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Respiratory Therapy is an interdisciplinary course that explores the principles and practices involved in the assessment, treatment, and management of patients with cardiopulmonary disorders. Students will gain an understanding of the anatomy and physiology of the respiratory system, learn techniques for airway management, mechanical ventilation, and oxygen therapy, and develop skills in patient assessment and emergency response. The course covers both theoretical knowledge and clinical applications, preparing students to support healthcare teams in various settings, including hospitals, clinics, and home care environments, with an emphasis on critical thinking, evidence-based practice, and patient-centered care.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Anatomy and Physiology 15th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora
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Q1) When holding your arms out to the side at shoulder level,your fingers are ________from your midline.
A)medial
B)anterior
C)proximal
D)posterior
E)lateral
Answer: E
Q2) If blood concentrations of thyroid hormones increase above a certain level,Thyroid releasing hormone (TRH)neurons in the hypothalamus are inhibited and stop secreting TRH.This is an example of A)negative feedback
B)positive feedback
Answer: A
Q3) A component that detects decreasing oxygen concentrations in blood would be the A)receptor
B)muscle
C)response
D)effector
Answer: A
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Q1) The nucleus of unstable _____ of an element will decay leading to emission of radiation.
A)compounds
B)cations
C)anions
D)isotopes
E)molecules
Answer: D
Q2) This lipid is used by the body as a precursor for the production of steroid hormones.
A)arachidonic acid
B)phospholipid
C)cholesterol
D)triglyceride
E)lipoprotein
Answer: C
Q3) Briefly describe the octet rule.
Answer: One atom is more likely to combine with another atom if doing so will leave both atoms with eight electrons in their valence shells.
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Q1) Which of the following membrane-enclosed organelles is the site of synthesis of membrane proteins and secretory proteins?
A)rough endoplasmic reticulum
B)smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C)nucleus
D)lysosome
E)Golgi complex
Answer: A
Q2) Which organelle is responsible for synthesis of steroids,phospholipids and functions as a reservoir for Ca<sup>2+</sup><sup> </sup>in muscle cells?
A)mitochondrion
B)secretory vesicle
C)smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D)rough endoplasmic reticulum
E)lysosome
Answer: C
Q3) Define homologous chromosomes.
Answer: Homologous chromosomes contain similar genes arranged in the same (or almost the same)order.
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Q1) Which cells are considered excitable cells because they are able to produce electrical signals?
A)neuroglial cells and muscle cells
B)muscle cells and fibroblasts
C)neuroglial cells and neurons
D)neurons and gap junctions
E)muscle cells and neurons
Q2) The extracellular matrix of connective tissue consists of A)enzymes and membranous organelles.
B)plasma membranes and ground substance.
C)keratinized cells and protein fibers.
D)calcified crystals of minerals and enzymes.
E)protein fibers and ground substance.
Q3) These types of cell junctions anchor adjacent cells together and resist their separation during contractile activities.
A)tight junctions and hemidesmosomes
B)gap junctions and tight junctions
C)adherens junctions and desmosomes
D)desmosomes and gap junctions
E)hemidesmosome and tight junctions
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Q1) A raised scar that extends into previously normal tissue is a(n)
A)hypertrophic scar
B)keloid scar
C)granulation scar
D)epidermal scar
Q2) Briefly describe the steps in epidermal wound healing.
Q3) List and briefly describe the major functions of the skin.
Q4) This layer is attached to the basement membrane by hemidesmosomes and to other cells by desmosomes.
A)Stratum basale
B)Stratum spinosum
C)Stratum granulosum
D)Stratum lucidum
E)Stratum corneum
Q5) Briefly describe the steps in deep wound healing
Q6) Describe the structure and function of the different types of exocrine glands found in the skin
Q7) Describe how fingerprints are formed and what they are used for.
Q8) Describe the structure and function of arrector pili.
Q9) Describe the major differences between thin skin and thick skin. Page 7
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Q1) The shaft of a long bone is the A)diaphysis.
