Strategic Marketing
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Strategic Marketing is a comprehensive course that delves into the processes and frameworks businesses use to analyze, develop, and execute marketing strategies that create and sustain competitive advantage. Students will explore market segmentation, targeting, and positioning, as well as the integration of product, price, place, and promotion strategies within the broader goals of an organization. Emphasis is placed on understanding customer behavior, competitor analysis, and the impact of external environments on decision-making. Through case studies, simulations, and real-world applications, the course equips students with the analytical and creative skills needed to design effective marketing strategies in dynamic and diverse markets.
Recommended Textbook
MR2 2nd Edition by Tom J. Brown
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2
Chapter 1: Marketing Research: From Data to Information to Action
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Q1) Which of the following is FALSE?
A) The basic purpose of marketing research is to assist marketing managers in making more informed decisions.
B) Marketing research became a significant business activity after World War II when the economy changed from a production orientation to a consumption orientation.
C) Marketing research as an organizational function was adopted by most firms when they could no longer satisfy demand for their products.
D) Marketing managers and marketing researchers work together in close partnerships that are most successful when managers understand research processes.
E) All of the above are false.
Answer: C
Q2) Primary data are almost always less expensive and can be obtained and analyzed more quickly than secondary data.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: The Research Question: Formulation of the Problem
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Q1) A strategy-oriented decision problem typically seeks to answer "how" questions about a problem/opportunity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The main purpose of discovery-oriented marketing research is to:
A) decide what to do about a planned change.
B) find out what is happening and why.
C) try out a new product in a test market.
D) describe changes in the internal environment.
E) capture and evaluate a new idea.
Answer: B
Q3) Serendipity, or chance ideas, as a source of marketing research problems, might arise from:
A) customer complaint letters.
B) salesperson's call reports.
C) comments in trade publications.
D) customer calls to assistance centers.
E) all of the above.
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: Exploratory, Descriptive, and Causal Research Designs
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Q1) Benefits of focus groups include:
A) ideas that can drop "out of the blue."
B) snowballing of ideas.
C) more spontaneous responses than in one-on-one interviews.
D) easy interpretation of responses.
E) a, b, and c.
Answer: E
Q2) Using different ads in different geographic areas and investigating which ad generated the highest sales is an example of _____ research design.
A) causal
B) exploratory
C) longitudinal
D) descriptive
E) panel
Answer: A
Q3) A(n) ____________________ is a statement that specifies how two or more measurable variables are related.
Answer: hypothesis
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Chapter 4: Collecting Secondary Data from Inside and
Outside the Organization
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Q1) Which of the following is (are) secondary source(s) of secondary data?
A) A table showing "Prestige Ratings of Occupations in the United States" published in a textbook but extracted from a research monograph.
B) Estimated brand shares for a number of leading electrical firms as published in Fortune and which was the result of research sponsored by that magazine.
C) The Census of Population.
D) The Census of Housing which is taken in conjunction with the Census of Population.
E) Results of a research project on a related topic.
Q2) Name at least one of the key sources researchers should keep in mind in conducting a search process: ____________________.
Q3) The distinction between primary and secondary data is defined by the:
A) method of collection.
B) purpose of the investigation.
C) form used for collection.
D) group sponsoring the collection.
E) type of data collected.
Q4) Compare and contrast primary and secondary data.
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Chapter 5: Collecting Primary Data by Observation
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Q1) Observational research is often considered the best method of generating valid data as this method is completely error free.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The best predictor of future behavior is usually ____________________.
Q3) From a marketer's perspective, when measuring the effectiveness of an advertisement, a person's awareness refers to:
A) to his knowledge of the program that preceded the ad.
B) how much a person knows about the advertisement.
C) the person's level of consciousness.
D) what the person knows about the company.
E) how many magazines the person reads.
Q4) Researchers believe that motives tend to be less stable than behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ____________________ observation applies when the research problem has been defined precisely enough so that one can specify the behaviors to be observed as well as the categories used to record and analyze the situation.
Q6) ____________________ refers to an individual's overall evaluation of something.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Collecting Primary Data by Communication
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of structured questions?
A) Questions are standardized
B) Simple to administer
C) Responses difficult to interpret
D) Saves time and money
E) Easy to analyze
Q2) The fixed-alternative question is most useful when possible replies are well known, limited in number and clear cut.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following questionnaire administration methods is the LEAST expensive?
A) Personal interviews
B) Email/Web-based surveys
C) Mail surveys
D) Depth interview
E) Telephone surveys
Q4) A disguised questionnaire makes the purpose of the research obvious.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Asking Good Questions
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Q1) If he/she wanted to use the highest level of measurement possible, the researcher measuring respondent age would most likely suggest using _____ and a(n) _____ scale.
A) an open-ended item; interval
B) an open-ended item; ratio
C) age range categories; ordinal
D) age range categories; interval
E) an open-ended item; nominal
Q2) Which of the following about a nominal scale is FALSE?
A) You are studying the product life cycle phenomenon attempting to classify certain products into the following stages: introduction, growth, maturity, saturation, and decline. This represents nominal scaling.
B) With a nominal scale, the numbers assigned to individuals or categories are arbitrary.
C) The respondent's gender is an example of a nominal scale.
