Supply Chain Management Final Exam - 1572 Verified Questions

Page 1


Supply Chain Management

Final Exam

Course Introduction

Supply Chain Management explores the strategies and processes involved in the efficient flow of goods, information, and finances from raw material suppliers to end consumers. The course examines topics such as sourcing and procurement, production planning, inventory management, logistics, distribution, and the management of relationships between partners in the supply chain. Emphasis is placed on the integration of supply chain activities to add value, reduce costs, and improve customer satisfaction. Students will analyze real-world cases, evaluate supply chain performance, and investigate the role of technology and sustainability in modern supply chains.

Recommended Textbook

OM 4th Edition by David Alan Collier

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23 Chapters

1572 Verified Questions

1572 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Goods, Services, and Operations Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) The demand for services is usually easier to predict than the demand for goods.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) A customer benefit package (CBP) consists of both a primary good and a primary service.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) Which of the following is not a current challenge to OM?

A)globalization

B)technology

C)quality

D)mass production

Answer: D

Q4) Many products that appear to be only physical goods often include bundled services.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 2: Value Chains

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not true? To increase value, an organization must

A)decrease price or cost while holding perceived benefits constant.

B)hold perceived benefits constant while increasing price or cost.

C)increase perceived benefits while holding price or cost constant.

D)increase perceived benefits while reducing price or cost.

Answer: B

Q2) Nearly all value chains are managed from a centralized operational structure because of the inherent inefficiencies that are found in decentralized operational structures.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) The focus on value has forced many traditional goods-producing companies to reduce services for their customer benefits package.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 3: Measuring Performance in Operations

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Q1) When Bill Gates stated that "Microsoft is always two years away from failure," he was emphasizing the importance of

A)innovation and learning

B)productivity

C)design flexibility

D)speed

Answer: A

Q2) Which of the following is not a key dimension of service quality?

A)conformance

B)tangibles

C)empathy

D)reliability

Answer: A

Q3) Which of the following would be an example of an innovation and learning performance measure?

A)employee satisfaction

B)earnings per share

C)design flexibility

D)product-related litigation

Answer: A

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Chapter 4: Operations Strategy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which one of the following statements in the Lawn Care Company (LCC) case study is true?

A)The LCC already had experience and capabilities in the residential lawn application service and market segment, and was considering using this expertise to enter the golf and park market segment.

B)The gross margin on grass seed and fertilizer were higher than on the lawn application service.

C)Service management skills play a major role in the LCC current strategy and vision of the business.

D)The order winner for the current strategy at LCC is high physical goods quality.

Q2) What do managers need to understand in order to create a sustainable competitive advantage?

Q3) A firm's ability to achieve market and financial superiority over its competitors is called

A)Operations strategy

B)Strategic planning

C)Competitive advantage

D)Competitive priority

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6

Chapter 5: Technology and Operations Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) An integrated operating system can readily be transferred among different industries.

A)True

B)False

Q2) CAD/CAE systems are broader in scope than CIM systems.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A company such as eBay relies more on soft technology than hard technology.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Bar code scanners are examples of soft-technology.

A)True

B)False

Q5) During which stage of technology development and adoption is design and demand flexibility most critical?

A)Birth

B)Turbulence

C)Build-out

D)Decline

Q6) List some of the key issues that organizations face in using technology.

Page 7

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Chapter 6: Goods and Service Design

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not a principal element in service encounter design?

A)Technology and information support systems

B)Customer contact behavior and skills

C)Service provider selection, development and empowerment

D)Service recovery and guarantees

Q2) The "goal post model" of conforming to specifications by specifying a nominal dimension and a tolerance is the basis for calculating the Taguchi loss function.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Redundancy is the use of backup components in a design.

A)True

B)False

Q4) A(n) ____ is a promise to reward and compensate a customer if a service upset occurs.

A)service guarantee

B)customer contact requirement

C)service recovery

D)empowerment

Q5) Explain the concept of Design for Manufacturability (DFM).

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Chapter 7: Process Selection, Design, and Analysis

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Sample Questions

Q1) What type of process would a paper mill most likely use?

