Respiratory Therapy
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Respiratory Therapy is a comprehensive course that introduces students to the fundamental concepts and practices related to the assessment, treatment, and care of patients with respiratory and cardiopulmonary disorders. The course covers the anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system, principles of gas exchange, airway management, mechanical ventilation, and the use of therapeutic modalities such as oxygen therapy and aerosol medication delivery. Students will also learn about patient assessment, diagnostic procedures, and critical intervention techniques required in various healthcare settings. Emphasis is placed on developing clinical skills, ethical considerations, and interprofessional communication to prepare students for effective practice as respiratory therapy professionals.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Manifestations and Assessment of Respiratory Disease 7th Edition by Terry
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44 Chapters
673 Verified Questions
673 Flashcards
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Page 2
Des Jardins
Chapter 1: The Patient Interview
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist is conducting a patient interview and recording responses in the patient's electronic health record. The respiratory therapist should take which of the following into account regarding the use of the computer to record responses?
A) The therapist's attention may be shifted from the patient to the computer.
B) The patient will feel more important than if the information is recorded on paper.
C) The therapist will be less likely to make spelling errors if using a spell-check program.
D) The environment will be more professional and the patient will be more likely to open up if the interview is conducted with paper.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following are the most important components of a successful interview?
A) Communication and understanding
B) Authority and the use of medical terminology
C) Providing assurance and giving advice
D) Asking leading questions and anticipating patient responses to questions
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: The Physical Examination and Its Basis in Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient comes into the emergency department with a complaint of centrally located, constant chest pain. What is his most likely problem?
A) Pleurisy
B) Myocardial ischemia
C) Pneumothorax
D) Fractured rib
Answer: B
Q2) The respiratory therapist is monitoring the blood pressure of a patient in the emergency department and notes that the blood pressure is 15 mm Hg less on inspiration than on expiration. Which of the following would most likely result in this finding?
A) The patient is hypovolemic.
B) The patient has a pulmonary embolism.
C) The patient is having a myocardial infarction.
D) The patient is having a severe exacerbation of asthma.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Pulmonary Function Study Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Total lung capacity is composed of all of the following EXCEPT:
A) IRV.
B) IC.
C) ERV.
D) RV.
Answer: A
Q2) The pulmonary diffusion capacity of the carbon monoxide test is used to:
A) assess the patient's blood carbon monoxide level.
B) remove carbon monoxide from the patient's blood.
C) measure the residual volume.
D) assess the alveolar-capillary membrane.
Answer: D
Q3) The FEF<sub>25%-75%</sub> is used to evaluate:
A) flow in large airways.
B) restrictive lung disease.
C) maximum breathing effort.
D) flow in medium-size to small airways.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Arterial Blood Gas Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Common causes of metabolic acidosis include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) diabetic ketoacidosis.
B) shallow breathing from a sedative overdose.
C) lactic acidosis.
D) renal (kidney) failure.
Q2) Common causes of metabolic alkalosis include: 1) diuretic therapy.
2) vomiting.
3) excessive sodium bicarbonate administration.
4) gastric suctioning.
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) Which of the following would be a normal person's venous oxygen pressure (PaO<sub>2</sub>)?
A) 35 to 45 mm Hg
B) 45 to 80 mm Hg
C) 80 to 100 mm Hg
D) 100 to 120 mm Hg
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Chapter 5: Oxygenation Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been exposed to carbon monoxide during a house fire. An ABG result shows a normal PaO<sub>2</sub>. How should the patient's PaO<sub>2</sub> value be interpreted?
A) The PaO<sub>2</sub> is being falsely elevated by the carbon monoxide.
B) The PaO<sub>2</sub> is being falsely decreased by the carbon monoxide.
C) The PaO<sub>2</sub> is accurate.
D) The PaO<sub>2</sub> is a false measurement because the presence of carbon monoxide makes the analyzer unable to determine the PaO<sub>2</sub>.
Q2) A sample of blood has been taken from a patient's pulmonary artery. What mixed venous oxygen saturation value (SvO<sub>2</sub>) would indicate that the patient is normal?
A) 40 mm Hg
B) 95 mm Hg
C) 75%
D) 97%
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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) can be identified by which of the following?
1) There is no P wave.
2) The QRS is wide.
3) The QRS looks normal.
4) The heart rate is altered.
