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Respiratory Care Pre-Test Questions

Course Introduction

Respiratory Care is a comprehensive course designed to introduce students to the principles and practices essential for the assessment, diagnosis, and therapeutic management of patients with cardiopulmonary disorders. The curriculum covers human respiratory anatomy and physiology, common respiratory diseases, fundamentals of ventilation, airway management, and the application of medical gases and equipment. Emphasis is placed on hands-on skills, clinical decision-making, patient safety, and interdisciplinary communication, preparing students for effective roles as respiratory care professionals in diverse healthcare settings.

Recommended Textbook

Pilbeams Mechanical Ventilation Physiological and Clinical Applications 5th Edition by J M Cairo

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23 Chapters

684 Verified Questions

684 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Basic Terms and Concepts of Mechanical

Ventilation

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35 Verified Questions

35 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/50181

Sample Questions

Q1) The patient-ventilator data over the past few hours demonstrates an increased peak inspiratory pressure (PIP)with a constant transairway pressure (PTA).The respiratory therapist should conclude which of the following?

A) Static compliance (CS)has increased.

B) Static compliance (CS)has decreased.

C) Airway resistance (Raw)has increased.

D) Airway resistance (Raw )has decreased.

Answer: B

Q2) Calculate the static compliance (CS),in mL/cm H2O,when PIP is 26 cm H2O,plateau pressure (Pplateau)is 19 cm H2O,baseline pressure is 5 cm H2O and exhaled tidal volume (VT)is 425 mL.

A) 16

B) 20

C) 22

D) 30

Answer: D

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Page 3

Chapter 2: How Ventilators Work

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The power transmission and conversion system of a ventilator is defined as which of the following?

A) A mechanical device that produces gas flow to the patient

B) An electrical motor that is connected by a special gearing mechanism

C) The system that interprets the settings and produces or regulates the desired output

D) Internal hardware that changes electrical or pneumatic energy into mechanical energy

Answer: D

Q2) The function of the exhalation valve is to do which of the following?

A) Adjust the flow going to the patient

B) Close during exhalation to vent patient gas

C) Seal the external circuit during inspiration

D) Determine the volume being delivered

Answer: C

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Chapter 3: How a Breath Is Delivered

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31 Verified Questions

31 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The most common method of terminating inspiration during pressure support ventilation is which of the following?

A) Flow

B) Time

C) Pressure

D) Volume

Answer: A

Q2) Calculate the transrespiratory pressure given the following information: volume 0.6 L;compliance 1 L/cm H2O;airway resistance 3 cm H2O/L/sec;flow 1 L/sec.

A) 0.9 cm H2O

B) 1.8 cm H2O

C) 3.6 cm H2O

D) 4.6 cm H2O

Answer: C

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Chapter 4: Establishing the Need for Mechanical Ventilation

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23 Verified Questions

23 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Respiratory failure due to inadequate ventilation is known as which of the following?

A) Hypoxemic

B) Hypercapnic

C) Compensated

D) Chronic

Q2) A patient seen in the emergency department exhibits paralysis of the lower extremities that is getting progressively worse.Vital capacity is 6 mL/kg,maximum inspiratory pressure (MIP)is -17 cm H2O,and oxygen saturation measured by pulse oximeter (SpO2)is 89%.Arterial blood gases (ABGs)are pending.The physician suspects Guillain-Barré syndrome.The most appropriate action at this time is which of the following?

A) Intubate and mechanically ventilate.

B) Place patient on a nonrebreather mask.

C) Initiate continuous positive airway pressure.

D) Initiate noninvasive positive pressure ventilation.

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Chapter 5: Selecting the Ventilator and the Mode

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32 Verified Questions

32 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The ventilator mode that allows the patient to breathe spontaneously between operator selected time-triggered volume or pressure-targeted breaths is which of the following?

A) Pressure Support Ventilation (PSV)

B) Continuous Mandatory Ventilation (CMV)

C) Synchronized Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation (SIMV)

D) Airway Pressure Release Ventilation (APRV)

Q2) A breath that is triggered,limited,and cycled by the mechanical ventilator is which of the following?

A) Assisted breath

B) Mandatory breath

C) Spontaneous breath

D) Synchronized breath

Q3) The ventilator mode where every breath is patient triggered,pressure targeted,flow cycled with a volume target is which of the following?

A) Volume Support Ventilation (VSV)

B) Pressure Regulated Volume Control (PRVC)

C) Airway Pressure Release Ventilation (APRV)

D) Pressure Augmentation (Paug)

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Page 7

Chapter 6: Initial Ventilator Settings

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37 Verified Questions

37 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has a body temperature of 40° C.How should the initial minute ventilation setting be adjusted?

