Survey of Astronomy Test Bank
Course Introduction
Survey of Astronomy provides an introduction to the fundamental concepts and discoveries in modern astronomy. The course explores the structure and evolution of the universe, covering topics such as the solar system, stars, galaxies, black holes, and cosmology. Emphasis is placed on understanding observational techniques, the physical principles underlying celestial phenomena, and humanitys ongoing quest to comprehend our place in the cosmos. The course is designed for non-science majors and assumes no prior background in physics or astronomy.
Recommended Textbook
Astronomy Today 8th Edition by Eric Chaisson
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28 Chapters
2941 Verified Questions
2941 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Charting the Heavens: The Foundations of Astronomy
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94 Verified Questions
94 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19903
Sample Questions
Q1) If a star rises about 9 PM tonight,and with the sidereal day being four minutes less than the solar one,then in a month it will rise about 7 PM.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A ________ is a framework of ideas and assumption used to explain some set of observations and make predictions about the real world.
Answer: theory
Q3) From the South Pole,Polaris would appear directly overhead.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) If intending to teach his students the constellations by season,why would an astronomy instructor be advised to always assign the stars in the current western sky at the beginning of each term?
Answer: As the Earth revolves around the Sun,the Sun appears to move one degree eastward per day.These stars are,therefore,soon lost in the Sun's glare.
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Chapter 2: The Copernican Revolution: The Birth of Modern Science
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19904
Sample Questions
Q1) Galileo's observations of the entire phase cycle of Venus proved that Ptolemy's epicycles could not be correct in keeping Venus between us and the Sun.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Like the Sun and the Moon,the stars appear to move from west to east from one day to the next.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The most accurate Greek attempt to explain planetary motion was the model of:
A) Aristotle.
B) Pythagoras.
C) Hipparchus.
D) Ptolemy.
E) Erastothenes.
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Radiation: Information from the Cosmos
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19905
Sample Questions
Q1) If a new wave arrives on shore every two seconds,then its frequency is 2 Hz.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) If a beam of blue light has a wavelength of 400 nm is emitted by an object moving away from you at 1% of the speed of light,what wavelength would you see from this light?
A) 396 nm
B) 399 nm
C) 400 nm
D) 401 nm
E) 404 nm
Answer: A
Q3) How can you determine the distance to a spacecraft from the time it takes its radio signal to reach Earth?
Answer: In vacuum,all electromagnetic radiation,including radio waves,travel at the same speed: 300,000 km/s.Measuring the time it takes the radio signal to reach us and multiplying by 3000,000 km/s gives the distance to the spacecraft.
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Chapter 4: Spectroscopy: The Inner Workings of Atoms
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94 Verified Questions
94 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19906
Sample Questions
Q1) The energy required to move an electron in a hydrogen atom from energy level 2 to energy level 3 is:
A) 0.7 eV.
B) 1.9 eV.
C) 2.6 eV.
D) 2.9 eV.
E) 3.4 eV.
Q2) If a fire truck's siren is rising in pitch,it must be approaching us.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to Kirchhoff's first law why do dense,hot bodies create the type of spectrum they do?
Q4) Explain how Bohr's model creates emission and absorption lines in the spectrum.
Q5) The shorter a wave's wavelength,the greater its energy.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A low-density,hot gas produces a continuous spectrum.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The longer the wavelength of the photon,the ________ the energy it carries.
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Chapter 5: Telescopes: The Tools of Astronomy
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In astronomy,an interferometer can be used to:
A) yield better seeing conditions with optical telescopes.
B) decrease the effects of light pollution in getting darker sky backgrounds.
C) improve the angular resolution of radio telescopes.
D) increase the sensitivity of infrared telescopes to longer wavelengths.
E) speed up the processing of CCD images.
Q2) Why are most large telescopes reflectors,not refractors?
A) Large lenses deform under their own weight, but mirrors can be supported.