A) 1
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 3, 4
Q2) A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) can be caused by: 1) hypokalemia.
2) intrinsic myocardial disease.
3) hypoxemia.
4) acidemia.
A) 1
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 7: Radiologic Examination of the Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can be identified by pulmonary angiography?
1) Pulmonary emboli
2) Coronary artery occlusions
3) Arteriovenous malformations
4) Cause of hemoptysis
A) 4
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following would be normal findings of the heart and its surrounding area?
1) The left hilum is about 2 cm higher than the right hilum.
2) Most of the heart shadow is to the right of the sternum.
3) Calcified lymph nodes indicate an adult patient.
4) The cardiothoracic ratio is less than 1:2.
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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9
Chapter 8: Other Important Tests and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gram staining is done to:
1) classify organisms as gram positive or gram negative.
2) identify tuberculosis organisms.
3) speed up the organism culturing process.
4) help guide antibiotic therapy.
A) 3
B) 1, 4
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) A patient has pneumonia and a right pleural effusion. If the pleural exudate fluid is infected, it will show:
1) a low protein level.
2) a high white blood cell count.
3) bacteria.
4) many red blood cells.
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 9: The Therapist-Driven Protocol Program and the
Role of the Respiratory Therapist
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be associated with the distal airway and alveolar weakening clinical scenario?
1) Depressed diaphragm on chest radiograph
2) Use of accessory muscles of inspiration
3) Rhonchi and wheezing
4) Increased PEFR
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
Q2) A TDP can be started after:
A) the nurse finishes his or her assessment.
B) the treatment option is selected.
C) a physician's order for the TDP is received.
D) authorization is received from the patient's insurance carrier.
Q3) Postural drainage, percussion, and vibration are part of what TDP?
A) Lung expansion protocol
B) Bronchopulmonary hygiene therapy protocol
C) Aerosolized medication therapy protocol
D) Oxygen therapy protocol
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Respiratory Failure and the Mechanical
Ventilation Protocol
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are causes of hypercapnic respiratory failure EXCEPT:
A) impending ventilatory failure.
B) apnea.
C) severe refractory hypoxemia.
D) acute ventilatory failure.
Q2) What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism in alveolar hypoventilation?
A) Decreased minute ventilation
B) Increased ventilation/perfusion ratio
C) Decreased venous admixture
D) Decreased inspired oxygen pressure
Q3) Which of the following is a critical value for the key clinical indicators in hypercapnic respiratory failure in an adult?
1) pH 7.25
2) Ventilatory rate 35 breaths/min
3) MIP -25 cm HVentilatory rate O
4) VD/VT 40%
A) 1
B) 2
C) 1, 2
D) 3, 4
12
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Chapter 11: Recording Skills: The Basis for Data Collection,
Organization, Assessment Skill
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Sample Questions
Q1) When reviewing a SOAPIER progress note, the R stands for:
A) revisions made in the original plan.
B) reimbursement by the insurance carrier.
C) respiratory care notes.
D) resuscitation status of the patient.
Q2) Which agency should be notified if violations of HIPAA regulations have occurred?
A) HHS
B) FDA
C) CDC
D) Joint Commission
Q3) A problem-oriented medical record is used by health-care practitioners to:
1) systemically gather the patient's data.
2) communicate with the patient's family.
3) develop an assessment.
4) formulate a treatment plan.
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 12: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD),
Chronic Bronchitis, and Emphysema
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are pathologic alterations found with emphysema?
1) Air trapping and hyperinflation
2) Mucus plugs
3) Decreased surface area for gas exchange
4) Weakened respiratory bronchioles
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) According to GOLD, at what age can the initial diagnosis of COPD be made?
A) 35 years
B) 40 years
C) 45 years
D) 50 years
Q3) Emphysema may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) inhaling asbestos fibers.
B) a1-antitrypsin deficiency.
C) secondhand cigarette smoke.
D) air pollution.
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Chapter 13: Asthma
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Sample Questions
Q1) At what age does asthma severity peak in males?
A) 1 and 3 years
B) 5 and 7 years
C) 18 and 20 years
D) 30 and 32 years
Q2) How many components of care are included in the NAEPP-EPR-3 asthma management guidelines?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Q3) Which of the following is the acronym for the bronchospasm and airway inflammation resulting from the aspergillus fungus?
