Course Introduction
Survey of Biology
Exam Answer Key
Survey of Biology provides a comprehensive overview of fundamental biological principles and concepts, including cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. The course introduces students to the scientific methods used in biological research, explores the role of biology in addressing contemporary issues, and examines the interconnectedness of living systems. Emphasis is placed on developing critical thinking and scientific literacy, making the course ideal both for students pursuing further studies in science and those seeking a general understanding of living organisms and their environments.
Recommended Textbook
Biology The Essentials 1st Edition by Marille Hoefnagels
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30 Chapters
2596 Verified Questions
2596 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Scientific Study of Life
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68 Verified Questions
68 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the section "Investigating Life: The Orchid and the Moth," what is the advantage to the orchid of having an 11-inch long nectar tube?
A)It can produce nectar over a larger area and attract more pollinators.
B)It can collect more rainwater.
C)It can be fertilized only by the largest moths.
D)It can collect more sunlight for photosynthesis.
E)It can trap insects as a source of nutrients.
Answer: C
Q2) A theory is an advanced hypothesis that has been proven to be true.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which is the correct sequence for levels of biological organization within an organism?
A)atom - molecule - organelle - cell - tissue
B)molecule - atom - organelle - tissue - cell
C)cell - organelle - atom - tissue - molecule
D)organelle - molecule - atom - tissue - cell
E)atom - organelle - molecule - cell - tissue
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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80 Verified Questions
80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A base
A)has a value of 7 on the pH scale.
B)is a chemical that adds hydrogen ions to a solution.
C)is a chemical that absorbs hydrogen ions from a solution.
D)has a value below 7 on the pH scale.
Answer: C
Q2) The mass number of an atom is defined as
A)the total number of protons,neutrons,and electrons of an atom.
B)the total number of protons and electrons of an atom.
C)the total number of protons and neutrons of an atom.
D)the total number of neutrons and electrons of an atom.
E)the total number of protons of an atom.
Answer: C
Q3) How are the monomers in proteins joined?
A)phosphodiester bonds between amino acids
B)peptide bonds between amino acids
C)peptide bonds between nucleotides
D)phosphodiester bonds between nucleotides
E)peptide bonds between carbohydrates
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Endosymbiosis is a theory based on the resemblance of chloroplasts and ribosomes to bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) A junction that is a protein channel linking the cytoplasm of adjacent cells is called
A)a tight junction.
B)a gap junction.
C)an adhering junction.
D)an anchoring junction.
E)a microtubular junction.
Answer: B
Q3) Unlike most organelles,chloroplasts and mitochondria contain
A)only one membrane.
B)ribosomes,DNA,and double membranes.
C)DNA and cilia.
D)cilia and flagella.
E)singles membranes and ribosomes.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Energy of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) When NaCl (table salt)forms,sodium (Na)loses energy by ______ and chlorine (Cl)gains energy by ______.
A)giving up an electron in oxidation;gaining an electron in reduction
B)going with its concentration gradient;going against its concentration gradient
C)going against its concentration gradient;going with its concentration gradient
D)gaining an electron in oxidation;by giving up an electron in reduction
E)gaining an electron in reduction;giving up an electron in oxidation
Q2) The amount of energy required to raise the temperature of one kilogram of water by one degree Celsius is a
A)calorie.
B)joule.
C)kilocalorie.
D)measure of density.
E)measure of light.
Q3) Enzymes speed chemical reactions by
A)lowering the amount of reactants that are needed.
B)maintaining temperature.
C)lowering the energy required to start a chemical reaction.
D)raising the temperature of the surroundings.
E)supplying energy to the reaction process.
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Chapter 5: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) For many plants to grow well in hot,dry weather,they must be watered so their stomata will remain open for longer periods of time to let in oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which plants are best suited to cool,wet conditions?
A)C<sub>4</sub>
B)C<sub>3</sub>
C)CAM
D)All types are equally suiteD.
Q3) Why are accessory pigments necessary in photosystems?
A)They capture a wider spectrum of wavelengths of light.
B)They donate electrons to the reaction center.
C)They split water into hydrogen ions and oxygen.
D)They conduct the carbon reactions of photosynthesis.
