Chapter 2: Legal and Ethical Aspects of Nursing
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Q1) The nurse is assisting a patient to clarify values by encouraging the expression of feelings and thoughts related to the situation. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse?
A) Compare values with those of the patient
B) Make a judgment
C) Withhold an opinion
D) Give advice
Answer: C
Q2) During a lunch break, an emergency department (ED) nurse truthfully tells another nurse about the condition of a patient who came to the ED last night. What is the ED nurse guilty of? (Select all that apply.)
A) HIPAA violation
B) Slander
C) Libel
D) Invasion of privacy
E) Defamation
Answer: A, D
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Chapter 3: Documentation
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Q1) Documentation using the DARE format (Data, Action, Response, Education) includes elements of the __________ charting system.
Answer: focused
Focused charting uses the acronym DARE to direct and formalize charting.
Q2) What should a medical record provide for all health care providers? (Select all that apply.)
A) Care given to the patient
B) Care planned for the patient
C) A patient's nursing problems
D) A patient's medical problems
E) Details about any incident reports
F) The patient's response to treatment
Answer: A, B, C, D, F
Q3) Why is documentation especially significant in managed care?
A) The hospital needs to show that employees care for patients.
B) Institutions are reimbursed only for patient care that is documented.
C) Patients might bring lawsuits if care was not given.
D) Documents may become part of a lawsuit.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Communication
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Q1) What does therapeutic communication accomplish?
A) Facilitates the formation of a positive nurse-patient relationship
B) Manipulates the patient
C) Assigns the patient a passive role
D) Requires the patient to accept what the nurse says
Q2) A patient states, "My husband has told me how he feels about my having a mastectomy." The nurse nods and says, "Go on." This is an example of:
A) clarifying.
B) restating.
C) focusing.
D) minimal encouraging.
Q3) How can the nurse demonstrate warmth and acceptance when listening to a patient?
A) Tightly crossing her arms
B) Uncrossing her arms
C) Tightly crossing her legs
D) Facing away from the patient
Q4) ____________ is the reciprocal process in which messages are sent and received between people.
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Chapter 5: Nursing Process and Critical Thinking
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Q1) The document that outlines a multidisciplinary plan for care interventions over a specified time frame is a _______ ________.
Q2) What best defines the nursing process?
A) A method to ensure that the physician's orders are implemented correctly.
B) A series of assessments that isolate a patient's health problem.
C) A framework for the organization of individualized nursing care.
D) A preset formula for the design of nursing care.
Q3) NANDA International meets to reorganize diagnosis labels and language every ______ years.
Q4) Which are official categories of nursing diagnoses? (Select all that apply.)
A) Actual
B) Risk
C) Wellness
D) Syndrome
E) Potential
Q5) What is the primary purpose of nursing orders?
A) To support physician's orders
B) To provide direction for all caregivers
C) To provide broad, general statements
D) To clarify nursing principles
7
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Chapter 6: Cultural and Ethnic Considerations
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Q1) A patient requests a consultation between the physician and a religious leader known as an Imam. What is this patient's cultural belief?
A) Muslim
B) African American
C) Chinese American
D) Mexican American
Q2) The nurse is caring for a Chinese American patient. How should this nurse demonstrate cultural awareness?
A) Maintain eye contact with the patient
B) Hold the patient's hand while conversing
C) Touch the patient's arm when speaking to the patient
D) Sit side-to-side when speaking with the patient
Q3) The nurse is preparing an Orthodox Jewish patient's tray during Passover. What intervention is appropriate for this patient?
A) Avoid fish dishes
B) Encourage time for prayer
C) Offer the patient leavened products
D) Encourage the use of loud music in celebration
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Chapter 7: Asepsis and Infection Control
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Q1) The nurse reminds a group of nursing students that the type of asepsis that destroys all microorganisms and their spores is _______ asepsis.
Q2) The patient in isolation may experience psychological or emotional deprivation. What should the nurse do to help minimize these feelings?
A) Be cheerful
B) Spend extra time with the patient
C) Protect the patient from additional infection
D) Answer the call light quickly
Q3) What is a method used to kill all microorganisms, including spores?
A) Disinfecting
B) Using an antiseptic
C) Using chlorine bleach
D) Sterilizing
Q4) What technique should the nurse use when disposing of linens contaminated with feces?
A) Don gown, gloves, and mask
B) Wash hands for 5 minutes after disposal
C) Don gloves only
D) Double-bag the sheets
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Chapter 8: Body Mechanics and Patient Mobility
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Q1) A nurse instructs a nursing assistant about moving older adult patients in bed. When should the nurse intervene when observing the nursing assistant perform a return demonstration?
A) The nursing assistant is using simple language.
B) The nursing assistant is avoiding jerky movements.
C) The nursing assistant is avoiding sudden movements.
D) The nursing assistant is pulling the patient across bed linens.
Q2) What is the site of the most common strain injury acquired by the nurse when working?
A) Trapezius muscle group
B) Thoracic muscle group
C) Lumbar muscle group
D) Thigh muscle group
Q3) The nurse counsels the immobilized patient in regard to prevention of muscle atrophy and contractures. What will the nurse be sure to include when counseling this patient?
A) The need for additional calcium
B) The need for additional protein
C) The need for some type of exercise
D) The need for a special protective bed
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Chapter 9: Hygiene and Care of the Patients Environment
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Q1) How often should the nurse cleanse the meatal-catheter junction of a patient with an indwelling catheter?
A) At least once a day
B) At least twice a day
C) At bedtime
D) Each shift
Q2) The nurse explains that the purpose of a sitz bath is to reduce inflammation in the perineal and anal area. What is the least amount of time the nurse will instruct for a sitz bath?