A) ABPA
B) AGA
C) ACOS
D) AEC
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Bronchiectasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rigid and dilated bronchi are the key anatomic alterations found in which type of bronchiectasis?
A) Varicose
B) Cystic
C) Emphysematous
D) Cylindrical
Q2) A patient with severe bronchiectasis may show all of the following signs EXCEPT:
A) distended neck veins.
B) pitting edema.
C) enlarged and tender liver.
D) S<sub>3</sub> heart sound.
Q3) One of the main challenges in caring for a patient with bronchiectasis is:
A) contending with bronchospasm.
B) removing excessive bronchopulmonary secretions.
C) returning the FRC to within normal limits.
D) maximizing gas exchange across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
E) rehydrating dried secretions.
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Chapter 15: Cystic Fibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cystic fibrosis patients can have all of the following EXCEPT:
A) malnutrition.
B) meconium ileus (bowel obstruction).
C) excessive, viscous pulmonary secretions.
D) tendency for status asthmaticus.
Q2) Common chest assessment findings in a patient with cystic fibrosis include:
1) tracheal deviation.
2) breath sounds reveal crackles and rhonchi.
3) dull percussion note.
4) hyperresonant percussion note.
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2
D) 2, 3, 4
Q3) Which of the following is NOT recommended in children with cystic fibrosis?
A) Systemic corticosteroids
B) High-dose ibuprofen
C) Inhaled antibiotics
D) Inhaled DNase (Dornase alpha) (Pulmozyme)
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Chapter 16: Pneumonia
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 28-year-old patient who has dogs, parakeets, and cats as pets has been admitted with pneumonia. It is suspected that she acquired the infection from one of her pets. What organism is likely to be found in her sputum?
A) Bacteroides melaninogenicus
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Chlamydia psittaci
D) Haemophilus influenzae
Q2) Ventilator-acquired pneumonia (VAP) is defined as pneumonia that develops:
A) between 24 and 48 hours after endotracheal intubation.
B) more than 48 to 72 hours after endotracheal intubation.
C) less than 24 hours after mechanical ventilation is started.
D) more than 48 to 72 hours after mechanical ventilation is started.
Q3) A patient has a pleural effusion related to her pneumonia. Which of the following should the respiratory therapist recommend to treat the pleural effusion?
A) Hyperinflation therapy
B) Supplemental oxygen
C) Thoracentesis
D) Percussion and postural drainage
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Lung Abscess
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the recommended treatment for a lung abscess caused by methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?
A) Neomycin
B) Linezolid
C) Penicillin
D) Clindamycin
Q2) A patient with an abscess has produced a large volume of brown-colored, putrid sputum. What type of microorganism would most likely result in brown, putrid sputum production?
A) Fungi
B) Viruses
C) Aerobic bacteria
D) Anaerobic bacteria
Q3) The respiratory therapist heard a pleural friction rub while performing a chest assessment on a patient with a lung abscess. What does this likely indicate?
A) The lungs are hyperinflated.
B) Hemoptysis has developed.
C) The abscess is located near the pleural surface.
D) A pneumothorax has developed.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Tuberculosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been found to have tuberculosis (TB) in several organs of the body. What term is used to describe this situation?
A) Primary TB
B) Postprimary TB
C) Disseminated TB
D) Multiorgan TB
Q2) A respiratory therapist has a positive TB skin test after having contact with a patient with active TB. Which of the following actions would MOST likely be taken regarding the positive skin test?
A) The therapist will be started on a 1-year course of isoniazid prophylactically.
B) The test will be followed with monthly chest x-rays to detect changes in the lung parenchyma.
C) The therapist will be on paid administrative leave for 3 months until it is ensured that she is noncontagious.
D) The therapist will be required to wear a mask at work for 3 months until it is established that she is noncontagious.
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Chapter 19: Fungal Diseases of the Lung
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Sample Questions
Q1) What parts of the lungs are most commonly affected by a fungal infection?
A) Mainstem bronchi
B) Lingula
C) Lower lobes
D) Upper lobes
Q2) The drug of choice for the treatment of fungal lung diseases is:
A) penicillin (penicillin G).
B) tetracycline.
C) amphotericin B (Fungizone).
D) ketoconazole (Nizoral).
Q3) Fungal lung infections are usually spread by:
A) inhaling spores.
