Reproductive Health Nursing Test Questions
Course Introduction
Reproductive Health Nursing focuses on the comprehensive nursing care related to the reproductive systems of individuals across the lifespan. This course covers topics such as reproductive anatomy and physiology, family planning, fertility and infertility, pregnancy and childbirth, sexually transmitted infections, and reproductive health education. Emphasis is placed on health promotion, disease prevention, and management of reproductive health issues, including ethical, legal, and cultural considerations. Through evidence-based practice and patient-centered care, students learn to support individuals and families in making informed choices regarding reproductive health, while developing clinical skills necessary for effective intervention and advocacy.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 7th Edition Murray
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27 Chapters
812 Verified Questions
812 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/168
Page 2
Chapter 1: Maternity and Womens Health Care Today
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2149
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is formulating a nursing care plan for a postpartum patient. Which actions by the nurse indicate use of critical thinking skills when formulating the care plan? (Select all that apply.)
A) Using a standardized postpartum care plan
B) Determining priorities for each diagnosis written
C) Writing interventions from a nursing diagnosis book
D) Reflecting and suspending judgment when writing the care plan
E) Clustering data during the assessment process according to normal versus abnormal Answer: B, D, E
Q2) Which statement best describes the advantage of a labor, birth, recovery, and postpartum (LDRP) room?
A)The family is in a familiar environment.
B)They are less expensive than traditional hospital rooms.
C)The infant is removed to the nursery to allow the mother to rest.
D)The woman's support system is encouraged to stay until discharge.
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Social, Ethical, and Legal Issues
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which situation is most representative of an extended family?
A) It includes adoptive children.
B) It is headed by a single-parent.
C) It contains children from previous marriages.
D) It is composed of children, parents, and grandparents living in the same house.
Answer: D
Q2) The nurse is interviewing a patient who is 6-weeks pregnant. The patient asks the nurse, "Why is elective abortion considered such an ethical issue?" Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Abortion requires third-party consent.
B) The U.S. Supreme Court ruled that life begins at conception.
C) Abortion law is unclear about a woman's constitutional rights.
D) There is a conflict between the rights of the woman and the rights of the fetus.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The school nurse is conducting health education classes for a group of adolescents. Which statement best describes a secondary sexual characteristic?
A) Maturation of ova
B) Production of sperm
C) Female breast development
D) Secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone
Answer: C
Q2) The nurse is describing the size and shape of the nonpregnant uterus to a patient. Which is an accurate description?
A) The nonpregnant uterus is the size and shape of a pear.
B) The nonpregnant uterus is the size and shape of a cantaloupe.
C) The nonpregnant uterus is the size and shape of a grapefruit.
D) The non-pregnant uterus is the size and shape of a large orange.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant is born with blood type AB. The father is type A and the mother is type B. The father asks why the baby has a blood type different from that of the parents. The nurse's answer should be based on the knowledge that
A) both A and B blood types are dominant.
B) types A and B are recessive when linked together.
C) the baby has a mutation of the parents' blood types.
D) type A is recessive and links more easily with type B.
Q2) Which question posed by the nurse will most likely promote the sharing of sensitive information during a genetic counseling interview?
A) "What kind of defects or diseases seem to run in the family?"
B) "How many people in your family are mentally retarded or handicapped?"
C) "Did you know that you can always have an abortion if the fetus is abnormal?"
D) "Are there any members of your family who have learning or developmental problems?"
Q3) Two healthy parents who carry the same abnormal autosomal recessive gene have what percentage chance of having a child affected with the disorder caused by this gene? Record your answer as a whole number. _____%
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Conception and Prenatal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is conducting prenatal education classes for a group of expectant parents. Which information should the nurse include in her discussion of the purpose of amniotic fluid? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cushions the fetus
B) Protects the skin of the fetus
C) Provides nourishment for the fetus
D) Allows for buoyancy for fetal movement
E) Maintains a stable temperature for the fetus
Q2) The nurse is explaining fetal circulation to a group of nursing students. Which information should be included in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) After birth the ductus venosus remains open, but the other shunts close.
B) The foramen ovale shunts blood from the right atrium to the left atrium.
C) The ductus venosus shunts blood from the liver to the inferior vena cava.
D) The ductus arteriosus shunts blood from the right ventricle to the left ventricle.
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Chapter 6: Maternal Adaptations to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best explanation that the nurse can provide to a patient who is concerned that she has "pseudoanemia" of pregnancy?
