Surgical Technology Test
Questions
Course Introduction
Surgical Technology is a comprehensive course designed to prepare students with the knowledge and practical skills required to assist in surgical procedures within operating rooms. The course covers aseptic techniques, surgical instrumentation, patient preparation, operative procedures, and safety protocols essential to surgical environments. Emphasis is placed on understanding anatomy, sterile field maintenance, and the principles of infection control. Students will also learn about preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative duties, teamwork with surgeons and nurses, and adherence to ethical and legal standards in surgery. The course combines theoretical instruction with hands-on laboratory practice and clinical experiences to equip students for a professional role as surgical technologists.
Recommended Textbook
Surgical Technology for the Surgical Technologist A Positive Care Approach 5th Edition by Surgical
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24 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Orientation to Surgical Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which acronym represents an organization that serves as both an insurer and provider of medical services?
A) CDC
B) CEO
C) FDA
D) HMO
Answer: D
Q2) The hospital's infection control nurse would report any suspicion of rare or mysterious infectious diseases to which governmental agency?
A) CDC
B) EPA
C) FDA
D) OSHA
Answer: A
Q3) The ARC/STSA administers the national certification examination for surgical technologists and owns the CST and CSFA credentials.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Legal Concepts, Risk Management, and Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Captain of the ship" doctrine holds the surgeon accountable for all actions of the operating room team in lawsuits.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Graduates of CAAHEP or ABHES programs are eligible to sit for the CST or CSFA examinations administered by:
A) ARC/STSA
B) AST
C) CSPS
D) NBSTSA
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following legal terms is BEST described as "professional misconduct that results in harm to another"?
A) allegation
B) liability
C) malpractice
D) negligence
Answer: C
Page 4
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Chapter 3: The Surgical Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dr Hans Selye defines stress as a "nonspecific response of the body a demand" (2006)
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) What is a normal human emotion that surgical team members may feel for their patients, but must not interfere with their abilities to maintain focus on their jobs, particularly in all-hazards situations?
A) empathy
B) eustress
C) repression
D) reconciliation
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the "Five Stages of Grief"?
A) acceptance
B) bargaining
C) denial
D) repression
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Special Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Physical forces of deceleration, acceleration, compression, and shearing are factors in which type of injuries?
A) blunt
B) electrical
C) hypothermia
D) penetrating
Q2) Bariatric patients undergoing surgery and in the immediate postoperative period should have sequential compression devices applied to the lower extremities to prevent:
A) congestive heart failure
B) deep vein thrombosis
C) hypovolemic shock
D) respiratory arrest
Q3) Patients with developmental delays may suffer cognitive disabilities, but may also exhibit normal intelligence.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Physical Environment and Safety Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Soiled sponges from the operative field are discarded into low-to-the-floor, rolling, lined kick buckets.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following are ways to reduce personnel radiological exposure EXCEPT:
A) amplification
B) distance
C) shielding
D) time
Q3) What is the electrical engineering safety device required for all operating room electrical outlets?
A) flip top cover
B) red-color designation
C) current converter
D) grounding system
Q4) Frozen section biopsies are sent to which hospital department for analysis?
A) CT scan
B) nuclear medicine
C) pathology
D) sterile processing
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Biomedical Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for the precision of a laser beam and is based on the area exposed, the time activated, and the power setting?
A) amplification
B) coherence
C) collimation
D) fluence
Q2) To prevent inadvertent activation of the ESU resulting in possible ignition of draping materials, the pencil should be placed in which of the following when NOT in use?
A) instrument holster
B) kidney basin
C) rigid holster
D) trocar cannula
Q3) Resonant frequency capacitive coupling and dielectric breakdown are examples of:
A) computer program malfunctions
B) electrosurgery burns to personnel
C) laser energy tissue effects
D) robotic operation modes
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Chapter 7: Preventing Perioperative Disease and Transmission
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the common name for the high-level disinfectant sodium hypochlorite?
A) ammonia
B) bleach
C) peroxide
D) vinegar
Q2) Cidex is the trade name for which of the following methods of sterilization?
A) ethylene oxide
B) glutaraldehyde
C) hydrogen peroxide gas plasma
D) peracetic acid
Q3) What is the weight that AAMI has recommended instrument sets should NOT exceed?
A) 10 pounds
B) 15 pounds
C) 20 pounds
D) 25 pounds
Q4) What is another name for the intermediate-level disinfectant compound phenol?
A) amino acid
B) carbolic acid
C) muriatic acid
D) peracetic acid
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Chapter 8: Emergency Situations and All-Hazards Preparation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the clinical term for the lesions that appear on the skin of a patient experiencing an allergic reaction?
