Science for Elementary Education Exam
Solutions
Course Introduction
Science for Elementary Education provides a comprehensive overview of fundamental scientific concepts and principles tailored for future elementary educators. The course emphasizes the development of scientific literacy, inquiry-based learning, and effective instructional strategies for introducing science to young learners. Topics include basic concepts in physical, life, and earth sciences, as well as hands-on activities and experiments designed to foster curiosity and critical thinking. Participants will also explore best practices for creating engaging and inclusive science experiences in the elementary classroom, aligning instruction with curriculum standards and promoting students understanding of the natural world.
Recommended Textbook
An Introduction to Physical Science 14th Edition by James Shipman(Numbers)
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Measurement
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Sample Questions
Q1) For the multiplication of 6.3 m divided by 2.8 m,the result should be reported with how many significant figures?
A) Two
B) One
C) Three
D) Four
E) Seven
Answer: A
Q2) Our senses may obtain less-than-accurate information concerning our physical world because they
A) have limited sensitivity. B) have a limited range.
C) are useless.
D) can be deceived.
Answer: D
Q3) What does 4 × 10<sup>-12</sup> times 3 × 10<sup>-8</sup> divided by 2 × 10<sup>24</sup> equal?
Answer: 6 * 10<sup>-44</sup>?
Q4) If there are 2.54 cm/in.,how many inches are there per centimeter?
Answer: 1/2.54 = 0.394
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Chapter 2: Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) An object in uniform circular motion has
A) constant acceleration.
B) variable radial distances.
C) constant velocity.
D) constant speed.
Answer: D
Q2) A speedometer registers ______________.
Answer: instantaneous speed
Q3) Distance is a(n)______________ quantity.
Answer: scalar
Q4) For which of the following is the acceleration constant?
A) Nonuniform speed
B) Free fall
C) Uniform circular motion
D) None of these
Answer: B
Q5) In straight-line motion,if a moving object speeds up,the direction of the acceleration is ______________ the direction of the velocity.
Answer: along,the same as,or parallel to
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Chapter 3: Force and Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) "For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction" is a statement of Newton's
A) law of universal gravitation.
B) first law.
C) second law.
D) third law.
Answer: D
Q2) The buoyant force of an object is equal to the ______________ of the ______________ it displaces.
A) mass; fluid
B) weight; fluid
C) mass; solid
D) weight; solid
Answer: B
Q3) ______________ principle explains why objects float or sink in a fluid.
A) Newton's
B) Pascal's
C) Bernoulli's
D) Archimedes'
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Work and Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 0.10-kg ball is dropped from a height of 10 m and rebounds to a height of 8.0 m.
a. Is energy conserved in the ball?
b. If not, how much energy was lost, and what happened to it?
Q2) Work in the amount of 280 J is done in lifting an object a distance of 4.0 m in a time of 7.0 s.
a. How much force did it take to lift the object?
b. What was the power input?
Q3) With a constant braking force,the stopping distance of a car is proportional to ______________.
Q4) In changing from one form to another,energy is always ______________.
Q5) Work is the process by which energy is ______________.
Q6) Power is
A) the time rate of doing work.
B) the time rate of doing velocity.
C) the time rate of doing momentum.
D) the time rate of doing force.
Q7) The kilowatt-hour is a unit of ______________.
Q8) The product of force times parallel distance is called ______________.
Q9) The SI unit of power is the ______________.
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Chapter 5: Temperature and Heat
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the gas laws,the ______________ temperature scale must be used.
Q2) The first law of thermodynamics states that heat added to a closed system can change the internal energy of the system and/or do ______________.
Q3) The amount of heat necessary to change a liquid to a solid at constant temperature is the ______________.
Q4) The impossibility of reaching a temperature of absolute zero is incorporated in A) the third law of thermodynamics.
B) the first law of thermodynamics.
C) the second law of thermodynamics.
D) an increase in entropy.
Q5) Which laboratory observation would most support the kinetic theory's assumption that gas molecules have little attraction for one another?
A) A gas expands when the pressure on it is released.
B) A gas with a lower formula mass diffuses more rapidly than one with a higher formula mass.
C) A gas exerts the same pressure on each part of a container's wall.
D) A gas has mass.
Q6) How much heat is necessary to change 20 g of ice at -10°C into water at 20°C?
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Chapter 6: Waves and Sound
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Sample Questions
Q1) The threshold of hearing is
A) 0 dB.
B) 140 dB.
C) 40 dB.
D) 110 dB.
E) 1 dB.