B)epiphysis.
C)metaphysis.
D)periosteum.
E)medullary cavity.
Q2) This cell is active once the matrix of bone calcifies.The cells sits in a lacunae.
A)osteoprogenitor cells
B)osteoclasts
C)osteocytes
D)osteoblasts
E)chondroblasts
Q3) In endochondral ossification,what is the original source of osteoblasts?
A)endoderm
B)mesenchyme
C)mucus connective tissue
D)osteoprogenitor cells
E)ectoderm
Q4) Briefly describe the major differences between compact and spongy bone.
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Q1) Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?
A)tarsals
B)tibia
C)sphenoid
D)scapula
E)clavicle
Q2) Which condition is also called "hunchback" due to an increase in the thoracic curve of the vertebral column?
A)herniated disc
B)scoliosis
C)kyphosis
D)lordosis
E)spina bifida
Q3) List and describe the number of bones found in all the regions of the adult vertebral column.
Q4) Briefly describe the location of the four most prominent sutures of the skull including the articulating bones.
Q5) Briefly describe the five categories of bones found in the human body based on the shape of the bones.
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Q1) The distal end of the radius articulates with how many bones of the wrist?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)5
Q2) The glenohumeral joint is formed by articulation of the
A)humerus,radius and ulna.
B)humerus and radius.
C)humerus and clavicle.
D)humerus and ulna.
E)humerus and scapula.
Q3) Which of the following bone markings on the scapula is an indentation into which the head of the humerus fits?
A)coracoid process
B)glenoid cavity
C)acromion
D)scapular notch
E)supraspinous fossa
Q4) Name the bones that are included in each lower limb.
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Q1) Forming a fist,requires the fingers to perform what motion?
A)Opposition
B)Extension
C)Dorsiflexion
D)Flexion
E)Rotation
Q2) Gout signs are usually seen in [dropdown 1];rheumatoid arthritis is often seen in the [dropdown 2];while osteoarthritis is most common in [dropdown 3].
Dropdown choices:big toe hand
knee neck
Q3) Whenflexing your torso laterally,the movement occurs along what body plane?
A)Frontal
B)Transverse
C)Sagittal
D)Oblique
Q4) Describe the general effects that aging has on joints.
Q5) Briefly describe what is happening when a person "cracks their knuckles".
Q6) What unique characteristics would a person who is "double-jointed" possess?
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Q1) For the muscle to contract and relax,what must be present (choose all that apply)?
A)ATP
B)calcium ions
C)ACh
D)sodium ions
Q2) Match the terms to their actions.
Which of the following wraps around groups of muscles?
_________:wraps around groups of muscles
_________:encircles muscle
_________:encircles fascicles
_________:separates muscle fibers
Drop Down Choices:
Endomysium
Epimysium
Fascia
Perimysium
Q3) Discuss the steps involved in contraction of smooth muscle and explain why smooth muscle has a slower contraction cycle.
Q4) In embryonic muscle development,what happens to the somites?
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Q1) Which muscles help move the jaw during mastication?
A)masseter,temporalis,pterygoid (medial and lateral)
B)genioglossus,styloglossus,hyoglossus,palatoglossus
C)omohyoid,sternohyoid,thyrohyoid
D)sternocleidomastoid,longissimus capitis,splenius capitis
E)orbicularis oris,levator labii superioris,depressor labii inferioris
Q2) Your friend nods back and forth to you,making the "yes" motion.What muscle actions on the head at the neck are involved in this 'yes' motion?
A)rotation and circumduction
B)lateral and medial rotation
C)extension and flexion
D)protraction and retraction
E)elevation and depression
Q3) Name and describe the locations and actions of the muscles typically used in breathing.
Q4) What anatomical structures of the musculoskeletal system correspond to the components of a lever system? Describe the arrangement of these parts in first,second,and third class lever systems.
Q5) Discuss the roles of agonists,antagonists,synergists,and fixators in movement.