B) Large mirrors need only one optical surface, achromats four surfaces to grind.
C) Reflectors do not suffer from chromatic aberration like refractors do.
D) Large, very clear lenses are harder to cast than more tolerant mirror blanks.
E) All of the above are correct.
Q3) Why is the angular resolution of radio telescopes much worse than that of smaller optical telescopes?
Q4) Radio telescopes have poorer angular resolution than optical telescopes because radio waves have a much longer wavelength than optical waves.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: The Solar System: Comparative Planetology and Formation Models
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151 Verified Questions
151 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19908
Sample Questions
Q1) The processes of giant-planet migration and the formation of the Oort Cloud caused the Uranus to move both inward and outward in the solar system.Which motion was most important? Why?
Q2) The Kuiper Belt is a collection of asteroid-sized icy bodies orbiting the Sun beyond the orbit of Neptune.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In order to determine the mass of a planet by applying Newton's laws of motion and gravity,the planet must have:
A) rings.
B) moons.
C) a solid surface.
D) a known size and distance from Earth.
E) planets further from the Sun than itself.
Q4) What are the properties of the Sun that any theory of the origin of the solar system must explain?
Q5) The ________ theory describes the origin of the planets as having been formed by accretion of small particles into progressively larger and larger bodies.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Earth: Our Home in Space
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The crust of the Earth is covered by about ________ water in the hydrosphere.
A) 50%
B) 60%
C) 70%
D) 80%
E) 90%
Q2) Why do volcanic mountain chains,such as the Andes,accompany deep trenches like the Nazca Trench off South America?
Q3) Where is the newest material in the Earth's crust found?
Q4) Almost all of our atmospheric gases lie in the:
A) ionosphere.
B) stratosphere.
C) troposphere.
D) ozone layer.
E) mesosphere.
Q5) What were the two primary courses of heating that let the Earth differentiate? Which is more important to us today?
Q6) Note at least three surface features that are driven by plate tectonics.
Q7) A hot,molten body of different materials will become ________.
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Q8) Why does the Earth's atmosphere contain much more nitrogen than hydrogen?
Chapter 8: The Moon and Mercury: Scorched and Battered Worlds
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112 Verified Questions
112 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19910
Sample Questions
Q1) Moonquakes on the Moon were detected by:
A) the radar observations over time from Earth.
B) the seismographs left these by the Apollo astronauts.
C) laser beams reflected off mirrors left on the Moon by Apollo missions.
D) seismographs attached to the Russian Lunar rovers.
E) telescopic observations of lunar landslides.
Q2) What are the major factors that rule out the co-formation theory for the Moon-Earth system?
A) Each body has different atmospheric content and a different density.
B) Each body has different surface features and different atmospheric content.
C) Each body has different chemical composition and different surface features.
D) Each body has a different density and a different chemical composition.
E) Each body has a different chemical composition and different atmospheric content.
Q3) Mercury's evolution was different from the Moon's because:
A) Mercury developed a dense atmosphere while the Moon never did.
B) Mercury was located farther from Earth, so experienced no tidal forces.
C) Mercury was subject to more intense asteroid bombardment than the Moon.
D) dense Mercury had an iron core that shrank, creating the lobate scarps.
E) Mercury developed a strong magnetic field to protect it from solar radiation.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Venus: Earth's Sister Planet
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98 Verified Questions
98 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The largest volcanic structures on Venus are called:
A) shield volcanoes.
B) cinder cones.
C) coronae.
D) calderas.
E) crater cones.
Q2) Through radar observations it was found that Venus':
A) orbit around the Sun is speeding up.
B) atmosphere is changing rapidly.
C) rotation on its axis is retrograde.
D) orbit around the Sun is in the clockwise sense.
E) orbital period is 243 days.
Q3) No evidence of impact craters has been found on Venus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Carbon dioxide is the predominant atmospheric gas on Venus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Since its density is similar to ours,we think that Venus too has a core of ________.