Q2) How many times greater is the speed of infrared light ( = 800 nm)than the speed of violet light ( = 400 nm)in a vacuum?
A) 2
B) 1/2
C) 400
D) 1; that is, both have the same speed.
Q3) What is the frequency,in hertz,of a sound wave (v = 340 m/s)with a wavelength of 68 m?
A) 5 Hz
B) 23120 Hz
C) 340 Hz
D) 0.2 Hz
Q4) Approximately how many times faster is the speed of light in vacuum than the speed of sound in air?
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Chapter 7: Optics and Wave Effects
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Sample Questions
Q1) A diamond is said to have "fire" because of ______________.
Q2) The speed of light in a particular transparent medium is 5/8 the speed of light in a vacuum.What is the index of refraction of the material?
Q3) The angles of incidence and reflection
A) are not related.
B) can never be equal.
C) are measured from a normal to the reflecting surface.
D) add to 90°.
Q4) Polarizing sunglasses have the transmission axis oriented ______________.
Q5) A particular material has an index of refraction of 1.25.What percent of the speed of light in a vacuum is the speed of light in the material?
Q6) A simple magnifying glass has a focal length of 6.0 cm.An object is placed 4.0 cm from it.Sketch a ray diagram and give the characteristics of the image.
Q7) The index of refraction of transparent materials is A) equal to 1.
B) greater than 1.
C) less than 1.
D) any of these.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Electricity and Magnetism
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Sample Questions
Q1) A generator is a device that converts
A) heat energy into mechanical energy.
B) chemical energy into electrical energy.
C) mechanical energy into electrical energy.
D) electrical energy into mechanical energy.
Q2) A 20- resistor and a 30- resistor are wired in parallel and connected to a 9.0-V battery.
a. How much current is drawn from the battery?
b. How much power is dissipated in the circuit?
Q3) A system of 11 protons and 15 neutrons has a net charge of
A) 17.6 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
B) -17.6 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
C) 41.6 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
D) 11.0 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
E) -41.6 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
Q4) Zero potential in household electricity is called ______________.
Q5) In a dc motor,the polarity and current are reversed by a(n)______________.
Q6) A steady current of 0.15 A exists in a wire for 20 s.
a. How much net charge passes by a point in the wire?
Page 10
b. How many electrons does this charge represent?
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Chapter 9: Atomic Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The transitions of an electron in the hydrogen atom to the n = 2 level result in the A) Lyman series.
B) Balmer series.
C) Paschen series.
D) Bohr series.
Q2) Who developed the quantum theory in 1900 and has a constant named for him?
A) de Broglie
B) Bohr
C) Planck
D) Einstein
Q3) The nuclear model of the atom is associated with A) Thomson.
B) Dalton.
C) Bohr.
D) Rutherford.
Q4) Black light is a common name for the region of the EMR spectrum known as ______________.
Q5) A useful instrument that makes use of the wavelike properties of electrons is the electron ______________.
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Chapter 10: Nuclear Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who discovered radium?
A) Marie and Pierre Curie
B) Ernest Rutherford
C) Henri Becquerel
D) Niels Bohr
Q2) No radionuclides decay by emitting
A) protons.
B) alpha particles.
C) electrons.
D) gamma rays.
Q3) Which of the following nuclides would be radioactive?
A) \({ } _ { 14 } ^ { 27 } \mathrm { Si }\)
B) \({ } _ { 82 } ^ { 207 } \mathrm {~Pb}\)
C) \({ } _ { 35 } ^ { 81 } \mathrm { Br }\)
D) \({ } _ { 1 } ^ { 2 } \mathrm { H }\)
Q4) Which type of atom is the standard on which the atomic mass scale is based?
A) (<sup>12</sup>C)
B) (<sup>16</sup>O)
C) (<sup>1</sup>H)
D) (<sup>56</sup>Fe)
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Chemical Elements
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nonchemical combination of two or more substances in variable proportions is called
A) a mixture.
B) a compound.
C) an ion.
D) a molecule.
Q2) In addition to those of Groups 1A and 2A,three common elements that form only one ion each are
A) Sc, Ti, and Hg.
B) Pb, Sn, and Cu.
C) Al, Zn, and Ag.
D) Ga, Ni, and Fe.
Q3) The major credit for the development of the periodic table goes to A) Berzelius.
B) Lavoisier.
C) Boyle.
D) Mendeleev.
Q4) The alkali metals have ______________ valence electron(s).
Q5) O<sub>3</sub> and O<sub>2</sub> are the two ______________ of the element oxygen.