A) 10 to 15 minutes
B) 20 to 30 minutes
C) 30 to 40 minutes
D) 1 hour
Q3) The nurse is assessing a patient's skin for signs of impaired skin integrity. Which finding by the nurse is considered a major manifestation?
A) Burn
B) Laceration
C) Pressure ulcer
D) Infection
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Chapter 10: Safety
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Q1) What type of fire extinguisher should the nurse use when the oxygen concentrator machine malfunctions and causes an electrical fire?
A) Type A
B) Type B
C) Type C
D) Type D
Q2) The nurse explains that the measurement of radiation exposure is in multiples of Gy. The number of Gy an individual may absorb before becoming ill with radiation syndrome is _______.
Q3) The emergency department nurse admits a victim of poisoning. Who should the nurse call to receive the best assistance for dealing with this victim?
A) American Red Cross
B) Fire department paramedics
C) Poison control center
D) Civil defense office
Q4) When reinforcing the PASS acronym for fire extinguisher use, the nurse reminds the staff that the final "S" stands for ______________.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Vital Signs
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Q1) The physician orders daily weights on a patient residing in a long-term care setting. What actions should the nurse implement to assess weight accurately? (Select all that apply.)
A) Weigh patient at the same time each day
B) Schedule weighing immediately after breakfast
C) Encourage patient to void before being weighed
D) Ensure same amount of clothing is worn by patient
E) Calibrate by setting scale at zero after each weight
Q2) When instructing a primary caregiver about keeping a daily log of blood pressure readings, what instructions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
A) Take the reading at different times during the day.
B) Apply the cuff approximately 2 inches above the antecubital fossa.
C) If unable to get a reading the first time, immediately reinflate the cuff.
D) Assess pulse with the bell of the stethoscope.
E) Apply the cuff snugly.
Q3) The nurse assesses for the fifth vital sign, which is______________.
Q4) If a patient has an axillary temperature of 96.2°F, the nurse understands that the true temperature is ______.
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Chapter 12: Physical Assessment
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Q1) Which are infectious diseases? (Select all that apply.)
A) Measles
B) Pneumonia
C) Hay fever
D) Tuberculosis
E) Osteoarthritis
F) Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
Q2) A condition in which a patient experiences bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes caused by an increase of deoxygenated hemoglobin in the blood is known as _________________.
Q3) A nurse is gathering subjective data when admitting a patient. Which assessment finding reported by the patient is considered subjective data?
A) Complains of chest pain
B) Is experiencing dyspnea
C) Appears to be anxious
D) Expectorates red-tinged sputum
Q4) A creamy, viscous, pale yellow or yellow-green fluid exudate that is the result of fluid remains of liquefied necrosis of tissues is known as ___________ ___________.
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Chapter 13: Admission, Transfer, and Discharge
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Q1) How can the nurse help reduce the stress of a hospital admission? (Select all that apply.)
A) Show the patient how bedside equipment works.
B) Explain the need to establish a clear source of reimbursement.
C) Give simple explanation of policies.
D) Involve the patient in the plan of care.
E) Keep family interventions to a minimum.
Q2) Upon admission, the nurse notes that a patient without family members present has a billfold filled with cash. Where can the nurse suggest the money be placed?
A) In a sealed envelope in the bedside table
B) In the care of hospital security
C) Locked in the narcotic cupboard
D) In the hospital safe
Q3) If a patient has an order for an interagency transfer where does the nurse explain that the patient will be moved?
A) A double room to a private room
B) One unit of the hospital to another
C) One room of the unit to another
D) One facility to another
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Surgical Wound Care
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Q1) What are the advantages of a transparent dressing? (Select all that apply.)
A) Adheres to undamaged skin
B) Contains the exudate
C) Reduces wound contamination
D) Serves as a barrier to external bacteria
E) Slows epithelial growth
Q2) The nurse is instructing a patient about the effects of smoking. What accurate information does the nurse provide?
A) Smoking increases the amount of tissue oxygenation.
B) Smoking increases the amount of functional hemoglobin in blood.
C) Smoking may decrease platelet aggregation and cause hypercoagulability.
D) Smoking interferes with normal cellular mechanisms that promote release of oxygen.
Q3) What technique will the nurse implement to assist the postoperative patient to cough?
A) Support the patient's back
B) Offer an antitussive
C) Splint the abdomen with a pillow
D) Lean patient against the bedside table
Q4) When preparing to remove a dressing, the nurse should don __________ gloves.
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Chapter 15: Specimen Collection and Diagnostic Testing
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Q1) The nurse is preparing a patient for a diagnostic examination. What can the nurse implement to assist with reducing anxiety?
A) Explain the costs of the examination
B) Demonstrate use of equipment
C) Answer questions for clarification
D) Fill out required paperwork
Q2) The nurse is collecting a specimen for a wound culture. What should be avoided when collecting this specimen?
A) A dressing
B) Deep in the wound
C) The outer edge of the wound
D) Old drainage
Q3) What should the nurse do when preparing the patient for an abdominal scan?
A) Assess laboratory results only for liver function
B) Assess patient for allergies to dye or shellfish
C) Instruct patient to limit fluid intake immediately following procedure
D) Instruct patient to be NPO for 1 hour before scan if contrast medium is used
Q4) When initiating a 24-hour urine collection, the nurse asks the patient to void. The nurse then _______ the specimen.
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Chapter 16: Care of Patients Experiencing Urgent
Alterations in Health
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Q1) When assessing the adult victim for pulselessness, the CPR rescuer should palpate the most reliable and accessible pulse. Which pulse will be palpated?