A)Project

B)Job shop

C)Flow shop process

D)Continuous flow process

Q2) During which phase of a product's life cycle does low unit cost become a top competitive priority?

A)Introduction

B)Growth

C)Maturity

D)Decline

Q3) Which one of the following major activities is not one of the six major activities to design a goods-producing or service-providing process?

A)Define the purpose and objectives of the process.

B)Create a detailed process or value stream map that baselines current performance.

C)Use the product life cycle for each good or service to create a future state process map.

D)Select the appropriate equipment and technology.

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Chapter 8: Facility and Work Design

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Sample Questions

Q1) A Gallup study showed that workers who are allowed to personalize their workplaces were no more productive than those who are not allowed.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A ____ layout consists of a functional grouping of equipment or activities that do similar work.

A)Product

B)Process

C)Cellular

D)Fixed position

Q3) Which one of the following fits best with process layout?

A)Skilled workers

B)Standardization

C)Specialized equipment

D)Little work-in-process inventories

Q4) Assembly line balancing

A)Is a one-time activity.

B)Tries to minimize the production rate for a given number of work stations.

C)Tries to minimize the number of work stations for a given production rate.

D)Attempts to load work into early work stations.

Page 10

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Chapter 9: Supply Chain Design

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Sample Questions

Q1) The Supply Chain Operations Reference (SCOR) Model function that entails all order management activities from processing customer orders to routing shipments, managing goods at distribution centers and invoicing the customer is called ____.

A)Return

B)Source

C)Make

D)Deliver

Q2) Which of the following is not a basic function of the Supply Chain Operations Reference (SCOR) model?

A)source

B)make

C)deliver

D)control

Q3) With vendor-managed inventory, a manufacturer monitors and managers inventory for a customer.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Explain the importance of the bullwhip effect.What can managers do to reduce it?

Q5) Explain the typical structure of a supply chain.

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Chapter 10: Capacity Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) Large capacity increases help to spread fixed costs of construction and operating system setup over one large project.

A)True

B)False

Q2) An example of safety capacity would be planning additional capacity to account for employee summer vacations.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Economies of scale occur when the average unit cost of the good or service begins to increase as the capacity and/or volume of throughput increases.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What are complementary goods and services and why do firms have them?

Q5) A measure of capacity is the number of seats on an airplane per flight.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Constraints determine the throughput of a facility.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 11: Forecasting and Demand Planning

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Sample Questions

Q1) An R<sup>2</sup> of 0.80 means

A)80% of the variability in the independent variable is explained by the dependent variable

B)80% of the variability in the dependent variable is explained by the independent variable

C)80% of the variability in the dependent variable is not explained by the independent variable

D)Multiple regression was used

Q2) The forecasting error measurement that is different in that the measurement scale factor is eliminated is

A)MSE

B)MAD

C)RMSE

D)MAPE

Q3) In an exponential smoothing model, larger values of alpha (i.e., closer to 1) place less emphasis on recent data and more on older data.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Define forecast error and describe ways that it is measured.

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Chapter 12: Managing Inventories

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Sample Questions

Q1) Maintaining large stocks of inventory is a requirement in today's supply chains in order to improve profitability.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Define the EOQ model and explain its major assumptions.

Q3) What are the four categories of inventory costs?

Q4) Explain the ABC inventory classification.

Q5) "A" items typically comprise a high percentage of total dollar usage but a low percentage of unit volume.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Explain the different types of inventories maintained throughout a value chain.

Q7) Which of the following is not a component of holding cost?

A)Taxes

B)Insurance

C)Material handling

D)Order processing

Q8) What is inventory management and why is it important?

Page 14

Q9) Discuss the concept of safety stock in a fixed order quantity system with uncertain demand.

