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Survey of Biology provides a comprehensive overview of fundamental biological concepts, exploring topics such as the scientific method, cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, biodiversity, ecology, and human biology. Designed for non-majors and those new to the biological sciences, the course emphasizes critical thinking and practical applications of biology in everyday life. Through lectures, discussions, and hands-on activities, students gain an understanding of how living organisms interact with each other and their environments, laying the groundwork for more advanced studies in the life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Science for Life with Physiology Edition 5th Edition by Colleen M. Belk
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79 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Deductive reasoning is used to make ________ based on a hypothesis.
A) correlations
B) data
C) predictions
D) statistical tests
Answer: C
Q2) Which type of study observes specific human populations for unusually high levels of a disease?
A) a case-control study
B) a cross-sectional survey
C) an ecological study
D) a correlational experiment
Answer: C
Q3) What is the specialized branch of mathematics that is used to compare data?
A) epidemiology
B) computational mathematics
C) cross-sectional mathematics
D) statistics
Answer: D

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Q1) What is the pH of a neutral solution?
A) 1
B) 5
C) 7
D) 9
Answer: C
Q2) Which component of amino acids accounts for the differences in their properties?
A) the amino group
B) the carboxyl group
C) the side group
D) the type of bonds
Answer: C
Q3) What is the fundamental structural unit of life on Earth?
Answer: cell
Q4) Which component of cholesterol would classify it as a lipid?
A) carbohydrates
B) phosphates
C) glycerol
D) hydrocarbons
Answer: D
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Q1) What type of fatty acids include omega-3 and omega-6?
Answer: essential fatty acids
Q2) What type of molecules, embedded in phospholipid bilayers, transport hydrophilic molecules into or out of the cell?
A) carbohydrates
B) proteins
C) nucleic acids
D) lipids
Answer: B
Q3) How would the permeability of the phospholipid bilayer of plasma membranes be described?
A) The bilayer is always impermeable to small molecules.
B) The bilayer is always permeable to charged atoms and molecules.
C) The bilayer is differentially permeable.
D) The bilayer is impermeable to all atoms and molecules.
Answer: C
Q4) What are the "work-bench" structures where cell proteins are assembled?
Answer: ribosomes
Q5) What is the compartment in a eukaryotic cell where DNA is stored as chromatin?
Answer: nucleus
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Q1) What is the resting energy requirement of a person who is awake but not active? (three words)
Q2) What proteins, working in series, catalyze the reactions of the citric acid cycle?
Q3) What is the name of the protein channel where H ions escape into the matrix of the mitochondrion?
A) ATP synthase
B) OAA
C) grana
D) pyruvic acid
Q4) What would happen if activation energy barriers didn't exist?
A) Substrates would not bind properly to enzymes.
B) Chemical reactions in the body would never occur.
C) Coenzymes would not work, but enzyme function would not be affected.
D) All chemical reactions in the body would proceed whether they were needed or not.
Q5) What weight classification would include a person with a BMI of 23?
Q6) What are the two molecules produced by cellular respiration?
Q7) What 3-carbon molecules are produced when a 6-carbon glucose is broken down during glycolysis? (two words)
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Q1) What can happen to the carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?
A) It can be released into space from the atmosphere.
B) It can be converted to glucose by plants.
C) It can be converted into carbon monoxide by the oceans.
D) It can react with nitrogen to form fossil fuels.
Q2) How does the greenhouse effect work?
A) Rocks, soil, and water on Earth's surface absorb sunlight energy and radiate it as heat.
B) Sunlight energy passes through the transparent water of the oceans and heats up the Earth's core.
C) Some sunlight that hits Earth radiates toward space, but some is held by the atmosphere.
D) All the sunlight energy striking Earth bounces off the planet and radiates into space.
Q3) Which equation represents photosynthesis?
A) 6CO + 6O + sunlight C H O6 + 6H O
B) 6H O + 6CO + sunlight C H O + 6O
C) C H O + 6O + sunlight 6CO + 6H O
D) O + H O + sunlight C H O + CO
Q4) Inside which specialized organelle does photosynthesis occur?
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Q1) If a double-stranded DNA molecule is like a twisted rope ladder with handrails and steps, what would the steps in the ladder represent?
A) phosphate groups
B) sugar (deoxyribose) molecules
C) nitrogenous bases
D) DNA polymerase
Q2) During the metaphase checkpoint, what information is being checked by the cell?
A) if it is large enough to divide
B) if its DNA has been replicated correctly
C) if its chromosomes are properly attached to microtubules
D) if there are sufficient nutrients available
Q3) What are specialized cells (egg cells and sperm cells, for example) used for sexual reproduction?
