Psychopharmacology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Psychopharmacology explores the study of how drugs affect mood, behavior, cognition, and neural functioning. This course examines the mechanisms of action of various psychoactive substances, including prescription medications, recreational drugs, and naturally occurring compounds. Students learn about drug classification, pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, and how substances interact with neurotransmitter systems in the brain. Clinical applications, side effects, drug dependence, and ethical considerations are also discussed. The course integrates foundational neuroscience with current research and real-world implications for mental health and clinical treatment.
Recommended Textbook
Biopsychology 9th Edition by John
P.J. Pinel
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Chapter 1:
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Q1) Structure of the nervous system is to function of the nervous system as
A) biopsychology is to psychology.
B) neuroanatomy is to neurophysiology.
C) neuropathology is to clinical psychology.
D) neuroscience is to biopsychology.
E) biopsychology is to neuroscience.
Answer: B
Q2) The visual system bases its perception of motion on a comparison between movement of the image on the
A) retina and the neural commands sent from the brain to the eye muscles.
B) cornea and its movement on the retina.
C) retina and contractions of the eye muscles.
D) retina and movement of the eyes.
E) two retinas.
Answer: A
Q3) If you were to become a biopsychologist, in which division of biopsychology would you like to specialize and why?
Answer: 50% for knowledge of the division that a student selects 50% for effectively arguing that the choice is best for that student
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Chapter 2: Evolution, Genetics, and Experience: Thinking About the Biology of Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) In many modern hospitals, the blood of newborn infants is routinely screened for high levels of
A) phenylalanine.
B) phenylpyruvic acid.
C) phenylalanine hydroxylase.
D) all of the above
E) both B and C
Answer: A
Q2) DNA is to RNA as
A) guanine is to uracil.
B) thymine is to cytosine.
C) uracil is to thymine.
D) thymine is to uracil.
E) uracil is to guanine.
Answer: D
Q3) Describe the model of the biology of behavior that has been adopted by most biopsychologists. Use a diagram in your answer.
Answer: 50% for a verbal explanation of the model 50% for a diagram of the model
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Chapter 3: The Anatomy of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) To locate the terminals of axons that project from a particular brain structure, an investigator would employ
A) a retrograde tracing technique.
B) an anterograde tracing technique.
C) labeled chemicals that are readily transported back to the neuron's nucleus.
D) a Golgi stain.
E) a Nissl stain.
Answer: B
Q2) The caudate, putamen, and globus pallidus compose the A) diencephalon.
B) limbic system.
C) somatosensory system.
D) basal ganglia.
E) thalamus.
Answer: D
Q3) Compare Golgi and Nissl neuroanatomical stains, emphasizing the strengths and weaknesses of each.
Answer: 25% for describing Golgi staining
25% for describing Nissl staining
50% for comparing the strengths and weaknesses of the two stains
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Chapter 4: Neural Conduction and Synaptic Transmission
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Q1) Which of the following is a passive force that acts to encourage Na+ ions to enter resting neurons?
A) random motion, which tends to move ions down their concentration gradients
B) electrostatic pressure, which forces ions down their electrostatic gradients
C) sodium-potassium pumps, which distribute Na+ and K+ ions equally
D) both A and B
E) both A and C
Q2) APs are said to be all-or-none: This means that all APs
A) are the same.
B) in a particular neuron are the same.
C) quickly or not at all.
D) all of the above
E) both A and C
Q3) Peptide neurotransmitters are
A) synthesized in the cell body.
B) amino acid chains.
C) large-molecule neurotransmitters.
D) all of the above
E) both B and C
Q4) Endorphins and __________ are endogenous opioids.
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Chapter 5: The Research Methods of Biopsychology
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Q1) Which of the following is a method used by cognitive neuroscientists to turn off part of the brain while the effects on cognition and behavior are assessed?
A) 2-DG.
B) ERP.
C) TMS.
D) PET.
E) EEG.
Q2) The __________ created by the current is the main cause of tissue damage produced by a radio-frequency lesion.
A) vibration
B) current induction
C) heat
D) ion deposits
E) acid
Q3) As the final step in the 2-deoxyglucose technique, brain slices are subjected to __________.
Q4) Many cancer patients receiving chemotherapy develop conditioned __________.
Q5) Describe and compare the various methods for recording the electrical activity of the brain through invasive electrodes.
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Chapter 6: The Visual System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parvocellular is to magnocellular as A) 2 is to 4
B) small is to big.
C) movement is to fine detail.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) The receptive fields of most retinal ganglion cells are roughly
A) square.
B) round.
C) rectangular.
D) perpendicular.
E) columnar.
Q3) The receptive fields of complex cortical cells are usually __________ than those of simple cortical cells.
A) bigger
B) smaller
C) more circular
D) less circular
E) more monocular
Q4) Draw the retina-geniculate-striate system and label its parts.