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Page 15

Chapter 13: Resource Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) The Lot-for-Lot (LFL) rule

A)Minimizes purchase or setup costs

B)Allows the firm to take advantage of quantity discounts (price breaks) by suppliers

C)Is best applied when inventory carrying costs are high and setup/order costs are low

D)Masks the true nature of dependent demand

Q2) Lot sizing rules on a parent item do not affect the gross requirements of all lower level component items.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Dependent demand does not occur in the service business.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The purpose of the master schedule is to translate the aggregate plan into a separate plan for individual finished goods.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What are the components of an MRP record?

Q6) What is capacity requirements planning (CRP)?

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Chapter 14: Operations Scheduling and Sequencing

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Sample Questions

Q1) Scheduling problems occur almost exclusively in manufacturing.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Indirectly, appointments reduce the cost of providing a service because the service provider is idle less each workday.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Telling an umpire crew to work baseball games in Chicago, then Milwaukee, and then Cleveland is an example of a sequence.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Give at least five examples of service organizations (and employee type) where, due to high variability in customer demand, staff scheduling problems are prevalent.

Q5) High flow times reduce WIP inventory.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Explain the three categories of criteria used to evaluate job sequencing performance.For each category, provide two example measures.

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Chapter 15: Quality Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe the rationale underlying ISO 9000:2000.

Q2) In Six Sigma terminology, a defect is any mistake or error that is passed on to the customer.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A tool to help focus on the most significant problems is

A)Flow-charts

B)Pareto analysis

C)Cause-and-effect diagram

D)Scatter diagram

Q4) The costs associated with maintaining measurement instruments would be an example of appraisal costs.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Performance standards in services are analogous to manufacturing specifications.

A)True

B)False

Q6) The GAP model recognizes five ways to mis-specify and mismanage the creation and delivery of high levels of quality.Describe each of the five problem areas (GAPS).

Page 18

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Chapter 16: Quality Control and Spc

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Sample Questions

Q1) A company is measuring the time it takes to complete an order.Twenty five samples of size 6 resulted in an average time of 80 minutes with an average range of 20 minutes.Find control limits for the appropriate control chart(s) that would be used to monitor this process.

Q2) The value of C<sub>pk</sub> is the average of the lower and upper capability indexes; that is, C<sub>pk</sub> = (C<sub>pl</sub> + C<sub>pu</sub>)/2.

A)True B)False

Q3) Explain and give the significance of the 1:10:100 Rule.

Q4) Jim is a quality control manager at a clothing manufacturer.He is studying a quality problem where zippers are purchased from an outside supplier and have been discovered to be poorly constructed.When the zipper is manufactured correctly, it should have a mean length of 15 inches and a range of .5 inches.Jamie proposes that 25 samples of five observations each should be collected on a daily basis.He plans to prepare control charts to monitor the progress of the supplier's quality performance on the zippers.

a.What are the upper and lower control limits and center line for an R chart?

b.What are the upper and lower control limits and center line for an X-bar chart?

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Page 19

Chapter 17: Lean Operating Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) A manufacturing company is using a two-container Kanban system between a downstream (using) and an upstream (producing) work center.Each container holds 25 parts.The using work center can handle 100 parts per day.The average elapsed time for the entire cycle is currently .40 days.The company is concerned about the efficiency of the operation.

a.What is the safety factor for the current operation?

b.What is the maximum authorized inventory for this part?

c.If the number of containers is reduced to one, how many parts must it hold?

d.If the efficiency is changed to .10 and the number of parts per container is increased to 44, how many containers will be needed?

Q2) Lean Six Sigma is simply the union of lean approaches with quality improvement techniques, each of which has been used independently in other applications.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following "lean" ideas is false?

A)Activities not adding value are a waste.

B)Accidents are a form of waste.

C)A pull system produces waste.

D)Overproduction is a form of waste.

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Page 20

Chapter 18: Project Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) Crashing refers to the process of shortening selected activity times in order to reduce the overall project completion time.

A)True

B)False

Q2) In a matrix organization, functional managers may be reluctant to provide the resources and employees, and the employees assigned to projects may relegate a project to a lower priority than their daily functional job.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The Critical Path Method (CPM) allows for an evaluation of uncertainty in project completion times.

A)True

B)False

Q4) All activities on the critical path have a zero slack time.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Define critical path and explain how it is identified once a project schedule is calculated

Q6) Describe the four major steps in the project-planning process.

