Radiologic Technology Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Radiologic Technology is a comprehensive course that explores the fundamental principles and practices of medical imaging. Students will learn about the physics of radiation, anatomy relevant to imaging procedures, patient care and positioning, radiation safety, and the operation of radiographic equipment. The course covers various diagnostic techniques including X-rays, computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and other emerging technologies. Emphasis is placed on clinical skills, ethical and legal considerations, and effective communication with patients and healthcare teams, preparing students for professional roles in diagnostic imaging environments.
Recommended Textbook merrills atlas of radiographic positioning and procedures 13th edition 3 volume set by bruce long
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Chapter 1: Preliminary Steps in Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true when using computed radiography?
1)The IR could be opened for a few minutes without causing the stored image to be destroyed.
2)Collimation of the x-ray beam is not critical.
3)Final contrast and density adjustments of the radiographic image are done using a computer.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: B
Q2) The phosphors in computed radiography IRs are very sensitive to:
A) kVp.
B) dust.
C) collimation.
D) scatter radiation.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Compensating Filters
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Sample Questions
Q1) A trough filter would be used for a:
A) lateral hip.
B) AP shoulder.
C) PA chest.
D) AP thoracic spine.
Answer: C
Q2) The Boomerang filter would provide an even image density for which body area?
A) Hip
B) Chest
C) Shoulder
D) C7-T1 region
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is required to maintain an even radiographic density on body parts that have significant variations in tissue density?
A) Increase the kVp.
B) Increase the mA.
C) Use a compensating filter.
D) Use a compression device.
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: General Anatomy and Radiographic Positioning
Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the foot is turned inward at the ankle joint, the body movement is termed: A) inversion.
B) eversion.
C) flexion.
D) extension.
Answer: A
Q2) The piece of cartilage that separates the end of a developing long bone from the central shaft is called the:
A) diaphysis.
B) epiphysis.
C) epiphyseal line.
D) epiphyseal plate.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the four types of body habitus?
A) Atrophic
B) Sthenic
C) Asthenic
D) Hypersthenic
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Upper Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following should be on the same plane for a lateral projection of the elbow?
1)Wrist joint
2)Elbow joint
3)Shoulder joint
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) For the AP projection of the elbow, the hand is:
A) pronated.
B) supinated.
C) placed in the lateral position.
D) placed in the 45-degree oblique position.
Q3) The posterior fat pad lies in the:
A) coronoid fossa.
B) olecranon fossa.
C) radial fossa.
D) radial notch.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the tangential projection of the intertubercular groove is performed with the patient supine, the position of the hand is:
A) supinated.
B) pronated.
C) lateral.
D) neutral.
Q2) For delineation of the acromion and coracoid processes of the scapula in the lateral projection, how is the arm positioned?
A) Flex the elbow and place the hand on the anterior abdomen.
B) Flex the elbow and place the hand on the posterior thorax.
C) Extend the arm upward and rest the forearm on the head.
D) Extend the arm straight down at the side in the anatomic position.
Q3) The central-ray angle for an AP axial projection of the clavicle when performed on a patient in the supine position is _____ degrees.
A) 15
B) 25
C) 15 to 25
D) 15 to 30
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Chapter 6: Lower Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many bones make up the leg?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Q2) Where does the central ray enter the knee for a lateral projection of the patella?
A) Posterior margin of the medial epicondyle
B) Anterior margin of the medial epicondyle
C) Through the patellofemoral joint space
D) Directly to the lateral aspect of the patella
Q3) How many phalanges are in the great toe?
A) None
B) One
C) Two
D) Three
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8
Chapter 7: Pelvis and Upper Femora
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many degrees should the feet and lower limbs be internally rotated for an AP pelvis radiograph?
A) 5 to 10 degrees
B) 15 to 20 degrees
C) 20 to 30 degrees
D) 25 to 30 degrees
Q2) Where is the IR centered for an AP pelvis?
