Quantity Food Production Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Quantity Food Production explores the principles and practices involved in preparing and serving food in large-scale operations such as hotels, hospitals, institutions, and catering services. The course emphasizes menu planning, recipe standardization, equipment selection, and quality control measures necessary for efficient and safe mass food production. Students learn techniques for portion control, cost management, and adherence to food safety regulations, while gaining practical experience in bulk food preparation, teamwork, and coordination in high-volume foodservice environments.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Food Principles and Preparation 5th Edition by Amy Christine Brown
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Food Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Impressions of volatile flavor substances are provided by the sense of A) sight.
B) smell.
C) taste.
D) sound.
E) none of the above answers is correct
Answer: B
Q2) The number of different foods now available makes it more difficult today than ever before to plan a nutritious diet.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The term kosher is the general term applied to foods that are clean in any religion or faith.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q4) consistency
Answer: c
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Chapter 2: Food Evaluation
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Sample Questions
Q1) polarimeter
A)used to measure mineral content
B)measures the concentration of various organic compounds, especially sugar
C)measures the consistency of batters and other viscous foods
D)measures color by detecting the amount and wavelength of light transmitted through a solution
E)measures tenderness by determining the resistance of baked goods such as cookies, pastries, and crackers to breakage
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following chemical tests measures the degree of unsaturation in fats?
A) pH test
B) iodine value test
C) peroxide value test
D) chromatography
E) fuchsin test
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Chemistry of Food Composition
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Sample Questions
Q1) carbohydrates
A)compounds that are not normally soluble in water.
B)inorganic elements that play vital roles in body processes.
C)class of energy nutrients for which half of the compounds required to make them must be obtained from the diet.
D)organic compounds that do not provide energy to the body.
E)sugars, starches, and fibers found primarily in plant foods.
Answer: E
Q2) The energy value of food is measured in _____ of calories.
A) tens
B) hundreds
C) thousands
D) ten thousands
Answer: C
Q3) The human body averages _____ percent water.
A) 20 to 40
B) 40 to 50
C) 50 to 60
D) 60 to 70
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Food Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria grow best in foods with a water activity (aw)level of
A) 0.0 to 0.25.
B) 0.25 to 0.59.
C) 0.59 to 0.85.
D) 0.85 to 0.97.
E) none of the above answers is correct
Q2) Which of the following foodborne illnesses is caused by time/temperature abuse?
A) Ciguatera poisoning
B) Histamine poisoning
C) Pufferfish poisoning
D) Red tide poisoning
Q3) Which of the following infections can result from eating undercooked pork?
A) Trichinella spiralis
B) Anisakis simplex
C) Pseudoterranova dicipiens
D) Giardia lamblia
Q4) Listeria monocytogenes is one of the few bacteria who can thrive at refrigerator temperatures.
A)True
B)False
6
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Chapter 5: Food Preparation Basics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ginger and turmeric are examples of rhizomes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following temperatures matches the correct moist-heat cooking method?
A) Simmering - 150 degrees F
B) Poaching - 160 to 180 degrees F
C) Scalding - Greater than 180, but less than 212 degrees F
D) Pressure steaming - 212 degrees F
Q3) Canned, frozen, cured, or pickled food items provide more than 75 percent of all the sodium ingested in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q4) seasoning
A)to add a liquid to the surface of roasting meat to preserve the moistness of the meat
B)to dip briefly into boiling water
C)any compound that enhances the flavor already found naturally in a food
D)a substance that adds a new flavor to food
E)to boil but only partially cook a food
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Chapter 6: Meal Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Flatware has assigned positions on the table setting
A) depending on the type of table service.
B) depending on whether a linen table cloth is being used or not.
C) depending on the type of meal being served.
D) that remain the same, no matter the type of meal being served.
Q2) Effective meal planning includes efficient management of A) money.
B) time.
C) energy.