Q4) The carbon reactions of photosynthesis can occur in the day or night.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Green and yellow wavelengths of light are useless to most plants.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: How Cells Release Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cell produces approximately 30 ATP per glucose molecule.However,if you calculated the total energy in a glucose molecule,90 ATP should be generated.What is the best explanation for this difference?
A)Some of the energy is destroyed.
B)Scientists have not figured out where the rest of the energy goes.
C)ATP has more energy than originally thought.
D)Some of the energy is used to do work in the cell.
E)Some energy is lost as heat.
Q2) The products of fermentation can be converted to reactants of aerobic respiration.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Plants are
A)net O<sub>2</sub> consumers and CO<sub>2</sub> producers.
B)net O<sub>2</sub> producers and CO<sub>2</sub> consumers.
C)net O<sub>2</sub> and CO<sub>2</sub> producers.
D)net O<sub>2</sub> and CO<sub>2</sub> consumers.
E)able to conduct photosynthesis,not cellular respiration.
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Chapter 7: DNA Structure and Gene Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amanatin is a toxin found in the death cap mushroom,Amanita phalloides.It inhibits RNA polymerase,thus blocking
A)transcription.
B)translation.
C)replication.
D)cell division.
E)RNA splicing.
Q2) Although antibiotics do not kill viruses,they offer promise for destroying viroids and prions because of their actions on cell ribosomes and enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What type of RNA carries the information that specifies a protein?
A)transfer RNA
B)ribosomal RNA
C)messenger RNA
D)double-stranded RNA
E)complementary RNA
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9
Chapter 8: DNA Replication and Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) The enzyme that unwinds DNA is A)helicase.
B)interphase.
C)DNA polymerase.
D)prophase.
E)ligasE.
Q2) During cytokinesis of a plant cell,the cell divides by forming a cleavage furrow.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A part of a chromosome that attaches sister chromatids to each other defines the term
A)chromatin.
B)nucleosome.
C)centromere.
D)histone.
E)None of the answers are correct
Q4) Replication takes place during the G1 phase of interphase.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process by which a bacterium uses a sex pilus to transfer genetic information to another bacterium is
A)meiosis.
B)mutation.
C)mitosis.
D)conjugation.
E)sexual reproduction.
Q2) What creates genetically-different offspring in both asexual and sexual reproduction?
A)mutations
B)mitosis
C)meiosis
D)mutations and mitosis
E)mitosis and meiosis
Q3) What two processes results in genetically-different products?
A)mitosis and meiosis
B)mitosis and asexual reproduction
C)meiosis and asexual reproduction
D)meiosis and sexual reproduction
E)mitosis and sexual reproduction
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Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common allele for any trait is always the dominant allele.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A monohybrid cross is a mating between two individuals that are both
A)homozygous for one gene.
B)heterozygous for two genes.
C)homozygous for two genes.
D)heterozygous for one gene.
E)None of the answers are correct.
Q3) If you cross RrYy and RRyy pea plants,what fraction of the offspring will have round peas? R=round,r=wrinkled,Y=yellow,y=green
A)50%
B)75%
C)100%
D)25%
E)0%
Q4) Mendel's law of segregation states that the two alleles of each gene are packaged into separate gametes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: DNA Technology
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50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is used to ensure absence of a specific genetic disorder through selection of embryos for in vitro fertilization?
A)preimplantation genetic diagnosis
B)genetic testing
C)gene therapy
D)somatic cell nuclear transfer
E)All answers are correct.
Q2) How does DNA profiling detect genetic differences between individuals?
A)uses short tandem repeats and other variable parts of the genome
B)uses shared genetic sequences
C)uses entire genomes
D)All answers are correct.
E)uses only coding regions of the genome
Q3) Cloning results in two genetically-identical cells/organisms;sexual reproduction results in genetically-different cells/organisms.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Forces of Evolutionary Change
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70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) At Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
A)allele frequencies change from one generation to the next so evolution occurs.
B)None of the answers are correct.
C)allele frequencies change from one generation to the next so evolution does not occur.
D)allele frequencies remain constant from one generation to the next so evolution does not occur.
E)allele frequencies remain constant from one generation to the next so evolution occurs.
Q2) Ancestors of giraffes with shorter necks could not reach branches high up in trees for food.This led to ____ for giraffes with longer necks.
