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Psychopathology is the scientific study of mental disorders, encompassing their symptoms, causes, development, and treatment. This course explores the theoretical frameworks used to understand abnormal behavior, including biological, psychological, and sociocultural perspectives. Students will examine major diagnostic categories such as mood disorders, anxiety disorders, psychotic disorders, and personality disorders, with a focus on the criteria for diagnosis, epidemiology, and the lived experiences of individuals affected by psychological conditions. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking regarding classification systems, ethical considerations, and the impact of stigma, as well as contemporary debates and advancements in the field.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology in a Changing World 9th Edition by Jeffrey S. Nevid
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Q1) In the story of the professor who placed a rat on top of her desk and then asked graduate students to describe the rat's behavior, the rat was _______.
A) released into the outside world
B) genetically engineered to be more intelligent than a normal rat
C) a clone
D) blind
Answer: D
Q2) A prediction about behavior that is tested through experimentation is called a ______.
A) theory
B) hypothesis
C) supposition
D) proposition
Answer: B
Q3) Claustrophobic behavior is characterized by intense fear of venturing into public places.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anxiety disorders, sleep disorders, and eating disorders have been linked to imbalances of _______.
A) acetylcholine
B) dopamine
C) serotonin
D) epinephrine
Answer: C
Q2) A report of 375 controlled studies, each comparing psychotherapy (of different types, including? psychodynamic, behavioral, and humanistic) against control groups revealed that___________.
A) the average client receiving psychotherapy was no better off than 75% of clients who remained ? untreated
B) the average client receiving psychotherapy was better off than 75% of clients who remained untreated
C) clients receiving psychotherapy were not better off than 25% those not receiving therapy
D) the average client receiving psychotherapy was better off than 40% of clients who remained untreated
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) A Wechsler IQ score is based on the relative deviation of a person's score from the norms of the person's _______.
A) state of residence
B) ethnic group
C) age group
D) age and gender group
Answer: C
Q2) Linda takes a self-report test which asks her to look over a list of adjectives and check the ones which apply to her. The test is a(n) ______ test.
A) projective
B) subjective
C) introjective
D) objective
Answer: D
Q3) Psychological tests are unstructured methods of assessment.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a one of the general theories about the relationship between acculturation and psychological adjustment presented in your text?
A) melting-pot theory
B) adaptation theory
C) immigrant adjustment theory
D) assimilation theory
Q2) In what way is Acute Stress Disorder is different from Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)?
A) Acute Stress Disorder is a reaction to a less intense trauma than those experienced by someone with PTSD.
B) The symptoms of Acute Stress Disorder are limited to one month.
C) Individuals with Acute Stress Disorder report more frequent flashbacks than an individual with PTSD would.
D) Individuals with PTSD never recover from their trauma; those with Acute Stress Disorder do recover.
Q3) Summarize research findings regarding life changes and their relationship to stress.
Q4) Explain the role of the endocrine system in the experience of stress.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Social anxiety disorder generally begin in ______.
A) infancy
B) adolescence
C) early adulthood
D) middle adulthood
Q2) An excessive, irrational fear of being in public without the availability of escape or help is ______.
A) acrophobia
B) agoraphobia
C) claustrophobia
D) panic disorder
Q3) Cognitive-behavior therapists often treat generalized anxiety with ______.
A) gradual exposure
B) decatastrophizing
C) aversive conditioning
D) chain breaking
Q4) Claustrophobia seems to develop later than most other specific phobias, with a mean age of onset of 20 years.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The type of dissociative amnesia in which all events occurring within a specific time period are forgotten, typically those involving some stressful event that happened during that time
Period, is called ______ amnesia.
A) selective
B) generalized
C) localized
D) systematized
Q2) Some people with multiple personalities also show behaviors associated with schizophrenia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The illness anxiety disorder (IAD) subtype ___________ describes people who jump from doctor to doctor in the hope of finding the one medical professional who might confirm their worst fears.
A) obsessive
B) care-seeking
C) lethargic
D) persistence
Q4) Explain the controversies surrounding recovered memories. Page 8
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Q1) "Maternity blues" are believed to be an abnormal response to the hormonal changes attending childbirth.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Matt goes on a disastrous date. Afterwards he says "I really messed it up. It must be this head cold, which ruined things for me." His statements reflect a(n) ______ attribution.
A) global
B) unstable
C) internal
D) stable
Q3) Reggie goes on a disastrous date. Afterwards he says "I really messed it up this time!" His statement reflects a(n) ______ attribution.
A) internal
B) external
C) global
D) stable
Q4) Identify five myths of suicide and briefly explain why each is incorrect.
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Q1) Ecstasy can produce which of the following psychological effects?
