Security Studies Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Security Studies is an interdisciplinary field that examines the theory and practice of security, exploring the various threats faced by states, societies, and individuals in the contemporary world. The course covers traditional concepts such as military conflict and national defense, as well as emerging issues like terrorism, cyber security, environmental security, and human security. Students will analyze the causes and consequences of insecurity, evaluate strategies used by states and international organizations to address security challenges, and consider ethical and legal implications. Through case studies and critical discussions, the course equips students with analytical tools to understand the complexities of global and regional security dynamics.
Recommended Textbook
World Politics Interests Interactions Institutions 3rd Edition by Jeffry A. Frieden
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Chapter 1: Introduction
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Q1) What is a theory?
A)A guess about the current state of the world.
B)An educated guess about how two events relate to each other.
C)A logically consistent set of statements that explain a phenomenon of interest.
D)An unproven hypothesis.
E)An unprovable set of assumptions that establish untestable propositions about the world.
Answer: C
Q2) Bargaining is an interaction in which:
A)actors must choose outcomes that make one better off at the expense of another.
B)actors must choose outcomes that make all the parties better off.
C)actors are forced into situations that hurt everyone as equally as possible.
D)actors are forced into outcomes that help everyone.
E)one actor decides who should benefit and who should be harmed.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: What Shaped Our World
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Q1) States' interests affect how they interact with one another.Explain how states' interests in the nineteenth century led to less conflict between major powers in Europe.
Answer: Answer will vary.
Q2) The Peace of Westphalia in 1648 did NOT:
A)stabilize the borders of participants in the Thirty Years' War.
B)attempt to resolve any of the religious conflicts between states.
C)call on states not to interfere in the internal affairs of other countries.
D)establish sovereignty of states.
E)create the first international organization.
Answer: E
Q3) During the nineteenth century,the Great Powers of Europe had a common interest in:
A)opposing revolutionary movements throughout Europe.
B)allowing Russia to conquer neighboring parts of the declining Ottoman Empire.
C)promoting democracy throughout Europe.
D)continuing their own mercantilist practices.
E)opposing absolutist monarchies throughout Europe.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Understanding Interests, interactions, and Institutions
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Q1) When bargaining with others,one actor will have an advantage if:
A)there are many other actors with whom to bargain.
B)the actor is more satisfied with the reversion outcome than the others.
C)it cares more about the outcome of the bargain.
D)the actor needs to end the bargaining process quickly.
E)the actor has no other options but to come to an agreement.
Answer: B
Q2) Some organizations,like the World Trade Organization,have created dispute-settlement procedures that:
A)include a policing agency that can force states to comply with any court rulings.
B)help resolve disputes by interpreting ambiguous rules.
C)write new rules when the members of the organization disagree with the old rules.
D)create a court with the power to subpoena and fine members who violate the rules.
E)have not helped resolve disputes between members.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Why Are There Wars
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Q1) Given the strict definition of war,all of the following are wars EXCEPT a conflict between:
A)North Korea and South Korea,in which 1,700 soldiers are killed.
B)Sudan and South Sudanese separatists,in which 1,500 soldiers are killed.
C)Rwanda and Congo,in which 900 soldiers are killed.
D)Honduras and El Salvador,in which 5,000 soldiers are killed.
E)India and Pakistan,in which 2,000 soldiers are killed.
Answer: C
Q2) What is the difference between a preemptive war and a preventive war?
Answer: Answer will vary.
Q3) Which of the following statements about deterrence is true?
A)Deterrence is an effort to preserve the status quo by threatening to use force.
B)Deterrence is an effort to force other actors to accept international mediation.
C)Deterrence is an effort to change the status quo by threatening to use force.
D)Deterrence is the effort to force other actors to fulfill their alliance obligations.
E)Deterrence is the effort to create an effective international peace agreement.
Answer: A
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Chapter 5: Domestic Politics and War
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Q1) Which of the following best summarizes the likelihood of war if all of the world was democratic?
A)There would likely be fewer wars than there are now.
B)There would likely be as many wars as there are now.
C)There would likely be more wars than there are now.
D)The number of wars would go up in the short run but down in the long run.
E)The number of wars would go down in the short run but up in the long run.
Q2) When is it likely that interest groups will influence foreign policy decisions?
Q3) It has been said that how much the general public matters in foreign policy decision making is a question of how much democracy matters.Why would this be the case?
Q4) Explain how the democratic peace theory encompasses institutions,interactions,and interests.
Q5) How does the Kargil War between India and Pakistan demonstrate the limitations of democratic peace theory?
Q6) How do interest groups affect the bargaining range of states? How does this differ if the groups or actors are hawks or doves?
Q7) Why might the democratic peace simply be a coincidence?
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Chapter 6: International Institutions and War
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Q1) What are collective security organizations?
A)Small groups of actors who band together to go to war with another state.
B)Organizations that help states accumulate the weapons they need to increase their security.
C)Organizations that help collect dues to support states' combined armed forces.
D)Institutions that provide group responses to acts of aggression.
E)Institutions that help states cooperate militarily to achieve their goals.
Q2) What is true of alliances and their impact on World War II?
