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Psychology of Deviance explores the psychological foundations and social contexts that contribute to behaviors considered outside societal norms. Emphasizing theories of normality and abnormality, this course examines the causes, manifestations, and consequences of deviant behavior across diverse cultures and historical periods. Students analyze biological, psychological, and environmental influences on deviance, while considering key concepts such as conformity, labeling, stigma, and the role of institutions in shaping definitions of deviance. Through case studies and current research, learners gain insight into the ways in which society responds to and manages deviant behavior, and how these responses impact personal and community well-being.
Recommended Textbook
Criminal Behavior A Psychological Approach 10th Edition by Curtis R. Bartol
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Q1) The basic premise of strain theory is that crime occurs when:
A) there is a discrepancy between the materialistic values and goals cherished in our society and the availability of legitimate means for reaching these goals.
B) a society's values are too materialistic.
C) there is not enough value placed on doing the "right thing."
D) the economically and socially disadvantaged give up on the American dream.
E) one's level of stress far outweighs one's coping mechanisms.
Answer: A
Q2) Criminology is the psychological study of crime.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Social control theory is an example of:
A) the conformity perspective.
B) the confirmation perspective.
C) Merton's strain perspective.
D) the nonconformist perspective.
E) the learning perspective.
Answer: D
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Q1) The ability to understand another's emotions is called:
A) cognitive empathy.
B) learned helplessness
C) affective empathy.
D) personal efficacy.
E) emotional sympathy.
Answer: A
Q2) It is rare for an individual to possess both affective and cognitive empathy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Poor quality preschool daycare places children at risk for:
A) poor language skills.
B) inadequate social skills.
C) poor cognitive development.
D) all of the above.
E) none of the above.
Answer: D
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Q1) Most contemporary biopsychologists believe:
A) genetic and neuropsychological variables play a part in criminal behavior.
B) genetic components are the sole causal agents of human behavior.
C) understanding the social environment is irrelevant in studying criminal behavior.
D) criminal behavior is an evolutionary throwback to an earlier stage in the evolution of man.
E) antisocial behavior is explained by somatyping.
Answer: A
Q2) Concordance rate is usually expressed in:
A) degrees.
B) ectograms.
C) pairs.
D) percentages.
E) liters.
Answer: D
Q3) What were some concerns with the high concordance rate found among monozygotic twins? Explain how at least one of these concerns can be addressed today.
Answer: NOT ANSWERED
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Q1) Milgram's famous studies on obedience to authority indicate that:
A) people pay little attention to authority figures once they become adults.
B) in general, Americans are not obedient or conforming.
C) most people are obedient to authority even if it causes pain to others.
D) children are less obedient to authority than adults.
E) adults are more obedient to authority than children.
Q2) Skinner argued that the most effective way to eliminate behavior was through extinction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The internal processes we generally refer to as thinking and remembering are called _____ by social learning theorists.
A) mnemonics
B) cognitive processes
C) mental processes
D) socialization practices
E) pneumococcal memories
Q4) Summarize Sutherland's differential association theory.
Q5) Describe Zimbardo's prison experimen
Q6) What is "frustration-induced criminality?" Provide an illustration. Page 6
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Q1) If you were a TV producer and wanted an argument to support your position of the value of violence on television, you would probably rely on which of the following theoretical positions?
A) Psychoanalytic or psychodynamic.
B) Social learning.
C) Frustration-aggression.
D) Behaviorism.
E) Modeling.
Q2) Bullying is an example of reactive aggression.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain the difference between road rage and aggressive driving.
Q4) Most forms of "white collar" crime would fall into which of the following categories of aggressive behavior?
A) Instrumental
B) Hostile
C) Passive-aggressive
D) Functional
E) Ambivalent
Q5) Discuss the difficulties in adequately defining aggression.
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Q1) Research suggests that serious juvenile offenders:
A) demonstrate poor social skills.
B) have relatively low recidivism rates.
C) have are highly motivated to change their behavior.
D) specialize in one offense throughout their delinquent careers.
E) are destined to become violent offenders in later years.
Q2) Discuss what we know about the differences (if any) between girls delinquency and boys delinquency. What does research show about the gender difference in status offenses.
Q3) Compare and contrast Moffitt's Developmental Theory with Patterson's Coercion Theory.
Q4) We know far too little about girls' crime, the reasons it is committed, and the social and developmental factors that precipitate it.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the characteristics of Multisystemic therapy. Summarize the research findings about the program's success.
Q6) Summarize the five characteristics of successful treatment programs.
Q7) Briefly describe the three categories of prevention and give an example of each.
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Q1) Recent research using factor analysis on the behavioral characteristics suggests that there appear(s) to be _____ that adequately describe(s) the behavioral dimensions of psychopaths.
A) only two factors
B) three or more factors
C) hundreds of factors
D) two or three factors
E) one central factor
Q2) Psychopathy Screening Device or the PSD is one of the measures specifically designed to identify youths with psychopathic characteristics.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Those psychopaths who commit antisocial or violent acts because of severe emotional problems or inner conflicts are referred to as:
A) primary psychopaths.
B) mentally disordered psychopaths.
C) secondary psychopaths.
D) psychotic psychopaths.
E) disassociative psychopaths.
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Q1) The insanity defense is used in approximately what percent of felony criminal offenses in the United States?
A) About 1%
B) 5% to 10%
C) 11% to 15%
D) About 20%
E) Between 20% and 27%
Q2) The most common result of a PTSD defense has been one of:
A) diminished responsibility.
B) guilty, but mentally ill.
C) not guilty by reason of insanity.
D) incompetent to stand trial.