A) Increase it by 15%

B) Decrease it by 18%

C) Decrease it by 25%

D) Increase it by 30%

Q2) The pattern that has been shown to improve the distribution of gas in the lungs for an intubated patient on volume-controlled continuous mandatory ventilation (VC-CMV)is which of the following?

A) Sine waveform

B) Ascending ramp

C) Descending ramp

D) Square waveform

Q3) Setting flow rates high will cause which of the following to occur?

A) Improve gas exchange

B) Lengthen inspiratory time

C) Increase air trapping

D) Increase peak pressures

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Chapter 7: Final Considerations in Ventilator Setup

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35 Verified Questions

35 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A humidifier used with a mechanical ventilator should deliver a minimum of how much humidity?

A) 10 mg H2O/L at 35° C to 37° C

B) 20 mg H2O/L at 31° C to 35° C

C) 30 mg H2O/L at 31° C to 35° C

D) 47 mg H2O/L at 35° C to 37° C

Q2) Sigh breaths could be beneficial during which of the following situations?

A) Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)used for the treatment of hypoxemia

B) Mechanical ventilation with VTS = 8-10 mL/kg

C) Ventilating acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)patient with plateau pressure Pplateau > 30 cm H2O

D) Pressure-supported ventilation with tidal volume (VT)= 4-6 mL/kg

Q3) The ventilator volume is set at 575 mL.The low exhaled tidal volume (VT)alarm should be set at which of the following?

A) 150 mL

B) 350 mL

C) 400 mL

D) 500 mL

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Chapter 8: Initial Patient Assessment

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35 Verified Questions

35 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A pathophysiologic condition that causes an increase in peal inspiratory pressure (PIP)while transairway pressure (PTA)remains the same is which of the following?

A) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

B) Asthma

C) Emphysema

D) Chronic Bronchitis

Q2) Calculate the volume delivered to the patient when the tubing compliance (CT)is 2.5 mL/cm H2O,the tidal volume (VT)at the exhalation port is 550 mL,and the peak inspiratory pressure (PIP)is 28 cm H2O.

A) 70 mL

B) 330 mL

C) 480 mL

D) 620 mL

Q3) An increasing PIP may indicate which of the following?

A) Decreasing lung compliance

B) Decreasing airway resistance

C) Leak in the ventilator circuit

D) Increasing dynamic compliance

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Chapter 9: Ventilator Graphics

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31 Verified Questions

31 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) An increase in airway resistance during pressure ventilation will result in which of the following?

A) Plateau pressure (PPlateau)will increase.

B) Volume curve will resemble an igloo.

C) Inspiration will end prior to flow tapering to zero.

D) Pressure curve will become concave on inspiration.

Q2) The two waveforms that are common for pressure scalars are which of the following?

A) Sinusoidal and ascending ramp

B) Rectangular and exponential rise

C) Descending ramp and ascending ramp

D) Exponential decay and descending ramp

Q3) During a patient-ventilator system check the respiratory therapist notices that the pressure-volume loop begins at zero on the x-axis but does not return to zero during expiration.The cause of this is which of the following?

A) Active exhalation

B) Inadequate sensitivity

C) Ventilator circuit leak

D) Decreased compliance

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Chapter 10: Assessment of Respiratory Function

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54 Verified Questions

54 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The energy required to move gas through the airways and expand the thorax is known as which of the following?

A) Airway resistance

B) Dynamic compliance

C) Intrinsic work of breathing

D) Extrinsic work of breathing

Q2) A patient in the intensive care unit is receiving mechanical ventilation,has a pulmonary artery catheter in place,and is being monitored continuously with a capnometer.The patient's arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2)is 41 mm Hg and the partial pressure of end-tidal carbon dioxide (PetCO2)is 36 mm Hg.There is a sudden decrease in the PetCO2 to 18 mm Hg causing an alarm to sound.The most likely cause of this development is which of the following?

A) Hypovolemia

B) Apneic episode

C) Pulmonary embolism

D) Increased cardiac output

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Hemodynamic Monitoring

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55 Verified Questions

55 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The function of the transducer in the invasive vascular monitoring system is to do which of the following?

A) Measure the flow of fluid in the catheter.

B) Convert the fluid pressure to an electrical signal.

C) Connect to the thermistor to measure cardiac output.

D) Amplify the electrical signal so it may be seen on the monitor.

Q2) During the insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter,the balloon needs to be inflated with air when it enters which of the following?

A) Right atrium

B) Right ventricle

C) Pulmonary artery

D) Intrathoracic vessel

Q3) The main component of a hemodynamic monitoring system is which of the following?