A)Alliances did not affect World War II.
B)Many states participated in World War II due to alliance commitments.
C)No country was willing to ally with Germany.
D)If there had been no alliance system,the war would not have happened.
E)Poland's alliance with the Soviet Union drew Russia into the war.
Q3) Which of the following best describes an alliance?
A)An institution that promotes peace among its members.
B)An institution that helps states cooperate militarily to achieve their common security goals.
C)Organizations that assist states in increasing their weapons development.
D)An agreement between two countries to collectively monitor their elections.
E)An organization that helps promote members' common interest in ensuring peace.
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Chapter 7: Violence by Nonstate Actors: Civil War and Terrorism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is NOT an effective state response for deterring terrorism?
A)Negotiation and compromise.
B)Criminalization.
C)Ignoring terrorists.
D)Defensive measures.
E)Preemption.
Q2) How do rebels overcome the collective action problem? What strategies are the most successful and why?
Q3) Airport security measures and armed guards at national monuments are examples of what tactic to combat terrorism?
A)Negotiation and compromise.
B)Criminalization.
C)Ignoring terrorists.
D)Defensive measures.
E)Preemption.
Q4) What characteristics of a state make civil war more likely and why?
Q5) When is terrorism most likely to be adopted by a group as a strategy? Why would a group adopt terrorism instead of insurgency? When would a group conduct both?
Q6) Why do some grievances lead to civil war and others do not?
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Chapter 8: International Trade
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which scenario represents strategic interaction in trade?
A)The United States creating a quota on sugar imports,due to lobbying from sugar manufacturers.
B)The European Union instigating a case against genetically modified organisms in the World Trade Organization to prevent U.S.agricultural imports.
C)Japan not raising tariffs on U.S.automobiles,as it fears retaliation from the United States.
D)France creating new tariffs on U.S.goods,due to concerns over domestic production.
E)Great Britain unilaterally liberalizing its agricultural sector.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a trade barrier?
A)Subsidies.
B)Tariffs.
C)Quantitative restrictions.
D)Import licenses.
E)Nontariff barriers.
Q3) How do domestic political institutions affect whether a country will adopt trade liberalization or protectionism?
Q4) How does the WTO both help and hurt the world's poor?
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Chapter 9: International Financial Relations
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an example of a common view on immigration?
A)Construction workers in Massachusetts credit the influx of Brazilian workers for an increase in their wages.
B)Plumbers in France complain that Polish workers are taking over their jobs.
C)A U.S.senator complains that the children of Mexican immigrants receive free school lunches.
D)The mayor of a California city points out that immigrants from El Salvador pay sales taxes.
E)Owners of a chicken processing plant in Arkansas post help-wanted advertisements in Spanish-language newspapers.
Q2) Why are the 1980s known in Latin America as the "lost decade"?
A)Latin America and other developing regions lost faith in free-trade principles and increased protectionism.
B)Income and investment in Latin America declined dramatically.
C)Taxpayers in Europe lost millions of dollars bailing out banks.
D)Banks in the United States and Europe lost millions of dollars because of bad loans to developing countries.
E)Developing countries missed their chance to adopt liberal trade policies.
Q3) How well does the Heckscher-Ohlin approach explain international immigration?
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Chapter 10: International Monetary Relations
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Q1) Which of the following correctly matches the area of the globe with the common currency shared?
A)Caribbean-euro.
B)South Asia-dollar.
C)West Africa-euro.
D)South America-yen.
E)Oceania-dollar.
Q2) In which of the following would a foreign company most likely invest its money?
A)A country with a 5 percent interest rate.
B)A country with a 10 percent interest rate.
C)A country with a 15 percent interest rate.
D)A country with a 20 percent interest rate.
E)A country with a 25 percent interest rate.
Q3) Why would a country want a depreciated currency?
A)Depreciation makes imports cheaper for consumers.
B)Depreciation makes a country's exports more competitive.
C)Depreciation makes investment more attractive.
D)Depreciation makes foreign loan repayment cheaper.
E)Depreciation makes wages increase.
Q4) When and why do governments agree on a particular monetary system?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Development: Causes of the Wealth and Poverty of Nations
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Q1) Why was the New International Economic Order proposed?
A)European countries wanted to reduce the power of the United States.
B)Less developed countries wanted to make conditions more favorable for poor countries.
C)The United States wanted to reduce the amount of foreign aid it gave to poor countries.
D)Middle Eastern countries wanted to earn more profit from their oil exports.
E)Colonies hoped international reforms would help them become independent from European colonizers.
Q2) Explain why democratic governments are often better able to implement policies that favor economic growth.
Q3) How did colonialism benefit the colonies?
A)Some built infrastructure that later contributed to colonial economic development.
B)Colonies traded only with the colonial power,creating an important trading partnership.
C)The colonial powers sent special elite administrators to their colonies.
D)The citizens of the colonial power had special economic privileges.
E)Manufacturing was limited in the colonies.
Q4) To what extent has colonialism hampered development in less developed countries?
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Chapter 12: International Law and Norms
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Q1) What is an example of a norm entrepreneur?
