Radiologic Technology
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Radiologic Technology is a comprehensive course designed to introduce students to the principles and practices of diagnostic imaging. The course covers a range of topics including patient positioning, image acquisition techniques, radiation safety, and the operation of various radiologic equipment. Students will gain an understanding of human anatomy as it relates to medical imaging, as well as the ethical and legal responsibilities of a radiologic technologist. Through both classroom instruction and hands-on clinical training, learners are prepared to produce high-quality diagnostic images while ensuring patient care and safety in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook merrills atlas of radiographic positioning and procedures 13th edition 3 volume set by bruce long
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
34 Chapters
1670 Verified Questions
1670 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1219 Page 2
Chapter 1: Preliminary Steps in Radiography
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24095
Sample Questions
Q1) A decrease in technical factors may be required for a patient who has:
A) edema.
B) emphysema.
C) atelectasis.
D) advanced carcinoma.
Answer: B
Q2) Federal guidelines require gonad shielding for which of the following situations?
1)The gonads lie in the primary beam.
2)The clinical objective of the exam is not compromised.
3)The patient has reasonable reproductive potential.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 3
Chapter 2: Compensating Filters
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24096
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be considered advantages in using anatomic compensating filters?
1)Reduces radiation exposure to the patient
2)Provides an even image density
3)Increases image contrast and detail
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following projections will always require a compensating filter to demonstrate all of the anatomy on one image?
1)AP shoulder
2)Lateral hip
3)Lateral C7-T1
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 4
Chapter 3: General Anatomy and Radiographic Positioning
Terminology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24097
Sample Questions
Q1) How many saddle joints are there in the body?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Answer: A
Q2) A club-shaped process on a bone is called a:
A) coronoid.
B) trochanter.
C) tuberosity.
D) malleolus.
Answer: D
Q3) Any plane passing through the body at right angles to its longitudinal axis is termed: A) coronal.
B) oblique.
C) sagittal.
D) horizontal.
Answer: D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5
Chapter 4: Upper Limb
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
125 Verified Questions
125 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24098
Sample Questions
Q1) Rotating the arm medially for a lateral projection of the humerus will place the epicondyles _____ with the plane of the IR.
A) at a 30-degree angle
B) at a 45-degree angle
C) parallel
D) perpendicular
Q2) The forearm consists of which of the following bones?
1)Ulna
2)Radius
3)Humerus
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) For a PA projection of the second digit, the central ray is directed to the _____ joint.
A) distal interphalangeal
B) proximal interphalangeal
C) metacarpophalangeal
D) carpometacarpal
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 6
Chapter 5: Shoulder Girdle
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
92 Verified Questions
92 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24099
Sample Questions
Q1) For a transthoracic lateral projection of the shoulder, lung detail may be blurred to better visualize the shoulder area. Which exposure time is recommended to blur the lung structures?
A) Minimum of 1 second
B) Minimum of 2 seconds
C) Minimum of 3 seconds
D) Minimum of 5 seconds
Q2) A Hill-Sachs defect is a:
A) fracture due to posterior dislocation of the humeral head.
B) wedge-shaped compression fracture of the articular surface of the humeral head.
C) congenital deformity of the humeral head.
D) congenital deformity of the glenoid cavity.
Q3) The central-ray angulation for a lateral scapula is:
A) 0 degrees.
B) 5 degrees caudad.
C) 10 degrees cephalad.
D) 5 to 10 degrees cephalad.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 6: Lower Limb
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
143 Verified Questions
143 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24100
Sample Questions
Q1) The central-ray angulation for a lateral projection of the knee is:
A) 0 degrees.
B) 3 to 5 degrees cephalad.
C) dependent upon the ASIS-to-tabletop measurement.
D) 5 to 7 degrees cephalad.
Q2) The central-ray angulation for the AP ankle projection is:
A) 0 degrees.
B) 5 degrees caudad.
C) 10 degrees caudad.
D) 15 to 20 degrees caudad.
Q3) Which of the following positions can be used to demonstrate the intercondylar fossa using the Holmblad method?
1)Standing (horizontal central ray)
2)Kneeling on the table (vertical central ray)
3)Standing with knee on stool (vertical central ray)
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 8
Chapter 7: Pelvis and Upper Femora
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24101
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the recommended collimated field size for an AP hip?