A) Radial
B) Brachial
C) Carotid
D) Femoral
Q2) A visitor in the hospital slips and falls. The patient's arm appears dislocated and the visitor is unable to move it. What is the first action the nurse should implement?
A) Apply cold packs
B) Check range of motion
C) Splint the arm
D) Apply an Ace bandage
Q3) A patient arrives in the emergency department with a sucking wound to the left chest. What is the first action the nurse should take?
A) Place several layers of gauze dressing over the wound
B) Place the patient in a supine position
C) Cover the wound with an airtight dressing taped on three sides
D) Turn the patient to the left side
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Chapter 17: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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Q1) A patient admitted with lower back pain is not sure that the prescribed treatment is helping and asks what alternative therapies might help. What should the nurse suggest?
A) Herbal therapy
B) Chiropractic therapy
C) Acupressure
D) Reflexology
Q2) What is a therapeutic treatment that joins the mind and body and increases muscle tone and flexibility?
A) Acupressure
B) Spiritual enrichment
C) Yoga therapy
D) Therapeutic massage
Q3) What type of therapy is thought to increase circulation to the affected area, promote healing, and stimulate acupuncture points?
A) Relaxation therapy
B) Magnetic therapy
C) Yoga therapy
D) Imagery therapy
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Chapter 18: Pain Management, Comfort, Rest, and Sleep
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Q1) The nurse is planning interventions for a patient experiencing pain. For what type of synergistic relationship should the nurse assess?
A) Inflammatory process
B) Circulatory disorder
C) Food allergy
D) Fatigue
Q2) A patient has pain in the left arm secondary to coronary insufficiency. This is an example of what type of pain?
A) Acute pain
B) Chronic pain
C) Referred pain
D) Subacute pain
Q3) A nurse is caring for a patient who requires long-term management for severe pain. What should be the drug of choice for this patient?
A) Aspirin
B) Morphine
C) Oxycodone
D) Acetaminophen
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Chapter 19: Nutritional Concepts and Related Therapies
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Q1) The nurse is providing information about high cholesterol levels. What is the rationale for avoiding saturated fats?
A) They block absorption of nutrients
B) They interfere with metabolism
C) They increase blood cholesterol
D) They must be hydrogenated
Q2) To demonstrate the energy-producing potential of different foods, the nurse explains that 3 g of lean meat produces 12 kcal/g. How many kcal/g does 3 g of fish oil produce?
A) 6 kcal/g
B) 15 kcal/g
C) 21 kcal/g
D) 27 kcal/g
Q3) When reviewing a patient's dietary intake, the nurse recommends that sugar consumption be reduced to the recommended daily level. What is this level?
A) No more than 24% of total daily kilocalories
B) No more than16% of total daily kilocalories
C) No more than 8% of total daily kilocalories
D) No more than 4% of total daily kilocalories
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Fluids and Electrolytes
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Q1) The nurse expects an adult with normal kidney function to void a minimum of ____ mL of urine in 4 hours.
Q2) When reading the laboratory report of a patient with excessive diarrhea, the nurse notes that the pH is 7.10, and the PaCO? and the PaO? are normal. What should the nurse recognize as this patient's state from this information alone?
A) Respiratory acidosis
B) Metabolic acidosis
C) Respiratory alkalosis
D) Metabolic alkalosis
Q3) Three body systems work at different speeds to keep the pH in the narrow range of normal. What is the order of effectiveness for these three systems?
A) Blood buffers, kidneys, and lungs
B) Kidneys, lungs, and blood buffers
C) Blood buffers, lungs, and kidneys
D) Lungs, kidneys, and blood buffers
Q4) The nurse explains that a normal adult will lose approximately _____ mL of water through respiration in the course of a day.
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Chapter 21: Mathematics and Medication Administration
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Q1) The physician has ordered furosemide 20 mg stat. The ampule is labeled 40 mg/mL. What dose should the nurse administer?
A) 0.8 mL
B) 0.5 mL
C) 2.0 mL
D) 8.0 mL
Q2) What is the main organ that inactivates and metabolizes drugs?
A) Spleen
B) Liver
C) Lungs
D) Pancreas
Q3) What is the sum o \(\frac { 3 } { 4 }\) f an \(\frac { 7 } { 8 }\) d ?
A) \(\frac { 10 } { 48 }\)
B) \(\frac { 10 } { 12 }\)
C) \(\frac { 21 } { 4 }\)
D) \(1 \frac { 5 } { 8 }\)
Q4) When giving a tubal medication, the nurse should flush the tubing with ___ to ___ mL of water.
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Chapter 22: Care of Patients with Alterations in Health
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Q1) To what temperature should water for eye compress be heated?
A) 95° F
B) 110° F
C) 115° F
D) 120° F
Q2) If a patient has a transfusion reaction, the nurse should perform the following interventions in which priority order? Put a comma and space between each answer choice (A, B, C, D, etc.).
A) Take and record vital signs
B) Notify physician and blood bank
C) Stop the transfusion
D) Monitor urine output
E) Return blood and tubing to the blood bank
Q3) During insertion of a Foley catheter, the patient grimaces as the balloon is inflated. What is the immediate reaction of the nurse?
A) Withdraw the catheter
B) Ask the patient to bear down
C) Continue to inflate the balloon
D) Advance the catheter into the bladder
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Life Span Development
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Q1) Which theory of aging suggests that the body becomes less able to tolerate the "self"?
A) Free radical theory
B) Autoimmunity theory
C) Wear-and-tear theory
D) Biologic programming theory
Q2) The nurse discovers during the intake assessment of a 5-year-old child that the child lives with his biologic parents and siblings. How would the nurse categorize this family type?