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Chapter 7: Mechanisms of Perception
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Q1) Hemispherectomized patients feel
A) no pain.
B) no pain from the contralateral side of the body.
C) no pain from the ipsilateral side of the body.
D) pain from both sides of the body.
E) none of the above
Q2) Much of the recent research on sound localization has focused on the A) cochlea.
B) barn owl.
C) snail.
D) mouse.
E) cat.
Q3) Which of the following is often associated with asomatognosia?
A) the rubber hand illusion
B) aphasia
C) anosognosia
D) all of the above
E) both A and C
Q4) Hearing loss is sometimes associated with __________ (ringing of the ears).
Q5) Sensory systems are hierarchical, parallel, and __________ segregated.
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Chapter 8: The Sensorimotor System
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Q1) The somatotopic map of the primary motor cortex is called the motor __________.
Q2) Discuss the two effects of damage to the posterior parietal cortex.
Q3) Contralateral neglect typically results from damage to the __________ posterior parietal lobe.
Q4) The only parts of each motor homunculus to receive somatosensory feedback directly from skin are the
A) genital areas.
B) lip areas.
C) hand areas.
D) foot areas.
E) face areas.
Q5) The decussation in the medullary pyramids is part of the A) dorsolateral corticospinal tract.
B) dorsolateral corticorubrospinal tract.
C) ventromedial corticospinal tract.
D) ventromedial cortico-brainstem-spinal tract.
E) both C and D
Q6) __________ is the ability to recognize objects by touch.
Q7) Muscle spindles are receptors that respond to changes in muscle __________.
Q8) Discuss three principles of sensorimotor function.
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Chapter 9: Development of the Nervous System
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Q1) Many cells of the neural tube have lost their pluripotency and have become A) totally specified.
B) totipotent.
C) multipotent.
D) mesodermal.
E) neural plates.
Q2) If an optic nerve of a mature frog is transected and half of the associated retina is destroyed,
A) the axons grow out from the retinal ganglion cells in the remaining half of the retina to their original targets on the optic tectum.
B) the destroyed retina regenerates and then axons grow out from the complete retina and innervate the optic tectum in the species-typical fashion.
C) the axons grow out from the retinal ganglion cells in the remaining half of the retina to targets systematically distributed over the entire optic tectum.
D) half of the optic tectum degenerates.
E) both A and D
Q3) Describe Sperry's eye-rotation experiments and the important theoretical point that they made.
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Chapter 10: Brain Damage and Neuroplasticity
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Q1) Acoustic neuromas are
A) encapsulated.
B) benign.
C) located on the 8th cranial nerve.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) A tumor is
A) a neoplasm.
B) cluster of cells that grows independently of the rest of the body.
C) an aneurysm.
D) a thrombus.
E) both A and B
Q3) Sites of arteriosclerosis are most readily apparent in A) a Nissl-stained brain section.
B) a CT scan.
C) an fMRI image.
D) an angiogram.
E) a PET scan.
Q4) Most neuropsychological diseases of genetic origin are associated with abnormal __________ genes.
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Chapter 11: Learning, Memory, and Amnesia
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Q1) Damage to the brains of Alzheimer's patients is often apparent in the A) medial temporal lobe structures.
B) basal forebrain.
C) prefrontal cortex.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) Bilateral lesions of the medial temporal cortex that do not damage the hippocampus or amygdala produce
A) slight object-recognition deficits in rats.
B) no object-recognition deficits in monkeys.
C) slight object-recognition deficits in monkeys.
D) major object recognition deficits in both rats and monkeys.
E) both A and C
Q3) LTP is induced only when the high-intensity, high-frequency stimulation activates the
A) presynaptic neurons but not the postsynaptic neurons.
B) postsynaptic neurons but not the presynaptic neurons.
C) both presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons.
D) hippocampus.
E) the hippocampus and the perforant path.
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Chapter 12: Hunger, Eating, and Health
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Q1) Many people assume that hunger is normally triggered when energy resources fall
A) below a prescribed optimal homeostatic level called a set point.
B) to the glucose level.
C) to a fat set point.
D) to the settling point.
E) to the optimal levels of hypothalamic activity.
Q2) A major problem with the set-point theory of body weight regulation is that it
A) cannot explain the effects of satiety peptides.
B) cannot explain how LH lesions increase hunger.
C) cannot explain the increasing prevalence of obesity.
D) is too parsimonious.
E) is too vague.
Q3) Human patients who have had their stomachs surgically removed eat
A) so little that they need to be fed intravenously to survive.
B) much more than do humans with stomachs.
C) continue to maintain their body weights by eating more meals of smaller size.
D) only through implanted fistulas.
E) only wet food.
Q4) The __________ value associated with eating tends to be lower in anorexics than in healthy people.
