Surgical Technology Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Surgical Technology is a comprehensive course designed to introduce students to the essential roles and responsibilities of surgical technologists within the operating room environment. The course covers fundamental topics such as sterile techniques, patient safety, surgical equipment handling, and procedures for preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative patient care. Students will gain theoretical knowledge and practical skills in instrument identification, operating room preparation, infection control, and team collaboration. The curriculum also emphasizes professional ethics, effective communication, and critical thinking required to support surgeons and other healthcare professionals during surgical procedures.
Recommended Textbook
Alexanders Surgical Procedures 1st Edition by
Jane C. Rothrock
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
18 Chapters
356 Verified Questions
356 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2110
Page 2
Chapter 1: Importance of the Surgical Technologist on the Surgical Team
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42048
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following groups created a patient safety campaign titled "Safe Surgery Saves Lives" which utilized a surgical safety checklist to aid in the time-out process?
A)American College of Surgeons (ACS)
B)Council on Surgical and Perioperative Safety (CSPS)
C)Agency for Healthcare Research & Quality (AHRQ)
D)World Health Organization (WHO)
Answer: D
Q2) A set of guidelines for professional advancement and recognition within an institution or department through the use of an AST-established set of performance-based evaluation and advancement criteria is also known as:
A)clinical ladder
B)continuum of care
C)core curriculum
D)crew management model
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 3
Chapter 2: Gastrointestinal Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42049
Sample Questions
Q1) Specific positioning considerations for bariatric patients require particular attention to protecting these patients from inherent risks related to their size and weight. Of considerable concern is the risk of injury to staff. Protective measures to protect both patient and staff include those below. Which measure reflects the most safety protection for both patient and staff?
A)Review back safety precautions and awareness during preincision briefing.
B)Ensure that the OR bed can accommodate the patient's weight and girth.
C)Employ at least three safety straps over the patient's largest girth.
D)Overlap the viscoelastic gel mattress top with three lifting sheets.
Answer: B
Q2) Exposure of intra-abdominal anatomy is crucial to safe surgery and employs varied instruments, applications of highly technical energy sources, patient manipulations, light, and imaging. What is unique to the laparoscopic approach that promotes exposure?
A)Self-retaining retractors
B)Automatic rod-lens fiberscope
C)Carbon dioxide pneumoperitoneum
D)Endoscopic fan blades
Answer: C
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 4
Chapter 3: Surgery of the Liver, Biliary Tract, Pancreas and Spleen
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42050
Sample Questions
Q1) What technologic characteristic of robotic surgery provides a superior indication for robotic-assisted laparoscopic cholecystectomy?
A)The surgeon controls two instruments plus a camera while an assistant suctions and retracts.
B)Bladeless robotic trocars minimize entry injury and inadvertent hemorrhage.
C)The magnified three-dimensional picture may reduce bile duct injuries during dissection.
D)Robotic stapler and suture devices promote intracorporeal anastomotic techniques.
Answer: C
Q2) While the pancreas' function is carbohydrate metabolism with the production of insulin and digestive enzymes, the spleen's function is primarily ___________ with the production of _______________.
A)immunologic; leukocytes
B)metabolic; granulocytes
C)anabolic; plasma cells
D)as a blood reservoir; phagocytes
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5
Chapter 4: Repair of Hernias
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42051
Sample Questions
Q1) Select the triad of the boundaries of the Hesselbach triangle.
A)Inguinal ligament, rectus abdominis muscle, deep epigastric vessels
B)Rectus abdominis muscle, Cooper ligament, aponeurosis
C)Scarpa's fascia, deep epigastric vessels, external oblique muscle
D)Inguinal ligament, inguinal canal, Cooper ligament
Q2) Ryan has an indirect hernia that is characterized by a small neck, thin walls, and close attachment to the cord structures. Marc has a hernia with a short, wide neck, and a thick-walled sac. Based on this description, Ryan has a(n) ____________ hernia and Marc has a(n) __________ hernia.
A)acquired; congenital
B)reducible; nonreducible
C)congenital; acquired
D)pantaloon; sacular
Q3) Femoral hernias occur more frequently in which group of individuals?