D) all of the above
Q3) When estimating the amount of preparation time needed for a meal, one should start at the serving time and work backwards.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When price shopping, convenience foods are almost guaranteed to be less expensive than fresh, unprocessed forms.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Meats
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Sample Questions
Q1) Collagen's molecular structure consists of
A) three polypeptide strands twisted together.
B) strands held together by hydrogen and covalent bonds.
C) strands that are high in proline, hydroxyproline, and glycine.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above answers is correct
Q2) adipose tissue
A)another name for the fatty tissue of an animal
B)another name for the intramuscular fat found in meat
C)the primary pigment in muscle fibers
D)the cooking and heat transfer that continue after meat is removed from the heat
E)an effect of the oxidation of meat's unsaturated fatty acids
Q3) Meats are best refrigerated between 32 degrees F and 36 degrees F and stored in the coldest part of the refrigerator.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Yield grades are the USDA standards for beef, veal, lamb, and mutton.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Poultry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Broiler/fryers
A)a chicken that is a cross between a Cornish hen and another breed of chicken
B)any chicken over the age of 10 months
C)chickens of either sex slaughtered under 10 weeks of age
D)chickens of either sex, processed between 10 and 12 weeks and weighing at least 6-8 pounds
E)neutered male chickens, usually under 4 months of age and weighing 12-14 pounds
Q2) Braising, also called fricasseeing,
A) is a dry-heat cooking method and may be used for any whole poultry.
B) is a moist-heat preparation method of particular value with older, tougher birds.
C) is a process where chicken pieces, such as breasts, are placed in a frying pan and covered with water and cooked until tender.
D) is a steaming process in which the poultry pieces are arranged skin side up, covered with a little liquid, and cooked until tender.
Q3) Stuffing a bird prior to roasting is not recommended by the USDA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Fish and Shellfish
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pressure steaming is recommended because it tends to tenderize both fish and shellfish.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Shell stock tags are required to be kept by food-service operations for at least _____ days.
A) 30
B) 60
C) 90
D) 120
Q3) The pink/orange hue seen in some salmon, trout, and crustaceans comes from A) astaxanthins.
B) exposure to oxygen.
C) omega-3 fatty acids.
D) anthocyanins and anthoxanthins.
Q4) The characteristic smell of fish odor comes primarily from A) histamine.
B) phosphate.
C) scombrotoxin.
D) trimethylamine
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Chapter 10: Milk
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sweetened condensed milk has 50% of its weight in water removed with 50% sugar added.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following components in processed foods contributes to emulsification and stabilization?
A) caseinates
B) whey powder
C) whey protein isolates
D) immunoglobulins
Q3) Which of the following milk products requires neither vitamin A nor vitamin D fortification?
A) fat-free milk
B) reduced-fat (2 percent) milk
C) dried whole milk
D) evaporated skim milk
E) none of the above answers is correct
Q4) Evaporated milk contains 60% of the water of fresh fluid milk.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Cheese
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following enzymes is most commonly used to coagulate milk in cheese making?
A) fermentation-produced chymosin
B) bovine pepsin
C) porcine pepsin
D) calf chymosin
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of Parmesan and Romano cheeses?
A) aged the longest of all cheeses
B) water content of approximately 30 percent
C) easily sliced
D) easily grated or crumbled
E) none of the above; these are all characteristics of Parmesan and Romano
Q3) The curd produced by acid has a soft and spongy texture.This texture is influenced by pH, becoming
A) watery as the acidity increases.
B) mealy and non-cohesive as the pH increases.
C) more solid and compact as the acidity increases.
D) more solid and compact as the acidity decreases.
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Chapter 12: Eggs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term "hard-boiled eggs" is incorrect because the contents of the egg actually coagulate long before the boiling point is reached.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Value-added eggs have special attributes due to their nutrient content or because of the way that they are raised.For example, some have
A) higher cholesterol levels.
B) lower omega-3-fatty acid levels.
C) been fed animal products.
D) higher vitamin E levels.
E) none of the above
Q3) Factors that yield the best possible egg-white foam include
A) whipping the whites into very large bubbles.