A) Extended family
B) Blended family
C) Social family
D) Nuclear family
Q3) What is the average resting respiratory rate for a 12-month-old child?
A) 15 breaths/min
B) 20 breaths/min
C) 30 breaths/min
D) 50 breaths/min
Q4) Any substance such as a drug, alcohol, or virus that interferes with fetal development is called a(n) _____________.
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Chapter 24: Loss, Grief, Dying, and Death
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Q1) Changes in health care reimbursement measures have resulted in which of the following changes regarding care of the terminally ill?
A) Patients spend more time in hospitals
B) Nurses provide more care in hospitals
C) More patients die at home
D) Patients spend more time in rehab facilities
Q2) What is the final stage of human growth and development?
A) Integrity
B) Death
C) Despair
D) Resolution
Q3) Which of the following would lead the home health nurse to make a nursing diagnosis of unresolved grief for a patient who was widowed 5 months ago?
A) Seeing that the patient keeps a picture of the husband by her bed
B) The patient said tearfully, "I can't believe he is gone."
C) Assessing that the patient eats out frequently rather than cooking at home
D) The patient says that she attends church three times a week.
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Chapter 25: Health Promotion and Pregnancy
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Q1) The nurse assesses a reactive result to a nonstress test when the fetal heart rate increases _____ beats per minute.
Q2) What do the arteries in the umbilical cord carry?
A) Nutrients to the fetus from the placenta
B) Oxygenated blood to perfuse the placenta
C) Antibodies from the fetus to the mother
D) Deoxygenated blood back to the placenta
Q3) A woman entering the 22nd week of pregnancy complains that she has become unsightly because of chloasma. What should the nurse recommend to reduce the appearance of the chloasma?
A) Use heavy makeup
B) Take extra doses of vitamin A
C) Avoid exposure to the sun
D) Reduce caffeine intake
Q4) Where does implantation of the fertilized ovum usually occur?
A) Lower uterine wall
B) Side of the uterus
C) Fundus of the uterus
D) Body of the uterus
Q5) The chorion and the amnion are the two components of the ________
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Chapter 26: Labor and Delivery
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Q1) The nurse is alarmed as she assesses a protruding umbilical cord from the vagina. What immediate action should the nurse take?
A) Monitor intensity of contractions
B) Place the patient in the knee-chest position
C) Notify the charge nurse
D) Ask the patient to perform a Valsalva maneuver
Q2) Which assessment findings suggest probable fetal distress? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fetal heart rate (FHR) of 120
B) Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
C) Decreased FHR during contractions
D) Strong contractions 10 seconds apart
E) Slow return of FHR to baseline
Q3) A nurse is teaching a group of primigravidas that during delivery, pressure on the fetal skull may produce changes in the shape of the skull. What is the reshaping of the skull called?
A) Pressure response
B) Overlapping
C) Molding
D) Spacing
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Chapter 27: Care of the Mother and Newborn
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Q1) What is characteristic of a normal breastfed infant's stool?
A) Green and loose
B) Dark green and sticky
C) Pale yellow and frequent
D) Light brown and pasty
Q2) When is breast engorgement most likely to occur?
A) When the infant's mouth surrounds the areola when feeding
B) When the breast tissue becomes congested
C) When the breast is emptied completely at each feeding
D) When the infant's mouth grasps the nipple firmly
Q3) Where would acrocyanosis be assessed on a newborn?
A) Circumoral area
B) Brow
C) Feet
D) Mucous membrane
Q4) The new mother tells the home health nurse that she is concerned about her 5-day-old infant's hard, dried umbilical stump. What time frame should the nurse give the mother for the umbilical stump to fall off ________________________ days
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Family with Special Needs
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Q1) The nurse reports to the charge nurse that the 3-hour postpartum patient is bleeding excessively as she has saturated one peripad in less than ______ minutes.
Q2) What percent of first-trimester pregnancies spontaneously abort?
A) 5% to 10%
B) 10% to15%
C) 20% to 25%
D) 40% to 50%
Q3) A patient is admitted to the hospital with hyperemesis gravidarum. The patient is malnourished and severely dehydrated. The care plan should be altered to include which interventions?
A) Hyperalimentation
B) IV fluids and electrolyte replacement
C) Hormone replacement therapy
D) Vitamin supplements
Q4) The nurse explains that severe preeclampsia needs to be controlled because it can develop into another syndrome called _________________.
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Chapter 29: Health Promotion for the Infant, Child, and Adolescent
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Q1) Because the water in the infant's residential area is not fluoridated, when should the nurse suggest that the infant receive supplemental fluoride?
A) 2 months old
B) 4 months old
C) 5 months old
D) 6 months old
Q2) To prevent accidental poisoning of a child, where should medications be placed in the home?
A) In a dresser drawer
B) In the medicine cabinet
C) In a locked cupboard
D) On a high shelf
Q3) The nurse recognizes that preventive programs in schools must be stepped up in order to prevent violence, especially __________.
Q4) Which children must be secured in the back seat in a rear-facing safety seat?
A) Children weighing up to 20 lb
B) Children weighing between 20 and 30 lb
C) Children weighing between 30 and 40 lb
D) Children weighing more than 40 lb
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Chapter 30: Basic Pediatric Nursing Care
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5484
Sample Questions
Q1) What should be done before initiating a gavage feeding?
A) Hold the feeding tube under water to check for bubbling
B) Check for gastric distention
C) Aspirate stomach contents
D) Ensure the sterility of feeding equipment
Q2) Where is the typical IV insertion site in an infant younger than 9 months of age?