A)Postoperative obese patients
B)Newborns
C)Weight lifters
D)Females
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
6
Chapter 5: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42052
Sample Questions
Q1) Margie Donaldson's examination has revealed a family history of endometrial cancer. She has never been pregnant and has been taking hormone replacement therapy for 4 years. Her physician has scheduled her for a surgical procedure to obtain visual and pathologic information and provide treatment as indicated. Margie was sure that she would have to have a D&C (dilatation and curettage). Margie's surgery, on the operative schedule, would most probably be written as:
A)D&C with endocervical biopsies.
B)hysteroscopy with endometrial ablation.
C)D&C with endometrial biopsies, frozen section, possible LAVH.
D)D&E with endometrial washings, frozen section, total abdominal hysterectomy.
Q2) What classification of drugs are GYN/obstetric-related medications that require monitoring of blood pressure, assessment for continued bleeding, and monitoring of fundal response to the drug?
A)Oxytocics
B)Tocolytics
C)Antimetabolites
D)Cytotoxics
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 7
Chapter 6: Genitourinary Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42053
Sample Questions
Q1) Which action best reflects the movement of urine from the renal pelvis to the bladder?
A)Normal intra-abdominal positive pressure promotes renal drainage.
B)Slight distention of the renal pelvis initiates a wave of peristaltic contractions.
C)Distention of the proximal ureter facilitates gravity drainage through signaling channels.
D)Urine is propelled into the bladder when adrenal hormones bind with ureteral receptor sites.
Q2) Patients having genitourinary surgery are at risk for impaired urinary elimination.
Select the statement that best reflects a desired outcome for an adult patient.
A)The patient will be able to urinate before the bladder exceeds 350 ml of fullness.
B)The patient will regain his or her normal pattern of urinary elimination.
C)The patient will excrete 50 ml of urine per hour.
D)All of the options are desired outcomes.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 7: Thyroid and Parathyroid Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42054
Sample Questions
Q1) Hypothyroidism results from undersecretion of thyroid hormone. The most common cause of primary hypothyroidism is chronic autoimmune thyroiditis (Hashimoto's disease). Select the set of symptoms that is most commonly associated with hypothyroidism.
A)Dry skin, edema, constipation, and depression
B)Irritability, mood changes, visual disturbances, and diarrhea
C)Heat intolerance, anorexia, hair loss, and menstrual irregularity
D)Bradycardia, hypotension, hypoxia, and poor concentration
Q2) Open parathyroidectomy is currently being replaced with less invasive and more targeted techniques; however, the amount of parathyroid tissue that should be removed remains controversial and relates to whether single or multiple glands are involved. A portion of a gland must remain to:
A)prevent hypocalcemia and its complications.
B)serve as a marker for later surgery should the gland fail to produce PTH.
C)regenerate into normal parathyroid tissue.
D)maintain the patient in a state of hypercalcemia to compensate for the lost glands.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9
Chapter 8: Breast Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42055
Sample Questions
Q1) The goal of breast cancer surgery is removal of the mass with a margin of normal tissue and a good cosmetic result. The choice of procedure depends on the size and site of the mass, the characteristics of the cells, the stage of the disease, and the patient's choice. Select the statement that best reflects the difference between minimally invasive excisional breast biopsy with stereotactic image-guided location and removal of tissue.
A)The stereotactic biopsy produces a specimen for cytologic study, while the excisional biopsy produces a histologic specimen.
B)The excisional biopsy is performed under direct visualization, while the stereotactic approach is image-guided.
C)The excisional approach requires drain placement, while stereotactic biopsy rarely requires a drain.
D)Stereotactic biopsy is recommended for lesions in the areola, high in the axilla, or chest wall while excisional biopsy is not appropriate for these areas.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 9: Ophthalmic Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42056
Sample Questions
Q1) Select the true statement about dacryocystorhinostomy (DCR).
A)A DCR is performed for chronic or recurrent dacryocystitis, which is also called epiphora.
B)A dacrolithotripsy is attempted if the DCR is unsuccessful.
C)DCR establishes a new passageway for tear drainage into the nasal cavity.
D)The passageway is usually restored with the use of ultrasonic lacrimal probes.
Q2) Select the true statement about antimetabolite drugs and their indications for use.
A)These cytotoxic/antineoplastic drugs are also useful as thrombolytic agents.
B)Antimetabolites are regulated by TPA and facility policies.
C)5-Fluorouracil and mitomycin can both be administered topically to dissolve scars and pterygia.
D)Denuded corneal epithelium responds positively to topical applications of mitomycin.