A) Midway between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis
B) At the level of the ASIS
C) At the level of the pubic symphysis
D) 2 inches below the iliac crest
Q3) Which of the following projections can be performed with one exposure if a compensating filter is used?
A) AP hip
B) AP oblique ilium
C) AP oblique acetabulum (Judet method)
D) Axiolateral hip (Danelius-Miller method)
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Chapter 8: Vertebral Column
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Sample Questions
Q1) The intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine are demonstrated on which of the following projections?
1)AP axial
2)AP axial oblique
3)PA axial oblique
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) The vertebral column articulates with the hip bone at the:
A) sacroiliac joint.
B) pubic symphysis.
C) acetabulum.
D) lumbar-5, sacral-1 joint.
Q3) The phase of respiration for a hyperflexion or hyperextension lateral cervical spine is:
A) shallow breathing.
B) suspended respiration.
C) full expiration.
D) full inspiration.
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Chapter 9: Bony Thorax
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Q1) Which of the following is the recommended breathing technique that should be used when examining the ribs that lie at the level of the diaphragm?
A) One deep inspiration (or expiration) and hold
B) Two deep expirations (or inspirations) and hold
C) Suspended respiration
D) Slow, shallow breathing
Q2) How much is the body rotated for an AP or PA axillary projection of the ribs?
A) 30 degrees
B) 45 degrees
C) 20 to 30 degrees
D) 35 to 45 degrees
Q3) How many ribs attach directly to the sternum?
A) 5
B) 7
C) 10
D) 12
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Chapter 10: Thoracic Viscera
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Sample Questions
Q1) The right lung is about how much shorter than the left?
A) \(1 / 2\) inch
B) 1 inch
C) 1 \(1 / 2\) inches
D) 2 inches
Q2) What is the degree of body rotation for the PA oblique, LAO position of the chest during a cardiac series?
A) 45 degrees
B) 50 degrees
C) 55 to 60 degrees
D) 60 to 70 degrees
Q3) What is the respiration phase for AP or lateral projections performed in the decubitus position?
A) Suspended respiration
B) Full inspiration
C) Full expiration
D) Slow, shallow breathing
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Chapter 11: Long Bone Measurement
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Sample Questions
Q1) What projection is used for long bone measurement radiographs?
A) PA
B) AP
C) Lateral
D) Variable depending on body habitus
Q2) Which long bone measurement technique requires a special single, long image receptor and uses a long SID?
A) Scanogram
B) Orthoroentgenography
C) Teleoroentgenography
D) Direct digital radiography
Q3) Which long bone measurement technique requires three separate image receptors?
A) Scanogram
B) Orthoroentgenography
C) Teleoroentgenography
D) Direct digital radiography
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13
Chapter 12: Contrast Arthrography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The radiography examination in which a contrast medium is introduced into a joint space and radiographs are made of the joint is called:
A) arthrosis.
B) arthrography.
C) arthrogenesis.
D) arthroendoscopy.
Q2) Which of the following imaging modalities has not reduced the use of contrast arthrography?
A) Ultrasound
B) Computed tomography
C) Magnetic resonance imaging
D) Nuclear medicine
Q3) Which of the following is administered during arthrography before the injection of contrast?
A) Conscious sedation
B) Sterile saline
C) Local anesthetic
D) General anesthetic
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Chapter 13: Trauma Radiography
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Q1) Which projection is necessary if the top of T1 and the C7-T1 interspace is not clearly demonstrated on the lateral projection, dorsal decubitus position of the cervical spine?
A) AP projection, open-mouth position
B) Lateral projection, swimmer's technique
C) Lateral projection of the thoracic spine
D) AP axial C-spine
Q2) Which projection must be evaluated before taking any other images on a trauma patient?
A) AP projection of the atlas and axis, open-mouth position
B) Lateral projection, swimmer's technique
C) Lateral projection of the C-spine, dorsal decubitus position
D) AP axial C-spine
Q3) Extreme eversion of the foot is a sign of traumatic injury to the:
A) tibia and fibula.
B) knee joint.
C) pelvis.