A) 6 * 6 inches (15 * 15 cm)
B) 8 * 10 inches (18 * 24 cm)
C) 10 * 12 inches (24 * 30 cm)
D) 14 * 17 inches (35 * 43 cm)
Q2) The central ray for an AP pelvis is directed perpendicular to the center of the IR. The central-ray entrance point will be about _____ inches _____ to the pubic symphysis.
A) 2; superior
B) 3; superior
C) 2; inferior
D) 3; inferior
Q3) Where is the central ray directed for the AP oblique projection (modified Cleaves) of the femoral necks?
A) At the pubic symphysis
B) 1 inch superior to the pubic symphysis
C) 1 inch inferior to the pubic symphysis
D) 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 8: Vertebral Column
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
175 Verified Questions
175 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24102
Sample Questions
Q1) The Grandy method is a(n):
A) lateral projection of the cervical vertebrae.
B) lateral projection of the cervicothoracic region.
C) AP/PA thoracolumbar spine.
D) lateral thoracolumbar spine.
Q2) Which of the following vertebral areas have a kyphotic curve?
1)Thoracic
2)Lumbar
3)Sacrum and coccyx
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) The zygapophyseal joints of the vertebral column are classified as:
A) synovial, gliding.
B) synovial, pivot.
C) synovial, ellipsoidal.
D) cartilaginous, symphysis.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 9: Bony Thorax
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24103
Sample Questions
Q1) The 12 costovertebral joints of the ribs are:
A) synovial-pivot.
B) synovial-gliding.
C) cartilaginous-symphysis.
D) cartilaginous-synchondroses.
Q2) Which ribs are demonstrated on an AP oblique projection?
A) Upper ribs only
B) Lower ribs only
C) Side farthest from the IR
D) Side closest to the IR
Q3) How is the IR positioned for a lateral sternum?
A) Top of the IR is at C7-T1.
B) Top of the IR is at T3.
C) Top of the IR is 1 \(1 / 2\) inches above the jugular notch.
D) Top of the IR is 2 inches above the jugular notch.
Q4) The phase of respiration for a PA projection of the sternoclavicular joints is:
A) expiration.
B) inspiration.
C) suspended respiration.
D) slow, shallow breathing.
Page 11
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 10: Thoracic Viscera
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24104
Sample Questions
Q1) The smallest subdivision of the bronchial tree is the _____ bronchial.
A) terminal
B) tertiary
C) secondary
D) primary
Q2) How many ribs should be visible above the diaphragm on a PA chest radiograph?
A) 9
B) 10
C) 11
D) 12
Q3) How far above the shoulders should the IR be positioned for PA and lateral chest radiographs?
A) 1 inch
B) 2 inches
C) 3 inches
D) 1 \(1 / 2\) to 2 inches
Q4) For AP oblique projections of the chest, the side of interest is generally the side _____ the IR.
A) closer to
B) farther from
Page 12
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 11: Long Bone Measurement
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24105
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following imaging modalities may be used to measure for limb length discrepancy except:
A) microdose digital radiography.
B) nuclear medicine.
C) computed tomography.
D) magnetic resonance imaging.
Q2) Which long bone measurement technique requires a special single, long image receptor and uses a long SID?
A) Scanogram
B) Orthoroentgenography
C) Teleoroentgenography
D) Direct digital radiography
Q3) Which of the following is currently the examination method of choice for long bone measurements because of its accuracy and reduced dose?
A) Conventional radiography
B) Magnetic resonance imaging
C) Computed tomography
D) Direct digital radiography
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
13
Chapter 12: Contrast Arthrography
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24106
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following imaging modalities has not reduced the use of contrast arthrography?
A) Ultrasound
B) Computed tomography
C) Magnetic resonance imaging
D) Nuclear medicine
Q2) Which of the following is administered during arthrography before the injection of contrast?
A) Conscious sedation
B) Sterile saline
C) Local anesthetic
D) General anesthetic
Q3) The radiography examination in which a contrast medium is introduced into a joint space and radiographs are made of the joint is called:
A) arthrosis.
B) arthrography.
C) arthrogenesis.