D) Both a and b
E) a, b, and c.
Q3) Error in measurement that is also known as constant error since it affects the measurement in a constant way is called ____________________ error.
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Chapter 8: Designing the Questionnaire
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Q1) A questionnaire using quality paper and printing techniques:
A) is an unnecessary expense.
B) reflects the importance of the study.
C) is unimportant in gaining respondent cooperation.
D) is unimportant to questionnaire design.
E) causes mistrust in the respondent.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT recommended to facilitate handling and control of a questionnaire?
A) Stapling multiple pages together.
B) Leaving enough room for open-ended questions.
C) Numbering the questions.
D) Using paper no larger than 8 1/2 x 11 inches.
E) All of the above are all recommended to facilitate handling and control of questionnaires.
Q3) ____________________ refers to the potential for responses to be affected by the sequence in which alternatives are presented.
Q4) A(n) ____________________ question is framed so as to give the respondent a clue as to how he or she should answer.
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Chapter 9: Developing the Sampling Plan
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Q1) In proportionate stratified sampling, after the total sample is allocated, a simple random sample is chosen from each subpopulation to create the total sample.
A)True
B)False
Q2) There is a trade-off between the confidence level and the degree of precision of the estimate when the:
A) population is finite.
B) sample size is fixed.
C) sample size varies.
D) population is infinite.
E) sample size is small.
Q3) The difference between results obtained from a sample and results that would have been obtained had information been gathered from or about every member of the population is called ____________________.
Q4) Compare and contrast probability and nonprobability sampling.
Q5) A(n) ____________________ sample is a nonprobability sample chosen so that the proportion of sample elements with certain characteristics is about the same as the proportion of the elements with the characteristics of the target population.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Data Collection: Enhancing Response Rates
while Limiting Errors
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Q1) Which of the following statements concerning response errors is FALSE?
A) Respondents who understand a question may not always provide a truthful answer to the question.
B) It is possible that a respondent may understand a question correctly but not actually know the answer to the question.
C) Providing a "don't know" response category will often create difficulties in data analysis.
D) Pre-testing the questionnaire with members of the relevant population is generally not effective at eliminating problems due to respondents misunderstanding questionnaire items.
E) All of the above statements are true.
Q2) ____________________ - this type of error occurs when an individual provides a response to an item, but the response is inaccurate for some reason.
Q3) Nonresponse error represents a failure to obtain information from some elements of the population that were selected and designated for the sample.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss at least five (5) ways in which response rates might be improved.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Data Preparation for Analysis
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Q1) Which of the following might NOT be an appropriate strategy for dealing with missing information on a questionnaire?
A) Throw out the entire questionnaire.
B) Overlook the missing information and code the remaining answers.
C) Substitute information based on the responses of similar respondents.
D) Both a and c only.
E) All of the above might be appropriate.
Q2) A data-entry operator was having a bad day while inputting data from your research project. He occasionally entered "9" when meaning to enter "3". This is an example of a(n) _____.
A) gaffe
B) blunder
C) codebook error
D) outlier
E) nonresponse error
Q3) Double entry of data, requires that the data be entered twice in the same data file to prevent discrepancies.
A)True
B)False
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Analysis & Interpretation: Individual Variables
Independently
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Q1) Refer to Exhibit 12.4. What is the value of the test statistic useful for determining how well the pattern of sales (by fabric type) of the new running suit corresponds to the expected pattern?
A)136.21
B)584.81
C)0.973
D)422.13
E) None of the above.
Q2) Refer to Exhibit 12.2. What is the average number of televisions per household?
A)2.00
B)1.85
C)1.52
D)2.25
E)2.74
Q3) In the following data set, what is the median? 12, 0, 0, 1, 1, 1, 6, 10, 11.
A)4.66
B) 1
C) 42
D) 6
E) 0
14
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Chapter 13: Analysis & Interpretation: Multiple Variables
Simultaneously
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Q1) Refer to Exhibit 13.1. The most appropriate way to calculate percentages in the above table to reflect cause and effect is by dividing
A) each of the entries by 100.
B) 45 and 55 by 100.
C) 42 and 58 by 100.
D) entries in the first row by 45 and those in the second row by 55.
E) entries in the first column by 42 and those in the second column by 58.
Q2) Refer to Exhibit 13.2. Assuming that the standard error of estimate for the difference in means is 1.5, calculate the value of the test statistic that would be used in the comparison of the two means.
A)0.75
B)1.33
C)1.88
D)1.96
E) None of the above.
Q3) Percentages are always calculated in the direction of the causal variable.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: The Research Report
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Q1) Which of the following is typically NOT included in the body of a research report?
A) Whether the results are based on primary or secondary data
B) Description of the sampling plan
C) Discussion of the method of analysis
D) Conclusions and recommendations
E) Statement of the limitations of the study
Q2) Pie charts are useful for illustrating trend relationships.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When preparing an oral/verbal presentation, the first task of the presenter should be to:
A) determine who will be in the audience.
B) develop graphical presentation aids.
C) decide on the organization of the presentation.
D) test the sound system where the presentation will take place.
E) write the verbal portion of the presentation.
Q4) A stratum chart is also called a stacked line chart.
A)True
B)False
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