Systems Administration Question
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Course Introduction
Systems Administration is a comprehensive course that introduces students to the principles and practices involved in managing and maintaining computer systems and networks. The course covers core topics such as operating system installation and configuration, user and group management, file system administration, system security, process monitoring, backup and recovery strategies, automation using scripting, and troubleshooting common issues. Students will gain practical experience with Windows, Linux, or Unix environments, learning how to ensure system reliability, optimize performance, and maintain security. By the end of the course, students will be prepared to support and administer computer systems in both enterprise and small-scale environments.
Recommended Textbook
MCITP Guide to Microsoft Windows Server 2008 Enterprise Administration 1st Edition by
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Darril Gibson
Chapter 1: Designing Active Directory Domain Services
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ____ is a group of well-connected computers or well-connected subnets.
A) domain
B) site
C) forest
D) trust
Answer: B
Q2) An Active Directory ____________________ includes one or more trees comprised of one or more domains.
Answer: Forest
Q3) Access to any resource within the domain is controlled by a(n) ____.
A) Access Control Entity
B) Discretionary Access Control Object
C) Discretionary Access Control List
D) Access Control List
Answer: C
Q4) Discuss what happens when SID filtering is disabled.
Answer: When SID filtering is disabled, it removes the security boundary between the forests and eliminates any isolation that previously existed.
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Chapter 2: Designing Physical Topology
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Sample Questions
Q1) List three questions that you should consider when designing a branch office.
Answer: Should a domain controller be placed in the site?
Should the domain controller be a writable DC or a read-only DC (RODC)?
Should the site include a DNS server?
Should the DC be a global catalog server or should Universal Group Membership Caching be enabled?
Q2) A ____ is created in Active Directory Sites and Services to represent the actual WAN links used to connect different sites.
A) site transport link
B) site link protocol
C) site link object
D) site control link
Answer: C
Q3) The physical locations of an enterprise include one or more ____________________.
Answer: subnets
Q4) If a DC fails while holding a role and you need to have another DC assume the role, you can ____________________ the role.
Answer: seize
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Chapter 3: Designing and Implementing DNS
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNS zones are indirectly associated with Active Directory.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) List and describe three improvements available if DNS is hosted on Windows Server 2008.
Answer: GlobalNames zones. DNS can be configured to resolve single-label names that have historically been resolved by Windows Internet Name Services (WINS) servers. WINS servers are used to resolve NetBIOS names, but if your organization is eliminating WINS, a GlobalNames zone (GNZ) can be implemented to resolve names for legacy clients or applications. This is especially important if an organization is migrating to an IPv6 network because IPv6 does not support WINS.
IPv6 support. DNS now fully supports the 128 bit IPv6 addresses.
RODC support. It's possible to host a read-only zone on a read-only domain controller. Background zone loading. Windows Server 2003 DNS servers could sometimes take up to an hour to reboot when it had to load a significant number of zones. Windows Server 2008 DNS servers load the zone data in the background, allowing the DNS servers to reboot quickly.
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Designing and Implementing Group Policy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Universal group membership information is only contained in the ____.
A) global catalog
B) DNS server
C) GlobalNames Zone
D) RID master
Q2) Because users see OUs, the OUs must follow a structure understood by the users.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ____ refers to how Group Policy is applied and what settings take precedence if there are problems with two conflicting settings.
A) GPO order of hiding
B) GPO order of encapsulation
C) GPO order of inheritance
D) GPO order of precedence
Q4) GPOs can be linked to either the Users container or the Computers container.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss how OUs should be named.
Q6) Discuss reasons to use OUs.
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Q7) Actual GPOs are commonly named based on their ____________________.
Chapter 5: Designing Remote Access and Terminal
Services Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) ____ server can be used for central authentication and logging.
A) Authorization, Access, and Accounting (AAA)
B) Virtual Private Network (VPN)
C) Internet Security Access (ISA)
D) Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service (RADIUS)
Q2) Hosting a server on the Internet adds minimal risk.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If NAP ____ is enabled, the SHV can direct the noncompliant client to enable a specific security solution to ensure that the client becomes compliant.
