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Strategic Management explores the formulation, implementation, and evaluation of cross-functional decisions that enable organizations to achieve long-term objectives. This course examines tools and frameworks for analyzing competitive environments, assessing internal capabilities, and identifying strategic opportunities and threats. Students learn how organizations create value, establish competitive advantage, and adapt to rapidly changing markets. Through case studies and real-world applications, the course emphasizes strategy development, execution, and performance measurement in diverse industries and global contexts.
Recommended Textbook
Modern Management Concepts and Skills 14th Edition by Samuel C. Certo
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Q1) As a manager's career advances from lower-level management to upper-level management, conceptual skills become more important and technical skills less important while at the same time their time spent planning increases and daily leading of operational employees decreases.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Jonah has been a team manager for eight years now. In that time, his performance has remained consistently satisfactory, but there have been no drastic changes. A junior colleague was recently promoted to department head and Jonah now reports to him. Jonah's career can best be described as being in the ________ stage.
A) exploration
B) establishment
C) exponential
D) plateauing
E) decline
Answer: D
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Q1) Any individual or group that is directly or indirectly affected by an organization's decisions is called a stakeholder.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) When Mohawk Home Company develops a new line of all natural fiber rugs, the company could be said to be ________.
A) socially redundant
B) socially respectful
C) socially responsible
D) socially obligated
E) socially normed
Answer: C
Q3) Being socially responsible requires businesses to have both societal and economic goals as well as the obligation to anticipate potential social problems and work actively toward preventing their occurrence.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Perceptions about the sexes based on what society believes are appropriate behaviors for men and women ________.
A) are instances of sexual harassment
B) are gender-role stereotypes
C) are sources of pluralism
D) are indications of ethnocentrism
E) are results of bicultural stress
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of a diverse workforce?
A) less resilience to change
B) decreased market share
C) decreased innovation
D) decreased costs
E) lower productivity
Answer: D
Q3) The assimilation approach advocates shaping organization members to fit the existing culture of the organization.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Walt is a United States citizen who has been managing a business unit in Japan. He has been told he will be returning to the U.S. in three months. In this new role, Walt is a/an
A) third-country national
B) host-country national
C) expatriate
D) repatriate
E) workforce national
Q2) Geert Hofstede's research has been instrumental in understanding how culture across nations vary. Mexico and France valuing autocratic leadership is a reflection of which one of the following Hofstede cultural dimensions?
A) power distance
B) uncertainty avoidance
C) individualism and collectivism
D) masculinity and femininity
E) short- and long-term orientation
Q3) The European Union is an example of an international market agreement.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) ________ refers to what a firm exists to do, given a particular group of customers and customer needs.
A) An operational plan
B) A unique selling proposition
C) An organizational purpose
D) A long-term goal
E) A vision statement
Q2) Which of the following methods of sales forecasting is the most straightforward?
A) jury of executive opinion method
B) salesforce estimation method
C) moving average method
D) regression method
E) disturbance handler method
Q3) Which of the following is an advantage of planning?
A) It eliminates all risks.
B) It enhances decision coordination.
C) It emphasizes immediate goals.
D) It suboptimizes the use of resources.
E) It promotes individual performance.
Q4) Describe the steps in the planning process.
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Q1) An individual's tendency to believe they are less susceptible to risky events than others is referred to as ________.
A) the bandwagon effect
B) the confirmation bias
C) loss aversion
D) overconfidence
E) unrealistic optimism
Q2) An advantage of the nominal group technique is that ________.
A) it prevents members from questioning the validity of others' ideas
B) it allows members to know why individuals voted the way they did
C) discussions are structured and feedback on the ideas are not immediately gathered
D) it is suitable for teams whose group members are geographically dispersed
E) it provides the option of supporting or rejecting an idea without fear of recrimination
Q3) Which group decision making process should managers use if they have observed their individual employees are less likely to offer input when working in a group of peers?
Q4) What are the orientations of weak decision makers?
Q5) Discuss briefly the steps in the decision-making process.
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Q1) Strategic implementation is the last step of the strategic management process.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ________ is the purpose for which - and the reason why - an organization exists.
A) Organizational objective
B) Organizational strategy
C) Organizational mission
D) Organizational policy
E) Organizational rule
Q3) What is the BCG Growth-Share Matrix? Explain what stars, question marks, cash cows, and dogs are. According to the BCG Growth-Share Matrix, what should managers do with each of these?
Q4) What is a SWOT analysis and what benefit does conducting this analysis offer to managers?
Q5) Which business strategy is generally applied to cash cows?
A) divestiture
B) stability
C) growth
D) retrenchment
E) focus

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Q1) Define the concepts of vertical dimensioning, scalar relationships, and unity of command and explain how they are related.