Q4) What are the two halves of a duplicated chromosome? (two words)
Q5) During which meiotic phase does crossing over occur?
A) anaphase I of meiosis I
B) anaphase II of meiosis II
C) prophase I of meiosis I
D) prophase II of meiosis II
Q6) What enzyme assists in DNA synthesis? (two words)
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Q1) What may result if a mutation occurs in a gene?
A) There may be no effect on the protein encoded by the gene.
B) A nonfunctional protein may be created.
C) A protein with a new function will not be formed.
D) The phenotype of the organism may be changed.
Q2) What other term describes fraternal twins?
A) dizygotic
B) identical
C) monozygotic
D) heterozygous
Q3) If DNA is like an instruction manual, what would be similar to the typographical errors that may result when the DNA manual is transcribed?
A) dominant alleles
B) recessive alleles
C) mutations
D) homologous chromosomes
Q4) What term refers to the physical traits of an organism?
Q5) What is the estimated influence of genes (as opposed to environment) on a trait called?
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Q6) What term refers to the genetic makeup of an organism?
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Q1) Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive trait in humans. If phenotypically normal parents have children without hemophilia, what information could be determined by a pedigree analysis?
A) Neither parent carries the hemophiliac allele.
B) None of their children is a carrier of the hemophilia allele.
C) None of their children could have hemophiliac children.
D) The exact genotypes of the parents or children
Q2) What genetic information is indicated by describing a person as having hemophilia?
A) genotype
B) phenotype
C) genetic code
D) number of chromosomes
Q3) What does the acronym VNTR mean?
A) variable number tandem repeats
B) varied nucleotides to repeat
C) volumes of nucleotide tandem repeats
D) variation of nucleotide terminal repeats
Q4) In human ABO blood types, what description applies to the alleles for A and B because they're both expressed?
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Q1) What type of mutation produces no significant change in a functional protein?
A) frameshift mutation
B) substitution mutation
C) normal mutation
D) neutral mutation
Q2) Which molecule remains in the nucleus during protein synthesis?
A) DNA
B) tRNA
C) mRNA
D) rRNA
Q3) What signal, when present at the ribosome, causes protein synthesis to end?
A) DNA
B) tRNA
C) a stop codon
D) RNA polymerase
Q4) What is the nucleotide sequence on a section of DNA where transcription begins?
A) polymerase
B) palindrome
C) promoter
D) codon
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Q1) Which statement best describes the now-discredited theories of Lamarck?
A) All life was created in the form we see today.
B) Modern life forms are the descendants of past individuals who were the most fit.
C) Organisms acquire traits during their lifetime and pass those traits on to their offspring.
D) Earth is extremely old and has undergone many changes.
Q2) You discover a butterfly that has some similarity to members of the species Faunis canens, but it also has a few important differences. What taxonomic level would best describe your new discovery?
A) order
B) family
C) species
D) genus
Q3) Which scientist also proposed a mechanism for evolution similar to natural selection?
A) Charles Lyell
B) Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
C) Alfred Russel Wallace
D) Robert FitzRoy
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Q1) You notice that some squirrels in your neighborhood have a much darker coat color than most of the other squirrels. Is this darker color an adaptation?
A) Yes, all variations are adaptations.
B) No, adaptations are traits developed when they're needed to help an organism survive.
C) You can't know unless you can know the coat color of the dark squirrel's parents.
D) The trait is only an adaptation if it gives the squirrels an advantage in their habitat.
Q2) True or false: Natural selection is only one of several possible causes of evolution. A)True
B)False
Q3) What process could result from the natural selection explained by Darwin in his book The Origin of Species?
Q4) Artificial selection occurs when an organism's fitness is controlled by ________.
Q5) What is the raw material for evolution?
Q6) What traits increase fitness in a particular environment?
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Q1) You read that the frequency of a particular disease-associated recessive allele in a population is 12%. What does that mean?
A) 12% of the population has the disease caused by that allele.
B) 12% of the population is a carrier for that disease.
C) For every 100 people, there are 12 copies of the allele.
D) The allele is present in 12% of the cells in your body.
Q2) Which scenario best describes the terms "subspecies" and "race"?
A) a population of rabbits that lives near a lake and sometimes breeds with rabbits farther inland
B) two populations of birds that have different amounts of orange coloration and could produce offspring if they were not separated by a mountain range
C) two populations of frogs that cannot produce offspring
D) a breed of dog with a longhaired coat instead of a shorthaired coat
Q3) You read that two populations of hyena are different subspecies. How would these populations compare?
A) They could produce fertile offspring together.
B) One group would be much larger than the other group.
C) Their mating behavior would be quite different.
D) They would have different diets.
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Q1) Which statement describes viruses?
