Radiologic Technology Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Radiologic Technology is a comprehensive course that introduces students to the foundational principles and practices of medical imaging. The course covers the operation of diagnostic imaging equipment, patient positioning, image production and evaluation, radiation protection, anatomy as seen on radiographic images, and the roles and responsibilities of radiologic technologists within the healthcare team. Emphasis is placed on understanding radiographic procedures, safety protocols, ethical considerations, and effective communication with patients and healthcare professionals. This course prepares students for clinical practice and future certification, equipping them with both technical skills and professional knowledge essential for a career in radiologic technology.
Recommended Textbook
Pathology for the Health Professions 4th Edition by Ivan Damjanov MD PhD
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Chapter 1: Cell Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would not be considered a pathogenic mechanism for causing cellular injury?
A) Toxins
B) Microbial pathogens
C) Genetic disturbances
D) Coagulation
E) Hypoxia
Answer: D
Q2) Enlargement of the heart caused by hypertension is a result of:
A) Hyperplasia
B) Hypertrophy
C) Atrophy
D) Metaplasia
E) Dysplasia
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Release of histamine at the site of inflammation causes:
A) Increased vascular permeability
B) Decreased vascular permeability
C) Accumulation of neutrophils
D) Accumulation of platelets
E) Activation of the complement system
Answer: A
Q2) All of the following are cardinal signs of inflammation except:
A) Calor (heat)
B) Rubor (redness)
C) Tumor (swelling)
D) Dolar (pain)
E) Odor (smell)
Answer: E
Q3) Inflammation cannot develop:
A) In living tissue
B) After a minor laceration
C) Postmortem
D) From massive bleeding
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Immunopathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A liver transplant between monkeys and humans is an example of:
A) Allograft
B) Isograft
C) Homograft
D) Xenograft
E) Heterograft
Answer: D
Q2) Which type of reaction is the result of a massive release of histamine and other vasoactive substances into the circulation after being exposed to a previously sensitized allergen?
A) Allergic rhinitis
B) Hay fever
C) Atopic dermatitis
D) Bronchial asthma
E) Anaphylactic shock
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The incidence of which cancer has been rising in the United States during the past 20 years?
A) Carcinoma of the lung
B) Carcinoma of the liver
C) Carcinoma of the stomach
D) Carcinoma of the thyroid
E) Malignant brain tumors
Q2) A lung tumor that has spread to the brain has metastasized via:
A) Lymphatics
B) Nerves
C) Blood vessels
D) Cerebrospinal fluid
E) Pleural fluid
Q3) Malignant tumors composed of embryonic cells are often called:
A) Malignant islet cell tumors
B) Gliomas
C) Lymphomas
D) Blastomas
E) Teratomas
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Genetic and Developmental Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following defects associated with TORCH can cause problems in the third trimester?
A) Microcephaly
B) Microphthalmia
C) Congenital heart disease
D) Central nervous system defects
E) Macrocalcifications of the basal ganglia
Q2) All of the following are routinely used in prenatal diagnosis except:
A) Ultrasound
B) Chorionic villus biopsy
C) Fetal skin biopsy
D) Amniotic fluid analysis
E) Maternal blood analysis
Q3) Symptoms including a wide face with low-bridged nose,closely set slanted eyes,a large tongue,short arms and legs,and low IQ are associated with:
A) Turner's syndrome
B) Klinefelter's syndrome
C) Marfan's syndrome
D) Down's syndrome
E) Fragile X syndrome
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Chapter 6: Fluid and Hemodynamic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The proteinaceous meshwork that holds a thrombus together is composed of:
A) Collagen
B) Elastic fibers
C) Fibrin
D) Fibrinogen
E) Plasmin
Q2) Red infarcts are typically found in the:
A) Spleen
B) Heart
C) Kidney
D) Thyroid
E) Small intestine
Q3) Thrombosis can be initiated by all of the following except:
A) Inflammation
B) Endothelial cell injury
C) Stagnation of blood in varicose veins
D) Hypercoagulability of blood as a result of shock
E) Heparin
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8
Chapter 7: The Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intermittent claudication is caused by atherosclerosis of the:
A) Carotid artery
B) Subclavian artery
C) Splenic artery
D) Renal artery
E) Popliteal artery
Q2) Which of the following has been implicated in the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis?
A) Regular exercise
B) Alcohol
C) Cigarette smoking
D) Aspirin
E) Antihypertensive drugs
Q3) What is the most common congenital heart defect recognized in clinical practice?
A) Interatrial septal defect
B) Interventricular septal defect
C) Tetralogy of Fallot
D) Transposition of great vessels
E) Coarctation of the aorta
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Chapter 8: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection usually causes:
A) Lobar pneumonia
B) Lobular pneumonia
C) Aspiration pneumonia
D) Interstitial pneumonia
E) Abscesses
Q2) Which of the following is the primary cause of atelectasis in premature neonates?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Deficiency of surfactant
C) Compression of the lungs from outside
D) Resorption of air distal to bronchial obstruction
E) Empyema
Q3) The most important cause of emphysema is:
A) Cigarette smoking
B) Air pollution in the cities
C) Tuberculosis
D) AIDS
E) Asthma
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Chapter 9: The Hematopoietic and Lymphoid System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Epstein-Barr virus,a possible cause of Burkitt's lymphoma,has a predilection for infecting:
A) T-suppressor/cytotoxic lymphocytes
B) T-helper lymphocytes
C) Plasma cells
D) B lymphocytes
E) Eosinophils
Q2) Which lymphoma is classified as a low-grade lymphoma?