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Chapter 10: Mars: A Near Miss for Life?
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19912
Sample Questions
Q1) The low surface gravity helps Martian volcanoes grow to great heights.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is the correct size order,from smallest to largest?
A) Mercury, Venus, Mars
B) The Moon, Earth, Mars
C) Mercury, Mars, Venus
D) Mercury, the Moon, Mars
E) Venus, Mars, Earth
Q3) The large canyon of Mars,Valles Marineris,is a ________ produced when the entire Tharsis region bulged outward causing the surface to split.
Q4) Of all the planets,only ________ has surface features easily seen from Earth with even amateur telescopes.
Q5) The NASA mission(s)that landed on Mars in 1976 was (were)the:
A) Voyagers.
B) Magellan lander.
C) Vikings I and II.
D) Venera 14.
E) Galileo probe.
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Chapter 11: Jupiter: Giant of the Solar System
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101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19913
Sample Questions
Q1) The only spacecraft to go into orbit around Jupiter was:
A) Voyager 2.
B) Pioneer 10.
C) Cassini.
D) Galileo.
E) Viking I.
Q2) What is the probable source of the day-to-day variations in Jupiter's belts and zones?
A) convection of cool ammonia ice upward
B) differential rotation and the underlying zonal flow
C) oblateness due to low density
D) thermonuclear fusion
E) Jupiter's huge magnetosphere
Q3) The large moons of Jupiter have low densities suggesting compositions that are a mixture of rocky materials and ________.
Q4) We have observed a comet strike Jupiter.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Contrast the compositions of Jupiter's belts and zones.
Q6) Contrast the compositions of Jupiter's belts and zones.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Saturn: Spectacular Rings and Mysterious
Moons
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104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19914
Sample Questions
Q1) How many medium-sized moons does Saturn have?
A) too many to count
B) 18
C) 9
D) 6
E) 1
Q2) Saturn's two shepherd moons herd the particles in the F ring.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The reason the rings of Saturn exist is because:
A) the ring material lies within the Roche limit of Saturn.
B) the gravitational influence of Titan confines them to those orbits.
C) the eruptions of Mimas' volcanoes are keeping them supplied with ice.
D) there has not been sufficient time for the ring particles to form a moon.
E) Saturn's rapid rotation is spinning material away from its equator, out into space.
Q4) Contrast Saturn's moon Titan with Earth's Moon.
Q5) Saturn is the only planet with a ring system.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Uranus and Neptune: The Outer Worlds of the Solar System
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108 Verified Questions
108 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19915
Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the seasons of Uranus.
Q2) Small deviations in a planet's orbital motion:
A) show we don't fully understand gravitational forces yet.
B) indicate the presence of an extensive atmosphere.
C) indicate the presence of a powerful magnetic field.
D) imply the nearby presence of a massive body.
E) show the planet's orbit isn't stable.
Q3) From Voyager 2,Neptune's clouds appeared much more active than did Uranus',surprising since Neptune is smaller,colder,and farther from the Sun.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Adams and Leverrier predicted the position of Neptune,based on its perturbations of:
A) Jupiter.
B) the Sun.
C) Saturn's rings.
D) Uranus.
E) Triton.
Q5) Uranus and Neptune both rotate ________ than the Earth does.
Q6) What will happen to Triton in the distant future,based on its present orbit?
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Chapter 14: Solar System Debris: Keys to Our Origin
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114 Verified Questions
114 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19916
Sample Questions
Q1) From its orbit,we now recognize Pluto as one of the largest members of the:
A) moons of Neptune.
B) asteroid belt.
C) Kuiper Belt.
D) Oort Cloud.
E) Zodiacal Belt.
Q2) Charon's orbit:
A) lies exactly in Pluto's orbital plane.
B) is highly inclined to Pluto's orbital plane.
C) is perpendicular to Pluto's equator.