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Q1) What factors limit neurogenesis in the CNS of adults?
Q2) Describe four ways drugs can modify the effects of neurotransmitters.
Q3) List the three ways that neurotransmitters can be removed from a synapse.
Q4) When an impulse arrives at the synaptic end bulb,the membrane becomes more permeable to [dropdown 1].The ion movement into the synaptic end bulbs causes [dropdown 2] of [dropdown 3] into the synaptic cleft.
Dropdown 1 choices: calcium chloride potassium sodium
Dropdown 2 choices: endocytosis exocytosis
Dropdown 3 choices: electrons ions neurotransmitters protons
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Q1) In the 400 meter relay,runners handoff the baton to the person in front of them.The second runner in the relay team had to be replaced .They were unable to pronate their forearm to reach behind for the baton because of injury to their brachial plexus.What is the most likely site of their injury?
A)Dorsal scapular nerve
B)Intercostal nerve
C)Phrenic nerve
D)Median nerve
E)Radial nerve
Q2) What parts of a neuron within a nerve is/are wrapped in a protective endoneurium?
1)Myelinated axon
2)Unmyelinated axon
3)Dendrites
A)1 only
B)2 only
C)3 only
D)Both 1 and 2
E)1,2 and 3
Q3) Describe the basic anatomy of a spinal nerve plexus.
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Q1) Which region of the brain contains the pontine respiratory group that help control breathing?
A)Medulla oblongata
B)Midbrain
C)Pons
D)Thalamus
E)Cerebellum
Q2) Damaging which cranial nerve could decrease gastrointestinal secretions?
A)Oculomotor
B)Trigeminal
C)Spinal accessory
D)Facial
E)Vagus
Q3) Which of the following brain structures consists of the thalamus,hypothalamus and epithalamus?
A)Cerebellum
B)Brain stem
C)Cerebrum
D)Diencephalon
E)Dura mater
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Q1) Which of the following lists the components of an autonomic reflex arc in the proper sequence of activation?
A)receptor - sensory neuron - integrating center - motor neuron - effector
B)receptor - motor neuron - integrating center - sensory neuron - effector
C)effector - sensory neuron - integrating center - motor neuron - receptor
D)integrating center - receptor - sensory neuron - motor neuron - effector
E)receptor - sensory neuron - motor neuron - effector - integrating center
Q2) Jennifer is at a stoplight and begins to accelerate into traffic when the light turns green.She stops suddenly as a truck runs the red light and is only a few inches away from her front bumper.Which effect would you NOT expect to see in Jennifer's body?
A)Increased heart rate
B)Airway dilation
C)Increased pupil diameter
D)Increased secretion of digestive juices
E)Increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine
Q3) Describe the possible ways in which the axon of a sympathetic preganglionic neuron connects with postganglionic neurons after it reaches the sympathetic trunk ganglia.
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Q1) Which of the following stages of non-rapid eye movement (NREM)sleep is considered the deepest level of sleep?
A)Stage one
B)Stage two
C)Stage three
D)Stage four
Q2) A viral infection has damaged a patient's tectospinal tract.What signs of this damage probably helped the physicians diagnose the problem?
Q3) [dropdown 1] are activated by an increase in tendon tension.[dropdown 2] detect deep pressure and vibration.[dropdown 3] are activated by low frequency vibrations. Dropdown choices:
Corpuscle of touch
Lamellated corpuscle
Merkel cell
Muscle spindle
Tendon organ
Q4) Describe the role of the reticular activating system in sleep,arousal,and consciousness.
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Q1) Which structures contain endolymph?
A)saccule,utricle and cochlear duct
B)scala vestibule,scala tympani,and bony labyrinth
C)membranous and bony labyrinth
D)scala vestibule,scala tympani,and cochlear duct
E)cochlear duct,vestibule and semicircular canals
Q2) Explain how the inhibitory neurotransmitter prevents visual signals from being sent to the brain.