E) guilty
Q3) Ken Bianchi, the Hillside Strangler, was diagnosed as a psychopath.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The use of amnesia as a defense has been largely unsuccessful in the United States.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Discuss the relationship between guns and crime. Describe how the weapons effect may impact gang violence and neighborhood crime.
Q2) Males are more likely than female to perpetrate which act of family violence?
A) Munchausen Syndrome by proxy
B) Neonaticide
C) Elderly abuse
D) Filicide
E) Shaken baby syndrome
Q3) Neonaticide refers to the killing of:
A) an infant.
B) a child older than 24 hours.
C) a child within the first 24 hours after birth.
D) a child by the mother.
E) a fetus.
Q4) As a clinical diagnosis, Battered Woman Syndrome is thought to be a form of:
A) clinical depression.
B) paranoid disorder, undifferentiated type.
C) post-traumatic stress disorder.
D) bipolar disorder.
E) personality disorder.

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Q1) Jenkins' 1988 study of serial killers in England found that:
A) serial killers had a long history of violent offenses before caught.
B) serial killers began killing at a late age.
C) serial killers had extensive juvenile records.
D) many were divorced.
E) the majority were former police officers.
Q2) Discuss the usefulness of organized, disorganized, and mixed crime scene classification.
Q3) Which of the following is not one of Holmes and DeBurger's (1988) classifications of serial murderers?
A) Classic
B) Visionary
C) Power oriented
D) Hedonistic
E) Mission-oriented
Q4) Serial murder by children or adolescents is an exceedingly are event.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
Q5) Discuss how the negative effects of bullying could be mitigated.
Q6) Explain why the case of Jack the Ripper is relevant to criminal profiling.
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Q1) According to research by Borum and Gelles (2005), which of the following is not a characteristic of al-Qaeda today?
A) Strategically adaptive
B) Far reaching
C) Evolving
D) Fanatical
E) Organized
Q2) Al-Qaeda would be considered a cohesive group with loyal members.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An individual who joins a terror group to lash out against dire circumstances is displaying the _____ response pattern to helplessness.
A) reproach
B) attack
C) avoidance
D) reactive depression
E) last-resort
Q4) What is cognitive restructuring and how does it relate to both perpetrators and victims of terrorism?
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Q1) Research by Scully and Marolla found that most "admitters":
A) saw themselves as nice guys.
B) blamed an unhappy childhood for their behavior.
C) saw themselves as bad guys.
D) saw nothing wrong in their rape behavior.
E) blamed the woman for the attack.
Q2) Most adolescent sex offenders have a diagnosed mental disorder. A)True B)False
Q3) Explain the Knight and Knight-Sims three-path model.
Q4) Rape is widely believed to be the most underreported crime. A)True B)False
Q5) Discuss the reasons some criminologists are concerned that sex offender registries may be unwise public policy. What is your opinion of sex offender registries?
Q6) Describe the steps law enforcement agencies have taken to ease a rape victim's ordeal when dealing with the criminal justice system?
Q7) Discuss what we know about the relationship between pornography and sexual assault
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Q1) Research on the victims of pedophilia indicates that:
A) sexual abuse produces long-term psychological problems in many children.
B) most victims recover quickly without any long-lasting effects.
C) boys recover quickly without psychological effects, but girls show long-lasting effects.
D) "mild" abuse does not generate any long-lasting effects.
E) victims who are groomed beforehand recover quicker, both physically and psychologically.
Q2) Most individuals diagnosed with pedophilia commit myriad crimes against children. A)True
B)False
Q3) Discussed the child offender patterns and classification system identified by the Massachusetts Treatment Center (MTC).
Q4) Fetishism is not a criminal offense.
A)True B)False
Q5) Identify some of the notable characteristics of male juvenile sex offenders and their victims.
Page 17
Q6) Briefly describe the Groth classification model of child molesters.
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Q1) Medicare fraud committed by a physician would be considered _____ occupational crime under Green's categories.
A) medical
B) professional
C) individual
D) physician-assisted
E) state-authority
Q2) Describe the process burglars use to select their targets.
Q3) Shoplifting is an underreported crime.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Softlifting is defined as:
A) the stealing of items worth less than fifty dollars.
B) the illegal duplication of copyrighted software.
C) shoplifting when someone else orders the crime.
D) legal piracy.
E) commercial shoplifting.
Q5) White-collar crime can be explained by neutralization techniques.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) .Which of the following is not one of the FBI's categories of hostage takers?
A) Prisoners
B) Criminals
C) Politicals
D) Terrorists
E) Mentally Disordered
Q2) The backgrounds of persistent firesetters reveal that they were often:
A) the target of punishment where fire was used as the painful stimulus.
B) from families with alcoholic parents.
C) sexually abused.
D) from broken homes.
E) the youngest child in the family.
Q3) The FBI's Uniform Crime Reports considers arson a violent crime.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare and contrast cyberstalking and cyberbullying. How do both of these crimes differ from bullying and stalking?
Q5) Cyberbullying is not considered a form of cybercrime.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Discuss the issues involved in addressing illegal drug use as a health problem. What are the implications for prisons and jails?
Q2) At high doses of more than 4 ounces, alcohol acts as a:
A) depressant.
B) stimulant.
C) motivator.
D) hallucinogen.
E) narcotic.
Q3) Heroin is usually classified as a:
A) semi-synthetic narcotic.
B) synthetic narcotic.
C) pseudo-narcotic.
D) polymorphous substance.
E) natural narcotic.
Q4) Summarize and discuss the six main conclusions researchers have reached in recent years regarding the relationship between drugs and crime.
Q5) Define and explain drug tolerance and dependence.
Q6) Discuss the relationship between alcohol and crime.
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