A) Have her write down her concerns and tell her that you will ask the physician to respond once the lab results have been evaluated.
B) Tell her that this is a benign self-limiting condition that can be easily corrected by switching to a high-iron diet.
C) Inform her that because of the pregnancy, her blood volume has increased, leading to a substantial dilution effect on her serum blood levels, and that most women experience this condition.
D) Contact the physician and get a prescription for iron pills to correct this condition.
Q2) Which finding is a positive sign of pregnancy?
A) Amenorrhea
B) Breast changes
C) Fetal movement felt by the woman
D) Visualization of fetus by ultrasound
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8
Chapter 7: Antepartum Assessment, Care, and Education
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A relaxation technique that can be used during the childbirth experience to decrease maternal pain perception is
A) using increased environmental stimulation as a method of distraction.
B) restricting family and friends from visiting during the labor period to keep the patient focused on breathing techniques.
C) medicating the patient frequently to reduce pain perception.
D) assisting the patient in breathing methods aimed at taking control of pain perception based on the contraction pattern.
Q2) The health care provider reports that the primigravida's fundus can be palpated at the umbilicus. Which priority question will the nurse include in the patient's assessment?
A) "Have you noticed that it is easier for you to breathe now?"
B) "Would you like to hear the baby's heartbeat for the first time?"
C) "Have you felt a fluttering sensation in your lower pelvic area yet?"
D) "Have you recently developed any unusual cravings, such as for chalk or dirt?"
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9
Chapter 8: Nutrition for Childbearing
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To determine cultural influences on a patient's diet, what is the nurse's primary action?
A) Evaluate the patient's weight gain during pregnancy.
B) Assess the socioeconomic status of the patient.
C) Discuss the four food groups with the patient.
D) Identify the food preferences and methods of food preparation common to the patient's culture.
Q2) Which is the most important reason for evaluating the pattern of weight gain in pregnancy?
A) Prevents excessive adipose tissue deposits
B) Determines cultural influences on the woman's diet
C) Assesses the need to limit caloric intake in obese women
D) Identifies potential nutritional problems or complications of pregnancy
Q3) In order to increase the absorption of iron by a pregnant patient, which beverage should an iron preparation be given with?
A) Tea
B) Milk
C) Coffee
D) Orange juice
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Assessing the Fetus
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28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newly pregnant patient tells the nurse that she has irregular periods and is unsure of when she got pregnant. Scheduling an ultrasound is a standing prescription for the patient's health care provider. When is the best time for the nurse to schedule the patient's ultrasound?
A) Immediately
B) In 2 weeks
C) In 4 weeks
D) In 6 weeks
Q2) A biophysical profile is performed on a pregnant patient. The following assessments are noted: nonreactive stress test (NST), three episodes of fetal breathing movements (FBMs), limited gross movements, opening and closing of hang indicating the presence of fetal tone, and adequate amniotic fluid index (AFI) meeting criteria. Which answer would be the correct interpretation of this test result?
A) A score of 10 would indicate that the results are equivocal.
B) A score of 8 would indicate normal results.
C) A score of 6 would indicate that birth should be considered as a possible treatment option.
D) A score of 9 would indicate reassurance.
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11
Chapter 10: Complications of Pregnancy
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which major neonatal complication is carefully monitored after the birth of the infant of a diabetic mother?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Hypoinsulinemia
D) Hypobilirubinemia
Q2) Which intervention is the priority for the patient diagnosed with an intact tubal pregnancy?
A) Assessment of pain level
B) Administration of methotrexate
C) Administration of Rh immune globulin
D) Explanation of the common side effects of the treatment plan
Q3) Which assessment in a patient diagnosed with preeclampsia who is taking magnesium sulfate would indicate a therapeutic level of medication?
A) Drowsiness
B) Urinary output of 20 mL/hour
C) Normal deep tendon reflexes
D) Respiratory rate of 10 to 12 breaths per minute
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12
Chapter 11: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which action is the most appropriate nursing measure when a baby has an unexpected defect at birth?
A) Remove the baby from the delivery area immediately.
B) Inform the parents immediately that something is wrong.
C) Tell the parents that the baby has to go to the nursery immediately.
D) Explain the defect and show the baby to the parents as soon as possible.
Q2) Which data in the patient's history should the nurse recognize as being pertinent to a possible diagnosis of postpartum depression?