Q3) The ______ regulates the amount of light entering the eyeball through the pupil.
A)retina
B)cornea
C)iris
D)lens
E)fovea centralis
Q4) Olfactory epithelium is found
A)throughout the nasal cavity.
B)only in the superior portion of the nasal cavity.
C)only in the inferior portion of the nasal cavity.
D)from the vestibule to the pharynx.
E)only in the mid-nasal ridges.

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Q1) Human growth hormone is secreted by [dropdown 1] in the anterior pituitary gland,while follicle stimulating hormone is secreted by [dropdown 2] .
Dropdown 1choices: corticotrophs
gonadotrophs somatotrophs thyrotrophs
Dropdown 2 choices: corticotrophs gonadotrophs
somatotrophs thyrotrophs
Q2) Which type of anterior pituitary cell secretes melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH)?
A)Thyrotrophs
B)Gonadotrophs
C)Somatotrophs
D)Lactotrophs
E)Corticotrophs
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Q1) During hemopoiesis,some of the myeloid stem cells will eventually develop into A)proerythroblasts.
B)T lymphoblasts.
C)B lymphoblasts.
D)NK lymphoblasts.
E)all of these choices.
Q2) List and briefly describe the three mechanisms used to reduce blood loss from a damaged blood vessel.
Q3) Which of the following situations could result in maternal antibodies attacking fetal blood cells during a second pregnancy?
A)Mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh negative
B)Mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh positive
C)Mom is Rh positive and fetus is Rh negative
D)Mom is Rh positive and fetus is Rh positive.
Q4) Which of the following precursor cells eventually gives rise to the platelets?
A)Megakaryoblast
B)Proerythroblast
C)T lymphoblast
D)Monoblast
E)Myeloblast

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Q1) The visceral layer of the serous pericardium is also considered to be the A)epicardium
B)myocardium
C)endocardium
D)fibrous pericardium
E)None of the answer selections is correct
Q2) Heart murmurs are often heard in individuals with abnormalities in the [dropdown 1] of the heart.
Dropdown Choices:
AV node endocardium myocardium
SA node valves
Q3) Cardiac tamponade may develop following a case of A)myocarditis
B)endocarditis
C)palpitation
D)pericarditis
E)tachycardia
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Q1) Nutrients from digested food enter the liver via the A)hepatic portal circulation
B)hepatic vein
C)abdominal aorta
D)inferior vena cava
E)renal veins
Q2) Which of the following categories of hypertension drugs lower blood pressure by blocking formation of angiotensin II,which results in vasodilation and decreased aldosterone secretion?
A)Diuretics
B)ACE inhibitors
C)Beta blockers
D)Calcium channel blockers
E)Anabolic steroids
Q3) The right common carotid artery branches directly off the
A)left common carotid artery
B)left subclavian artery
C)brachiocephalic trunk
D)right subclavian artery
E)right coronary artery
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Q1) Lymphatic capillaries,because of their greater permeability than blood capillaries,can readily absorb which molecules that are NOT easily absorbed by blood capillaries? Select all that apply.
A)proteins
B)lipids
C)interstitial fluid
D)carbohydrates
Q2) Which of the following cells exists in the greatest variety in the immune system?
A)Natural killer cell
B)Monocyte
C)RBC
D)Lymphocyte
E)Macrophage
Q3) Antigens that induce an allergic reaction are called
A)lymphotoxins
B)perforins
C)granulysins
D)cytokines
E)allergens
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Q1) Describe the inward forces of elastic recoil,and explain why the lungs do not normally collapse during expiration.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a factor that determines the rate of pulmonary and systemic gas exchange?
A)Partial pressure difference of gases
B)surface area availability for gas exchange
C)Diffusion distance
D)Molecular weight and solubility of the gases
E)All of these are factors that determine the rate of pulmonary and systemic gas exchange.