A) Radial vein
B) Scalp vein
C) Femoral vein
D) Brachial vein
Q3) The nurse is aware that visual acuity evaluation in a child is best assessed after the age of _____ years.
Q4) After observing parental behavior that leads the nurse to suspect child abuse, when should the nurse report the abuse?
A) If the parent confesses to child abuse
B) If the child admits to being abused
C) Whenever maltreatment of a child is suspected
D) When the type of abuse can be determined
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32
Chapter 31: Care of the Child with a Physical and Mental or Cognitive Disorder
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5485
Sample Questions
Q1) What are the clinical manifestations of otitis media?
A) Earache, wheezing, vomiting
B) Coughing, rhinorrhea, headache
C) Fever, irritability, pulling on ear
D) Wheezing, cough, drainage in ear canal
Q2) The nurse explains that cognitive impairment is categorized by four levels that depend on the intelligence quotient (IQ). How is a child with an IQ of 45 classified?
A) Within the normal low range
B) Educable
C) Trainable
D) Severe
Q3) What is the hallmark sign of intussusception?
A) Mucus-like stools
B) Currant jelly-like stools
C) Tarry, black stools
D) Green, soft stools
Q4) The nurse reminds a family that people with autism are also referred to as
33
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Chapter 32: Health Promotion and Care of the Older Adult
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is age-related vision change caused by the loss of elasticity of the lens called?
A) Nearsightedness
B) Cataracts
C) Presbyopia
D) Blepharitis
Q2) What is one positive aspect of Parkinson disease?
A) The disease does not alter ability to communicate
B) Anti-Parkinson drugs have few side effects
C) Intellectual function is not impaired
D) Involuntary movements can be controlled
Q3) At mealtime, the older adult seems to be eating less food than would be adequate. Compared to the younger adult, what is a requirement for the older adult?
A) More fluids
B) Less calcium
C) Fewer calories
D) More vitamins
Q4) The nurse initiates the application of a draw sheet on every bedfast patient on her unit to facilitate lifting and to prevent _________ forces.
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34
Chapter 33: Concepts of Mental Health
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What action by a student before taking a test should indicate to a nursing instructor that the student is demonstrating signs of moderate anxiety?
A) Studies for 6 hours
B) Sleeps 6 hours because of fatigue
C) Vomits
D) Argues about the scheduling of the test
Q2) The patient complains to the nurse that the physician does not like him and wants him to fail at following the diet prescribed. The nurse recognizes that the patient is using which defense mechanism?
A) Conversion
B) Projection
C) Introjection
D) Repression
Q3) When was psychiatric training for nurses initially offered?
A) 1852
B) 1882
C) 1902
D) 1922
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35
Chapter 34: Care of the Patient with a Psychiatric Disorder
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse alters the care plan for a patient with depression to include what type of activity?
A) Domino game with three other patients
B) Ping-Pong game with one other patient
C) Group outing to view wildflowers
D) Magazine to read alone
Q2) The nurse instructs a patient who has just been prescribed a protocol of fluoxetine HCl (Prozac) that the drug takes ____ to ____ weeks to take effect.
Q3) The home health nurse assesses a patient who creates elaborate excuses for not leaving home. Further questioning reveals the patient had not left home for 6 months. How should this be documented?
A) Mania
B) Depression
C) Agoraphobia
D) Anxiety
Q4) The nurse recognizes that stress can cause an ulcer, which is classified as a _______________ illness.
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Chapter 35: Care of the Patient with an Addictive Personality
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse reminds a group of high school students that most states have laws limiting blood alcohol levels of drivers. What is the legal blood alcohol serum level in most states?
A) 0.08%
B) 0.20%
C) 0.40%
D) 0.50%
Q2) What should the entire health team focus on during the rehabilitation phase?
A) Establishing a support system
B) Seeking and maintaining employment
C) Abstaining from drug use
D) Addressing the problems related to addiction
Q3) The nurse concludes that a significant goal of the care plan for an alcoholic patient has been met when the patient makes which statement?
A) "I drink because I'm lonely."
B) "All my difficulties are related to my drinking."
C) "I wouldn't need to drink if I had my family back."
D) "My drinking helps me cope with the stress of my job."
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Chapter 36: Home Health Nursing
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5490
Sample Questions
Q1) How often must the homecare treatment plan be recertified in order for the patient to continue to receive services?
A) Every 3 days
B) Every 60 days
C) Every 10 days
D) Every 2 weeks
Q2) What has been influenced by the increase in home health providers supporting healthy living and illness prevention, and a movement toward deinstitutionalization of technology-dependent children and adults?
A) Criteria for admission
B) Age of eligibility
C) Reimbursement criteria
D) Length of financial support
Q3) By offering enteral, parenteral, intravenous, and blood transfusion therapies, what can home care services prevent?
A) Morbidity
B) Hospitalization
C) Hospice care
D) Mortality
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Long-Term Care
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Health Care Financing Administration (HCFA) conducts unannounced institutional surveys annually to assess the quality of life for the patients. The findings of the surveys are reported to:
A) various licensing boards.
B) facility administrators.
C) the public.
D) the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services.
Q2) Although the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) increases the cost of care, what is a benefit that it provides for long-term care?
A) It ensures a safe environment for personnel.
B) It ensures that medications are administered safely.
C) It ensures that food is prepared safely.
D) It ensures safe ambulation and transportation of patients.
Q3) What is the time limit for the legal administration of medications?
