes and metabolism.
C)dependent on the host cell's DNA and RNA.
D)dependent on the host cell's DNA,RNA,enzymes,and metabolism.
Q4) A virus that kills its host is said to be
A)lytic or virulent.
B)temperate.
C)lysogenic.
D)virulent or lysogenic,but not temperate.
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Chapter 9: Viral Genomes and Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A drug designed to inhibit reverse transcriptase activity would target
A)coronaviruses and rhabdoviruses.
B)hepadnaviruses and retroviruses.
C)retroviruses.
D)viruses with RNA genomes.
Q2) Blocking polyomavirus SV40's ability to integrate its genome into host cells would
A)avoid cancer development from the virus.
B)increase the rate of transformation.
C)increase the latent period of SV40.
D)switch SV40 into a lytic lifecycle which would be especially harmful to the host cells.
Q3) Herpesviruses can cause all of the following diseases in humans EXCEPT A)cancer.
B)chicken pox.
C)cold sores.
D)spongiform encephalopathy.
Q4) Most archaeal viruses identified appear to have DNA genomes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Genetics of Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) A typical mutation rate for a bacterium is in the range of 10 to 10 per kbp.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Horizontal gene transfer in Archaea
A)is infrequent in nature and therefore difficult to use for genetic studies in the laboratory.
B)has not been documented,thus all genetic studies of archaea are done via genomic sequencing.
C)frequently occurs in nature and has been used to perform genetic studies in the laboratory as well.
D)frequently occurs in nature,but there are very few laboratory studies because archaea do not cause human disease.
Q3) The minimal amount of genetic information required for specialized transduction would include
A)the att region.
B)the cos site.
C)a helper phage.
D)the att region,cos site,and a helper phage.
Q4) Compare and contrast generalized transduction with specialized transduction.
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Chapter 11: Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare and contrast operon and protein fusions.
Q2) If a protein to be overexpressed is toxic to the expression host,it is best to select an expression vector that
A)is compatible with a binary vector able to be regulated.
B)is inducible.
C)has a relatively low copy number per cell.
D)prevents folding of the overexpressed protein into its toxic form.
Q3) Which construct would be MOST useful in studying translational control?
A)gene fusion
B)operon fusion
C)protein fusion
D)shuttle vector
Q4) Detecting a specific protein with an antibody is considered a(n)________ method.
A)selection
B)screening
C)isolation
D)duplication
Q5) Compare how the process of cloning differs when a vector with sticky ends is used and when a vector with blunt ends is used.
Q6) Explain how a DNA library is created and how a particular vector is selected.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Microbial Evolution and Systematics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rhodobacter cells perform photosynthesis in the presence of light and grow heterotrophically in the dark.After being cultured in total darkness for multiple generations phenotypic and genotypic changes occur.What phenotypic changes occur and what evolutionary processes are driving them?
Q2) All unicellular organisms belong to the same domain of life.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If you allowed 10 identical parallel Salmonella cultures to evolve for 10,000 generations under new growth conditions with very little nitrogen,the parallel cultures would
A)evolve identical adaptations to use the nitrogen source provided in the media.
B)not change or adapt very much over this small number of generations.
C)each accumulate different random mutations resulting in different adaptations to use the nitrogen in the media.
D)direct mutations to occur in nitrogen utilization and uptake genes in order to adapt rapidly to the culture conditions.
Q4) How does the Black Queen Hypothesis explain the effect of gene deletions on bacterial evolution?
Q5) How did cyanobacteria,oxygen,and ozone impact the evolution of eukaryotic cells?
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Chapter 13: Metabolic Diversity of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Propose why it would be advantageous for a photosynthetic microorganism to have more than one type of chlorophyll or bacteriochlorophyll.
Q2) Light energy passes from phycobiliproteins to reaction centers in A)cyanobacteria.
B)green sulfur bacteria.
C)purple bacteria.
D)most photosynthetic bacteria.
Q3) In contrast to chlorophylls,carotenoids function
A)as accessory pigments that enable absorption of energy from higher wavelengths.
B)primarily as photoprotection (but they also transfer some absorbed energy into reaction centers).
C)to convert reactive oxygen species into usable energy.
D)to quench toxic oxygen species.
Q4) When elemental sulfur is provided externally as an electron donor,the organism must attach itself to the sulfur particle because of the extreme insolubility of elemental sulfur.