13
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Chapter 12: Chemical Bonding
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Sample Questions
Q1) A compound consists of only magnesium,carbon,and oxygen.If the percentage by mass of Mg is 63.9% and that of C is 12.2%,what is the percentage by mass of O?
A) 76.1%
B) 23.9%
C) 51.7%
D) 70.9%
E) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following elements commonly forms an ion with a 2+ charge?
A) Li
B) Al
C) S
D) Ca
Q3) In chlorine gas,the bond between the two chlorine atoms is
A) ionic.
B) single covalent.
C) triple covalent.
D) double covalent.
Q4) The concept that atoms tend to get eight electrons in their outer shell when forming molecules or ions is called the ______________.
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Chapter 13: Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an element is oxidized,it ______________ electrons.
Q2) When aqueous solutions of Na<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub> and BaCl<sub>2</sub> are mixed,the products are NaCl and ______________.
Q3) When the equation NH<sub>4</sub>NO<sub>3</sub> N<sub>2</sub>O + H<sub>2</sub>O is balanced,the total of all the coefficients (both written and "understood")is
A) 3.
B) 4.
C) 7.
D) 8.
Q4) 6.02 × 10<sup>23</sup> is known as ______________.
Q5) Which type of reaction is 2Cu(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub> 2CuO + 4NO<sub>2</sub> + O<sub>2</sub>?
A) Single-replacement
B) Double-replacement
C) Combination
D) Decomposition
Q6) The definitions of an acid and a base as substances that give H<sup>+</sup> and OH<sup>-</sup> ions,respectively,in water were proposed by the chemist named
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Chapter 14: Organic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) An alcohol is distinguished by having one or more ______________ groups in the molecule.
Q2) Which of the following is not a carbohydrate?
A) Maltose
B) Glycine
C) Fructose
D) Glucose
Q3) An advantage of synthetic detergents over soaps is that they A) do not contain sulfur.
B) dissolve grease.
C) do not form scum in hard water.
D) are more readily biodegradable.
Q4) The simplest member of the alkane series is named ______________.
Q5) A hydrocarbon that contains one or more benzene rings must be classified as A) an alkane.
B) a cycloalkane.
C) aromatic.
D) an alkene.
E) an alkyne.
Q6) Hydrocarbons with a carbon-carbon triple bond are called ______________.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Place and Time
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tropical year is shorter than the sidereal year because Earth's
A) orbit is an ellipse rather than a true circle.
B) axis precesses westward.
C) orbital speed is not constant.
D) axis is tilted by 23.5°.
Q2) On December 21,the noonday Sun is overhead at what latitude?
A) 0°
B) 23.5°N
C) 23.5°S
D) That of the Tropic of Cancer
Q3) The imaginary line encircling Earth at its surface,halfway between the north and south geographic poles,is called the A) meridian.
B) equator.
C) International Date Line.
D) longitude.
E) latitude.
Q4) When the Sun is on the meridian,it is by definition ______________ local solar time.
Q5) For a period after June 21,in Hawaii sunrise occurs ______________ each day.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The apparent displacement in the direction of light coming from a star because of Earth's orbital motion is called the ______________.
Q2) The study of astronomy involves A) space.
B) energy.
C) matter.
D) all of these.
Q3) The name given to the point of a planet's orbit that is closest to the Sun is A) aphelion.
B) focus.
C) perihelion.
D) solstice.
Q4) The large,central portion of a swirling solar nebula is called a(n)______________.
Q5) The terrestrial planets have A) relatively high densities.
B) solid surfaces.
C) weak magnetic fields.
D) all of these.
Q6) Determine the sidereal period of a planet that is located 5.2 AU from the Sun.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Moons and Small Solar System Bodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A high tide is occurring at Charleston,South Carolina (151°W,36°N).At approximately what other longitude is a high tide occurring?
A) 29°E
B) 151°E
C) 61°E
D) 61°W
E) 29°W
Q2) A lunar eclipse can occur only when the Moon is in or near the ______________ phase.
A) new
B) first-quarter
C) last-quarter
D) full
Q3) If a person weighs 252 lb on Earth,what will the person weigh on the Moon?
A) 42 lb
B) 1512 lb
C) 252 lb
D) 126 lb
E) 25.2 lb
Q4) At the time of a solar eclipse,the Moon is in ______________ phase.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Universe
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the Sun moves off the main sequence,it will next become a _______________.
A) red giant
B) dwarf star
C) white dwarf
D) black hole
Q2) The cataclysmic explosion of a star that throws most of its matter into space is called a _______________.