A) 30 minutes
B) 1 hour
C) 90 minutes
D) 2 hours
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Chapter 38: Rehabilitation Nursing
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse who is part of a team focused on restoring an individual to the fullest physical, mental, social, vocational, and economic capacity is practicing what type of nursing?
A) Holistic nursing
B) Conscientious nursing
C) Rehabilitation nursing
D) Comprehensive nursing
Q2) What should a nurse explain to a patient as a cause of triggering autonomic dysreflexia?
A) Loud sound
B) Distended bladder
C) Leg cramp
D) Sudden chilling
Q3) When caring for a 32-year-old Hispanic male who has become disabled, on what should the rehabilitation team base the priority of treatment goals?
A) Difficulty of the language barrier
B) Cultural significance of the disability
C) Depth of the patient's support system
D) Attitude toward rehabilitation
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Hospice Care
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who was responsible for renewing the hospice philosophy in the 1960s?
A) Cicely Saunders
B) Lillian Wald
C) Dorothea Dix
D) Florence Nightingale
Q2) The hospice nurse requests that the patient designate a primary caregiver for himself. What is true of the primary caregiver?
A) Must be a relative
B) Has complete control over the patient's care
C) Assumes ongoing responsibility for health maintenance of the patient
D) Must have power of attorney
Q3) What symptom of hospice patients is the most dreaded and feared, and should be a priority of symptom management?
A) Fear
B) Anger
C) Grief
D) Pain
Q4) When the dying patient becomes confused, the nurse should ____________ him or her.
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Chapter 40: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the largest organelle, responsible for cell reproduction and control of other organelles?
A) Nucleus
B) Ribosome
C) Mitochondrion
D) Golgi apparatus
Q2) What are the thin sheets of tissue that lubricate and line the body surfaces that open to the outside environment?
A) Mucous membranes
B) Serous membranes
C) Cytoplasm
D) Involuntary visceral muscles
Q3) What is the process by which a cell digests a foreign material by surrounding it?
A) Pinocytosis
B) Phagocytosis
C) Absorption
D) Diffusion
Q4) The body plane that divides the body into the ventral and dorsal section is the_________ plane.
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Chapter 41: Care of the Surgical Patient
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the postoperative patient complains of sudden chest pain combined with dyspnea, cyanosis, and tachycardia, the nurse recognizes the signs of:
A) hypovolemic shock.
B) dehiscence.
C) atelectasis.
D) pulmonary embolus.
Q2) The nurse would include the nursing diagnosis of deficient knowledge, postoperative, when the patient scheduled for a bowel resection tomorrow remarks:
A) "I am going to have adequate pain medication after surgery."
B) "I know you all are going to make me cough and walk soon after surgery."
C) "I am glad I will get to go home tomorrow evening."
D) "I will have to put up with dressing changes."
Q3) What is the ideal time for preoperative teaching?
A) Immediately before surgery to eliminate fear
B) 2 months in advance so the patient can prepare
C) 1 to 2 days before the surgery when anxiety is not as high
D) In the surgical holding area
Q4) The nurse is aware that there is a loss of _________ during catabolism after severe tissue injury.
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Chapter 42: Care of the Patient with an Integumentary Disorder
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A frail, older adult home health patient who had chickenpox as a child has been exposed to varicella (chickenpox) several days ago. What should the nurse do?
A) Assess frequently for herpes zoster
B) Be aware of the patient's immunity to chickenpox
C) Encourage the patient to have a pneumonia vaccine
D) Arrange for the patient to receive gamma globulin
Q2) When providing the open method of treatment for a patient who is 52 years old with burns to the lower extremities, what would a nurse include in the nursing plan?
A) Change the dressing using good medical asepsis
B) Provide an analgesic immediately after the dressing change
C) Perform circulation checks every 2 to 4 hours
D) Keep the room temperature at 85° F (29.4° C) to prevent chilling
Q3) What is the best instruction by the nurse regarding reducing the risk factors for melanoma?
A) Avoid exposure to the sun and use protective measures when exposure occurs.
B) Have all nevi removed.
C) Watch for changes in moles, especially on the back.
D) Use a sun lamp for tanning.
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Chapter 43: Care of the Patient with a Musculoskeletal Disorder
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are the main purposes of traction? (Select all that apply.)
A) Align and stabilize a fracture
B) Prevent deformities
C) Relieve muscle spasms
D) Promote bed rest
E) Increase circulation to the rest of the body
Q2) The office nurse has noted the presence of an increase in lumbar curvature in a 20-year-old female patient. What is this condition known as?
A) Scoliosis
B) Lordosis
C) Kyphosis
D) Spondylitis
Q3) Which patient statement indicates the need for additional teaching for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis who is taking meloxicam (Mobic)?
A) "I am keeping a daily record of my blood pressure."
B) "I take aspirin before I go to bed."
C) "I know I can take meloxicam with or without regard to meals."
D) "I weigh every day so I will be aware of any weight gain."
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Chapter 44: Care of the Patient with a Gastrointestinal Disorder
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse include in a teaching plan for a patient with a hiatal hernia to reduce the frequency of heartburn?
A) Drinking 10 oz of milk with every meal
B) Lie down after eating
C) Panting through mouth when symptoms begin
D) Eating small meals
Q2) The patient with irritable bowel syndrome tells the home health nurse she is going to an acupuncturist for therapy for her condition. Which of the following would be the best Nursing response?
A) "Go for it. Alternative medicine does great things."
B) "YIKES! An acupuncturist?"
C) "It may help, but there has been no clinical proof of its effectiveness."
D) "You should confirm that the acupuncturist is licensed."
Q3) Which of the following should be included in the patient teaching of a patient with a peptic ulcer?