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Chapter 13: Hormones and Sex
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Men and women have fundamentally different anterior pituitaries.
B) Men and women have fundamentally different posterior pituitaries.
C) A male pituitary transplanted into a female displays a cyclic pattern of hormone release.
D) A female pituitary transplanted into a male displays a cyclic pattern of hormone release.
E) both A and D
Q2) If the testes of a normal male fetus were removed as soon as they developed, the child would be born with
A) female internal reproductive ducts.
B) undeveloped male internal reproductive ducts.
C) a hypothalamus that releases gonadotropin-releasing hormones cyclically.
D) female external reproductive organs.
E) all of the above
Q3) A __________ vein is any vein that connects one capillary network with another.
Q4) The __________ area of the hypothalamus seems to control the motivation to engage in male copulatory behavior.
Q5) The specific term for surgical removal of the testes is __________.
Q6) __________ steroid hormone is released by the ovaries and not by the testes.
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Chapter 14: Sleep, Dreaming, and Circadian Rhythms
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Q1) The practice of diagnosing people as neurotic pseudoinsomniacs stopped when it was discovered that many people
A) who complain of insomnia sleep for over 6.5 hours per night.
B) who complain of insomnia sleep most of the night but unknowingly suffer from sleep apnea, nocturnal myoclonus, or some other sleep-disturbing disorder.
C) become neurotic because of their insomnia, but not vice versa.
D) become an insomniac as a result of their neuroses, but not vice versa.
E) who complain of insomnia get little sleep.
Q2) REM sleep without the usual core muscle atonia is likely a consequence of damage to the
A) caudal hypothalamus.
B) cerveau isolé.
C) nucleus magnocellularis.
D) supraoptic nucleus.
E) subfornical organ.
Q3) Describe the physiological correlates of dreaming. What has the study of these correlates taught us about dreaming? Describe two key studies as part of your answer.
Q4) Somnambulism usually occurs during stage __________ sleep.
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Chapter 15: Drug Addiction and the Brains Reward Circuits
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Q1) Delirium tremens is a symptom of __________ withdrawal.
Q2) Globally, more than 1 billion people are addicted to _____________ , and more than 76 million are addicted to _____________ .
A) heroin; marijuana
B) nicotine: alcohol
C) heroin; cocaine
D) heroin; prescription drugs
E) marijuana; heroin
Q3) Which of the following is the strongest psychoactive ingredient of opium?
A) morphine
B) codeine
C) heroin
D) cocaine
E) methadone
Q4) Withdrawal from which of the following drugs produces convulsions?
A) morphine
B) heroin
C) alcohol
D) cocaine
E) both A and B
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Chapter 16: Lateralization, Language, and the Split Brain
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Q1) Both the planum temporale and Heschl's gyrus are in A) the temporal lobe.
B) the frontal lobe.
C) primary olfactory cortex.
D) Wernicke's area.
E) Broca's area.
Q2) According to the Wernicke-Geschwind model, during speech, the output of Wernicke's area is transmitted to A) the angular gyrus.
B) Broca's area.
C) primary motor cortex.
D) Heschl's gyrus.
E) the planum temporale.
Q3) Cognitive neuroscientists interested in the brain mechanisms of language search for the specific parts of the brain that mediate
A) phonemes.
B) language production.
C) language comprehension.
D) language's constituent cognitive processes.
E) both B and C
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Chapter 17: Biopsychology of Emotion, Stress, and Health
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Q1) Brief stressors increase blood levels of __________, which play a role in inflammation and fever
Q2) The __________ system received its name because it rings the thalamus.
Q3) Unlike false smiles, Duchenne smiles always involve the __________ muscles.
Q4) Each T cell has two kinds of receptors on its membrane: one for molecules normally found on the surface of __________ and one for a specific __________.
A) antigens; macrophage
B) antigens; antibody
C) macrophages; antigen
D) antibodies; antigen
E) phagocytes; lymphocyte
Q5) True facial expressions sometimes momentarily break through false facial expressions. When this happens, the true expressions are referred to as __________.
Q6) Rich descriptions of intraspecific aggression and defense in rats were derived from studies of the __________ model of aggression and defense.
Q7) Describe the two major components of the physiological stress response. Draw a schematic diagram.
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Chapter 18: Biopsychology of Psychiatric Disorders
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Q1) How many gene therapies are currently in widespread routine clinical use?
A) 0
B) 2
C) 8
D) over 50
E) over 100
Q2) Lithium is classified as a A) mood stabilizer.
B) SSRI.
C) SNRI.
D) both A and B
E) both A and C
Q3) Human clinical trials of new drugs are typically conducted in __________ different phases.
Q4) Chlorpromazine
A) is a benzodiazepine.
B) exerts an immediate antischizophrenic effect.
C) was originally developed as an antihistamine.
D) is commonly used in the treatment of depression.
E) both A and C
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