A) abrasions
B) carbuncles
C) plaque
D) urticaria
Q2) Which of the following substance is least likely to cause an anaphylactic reaction:
A) certain antibiotics
B) insulin
C) contrast media
D) benadryl
Q3) All of the following are examples of man-made disasters EXCEPT:
A) chemical or radiation release
B) hurricane
C) infrastructure incidents
D) transportation accidents
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Chapter 9: Surgical Pharmacology and Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pharmacological agents provides muscle relaxation by preventing acetylcholine from stimulating muscle contraction?
A) dissociative
B) induction
C) nondepolarizing
D) volatile
Q2) Which category of drug is used to outline hollow or tubular anatomical structures for radiographic visualization?
A) contrast media
B) dyes
C) stains
D) vasodilator
Q3) Magnesium, calcium, and zinc come from which drug source?
A) animal
B) biotechnology
C) mineral
D) plant
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11
Chapter 10: Instrumentation, Equipment, and Supplies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of instrument alloy is lightweight, durable, and nonmagnetizing?
A) chromium
B) stainless steel
C) titanium
D) tungsten carbide
Q2) What is the minimum number of suction systems or units required in an operating room?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
Q3) Which type of urinary drainage catheter requires an incision and anchoring to the skin to prevent dislodgement?
A) Coude´
B) Foley
C) red Robinson
D) suprapubic
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12
Chapter 11: Hemostasis, Wound Healing, and Wound
Closure
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for a type of suture that has the strand of suture material inserted into the hollowed-out needle end?
A) closed eye
B) crimped
C) French-eye
D) swaged
Q2) Which type of suture is often used to create a vascular anastomosis?
A) synthetic, absorbable, multifilament on a 3/8 circle cutting needle
B) synthetic, nonabsorbable, multifilament on a 1/2 circle taper needle
C) synthetic, absorbable, monofilament on a Keith straight needle
D) synthetic, nonabsorbable, monofilament with double-armed taper needles
Q3) What is the term for the blood products donated by another person?
A) hemolytic
B) hemostatic
C) homeostasis
D) homologous
Q4) Suture gauge can range from #5 (being the smallest) to 11-0 (being the heaviest) diameter.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Surgical Case Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) In preparing a patient for surgery, which of the following should be removed to facilitate oxygen blood level assessment?
A) dentures
B) hearing aids
C) nail polish
D) makeup
Q2) What does the circulator verify before the surgical technologist places the basket of instruments on the back table?
A) The internal indicator has changed color.
B) The filter on the container lid has changed color.
C) The filters on the bottom of the container are intact and the container is dry.
D) The numbers of instruments in the tray are correct on the count sheet from CSPD.
Q3) Which of the following is/are NOT included in operative vital sign measurements?
A) Pulse
B) Blood pressure
C) Height and weight
D) All of the above are considered operative vital sign measurements
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Chapter 13: Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a flexible, atraumatic device used to facilitate proper placement of catheters into lumens of vessels, ducts, or ureters?
A) balloon dilator
B) Doppler probe
C) J-guidewire
D) Swan-Ganz
Q2) Specialized radiographic machine that produces computer-generated images of the body in "slices"
A)Fluoroscopy
B)Rad
C)Pulse oximeter
D)Signs
E)Digital subtraction
F)Palpation
G)Retrograde
H)Urinalysis
I)CAT scan
J)Contrast
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Chapter 14: General Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which suturing technique is often used on the appendiceal stump?
A) interrupted
B) horizontal mattress
C) vertical mattress
D) pursestring
Q2) A T-tube or wound drain left in place following laparoscopic cholecystectomy would
MOST likely exit through:
A) a left subcostal stab wound
B) the umbilical port site incision
C) one of the 5 mm right port site incisions
D) the subxiphoid 10 mm port site incision
Q3) What term is used for surgical opening of the abdominal or peritoneal cavity?
A) gastrectomy
B) gastrostomy
C) laparoscopy
D) laparotomy
Q4) The upper-hand and Thompson retractors are complex self-retaining retractors frequently used in major abdominal procedures.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Obstetric and Gynecologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cervical cerclage is performed to:
A) biopsy the areas of dysplasia
B) repair a cystocele
C) prevent spontaneous abortion
D) vaporize vaginal condylomata
Q2) Which instrument is used to manipulate the fallopian tubes without compression or damage?
A) Babcock tissue forceps
B) Ferris-Smith tissue forceps
C) Heaney clamp
D) Kocher clamp
Q3) What is a Veress needle used for?
A) amniocentesis
B) epidural anesthesia
C) laparoscopic insufflation
D) suprapubic catheter placement
Q4) Clamp, clamp, cut, tie (CCCT) is a way to anticipate routine dissection steps during hysterectomy procedures.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Porous, circumferential band of tiny canals through which the aqueous humor drains
A)Diopter
B)Beaver
C)Aperture
D)Canthus
E)Vitrector
F)Split
G)Diplopia
H)Corneal dystrophy
I)Tarsal plate
J)Trabecular meshwork
Q2) Overhead OR spotlights should be placed on highest setting to provide necessary illumination during intraocular procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cataracts are categorized as a general condition of aging rather than a disease process.