Q3) Exenteration
A)Removal of the eye contents with sclera and muscles left intact
B)Removal of the entire orbital contents, including the periosteum
C)Removal of the entire globe, severing muscular attachments and optic nerve
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
11
Chapter 10: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42057
Sample Questions
Q1) During otolaryngologic procedures using local anesthetic, the perioperative team plans the environment of care as a quiet, warm, and functional domain of healing and comfort. An important consideration with most otolaryngologic patients identifies their specific _________ needs.
A)communication
B)anxiety
C)airway
D)pain
Q2) The supraglottis, glottis, and the subglottis represent three portions of which structure of the throat?
A)Epiglottis
B)Tongue
C)Larynx
D)Pharynx
Q3) Select the structure of the trachea that is a landmark during bronchoscopy.
A)Cartilaginous ring
B)Cricoid cartilage
C)Carina
D)Right main bronchus
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 12
Chapter 11: Orthopedic Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42058
Sample Questions
Q1) Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) is a method of providing exposure of the fracture site and using pins, wire, screws, a plate and screw combination, rods, or nails to correct the fracture. Surgeons use open reduction and internal fixation when they are unable to reduce a fracture by closed methods and skeletal traction is not indicated. What would be an advantage for an open rather than a closed fracture reduction technique?
A)Direct observation and verification of fracture alignment
B)Decreased opportunity for surgical site infection
C)Improved bone union outcomes
D)Ability to rule out comminuted or compound fractures without imaging
Q2) The rotator cuff consists of which group of muscles?
A)Deltoid, teres major, and teres minor
B)Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis
C)Latissimus dorsi, deltoid, and teres major
D)Supraspinatus, subscapularis, pectoralis major, and deltoid
Q3) Bands of dense connective tissue that hold bone to bone
A)Ligaments
B)Tendons
C)Cartilage
Q4) Hematoma formation
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 13
Chapter 12: Neurosurgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42059
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following represents an intractable pain condition of the fifth (V) cranial nerve, also called tic douloureux, often treated with gamma knife radiosurgery, percutaneous rhizotomy, radiosurgery, or posterior fossa microvascular decompression?
A)Bell's palsy
B)Sciatica
C)Trigeminal neuralgia
D)AV malformation
Q2) Which surgical specialist might be asked to assist in providing exposure for the neurosurgeon in a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy (TSH) procedure?
A)Cardiothoracic surgeon
B)Neuroradiologist
C)Orthopedic surgeon
D)Otorhinolaryngologist
Q3) Which part of paired spinal nerves is responsible for sensory functions?
A)Anterior root
B)Dermatomes
C)Posterior root
D)Pyramidal tracts
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14
Chapter 13: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42060
Sample Questions
Q1) When coverage for a defect cannot be achieved through skin grafting, plastic surgeons rely on other techniques to replace tissue. After mastectomy, reconstruction with a transverse rectus abdominis myocutaneous (TRAM) flap is one of several options for nonsynthetic prosthetic reconstruction. Another descriptive term for the TRAM flap is the:
A)pedicle-based flap.
B)free flap.
C)mastopexy.
D)rotated tunneled flap.
Q2) The three most common skin cancers are basal cell, squamous cell, and melanoma.Treated early, skin cancers such as squamous cell and basal cell carcinomas may be cured by simple excision and closure (with pathologic diagnosis to ensure disease-free margins).Melanoma is treated much more aggressively because of its high mortality. The A-B-C-Ds of the warning signs for skin cancer stand for:
A)acute, borderline, color, dysplastic.
B)asymmetry, blanching, cohesion, depth.
C)aplastic, bilateral, chronic, dysplastic.
D)asymmetry, border, color, diameter.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
15
Chapter 14: Thoracic Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42061
Sample Questions
Q1) The indications for single-lung transplantation (SLT) include restrictive lung disease, emphysema, pulmonary hypertension, and other nonseptic end-stage pulmonary diseases, while the indications for double-lung transplantation (DLT) include patients with:
A)bilateral early-stage sarcoma without systemic disease.
B)bilateral chronic infection causing end-stage renal failure.
C)cystic fibrosis in end-stage pulmonary failure.
D)bilateral disease, recent ex-smoker with a suitable living-related donor.
Q2) What is the ideal position for bronchoscopy?