A)stabilizing selection
B)disruptive selection
C)artificial selection
D)sexual selection
E)directional selection
Q3) Evolution occurs in individuals,not populations.
A)True
B)False
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Evidence of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) If many genes from two species differ in about 5% of their bases and substitutions occur at an estimated rate of 5% per one million years then
A)approximately 1 million years have passed since the two species diverged.
B)approximately 5 million years have passed since the two species diverged.
C)approximately 10 million years have passed since the two species diverged.
D)approximately 20 million years have passed since the two species divergeD.
E)approximately 50 million years have passed since the two species diverged.
Q2) If many human genes differ in about 10% of their bases from another species' same genes and substitutions occur at an estimated rate of 2% per one million years then
A)approximately 5 million years have passed since the two species diverged.
B)approximately 3 million years have passed since the two species diverged.
C)approximately 10 million years have passed since the two species diverged.
D)approximately 20 million years have passed since the two species divergeD.
E)approximately 200,000 years have passed since the two species diverged.
Q3) The abundant presence of ammonite fossils in a large area indicates that the area was once part of an ocean.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Speciation and Extinction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A sterile mule is produced by mating a horse and a donkey.This is an example of ____ reproductive isolation.
A)prezygotic
B)allopatric
C)sympatric
D)outgroup
E)postzygotic
Q2) In the section "Investigating Life: Birds Do It,Bees Do It",M.lewisii and M.cardinalis are different species for which reason?
A)If they breed they do not form viable offspring.
B)If they breed they do not form fertile offspring.
C)They live on different continents.
D)They do not breed in the wilD.
E)They do not look alikE.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an example of macroevolution?
A)One species of birds evolves feathers.
B)One species of birds evolves into many species of birds.
C)One species of dinosaurs evolves into the first mammal.
D)One species of mammals evolves into a new species of mammal.
E)All answers are correct.
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Chapter 15: Evolution and Diversity of Microbial Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) African sleeping sickness is caused by Trypanosoma brucei,a unicellular,flagellated protist that infects red blood cells after entering the bloodstream.African sleeping sickness is transmitted by
A)ingesting food.
B)contaminated water.
C)sexual intercourse.
D)the bite of an insect.
E)exhaled aerosols.
Q2) DNA sequence evidence suggests that plants,fungi,and animals arose from different lineages of unicellular protists.This suggests which of the following?
A)Protists evolved before the other three kingdoms.
B)Early ancestors to plants,fungi,and animals could interbreed.
C)Multicellular organisms arose only once in evolutionary history.
D)All unicellular organisms are now extinct.
E)The animal,plant,and fungal kingdoms contain some single celled organisms.
Q3) A mushroom is a dikaryotic structure of Basidiomycota.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Evolution and Diversity of Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mosses are an example of which of the following?
A)autotrophs
B)primary consumers
C)detritovores
D)decomposers
E)heterotrophs
Q2) A plant embryo (young sporophyte)packaged with a food supply in a tough outer coat is a
A)flower.
B)pollen grain.
C)seed.
D)sperm.
E)fruit.
Q3) The cones of gymnosperms play the same role as ______ in angiosperms.
A)flowers
B)seeds
C)leaves
D)fruit
E)roots
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Evolution and Diversity of Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mammals that lay eggs are marsupials.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Octopuses and squids are cephalopods and are members of which group?
A)echinoderms
B)arthropods
C)amphibians
D)cnidarians
E)mollusks
Q3) The only living member of the genus Homo is Homo habilis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In animals,a sphere of embryonic cells surrounding a fluid-filled cavity is called a A)gastrovascular cavity.
B)blastula.
C)coelom.
D)gastrula.
E)hydrostatic skeleton.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In 2010,India had a population of 1,170,000,000,a birth rate of 0.027,and a death rate of 0.013.What was the growth rate of India's population?
A)0.027
B)0.013
C)0.014
D)0.040
E)0.001
Q2) Predation of deer by wolves is an example of a A)density-independent limit.
B)density-codependent limit.
C)density-dependent limit.
D)death-dependent factor.
E)death-independent factor.
Q3) Why have human growth rates increased the most in developing countries in the past 50 years?
A)Death rates have fallen more slowly than birth rates.
B)Death rates have gone up faster than birth rates.