Page 21

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Chapter 19: Work Measurement, Learning Curves, and Standards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Discuss several factors that can affect the application of the learning curve or experience curve and/or the amount of learning that occurs.

Q2) Locksmith Inc.has an order from a bank for 50 specially designed safes, one for each bank branch.It is estimated that the first safe will require 75 hours of shop time and a 90% learning curve is expected.The labor rate is $15.00 per hour and the pricing policy of the company is to triple the labor cost of the order.

a.How many labor hours should the 50th unit require?

b.How many labor hours will the whole order require?

c.What is the customer's price for each safe?

Q3) Define work measurement and what it leads to from an operations perspective.

Q4) Allowances include time for all of the following except

A)Fatigue

B)Equipment breakdowns

C)Rest periods

D)Poor scheduling

Q5) A manufacturer made a commitment to supply 20 units of a product.The first unit took 1,200 hours to make, the second unit took 900 hours and the third unit took 768 hours.How many hours should it take to make the 20<sup>th</sup> unit?

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Chapter 20: Queuing Analysis

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Sample Questions

Q1) A university bookstore opens a booth and buys back used books during final exam week.From 9 to 12 in the morning students arrive at the rate of 35 per hour on average.The bookstore employee can service an average of 40 students per hour.

a.What is the average length of the line?

b.What is the average time (in minutes) a student spends in the bookstore (system)?

c.What is the chance that the bookstore employee will be idle?

Q2) Discuss three categories of information necessary to analyze a waiting line.

Q3) The mean arrival rate is used to express demand; the mean service rate is used to express a system's capacity.

A)True

B)False

Q4) ____ is the use of a criterion that allows new arrivals to displace members of the current queue and become the first to receive service.

A)Shortest Processing Time (SPT)

B)A random queue discipline

C)Preemption

D)A reservation

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Chapter 21: Modeling Using Linear Programming

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Sample Questions

Q1) (Ending inventory from the previous month) + (current production) - (ending inventory this month) =

A)Production rate change

B)This month's demand

C)Amount of overtime/under-time

D)Next month's inventory

Q2) Neither the R<sub>m</sub>, increase in the total production levels during Month 'm' compared to Month m-1, or the D<sub>m</sub>, decrease in the total production level during Month 'm' compared to Month m-1, can be negative because only positive changes would be permitted due to the non-negativity requirement.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What characterizes a linear function?

Q4) X<sub>1</sub>, X<sub>2</sub> \(\ge\) 0 refers to

A)Feasibility

B)Maximization

C)Production-rate changes

D)Non-negativity

Q5) Explain the essence of a blending problem.

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Chapter 22: Simulation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Explain the major differences between a fixed-time and a next-event simulation model.Include advantages and disadvantages of each.

Q2) Discuss three advantages and three disadvantages of simulation models.

Q3) Discuss a simulator.How does it differ from simulation software such as ProcessModel?

Q4) In general, as the number of probabilistic components of a system increases, the more likely it is that simulation will be the best analysis approach.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Spreadsheets are extremely strong in their ability to conduct dynamic simulation analysis.

A)True

B)False

Q6) In regard to a simulation model for inventory management, all of the following are correct except

A)Results in an optimal solution with a large simulation

B)Many days of simulation run are needed to obtain meaningful results

C)Lead-time can vary

D)Assumes that a specific reorder point and order quantity have been selected

25

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Chapter 23: Decision Analysis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Uncertainty refers to not knowing what will happen in the future.Which of the following least applies to uncertainty?

A)Usually does not involve a sequence of decisions

B)Little or no data available

C)Some data is very expensive

D)Some data is time-consuming to obtain

Q2) Describe how the following criteria are applied to a decision problem in which the object is maximization.

a.Maximax

b.Maximin

c.Minimax regrets

Q3) Managers don't often have the information necessary to find optimal solutions to business problems.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The expected value concept weighs each payoff for an alternative in proportion to the likelihood that the payoff will occur.

A)True

B)False

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