A) Previous depressive episode
B) Unexpected operative birth
C) Ambivalence during the first trimester
D) Second pregnancy in a 3-year period
Q3) Which characteristics of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) should the nurse expect to assess in affected neonates? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hydrocephaly
B) Low activity
C) Epicanthal folds
D) Short palpebral fissures
E) Flat midface, with a low nasal bridge
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) The examiner indicates to the labor nurse that the fetus is in the left occiput anterior (LOA) position. To facilitate the labor process, how will the nurse position the laboring patient?
A) On her back
B) On her left side
C) On her right side
D) On her hands and knees
Q2) Which clinical finding should the nurse expect to assess in the third stage of labor that indicates the placenta has separated from the uterine wall? (Select all that apply.)
A) A gush of blood appears.
B) The uterus rises upward in the abdomen.
C) The fundus descends below the umbilicus.
D) The cord descends further from the vagina.
E) The uterus becomes boggy and soft, with an elongated shape.
Q3) Which maternal factor may inhibit fetal descent during labor?
A) A full bladder
B) Decreased peristalsis
C) Rupture of membranes
D) Reduction in internal uterine size
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Pain Management During Childbirth
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of labor places significant metabolic demands on the obstetric patient. Which physiologic findings would be expected?
A) Decreased maternal blood pressure as a result of stimulation of alpha receptors
B) Uterine vasoconstriction as a result of stimulation of beta receptors
C) Increased maternal demand for oxygen
D) Increased blood flow to placenta because of catecholamine release
Q2) The nurse is teaching a childbirth education class. Which information regarding excessive pain in labor should the nurse include in the session?
A) It usually results in a more rapid labor.
B) It has no effect on the outcome of labor.
C) It is considered to be a normal occurrence.
D) It may result in decreased placental perfusion.
Q3) To improve placental blood flow immediately after the injection of an epidural anesthetic, the nurse should
A) give the woman oxygen.
B) turn the woman to the right side.
C) decrease the intravenous infusion rate.
D) place a wedge under the woman's right hip.
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Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Decelerations that mirror the contractions are present with each contraction on the monitor strip of a multipara who received epidural anesthesia 20 minutes ago. The nurse should
A) maintain the normal assessment routine.
B) administer OS1U1B12S1U1B0 at 8 to 10 L/minute by face mask.
C) increase the IV flow rate from 125 to 150 mL/hour.
D) assess the maternal blood pressure for a systolic pressure below 100 mm Hg.
Q2) Which clinical finding can be determined only by electronic fetal monitoring?
A) Variability
B) Tachycardia
C) Bradycardia
D) Fetal response to contractions
Q3) The fetal heart rate baseline increases 20 bpm after vibroacoustic stimulation. The best interpretation of this is that the fetus is showing
A) a worsening hypoxia.
B) progressive acidosis.
C) an expected response.
D) parasympathetic stimulation.
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Chapter 15: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to initiate intravenous (IV) access on a patient in the active phase of labor. Which size IV cannula is best for this patient?
A) 18-gauge
B) 20-gauge
C) 22-gauge
D) 24-gauge
Q2) Immediately following the forceps-assisted birth of an infant, which action should the nurse implement?
A) Assess the infant for signs of trauma.
B) Apply a cold pack to the infant's scalp.
C) Give the infant prophylactic antibiotics.
D) Measure the circumference of the infant's head.
Q3) A patient at 40 weeks' gestation should be instructed to go to a hospital or birth center for evaluation when she experiences
A) increased fetal movement.
B) irregular contractions for 1 hour.
C) a trickle of fluid from the vagina.
D) thick pink or dark red vaginal mucus.
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17
Chapter 16: Intrapartum Complications
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient is most at risk for a uterine rupture?
A) A gravida 4 who had a classic cesarean incision
B) A gravida 5 who had two vaginal births and one cesarean birth
C) A gravida 3 who has had two low-segment transverse cesarean births
D) A gravida 2 who had a low-segment vertical incision for birth of a 10-lb infant
Q2) A patient who is 32 weeks pregnant telephones the nurse at her obstetrician's office and complains of constant backache. She asks what pain reliever is safe for her to take. The best nursing response is
A) "You should come into the office and let the doctor check you."
B) "Acetaminophen is acceptable during pregnancy. You should not take aspirin, however."
C) "Back pain is common at this time during pregnancy because you tend to stand with a sway back."
D) "Avoid medication because you are pregnant. Try soaking in a warm bath or using a heating pad on low before taking any medication."
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Chapter 17: Postpartum Adaptations and Nursing Care
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45 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which measure is optimal in order to prevent abdominal distention following a cesarean birth?