B) whites that quickly slide out of a bowl when it is turned upside down.
C) using deep bowls with rounded bottoms sloping up into the sides.
D) using plastic bowls because their porous surface may harbor a thin film of grease, which helps stabilize foam formation.
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14
Chapter 13: Vegetables and Legumes
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Sample Questions
Q1) When potatoes are stored in the refrigerator, glucose is converted to starch.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Mealy potatoes are not the best choice for frying because the high sugar content tends to yield dark streaks and poor texture.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Broccoli, spinach, and green beans are low in all of the following except A) kcalories.
B) cholesterol.
C) sodium.
D) fat.
E) fiber.
Q4) The common classification system used for vegetables is based on the part of the plant that is used.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Potatoes contain approximately 15 percent air space.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Fruits
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the ways to facilitate the ripening of oranges and tomatoes is to expose them to sulfur dioxide.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Unofficially, goji and acai are categorized as superfruits.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The small particles of suspended pulp remaining in pressed juice are called haze or cloud.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _____ is an antifungal agent that aids in the preservation of various foods.
A) Sorbic acid
B) Benzoic acid
C) Potassium bisulfite
D) Sodium sulfite
Q5) The increase in availability of out-of-season fresh fruit is largely due to refrigerated transport.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Soups, Salads, and Gelatins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following dressings is not considered an emulsified dressing?
A) balsamic vinegar and hazelnut oil
B) Chantilly
C) Thousand Island
D) Russian
E) Green Goddess
Q2) vinaigrette
A)a broth made from meat and vegetables and then strained to remove the solids
B)a bundle of parsley, thyme, bay leaf, and whole black pepper rolled and tied in a leek
C)a salad dressing consisting of only oil, vinegar, and seasoning
D)a richly flavored soup stock that has been clarified using egg whites
E)a cream soup traditionally made from shellfish
Q3) Which of the following soups is a popular Indian soup?
A) chowder
B) gazpacho
C) borscht
D) mulligatawny
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Chapter 16: Cereal Grains and Pastas
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Sample Questions
Q1) husk
A)the largest portion of the grain, containing all of the grain's starch
B)the smallest portion of the grain, and the embryo for a future plant
C)the hard outer covering just under the husk that protects the grain's soft endosperm
D)the seeds of the grass family Gramineae
E)the rough outer covering protecting the grai
Q2) Pasta is produced by forcing a flour and water dough through the holes in a disc designed to create the desired pasta shape.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The seeds of an annual, gluten-free grass, eaten as a cereal in Africa and Asia, are called
A) amaranth.
B) quinoa.
C) millet.
D) sorghum.
E) triticale.
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Chapter 17: Flours and Flour Mixtures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most graham crackers today are imitations because they are made from
A) whole-wheat flour.
B) graham flour.
C) wheat flour.
D) only the bran and germ.
E) none of the above answers is correct
Q2) Wheat flours are classified according to their
A) carbohydrate content.
B) carbohydrate or lipid content.
C) protein or mineral content.
D) protein or water content.
Q3) In a flour mixture, sugar
A) gelatinizes starch and serves as a solvent for dry ingredients.
B) hydrates flour, increases volume, and contributes to crumb and texture.
C) firms dough.
D) increases volume, adds moistness, and improves color.
Q4) All-purpose flour is a blend of hard and soft wheat flours.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Starches and Sauces
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Q1) gelation
A)the seepage of water out of an aging gel due to contraction of the gel
B)the development of a semi-solid sol from a cooked starch paste
C)the simmering or boiling of a liquid until the volume is reduced through evaporation, leaving a thicker, concentrated, flavorful mass
D)the increase in volume, viscosity, and translucency of starch granules when they are heated in a liquid
E)the breakdown of starch molecules to smaller, sweeter-tasting molecules in the presence of dry heat
Q2) Short-bodied pastes that set to very rigid, opaque gels upon cooling are most likely prepared from starch derived from
A) roots and tubers.
