Surgical Instrumentation Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Surgical Instrumentation is a comprehensive course that introduces students to the principles, safe handling, and practical application of instruments commonly used in surgical procedures. The course covers the identification, classification, and functions of various surgical tools, as well as techniques for proper sterilization, maintenance, and storage to ensure patient safety and support efficient surgical operations. Emphasis is placed on the critical role of surgical technologists and nurses in preparing, organizing, and managing instruments before, during, and after surgery. Through hands-on demonstrations and practical labs, students gain the foundational skills necessary for assisting in the operating room and advancing their careers in surgical healthcare environments.
Recommended Textbook
Surgical Technology for the Surgical Technologist A Positive Care Approach 5th Edition by Surgical
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24 Chapters
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Chapter 1: Orientation to Surgical Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which acronym represents an organization that serves as both an insurer and provider of medical services?
A) CDC
B) CEO
C) FDA
D) HMO
Answer: D
Q2) The federal governmental insurance programs under the general heading of CMS include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Medicare Part A
B) Medicare Part B
C) CHAMPUS
D) Medicaid Answer: C
Q3) How many phases of surgical case management are there?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Legal Concepts, Risk Management, and Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a common adage, what is the "best medicine" in health care?
A) conscience
B) documentation
C) judgment
D) prevention
Answer: D
Q2) "Captain of the ship" doctrine holds the surgeon accountable for all actions of the operating room team in lawsuits.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which type of legal action is MOST likely in cases involving tort law and operating room personnel?
A) civil
B) criminal
C) federal
D) statutory
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: The Surgical Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which area of concern or fear would most likely be the main focus for a toddler scheduled for surgery?
A) abandonment
B) body image
C) mortality
D) privacy
Answer: A
Q2) For what type of research was Elizabeth Kubler-Ross best known?
A) adaptation model
B) hierarchy of needs
C) patient care partnership
D) five stages of grief
Answer: D
Q3) Cultural and religious values of patients can conflict with the practice of modern medicine.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Special Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which special patient populations would likely require diagnostic biopsies for verification of cryptosporidiosis, candidiasis, or cytomegalovirus infections?
A) HIV/AIDS
B) diabetic
C) geriatric
D) trauma
Q2) Surgical site infections (SSIs) are the most common postoperative complication in patients with diabetes due to the increased perfusion of affected tissues.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which classification of antibiotics is contraindicated for use in neonates due to increased incidence of kernicterus?
A) cephalosporins
B) penicillins
C) sulfonamides
D) tetracyclins
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Chapter 5: Physical Environment and Safety Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of electricity is generated primarily by friction between two surfaces?
A) alternating
B) bipolar
C) direct
D) static
Q2) Which characteristic of surgical overhead lights allows the surgeon to differentiate between the colors of arterial and venous blood or subtle color changes in tissues?
A) lightbulbs that give fluorescent light
B) lightbulbs that approximate sunlight
C) adjustable tracks for repositioning lights
D) spot focus with dark center to prevent glaring
Q3) Which type of procedure would require an operating table with a fluid drain pan attachment?
A) cardiac catheterization
B) coronary artery bypass
C) craniotomy
D) cystoscopy
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Chapter 6: Biomedical Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sends computer information over phone or cable lines or satellite systems
A)Internet
B)Modern
C)Electrons
D)Alternating
E)Font
F)Insulator
G)Resistance
H)Software
I)Power
J)Ground
K)Port
L)Matter
M)Battery
N)Hardware
O)Scanner
Q2) Robotic manipulators are not sterilized, but are covered with disposable drapes for surgical procedures.
A)True
B)False
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Preventing Perioperative Disease and Transmission
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fungal infection caused by bread mold; sometimes seen in immune-suppressed organ transplant patients
A)Prions
B)Helminths
C)Spores
D)Prokaryotes
E)Helicobacter pylori
F)Zygomycosis
G)Viruses
H)Clostridium perfringens
I)Flagella
J)Staphylococcus aureus
Q2) The recommended biological indicator (BI) for hydrogen peroxide gas plasma is:
A) Bacillus atrophaeus
B) Bacillus subtilis
C) Geobacillus stearothermophilus
D) Staphylococcus aureus
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Chapter 8: Emergency Situations and All-Hazards Preparation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following accounts for up to 90% of contamination and should be removed as soon as possible after exposure to a radiological disaster?
A) ash
B) clothing
C) dust
D) hair
Q2) Which of the following terms describes a life-threatening condition if not immediately treated?
A) heat cramps
B) heat exhaustion
C) heat stroke
D) heat wave
Q3) What is the clinical term for the lesions that appear on the skin of a patient experiencing an allergic reaction?
