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This course introduces accounting students to the principles and practices of systems analysis and design, focusing on how to evaluate, develop, and implement information systems that support accounting functions. Emphasizing both technical and business perspectives, the course covers tools and methodologies for analyzing user requirements, modeling business processes, and designing effective accounting information systems. Students will explore topics such as systems development life cycle, internal controls, documentation techniques, and the integration of accounting software. Real-world case studies and practical projects help students understand how to align systems solutions with organizational goals, enhance data integrity, and support decision-making in the accounting environment.
Recommended Textbook
Accounting Information Systems 10th Edition by James A. Hall
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1672 Verified Questions
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96 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sales of products to customers,purchases of inventory from vendors,and cash disbursements are all examples of __________________________.
Answer: financial transactions
Q2) Which subsystem is not part of the accounting information system?
A)transaction processing system
B)expert system
C)general ledger/financial reporting system
D)management reporting system
Answer: B
Q3) Two distinct ways to structure the data processing function are ____________________ and ____________________.
Answer: centralized,distributed
Q4) Which of the following is not a production support activity?
A)maintenance
B)marketing
C)production planning
D)quality control
Answer: B

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122 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which documentation technique depicts relationship between business entities in databases?
Answer: entity relationship diagram
Q2) Why is the master file backup procedure important?
Answer: Master file backup is a standard procedure in transaction processing systems to maintain master file integrity in the event that any of the following problems should occur:
1)An update program error corrupts the master files being updated.
2)Undetected errors in the transaction data result in corrupted master file balances.
3)A disaster such as a fire or flood physically destroys current master files.
If the current master file becomes corrupted or is destroyed,corporate IT professionals can retrieve the most current backed-up file from the archives and use it to reconstruct the current version of the master file.

Q3) ______________________________________ are the two data processing approaches used in modern systems.
Answer: Batch processing and real-time processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes lapping?
A)applying cash receipts to a different customer's account in an attempt to conceal previous thefts of funds
B)inflating bank balances by transferring money among different bank accounts
C)expensing an asset that has been stolen
D)creating a false transaction
Answer: A
Q2) The text discusses a red-flag checklist of questions regarding personal traits of executives which might help uncover fraudulent activity.List three of these questions.
Answer: Questions relate to any of the following three areas in executives' lives: high personal debt,living beyond their means,engaged in habitual gambling,appearing to abuse alcohol or drugs,appearing to lack personal codes of ethics,appearing to be unstable,having close associations with suppliers
Q3) Business bankruptcy cases always involve fraudulent behavior.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Sample Questions
Q1) State two specific functions or jobs that should be segregated in the cash receipts system.
Q2) For each of the following documents,describe its purpose,the functional area preparing it,and the key data included: remittance advice,remittance list,deposit slip.
Q3) Another name for the stock release form is the picking ticket.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is automation and why is it used?
Q5) What specific internal control procedure would prevent the shipping clerk from taking goods from the storeroom and sending them to someone who had not placed an order?
Q6) The POS environment places both cash and inventory at risk.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Which document triggers the revenue cycle?
A)the sales order
B)the customer purchase order
C)the sales invoice
D)the journal voucher
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Q1) What are the six classes of physical internal controls? What is the purpose of these controls?
Q2) What is a blind copy of a purchase order and what is its purpose?
Q3) Proper segregation of duties requires that the responsibility for approving a payment be separated from posting to the cash disbursements journal.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Authorization for payment of an accounts payable liability is the responsibility of A)inventory control
B)purchasing
C)accounts payable
D)cash disbursements
Q5) In a firm with proper segregation of duties,adequate supervision is most critical in A)purchasing
B)receiving
C)accounts payable
D)general ledger
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Q1) Describe an internal control that would prevent the charging of depreciation expense to the maintenance department for a sweeper that is now located in and used by the engineering department.
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the fixed asset system?
A)Acquisitions are routine transactions requiring general authorization.
B)Retirements are reported on an authorized disposal report form.
C)Acquisition cost is allocated over the expected life of the asset.
D)Transfer of fixed assets among departments is recorded in the fixed asset subsidiary ledger.
Q3) An important reconciliation in the payroll system is
A)general ledger compares the labor distribution summary from cost accounting to the disbursement voucher from accounts payable
B)personnel compare the number of employees authorized to receive a paycheck to the number of paychecks prepared
C)production compares the number of hours reported on job tickets to the number of hours reported on time cards
D)payroll compares the labor distribution summary to the hours reported on time cards
Q4) What is recorded by the asset maintenance part of the fixed asset system?
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Q1) Which of the following is not true regarding ABC?
A)ABC is too time-consuming and complicated for practical applications over a sustained period.
B)ABC identifies the most and least profitable products and customers.
C)ABC promotes the lean manufacturing philosophies of process simplification and waste elimination.
D)All of the statements are true.
Q2) Characteristics of lean manufacturing include all of the following except A)push manufacturing
B)zero defects
C)reduced setup time and small lot sizes
D)reliable vendors
Q3) ABC assigns cost to cost objects based on their use of activities.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How can a firm control against excessive quantities of raw materials being used in the manufacturing process?
Q5) Explain why traditional cost allocation methods do not work well in a CIM environment.
Q6) Name five documents associated with batch production systems.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is not true? Responsibility accounting
A)involves both a top-down and bottom-up flow of information
B)acknowledges that some economic events cannot be traced to any manager
C)creates a budget
D)compares actual performance with budget
Q2) What is a data warehouse?
Q3) Which steps in the financial accounting process are in the correct sequence?
A)record the transaction, post to the ledger, prepare the adjusted trial balance, enter adjusting entries, prepare financial statements
B)record the transaction, prepare the unadjusted trial balance, record adjusting journal entries, record closing entries, prepare financial statements
C)record the transaction, post to the ledger, record adjusting entries, prepare the unadjusted trial balance, prepare financial statements
D)record the transaction, post to the ledger, prepare the adjusted trial balance, prepare financial statements, record closing entries
Q4) An inventory out-of-stock report is an example of a programmed,on-demand report.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Describe an environment in which a firm should use a partitioned database.
Q2) What is the partitioned database approach and what are its advantages?
Q3) The deletion anomaly in unnormalized databases
A)is easily detected by users
B)may result in the loss of important data
C)complicates adding records to the database
D)requires the user to perform excessive updates
Q4) Cardinality describes the number of possible occurrences in one table that are associated with a single occurrence in a related table.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How does the database approach solve the problem of data redundancy?
Q6) There is more than one conceptual view of the database.
A)True
B)False
Q7) What are the three data management problems caused by data redundancy?
Q8) What is a transitive dependency?
Q9) Explain how linkages between relational tables are accomplished.
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Q10) Explain the purpose of an ER diagram in database design.
Q11) Explain the three views of a database.
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Q1) Define cardinality.
Q2) The REA model is an alternative accounting framework for modeling an organization's critical resources,events,and accounts.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe the rule for assigning foreign keys in a (1:1)association
Q4) When modeling M:M associations,it is conventional to include link tables in the REA diagram so that the model reflects closely the actual database.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The duality association in an REA diagrams signifies that each economic transaction involves two agents.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Many believe that the accounting profession should shift away from financial statement reporting and toward providing information that assists decision-making. A)True
B)False