A) Rectal suppositories
B) Carbonated beverages
C) Early and frequent ambulation
D) Tightening and relaxing abdominal muscles
Q2) The postpartum nurse is administering ibuprofen (Advil) to a patient with episiotomy discomfort. The prescribed order is 400 mg of Advil by mouth every 6 to 8 hours PRN for discomfort. The Advil sent by the pharmacy is 200 mg/tablet. How many tablet(s) should the nurse administer to the patient? Record your answer as a whole number. _____ tab(s)
Q3) During which stage of role attainment do the parents become acquainted with their baby and combine parenting activities with cues from the infant?
A) Formal
B) Informal
C) Personal
D) Anticipatory
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Chapter 18: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Early postpartum hemorrhage is defined as a blood loss greater than A) 500 mL within 24 hours after a vaginal birth.
B) 750 mL within 24 hours after a vaginal birth.
C) 1000 mL within 48 hours after a cesarean birth.
D) 1500 mL within 48 hours after a cesarean birth.
Q2) The nurse should expect medical intervention for subinvolution to include
A) oral fluids to 3000 mL/day.
B) intravenous fluid and blood replacement.
C) oxytocin intravenous infusion for 8 hours.
D) oral methylergonovine maleate (Methergine) for 48 hours.
Q3) The nurse suspecting a uterine infection in a postpartum patient should assess the A) episiotomy site.
B) odor of the lochia.
C) abdomen for distention.
D) pulse and blood pressure.
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Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is explaining the risk of hypothermia in the newborn to a group of nursing students. Which statement best describes the manifestations of hypothermia in the newborn?
A) Newborns shiver to generate heat.
B) Newborns have decreased oxygen demands.
C) Newborns have increased glucose demands.
D) Newborns have a decreased metabolic rate.
Q2) The process in which bilirubin is changed from a fat-soluble product to a water-soluble product is known as
A) albumin binding.
B) enterohepatic circuit.
C) conjugation of bilirubin.
D) deconjugation of bilirubin.
Q3) Which infant has the lowest risk of developing high levels of bilirubin?
A) The infant who developed a cephalohematoma
B) The infant who was bruised during a difficult birth
C) The infant who uses brown fat to maintain temperature
D) The infant who is breastfed during the first hour of life
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Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is conducting a body system assessment of the newborn. Which are abnormal findings that the nurse should report? (Select all that apply.)
A) Low-set ears
B) Yellow sclera
C) A doll's eye sign
D) Edema of the eyelids
E) Absence of the grasp reflex
Q2) Which newborn reflex is elicited by stroking the lateral sole of the infant's foot from the heel to the ball of the foot?
A) Babinski
B) Stepping
C) Tonic neck
D) Plantar grasp
Q3) The nurse is performing a gestational age assessment on a newborn. Which characteristic indicates the greatest gestational maturity?
A) The infant's arms and legs are extended.
B) There is some peeling and cracking of the skin.
C) There are few rugae on the scrotum and the testes are high in the scrotum.
D) The arm can be positioned with the elbow beyond the midline of the chest.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the appropriate treatment for miliaria?
A) Application of oil
B) Removal of wet clothing
C) Removal of excess clothing
D) Application of soothing lotion
Q2) A 38 weeks' gestation fetus is delivered via cesarean birth and transported to the newborn nursery in an isolette. Apgar scores were 8, 9, and 10. At this time, the infant is receiving an initial assessment in the newborn nursery. Which is the priority nursing diagnosis?
A) Risk for injury related to potential equipment malfunction of radiant warmer
B) Altered tissue perfusion related to use of medications during delivery process
C) Ineffective airway clearance due to mode of delivery and use of anesthetics
D) Risk for ineffective thermoregulation related to gestational age
Q3) Which newborn assessment finding requires the nurse to take immediate action?
A) Glucose level of 40 mg/dL
B) Axillary temperature of 37°C (98.6°F)
C) Mild yellow tinge to skin at 32 hours of age
D) Mild inflammation of conjunctiva after eye prophylaxis
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Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should the nurse explain mild supply and demand when responding to the question, "Will I produce enough milk for my baby as she grows and needs more milk at each feeding?"
A) Early addition of baby food will meet the infant's needs.
B) The breast milk will gradually become richer to supply additional calories.
C) As the infant requires more milk, feedings can be supplemented with cow's milk.
D) The mother's milk supply will increase as the infant demands more at each feeding.