D) arthroendoscopy.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
14
Chapter 13: Trauma Radiography
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24107
Sample Questions
Q1) Which imaging modality has replaced conventional trauma skull radiography in most Level I trauma centers?
A) CT
B) MRI
C) Nuclear medicine
D) Angiography
Q2) Which projection must be evaluated before taking any other images on a trauma patient?
A) AP projection of the atlas and axis, open-mouth position
B) Lateral projection, swimmer's technique
C) Lateral projection of the C-spine, dorsal decubitus position
D) AP axial C-spine
Q3) Which of the following would be considered a trauma radiography guideline?
1)Remove all splints.
2)Do not move the patient unless necessary.
3)Obtain a minimum of two radiographs of each body part.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 15
Chapter 14: Mouth and Salivary Glands
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24108
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not one of the salivary glands?
A) Tonsil
B) Parotid
C) Sublingual
D) Submandibular
Q2) How many pairs of salivary glands are in the mouth?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Q3) Where does the parotid duct open into the oral cavity?
A) In the floor of the mouth next to the frenulum
B) In the floor of the mouth along the crest of the sublingual fold
C) Opposite the second upper molar
D) Opposite the second lower molar
Q4) The hard palate is formed by the:
A) ethmoid and vomer.
B) ethmoid and palatine bone.
C) maxillae and vomer.
D) maxillae and palatine bone.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 15: Anterior Part of Neck
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24109
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following lies in the anterior neck?
1)Thyroid gland
2)Parathyroid glands
3)Thymus gland
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) The laryngeal prominence known as the Adam's apple is the:
A) epiglottis.
B) cricoid cartilage.
C) thyroid cartilage.
D) hyoid bone.
Q3) Which is the most common imaging modality for examination of the soft palate, pharynx, and larynx?
A) Computed radiography
B) Computed tomography
C) Magnetic resonance imaging
D) Nuclear medicine
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 17
Chapter 16: Abdomen
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24110
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organs lie in the abdominal cavity?
1)Stomach
2)Gallbladder
3)Kidneys
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Which of the following organs lie in the pelvic cavity?
1)Kidneys
2)Rectum
3)Urinary bladder
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 18
Chapter 17: Digestive System: Alimentary Canal
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
130 Verified Questions
130 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24111
Sample Questions
Q1) At which level is the IR centered for a PA projection of the stomach and duodenum?
A) T12/L1
B) L1/L2
C) L2/L3
D) Iliac crests
Q2) Functions of the stomach include:
1)storage of food.
2)absorption of food products.
3)chemical breakdown of food.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) The common bile duct and the pancreatic duct usually unite to form the:
A) pyloric portion.
B) duodenal bulb.
C) hepatopancreatic ampulla.
D) greater duodenal papilla.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 19
Chapter 18: Urinary System and Venipuncture
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
96 Verified Questions
96 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24112
Sample Questions
Q1) The cup-shaped recesses in the center of each kidney that receive the urine from the collecting ducts are called the:
A) hilum.
B) calyces.
C) renal sinuses.
D) renal pelvis.
Q2) Functions of the kidney include:
1. removing waste products from the blood.
2. maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance.
3. secreting substances that affect blood pressure.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) The abbreviation for the excretory technique of urography is:
A) IVP.
B) EXU.
C) KUB.
D) IVU.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 20
Chapter 19: Reproductive System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24113
Sample Questions
Q1) Which examination is performed 3 months after insertion of an IUD to determine effective uterine tube occlusion?
A) Hysterosalpingogram
B) Pelvic pneumography
C) Vaginography
D) Pelvic sonogram
Q2) Radiographic examinations of the male reproductive structures are rarely performed as a result of advances in:
A) computed tomography.
B) nuclear medicine.
C) sonography.
D) magnetic resonance imaging.
Q3) Radiographic examination of the uterus and uterine tubes is termed:
A) vaginography.
B) hysterosalpingography.
C) pelvic pneumography.
D) pelvimetry.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 21
Chapter 20: Skull, Facial Bones, and Paranasal Sinuses
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
196 Verified Questions
196 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24114
Sample Questions
Q1) Which reference line is perpendicular to the IR for the PA and PA axial mandibular rami?
A) OML
B) AML
C) MML
D) IOML
Q2) The two ethmoidal sinuses are located within which bone?