Q3) A man is found lying unconscious on the floor of his apartment during a very cold period.A space heater is nearby.His lips appear to be cherry red in color.He might be suffering from
A)carbon dioxide poisoning
B)sulfur dioxide poisoning
C)carbon monoxide poisoning
D)excessive oxygen intake
E)any of these is possible
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Q1) Which of the following accessory organs stores bile?
A)Teeth
B)Salivary glands
C)Liver
D)Gallbladder
E)Pharynx
Q2) Which plexus is located between the longitudinal and circular smooth muscle layers of the muscularis?
A)ENS
B)Myenteric plexus
C)Submucosal plexus
D)Digestive plexus
E)Absorption plexus
Q3) Describe the structures and functions of the enteric nervous system.
Q4) Which of following processes is the primary function of the mouth?
A)Ingestion
B)Secretion
C)Mixing and propulsion
D)Absorption
E)None of these choices
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a fate that awaits glucose 6-phophate after it is formed in a cell?
A)Synthesis of glycogen
B)Release of glucose into the blood stream
C)Synthesis of nucleic acids
D)Glycolysis
E)Gluconeogenesis
Q2) Which of the following is needed for the synthesis of thyroid hormones?
A)Zinc
B)Chromium
C)Selenium
D)Cobalt
E)Copper
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a factor that affects the metabolic rate and the rate of heat production?
A)Hormones
B)Nervous system
C)Food ingestion
D)Age
E)All of these are factors
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Q1) This is a nephron process that results in a substance in blood entering the already formed filtrate.
A)reabsorption
B)filtration
C)secretion
D)excretion
E)none of these choices
Q2) If an individual goes on a crash diet and loses weight very rapidly,he or she will risk the development of
A)kidney failure
B)kidney stones
C)nephroptosis
D)a urinary tract infection
E)bladder stones
Q3) Which structure of the nephron reabsorbs the most substances?
A)glomerular capsule
B)nephron loop
C)ascending limb
D)collecting duct
E)proximal convoluted tubule
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Q1) Weakness,irritability,tetany,delirium,convulsions and several other signs and symptoms from hypomagnesemia may be associated with an individual who is
A)alcoholic
B)malnourished
C)diabetic
D)constipated
E)a smoker
Q2) Which protein is the main protein buffer in blood plasma?
A)Albumin
B)Hemoglobin
C)Complement
D)Fibrin
E)Calmodulin
Q3) In extracellular fluid the most abundant cation is
A)Na<sup>+</sup>
B)Cl<sup>-</sup>
C)K<sup>+</sup>
D)HPO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>
E)HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
Q4) Explain why infants suffer dehydration far more easily than adults.
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Q1) Describe the positive feedback loop involved in ovulation.
Q2) Describe the roles of estrogens and progesterone.
Q3) Paraurethral (Skene's)glands secrete
A)Estrogen
B)Progesterone
C)Testosterone
D)Androgens
E)Mucus
Q4) A forty year old woman experiences breast tenderness,slight swelling and some lumpiness each month during the third week of her menstrual cycle.She is most likely suffering from
A)breast cancer
B)fibrocystic breast disease
C)mastitis
D)Paget's disease
E)none of these
Q5) Describe the contributions of the reproductive systems to the integumentary systems.
Q6) What is the mode of action of oral contraceptives (birth control pills)?
Q7) Describe the functions of testosterone.
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Q1) A teratogen induced developmental defect resulting in characteristic facial features is associated with
A)Down syndrome
B)Prader-Willi syndrome
C)Fetal alcohol syndrome
D)Angelman syndrome
E)Sudden death syndrome
Q2) A neural tube defect in the developing fetus may be detected by measuring the levels of which of the following substances?
A)human chorionic somatomammotropin
B)human chorionic gonadotropin
C)relaxin
D)maternal alpha-fetoprotein
E)corticotropin-releasing hormone
Q3) Distinguish between genotype and phenotype and explain how the environment may affect each.
Q4) If a woman who recently gave birth wants to continue to nurse newborn infants,even if they are not hers,could she do this indefinitely? If possible,why can she continue to do so?
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