A) supernova
B) solar flare
C) solar blast
D) novaton
Q3) What is the temperature in kelvins of the visible surface of the Sun?
A) 600 K
B) 6 million K
C) 6 billion K
D) 6000 K
Q4) A star of magnitude 1 appears ______________ times brighter than a star of magnitude 2.
Q5) Eighty-eight prominent groups of stars in the sky are called the ______________.
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Q6) The visible surface of the Sun has a temperature of about ______________ K.
Chapter 19: The Atmosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) Every square inch of our body,at sea level,sustains ______________ of atmospheric pressure.
A) 14.7 lb
B) 1.47 g
C) 14.7 g
D) 1.47 lb
Q2) Nimbus means
A) "poorly formed."
B) "rain forming cloud."
C) "heap."
D) none of these.
Q3) A phenomenon that occurs in the ionosphere is
A) the greenhouse effect.
B) photosynthesis.
C) Rayleigh scattering.
D) auroras.
Q4) On a particular day,the air temperature is 75°F.If lowering the air temperature by 9° would cause the air to be saturated,what is the relative humidity?
Q5) The principal greenhouse gases are ______________ and ______________.
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Chapter 20: Atmospheric Effects
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a cold front advances under a warm front,this results in a(n)
A) stationary front.
B) anticyclone.
C) cold front occlusion.
D) warm front occlusion.
Q2) Coal,gas,and oil are ______________ fuels.
A) fossil
B) renewable
C) human-made
D) infinite
Q3) In the Bergeron process,condensation occurs on ______________.
Q4) When at home during a tornado warning,you should seek shelter in the ______________ of the building.
Q5) The Pacific Ocean southwest of the United States is the source region for the ______________ type of air mass.
A) cP
B) mA
C) mT
D) mP
Q6) The boundary between two air masses is called a(n)______________.
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Chapter 21: Structural G Eology and P Late Tectonics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Earth's radius is about ______________ mi.
Q2) The structural region of Earth that has the greatest volume is the A) crust.
B) outer core.
C) mantle.
D) inner core.
Q3) Earthquake waves are monitored by an instrument called a(n)______________.
Q4) The three principal types of mountain building are volcanic,fault-block,and
Q5) Strike-slip faulting takes place along the ______________ boundary of two plates.
Q6) The radius of Earth is about __________ mi.
A) 6000
B) 8000
C) 4000
D) 2000
Q7) The three principal types of mountain building are fold,fault-block,and ______________.
Q8) Folded rock layers that resemble an arch are called ______________.
Q9) A(n)______________ ridge system stretches through the major oceans of the world. Page 23
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Chapter 22: Minerals, rocks, and Volcanoes
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Q1) The existence of the Ring of Fire is best explained by the A) theory of plate tectonics.
B) principle of superposition.
C) concept of uniformitarianism.
D) law of catastrophism.
Q2) What is the hardness of fluorite on the Mohs scale?
A) 1
B) 4
C) 7
D) 10
Q3) Gas,lava,and ______________ are the three general products emitted during a volcanic eruption.
Q4) Dripstone formations that form on cavern ceilings are called _____________.
A) stalactites
B) stalagmites
C) quartz
D) feldspar
Q5) Rocks formed by changes in structure or mineral content while remaining in the solid phase are classified as ______________.
Q6) Gabbro and rhyolite are classified as ______________rocks.
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Chapter 23: Surface Processes
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Q1) What is the second largest ocean on Earth?
A) Atlantic
B) Indian
C) Antarctic
D) Mediterranean
E) Pacific
Q2) The movement of Earth's water supply from the oceans to the atmosphere and back again is called the ______________.
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the three major types of seawater movement?
A) Waves
B) Tides
C) Currents
D) Creep
Q4) Subsurface soil that remains permanently frozen is called ______________.
Q5) The measure of a material's capacity to transmit fluids is called the material's ______________.
Q6) The principal landform resulting from a stream's erosive power is its ______________-shaped valley.
Q7) Frost wedging is a common type of ______________ weathering.
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Q8) ______________ water has a high content of calcium,magnesium,and iron salts.
Chapter 24: Geologic Time
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Q1) The first 87% of geologic time is often called A) Hadean time.
B) Pangaean time.
C) Precambrian time.
D) Proterozoic time.
Q2) The Cambrian is a(n) A) epoch.
B) era.
C) eon.
D) period.
Q3) Another name for cyanobacteria,the earliest evidence of ancient life,is A) blue-green algae.
B) amber.
C) foraminifera.
D) coal.
Q4) The Cretaceous is a(n) A) epoch.
B) era.
C) eon.
D) period.
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