D) is retrograde.
E) has not been determined yet.
Q3) Typically,no more than a couple dozen potentially hazardous asteroids approach the Earth as close as 0.05 AU each decade.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pluto's orbit takes it closer to the Sun than Neptune for part of its orbit.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are Apollo asteroids?
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Chapter 15: Exoplanets: Planetary Systems Beyond Our Own
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74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19917
Sample Questions
Q1) Hot Jupiters have ________ period orbits.
Q2) The Collision Hypothesis and Evolutionary Theories are considered to be equally plausible explanations of how planetary systems form.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A planet is located orbiting another star and its radius is about 3 times that of the Earth.It is:
A) a brown dwarf.
B) a Jupiter.
C) a Neptune.
D) a super-Earth.
E) an Earth.
Q4) The planet ________ may have been the result of the merger of two bodies.
Q5) Why does the present method of finding extrasolar planets not favor finding solar systems like ours?
Q6) Some type of catastrophe is likely needed to explain the highly tilted rotation axis of Uranus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: The Sun: Our Parent Star
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113 Verified Questions
113 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prominences hanging off the limb of the Sun are the same as filaments seen in front of the disk.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The luminosity of the Sun is a measure of:
A) the energy received by the Sun on Earth's surface.
B) the energy received by the Sun at the location of Earth.
C) the energy received by the Sun at any location in the solar system.
D) the energy emitted by the Sun at the photosphere.
E) the total energy emitted by the Sun in all directions.
Q3) What natural barrier tries to prevent two protons from combining?
A) dark energy
B) antigravity
C) electromagnetic repulsion
D) the weak nuclear force
E) the strong nuclear force
Q4) Why are SOHO (the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory)and the Solar Dynamics Observatory (SDO)positioned beyond Earth's magnetosphere?
Q5) Why is studying the neutrino so vital to understanding the solar interior?
Q6) Why is it hard to observe the chromosphere?
Page 18
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Chapter 17: The Stars: Giants,Dwarfs,and the Main
Sequence
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107 Verified Questions
107 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a star were moved 10 times farther away,its absolute magnitude would drop five magnitudes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the typical main sequence lifetime of a B-type star?
A) less than a million years
B) 20 million years
C) 100 million years
D) 1 billion years
E) 10 billion years
Q3) Capella is the same temperature as our Sun,but about ten times the Sun's diameter; it must be about ________ times as luminous as our star.
Q4) If a star appears to move relative to other stars over a one-year period,this motion is due to the star's:
A) transverse motion.
B) radial motion.
C) parallax shift.
D) Doppler shift.
E) true space motion.
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Chapter 18: The Interstellar Medium: Gas and Dust among the Stars
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100 Verified Questions
100 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dark dust clouds can be explored better with infrared than with visible light.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Dark dust clouds radiate mainly in the radio portion of the electromagnetic spectrum.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Complex molecules in the interstellar medium are found:
A) uniformly throughout the disk of the Galaxy.
B) scattered evenly throughout the universe, a product of the Big Bang itself.
C) only around the supergiant stars like Betelguese that make their heavy atoms.
D) primarily in the dense dust clouds.
E) on the surfaces of the coolest class K and M stars only.
Q4) The "Local Bubble" is:
A) created by our Sun's solar wind, and extends well past Pluto's orbit.
B) created by the bipolar jets of the young Sun, perpendicular to the ecliptic.
C) about 100 pcs. across and transparent to extreme ultraviolet radiation.
D) the region around the Milky Way where we can trace out its magnetic field.
E) the cluster of galaxies our Milky Way and M-31 in Andromeda belong to.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Star Formation: A Traumatic Birth
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108 Verified Questions
108 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19921
Sample Questions
Q1) Higher mass protostars enter the main sequence:
A) faster and at a higher luminosity and temperature.
B) faster and at a lower luminosity and temperature.
C) slower and at a higher luminosity and temperature.
