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Strategic Management explores the formulation, implementation, and evaluation of cross-functional decisions that enable organizations to achieve long-term objectives and gain a sustainable competitive advantage. This course introduces students to key concepts such as vision and mission development, competitive analysis, business-level and corporate-level strategies, and strategic decision making in complex and dynamic business environments. Through case studies and real-world examples, students will develop critical analytic, planning, and leadership skills necessary to assess organizational environments, identify strategic opportunities and threats, and recommend effective courses of action to ensure organizational success.
Recommended Textbook
Organizational Behavior Managing People and Organizations 11th Edition by Ricky W. Griffin
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Q1) Managers, office equipment, funds from stockholders, and sales forecasts are all examples of __________ to an organizational system.
Answer: inputs
Q2) From a(n) _________ perspective, managers try to identify the possible ways to solve problems based on organizational conditions.
Answer: situational
Q3) _________ is concerned with the interactions between people and their environments, especially their cultural environment.
Answer: Anthropology
Q4) Which perspective of management would most likely refute the notion that one style of leadership would enhance employee satisfaction and job performance under any condition?
A)Situational perspective
B)Classical perspective
C)Behavioral perspective
D)Interactional perspective
E)Universal perspective
Answer: A
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Q1) Sweden has a culture that is low in masculinity. Such a culture is not aggressive and is not concerned with the acquisition of money and other possessions.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following statements about technology is NOT true?
A)Technology is a major driver for organizational change.
B)It has widespread effects on the behavior of people in the organization.
C)Technology provides a competitive advantage.
D)It separates and transforms resources into outcomes.
E)It is causing shift toward a service-based economy.
Answer: D
Q3) Interestingly, over the last three decades, all workforce segments have increased as a percentage of the total workforce.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Orientation to authority is another name for the cultural value ___________.
Answer: power distance
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Q1) If you accept orders from your supervisor solely because he or she is "the boss," you are highly
A)authoritarian.
B)self-monitoring.
C)perceptual.
D)motivational.
E)dogmatic.
Answer: A
Q2) _____ is the quality of being comfortable with relationships.
A)Neuroticism
B)Self-efficacy
C)Extraversion
D)Openness
E)Conscientiousness
Answer: C
Q3) People with low neuroticism often experience difficulties when dealing with stress.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) How would a manager use dual-structure theory to motivate employees?
Q2) The desirability of outcomes received for performing work is referred to as performance-to-outcome expectancy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which two types of reinforcement are generally accepted as means for increasing the frequency of desired behavior?
A)Positive reinforcement and extinction
B)Avoidance and punishment
C)Avoidance and extinction
D)Extinction and punishment
E)Positive reinforcement and avoidance
Q4) All of the following are included in the human relations approach to motivation EXCEPT:
A)employees want to feel useful.
B)employees want to feel important.
C)employees have strong social needs.
D)employees are motivated by only money.
E)allow employees a modicum of self-direction.
Q5) Friendships developed in a work group would most likely satisfy _________ needs.
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Q1) Job rotation and job enlargement were developed as alternative ways to design jobs instead of through job specialization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Companies use job rotation as a training technique and rely on it to as a primary vehicle to enhance employee motivation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A quality circle is a group of employees who are assigned to inspection teams that ensure production quality on an assembly line.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ________ is an approach to job design that relies on positive job experiences and feelings of achievement and responsibility to motivate workers.
Q5) The _______ work week allows employees to work their full forty hours in fewer than the traditional five days.
Q6) ________ gives employees more personal control over the hours they work each day.
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Q1) Analyze the factors that influence the decisions regarding who does the performance appraisal and at what frequency the appraisal is conducted.
Q2) An expatriate's compensation package could potentially consist of six components. Which of the following would not be one of the these components?
A)Income to cover taxes and Social Security payments in the Unites States.
B)Pays an amount adequate to the employee's current consumption levels in the Unites States.
C)Could receive semi-annual pay raises based upon performance.
D)The company pays excess foreign costs.
E)The company could pay an additional foreign service premium or hardship allowance.
Q3) Plans in which employees can earn additional compensation in return for certain types of performance are called
A)performance management systems.
B)performance appraisal systems.
C)incentive systems.
D)compensation packages.
E)base pay.
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Q1) In which stage of the general adaptation syndrome do people give up because they can no longer cope with the stressor?
A)Deflation
B)Exhaustion
C)Realization
D)Drain
E)Alarm
Q2) An example of a(n) _____ demand organizational stressor is a poorly designed office that doesn't allow a worker adequate privacy.
A)physical
B)personal
C)task
D)role
E)interpersonal
Q3) ______ arises when a goal is not clear.
Q4) The first stage, when a person first encounters a stressor, is called alarm.
A)True
B)False
Q5) _______ management involves activity to avoid overload, ambiguity, and conflict.
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Q1) Characteristics of nonprogrammed decisions include all but which of the following?
A)The decisions are poorly structured.
B)Time for solution is relatively long.
C)The consequences of decision making are far reaching.
D)The decisions are a primary responsibility of top management.
E)Goals are often vague.
Q2) In general, ______ for managers may center on direct personal gain, indirect personal gain, or simple personal preferences.
Q3) A crucial assumption of the behavioral approach to decision-making is that decision makers operate with bounded rationality rather than with the perfect rationality assumed by the rational approach.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A programmed decision occurs frequently enough for a(n) _______ to be developed.
Q5) Discuss the different information conditions managers may encounter when making decisions. Which condition is ideal? Which condition is most common? How do managers deal with this condition?
Q6) ______ is the capacity to generate new ideas.
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Q1) A(n) _________ group is likely to be more productive in situations where the group task is simple.
Q2) The organizational setting can enhance group interaction through A)rules and procedures.