A) Viruses are living cells that can invade other organisms.
B) Viruses use energy to perform life functions.
C) Viruses use host cells to make more viruses.
D) Viruses will die unless they are inside an organism.
Q2) What is the adaptive value of natural antibiotic production for fungi?
A) Bacteria use fungi for food.
B) Bacteria spoil the food that the fungi need for their own nutrition.
C) Bacteria are the main competitors with fungi for food.
D) Bacteria inhibit the reproduction of fungi.
Q3) In order to construct an evolutionary classification of modern-day aquatic vertebrates, what is the best source of information?
A) the DNA sequence
B) the structure of organs
C) the position of appendages
D) the distribution of scales
Q4) True or false: Mitochondria and chloroplasts of eukaryotic cells are very similar to prokaryotes.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Red maple tree seeds are dispersed by the wind. This species of tree can be found in fields, woods, and even wetlands. What type of distribution applies to this example?
A) clumped
B) uniform
C) random
D) normal
Q2) True or false: Scientists agree on the size of the carrying capacity of Earth for the human population.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which factor may result in the actual carrying capacity of our planet being lower than initially calculated?
A) The average American uses more resources than someone from another country.
B) Modern food production relies on nonrenewable resources.
C) NPP has been decreasing.
D) The human population is growing much faster than was previously thought.
Q4) True or false: A population can be clumped at one scale and uniform at another.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What is the "psychological need" that many humans have for nature?
A) mutualism
B) commensalism
C) community
D) biophilia
Q2) How many mass extinctions were experienced on a global scale before the alarming mass extinction that's now occurring?
A) six
B) five
C) two
D) none
Q3) In the heart of Costa Rica there's a private reserve called Rara Avis. Here, one can hike high into the mountains of a tropical cloud forest to take guided nature hikes and learn about this unique ecosystem. What principle applies to this tactic of habitat preservation?
A) critical habitat designation
B) ecotourism
C) regulations
D) exploitation
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Q1) Earth's axis is tilted away from the sun during ________ and toward the sun during ________ in the Northern Hemisphere.
A) winter; summer
B) summer; winter
C) spring; fall
D) fall; spring
Q2) Which biome has the most biomass per unit area?
A) boreal forest
B) tundra
C) temperate forest
D) tropical forest
Q3) What biome includes an environment where the plants are low to the ground and many boggy areas are found?
A) a boreal forest
B) a savanna
C) a tundra
D) a prairie
Q4) In a general sense, ________ refers to short term environmental conditions, and ________ refers to long term environmental conditions.
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Q1) In nature, how does an ectothermic animal maintain a constant body temperature on a cold day?
A) by basking in a sunny location
B) by increasing its rate of metabolism without basking
C) by eating more food, which creates heat as it's burned for energy
D) by shivering
Q2) The liver filters which of the following from the blood?
A) toxins
B) chyme
C) hepatocytes
D) glycogen
Q3) What is responsible for voluntary movement?
A) conscious thought and cardiac muscle
B) conscious thought and striated muscle
C) conscious thought and smooth muscle
D) unconscious thought and smooth muscle
Q4) What tissue type protects the body from water loss?
Q5) What example of homeostasis includes the maintenance of constant internal body temperature?
Q6) What connective tissue is made from substances secreted by osteocytes?
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Q1) Which organ system acts upon substances contained in the alimentary canal?
A) circulatory system
B) digestive system
C) integumentary system
D) excretory system
Q2) Valuable substances in filtrate are returned to the blood through what process?
A) filtration
B) reabsorption
C) secretion
D) excretion
Q3) Why do gallstones form in the gallbladder?
A) The gallbladder doesn't function at all.
B) The gallbladder removes too much water from bile.
C) The gallbladder converts bile into crystallized calcium propionate.
D) The gallbladder fills with dead hepatocytes.
Q4) What description applies to accessory organs?
A) They aren't included in organ systems.
B) They secrete enzymes required for digestion.
C) They don't contain connective tissue.
D) They assist other organs in the circulatory system.
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Q1) About how many years after quitting smoking does it take for the risk of heart disease and death to return to the levels similar to those seen in people who never smoked?
A) 1
B) 5
C) 10
D) 15
Q2) What action does the respiratory system require signals from the nervous system to perform?
A) enhancing the amount of available oxygen in the lungs
B) coordinating the muscles controlling breathing
C) releasing enzymes to increase the exchange of gases
D) exchanging gases with the circulatory system
Q3) What term describes the many components of tobacco smoke that are known to cause cancer?
Q4) What is the physiological cause of a heart attack?
A) rupture of coronary arteries
B) a blood clot moving through the heart
C) a blood clot lodging in a blood vessel supplying the heart
D) scar tissue in the heart muscle
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Q1) Why does HIV cause disease in people?