A) Frontal
B) Ethmoid
C) Sphenoid
D) Maxillary
Q3) Often a patient cannot be turned into the prone position for a PA axial projection of the skull (Caldwell method). What central-ray angle would be used if the AP axial projection is used instead?
A) 10 degrees caudad
B) 15 degrees cephalad
C) 10 to 15 degrees caudad
D) 10 to 15 degrees cephalad
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
22
Chapter 21: Mammography
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24115
Sample Questions
Q1) What type of generators do mammography machines have?
A) Single-phase
B) Three-phase
C) Falling load
D) High frequency
Q2) The pectoral muscle is seen on the craniocaudal projection of the breast in what percentage of patients?
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 50%
D) 75%
Q3) Which of the following projections of the breast will best demonstrate "milk of calcium"?
A) Craniocaudal
B) Mediolateral
C) Mediolateral oblique
D) Lateromedial oblique
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 23
Chapter 22: Central Nervous System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24116
Sample Questions
Q1) Which interventional procedure uses a balloon catheter to expand a compressed vertebral body to near its original height before injection of the bone cement?
A) Myelography
B) Vertebroplasty
C) Kyphoplasty
D) Discography
Q2) What is the imaging method of choice in diagnosing multiple sclerosis?
A) CR
B) CT
C) MRI
D) DSR
Q3) Where is the contrast medium injected for a myelogram?
A) Brachial vein
B) Femoral artery
C) L1-L2 interspace
D) L2-L3 or L3-L4 interspace
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 24
Chapter 23: Vascular, Cardiac, and Interventional
Radiography
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24117
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pumps deoxygenated blood into the pulmonary artery?
A) Right ventricle
B) Left ventricle
C) Inferior vena cava
D) Superior vena cava
Q2) In what year was the first human cardiac catheterization performed?
A) 1896
B) 1926
C) 1952
D) 1978
Q3) The lymphatic system drains into the:
A) aorta.
B) duodenum.
C) kidneys.
D) junction of the left subclavian and internal jugular veins.
Q4) The central organ of the blood-vascular system is the:
A) brain.
B) lung.
C) heart.
D) aorta.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 25
Chapter 24: Pediatric Imaging
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24118
Sample Questions
Q1) Which body parts can be imaged on pediatric patients using the Pigg-O-Stat immobilizer?
A) Head and neck
B) Chest and abdomen
C) Upper and lower limb
D) Pelvis and lower limbs
Q2) Which of the following can protect children from unnecessary radiation exposure?
1)Appropriate use of filters
2)Precise collimation
3)Gonad shielding always
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) Which pediatric age groups benefit from a warmer exam room?
A) Toddlers and adolescents
B) Premature infants and neonates
C) Preschoolers and school-age
D) All pediatric age groups
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 26
Chapter 25: Geriatric Radiography
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24119
Sample Questions
Q1) The aging experience is individual and is affected by:
1)attitude.
2)lifestyle choices.
3)heredity.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Traditional positioning for a chest radiograph may be difficult for the elderly patient. An alternative would be to:
A) position the patient for an AP.
B) have a CT scan for the chest.
C) wrap his or her arms around the chest stand.
D) leave arms down at the side of the body.
Q3) It is inappropriate to address elderly patients as "honey" or "dear."
A)True
B)False
Q4) Aging and disease are considered synonymous.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 26: Mobile Radiography
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24120
Sample Questions
Q1) The anode heel effect is an important consideration in mobile radiography. Which of the following will produce a more pronounced heel effect?
1)Short SID
2)Large field size
3)Use of low kVp techniques
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) How long should the patient lie in the decubitus position before making the exposure during a mobile decubitus chest examination?
A) 1 minute
B) 2 minutes
C) 3 minutes
D) 5 minutes
Q3) Mobile radiographic units can have direct digital capability with wired to the unit or wireless.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 28
Chapter 27: Surgical Radiography
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24121
Sample Questions
Q1) What should the radiographer do after removing the cover from the IR?
A) Quickly take it to be processed.
B) Give it to a nonsterile team member.
C) Put it on the floor.
D) Remove gloves before handling it.
Q2) Sterile gowns are considered sterile from shoulder to:
A) cuff on the arms.