A)True
B)False
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a compartment of the bony labyrinth of the inner ear?
A) cochlea
B) semicircular canals
C) sphenoid sinus
D) vestibule
Q2) Congenital defect that results in a bony or membranous occlusion of the passageway between the nose and the pharynx
A)Morcellatioin
B)Hypertrophy
C)Audiography
D)Oval window
E)Lukens tube
F)Electronystagmography
G)Organs of Corti
H)Hyperextension
I)Choanal atresia
J)Eustachian tube
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Chapter 18: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Strands of wire used to attach arch bars to the upper and lower jaw should be prestretched and cut to which length?
A) 5 cm
B) 10 cm
C) 15 cm
D) 20 cm
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the three regions of a tooth?
A) crown
B) neck
C) root
D) socket
Q3) Which bone contributes to the posterior and inferior portion of the nasal septum?
A) mandible
B) nasal
C) vomer
D) zygoma
Q4) Dental drills are always used to cut bone so that teeth can be extracted whole.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following bones make up the palm of the hand?
A) carpals
B) metacarpals
C) phalanges
D) radii
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding routine prepping for skin graft procedures is CORRECT?
A) Donor site is prepped first and considered clean.
B) Donor site is prepped last and considered contaminated.
C) Recipient site is prepped first and considered contaminated.
D) Recipient site is prepped last and considered clean.
Q3) A full-thickness skin graft may be taken from the inner thigh or labial fold to re-create which anatomic area?
A) areola
B) Cupid's bow
C) mammary crease
D) umbilicus
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21
Chapter 20: Genitourinary Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Radical nephrectomy is usually performed with the patient in which position?
A) lateral
B) low-lithotomy
C) prone
D) supine
Q2) Which signal should alert the surgical team that prostate capsule perforation is imminent and may conclude the procedure?
A) coughing
B) flatulence
C) groaning
D) leg jerking
Q3) What is the medical term for the free fold of skin that covers the glans penis?
A) epididymis
B) prepuce
C) scrotum
D) tunica
Q4) Procedures for female urinary incontinence may be performed by gynecologists, urologists, or urogynocologists.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which orthopedic instrument has the appearance of a turkey foot or eagle's talon?
A) beaver knife handle
B) Bennett retractor
C) Lowman bone holder
D) Lambotte osteotome
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a bone of the pelvis?
A) ilium
B) pubis
C) femur
D) ischium
Q3) What is the MOST common cause of bone fractures?
A) poor nutrition
B) osteoporosis
C) osteosarcoma
D) trauma
Q4) Arthroscopic procedures require only one small incision through which all the instruments are passed.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Cardiothoracic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medtronic OCTOPUS and Guidant Ultima OPCAB are what type of devices for coronary artery bypass done off-pump?
A) retractors
B) stabilizers
C) cannulae
D) grafts
Q2) All of the following are components of the "heart-lung" machine EXCEPT:
A) pump
B) oxygenator
C) defibrillator
D) heat exchanger
Q3) Where are the cannulae MOST commonly placed for cardiopulmonary bypass procedures?
A) carotid artery and subclavian vein
B) right atrium and ascending aorta
C) right ventricle and descending aorta
D) femoral artery and brachiocephalic vein
Q4) The ventricles of the heart have thicker myocardium than the atria.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Peripheral Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which diagnostic study is considered the gold standard for evaluation of vascular disease?
A) angiography
B) CT scan
C) radiography
D) PET scan
Q2) What is the configuration of the saphenous vein when stripped from the leg?
A) cut into small sections and left in situ
B) only the intimal layer removed
C) valves only dissected and vein left in situ
D) vein avulsed and turned completely inside out
Q3) Names frequently associated with vascular instrumentation include DeBakey and Cooley, both of whom were cardiothoracic surgeons and pioneers of cardiothoracic and peripheral vascular surgery.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Glass syringes are preferred in drawing up contrast media for angiography because of less accumulation of bubbles.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Neurosurgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What part of the body is prepped for ulnar nerve decompression or transposition?
A) anterior neck
B) lower extremity
C) posterior back
D) upper extremity
Q2) Which instrument is used to strip and separate the galea and pericranium from the skull before placement of burr holes?
A) #11 scalpel blade
B) #1 Penfield dissector
C) Gigli saw malleable guide
D) Langenbeck periosteal elevator
Q3) What is the name of the measuring device used to assess intraventricular pressure?
A) capnometer
B) manometer
C) oximeter
D) tonometer
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