Q2) Formal structure is ________.
A) molded by individual norms and values and social relationships
B) defined as the relationships that evolve naturally among organization members
C) represented primarily by the organization chart
D) usually drawn directly from an organization's informal structure
E) usually identical to an organization's informal structure
Q3) Which of the following is an advantage of division of labor?
A) It emphasizes the human variable in organizations.
B) It results in high levels of employee motivation.
C) It results in specialization and higher skill levels.
D) It makes work more interesting.
E) It broadens the scope of work.
Q4) Which of the following is the most widely used basis for departmentalization?
A) customer
B) work functions
C) geography
D) matrix
E) product or service
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Q1) Describe the characteristics of a responsible manager and explain the method used to determine the degree of responsibility a manager possesses.
Q2) Which of the following obstacles to delegation is related to the supervisor?
A) fear that subordinates will not perform a job well
B) reluctance to accept delegated authority
C) reluctance to exercise authority that may complicate working relationships
D) fear that the supervisor will be unavailable for guidance
E) belief that the supervisor doesn't have confidence in employees
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the four key dimensions for appraising manager responsibility?
A) behavior with upper management
B) behavior with other groups
C) behavior with subordinates
D) behavior with stockholders
E) personal attitudes and values
Q4) List and briefly describe the four key dimensions of responsible management behavior.
Q5) Differentiate between responsibility, accountability, and authority.
Q6) Explain the concepts of line, staff, and functional authority.
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Q1) Which of the following statements best describes the overall purpose of affirmative action?
A) Affirmative Action's purpose is to narrow a large field of prospective employees to a relatively small group of individuals from which someone eventually will be hired
B) Affirmative Action's purpose is to eliminate barriers and increase opportunities for the purpose of increasing the utilization of underutilized and/or disadvantaged individuals
C) Affirmative Action's purpose is to increase the productivity of employees by influencing their behavior
D) Affirmative Action's purpose is to reduce production costs and increase the level of organizational diversity
E) Affirmative Action's purpose is to furnish feedback to organization members about how they can become more productive and useful to the organization in its quest for quality
Q2) EEOC has the authority to prosecute organizations that use discriminatory testing practices.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Catherine works as a training specialist at a retail organization. She is not always physically present in the office though she works from other locations using a portable computer. She usually informs her colleagues in advance when she decides to come in and work from office. This work arrangement is an example of ________.
A) fully mobile working
B) tethered in office arrangement
C) home-based working
D) hoteling
E) occasional telecommuting
Q2) Which of the following techniques of managing conflict involves working out the differences between managers and employees?
A) resolving
B) averting
C) compromising
D) avoiding
E) forcing
Q3) What is the value Virtuality offers to organizations and the employees within them?
Q4) Briefly explain the dynamics of organizational change and stability.
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Q1) Gestures, vocal tones, and facial expressions are forms of nonverbal communication.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain the difference between communication macrobarriers and communication microbarriers. Give an example of each.
Q3) Which of the following communication channels tends to be the most problematic for managers given the potential inaccuracy of the transmitted message as the message passes from one individual to another?
A) Face-to-Face
B) Face-to-Group
C) Individual
D) Serial Transmission
E) Group
Q4) List the ten commandments for good listening.
Q5) The communication source's view of the destination is a microbarrier of communication.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A manager displays the highest degree of subordinate-centered leadership when he or she ________.
A) permits subordinates to function within limits defined by superior B) defines the limits and asks the group to make decisions
C) presents a problem and gets suggestions from subordinates before making decisions
D) presents a tentative decision subject to change based on follower opinions
E) suggests ideas and invites questions from the followers
Q2) Which of the following approaches to leadership views the personal characteristics of an individual as the main determinants of how successful that individual could be as a leader?
A) behavioral approach
B) situational approach
C) characteristic approach
D) trait approach
E) follower approach
Q3) Explain the major findings of the OSU studies.
Q4) The trait approach to leadership assumes a good leader is born, not made. Do you agree with this view? Explain your answer.
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Q1) Maslow would tell us humans are wanting human beings who want their ________ to be satisfied.
A) interests
B) desires
C) needs
D) opportunities
E) incomes
Q2) Leadership is the inner state that causes an individual to behave in a way that ensures the accomplishment of some goal.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Job ________ could be equated to Vertical loading of a job while Job ________ could be equated to Horizontal loading of a job.
A) enlargement; rotation
B) enlargement; specialization
C) enrichment; rotation
D) enlargement; enrichment
E) enrichment; enlargement
Q4) Briefly explain Likert's management systems.
