Psychology of Aging Textbook Exam Questions - 2063 Verified Questions

Page 1


Course Introduction

Psychology of Aging

Textbook Exam Questions

Psychology of Aging explores the psychological processes associated with aging, examining how cognitive, emotional, and social changes occur throughout adulthood and into old age. The course addresses topics such as memory and intelligence in later life, personality stability and change, mental health, coping strategies, and the influence of societal attitudes towards aging. Students will analyze theories of aging, review current research findings, and discuss the practical implications for individuals, families, and society, with a focus on promoting well-being and adaptive aging across diverse populations.

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Essentials of Life Span Development 1st Edition by John W. Santrock

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction

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Q1) Paul Baltes claimed that nonnormative life events could provide an important context for life-span development.With this concept,the term "nonnormative" refers to an event that

A) is not likely to happen to very many people.

B) happens to younger children but not to older adults.

C) used to happen to everyone but no longer occurs very much today.

D) happens to almost everyone regardless of when or where they live.

Answer: A

Q2) The stage of industry versus inferiority in Erik Erikson's developmental theory occurs approximately during which period?

A) preschool

B) elementary school

C) junior high school

D) high school

Answer: B

Q3) The developmental period from birth to about 2 years.

Answer: infancy

Q4) A setting in which development occurs,such as a school or neighborhood. Answer: context

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Chapter 2: Biological Beginnings

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Q1) Sandra excels in reading and spelling but struggles with mathematics.She is shorter than her peers and was born without ovaries.Sandra most likely has

A) Turner syndrome.

B) Fragile X syndrome.

C) Klinefelter syndrome.

D) XXO syndrome.

Answer: A

Q2) List the three ways in which behavior geneticists believe heredity and environment interact,and describe/define the nature of these interactions.

Answer: Passive genotype-environment: parents who are genetically related to the child provide a particular rearing environment for the child Evocative genotype-environment: a child's genotype elicits certain types of physical and social environments Active (niche-picking)genotype-environment: children seek out environments they find compatible or stimulating

Q3) A kind of drug used to stimulate contractions.Pitocin is an example.

Answer: oxytocics

Q4) List four of the five health signs evaluated by the Apgar scale. Answer: heart rate,respiratory effort,muscle tone,body color,reflex irritability

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Prenatal Development and Birth

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Q1) This person has been described as "America's best-known pediatrician." He/she takes a family-centered approach to child development issues and communicates with parents in easy-to-understand ways.He/she founded the Child Development Unit at Boston Children's Hospital and created a widely used measure of a newborn's health and well being shortly after birth.

Answer: T.Berry Brazelton

Q2) Noam Chomsky believes that humans are biologically prewired to learn language and are born with an endowment that enables them to detect the rules of language.This endowment is called the

A) language acquisition device.

B) biological language center.

C) primary language center.

D) biological language device.

Answer: A

Q3) The __________ has the most prolonged development of any region of the brain.

A) prefrontal cortex of the frontal lobe

B) visual cortex of the occipital lobe

C) primary sensory cortex of the parietal lobe

D) auditory cortex of the temporal lobe

Answer: A

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Chapter 4: Physical Development and Health

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Q1) Daniel and Guadalupe are angry with one another because of differences in their spending habits.Guadalupe snaps at their daughter and sends her to her room even though the little girl is not misbehaving.According to Jay Belsky's description of family interactions,this situation is an example of

A) a direct influence of the parent on the child.

B) a direct influence of the marital relationship on the child.

C) an indirect influence of the marital relationship on the child.

D) an indirect influence of child development on the marital relationship.

Q2) The Strange Situation is an observational measure of infant attachment developed by Mary Ainsworth.It requires the infant to

A) crawl through a dark tunnel with his or her mother and a stranger waiting on the other side.

B) experience a series of introductions,separations,and reunions with the mother and a stranger.

C) experience loud noises in a room when placed in a room with only an adult stranger present.

D) choose between his or her mother and his or her father while experiencing a strange situation.

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Chapter 5: Motor,Sensory,and Perceptual Development

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Q1) Gross motor skills are to fine motor skills as ________ is to ________.

A) jumping; running

B) running; jumping

C) hopping; writing

D) writing; hopping

Q2) When teachers adjust their level of support and guidance to the level of skill of the student,it is called

A) modeling.

B) assimilating.

C) scaffolding.

D) zone of proximal development (ZPD).

Q3) List at least three ways that Lev Vygotsky's theory can be (and has been)successfully applied to education.

Q4) Define egocentrism.