C)Death rates have fallen faster than birth rates.
D)Death rates have gone up more slowly than birth rates.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Communities and Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A food chain is a series of organisms that
A)successively transfer energy,initially from the sun,to nutrition from eating others.
B)share the same niche.
C)exhibit mutualism with each other.
D)share the same energy source.
E)succeed one another as a climax community develops.
Q2) Species that are the first to colonize an area are termed
A)keystone species.
B)primary species.
C)tertiary species.
D)pioneer species.
E)secondary species.
Q3) In the section "Investigating Life: Two Kingdoms and a Virus Team Up to Beat the Heat",what is the dependent variable in the figure?
A)number of plants that could grow at 37<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
B)number of plants that could grow at 65<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
C)number of plants that died at 65<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
D)number of plants that died at 37<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Preserving Biodiversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Since the Endangered Species Act of 1973 was passed,about ______ species of animals and ______ species of plants and lichens have been placed on the list of threatened or endangered species.
A)575,750
B)200,100
C)1050,2375
D)375,350
E)20,50
Q2) Canvasback ducks and bog turtles are likely impacted by purple loosestrife by A)loss of food.
B)loss of diversity.
C)overexploitation.
D)pollution.
E)climate changE.
Q3) Conservation biologists study the preservation of biodiversity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Since the 1950s,only 1% of the ocean's large predatory fish have disappeared. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Plant Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pores through which leaves exchange gases with the atmosphere are
A)epidermal cells.
B)sieve tube elements.
C)guard cells.
D)petioles.
E)stomata.
Q2) A potato stores a lot of starch.Which of the following tissues would you expect to be most abundant in a potato?
A)dermal tissue
B)vascular tissue
C)ground tissue
D)equal amounts of ground and dermal tissue
E)equal amounts of dermal and vascular tissue
Q3) The main vegetative parts of plants include
A)roots,flowers,and stems.
B)fruits,flowers,and leaves.
C)roots,stems,and leaves.
D)stems,roots,flowers,leaves,and fruits.
E)flowers and fruits only.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Reproduction and Development of Flowering
Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) A tissue formed from a triploid nucleus and that stores food for the developing plant embryo is the A)endosperm.
B)endoderm.
C)mesosperm.
D)mesoderm.
E)microsporE.
Q2) The main pollinators of flowers that are easy to locate at night are A)beetles. B)birds.
C)bats and moths.
D)bees.
E)flies.
Q3) Whorl three of a flower is made up of
A)the female reproductive parts of a flower.
B)the male reproductive parts of a flower.
C)the sepals.
D)the petals.
E)the stem region.
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Chapter 23: Animal Tissues and Organ Systems
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Q1) The simple squamous cells found in the glomeruli would have which function?
A)secrete and propel mucus
B)secrete and absorb substances
C)protect areas subject to abrasion
D)secrete hormones
E)allow exchange of substances by diffusion and osmosis
Q2) The systems that coordinate communication are
A)skeletal and muscular.
B)circulatory and respiratory.
C)nervous and endocrine.
D)digestive and circulatory.
E)urinary and immunE.
Q3) Which of the following animal tissues has control over the other tissues and is found in all organ systems?
A)epithelial
B)connective
C)muscular
D)nervous
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25
Chapter 24: Nervous System and the Senses
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Q1) The type of neuron that brings information toward the central nervous system is the A)synaptic neuron.
B)interneuron.
C)motor neuron.
D)sensory neuron.
E)neuroglia.
Q2) When a snake flicks its tongue the tips of the forked tongue pass through openings in the palate and contact sensory cells in the snout.How would this help a snake detect its prey?
A)The snout touches the prey,stimulating mechanoreceptors that let the snake identify the prey.
B)The snake can taste its prey when it bites it to tell if it is edible.
C)The motion of the tongue moves air over the snake's snout,helping it to smell.
D)The tongue touches the prey,stimulating mechanoreceptors that let the snake identify the prey.
E)Odor molecules from the prey are brought to the snake's receptors.
Q3) Rod cells provide color vision and allow us to see at night.
A)True
B)False
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Page 26
Chapter 25: The Endocrine System
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Q1) Which of the following is an endocrine gland?
A)pancreas
B)thyroid gland
C)ovaries
D)testes
E)All answers are correct.