A) Follicular lymphoma
B) Diffuse large-cell lymphoma
C) Burkitt's lymphoma
D) Immunoblastic lymphoma
E) Lymphoblastic lymphoma
Q3) Overall,the most common form of leukemia is:
A) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
B) Acute myelogenous leukemia
C) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D) Chronic myelogenous leukemia
E) Plasma cell leukemia
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Chapter 10: The Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are common symptoms or complications of duodenal ulcer except:
A) Hematemesis
B) Melena
C) Vomiting
D) Epigastric pain
E) Carcinoma
Q2) Which of these diseases causing malabsorption is associated with diagnostic pathologic changes in the intestine?
A) Diabetes
B) Radiation enteritis
C) Pancreatic insufficiency
D) Celiac sprue
E) Intestinal bacterial overgrowth
Q3) The most common tumor of the salivary glands is:
A) Pleomorphic adenoma
B) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
C) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
D) Adenocarcinoma of the major ducts
E) Squamous cell carcinoma
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Chapter 11: The Liver and Biliary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which serum enzyme is the most reliable marker of extrahepatic biliary obstruction?
A) Alanine aminotransferase
B) Aspartate aminotransferase
C) Creatine kinase
D) Amylase
E) Alkaline phosphatase
Q2) In Wilson's disease,serum contains decreased amounts of:
A) Hemosiderin
B) Transferrin
C) Ferritin
D) Ceruloplasmin
E) Haptoglobin
Q3) Unconjugated bilirubin circulates in the blood bound to:
A) Immunoglobulin G
B) Albumin
C) Haptoglobin
D) Transferrin
E) Ceruloplasmin
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13
Chapter 12: The Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fat necrosis typically found in and around the pancreas in acute pancreatitis is caused by a release of:
A) Amylase
B) Lipase
C) Peptidase
D) Pepsin
E) Cholecystokinin
Q2) Carcinoma of the pancreas is the:
A) Third most common cancer-related cause of death in males
B) Third most common cancer-related cause of death in females
C) Fourth most common cancer-related cause of death in males
D) Fourth most common cancer-related cause of death in females
E) Fifth most common cancer-related cause of death in males
Q3) Which of the following is an early sign of carcinoma of the head of pancreas?
A) Hiccups
B) Gastric regurgitation
C) Jaundice
D) Pain in the left upper abdominal quadrant
E) Ascites
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Chapter 13: The Urinary Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most prevalent metabolic disease that affects the kidneys?
A) Diabetes insipidus
B) Lupus
C) Hypertension
D) Heart disease
E) Diabetes mellitus
Q2) Which of the following is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children?
A) Membranous nephropathy
B) Lipoid nephrosis
C) Berger's disease (IgA nephropathy)
D) Crescentic glomerulonephritis
E) Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
Q3) The most common malignant tumor of the urinary tract is:
A) Renal cell carcinoma
B) Wilms' tumor
C) Carcinoma of the renal pelvis
D) Carcinoma of the ureter
E) Carcinoma of the urinary bladder
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Chapter 14: The Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Elevation of serum alkaline phosphatase in a patient with an enlarged prostate indicates:
A) Prostatitis
B) Benign prostatic hyperplasia
C) Carcinoma in situ of the prostate
D) Invasive carcinoma of the prostate that has spread to the urinary bladder
E) Carcinoma of the prostate that has metastasized to the bone
Q2) An infertile man is found to have no scrotal testicles.The most likely diagnosis is:
A) Klinefelter's syndrome
B) Polyorchidism
C) Cryptorchidism
D) Orchitis
E) Epididymo-orchitis
Q3) A typical manifestation of gonorrhea in males is:
A) Orchitis
B) Cystitis
C) Inflammation of the seminal vesicles
D) Purulent urethritis
E) Ulceration of the glans penis
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Swelling and cystic transformation of the placental villi resembling a bunch of grapes are typical of:
A) Choriocarcinoma
B) Hydatidiform mole
C) Placenta accreta
D) Placenta previa
E) Endometriosis
Q2) More than 50% of all cases of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)contain intranuclear inclusions of:
A) Gardnerella vaginalis
B) Herpes simplex virus type 1
C) Herpes simplex virus type 2
D) Human papillomavirus
E) Treponema pallidum
Q3) Which of the following is a protozoal cause of vaginitis?
A) Gardnerella vaginalis
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C) Treponema pallidum
D) Trichomonas vaginalis
E) Candida albicans
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Chapter 16: The Breast
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Sample Questions
Q1) On the histologic grading scale for tumors,which grade is the worst?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
E) Depends on staging of the tumor
Q2) Which statement is not true regarding breast cancer in males?