A) Introducing irritating foods in minute amounts to desensitize the stomach
B) Restricting fluid to 1000 mL per day
C) Eating 6 small meals a day
D) Drinking alcohol and caffeine in moderation
Page 46
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Chapter 45: Care of the Patient with a Gallbladder, Liver, Biliary Tract, or Exocrine Pancreatic Disorder
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common procedure for the removal of the gallbladder?
A) Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
B) Cholangiography
C) Open cholecystectomy
D) Choledochostomy
Q2) Which factors may increase a patient's risk of developing cancer of the pancreas?
A) Diet high in carbohydrates and dairy products
B) Cardiovascular disease and glaucoma
C) Tea and cola consumption
D) Cigarette smokers and people with diabetes mellitus
Q3) What should the nurse monitor in caring for the patient undergoing a paracentesis?
A) The urinary output
B) Hypervolemia
C) Fluid removal over at least 30 minutes
D) Seizure
Q4) The disease that is on the increase because of the growing obesity population and is associated with coronary artery disease and use of corticosteroids is_______________.
Page 47
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Chapter 46: Care of the Patient with a Blood or Lymphatic Disorder
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a patient in the emergency room with suspected internal injuries will assess for hypovolemic shock, which is evidenced by (select all that apply):
A) irritability.
B) restlessness.
C) slow bounding pulse.
D) decreased respirations.
E) pallor.
F) hypotension.
Q2) The person with aplastic anemia is said to be _________________ because all three major blood elements (RBCs, WBCs, and platelets) are diminished or absent.
Q3) The 9-year-old child with leukemia who is on palliative care has drawn a picture of a boy under a huge black cloud that has lightning coming out of it. Which of the following would be an appropriate intervention for the nurse?
A) "What is this picture about?"
B) "Are you afraid of lightning?"
C) "I bet this is a picture of you, isn't it?"
D) "Is it about to rain in your picture?"
Q4) Neutrophils release ______________, an enzyme that destroys certain bacteria.
Page 48
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Chapter
Vascular Disorder
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The home health nurse warns the patient who is taking warfarin (Coumadin) for anticoagulant therapy for thrombophlebitis to stop taking the herbal remedy of ginkgo because ginkgo can:
A) cause severe episodes of diarrhea.
B) cause a severe skin eruption if taken with Coumadin.
C) increase the action of the Coumadin.
D) cause the Coumadin to be less effective.
Q2) The nurse making the schedule for the daily dose of furosemide (Lasix) would schedule the administration for which of the following times?
A) Late in the afternoon
B) At bedtime
C) With any meal
D) In the morning
Q3) What is the difference between primary and secondary hypertension?
A) Secondary hypertension is caused by another disorder like renal disease.
B) Secondary hypertension is related to hereditary factors.
C) Secondary hypertension cannot be treated effectively.
D) Secondary hypertension is no real threat to health.
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Chapter 48: Care of the Patient with a Respiratory Disorder
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41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a patient who has a closed chest drainage system notes that there is fluctuation (tidaling) in the water seal chamber. What is the most appropriate nursing action based on this assessment?
A) Document the tidaling
B) Elevate the head of the bed and notify charge nurse of malfunction of drainage system
C) Add more sterile water to the water seal chamber
D) Turn patient to the affected side
Q2) The nurse assessing an 11-year-old who is having an asthma attack expects to hear adventitious sounds of:
A) friction rub.
B) sibilant wheezes.
C) crackles.
D) sonorous wheezes.
Q3) The _________ are the structures of the lung in which gas exchange occurs.
Q4) The nurse prepares a patient for the procedure of a(n) __________, which will remove the fluid from around the lung to improve respiration and obtain a specimen.
Q5) The nurse explains that the opening between the vocal cords is the __________.
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Chapter 49: Care of the Patient with a Urinary Disorder
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Exercises to increase muscle tone of the pelvic floor are known as ____________ exercises.
Q2) A patient who is receiving continuous bladder irrigation following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) complains of "spasm-like" pain over his lower abdomen. What should the initial intervention be by the nurse?
A) Inform the nurse in charge
B) Decrease the continuous bladder irrigation flow
C) Administer the prescribed analgesic
D) Check the catheter and drainage system for obstruction
Q3) Which action can reduce the risk of skin impairment secondary to urinary incontinence?
A) Decreasing fluid intake
B) Catheterization of the elderly patient
C) Limiting the use of medication (diuretics, etc.)
D) Frequent toileting and meticulous skin care
Q4) Acute glomerulonephritis is commonly a result of a preexisting infection of
Q5) _____________ is a term for severe generalized edema.
Q6) _________ is a prostatic pain without evidence of infection or inflammation.
Page 51
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Chapter 50: Care of the Patient with an Endocrine Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________________is the term that describes a condition of normal thyroid function.
Q2) The patient being treated for hypothyroidism should be instructed to eat well-balanced meals including intake of iodine. Which of the following foods contains iodine?
A) Eggs
B) Pork
C) White bread
D) Skinless chicken
Q3) The nurse explains that the negative feedback system controls hormone release by communication between:
A) the pituitary and the target organ.
B) the thymus and the blood stream.
C) lymphatic system and the target organ.
D) central nervous system and the blood stream.
Q4) Another term for hyperglycemic reaction is ____________ ______________.
Q5) The nurse is administering long-acting insulin once a day, which provides insulin coverage for 24 hours. This insulin is _________________.
Q6) A condition with a deficiency in growth hormone is called ________________.