B) blood.
C) contact with infected sputum.
D) inhaling infected droplets.
Q4) Fungal diseases cause which type of pulmonary disorder?
A) An acute restrictive disorder
B) A chronic restrictive disorder
C) An acute obstructive disorder
D) A chronic obstructive disorder
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Chapter 20: Pulmonary Edema
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pulmonary edema manifests itself clinically as a(n) _____ disorder.
A) restrictive pulmonary
B) obstructive pulmonary
C) equally restrictive and obstructive
D) obstructive cardiac
Q2) As pulmonary edema progressively worsens, the fluid moves in which of the following sequences?
A) Peribronchial interstitial spaces, bronchi, trachea
B) Alveoli , bronchioles, bronchi
C) Bronchioles, bronchi, trachea
D) Pulmonary capillaries, alveoli, bronchioles
Q3) Mask CPAP is used with pulmonary edema patients because it does all of the following EXCEPT:
A) decrease vascular congestion.
B) reduce work of breathing.
C) it is less expensive than mechanical ventilation.
D) improve lung compliance.
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22
Chapter 21: Pulmonary Vascular Disease: Pulmonary
Embolism and Pulmonary Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following medications may be used to prevent pulmonary emboli EXCEPT:
A) enoxaparin.
B) dalteparin.
C) tinzaparin.
D) reteplase.
Q2) The death of lung tissue that may result from an obstruction of the pulmonary artery is called a:
A) pulmonary embolism.
B) pleural effusion.
C) pulmonary infarction.
D) pulmonary empyema.
Q3) A pulmonary angiogram is usually ordered:
A) as the first test to identify a pulmonary embolism.
B) when other tests for a pulmonary embolism are inconclusive.
C) in conjunction with a magnetic resonance image to identify a pulmonary embolism.
D) in conjunction with an extremity venogram to identify a pulmonary embolism.
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Chapter 22: Flail Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient has a flail chest, what happens during the ventilatory cycle?
A) The I:E ratio becomes inverse.
B) Air leaks out through the flail area.
C) Air leaks in through the flail area.
D) Air is shunted from one lung to the other.
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding paradoxical chest movement?
A) With inspiration, the flail section moves outward.
B) The trachea deviates away from the flail side of the chest.
C) During inspiration, the flail section moves inward.
D) During exhalation, the flail area moves inward.
Q3) What is the most common finding at the site of the flail portion of a flail chest?
A) Pulmonary contusion
B) Pulmonary abscess
C) Pulmonary edema
D) Pulmonary fibrosis
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Chapter 23: Pneumothorax
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of untreated pneumothorax is considered to be the most serious?
A) Spontaneous
B) Tension
C) Malignant
D) Iatrogenic
Q2) After a patient experienced four pneumothoraces of her right lung over a 24-month period, the physician recommended a procedure to reduce the occurrence of future pneumothoraces. Which procedure would the physician have recommended?
A) Pleurodesis
B) Right pneumonectomy
C) Permanent right-sided thoracostomy tube
D) Right upper lobectomy
Q3) A patient has a pneumothorax with a sucking chest wound resulting in the movement of gas from one lung to another. This is called:
A) panting.
B) paradoxical movement.
C) bidirectional flow.
D) pendelluft.
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25
Chapter 24: Pleural Effusion and Empyema
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Sample Questions
Q1) The anatomic alteration caused by a pleural effusion is:
A) pulmonary fibrosis.
B) separation of the visceral and parietal pleura.
C) adhesion of the visceral and parietal pleura.
D) pulmonary edema.
Q2) A respiratory therapist is assisting a physician who is performing a thoracentesis. It is suspected that the patient has a chylothorax. How would the pleural effusion be described?
A) Milky white
B) Straw colored
C) Red
D) Green
Q3) In the absence of surgery or trauma, what does the presence of blood in the pleural fluid most likely signify?
A) Malignant disease
B) Fungal disease
C) Chylothorax
D) Tuberculosis
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Chapter 25: Kyphoscoliosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which age group is most likely to develop idiopathic scoliosis?
A) Infants
B) Juveniles
C) Adolescents
D) Adults
Q2) For best results, how many hours per day should a SpineCor brace be worn?
A) 8
B) 10
C) 16
D) 20
Q3) All of the following are orthotic braces used in the management of scoliosis EXCEPT _____ brace.