A) abrasions
B) carbuncles
C) plaque
D) urticaria
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Chapter 9: Surgical Pharmacology and Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) are also known as:
A) adrenergics
B) analgesics
C) antibiotics
D) antihypertensives
Q2) Diminished cardiac and urinary output, hypotension, and tachycardia are signs of:
A) pseudocholinesterase deficiency syndrome
B) disseminated intravascular coagulopathy
C) malignant hyperthermia
D) shock
Q3) What type of anesthesia nerve block involves injecting local anesthetics with Wydase around the optic nerves?
A) Bier
B) caudal
C) epidural
D) retrobulbar
Q4) Drugs used for prophylaxis relieve pain or other symptoms of a disease process.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Instrumentation, Equipment, and Supplies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of syringe has no calibrations?
A) Asepto
B) bulb/ear
C) Luer-Lok
D) Luer-Slip
Q2) Penrose drains are active drains that are connected to a reservoir called a J-P bulb or "grenade."
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which fine, pointed-tip scalpel blade could be used to incise a blood vessel or create a stab wound for drain placement?
A) #10
B) #11
C) #12
D) #20
Q4) The #12 blade is used almost exclusively for which surgical procedure?
A) arthroscopy
B) craniotomy
C) laparotomy
D) tonsillectomy
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Hemostasis, Wound Healing, and Wound
Closure
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would be the type of suture placed temporarily in the tongue to hold it out of the way in a maxillofacial procedure?
A) purse-string
B) retention
C) suture ligature
D) traction
Q2) What is the term for removal of foreign material or contaminated debris from a wound?
A) debridement
B) dehiscence
C) denuding
D) desiccation
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a method of achieving hemostasis?
A) apportional
B) chemical
C) mechanical
D) thermal
Q4) Avitene, Gelfoam, and Surgicel are examples of mechanical methods of hemostasis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Surgical Case Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) With what amount and which fluid is a 16 Fr., two-way Foley catheter with 5 cc balloon filled?
A) 5 mL of sterile water
B) 5 mL of sterile normal saline
C) 10 mL of sterile water
D) 10 mL of sterile normal saline
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of blunt dissection of tissue?
A) Gloved finger against tissue.
B) Dissection sponge (peanut)
C) Surgeon and assistant pull open peritoneum bilaterally.
D) Endo Shears are used through laparoscopic trocar to separate tissue.
Q3) What is the name of the device used to manually assess blood pressure?
A) electrocardiograph
B) glucometer
C) pulse oximeter
D) sphygmomanometer
Q4) The ability to anticipate the needs of the surgeon is one of the most important skills for a surgical technologist to develop.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which wave of the cardiac cycle in an electrocardiogram indicates the ventricular repolarization phase?
A) P-wave
B) Q-R-S wave
C) T-wave
D) U-wave
Q2) Thoracentesis is removal of fluid from the:
A) amniotic sac
B) pleural space
C) synovial space
D) peritoneal cavity
Q3) Cholangiography is the diagnostic study that images which anatomical structure?
A) common bile duct
B) large intestine
C) upper GI tract
D) urinary system
Q4) Oxygen saturation is higher in the venous system than in the arterial system, making blood appear darker red.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: General Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A vagotomy is a surgical treatment option for:
A) appendicitis
B) ductal carcinoma
C) gastric ulcers
D) pancreatitis
Q2) Which incision is traditionally used for open appendectomy?
A) McBurney
B) median vertical
C) paramedian
D) Pfannenstiel
Q3) For which surgical procedure would the Buie pile forceps be used?
A) appendectomy
B) breast biopsy
C) cholecystectomy
D) hemorrhoidectomy
Q4) Where are the parathyroid glands located in relation to the thyroid?
A) anterior midline
B) posterior midline
C) dorsal, superior and inferior
D) ventral, superior and inferior
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Obstetric and Gynecologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) When is the first "uterine count" performed in a cesarean section?
A) when the umbilical cord is clamped and cord blood is collected
B) immediately prior to delivery of the placenta
C) when the first suture is given for closure of the uterus
D) as the fascial or muscle layer is being sutured
Q2) Which type of needle holder is curved and frequently used for hysterectomy procedures?
A) Castroviejo
B) Heaney
C) Mayo-Hegar
D) Webster
Q3) Which method of tubal ligation (sterilization) is most frequently used?
A) Pomeroy
B) Irving
C) Parkland
D) Kroener fimbriectomy
Q4) Clamp, clamp, cut, tie (CCCT) is a way to anticipate routine dissection steps during hysterectomy procedures.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A trephine is used in which ophthalmologic procedure?
A) dacryocystorhinostomy
B) enucleation
C) keratoplasty
D) strabismus correction
Q2) Which of the following is the term for "crossed eyes"?
A) amblyopia
B) estropia
C) myopia
D) presbyopia
Q3) For which surgical procedure would an Fragmatome be used?
A) vitrectomy
B) enucleation
C) keratoplasty
D) strabismus correction
Q4) What kind of anesthetic block is used for a vitrectomy procedure?