Q5) Which child will find the task of arranging objects in a precise pattern on a table most challenging?

A) a 3-year-old

B) a 4-year-old

C) a 5-year-old

D) a 6-year-old

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Chapter 6: Cognitive Developmental Approaches

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Q1) Children between the ages of 4 and 12 usually prefer to play in groups that are made up of

A) mixed ages.

B) the same sex.

C) boys and girls.

D) children with their own level of social competence.

Q2) How does maternal employment outside of the home affect children?

A) Children are not properly socialized for the adult roles they will occupy.

B) Children are not able to develop a secure attachment to their parents.

C) Children tend to perform poorly academically.

D) None of these

Q3) Which of the following parenting styles has low demands and high responsiveness?

A) authoritarian

B) authoritative

C) indulgent

D) neglectful

Q4) A kind of parenting style in which parents are uninvolved in their children's life.They are neither warm nor controlling.

Q5) This theorist stated that the psychological stage of childhood was "initiative versus guilt."

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Chapter 7: Information Processing

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Q1) In contrast to the study of information processing,the study of intelligence is more likely to involve the concept of

A) language.

B) individual differences.

C) problem-solving skills.

D) cognitive processes.

Q2) The cognitive ability to order stimuli along a quantitative dimension.

Q3) Knowing about knowing.

Q4) A way of teaching children how to read that is based on the idea that instruction should parallel children's natural language learning.

Q5) A kind of mental retardation that is caused by a genetic disorder or brain damage.

Q6) Amber is given a Stanford-Binet intelligence test.Her mental age is determined to be 12.8 and her chronological age is 11.0.Which of the following can be said about Amber?

A) Her IQ score is 86.

B) Her IQ score is about average.

C) Her IQ score is below that of the majority of the population.

D) Her IQ score is above that of the majority of the population.

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Intelligence

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Q1) All of the following are effective ways to improve relationships among ethnically diverse students,EXCEPT

A) reducing bias.

B) being a competent cultural mentor.

C) segregating the classroom into groups.

D) placing students in cooperative group projects.

Q2) Children who are bullied have increased feelings of A) loneliness.

B) difficulty making friends.

C) depression.

D) all of these

Q3) Identify at least three criticisms of Lawrence Kohlberg's theory of moral development.

Q4) List the five peer statuses in middle childhood.

Q5) The SIXTH STAGE,at the end of the THIRD LEVEL,of Lawrence Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning.According to Kohlberg,this is the highest stage of moral development and is characterized by the individual developing a moral standard based on universal human rights.

Q6) This theorist formulated a well-known theory of moral development based on the work of Jean Piaget.

Page 10

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Chapter 9: Language Development

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Q1) Who is most likely to suffer from an eating disorder,and what characterizes the eating disorder anorexia nervosa? What characterizes the eating disorder bulimia nervosa?

Q2) In a recent (2006)study of 9th to 12th graders,approximately ________ reported that they had been sexually active in the previous 3 months.

A) one-third

B) two-thirds

C) one-half

D) three-fourth

Q3) Cross-cultural comparisons suggest that ________ has the highest adolescent pregnancy rates in the industrialized world.

A) Canada

B) Japan

C) Netherlands

D) United States

Q4) Discuss two aspects of adolescent egocentrism.

Q5) In 2003,this researcher suggested that adolescents have difficulty controlling their emotions,because their prefrontal cortex has not yet fully developed.

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Chapter 10: Emotional Development

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Q1) What distinguishes the locations where rites of passage are prevalent?

A) strong distinctions between age groups

B) resistance to Western culture

C) rigid social structure

D) low access to formal education

Q2) The relationship between self-esteem and crowd membership is:

A) unidirectional

B) bidirectional

C) causative

D) nonexistent

Q3) The difference between a clique and a crowd is:

A) the amount of time spent together.

B) the interests shared.

C) the size of the group.

D) the amount of proximity.

Q4) An adolescent who breaks the law or engages in behavior that is considered illegal.

Q5) List four possible causes of juvenile delinquency.

Q6) Explain Erik Erikson's fifth stage of psychosocial development.

Q7) This identity status is characterized by high commitment but no crisis.

Page 12

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Chapter 11: The Self and Identity

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Q1) Before Gisela has sex with her boyfriend,she asks if he has tested positive for HIV and also requires that he use a condom.Given what we know about HIV and the sexual behavior and attitudes of most adults,we can say that Gisela's practice is:

A) safe.

B) not safe,because condoms do not provide protection from HIV.

C) not completely safe,because condoms can fail and men often lie to have sex.