A) Boston
B) Milwaukee
C) Chicago
D) Charleston bending
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Interstitial Lung Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following Americans would be the most likely to get sarcoidosis?
A) A 27-year-old African-American female
B) A 60-year-old African-American male
C) A 45-year-old Caucasian female
D) A 60-year-old Hispanic male
Q2) All of the following are associated with lymphangioleiomyomatosis (LAM) EXCEPT:
A) recurrent chylothoraces and recurrent pneumothoraces.
B) increased airway obstruction.
C) postmenopausal women are primarily affected.
D) airway smooth muscle is affected.
Q3) What is the most common pulmonary complication associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
A) Bronchospasm
B) Pleurisy
C) Atelectasis
D) Diaphragmatic dysfunction
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Chapter 27: Cancer of the Lung
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the preferred surgical treatment for a large, single tumor located in the right lower lobe?
A) Lobectomy
B) Wedge resection
C) Segmentectomy
D) Pneumonectomy
Q2) Which of the following is the most common form of lung cancer among those who have never smoked cigarettes or other tobacco products?
A) Squamous cell carcinoma
B) Adenocarcinoma
C) Large cell carcinoma
D) Small cell carcinoma
Q3) All of the following are pathologic or structural changes associated with bronchogenic carcinoma EXCEPT:
A) excessive mucous production.
B) inflammation of the airways.
C) alveolar consolidation.
D) fibrocalcific pleural plaques.
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29
Chapter 28: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the Berlin definition of ARDS, what does a PaO<sub>2</sub>/FIO<sub>2 </sub>ratio of 150 mm Hg indicate for a patient on mechanical ventilation with a PEEP of 10 cm H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>
A) Normal lungs
B) Mild ARDS
C) Moderate ARDS
D) Severe ARDS
Q2) Which of the following pulmonary changes are associated with ARDS?
1) Abnormal surfactant
2) Interstitial edema
3) Decreased shunt
4) Narrowing of the alveolar-capillary membrane
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 3
D) 1, 2, 3
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Chapter 29: Guillain-Barré Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) The diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome is based on all of the following EXCEPT:
A) urinalysis shows elevated blood urea nitrogen.
B) abnormal electromyography results.
C) cerebrospinal fluid shows elevated protein level.
D) clinical history.
Q2) A patient with Guillain-Barré is paralyzed and on mechanical ventilatory support. Which of the following pulmonary complications is most likely to occur as the result of prolonged immobilization?
A) Pneumonia
B) Pressure sores
C) Thromboembolism
D) Atelectasis
Q3) In the United States and Europe, what is the most common subtype of GBS?
A) Miller Fisher syndrome (MFS)
B) Acute motor axonal neuropathy (AMAN)
C) Acute pandysautonomic neuropathy (APN)
D) Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (AIDP)
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Chapter 30: Myasthenia Gravis
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Q1) A patient has a severe case of generalized myasthenia gravis. It is most important that the patient be monitored for:
A) urine output.
B) atrial fibrillation.
C) hypotension.
D) apnea.
Q2) What test is usually performed to confirm the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis?
A) RNS
B) PFT
C) CBC
D) EEG
Q3) What percentage of patients with only ocular myasthenia gravis are seropositive?
A) <10%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 90%
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Chapter 31: Sleep Apnea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sleep apnea would be diagnosed in a patient who has which of these findings?
1) More than 15 apnea episodes per hour of sleep
2) More than 5 apnea episodes per hour over an 8-hour period
3) More than 75% of the apneas are obstructive.
4) More than 75% of the apneas and hypopneas are obstructive.
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 3, 4
Q2) All of the following may be an advantage of in-home portable sleep testing EXCEPT:
A) convenience.
B) patient acceptance.
C) can be easily performed over multiple nights.
D) decreased cost.
E) published standards for scoring or interpretation.
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Chapter 32: Clinical Manifestations Common with Newborn and
Early Childhood Respiratory Dis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Respiratory causes of persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN) include:
1) congenital heart disease.
2) hypoxia.
3) meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS).
4) respiratory distress syndrome (RDS).
A) 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 3
D) 2, 3, 4
Q2) A premature infant has two pulse oximeters placed: one on the right hand and one on the left foot. The respiratory therapist notes that the reading on the right hand is consistently 12% greater than the reading on the left foot. Which of the following is the best interpretation of this finding?