A) It produces a toxin.
B) It destroys helper T cells.
C) It stimulates the growth of memory cells.
D) It causes the loss of plasma nutrients.
Q2) You suffer a bee sting that leaves a red mark and is warm as well as itchy. What actions would be blocked by the medication that would be best to treat this body reaction?
A) interferons
B) complement proteins
C) pyrogens
D) histamine
Q3) Refer to the figure to answer the following question: During which step in replication is the virus dependent upon the use of its own reverse transcriptase?
A) Step 1
B) Step 2
C) Step 3
D) Step 4
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Q1) How does a sarcomere shorten using the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction?
A) Actin and myosin filaments shorten and slide past each other.
B) As they slide past each other, actin filaments shorten, while myosin filaments do not shorten.
C) Actin and myosin filaments do not shorten, but they do slide past each other.
D) As they slide past each other, myosin filaments shorten, while actin filaments do not shorten.
Q2) You are a famous endocrinologist and are presented with a case in which a genetically determined male (XY) exhibits secondary female characteristics, including breast development and lack of facial hair growth. What may you hypothesize about this patient?
A) He may lack receptors for testosterone.
B) He may have a tumor in his testes causing an overproduction of testosterone.
C) He may be abusing steroids.
D) He may actually be perfectly healthy and normal.
Q3) True or false: Studies have shown that a woman's life expectancy is diminished due to menstruation.
A)True B)False

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Q1) Which condition decreases the probability that fertilization will take place?
A) Cervical mucus is less viscous and thinner following ovulation.
B) The oviducts contract during ovulation.
C) Enzymes are present within the acrosome of sperm.
D) The upper vagina is an acidic environment.
Q2) Where are the hormone-producing cells of the male reproductive tract?
A) in the seminal vesicles
B) in the Leydig cells
C) in the bulbourethral glands
D) in the prostate gland
Q3) What are the three structures that add secretions to the sperm to make up semen?
A) seminal vesicles, Leydig cells, and prostate gland
B) prostate gland, seminal vesicles, and seminiferous tubules
C) bulbourethral glands, Leydig cells, and seminal vesicles
D) seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and bulbourethral gland
Q4) Which hormone is detected in a pregnancy test?
A) human chorionic gonadotropin hormone made by the early embryo
B) progesterone made by the corpus luteum
C) luteinizing hormone made by the pituitary
D) estrogen made by the ovary
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Q1) What is the function of glial cells?
A) They carry messages.
B) They protect and cushion the brain.
C) They support neurons by supplying nutrients.
D) They move waste products out of the brain.
Q2) How would the speed at which the electrochemical impulse travels down the axon be affected by decreased myelination of an axon?
A) It would decrease.
B) It would increase.
C) It would maximize.
D) It would have no effect.
Q3) What process occurs when potassium ions diffuse out of a nerve cell and the inside of the cell again becomes more negative than the outside?
A) depolarization
B) polarization
C) repolarization
D) threshold
Q4) What system is composed of the spinal cord and brain?
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Q1) In flowering plants, eggs are to ovules as
A) sperm are to pollen.
B) sperm are to anthers.
C) pollen is to carpels.
D) pollen is to sepals.
Q2) When does fertilization occur in flowering plants?
A) Pollen grains land on the anthers of the female flower parts.
B) The female carpels and male anthers are united.
C) Sperm join with eggs inside the ovules.
D) Pollen joins with eggs inside the stigma.
Q3) Which type of plant would be the most nutritionally valuable to a human?
A) a plant that has no ground tissue
B) a plant with 10% ground tissue and 90% vascular tissue
C) a plant with minimal reproductive organs
D) a plant with 90% ground tissue and 10% vascular tissue
Q4) In what structure is the sperm of a flowering plant contained?
A) stigma
B) carpel
C) pollen
D) spore
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Q1) Which structures are the water-conducting cells in mosses?
A) xylem cells
B) vessel elements
C) tracheids
D) hydroids
Q2) If the sugary phloem sap in a fruit tree is divided into many sugar sinks, then how will each individual fruit be affected?
A) The fruit will be small and sugary.
B) The fruit will be large and sugary.
C) The fruit will be small and diluted.
D) The fruit will be large and diluted.
Q3) How can plants change rates of transpiration?
A) by changing the size of stomata openings
B) by making a cellulose plug in the xylem tubes
C) by promoting flowering
D) by reducing cohesion
Q4) What is the response of a plant to the proportion of light and dark in a day?
Q5) Which plants live for many years and produce flowers every year?
Q6) What are the narrow, tapering cells found in the xylem tubes of drought-adapted plant species?
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