A) Bier
B) spinal
C) caudal
D) retrobulbar
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Chapter 17: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Topical cocaine 4% is used in nasal surgery for:
A) anesthesia
B) dilation
C) lubrication
D) prepping
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an ossicle found in the middle ear?
A) cochlea
B) incus
C) malleus
D) stapes
Q3) What is the name of the sharp-tipped, handheld retractor that can be either single or double and often is found in nasal trays?
A) Aufricht
B) Joseph
C) Senn
D) Weitlaner
Q4) Rhinoplasty procedures are often considered "plastic surgery" cases rather than otorhinolaryngological.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which muscle attaches to the coronoid process of the ramus?
A) frontalis
B) platysma
C) temporalis
D) sternocleidomastoid
Q2) All of the following are configurations of fixation plates for maxillofacial fracture reduction EXCEPT:
A) H
B) L
C) W
D) Y
Q3) Which hemostatic agent is used during oral and maxillofacial procedures that requires advising the anesthesia provider of its use?
A) absorbable collagen
B) bone wax
C) epinephrine
D) topical thrombin
Q4) Dental drills are always used to cut bone so that teeth can be extracted whole.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following bones make up the palm of the hand?
A) carpals
B) metacarpals
C) phalanges
D) radii
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding routine prepping for skin graft procedures is CORRECT?
A) Donor site is prepped first and considered clean.
B) Donor site is prepped last and considered contaminated.
C) Recipient site is prepped first and considered contaminated.
D) Recipient site is prepped last and considered clean.
Q3) What is the term for webbed digits of the hand or foot?
A) contracture
B) dermachalasis
C) polydactyly
D) syndactyly
Q4) Severed digits should be kept tightly covered and warm to prevent clot formation and necrosis, preventing replantation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Genitourinary Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Radical nephrectomy is usually performed with the patient in which position?
A) lateral
B) low-lithotomy
C) prone
D) supine
Q2) Which incisional approach is used for access to the lower ureter and may be used for donor kidney implantation?
A) flank
B) Gibson
C) inguinal
D) scrotal
Q3) How is the anesthetic jelly that is inserted into the male urethra prior to cystoscopy kept from leaking out?
A) A cotton-tipped applicator is inserted into the external meatus.
B) A sterile tight-fitting condom is applied to the penis.
C) A flexible penile clamp is applied to the head of the penis.
D) A gloved finger is held firmly against the head of the penis.
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22
Chapter 21: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Implantable devices made of different alloys can cause breakdown of the device and may cause wound infection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What should the surgical technologist do while the surgeon is using the oscillating saw during open acromioplasty?
A) Blot any bleeding bone surfaces carefully with sponge stick.
B) Collect bone chips in wound carefully with cupped tissue forceps.
C) Drip small amounts of irrigation onto blade to prevent overheating.
D) Suction smoke from operative site created by heated tissues.
Q3) Which medical term means moving a body part away from the midline?
A) flexion
B) abduction
C) adduction
D) supination
Q4) Which bone is involved in a Colles' fracture?
A) ulna
B) radius
C) scapula
D) humerus
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Cardiothoracic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A heart murmur is often heard with auscultation and indicative of involvement of which structure?
A) aortic valve
B) mitral valve
C) right ventricle
D) left ventricle
Q2) What is the name of the acute condition in which heart muscle dies from ischemia and may lead to sudden cardiac death?
A) heart block
B) atherosclerosis
C) cardiac tamponade
D) myocardial infarction
Q3) Which device is used for patients awaiting heart transplant that allows them to be ambulatory and has both internal and external components to the system?
A) ventricular assist device
B) left ventricular vent
C) cardiac pacemaker
D) vena cava filter
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24
Chapter 23: Peripheral Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Javid and Argyle are examples of which type of device used in select vascular procedures?
A) catheters
B) shunts
C) guidewires
D) peel-away sheaths
Q2) Which of the following is the BEST choice for distal bypass graft in the lower extremity?
A) Dacron
B) Gore-Tex
C) PTFE
D) saphenous vein
Q3) What is done with the aneurysm sac in AAA repair?
A) excised and discarded
B) excised and sent as specimen
C) inverted and tacked to back of graft
D) anterior wall sutured over the proximal graft
Q4) The lumens of veins are larger than the lumens of arteries.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Neurosurgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The surgical technologist may have up to three separate setups in a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy procedure: nasal access, tumor excision, and fascial graft.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the name of the set of instruments used for anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion that includes retractors, spreaders, bone dowel cutters, impactors, and others?
A) Cloward
B) Greenburg
C) Mayfield
D) Yasargil
Q3) Which portion of the normal spinal column has five (5) vertebrae?
A) cervical
B) thoracic
C) lumbar
D) coccygeal
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