B) high-amylase hybrids.
C) cereal grains.
D) waxy hybrids.
Q3) The base for a tartar sauce is tomato paste.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Quick Breads
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following quick breads is made with rye and graham flours and steamed instead of baked?
A) tea breads
B) hushpuppies
C) chapattis
D) Boston brown bread
Q2) When baking muffins, once the batter and all its ingredients are mixed and ready for the muffin pan,
A) immediately place the batter in greased muffin cups.
B) allow the batter to rest for ten minutes before putting it into the muffin cups.
C) fill the muffin cups two-thirds full and bake in a 400 degree F oven for about 20 to 25 minutes.
D) place the muffin pan on a wet towel so the muffins do not stick when removed after baking.
Q3) Popovers are baked at two different temperatures to first promote leavening and then set the structure.
A)True
B)False
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21
Chapter 20: Yeast Breads
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Sample Questions
Q1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
A) is often found in both quick and yeast breads.
B) multiplies rapidly at extreme temperatures.
C) requires both sugar and moisture to multiply.
D) is a single-celled mold that sometimes spoils food and causes illness.
Q2) Raised doughnuts are made with _____ and leavened with _____.
A) pastry flour, both biological and chemical leavening agents
B) cake flour, both biological and chemical leavening agents
C) bread flour, a biological agent
D) high-gluten flour, a biological agent
Q3) The over-development of gluten often results in a baked product that is
A) coarse in texture.
B) fine-grained in texture.
C) irregular in texture.
D) regular in texture.
Q4) At higher altitudes yeast breads rise more slowly.
A)True
B)False
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22
Chapter 21: Sweeteners
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fructose is a low-kcalorie sweetener.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a syrup?
A) honey
B) molasses
C) invert sugar
D) all of the above answers are syrups
E) none of the above answers is a syrup
Q3) Which of the following foods is an example of the positive use of fermentation?
A) fruit juice
B) jam and jellies
C) wine
D) fruit sauces
E) caramel sauce
Q4) Any sugar except lactose can be fermented to carbon dioxide and alcohol by yeast organisms.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Fats and Oils
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would decrease the melting point of a fat?
A) making the fat crystals larger
B) increasing the proportion of saturated fatty acids in the fat
C) changing the double bond configurations from cis to trans
D) increasing the number of kinks in the fatty acid molecules
Q2) Placing cold, wet food in heated frying oil introduces moisture, making the oil prone to oxidative rancidity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Emulsions are classified on the basis of their tendency to separate on standing and their viscosity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following can reform a temporary emulsion that has separated?
A) agitation
B) short storage times
C) extreme temperatures
D) surface drying
E) added salt
F) none of the above answers is correct
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Cakes and Cookies
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Q1) The acidic environment created by cream of tartar in angel food cake helps to increase tenderness and contributes to the white color of the cake by whitening the flour's natural yellowish, anthoxanthin pigments.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _____ effect on cake volume is thought to be due to its delaying of starch gelatinization.
A) Egg's
B) Fat's
C) Milk's
D) Sugar's
Q3) The type of flour preferred for cakes is
A) all-purpose wheat flour.
B) cake flour.
C) oat flour.
D) wheat flour.
E) semolina.
Q4) Vegetable oil is the fat of choice when making a shortened cake.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Pastries and Pies
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Q1) The fat particle size is relatively unimportant as a contributor to the flakiness of a crust.
A)True
B)False
Q2) pâte á choux
A)a pastry dough that combines the mixing techniques of a plain pastry with the rolling and folding of a puff pastry
B)thin sheets of dough made primarily with flour, water, and a small amount of oil
C)a dough that is rich in eggs and is commonly used for cream puffs
D)a sweet pastry made with yeast
E)a pastry traditionally filled with spinach and feta cheese
Q3) Which two elements are important to the successful production of pastry?