Q2) Which of the following would be the primary target for ADH?
A)pancreas
B)mammary gland
C)testes
D)kidney
E)ovaries
Q3) If a person requires insulin injections they most likely suffer from
A)type 1 diabetes and hypoglycemiA.
B)type 1 diabetes and hyperglycemia.
C)type 1 diabetes only.
D)hypoglycemia only.
E)hyperglycemia only.
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27
Chapter 26: The Skeletal and Muscular Systems
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Q1) ______ keep(s)urine inside the bladder and ______ expel(s)urine from the bladder.
A)Bone;muscles
B)Tendons;ligaments
C)Ligaments;tendons
D)Cartilage;muscle
E)Muscle;muscle
Q2) Which of the following describes the role of myosin in muscle contraction?
A)ATP forms a bridge binding actin to myosin.
B)Actin heads bend when attached to myosin.
C)Calcium ions form a bridge moving actin along myosin.
D)Myosin heads bend when attached to actin.
E)Myosin synthesizes new strands of actin,lengthening the musclE.
Q3) In the section "Investigating Life: Did a Myosin Gene Mutation Make Humans Brainier?",how is the temporalis muscle attached to the skull and jaw?
A)myosin
B)ligaments
C)neurons
D)tendons
E)actin
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Chapter 27: The Circulatory and Respiratory Systems
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Q1) A clumping reaction caused by antibodies in the blood plasma is A)clotting.
B)agglutination.
C)constriction.
D)atherosclerosis.
E)inflammation.
Q2) Sleep apnea is temporarily ceasing to breathe and is more common in people who are overweight.Excess fat in the neck compresses the ____ cutting off air flow.
A)larynx
B)thorax
C)bronchi
D)lungs
E)alveoli
Q3) The large vessels that carry blood to the heart are A)arteries.
B)veins.
C)capillaries.
D)lymph vessels.
E)sieve tubes.
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Chapter 28: Regulating Temperature, nutrients, and Body
Fluids
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Q1) The enzyme that begins the breakdown of starch is lipase. A)True
B)False
Q2) In the section "Investigating Life: Sniffing Out the Origin of Feathers",which of the following is true of endotherms in comparison to ectotherms?
A)They have a higher metabolic rate and oxygen consumption.
B)They have a lower metabolic rate and oxygen consumption.
C)They have a higher metabolic rate and lower rate of oxygen consumption.
D)They have a lower metabolic rate and higher rate of oxygen consumption.
E)They have equal metabolic rate and oxygen consumption.
Q3) The enzyme that breaks down starch is A)lipase.
B)lactase.
C)pepsin.
D)amylase.
E)bilE.
Q4) Colorless urine usually indicates excessive water intake or the ingestion of diuretics.
A)True
B)False
Page 30
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Chapter 29: The Immune System
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74 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In many autoimmune diseases such as lupus and rheumatoid arthritis,antibody complexes form in the blood.Kidney failure is a common consequence of these diseases for which reason?
A)Antibodies attack the kidney.
B)The antibody complexes become trapped in the lymph.
C)The antibody complexes become trapped in the kidney.
D)The kidney is a part of the lymphatic system and becomes full of lymphocytes.
E)The kidney is part of the immune system and becomes full of leukocytes.
Q2) The region of an antibody molecule that recognizes and binds to an antigen is the A)hinge region.
B)variable region.
C)constant region.
D)base of the antibody molecule.
E)heavy chain only.
Q3) The type of T cell that is primarily responsible for the production of antibodies is the plasma cell.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Animal Reproduction and Development
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77 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Taking antibiotics can disrupt the microbial community of the vagina and create an opportunity for the yeast Candida albicans to cause an infection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A diaphragm is a shallow,dome-shaped rubber disk with a flexible rim that fits within the vagina and covers the cervix.How does this act as a contraceptive to prevent pregnancy?
A)It would prevent sperm from reaching the egg.
B)It would prevent ovulation.
C)It would cause the embryo to die.
D)It would prevent implantation on the uterine wall.
E)If would act as a spermicide,killing sperm.
Q3) A female chicken laying a fertilized egg has undergone ____ with a rooster.
A)differentiation
B)external fertilization
C)indirect development
D)direct development
E)internal fertilization
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