A) autoremediation
B) remediation
C) autocorrection
D) enforcement
Q4) One or more conditions can be configured for any policy, and the condition(s) determine if the policy is used.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the meaning of the term "client" with respect to RADIUS servers.
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Chapter 6: Designing and Implementing a PKI
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) ____ is a complete listing of all certificates revoked by the CA.
A) new CRL
B) delta CRL
C) alpha CRL
D) revocation CRL
Q2) After installing certificate services, the name of the computer and the domain settings cannot be changed, or AD CS will no longer function correctly.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The same public key can decrypt information encrypted with the public key.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain how you can view certificates in the Trusted Root Certification Authority.
Q5) When a public and private key are used for encryption, the process is called ____.
A) symmetric encryption
B) asymmetric encryption
C) bilateral encryption
D) dual encryption
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Securing Windows Server 2008 Servers
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regularly checking systems to ensure that they haven't been changed is called
A) compliance certification
B) compliance baselining
C) compliance auditing
D) compliance hardening
Q2) The scwcmd command ____ can be used to extend the SCW database by adding roles, tasks, services, and port definitions.
A) configure
B) rebuild
C) transform
D) register
Q3) You can perform the compliance audit with the following command: ____
A) scwcmd configure /p:PolicyPathName
B) scwcmd display /p:PolicyPathName
C) scwcmd analyze /p:PolicyPathandName
D) scwcmd baseline /p:PolicyPathName
Q4) Explain how to install WSUS.
Q5) List and explain the three parts to the Microsoft SD³+C approach.
Q6) List and explain one concern when considering adding WSUS to a network.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Designing High Availability and Business
Continuity
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Sample Questions
Q1) There's no difference between fault tolerance at the disk level and at the server level.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How can load balancing and fault tolerance be achieved?
Q3) Active Directory uses ____ to identify the most current version of all objects.
A) Target Sequence Numbers
B) Activity Sequence Numbers
C) Update Sequence Numbers
D) Version Sequence Numbers
Q4) Describe how an authoritative restore of a single record will be properly replicated to the remainder of the directory.
Q5) Failover clusters can be used to provide fault tolerance at the disk level.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A(n) ___________________ is a group of independent servers configured together to provide high availability of a service or application.
Q7) ___________________ rules are used to identify the traffic that will be balanced by the NLB cluster.
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Chapter 9: Designing Supporting Services
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Sample Questions
Q1) DFS replication is used to group shared folders stored on different servers into a single Universal Naming Convention (UNC) path.
A)True
B)False
Q2) List two applications through which RMS can be used to protect documents.
Q3) List two problems that loss of data can cause for a company.
Q4) List and describe two events or actions that can cause a BitLocker drive to enter recovery mode.
Q5) Microsoft ____________________ is a full range of supporting server products designed to enhance and automate the administration of large networks within an enterprise.
Q6) The ____ mode provides full support by encrypting entire hard drives and performing a system validation check.
A) BitLocker with a TPM
B) BitLocker with TPM and a PIN
C) BitLocker with TPM and a startup key
D) BitLocker with a startup key (but without TPM)
Q7) Provide an overview of how SCOM is used.
Q8) List and describe a method of configuring DFS namespaces.
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Chapter 10: Designing Virtualization Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hyper-V can be added to a virtual server using Microsoft Virtual PC or Windows Virtual PC.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the System Center Application Virtualization Streaming Server.
Q3) List and describe the two primary components of Microsoft Application Virtualization.
Q4) Virtual disks are configured as ___________________ expanding disks.
Q5) With application virtualization, terminal services can be used to host entire desktops or applications.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ____ is called Intel VT for Intel-based systems and AMD-V for AMD-based systems.
A) Hardware-assisted virtualization
B) Hardware application manager
C) Hardware-assisted manager
D) Virtual application manager
Q7) Describe the Microsoft SoftGrid Application Virtualization for Desktops.
Q8) ___________________ allows a single physical server to support multiple virtual servers.
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