Page 52
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Chapter 51: Care of the Patient with a Reproductive Disorder
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46 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vaginal fistulas are caused by an ulcerating process resulting from (select all that apply):
A) Cancer
B) Radiation
C) Poor hygiene
D) Multiple sexual partners
E) Weakening of tissue from pregnancies
F) Surgical interventions
Q2) Arrange the process of the menstrual cycle in order of their function to produce menses. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D)
A) Egg matures in the graafian follicle
B) Corpus luteum is formed from old follicle
C) Estrogen from the maturing follicle causes vascularization of the uterine lining
D) Anterior pituitary releases luteinizing hormone (LH), releasing the ovum
E) Anterior pituitary releases follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
F) Corpus luteum releases estrogen and progesterone
G) Corpus luteum disintegrates causing a decrease in progesterone
H) Lining of uterus is shed as menses
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Chapter
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44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What do miotic eyedrops do for a patient with glaucoma?
A) Dilate the pupil and sharpen vision
B) Lubricate and moisten the dry eye
C) Irrigate the surface of the eye
D) Constrict the pupil and open the canal of Schlemm
Q2) When the patient in the emergency room complains of seeing flashing lights and a curtain down over his right eye, the nurse recognizes this as a symptom of which condition?
A) Detached retina
B) Macular degeneration
C) Early sign of cataract
D) Diabetic retinopathy
Q3) What does diabetes retinopathy result from?
A) Capillaries in retina hemorrhage
B) Long-term overdosing of insulin
C) Retinal detachment
D) Aging
Q4) Progressive deafness caused by the ankylosis of the stapes is the condition of__________.
Q5) The total removal of an eye is a(n) ___________.
Page 54
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Chapter 53: Care of the Patient with a Neurologic Disorder
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45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following a myelogram the nurse should include in the postprocedure care assessment for:
A) elevation of blood pressure.
B) urine retention.
C) sensation in lower extremities.
D) slurred speech.
Q2) The nurse explains that the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system work to maintain homeostasis. Place in order the autonomic events. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D)
A) Parasympathetic nervous system dominates
B) Extremely stressful or frightening event
C) Blood pressure, heart rate, and adrenaline output decrease
D) Sympathetic nervous system dominates
E) Heart rate and blood pressure rise, secretion of adrenaline
Q3) What does the nurse know about the stroke patient who has expressive aphasia?
A) Has difficulty comprehending spoken and written communication
B) Cannot make any vocal sounds
C) Has total loss and comprehension of language
D) Can understand the spoken word, but cannot speak
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Page 55
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41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse arrives at the bedside of a patient who has had a unit of packed cells infusing in his right arm for 35 minutes. He is complaining of chills, itching, and shortness of breath. What should be the nurse's initial action?
A) Cover with a warm blanket
B) Take the patient's temperature
C) Elevate the head of the bed
D) Stop the transfusion and continue with saline
Q2) What is the etiology of autoimmune diseases based on?
A) Reaction to a "superantigen"
B) Immune system producing no antibodies at all
C) T cells destroying B cells
D) B and T cells producing autoantibodies
Q3) Which of the following provide the body with innate immunity? (Select all that apply.)
A) Skin and mucous membranes
B) Lungs
C) Heart
D) Tears and saliva
E) Natural intestinal and vaginal flora
F) Stomach acid
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Chapter 55: Care of the Patient with HIV/AIDS
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) ______________ is a type of sexual option classified as "no risk" for a person to become infected with the HIV virus.
Q2) Which of the following are examples of the AIDS wasting syndrome in a patient with an HIV infection? (Select all that apply.)
A) Episodes of vomiting for 20 days
B) Appearance of Kaposi sarcoma
C) Loss of 10% of body mass
D) Marked hair loss
E) Episodes of diarrhea for 30 days
Q3) To be diagnosed as having AIDS, the patient must be HIV-positive, have a compromised immune system without known immune system disease or recent organ transplant, and present with which of the following?
A) Opportunistic infection
B) A positive ELISA or Western blot test
C) Weight loss, fever, and generalized lymphedema
D) CD4+ lymphocyte count less than 200 mm3
Q4) The combination of efforts of the medical team, nutritionist, social workers, and clergy is the necessary ______________ approach to the complex needs of the patients with HIV infection.
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Chapter 56: Care of the Patient with Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has malignant cancer secondary to a high-grade lymphoma has been admitted with muscle weakness, tetany, paresthesia, and convulsion. The nurse notices the patient is being treated for tumor lysis syndrome (TLS) and initial treatment has not been successful. What should the nurse tell the family is the next step in treatment?
A) Whole blood transfusion
B) A bone marrow biopsy
C) Immediate radiation treatment
D) Dialysis
Q2) Which of the following are risk factors for cancer? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ethnicity
B) Environmental irritants
C) Alcoholism
D) Hereditary factors
E) Excessive exercise
F) Exposure to ultraviolet light
Q3) Men over age 50 should consider an annual _________ test and rectal examination.
Q4) The term ____________ refers to the process by which a normal cell is transformed into a cancer cell.
Q5) A ___________ test screens for occult blood in the stool.
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Chapter 57: Professional Roles and Leadership
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28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5511
Sample Questions
Q1) What type of leadership uses four different styles-directing, coaching, supporting, and delegating?
A) Autocratic
B) Situational
C) Democratic
D) Authoritative
Q2) A nurse may practice in another state if he or she has passed the NCLEX-PN examination in the nurse's own state and meets the other state's educational requirements. What is the process of transferring licensure from one state to another called?
A) Auxiliary
B) Co-licensure
C) Endorsement
D) Qualified licensure
Q3) Which organization specifically supports and meets the needs of the LVN/LPN?
A) NAPNES
B) NLN
C) ANA
D) NCLEX
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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