A)True
B)False
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Functional Diversity of Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the ecological importance of the enzyme nitrogenase,the diversity and physiology of the various groups of organisms that contain it,and the strategies these organisms use to optimize conditions for the enzyme.
Q2) Which of the following functional groups form symbiotic relationships with Eukaryotes in deep sea environments?
A)dissimilatory iron-oxidizers
B)methanotrophs
C)sulfide-oxidizers
D)methanotrophs and sulfide-oxidizers
Q3) Myxobacteria display ________ behavior and form ________ that produce myxospores.
A)gliding / slime trails
B)chemotactic / colonies
C)phototactic / slime trails
D)swarming / fruiting bodies
Q4) Denitrifying bacteria are often facultative anaerobes,capable of performing other forms of respiration or fermentation as well as nitrate reduction.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Diversity of Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some species in the genus Acidobacteria are classified in Bacteria while others are considered Archaea.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is LEAST commonly associated with endospore-forming bacteria?
A)coccus-shaped
B)defense
C)dormancy
D)saprophytic
Q3) Pseudomonads are aerobic,gram-positive,polar flagellated,bacillus-shaped cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Group members of ________ are particularly abundant in the oceans,chemoorganotrophic,and often produce pigments when grown on complex media.
A)Alteromonas
B)Flavobacteriales
C)Pelagibacter
D)Prochlorococcus
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Chapter 16: Diversity of Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many halophiles require a high ionic environment for survival.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following are NOT substrates for methanogens?
A)acetate and pyruvate
B)carbon dioxide,carbon monoxide,and formate
C)glucose and sucrose
D)methanol,methylamine,and methylmercaptan
Q3) The cytoplasmic membrane of Picrophilus is extremely acid impermeable at very low pH.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Proteins known as ________ function to refold partially denatured proteins.
A)histones
B)chaperonins
C)HU proteins
D)histones and chaperonins
Q5) Why does Archaeoglobus represent a metabolically transitional type of organism that bridges the energy-generating processes of H S production and methanogenesis?
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Chapter 17: Diversity of Eukaryotic Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the theory of secondary endosymbiosis and defend the theory by providing evidence that supports it.
Q2) The earliest diverging lineage of fungi are the A)chytridiomycetes.
B)zygomycetes.
C)glomeromycetes.
D)ascomycetes.
Q3) All ciliates have cilia at some point during their life cycle,and some use the cilia not just for movement but also to direct food as well.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which statement is TRUE regarding fungal spores?
A)Conidia are asexual spores.
B)Ascospores are sexual spores.
C)Basidiospores are sexual spores.
D)Conidia are asexual spores,and both ascospores and basidiospores are sexual spores.
Q5) Describe the differences between the algae and the cyanobacteria.
Q6) How does the genus Pfiesteria cause problems in both humans and fish?
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Chapter 18: Methods in Microbial Ecology
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Q1) Which approach would help to identify biologically produced sulfur in a sediment sample?
A)enrichment
B)isotopic fractionation
C)microautoradiography
D)microelectrodes
Q2) Phototrophic organisms in SIP experiments are often observed releasing ¹ CO as measuring activity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Collective estimates of the physiological reactions occurring in the entire microbial community are known as ________ measurements.
A)in vitro
B)in situ
C)activity
D)metagenomics
Q4) How can NanoSIMS be used to determine which Roseobacters most strongly use DMSP as a sulfur source within a coastal marine environment? Explain the NanoSIMS methodology in your answer.
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Chapter 19: Microbial Ecosystems
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Q1) Cyclic dimeric guanosine monophosphate (c-di-GMP)serves as a messenger molecule in bacterial cells to coordinate a shift from ________ to ________ growth.
A)sessile / planktonic
B)planktonic / sessile
C)monomorphic / polymorphic
D)stationary / exponential
Q2) Which is the CORRECT order of increasing size in soil particles?
A)clay > sand > silt
B)clay > silt > sand
C)sand > clay > silt
D)silt > clay > sand
Q3) What is the difference between an organism being piezophilic and piezotolerant?
Q4) Which of the following is NOT an oxygenic phototrophic microorganism present in marine waters?
A)Ostreococcus
B)Prochlorococcus
C)Roseobacter
D)Trichodesmium
Q5) Provide a reason for the ecological importance of pelagic Bacteria and Archaea.
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Chapter 20: Nutrient Cycles
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Q1) Most phosphorous,such as that found in inorganic phosphate (HPO ),exist in the +5 oxidation state in nature.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A process where different microbial taxa work in cooperation to degrade a compound that neither can perform entirely on their own is called A)allotrophy.