A) Plethysmograph

B) Pneumotachometer

C) Sphygmomanometer

D) Strain gauge transducer

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Chapter 12: Methods to Improve Ventilation in Patient-Ventilator Management

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33 Verified Questions

33 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The average tidal volume range in an individual with no pulmonary problems is which of the following?

A) 4 to 5 mL/kg IBW

B) 5 to 8 mL/kg IBW

C) 8 to 10 mL/kg IBW

D) 12 to 15 mL/kg IBW

Q2) A patient with CHF is being mechanically ventilated.The patient's current PaCO2 = 28 mm Hg,and the ventilator set rate is 16/minute.The desired PaCO2 for this patient is 40 mm Hg.To what should the set rate be changed?

A) 7/min

B) 11/min

C) 14/min

D) 18/min

Q3) What size suction catheter is appropriate for use in a patient with a 6-mm ET tube?

A) 8 Fr

B) 10 Fr

C) 12 Fr

D) 14 Fr

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Chapter 13: Improving Oxygenation and Management of Ards

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) During a patient case study,increasing increments of PEEP showed no significant effects until 15 cm H2O was used,at which time the PaO2 improved markedly.This represents the point at which _______________.

A) cardiac output decreased

B) airway resistance decreased

C) hemoglobin saturation improved

D) alveolar recruitment probably occurred

Q2) Assessing the outcome of PEEP at levels set above 15 to 20 cm H2O is best done using which of the following?

A) Static compliance measurements

B) Pressure-volume loop graphics

C) Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure

D) Central venous pressure measurements

Q3) The highest pressure attained during the slow-flow (quasi-static)technique should be ______ cm H2O.

A) 25

B) 35

C) 45

D) 55

Page 15

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Chapter 14: Ventilator-Associated Pneumonia

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The mortality rate for VAP depends on which of the following?

1)Length of stay on the ventilator

2)Presence of underlying disease

3)Prior antimicrobial therapy

4)Presence of a heated humidifier

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only

C) 1 and 4 only

D) 1,2,3,and 4

Q2) The most common gram-positive bacterium that causes ventilator-associated pneumonia is which of the following?

A) Streptococcus pneumoniae

B) Enterococcus faecalis

C) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Q3) Sixty percent of all VAP infections are caused by which of the following?

A) Aerobic gram-negative bacilli

B) Anaerobic gram-negative bacilli

C) Aerobic gram-negative rods

D) Anaerobic gram-positive cocci

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Chapter 15: Sedatives,Analgesics,and Paralytics

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What drug reverses the sedative effects of benzodiazepines?

A) Naloxone

B) Flumazenil

C) Fentanyl

D) Vecuronium

Q2) What range of scores on the Ramsay Sedation Scale indicates adequate sedation?

A) 1 to 3

B) 2 to 4

C) 3 to 5

D) 5 to 6

Q3) A patient who is receiving mechanical ventilation in the ICU is found to be wildly agitated.The most appropriate drug to control this delirium is which of the following?

A) Propofol

B) Fentanyl

C) Haloperidol

D) Lorazepam

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Chapter 16: Extrapulmonary Effects of Mechanical

Ventilation

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Calculate the cerebral perfusion pressure when the mean arterial blood pressure is 120 mm Hg and the ICP is 14 mm Hg.

A) 134 mm Hg

B) 106 mm Hg

C) 120/14 mm Hg

D) 134/106 mm Hg

Q2) Physiological dead space may be increased in apneic patients receiving volume control ventilation by which of the following?

A) I:E ratio >1:1

B) A slow flow rate

C) Adding an inflation hold

D) Inspiratory time <0.5 sec

Q3) Positive pressure ventilation increases splanchnic resistance,decreases splanchnic venous outflow,and may contribute to gastric mucosal ischemia.This last change contributes to which of the following?

A) Liver metastases

B) Tracheal malacia

C) Gastric ulcers

D) Increased portal blood flow

Page 18

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Chapter 17: Effects of Positive Pressure Ventilation on the

Pulmonary System

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28 Verified Questions

28 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The acceptable lower limit of PaO2 for a mechanically ventilated patient with ARDS is which of the following?

A) 50 mm Hg

B) 60 mm Hg

C) 70 mm Hg

D) 80 mm Hg

Q2) Shear stress injury and loss of surfactant from the resulting unstable lung units result in a loss of surfactant.This type of pulmonary trauma is known as _____________.

A) atelectrauma

B) barotrauma

C) biotrauma

D) volutrauma

Q3) Prolonged ventilator-induced hyperventilation can lead to which of the following?