D) slower and at a lower luminosity and temperature.
E) at the same rate, but at a higher luminosity and temperature.
Q2) Most stars are usually formed singularly or as binaries,not in clusters.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During stage 3 of star formation,the dense,opaque region at the center of the cloud is called a:
A) Herbig-Haro object.
B) T Tauri star.
C) protostar.
D) protoplanetary nebula.
E) zero-age main sequence star.
Q4) Why does a star's luminosity drop so much during the Hayashi track?
Q5) A typical protostar may be several thousand times more luminous than our Sun.Where does this energy come from?
Page 21
Q6) Why does gravitational contraction halt in collapsing protostars?
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Chapter 20: Stellar Evolution: The Life and Death of a Star
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of star has the strongest stellar winds?
A) giant K- and M-type stars
B) white dwarfs
C) dwarf K- and M-type stars
D) main sequence O- and B-type stars
E) T Tauri stars
Q2) What is peculiar about Sirius based on historical records?
Q3) The thermonuclear process in high mass stars that produces one atom of helium from four of hydrogen is the ________.
Q4) When helium fusion begins in a one solar mass main star,it begins gradually,with this rate slowly increasing over time.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The shell ejection in making a planetary is spherical and symmetrical in all cases.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What can disrupt the evolutionary sequence of a star?
Q7) How is the age of a star cluster determined?
Q8) ________ clusters are much older and richer than open clusters.
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Chapter 21: Stellar Explosions: Novae,Supernovae,and
Formation of the Elements
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the importance of 1.4 solar masses in stellar evolution?
Q2) The maximum mass of a white dwarf is about ________ times the mass of the Sun.
Q3) Which of these is the likely progenitor of a type II supernova?
A) a mass-transfer binary, with the white dwarf already at 1.3 solar masses
B) a contact binary, with the neutron star at 2.3 solar masses
C) an evolved red giant which is just starting to make silicon in its core
D) two white dwarfs in a contact binary system
E) an evolved blue supergiant that is about to experience the helium flash
Q4) Novae are more closely related to type II than to type I supernovae.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A Type I supernova involves the collapsing core of a high mass star.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Unlike supernovae,novae can explode more than once,increasing their luminosity by thousands of times.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Of all elements,________ has the most stable and tightly bound nucleus. Page 23
Q8) Why does iron formation cause a high mass star to "have a heart attack"?
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Page 24
Chapter 22: Neutron Stars and Black Holes: Strange States of Matter
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Sample Questions
Q1) The escape speed for a black hole's event horizon is the speed of light.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the Lighthouse model:
A) pulsars are observable only if they lie in the galactic plane.
B) pulsars are navigational devices created by interstellar navigators as discovered by Jocelyn Bell in 1967.
C) all pulsars have their poles pointed directly at us or they would be not observable.
D) if the beams sweeps across us, we can observe the pulse.
E) the period of pulsation must speed up as the neutron star continues contracting.
Q3) The average density of neutron stars approaches:
A) a million times that of normal matter.
B) a million times that of even a white dwarf.
C) about 10¹ kg/m³, similar to the density of atomic nuclei.
D) about 10¹ times that of water.
E) infinity.
Q4) A neutron star detectable by its rapid rotation and strong magnetic field is called a(n)________.
Page 25
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Chapter 23: The Milky Way Galaxy: A Spiral in Space
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pulsating variable star with a period of 10 days would be a Cepheid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The radio source ________ is located in a place consistent with the center of our Galaxy.
A) Cygnus X-1
B) 3C 273
C) 47 Tucanae
D) M-8, the Lagoon Nebula
E) Sgr A
Q3) Who was Henrietta Leavitt,and what did she do to help map the universe?
Q4) While yet unproven,the proposed WIMPS would be:
A) massive like neutrons, but more elusive than neutrinos.
B) made of only strong magnetic fields.