B)ammensalism.
C)commensalism.
D)syntrophy.
Q3) Calcium is cycled most rapidly in terrestrial environments. A)True
B)False
Q4) In the oceans,sulfur exists primarily as ________,and in rocks and sediments sulfur occurs mostly as ________ and ________.
A)hydrogen sulfide (H S)/ gypsum (CaSO )/ elemental sulfur (S )
B)hydrogen sulfide (H S)/ sulfate (SO ² )/ elemental sulfur (S )
C)sulfate (SO ² )/ gypsum (CaSO )/ pyrite (FeS )
D)sulfate (SO ² )/ sulfide (H S)/ elemental sulfur (S )
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Chapter 21: Microbiology of the Built Environment
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Q1) Which of the following hydrocarbon compounds are MOST recalcitrant?
A)straight-chain hydrocarbons
B)ethane
C)polycyclic hydrocarbons
D)propane
Q2) Microbes are involved in which step(s)of wastewater treatment?
A)primary only
B)secondary and tertiary
C)secondary only
D)primary and secondary
Q3) Which of the following can be completely degraded to carbon dioxide by microorganisms?
A)petroleum
B)uranium
C)chlorinated organics
D)petroleum and chlorinated organics
Q4) Wastewater plants are usually constructed to handle both domestic and industrial wastes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Microbial Symbioses
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Q1) Explain how leeches are used today in medical replants and transplants.
Q2) Archaea are commonly present in rumens.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a function of the human gut microbiome?
A)production of essential amino acids and vitamins
B)production of volatile fatty acids from polysaccharides
C)iron and trace metal absorption
D)maturation of the gastrointestinal tract
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a major question in the Human Microbiome Project?
A)Are differences in the relative abundance of different bacteria important?
B)Do differences in the human microbiome correlate with differences in human health?
C)Is there a correlation between microbial population structure and host genotype?
D)How can we reduce the number of microbes on the human body?
Q5) Two-thirds of terrestrial environments support growth of termites.
A)True
B)False
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24
Chapter 23: Microbial Interactions With Humans
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Q1) R plasmids help prevent the spread of virulence factors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following are NOT found in the gastrointestinal tract of healthy humans?
A)Bacteroides
B)Clostridium
C)Escherichia coli
D)protists
Q3) ________ are toxic proteins released from the pathogen as it grows.
A)Endotoxins
B)Exotoxins
C)Macrotoxins
D)Microtoxins
Q4) What are the different categories of exotoxins,and how do they function?
Q5) The number of Vibrio cholera cells necessary to produce cholera in an exposed individual is drastically reduced if the individual is malnourished.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Why is fever the universal result of endotoxin exposure?
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Immunity and Host Defense
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Q1) IgG,IgM,and IgA are examples of ________ found in blood.
A)antibodies
B)antigens
C)bacteria
D)pathogens
Q2) Which of the following can be used in creating a vaccine?
A)attenuated bacteria
B)inactivated viruses
C)recombinant proteins
D)attenuated bacteria,inactivated viruses,or recombinant proteins
Q3) Stem cells are produced and developed in the A)bone marrow.
B)brain.
C)liver.
D)stems of plants.
Q4) T cells interact with the peptide-MHC complex using A)cytokines.
B)granzyme and perforin.
C)T-cell receptors.
D)the antibodies present on the surface of the cell.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Immune Mechanisms
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Q1) When dendritic cells ingest antigen,they migrate to the ________,where they present the antigen to T lymphocytes.
A)kidneys
B)lymph nodes
C)thymus
D)spleen
Q2) Nonencapsulated strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae are highly virulent.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Dimers of IgA are present in
A)breast milk colostrum.
B)saliva.
C)tears.
D)breast milk colostrum,saliva,and tears.
Q4) Streptococcus pyogenes produces proteins called ________,which alter(s)the surface of the pathogen and inhibits phagocytosis.
A)glycolipids
B)leukocidins
C)M proteins
D)pus
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Chapter 26: Molecular Immunology
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Q1) Interaction of a PAMP with a TLR triggers transmembrane signal transduction and subsequent
A)clonal expansion.
B)antibody production.
C)complement protein activation.
D)phagocytosis and inflammation.
Q2) The ________ and ________ domains of the class II MHC protein interact to form a peptide-binding site.