B) level of sterile field.
C) waist.
D) knee.
Q3) What should be done if the sterile field is compromised?
A) Determine if the area is important.
B) Don't tell anyone.
C) Call your manager.
D) Tell OR staff immediately.
Q4) The sterile field is the:
A) whole surgical room.
B) area around the surgeon.
C) area prepared for the patient.
D) surgical incision.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 29
Chapter 29: Computed Tomography
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24123
Sample Questions
Q1) CT is able to differentiate between tissues with similar densities compared with conventional radiography because of:
A) digital magnification.
B) the use of a computer for data processing.
C) improved contrast resolution.
D) axial slices.
Q2) CT detectors are most commonly _____ detectors.
A) ionization (xenon gas)
B) scintillation (solid-state)
C) thermoluminescent
D) phosphorescent
Q3) Fourth-generation CT scanners use the following configuration:
A) translate tube and rotating detectors.
B) rotating tube and detectors.
C) only rotating detectors.
D) only rotating tube.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 30
Chapter 30: Magnetic Resonance Imaging
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24124
Sample Questions
Q1) MRI has been useful for imaging many areas of the body, particularly the brain, because of:
A) the ability to see calcium deposits.
B) differentiation of gray matter from white matter.
C) new motion techniques.
D) fat suppression.
Q2) The rates of relaxation (T1 and T2) of a hydrogen nucleus depend on the:
A) resonant frequency.
B) chemical environment.
C) electron density.
D) signal intensity.
Q3) The wobbling motion of the proton when it is placed in a strong magnetic field is called:
A) frequency.
B) precession.
C) resonance.
D) a signal.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
31
Chapter 31: Diagnostic Ultrasound
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24125
Sample Questions
Q1) Hertz measures:
A) cycles per second.
B) amplitude of an echo.
C) number of waves.
D) wavelength.
Q2) The frequency for diagnostic ultrasound is in the range of:
A) 2 to 320 Hz.
B) 20 to 20,000 Hz.
C) 100,000 Hz to 1 MHz.
D) 1 to 10 MHz.
Q3) Routine obstetric screening exams are usually requested between _____ gestational weeks.
A) 8 and 12
B) 12 and 16
C) 16 and 24
D) 24 and 30
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
32
Chapter 32: Nuclear Medicine
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24126
Sample Questions
Q1) PET scanners have to be close to the source of positrons because:
A) the positrons cannot travel very far.
B) the nuclides are so unstable.
C) of the examination radioactivity of the nuclides.
D) of the short half-lives of the nuclides.
Q2) One of the major benefits of fusion imaging with PET and CT is:
A) attenuation coefficients are the same.
B) radiation dose is less.
C) metabolic and anatomic evaluation is easier.
D) the same detector can be used for both.
Q3) The most common device used to produce nuclides for PET scanning is the:
A) high-frequency generator.
B) compact medical cyclotron.
C) linear accelerator.
D) pulse height analyzer.
Q4) Half-life (T \(1 / 2\) ) is described as the time required for:
A) half the nuclide to leave the body.
B) half the nuclide to disappear.
C) the nuclide to decay to half its original activity.
D) the original activity to increase by one half.
Page 33
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 33: Bone Densitometry
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24127
Sample Questions
Q1) A BMD measurement from a patient is most useful when it can be compared statistically to:
A) the same patient age population.
B) a population living in the same area.
C) multiple scans on the same patient.
D) an appropriate sex-matched reference population.
Q2) The T-score is used to assess:
A) the reference population.
B) fracture risk for the patient.
C) if the measured BMD is reasonable.
D) patient age and bone loss.
Q3) The most common osteoporotic fracture is found in the:
A) hips.
B) femurs.
C) vertebrae.
D) ankles.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 34
Chapter 34: Radiation Oncology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24128
Sample Questions
Q1) Cancer can spread or metastasize by invading:
A) adjacent tissue.
B) normal tissue.
C) blood vessels.
D) anywhere close.
Q2) Intensity-modulated radiation therapy (IMRT) uses:
A) radioactive isotopes.
B) multileaf collimators.
C) cerrobend blocks.
D) permanent implants.
Q3) The most common cancers that occur in the United States are: 1)prostate.
2)lymph.
3)lung.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 35