A)A president of France declaring that France will lower tariffs on all agricultural products from former colonies.
B)The UN Security Council declaring that Iraq has to abandon all programs to build weapons of mass destruction.
C)An organization holding a conference in which actors discuss how to stop civil wars in less developed countries.
D)India and China agreeing to stop all conflict along their borders.
E)The United States declaring an international war against terrorism.
Q2) International agreements about ________ issues are most likely to have enforcement provisions.
A)economic and human rights
B)human rights and security
C)security and environmental
D)economic and security
E)human rights and environment
Q3) What kinds of international laws are most effective? Discuss soft and hard types of law in your answer.
Q4) How do transnational advocacy networks (TANs)enforce compliance with norms?
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Chapter 13: Human Rights
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Q1) Since the adoption of the UDHR and the twin covenants:
A)states have pulled back from issuing such strong human rights protections.
B)states have refused to enforce the provisions of the documents.
C)additional rights have been guaranteed through supplemental agreements.
D)many rights have been redefined as being nonderogable.
E)Western states have lost interest in protecting human rights.
Q2) Countries sign human rights agreements for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: A)a government can try to ensure that its successor will continue to respect human rights.
B)some countries commit to scrutiny of their own rights record so that they can better examine the human rights practices of other countries.
C)governments think that supporting human rights is the right thing to do.
D)transnational advocacy networks can force countries to sign human rights agreements.
E)states may be required to sign human rights agreements in order to receive foreign aid.
Q3) How did transnational advocacy networks (TANs)affect the campaign against apartheid in South Africa?
Q4) How have TANs affected the adoption of human rights norms?
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Chapter 14: The Global Environment
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Q1) What is the conflict between economic development and environmental well-being? Is there a compromise between these competing interests?
Q2) The case of ozone depletion indicates that:
A)progress is sometimes possible,despite the presence of special interests.
B)special interests are rarely successful in blocking environmental regulations.
C)the presence of special interests always win out over the collective interest for a cleaner environment.
D)special interests can successfully mobilize citizens to take on their governments.
E)special interests can subvert Superfund cleanup rules.
Q3) Which of the following statements about the ozone layer is FALSE?
A)The ozone layer blocks harmful ultraviolet radiation from reaching Earth's surface.
B)The ozone layer is essential to life on Earth.
C)The ozone layer is harmed by chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)in the atmosphere.
D)The ozone layer continues to thin,with no improvement in sight.
E)The ozone layer has a "hole" in it over Antarctica.
Q4) How can privatizing public goods encourage better protection of the environment?
Consider the Emissions Trading Scheme as an example.
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Chapter 15: The Future of International Politics
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Q1) Which of the following is the most important requirement for mutual nuclear deterrence between two countries to work successfully?
A)Both countries have few nuclear weapons.
B)Both countries are large.
C)The countries interact frequently with each other.
D)The leaders of both countries are democratically elected.
E)The leaders of both countries care about the survival of themselves and their countries.
Q2) Which country has offensively used nuclear weapons?
A)The Soviet Union.
B)The United States.
C)The People's Republic of China.
D)India.
E)Pakistan.
Q3) Why has there been conflict between rich and poor countries over globalization?
Q4) Why have we not seen more supranational institutions such as the European Union (EU)form?
Q5) Why didn't the rise in power of the United States lead to war?
Q6) When are new international institutions likely to be formed?
Q7) How are terrorist groups likely to obtain nuclear weapons?
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Chapter 16: Foundations, war, and Peace
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Q1) Which is NOT a way that institutions can encourage cooperation?
A)Exercising their power over states and forcing them to act cooperatively.
B)Creating norms and rules for other countries to follow.
C)Monitoring the behavior of states and reporting on their activities.
D)Making joint decision making cheaper between parties.
E)Acting as an arbiter in disputes.
Q2) The study of world politics is like other fields of social science in that it:
A)tests its theories in Petri dishes.
B)rests on the tools of observation and theory.
C)does not offer consistent theories on human interaction.
D)ignores theoretical frameworks and looks merely at the data.
E)is understandable purely through observation.
Q3) When we say that war is the result of bargaining failure,we mean that:
A)states always have face-to-face bargaining before war breaks out.
B)there is always some deal that both states would prefer to war.
C)war is more likely when the states involved speak different languages.
D)states are unwilling to come to the negotiation table in the first place.
E)multinational corporations could not come to an agreement.
Q4) How can international institutions affect the probability of war between nations?
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Chapter
Politics, and Looking Ahead
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Q1) If the People's Republic of China surpasses the United States as the world hegemon,what international institutions,laws,and norms are likely to change? What determines which institutions will be durable and which are only propped up by the powerful?
Q2) The primary culprit(s)in ozone depletion was/were:
A)carbon dioxide.
B)methane.
C)water vapor.
D)nongovernmental organizations.
E)chlorofluorocarbons.
Q3) Would it be easier for a transnational advocacy network to encourage the adoption of a new international law or a new international norm? Why is one option easier than the other?
Q4) Common goods are different from public goods in that they are: A)rival.
B)nonrival.
C)excludable.
D)nonexcludable.
E)scarce.
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