A) The infant has left-sided intra-pulmonary shunting.
B) The infant likely has pneumonia.
C) The infant is in septic shock with systemic capillary shunting.
D) The infant has persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn.
E) The infant has shunting across the ductus venosus.
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Chapter 33: Meconium Aspiration Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) Risk factors for the development of MAS include:
1) being postterm.
2) a mother who is hypertensive.
3) a mother who is toxemic.
4) being the first twin born.
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Q2) Infants who are older than 42 weeks' gestation are at greater risk for MAS because they have:
1) a full bowel.
2) strong peristalsis.
3) amniotic fluid in their stomach.
4) sphincter tone.
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 4
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Chapter 34: Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) On a chest radiograph, starbursts are indicative of:
A) bacterial pneumonia.
B) carinal carcinoma.
C) pulmonary vascular congestion.
D) foreign body aspiration.
Q2) Risk factors for the development of TTN include:
1) maternal diabetes.
2) male gender.
3) maternal bleeding.
4) breech delivery.
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Q3) At what gestational age is TTN most common?
A) 26 to 28 weeks' gestational age
B) 28 to 30 weeks' gestational age
C) 34 to 36 weeks' gestational age
D) 38 to 40 weeks' gestational age
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Q1) All of the following amniotic fluid lab findings would indicate mature fetal lungs EXCEPT:
A) S:A ratio is >55.
B) PG is present.
C) L:S ratio is 2:1.
D) L:S ratio is 1:2.
Q2) Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) primarily affects infants who are:
A) preterm with insufficient surfactant.
B) full-term.
C) postterm with too much surfactant.
D) preterm with too much surfactant.
Q3) A premature infant with RDS is receiving mechanical ventilation. In managing the patient's oxygenation, the respiratory therapist should strive to keep the PaO<sub>2</sub> at:
A) between 25 and 50.
B) between 40 and 70.
C) between 80 and 100.
D) 95 or greater.
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Chapter 36: Pulmonary Air Leak Syndromes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prior to the introduction of exogenous surfactant, with which condition were preterm neonates most likely to develop pulmonary air leak syndrome?
A) Meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS)
B) Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
C) Transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN)
D) Apnea of prematurity
Q2) A neonate with pulmonary interstitial emphysema has developed a pneumothorax. In the early stages, a pneumothorax will manifest itself clinically as _____ disorder.
A) an equally restrictive and obstructive
B) an obstructive pulmonary
C) a restrictive pulmonary
D) neither a restrictive nor an obstructive
Q3) An intubated, mechanically ventilated neonate developed a pneumothorax of the right lung. What could the respiratory therapist recommend to help the injured lung to heal?
A) Selectively place the endotracheal tube into the left mainstem bronchus.
B) Selectively place the endotracheal tube into the right mainstem bronchus.
C) Replace the endotracheal tube with a tracheostomy tube.
D) Change to continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Respiratory Syncytial Virus (Bronchiolitis or Pneumonitis)
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant with RSV will show what clinical manifestations associated with the more negative intrapleural pressures needed during inspiration?
1) Seesaw breathing movement
2) Breath sounds reveal pleural friction rub
3) Inspiratory stridor
4) Cyanosis of the dependent abdominal areas
A) 2, 4
B) 1, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Anatomic alterations related to an RSV infection can lead to all of the following EXCEPT:
A) pneumomediastinum.
B) partial airway obstruction.
C) decreased airway lumen.
D) complete airway obstruction.
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Chapter 38: Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common chronic lung disease of premature infants?
A) BPD
B) Asthma
C) Cystic fibrosis
D) TTN
Q2) An infant is beginning to develop BPD. What can be given to promote pulmonary vasodilation?
A) Furosemide (LasixÒ)
B) Inhaled nitric oxide (iNO)
C) Inhaled albuterol
D) FIO<sub>2</sub> >50%
Q3) What is the most significant treatment of the neonate for the prevention of BPD?
A) Corticosteroids
B) Diuretic therapy
C) Vitamin E therapy
D) Exogenous surfactant
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Chapter 39: Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant with a CDH also has pulmonary hypertension. Which of the following can be administered to relieve this problem?