A) increased alertness
B) relaxation and calm
C) psychosis
D) drowsiness
Q2) Heroin was developed during a search for a nonaddictive drug that would relieve pain as effectively as morphine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) James believes that he needs alcohol to help him relax when he talks to people. The ______ model would explain James's motivation for drinking.
A) outcome expectancy
B) self-efficacy
C) tension reduction
D) paradoxical intention
Q4) What is the role of neurotransmitters in terms of understanding addictive processes?
Q5) Discuss the research on the health benefits of moderate drinking.
Q6) Discuss biological and behavioral approaches to explain cravings for substances.
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Q1) The BMI takes ______ into account.
A) only weight
B) only weight and age
C) weight and height
D) weight and lifestyle
Q2) Cataplexy is a key feature of ______.
A) primary hypersomnia
B) primary insomnia
C) narcolepsy
D) apnea
Q3) Drugs used to treat depression may help curb bulimic binges.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Between ______ percent of females in the United States develop bulimia nervosa.
A) .1 and .3
B) 1 and 3
C) 5 and 10
D) 10 and 15
Q5) Discuss socioeconomic differences in obesity and the possible reasons for those differences.
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Q1) What biologic differences have been noted between men with paraphilias and those without paraphilias. Focus on the research evaluating refractory periods and brain wave pattern analysis.
Q2) Evidence links high levels of _______during prenatal development to more masculinized play in children.
A) estrogen
B) mercury
C) testosterone
D) calcium
Q3) Until the research of the sex researchers Masters and Johnson in the 1960s, there was no effective treatment for most sexual dysfunctions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which technique is used by cognitive-behavioral therapists to help eliminate paraphiliac behaviors?
A) the empty chair technique
B) flooding
C) cognitive monitoring
D) covert sensitization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hallucinations are occasionally experienced by people in the general population and are not necessarily a sign of psychopathology.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In sum, ______ meet(s) all the needs of people with schizophrenia.
A) social learning programs
B) family intervention approaches
C) psychodynamic approaches
D) no single treatment approach
Q3) The thoughts of people with schizophrenia tend to be tightly knit together.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Among people with schizophrenia, thought disorder occurs most often during ______.
A) the prodromal phase
B) the chronic phase
C) the residual phase
D) acute episodes
Q5) What are delusions? Describe types of delusions common to schizophrenia.
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Q1) Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) is specifically designed to treat which of the following?
A) borderline personality disorder
B) schizotypal personality disorder
C) dissociative disorder
D) dependent personality disorder
Q2) There appears to be a link between dependent personality disorder and ______behavior problems.
A) phallic
B) anal
C) oral
D) genital
Q3) Which of the following is true of people with personality disorders?
A) They experience a good deal of personal discomfort as a result of their concerns and readily seek professional help on their own.
B) Their behavior patterns are amenable to change.
C) They do not generally perceive a need to change their behaviors.
D) They generally relate well to others and are concerned about the impact of their behavior on others.
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Q1) Fetuses and newborn infants eliminate waste products ______.
A) instinctively
B) reflexively
C) coherently
D) willfully
Q2) Encephalitis and meningitis during infancy can cause ______.
A) ADHD
B) Tourette's syndrome
C) Asperger's disorder
D) intellectual developmental disorder
Q3) The most common form of intellectual developmental disorder is ______ and the second most common form is ______.
A) Klinefelter's syndrome, Turner's syndrome
B) Down syndrome, Klinefelter's syndrome
C) fragile X syndrome, Down syndrome
D) Down syndrome, Fragile X syndrome
Q4) Scientists have found no consistent link between vaccinations such as the MMR vaccine and autism.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Engaging in stimulating cognitive activities-solving puzzles, reading newspapers, playing word games, etc.-does not help boost cognitive performance in people with mild to moderate AD.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Early age of onset of Alzheimer's disease is associated with ______ cognitive function and a ______ severe form of the disease.
A) poorer, less
B) poorer, more
C) better, less
D) better, more
Q3) A person who inherits the defective gene responsible for causing Huntington's disease has a ______ percent chance of developing the disorder.
A) 25
B) 50
C) 75 D) 100
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Q1) Discuss some of the conflicts involved in requiring helping professionals to warn third parties of threats.
Q2) The state has an obligation to provide adequate treatment for people who are involuntarily confined to its psychiatric hospitals.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In 1843, Daniel M'Naghten intended to assassinate the prime minister of England, ______.
A) Benjamin Disraeli
B) Sir Robert Peel
C) Sir Randolph Churchill
D) William Gladstone
Q4) Clinicians tend to overpredict the dangerousness of their clients.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The Tarasoff ruling carries force of law nationally.
A)True
B)False
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