A) Most men do not think that they can develop breast cancer.
B) Most men do not perform breast self-examination.
C) Breast cancer in males is less common than in females.
D) Males usually have a worse prognosis than females.
E) Breast cancer in males has different histologic features than breast cancer in women.
Q3) In postmenopausal women,the breasts gradually atrophy as a result of the loss of:
A) Acinar cells
B) Prolactin
C) Hormone-rich connective tissue
D) Hormone-sensitive connective tissue
E) Estrogen
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18
Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which disease causes an inability to meet the body's demands for T and T ?
A) Hyperthyroidism
B) Thyroidectomy
C) Thyroiditis
D) Congential thyroid aplasia
E) Hypothyroidsim
Q2) Secondary hyperaldosteronism is typically a complication of chronic:
A) Adrenal disease
B) Renal disease
C) Diabetes
D) Idiopathic hypertension
E) Emphysema
Q3) Tumors of the pituitary may secrete any of the following hormones except:
A) Growth hormone
B) Prolactin
C) Follicle-stimulating hormone
D) Thyroid-stimulating hormone
E) Cortisol
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19
Chapter 18: The Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Generalized genetic hypopigmentation is known as:
A) Vitiligo
B) Keratosis
C) Albinism
D) Nevus flammeus
E) Ichthyosis congenita
Q2) Chris,a firefighter,received a full-thickness burn to his left arm.He is going to have a skin transplant from an unrelated donor.This type of graft is known as:
A) Autograft
B) Allograft
C) Xenograft
D) Ichthyosis graft
E) Homograft
Q3) What tumor is a prevalent malignant lesion in patients with AIDS?
A) Lentigo
B) Nodular melanoma
C) Acral-lentiginous melanoma
D) Dermatofibroma
E) Kaposi's sarcoma
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Bones and Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Migratory arthritis caused by Borrelia burgdorferi is typical of:
A) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
B) Trench foot
C) Lyme disease
D) Legionnaire's disease
E) Osteoarthritis
Q2) In rheumatoid arthritis the synovium of joints is infiltrated with:
A) Neutrophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Mast cells
D) Basophils
E) Plasma cells
Q3) Which of the following diseases is an autosomal dominant cause of dwarfism?
A) Achondroplasia
B) Osteopetrosis
C) Osteogenesis imperfecta
D) Rickets
E) Osteomalacia
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21
Chapter 20: Muscles and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a typical "upper neuron injury"?
A) Polymyositis
B) Guillain-Barré syndrome
C) Spinal cord injury caused by traffic accident
D) Diabetic neuropathy
E) Lead poisoning
Q2) Which muscular dystrophy involves the same gene as Duchenne's dystrophy?
A) Becker's dystrophy
B) Limb-girdle dystrophy
C) Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy
D) Myotonic dystrophy
E) Werdnig-Hoffmann disease
Q3) Muscle inflammation characterized by infiltrates of lymphocytes and plasma cells is most typical of:
A) Muscular dystrophy
B) Muscular atrophy
C) Trichinella spiralis infection
D) Polymyositis
E) Myasthenia gravis
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Page 22
Chapter 21: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Parkinson's disease,which part of the brain shows depigmentation?
A) Frontal cortex
B) Occipital cortex
C) Cerebellum
D) Substantia nigra
E) Medulla oblongata
Q2) Highly malignant tumors exclusively found in the cerebellum of children are called:
A) Glioblastoma multiforme
B) Medulloblastoma
C) Ependymoma
D) Oligodendroglioma
E) Meningioma
Q3) The most common location of glioblastoma multiforme is:
A) Cerebrum
B) Pons
C) Cerebellum
D) Medulla oblongata
E) Spinal cord
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23
Chapter 22: The Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) Known as the "blind spot," this part of the retina cannot receive light signals.It is known as the:
A) Optic nerve
B) Optic disk
C) Fovea
D) Rods
E) Cones
Q2) The space behind the lens,which is filled with gelatinous,clear body,is known as:
A) Anterior eye chamber
B) Retina
C) Macula lutea
D) Vitreous cavity
E) Choroid body
Q3) The most important cause of ulcerative keratitis is:
A) CMV
B) Herpesvirus
C) Mumps virus
D) Influenza virus
E) Human papillomavirus
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Page 24
Chapter 23: The Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mike is having a hard time hearing and tries to remove some earwax with a toothpick.He suddenly feels a sharp pain and is unable to hear well.Mike has most likely caused what type of injury to what part of the ear?
A) Scratched the inner ear canal
B) Punctured the external ear canal
C) Perforated the tympanic membrane
D) Perforated the Eustachian tube
E) Experienced trauma to the stapes
Q2) What type of tumor accounts for most tumor-related hearing loss?
A) Squamous cell carcinoma of the auricle
B) Basal cell carcinoma of the external ear
C) Acoustic neuroma of cranial nerve VIII
D) Neurilemoma of cranial nerve VII
E) Pituitary adenoma
Q3) Malleus,incus,and stapes are located in the:
A) Auricle
B) Auditory canal
C) Middle ear
D) Inner ear
E) Externally to the eardrum
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