D) hip.
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Chapter 14: Mouth and Salivary Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many pairs of salivary glands are in the mouth?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Q2) The hard palate is formed by the:
A) ethmoid and vomer.
B) ethmoid and palatine bone.
C) maxillae and vomer.
D) maxillae and palatine bone.
Q3) Where does the parotid duct open into the oral cavity?
A) In the floor of the mouth next to the frenulum
B) In the floor of the mouth along the crest of the sublingual fold
C) Opposite the second upper molar
D) Opposite the second lower molar
Q4) Where does the submandibular duct open into the oral cavity?
A) In the floor of the mouth next to the frenulum
B) In the floor of the mouth along the crest of the sublingual fold
C) Opposite the second upper molar
D) Opposite the second lower molar
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Anterior Part of Neck
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following serves as a passage for both food and air?
A) Pharynx
B) Larynx
C) Trachea
D) Bronchus
Q2) The organ of voice is the:
A) uvula.
B) epiglottis.
C) pharynx.
D) larynx.
Q3) The roof of the posterior wall of the nasopharynx contains a mass of lymphoid tissue known as the:
A) thymus gland.
B) thyroid gland.
C) pharyngeal tonsil.
D) epiglottis.
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Chapter 16: Abdomen
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the center of the IR positioned for an AP abdominal image performed with the patient in the supine position?
A) L3
B) Lower rib margin
C) At the umbilicus
D) Iliac crests
Q2) What is the respiration phase for an AP abdominal image obtained with the patient in the supine position?
A) Inspiration
B) Expiration
C) Suspended respiration
D) Slow, deep breathing
Q3) The pathologic accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity is termed:
A) obstruction.
B) ascites.
C) aortic aneurysm.
D) ileus.
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Chapter 17: Digestive System: Alimentary Canal
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Sample Questions
Q1) The esophagus joins the stomach through an opening called the:
A) pyloric orifice.
B) cardiac orifice.
C) cardiac sphincter.
D) pyloric sphincter.
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding inflation of the retention balloon for a barium enema?
1)It should be inflated by the radiographer using fluoroscopy.
2)It should be inflated by the radiologist using fluoroscopy.
3)It should be inflated by the radiologist without using fluoroscopy.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) The most common contrast medium used for radiologic examinations of the gastrointestinal tract is:
A) air.
B) carbon dioxide.
C) barium sulfate.
D) water-soluble iodine.
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Chapter 18: Urinary System and Venipuncture
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Sample Questions
Q1) Guidelines from which of the following organizations must be adhered to with regard to venipuncture administration?
1)Professional society (ASRT)
2)State agencies
3)The institution
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) A moderate reaction to a medication or contrast medium would be:
A) warmth.
B) vomiting.
C) sneezing.
D) anaphylactic reaction.
Q3) The two kidneys lie:
A) behind the peritoneum.
B) behind the stomach.
C) inside the peritoneum.
D) inside the peritoneal cavity.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common type of testicular tumor?
A) Cryptorchidism
B) Prostate cancer
C) Seminoma
D) Dermoid
Q2) The condition of an undescended testis is termed:
A) ectopic testicle.
B) cryptorchidism.
C) testicular torsion.
D) cryptoscrotalism.
Q3) Radiographic examination of the uterus and uterine tubes is termed:
A) vaginography.
B) hysterosalpingography.
C) pelvic pneumography.
D) pelvimetry.
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21
Chapter 20: Skull, Facial Bones, and Paranasal Sinuses
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Sample Questions
Q1) For the tangential projection of the zygomatic arch, the head is positioned so that the midsagittal plane is _____ degrees _____ the side being examined.
A) 10; toward B) 15; toward C) 10; away from D) 15; away from
Q2) The base of the anterior portion of the occipital bone contains two large openings that allow blood vessels and nerves to pass through. These two openings are called the: A) jugular foramina.
B) foramen magnum.
C) foramen ovale.
D) hypoglossal canal.
Q3) The largest sinus is the: A) frontal.