A) Inhaled nitric oxide (iNO)
B) Inhaled parasympatholytic agent
C) 80% helium-20% oxygen
D) Corticosteroids
Q2) What is the medical term for the condition associated with some cases of CDH in which the heart is pushed to the right side of the chest?
A) Morgagni's movement
B) Dextrocardia
C) Ambidextrocardia
D) Bochdalek's shift
Q3) When does respiratory distress normally develop in a newborn with a CDH?
A) Shortly after delivery
B) 6 to 12 hours after delivery
C) 12 to 24 hours after delivery
D) 24 to 48 hours after delivery
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Chapter 40: Congenital Heart Diseases
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Q1) What is the most common type of VSD?
A) Inlet ventricular septal defect
B) Perimembranous ventricular septal defect
C) Muscular ventricular septal defect
D) Conoventricular ventricular septal defect
Q2) Which congenital cardiac abnormality results from "the arrested development of the secundum septum"?
A) Ostium secundum VSD
B) Ostium secundum ASD
C) Ostium secundum TGA
D) Ostium secundum TOF
Q3) Which cardiac anomaly is associated with coeur-en-sabot on a chest radiograph?
A) TOF
B) ASD
C) VSD
D) PDA
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Chapter 41: Croup Syndrome: Laryngotracheobronchitis and
Acute Epiglottitis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has epiglottitis. This condition will affect which of the following?
1) Pharynx
2) Aryepiglottic folds
3) False vocal cords
4) Trachea
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 2, 3, 4
Q2) What is the main clinical risk facing a patient with epiglottitis?
A) Secretions will block the trachea.
B) The epiglottis will bleed.
C) The laryngeal inlet may become covered by the epiglottis.
D) The vocal cords will spasm and close the laryngeal inlet.
Q3) The diagnosis of LTB is made by all of the following EXCEPT the child:
A) has inspiratory stridor and barking cough.
B) has a normal temperature or low fever.
C) has a significant fever.
D) can drink without difficulty.
Page 43
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Chapter 42: Near Drowning/Wet Drowning
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Sample Questions
Q1) In comparing the pathologic changes to the lungs caused by fresh water versus salt water, which of the following can be stated?
A) Salt water causes more damage.
B) Fresh water causes more damage.
C) Both cause identical pathologic changes.
D) Cold water of either type causes more damage than warm water of either type.
Q2) According to the World Health Organization, where does drowning rank worldwide as a cause of unintentional death?
A) It's the leading cause of unintentional death.
B) It's the second leading cause of unintentional death.
C) It's the third leading cause of unintentional death.
D) It ranks twenty-third among the causes of unintentional death.
Q3) What water temperature has been shown to be a favorable prognostic factor in near drowning?
A) Higher than 104° F
B) Between 98.6° F and 104° F
C) Between 70° F and 98° F
D) Between 27° F and 70° F
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Chapter 43: Smoke Inhalation, Thermal Injuries, and Carbon
Monoxide Intoxication
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 10-year-old patient has inhaled hot gases, and an inspection of her mouth shows edema and blisters. What should the respiratory therapist recommend?
A) Perform a bronchoscopy to evaluate the trachea.
B) Perform endotracheal intubation.
C) Monitor her SpO<sub>2</sub> once per shift.
D) Administer an aerosol treatment with racemic epinephrine.
Q2) Which portion of the pulmonary system will be affected by the inhalation of low-water solubility gases such as hydrogen chloride and phosgene?
A) Distal airways and alveoli
B) Pulmonary vascular bed
C) Upper airway
D) Pulmonary lymphatic system
Q3) A 65-year-old patient has third-degree skin burns over 30% of his body and a smoke inhalation injury. How does the combination of skin burns and smoke inhalation affect his prognosis?
A) It quadruples the mortality rate.
B) It more than triples the mortality rate.
C) It almost doubles the mortality rate.
D) There is no mortality change between having one or two concurrent problems.
Page 45
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Chapter 44: Atelectasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with atelectasis is being monitored by bedside spirometry. What findings would correspond with atelectasis?
1) Decreased IC
2) Increased PEFR
3) Decreased VC
4) Increased DLCO
A) 2
B) 1, 3
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) After gastric bypass surgery, a patient is showing tachypnea. What is the best explanation for this?
A) Diaphragmatic apraxia
B) Postoperative pain
C) Low-grade fever
D) Anesthetic sedation
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