A) Hypokalemia

B) Hyperkalemia

C) Increased ICP

D) Headaches

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Troubleshooting and Problem Solving

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with a past medical history of COPD was placed on a ventilator after upper abdominal surgery for a serious wound infection.Although the patient was medically stable,a tracheostomy was performed 2 weeks later because the patient was unable to be weaned from the ventilator.The patient is on VC-CMV,rate = 12,VT = 700 mL,FIO2 = 40%,PEEP = 5 cm H2O,with an HME.The respiratory therapist notes that the patient is assisting at a rate of 18 and has bilaterally decreased breath sounds in the bases.The respiratory therapist suctions a moderate amount of very thick,tenacious yellow sputum from the tracheostomy tube.What action should the respiratory therapist take?

A) The HME should be replaced with an active heated humidifier system.

B) No action is necessary,because there seems to be no patient problem.

C) The patient should be suctioned on a regular schedule instead of when needed.

D) PEEP and the FIO2 should be increased,and diuretic and positive inotropic agents should be administered.

Q2) An apnea alarm may be activated by which of the following?

A) Secretions

B) Auto PEEP

C) Loss of PEEP

D) Active inhalation

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Chapter 19: Basic Concepts of Noninvasive Positive

Pressure Ventilation

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) If oxygen is bled into each of the following portable PTVs at the same rate,which of the following combinations will provide the highest oxygen concentration?

A) Leak port at mask,oxygen bleed at mask,IPAP 8 cm H2O,EPAP 16 cm H2O

B) Leak port at mask,oxygen bleed at machine outlet,IPAP 6 cm H2O,EPAP 18 cm H2O

C) Leak port in circuit,oxygen bleed at mask,IPAP 5 cm H2O,EPAP 10 cm H2O

D) Leak port in circuit,oxygen bleed in circuit,IPAP 5 cm H2O,EPAP 15 cm H2O

Q2) A patient with central sleep apnea uses a nasal mask with NPPV at night.The patient complains of nasal congestion.What action should the respiratory therapist take?

A) Reduce the EPAP.

B) Add a heated humidifier.

C) Switch to a mouthpiece.

D) Add a heat/moisture exchanger.

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Chapter 20: Discontinuation and Weaning From Mechanical

Ventilation

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Sample Questions

Q1) A recently extubated patient develops a partial upper airway obstruction,which causes stridor.What action can the respiratory therapist take to improve the patient's condition?

A) Aerosolize 11.25 mg of racemic epinephrine.

B) Put a nonrebreathing mask on the patient.

C) Place the patient on NPPV.

D) Suggest the use of lorazepam (Ativan).

Q2) An SBT should not continue for longer than _____ minutes.

A) 30

B) 60

C) 120

D) 180

Q3) In which patient would continued use of an artificial airway be necessary?

A) A patient with upper airway burns and no peritubular leak

B) A patient who tests positive for a peritubular leak

C) A patient with bronchospasm and supplemental oxygen requirements

D) A patient with a strong cough who expectorates moderate amounts of sputum

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Long Term Ventilation

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Sample Questions

Q1) The appropriate power source for a wheelchair-mounted ventilator is which of the following?

A) AC current

B) Pneumatic

C) Internal DC battery

D) External DC battery

Q2) A VAI with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and a TT is unable to develop clear secretions from his airway.Which of the following should be considered to manage this patient's airway clearance problem?

1)Manual chest compression and TT suctioning

2)Autogenic drainage and postural drainage

3)Positive expiratory pressure

4)Mechanical insufflation-exsufflation (MI-E)

A) 1 and 4

B) 1,2,and 3

C) 2 and 3

D) 1,2,and 4

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Chapter 22: Neonatal and Pediatric Ventilation

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Sample Questions

Q1) A mechanically ventilated pediatric patient in the process of being weaned is switched to PC-IMV with PS.The respiratory therapist notes that every PS breath is being time cycled.The most likely cause of this is which of the following?

A) The PS setting is too high.

B) The flow cycle setting is too low.

C) This is the normal cycle for PS.

D) A large leak is present around the cuffless ET tube.

Q2) Pressure support should not be used in neonates receiving nasal IMV because of which of the following?

1)Large airway leaks

2)Ineffectiveness of triggering

3)Increased risk of volutrauma

4)Hypocapnia from excessive triggering

A) 1 and 2

B) 1 and 3

C) 2 and 3

D) 4

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Chapter 23: Special Techniques in Ventilatory Support

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Sample Questions

Q1) The PaCO2 can be reduced during HFOV by doing which of the following?

A) Decreasing the amplitude

B) Increasing the frequency

C) Increasing the TI%

D) Decreasing the cuff leak

Q2) The variable that allows for an unimpeded expiratory gas flow is which of the following?

A) Tlow

B) Thigh

C) Plow

D) Phigh

Q3) The most common concentration of heliox is ________________.

A) 50% helium:50% oxygen

B) 60% helium:40% oxygen

C) 70% helium:30% oxygen

D) 80% helium:20% oxygen

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