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Q1) Linda, a project manager at a cosmetic company, is handling an assignment to rejuvenate the company's supply chain management. Linda is working with a new team of experts who have never worked with each other before. In a recent meeting, her team members expressed radically different opinions on what should be done to update the company's supply chain. Linda had to intervene a couple of times during the meeting to bring the discussion back on track. Linda's team is in the ________ stage of team development.
A) storming
B) learning
C) adjourning
D) performing
E) norming
Q2) ________ comes naturally as the mutual acceptance of group members increases and communication and decision making continue within the group.
A) Conformance threat
B) Group polarization
C) Groupthink
D) Cognitive dissonance
E) Group solidarity
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Q1) When Joe tells his new employees stories about the company's beginnings, he is illustrating the firm's culture through the sharing of ________.
A) organizational symbols
B) organizational language
C) organizational sagas
D) organizational ceremonies
E) organizational myths
Q2) During an interview, Roy asks his interviewer about the type of culture of the organization. The interviewer informs Roy that the organization has a very simple structure and interactions between employees are extremely informal in nature. Also, there are few rules and procedures that employees are expected to follow. Employees are encouraged to take risks and be creative in the workplace. The organization has a(n)
A) clan culture
B) hierarchy culture
C) adhocracy culture
D) market culture
E) bureaucracy culture
Q3) Write a short essay on the importance of organization culture.
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Q1) Describe the six steps necessary to effectively operate an IS.
Q2) In response to the increasing threat of security issues to information systems, private and public organizations around the world came together in 1992 to form the
A) International Association for Computer Systems Security
B) Information Systems Security Association
C) International Information Security Foundation
D) Network Security Framework Forum
E) System Administration, Networking, and Security Institute
Q3) As part of a process of job redesigning, the HR manager of Mars LLC conducted an informal survey of employees to assess their job satisfaction levels. However, fearing negative action, only a few employees gave clear and unambiguous responses to the HR manager's questions. This survey is likely to be of little use to the HR manager because it is ________.
A) not relevant
B) too costly
C) not timely
D) not in sufficient quantity
E) too wide in scope
Q4) What are the steps in evaluating information?
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Q1) A flow of interrelated events toward a goal, purpose, or end is specifically referred to as a ________.
A) process
B) system
C) strategy
D) scheme
E) structure
Q2) Pure-breakdown policy involves regular activities such as machine adjustments, lubrication, cleaning, parts replacement, and painting.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A company uses current ratio to analyze its financial position. Which of the following information can be obtained from current ratio?
A) efficiency of inventory management
B) productivity of the company's assets
C) information on the short-term solvency
D) information on the total debt of the company
E) information on financial leverage
Q4) Briefly describe JIT inventory control.
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Q1) F.W. Taylor's approach was unpopular with workers and unions because they feared that reengineering their jobs would lead to ________.
A) lower piecework rates
B) a decrease in productivity
C) workers losing their jobs
D) longer work days
E) an increase in quality
Q2) Frederick W. Taylor is commonly called the "father of scientific management."
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements is supported by the contingency approach to management?
A) There is one best way to solve a management problem in any organization.
B) Managers' decisions vary depending on the particular situation and the people involved.
C) In most cases, solutions to similar problems will apply across organizations.
D) Managers within the same organization should follow the same solution for similar problems.
E) Managers should make decisions that are consistent from employee to employee.
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Q1) Jerry starts his own business even when he is advised by family and friends that it is not a suitable opportunity. His friends feel that the market is uncertain and a new entry at this juncture is inadvisable. Jerry soon realizes that his friends were right and he should have taken their advise. In spite of himself, he is forced to admit that the market situation is such that it would take more than being a good entrepreneur to survive. Which of the following is Jerry experiencing?
A) exploitation
B) anchoring
C) information bias
D) illusion of control
E) reactance
Q2) Which of the following demonstrates the correct sequence in the stages of entrepreneurship?
A) opportunity identification, opportunity evaluation, opportunity exploitation
B) opportunity identification, opportunity exploitation, opportunity evaluation
C) opportunity evaluation, opportunity identification, opportunity exploitation
D) opportunity evaluation, opportunity exploitation, opportunity identification
E) opportunity exploitation, opportunity evaluation, opportunity identification
Q3) What is entrepreneurial risk? In this context, explain downside loss.
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Q1) ________ ideas are ideas that focus on inventions for improving a manufacturing practice or procedure.
A) Product
B) Technology
C) Process
D) Service
E) Management
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a topic that management ideas encompass in the invention stage of the innovation process?
A) promoting products in the marketplace
B) redesigning organizational structure
C) restyling workstations to make employees more productive
D) adopting robotics to make a manufacturing process more efficient
E) employing barcoding to better manage inventory
Q3) According to W. Edwards Deming, top management must be dedicated to having customers receive products as promised.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the steps involved in the incremental improvement process?
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