C) rapidly decaying due to the weak nuclear force.
D) changing charges and polarities too rapidly to pin down.
E) the basic building blocks of neutrons and protons.
Q5) In our vicinity,the galactic disk is about 100 times wider than it is thick.
A)True
B)False
Page 26
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Chapter 24: Galaxies: Building Blocks of the Universe
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following paraphrases Hubble Law?
A) The faster the galaxy spins, the more massive and luminous it is.
B) The greater the distance to a galaxy, the greater its redshift.
C) The greater the distance to a galaxy, the fainter it is.
D) The more distant a galaxy is, the younger it appears.
E) The older the galaxy appears to us, the more luminous it is.
Q2) In Hubble's classification,which type of galaxy has no stellar disk and no gas or dust?
A) E0
B) S0
C) Sa
D) SBc
E) E9
Q3) The energy radiated by a typical quasar requires that its black hole accrete about:
A) one solar mass a century.
B) one solar mass a decade.
C) one solar mass a year.
D) ten solar masses a year.
E) one solar mass a day.
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Chapter 25: Galaxies and Dark Matter: The Large-Scale
Structure of the Cosmos
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Sample Questions
Q1) In its most energetic phase,a quasar can probably only last:
A) a few days.
B) a few years.
C) a few thousand years.
D) a few million years.
E) a few billion years.
Q2) When observing a very distant quasar,we are actually seeing the universe the way it was when it was much younger than it is today.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe how gravitational lensing works.What can it tell us about a quasar? What can it tell us about the galaxy that is doing the lensing? How is lensing valuable to the study of dark matter?
Q4) Collisions between galaxies are thought to:
A) have stopped about 5 billion years ago.
B) be commonplace.
C) have never occurred.
D) be extremely rare.
E) have only occurred between 10 and 15 billion years ago.
Page 28
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Chapter 26: Cosmology: The Big Bang and the Fate of the Universe
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does dark energy affect the expansion of the Universe?
Q2) The ratio of the universe's actual density to the critical density is:
A) c t c l.
B) / .
C) .
D) H/D.
E) 1/H.
Q3) The open universe would require be less than zero.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The critical evidence for cosmic acceleration in 1998 came from two teams of astronomers,both observing:
A) hypernovae.
B) gamma ray bursts.
C) type I supernovae.
D) type II supernovae.
E) ages of globular clusters.
Q5) The open universe would be geometrically flat. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: The Early Universe: Toward the Beginning of Time
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the ________ now observed must be primordial.
Q2) Primordial nucleosynthesis refers to the Big Bang making all elements up to iron.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of these substances must be primordial?
A) helium
B) lithium
C) deuterium
D) beryllium
E) tritium
Q4) Deuterium and helium could be made only during the nuclear epoch.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the important relics of the quark epoch? Why?
Q6) Decoupling refers to interactions between matter and antimatter at the end of the Radiation Era.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Relate the inflationary theory to the GUTs.
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do we feel type O and B stars are poor candidates for extraterrestrial life?
A) They do not have a habitable Zone.
B) They don't produce enough yellow light.
C) Their lifetime is too short.
D) They don't produce a planetary system.
E) Their habitable zone lies too close to the star.
Q2) An experiment was done where a "primordial soup" of water,methane,carbon dioxide and ammonia was electrified.Following this,the material was found to contain many of the amino acids found in all living things on Earth.The purpose of this experiment was to:
A) determine whether DNA could have formed from electrolysis.
B) determine whether DNA could have formed from amino acids.
C) determine whether DNA could have formed from water and methane.
D) determine whether amino acids could have formed naturally on Earth.
E) determine whether amino acids could have formed from water, methane, carbon dioxide and ammonia.
Q3) Describe the reasoning leading to the idea that the number of technological civilizations in the galaxy is equal to the average lifetime of a technological civilization.
Q4) What is the "water hole"? Why is it so promising to radio astronomers?
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