A)B / T
B)light / heavy
C)C / V
D) 1 / 1
Q3) The ________ is a highly conserved amino acid sequence found in immunoglobulin,TCR,and MHC proteins.
A)heavy chain
B)V domain
C)C domain
D)light chain
Q4) Predict the consequence for an individual of a deleterious genetic mutation in the gene for TLR-4.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Diagnostic Microbiology
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Q1) Some antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis by disruption of translation through interactions with the A)ribosome.
B)protein.
C)DNA.
D)chromosome.
Q2) Methylene blue in EMB agar is selective for A)gram-positives.
B)gram-negatives.
C)viral plaques.
D)both gram-positives and gram-negatives.
Q3) The causal agents of urinary tract diseases are often members of the normal flora. A)True
B)False
Q4) Widespread antimicrobial drug resistance is usually passed by A)heterologous gene expression.
B)reverse transcription.
C)horizontal gene transfer.
D)gene splicing.
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Chapter 28: Epidemiology
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Q1) Many parasites,such as those that cause malaria,use antigenic variation to decrease virulence within a specific host.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What measures would be taken if a case of smallpox were recognized in a world traveler after the individual had debarked from Heathrow airport in England following several days of sightseeing in London?
Q3) Over time,the relationship between a pathogen and a naïve susceptible population tends towards
A)the extinction of the host.
B)the extinction of the pathogen.
C)a balance between host and pathogen such that both are maintained.
D)the extinction of either the host or the pathogen.
Q4) Which stage of an acute infectious disease occurs between the time the organism begins to grow in the host and the appearance of disease symptoms?
A)acute period
B)decline period
C)infection
D)incubation period
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Chapter 29: Person-To-Person Bacterial and Viral Diseases
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88 Verified Questions
88 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Resident staphylococci in the ________ seldom cause disease.
A)eyes
B)upper respiratory tract
C)lungs
D)kidneys
Q2) Pus formation in skin lesions caused by Staphylococcus aureus infections is in part due to production of A)coagulase.
B)hemolysins.
C)leukocidin.
D)catalase.
Q3) Infectious hepatitis is caused by infection with hepatitis ________ virus.
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)E
Q4) Chickenpox,caused by a herpesvirus,results in a systemic papular rash that quickly heals.
A)True
B)False
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Vectorborne and Soilborne Bacterial and Viral Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rickettsial disease detection/identification includes which of the following?
A)latex bead agglutination assays
B)ELISA
C)PCR assays
D)latex bead agglutination assays,ELISA,and PCR assays
Q2) What is the primary cause of viral hemorrhagic fever in the United States? What is the typical cause of death for this disease?
Q3) The study of hantaviruses requires biosafety level (BSL)4 precautions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Black Plague has killed millions of humans over the course of history,yet we do not vaccinate against this disease.Why is this and how is the disease controlled in modern human populations?
Q5) What virulence factor(s)of Yersinia pestis prevent(s)phagocytosis by cells of the immune system?
A)the capsule
B)leukocidins
C)murine toxin
D)V and W antigens
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Chapter 31: Water and Food As Vehicles of Bacterial Diseases
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81 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Verotoxin can cause
A)hemorrhagic diarrhea.
B)liver failure.
C)brain damage.
D)hemorrhagic diarrhea,liver failure,and brain damage.
Q2) Infection with Legionella pneumophila is usually treated with intravenous erythromycin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a coliform?
A)facultatively aerobic
B)gram-negative
C)rod shaped
D)resistant to chlorination
Q4) In the United States,individuals become infected with Vibrio cholerae most commonly by
A)consuming contaminated shellfish.
B)drinking contaminated water.
C)eating contaminated vegetables.
D)person-to-person contact.
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Chapter 32: Eukaryotic Pathogens: Fungal and Parasitic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Use the events in the life cycle of Schistoma mansoni to propose two different strategies to reduce the incidence of snail fever.
Q2) What is the infective form of Entamoeba histolytica and Giardia intestinalis?
A)cysts
B)trophozoites
C)merozoites
D)sporozoites
Q3) Parasitic helminths only cause very rare tropical diseases.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following human mutations correlates with resistance to plasmodial infections in West Africa?
A)hemoglobin S
B)one particular MHC class I gene
C)one particular set of MHC class II genes
D)hemoglobin S and particular class I and class II genes
Q5) With respect to their life cycles,how are fungal pathogens different than bacterial pathogens?
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