B) maxillary.
C) ethmoidal.
D) sphenoidal.
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22
Chapter 21: Mammography
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Q1) Which of the following terms is also referred to as 3D breast imaging?
A) Digital breast tomosynthesis (DBT)
B) Breast MRI
C) Full-field digital mammography
D) Breast sonography
Q2) The most common material used for the target in mammography tubes is:
A) vanadium.
B) rhodium.
C) tungsten.
D) molybdenum.
Q3) Since 1989, death rates from breast cancer have been:
A) dramatically increasing.
B) slowly increasing.
C) relatively unchanged.
D) steadily decreasing.
Q4) What is the recommended frequency of mammography for women over age 40?
A) Every 6 months
B) Once a year
C) Every 1 to 2 years
D) Every 3 years
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which interventional procedure uses a balloon catheter to expand a compressed vertebral body to near its original height before injection of the bone cement?
A) Myelography
B) Vertebroplasty
C) Kyphoplasty
D) Discography
Q2) The brain and spinal cord are enclosed by three protective membranes called the: A) meninges.
B) pia mater.
C) arachnoid.
D) subarachnoid layer.
Q3) The position of the patient's head during myelography should be in _____ to prevent contrast from passing into the cerebral ventricles.
A) lateral flexion
B) acute extension
C) forward flexion
D) acute flexion
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Chapter 23: Vascular, Cardiac, and Interventional
Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the injection site for a lower limb venogram?
A) Popliteal vein
B) External iliac vein
C) Common iliac vein
D) Superficial vein in the foot
Q2) A stent is used to:
A) open up a stenosis in a vessel.
B) reduce or stop blood flow.
C) remove plaque within artery walls.
D) filter emboli from the blood.
Q3) The radiographic recording of blood vessels on movie IR is termed:
A) angiography.
B) arteriography.
C) cinefluorography.
D) serial radiographic IRing.
Q4) The muscular wall of the heart is called the:
A) myocardium.
B) epicardium.
C) endocardium.
D) pericardium.
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Chapter 24: Pediatric Imaging
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Q1) Which body parts can be imaged on pediatric patients using the Pigg-O-Stat immobilizer?
A) Head and neck
B) Chest and abdomen
C) Upper and lower limb
D) Pelvis and lower limbs
Q2) When a radiographer suspects child abuse, what is the required response?
A) Notify the state child welfare office/social services.
B) Call the police.
C) Ask a nurse to look at the child.
D) Notify the radiologist or attending physician.
Q3) Idiopathic scoliosis is most common in:
A) male infants.
B) adolescent females.
C) male toddlers.
D) utero, between 3 to 6 weeks' gestation.
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26
Chapter 25: Geriatric Radiography
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Q1) When imaging the upper or lower limbs on geriatric patients, keep in mind that:
A) many projections can be combined to decrease time and discomfort.
B) mobility and flexibility is often decreased.
C) long bones shrink as age increases.
D) scatter radiation is greater in those with osteoporosis.
Q2) What system accounts for almost 50% of disability in patients older than age 65?
A) Cardiovascular
B) Gastrointestinal
C) Musculoskeletal
D) Nervous
Q3) The preclinical stage of Alzheimer's disease may be asymptomatic, but evidence of this disease can often be detected on imaging.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ageism is a term that is used to describe _____ of the elderly.
A) a chronic condition
B) social and psychological changes
C) stereotyping and discrimination
D) preferential treatment
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Chapter 26: Mobile Radiography
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Q1) Which of the following should be available on every mobile radiography machine?
1)Lead apron
2)Radiographic technique chart
3)Measuring caliper
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) During mobile radiography, shielding should be used on: 1)children.
2)exams in which the gonads are near the primary beam.
3)patients of reproductive age.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) The generators for mobile units have the same kilowatt rating as stationary x-ray equipment.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Surgical Radiography
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Q1) Less frequently used x-ray equipment in the OR should be cleaned:
A) every 3 days.
B) at least once a week.