A) the number and brand of ingredients
B) the amount of ingredients and the baking time
C) the proportions of ingredients and the preparation technique
D) the preparation technique and the cooling time
Q4) Cream pie fillings are usually thickened primarily with flour.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Candy
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Q1) A candy thermometer should be calibrated each month when in regular use.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Dutch-processed cocoa is slightly acidic in flavor, while natural cocoa is slightly alkalized.
A)True
B)False
Q3) White chocolate has a minimum of ten percent chocolate liquor content.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The cold-water test used in candy making measures the syrup's consistency.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When candies are classified by their ingredients, they are placed into one of two categories based on whether they
A) are basically a fat or syrup phase candy.
B) have a nut paste incorporated into the mix.
C) include milk in the liquid portion of the mix.
D) are made with sugar to which fat is then added.
E) have a chocolate coating.
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Chapter 26: Frozen Desserts
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Q1) Which statement about sorbet preparation is true?
A) A sugar-water syrup is simmered, and then fruit puree is added while it is still warm.
B) A very tart but not overly sweet fruit should be chosen as the primary flavoring agent.
C) The fruit should not be cooked since this may cause formation of compounds that interfere with freezing.
D) After it is removed from the ice cream freezer, sorbet must be served immediately.
Q2) The increasing demand for frozen yogurt is due in part to
A) its less sweet taste and denser texture as compared to ice cream.
B) its high fat content.
C) its "good for you" image.
D) its high probiotic content.
Q3) Which of the following frozen desserts is often prepared with egg whites and/or gelatin?
A) sherbet
B) frozen yogurt
C) imitation ice cream
D) low-fat ice cream
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Chapter 27: Beverages
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Sample Questions
Q1) Green tea has the greatest amount of _____, which is responsible for its metallic taste.
A) polyphenolic compounds and/or their oxidative products
B) methylxanthines
C) theobromines
D) none of the above answers is correct
Q2) Unlike coffee, which comes from beans, tea comes from a A) flower.
B) leaf.
C) root.
D) stem.
E) shoot.
F) fruit.
Q3) Alcoholic beverages are classified as nutritious because they contain so many kcalories.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Tea has a shorter shelf life than coffee.
A)True
B)False
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Food Preservation
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Q1) Water expands when it freezes, and the resulting ice crystals pierce the food's cell walls, rupturing them and causing the food to take on an inferior texture.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The food preservation method that is the oldest is
A) freezing.
B) canning.
C) edible coatings.
D) drying.
E) freeze-drying.
Q3) Irradiation of a food results in disruption of the DNA within the nuclei of cells within that food, including microbial cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Two major factors that spoil food are _____ and _____.
A) ozonation; high temperatures
B) decomposition; ozonation
C) decomposition; consumption by microbes
D) consumption by microbes; high temperatures
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Chapter 29: Government Food Regulations
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Q1) Which of the following is not one of the qualities a food must have to be labeled as "healthy"?
A) less than 3 g fat/serving
B) less than 1 g saturated fat/serving
C) less than or equal to 480 mg sodium/serving
D) less than or equal to cholesterol disclosure level
E) 25 percent less fat/serving than a similar product
F)all of the above answers are correct
Q2) The Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 is enforced by the A) USDA.
B) FDA.
C) EPA.
D) CDC.
E) HACCP.
Q3) The creation of one federal agency to oversee food safety has not been proposed. A)True B)False
Q4) Voluntary grading is available for fresh fish but not for frozen fish products. A)True
B)False
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Careers in Food and Nutrition
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11570
Sample Questions
Q1) A nutrition undergraduate degree qualifies an individual to council patients about their diets.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Association of Nutrition and Foodservice Professionals (ANFP)offers certificates to students meeting the requirements to become Certified Dietary Managers (CDM).
A)True
B)False
Q3) The American Culinary Federation (ACF)offers _____ levels of culinary certification including those for becoming a master chef.
A) eight
B) ten
C) twelve
D) fourteen
Q4) Dietary managers work for institutions that serve food, specifically hospitals, nursing homes, and schools.
A)True
B)False
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