B)organization structure.
C)goals and reward systems.
D)decision-making processes.
E)all of these.
Q3) A group is two or more persons who _________ with one another in such a way that each person is influenced by or influences another person.
Q4) Group norms are developed in the control and organization stage of group development.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In the nominal group technique, group members share their ideas with each other and then vote on them in private.
A)True
B)False
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Q6) Describe, discuss, and give examples of the various stages of group development.
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Q1) Which of these are teams that do daily work of an organization?
A)Quality circle
B)Product development team
C)Management team
D)Skills team
E)Work team
Q2) Which of these is a specific benefit of enhanced performance with a team environment in organizations?
A)Improved customer service
B)Lower stress
C)Lower turnover
D)Increased innovation
E)Increased groupthink
Q3) Describe the costs associated with moving to a team-based organization.
Q4) ____ teams are combinations of work teams and problem-solving teams.
A)Non-contact
B)Infrastructure
C)Product development
D)Crisis
E)Quality improvement

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Q1) The liaison has a strategic position in the network that allows him or her to control information moving in either direction through a channel.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The source encodes an idea or thought into _____ and transmits it.
Q3) Which of these shows reporting relationships from the line worker up to the CEO of the firm?
A)Organizational chart
B)Horizontal links
C)Wheel network
D)All-channel network
E)Circle group network
Q4) All of the following are examples of oral communication in organizations EXCEPT:
A)a telephone call.
B)reading a manual out loud to coworkers.
C)discussing a task.
D)sending a memo to colleagues.
E)a conversion on cell phones.
Q5) In the ______ network, all individuals communicate with all others.
Q6) The ______ are the most expressive component of the face.
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Q1) Vroom's current formulation of the decision-tree model includes two types of decision trees.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Compare and contrast how the situation is characterized in LPC theory and path-goal theory.
Q3) Current study of leadership focuses almost exclusively on the traits, or personal characteristics, of leaders.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which statement best describes the current state of leadership research?
A)The exploration of leadership is in its infancy.
B)Research in the field was completed recently.
C)Research in the field was completed many years ago.
D)Many questions remain unanswered.
E)Researchers have, unfortunately, stopped research in this area due to human behavior impact concerns.
Q5) Because Vroom's decision-tree approach is quite complex, he developed expert system _______ to help managers assess a situation accurately and quickly.
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Q1) Which of the following traits forms the basis of Robert House's theory of leadership?
A)Job-centered behavior
B)Employee-centered behavior
C)Initiating structure
D)Consideration
E)Charisma
Q2) Strategic leadership includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A)to lead change.
B)understand the organization.
C)understand the organization's environment.
D)maintain a superior alignment of the organization and the environment.
E)maintain ethical leadership.
Q3) Faith in top leaders has been shaken due to recent corporate scandals.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the differences between men and women in leadership roles. Why might these differences exist?
Q5) According to the leader-member exchange model, subordinates in the ______ are likely to be privy to sensitive information.
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Q1) Because of his or her position in an organization, a manager has ________ power over his or her subordinates.
Q2) _______ power usually surfaces as imitation.
Q3) In many ways position power is the same as ________.
Q4) The extent to which employees perceive the allocation of rewards in the organization to be fair is called
A)procedural justice.
B)interpersonal justice.
C)distributive justice.
D)reflective justice.
E)informational justice.
Q5) Coercive power exists when one person has the ability to punish or harm someone else.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Leadership only matters if influence has occurred.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Describe, discuss, and give examples of the three ways to manage political behavior.
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Q1) In pooled interdependence, the output of each unit is combined at the organizational level.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the PRAM model of negotiation. How are win-win outcomes different than other negotiation outcomes?
Q3) Reciprocal interdependence exists when activities flow one-way between work units.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Rhianna feels meeting as a department to discuss an issue is unimportant and believes the currently proposed solution to the issue is incompatible with her own goals. Rhianna is likely to adopt which reaction to conflict?
A)Competition
B)Collaboration
C)Compromise
D)Accommodation
E)Avoidance
Q5) Describe, discuss, and give the advantages and disadvantages of game theory.
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Q1) Mintzberg believed that fit among parts is the least important consideration in designing an organization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The benefits of a matrix organization include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)it is flexible.
B)it can provide coordinated responses to pressures.
C)power struggles may occur.
D)it improves project coordination.
E)it improves communication.
Q3) Economies of scale are an advantage of larger organizations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The professional bureaucracy relies on standardization of skills as the primary means of coordination.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the issues managers must deal with when working in the international environment. How can these issues be resolved?
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Q1) Empowerment can be viewed as liberating employees, but sometimes empowerment entails little more than delegating a task to an employee and then watching over the employee too closely.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Like Ouchi, Peters and Waterman believe successful firms recognize that their most important assets are their
A)strategies.
B)products.
C)people.
D)services.
E)competitive weapons.
Q3) Emerging issues in the area of organization culture include innovation, ______, and appropriate cultures.
Q4) Sociologists have had a long-term interest in studying
A)the replication of culture.
B)the causes and consequences of culture.
C)the transferability of culture.
D)the halo effect in culture.
E)the learning curve effect on culture.

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Q1) ______ involve gathering data, analyzing and summarizing them, and returning them to employees and groups for discussion and to identify and solve problems.
Q2) Management development programs rely heavily on participative methods such as case studies and role playing to instruct employees.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The specific intention of organization development is to improve organization ______.
Q4) A structural change affects all of the following EXCEPT: A)performance appraisals.
B)rewards.
C)communication.
D)decision-making.
E)industry standards.
Q5) ______ is important and those who contribute to the change effort should be rewarded.
Q6) ________ development programs attempt to foster in current and future managers the skills, abilities, and perspectives important to good management.
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