Q2) A breastfeeding mother asks the postpartum nurse if any supplementation is necessary once her breast milk comes in. What is the nurse's most appropriate response?
A) "Are you concerned about your ability to adequately nurse your baby?"
B) "Do you eat a well-balanced diet, high in protein and carbohydrates?"
C) "Breast milk is low in vitamin D and supplementation with 400 IU is recommended."
D) "Your breast milk has all the vitamins and will adequately meet your baby's needs."
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Chapter 23: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following a traumatic birth of a 10-lb infant, the nurse should evaluate
A) gestational age status.
B) flexion of both upper extremities.
C) infant's percentile on growth chart.
D) blood sugar to detect hyperglycemia.
Q2) A preterm infant is on a ventilator, with intravenous lines and other medical equipment. When the parents come to visit for the first time, what is the most important action by the nurse?
A) Encourage the parents to touch their infant.
B) Reassure the parents that the infant is progressing well.
C) Discuss the care they will give their infant when the infant goes home.
D) Suggest that the parents visit for only a short time to reduce their anxiety.
Q3) Which nursing action is especially important for an SGA newborn?
A) Promote bonding.
B) Observe for and prevent dehydration.
C) Observe for respiratory distress syndrome.
D) Prevent hypoglycemia with early and frequent feedings.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an infant with cyanotic cardiac anomaly, the nurse should expect to see A) feedings taken eagerly.
B) a consistent and rapid weight gain.
C) a decrease in the heart rate with activity.
D) little to no improvement in color with oxygen administration.
Q2) Four hours after the birth of a healthy neonate of an insulin-dependent (type 1) diabetic mother, the baby appears jittery and irritable and has a high-pitched cry. Which nursing action has top priority?
A) Notify the clinician stat.
B) Test for the blood glucose level.
C) Start an intravenous line with D10W.
D) Document the event in the nurses' notes.
Q3) Which of the following lab values indicates that an infant may have polycythemia?
A) Hct 50%
B) Hct 55%
C) Hct 62%
D) Hct 70%
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Family Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) A male patient asks, "Why do I have to use another contraceptive? I had a vasectomy last week." The best response is
A) "A vasectomy is only 80% effective."
B) "A vasectomy is not effective in all men."
C) "Semen may contain sperm for 6 months following a vasectomy."
D) "Complete sterilization doesn't occur until all sperm have left the system."
Q2) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the use of contraception and the occurrence of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?
A) As long as the oral contraception method is used correctly, there is no transmission of STDs during sexual activity.
B) Oral contraceptives provide the greatest protection against getting STDs.
C) Barrier methods, if used correctly, are more likely to protect individuals from STDs as compared with other contraceptive methods.
D) It is less likely to see transmission of STDs if patients engage in oral sex as opposed to vaginal penetration.
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Chapter 26: Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chromosome analysis is a diagnostic test that should be offered to which couple?
A) Never conceived
B) Has long-standing infertility
C) Has had repeated pregnancy losses
D) Has a normal child but has not conceived again
Q2) A woman who is undergoing infertility testing states, "My husband won't discuss this with me. I don't think he cares about or wants a baby." The nurse's ideal response is
A) "You should confront him about this."
B) "He probably doesn't understand your concern."
C) "Men are sometimes less eager to have children."
D) "It may be harder for him to express his feelings."
Q3) The procedure in which ova are removed by laparoscopy, mixed with sperm, and the embryo(s) returned to the woman's uterus is
A) in vitro fertilization (IVF).
B) tubal embryo transfer (TET).
C) therapeutic insemination (IUI).
D) gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT).
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Chapter 27: Womens Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 45-year-old patient asks how often she should have a mammogram. The most appropriate answer is
A) whenever she feels a lump.
B) every year beginning at age 40.
C) they are unnecessary until age 50.
D) every year if you have risk factors.
Q2) A patient, age 49, confides in the nurse that she has started experiencing pain with intercourse. The patient asks, "Is there anything I can do about this?" The nurse's best response is
A) "No, it is part of the aging process."
B) "Water-soluble vaginal lubricants may provide relief."
C) "You need to be evaluated for a sexually transmitted disease."
D) "You may have vaginal scar tissue that is producing the discomfort."
Q3) Which information should the nurse stress in teaching a patient how best to relieve the symptoms of premenstrual syndrome (PMS)?
A) Decrease her consumption of caffeine.
B) Drink a small glass of wine with her evening meal.
C) Decrease her fluid intake to prevent fluid retention.
D) Eat three large meals a day to maintain glucose levels.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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