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95 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Core applications are
A)sales and distribution
B)business planning
C)shop floor control and logistics
D)all of the above
Q2) Describe the two-tier client server model.
Q3) OLAP stands for online application processing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is meant by the OLAP term: consolidation?
Q5) Why must an organization expect the implementation of an ERP to disrupt operations?
Q6) The setup of a data warehouse includes
A)modeling the data
B)extracting data from operational databases
C)cleansing the data
D)all of the above
Q7) Briefly explain the two general approaches to contingency planning for ERPs.
Q8) What is data cleansing?
Q9) What is SCM software?

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Q1) Cloud computing is the technology that has unleashed virtualization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is a URL?
Q3) A certification authority is an independent and trusted third party empowered with responsibility to vouch for the identity of organizations and individuals engaging in Internet commerce.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The rules that make it possible for users of networks to communicate are called protocols.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are network protocols? What functions do they perform?
Q6) Describe an advantage to the client-server topology.
Q7) The standard format for an e-mail address is DOMAIN NAME@USER NAME.
A)True
B)False
Q8) What is a digital signature?
Q9) Define WAN,LAN,and VAN. Page 16
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Q1) Legal feasibility identifies conflicts between the proposed system and the company's ability to discharge its legal responsibilities.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One-time costs include operating and maintenance costs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The concept of reusability is central to the structured approach to systems design.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ability of a system to protect individual privacy and confidentiality is an example of
A)schedule feasibility
B)operational feasibility
C)legal feasibility
D)economic feasibility
Q5) How is strategic systems planning related to the other SDLC activities?
Q6) List at least three one-time costs and three recurring costs in system development.
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Q1) Which of the following is true?
A)Core competency theory argues that an organization should outsource specific core assets.
B)Core competency theory argues that an organization should focus exclusively on its core business competencies.
C)Core competency theory argues that an organization should not outsource specific commodity assets.
D)Core competency theory argues that an organization should retain certain specific noncore assets in-house.
Q2) Which of the following is not true?
A)Large-scale IT outsourcing involves transferring specific assets to a vendor.
B)Specific assets, while valuable to the client, are of little value to the vendor.
C)Once an organization outsources its specific assets, it may not be able to return to its pre-outsource state.
D)Specific assets are of value to vendors because, once acquired, vendors can achieve economies of scale by employing them with other clients.
Q3) Explain the relationship between internal controls and substantive testing.
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Q1) Access controls protect databases against destruction,loss or misuse through unauthorized access.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Audit objectives for the database management system include all of the following except
A)verifying that the security group monitors and reports on fault tolerance violations
B)confirming that backup procedures are adequate
C)ensuring that authorized users access only those files they need to perform their duties
D)verifying that unauthorized users cannot access data files
Q3) An integrated group of programs that supports the applications and facilitates their access to specified resources is called a(n)
A)operating system
B)database management system
C)utility system
D)facility system
Q4) What is deep packet inspection?
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Q1) Use of the integrated test facility poses no threat to organizational data files.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The longest period in the SDLC is the maintenance phase.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which statement is not true?
A)An audit objective for systems maintenance is to detect unauthorized access to application databases.
B)An audit objective for systems maintenance is to ensure that applications are free from errors.
C)An audit objective for systems maintenance is to verify that user requests for maintenance reconcile to program version numbers.
D)An audit objective for systems maintenance is to ensure that the production libraries are protected from unauthorized access.
Q4) What are program version numbers and how are they used?
Q5) Name two methods used to control the source program library.
Q6) Describe parallel simulation.

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