A)Supine
B)Left semilateral
C)Supine with a shoulder roll
D)Semi-Fowler with neck extended
Q3) Pleurodesis is undertaken as a treatment for malignant pleural effusion and for unresolved spontaneous pneumothorax. The endpoint goal of a pleurodesis is to:
A)prevent accumulation of pleuritic secretions.
B)bond the parietal pleura to the lung.
C)achieve permanent pneumothorax.
D)cause adherence of the pleural layers.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 16
Chapter 15: Vascular Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42062
Sample Questions
Q1) Vascular surgery patients are at risk for impaired skin integrity and ineffective tissue perfusion related to surgical positioning, presence of vascular disease, and vascular clamping. Positioning of the patient undergoing vascular surgery is of particular importance because of restricted circulation distal to the area of arterial obstruction and a generalized state of poor circulation. An appropriate protective intervention is reflected in which true statement about patient positioning for vascular surgery?
A)The patient should be positioned on a radiopaque pressure-reducing mattress on the OR bed.
B)The patient's vulnerable neurovascular bundles should be protected from compression.
C)There should be warmed sterile saline compresses provided to bony prominences to increase vascular perfusion.
D)The weight of instruments on top of the patient should be equally distributed to prevent pressure injuries.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
17
Chapter 16: Cardiac Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42063
Sample Questions
Q1) What statements regarding vascular clamps are true? Select all that apply from the options listed below.
A)Vascular clamps are designed to partially occlude blood flow.
B)Vascular clamps are designed to totally occlude blood flow.
C)All vascular clamps are designed to hold vessels securely without trauma.
D)All vascular clamps have similar angles, box locks, ring handles, and ratchets.
Q2) Select the noninvasive diagnostic test that illustrates heart wall motion and blood flow through the heart and quantifies cardiac function.
A)Radionuclide imaging
B)Cardiac catheterization
C)Echocardiography
D)Cardiac function studies
Q3) The blood is oxygenated in the lungs and returns to the left atrium through the pulmonary veins. Where does the blood flow after leaving the left atrium?
A)Through the mitral valve into the left ventricle
B)Through the tricuspid valve into the left ventricle
C)Through the aortic valve into the left ventricle
D)Through the aorta into the systemic circulation
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 18
Chapter 17: Pediatric Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42064
Sample Questions
Q1) Young children are predisposed to parasympathetic hypertonia (increased vagal tone), which can be induced by:
A)painful stimuli such as eye surgery or abdominal retraction.
B)anxiety stimuli such as separation from a parent.
C)environmental stimuli such as loud noise or flashes of light.
D)thermal stimuli such as ambient excessive heat or cold.
Q2) Improvements in instrumentation and the development of equipment in smaller sizes have resulted in the evolution of minimally invasive surgery (MIS) from that of a rapidly growing field to one of routine practice in the pediatric surgical arena. The advantages of MIS for the pediatric population include which true statement?
A)There is less risk for injury or complications with pneumoperitoneum insufflation.
B)Pediatric patients having MIS procedures have less prevalence of adhesion formation.
C)There is less possibility for abdominal injury from Foley catheter decompression.
D)MIS procedures on children do not require the use of thromboembolic devices.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
19
Chapter 18: Trauma Surgery
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42065
Sample Questions
Q1) Trauma to the chest area is the primary cause of death in approximately 25% of trauma victims. Involvement of the heart, great vessels, lungs, and diaphragm, attributable to penetrating or blunt injury, can provide multiple unexpected findings when the chest is opened. Because of the nature of the potential findings and expected surgical intervention, what would be an appropriate preparatory action for the surgical technologist to take?
A)Assist in setting up the autotransfusion system and resuscitation equipment.
B)Prepare the rapid response team and chaplain to be on alert.
C)Call for the small fragment set for rib fracture fixation at closure.
D)Prep the patient from the xiphoid to mid-thigh.
Q2) Autotransfusion can present a vital asset in trauma care, when considering the high blood loss associated with many traumatic injuries. This process provides immediate volume replacement, decreases the amount of bank blood used, and reduces the possibility of transfusion reactions or risk of transfusion with bloodborne pathogens. What are the contraindications to using autotransfusion as a blood replacement source?
A)Clean, hemodiluted blood
B)Blood contaminated with food, bowel contents, or antibiotic irrigation
C)Blood and fluids squeezed out of sterile bloody sponges
D)Pooled blood from a ruptured aortic aneurysm
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 20