C) every 2 weeks.
D) once a month.
Q2) The sterile field is the:
A) whole surgical room.
B) area around the surgeon.
C) area prepared for the patient.
D) surgical incision.
Q3) Who would be included as nonsterile team members?
1)Anesthesia provider
2)Physician assistant
3)Radiographer
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 29: Computed Tomography
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Q1) Fourth-generation CT scanners use the following configuration:
A) translate tube and rotating detectors.
B) rotating tube and detectors.
C) only rotating detectors.
D) only rotating tube.
Q2) Dose in CT is considered to be:
A) independent of size.
B) size dependent.
C) related to the CT numbers.
D) similar to a chest examination.
Q3) Factors that affect image quality in CT consist of:
1)spatial resolution.
2)noise.
3)contrast media.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 30: Magnetic Resonance Imaging
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Q1) Generally MRI is considered safe; however, there are some hazards, which would include:
A) rapid echo spin.
B) local burns from wires on a patient.
C) headaches from the magnetic field.
D) spontaneous random molecular motion.
Q2) Spin-spin relaxation (T2) is the release of energy by excited nuclei:
A) as a result of interaction among themselves.
B) to their general environment.
C) according to their precessional frequency.
D) in relation to their resonant frequency.
Q3) Compared with CT image acquisition, MRI can obtain images:
A) independently in any plane.
B) only in the sagittal plane.
C) only in the coronal plane.
D) in the sagittal and coronal planes.
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Chapter 31: Diagnostic Ultrasound
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Q1) The frequency for diagnostic ultrasound is in the range of:
A) 2 to 320 Hz.
B) 20 to 20,000 Hz.
C) 100,000 Hz to 1 MHz.
D) 1 to 10 MHz.
Q2) Hertz measures:
A) cycles per second.
B) amplitude of an echo.
C) number of waves.
D) wavelength.
Q3) A full bladder is used for imaging the female pelvis as a sonic window and to also:
A) flatten the vagina.
B) reposition the intestines laterally.
C) distend the uterus.
D) flatten the ovaries.
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Chapter 32: Nuclear Medicine
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Q1) Positron-emitting radionuclides have a:
1)neutron-deficient nucleus.
2)proton-deficient nucleus.
3)similar size to electrons.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Scintillation detectors or gamma cameras use crystals that change:
A) x-rays into electrons.
B) radioactive emissions into light photons.
C) radioactive emissions into electrons.
D) radioactive emissions into electrical pulses.
Q3) Naturally occurring radionuclides are not used for nuclear medicine imaging because:
A) synthetic ones are cheaper.
B) there is a high patient dose from natural ones.
C) synthetic ones decay differently.
D) they are not strong emitters.
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Page 33
Chapter 33: Bone Densitometry
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A BMD measurement from a patient is most useful when it can be compared statistically to:
A) the same patient age population.
B) a population living in the same area.
C) multiple scans on the same patient.
D) an appropriate sex-matched reference population.
Q2) The purpose of bone densitometry is to:
A) establish the diagnosis of osteoporosis.
B) assess the response to osteoporosis therapy.
C) measure bone mineral density.
D) do all of the above.
Q3) Patient positioning should be exactly the same for all scans because:
A) the images need to look the same over time.
B) the results will be more precise, reflecting a true biologic change.
C) that will allow scans from different manufacturers to be comparable.
D) radiologists want the same positioning to read the images.
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Chapter 34: Radiation Oncology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24128
Sample Questions
Q1) Tomotherapy combines the principles of:
1)helical CT.
2)stereotaxis.
3)6 MV linear accelerator.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, 3
Q2) One way to treat cancer but minimize the toxic effects of radiation is to use:
A) fractionation.
B) differentiation.
C) palliation.
D) conformal radiation.
Q3) The retractable imaging device used to produce a digital image that is displayed immediately is called:
A) CyberKnife.
B) image-guided radiation therapy (IGRT).
C) electronic portal imaging devices (EPIDs).
D) tomotherapy.
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