D) not safe,because she could still contract HIV from casual contact with her boyfriend before sex.

Q2) The only necessary criterion for sexual harassment is:

A) inappropriate physical contact.

B) inappropriate sexual remarks.

C) blatant propositions or assaults.

D) a victim's sense of exploitation.

Q3) What is the best way to lose weight and keep it off?

Q4) List four ways to protect yourself from AIDS.

Q5) A person who is sexually attracted to people of both sexes.

Q6) Forcible sexual intercourse with a person who does not give consent.

Q7) List at least four hazards of binge drinking among college students.

Q8) Explain the postformal stage of thought.

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Chapter 12: Gender

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Q1) A research team is conducting a longitudinal assessment of personality development,measuring each individual's personality traits at ages 5,10,15,20,25,and 40 years.Which of the following would MOST likely be found in this study?

A) The closer the ages of assessment,the greater the difference in personality.

B) The closer the ages of assessment,the more continuous development appears to be.

C) The farther apart the ages of assessment,the greater the similarity in personality.

D) The farther apart the ages of assessment,the more continuous development appears to be.

Q2) If American men and women are going to get married at some point in their life,the average age for a first marriage as of 2005 was:

A) 30 for men,29 for women

B) 37 for men,36 for women

C) 27 for men,26 for women

D) 25 for men,24 for women

Q3) List and briefly describe the two dimensions that are used to classify adult attachments with romantic partners.

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Page 14

Chapter 13: Moral Development

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Q1) During middle age,the visual system begins to change.Which of the following is NOT one of those changes?

A) Accommodation ability of the eye diminishes.

B) The size of the retinal blind spot diminishes.

C) More illumination is required for visual work.

D) The blood supply to the retina is reduced.

Q2) Forty-five-year-old Angie loves going to the symphony,but she has been complaining that lately the quality of the symphony is not as good as it was a few years ago.Angie may be experiencing the middle-age decline in her:

A) sensitivity to low-pitched sounds.

B) hearing attention span.

C) sensitivity to high-pitched sounds.

D) sensitivity to middle-pitched sounds.

Q3) Which of the following skills is NOT adaptive in middle age?

A) maintaining a healthy lifestyle

B) coping effectively with stress

C) keeping anger toned down

D) using leisure sparingly

Q4) Identify three of the physical changes that take place during middle adulthood.

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Chapter 14: Families

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Q1) According to Costa and McCrae's study on adult personality development,in middle adulthood,_________INCREASES.

A) agreeableness

B) openness to experience

C) neuroticism

D) interdependence relationship style

Q2) The main difference between couples who divorce earlier in life and those who divorce later in life lies in their:

A) level of emotional intensity.

B) level of interdependence on each other.

C) level of sexual intimacy.

D) ability to cope successfully with stress.

Q3) Daniel Levinson's theory of adult development can be criticized because it:

A) was based on interviews with men only.

B) was not based on the lives of real people.

C) focused too much on the lives of young adults who were more idealistic.

D) was based only on the lives of important historical figures rather than on living people.

Q4) Define social clock.

Q5) Describe the empty nest syndrome.

Page 16

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Chapter 15: Peers

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Q1) The cellular clock and free-radical theories of aging both focus on aging as a result of:

A) hormonal change.

B) decline of tissue regeneration.

C) cellular change.

D) lower resistance to disease.

Q2) The transitional state between the cognitive changes of normal aging and very early Alzheimer disease and other dementias is called:

A) confusion.

B) mild cognitive impairment.

C) attention deficit disorder.

D) neurosis.

Q3) List two biological factors that may account for the finding that women live longer than do men.

Q4) After about age 60,individuals:

A) lose weight and get shorter.

B) gain weight and get shorter.

C) lose weight and remain the same in height.

D) remain the same in height and lose weight.

Q5) Describe the concept of working memory.

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Chapter 16: Schools and Achievement

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Q1) What percentage of elderly Latinas who live alone live in poverty?

A) 30

B) 40

C) 50

D) 60

Q2) Mr.Widaman-Gibbs is interviewed on his 100th birthday,and a reporter asks,"How do you want to be remembered?" Mr.Widaman-Gibbs reflects for a moment and responds,"I want to be remembered by the traditions I have left behind in my family; my legacy is not who I was but who my children and grandchildren are." Erik Erikson would classify this response as indicating Mr.Widaman-Gibbs's sense of:

A) identity.

B) intimacy.

C) integrity.

D) autonomy.

Q3) Which theory holds the most positive view of the abilities of elderly adults?

A) activity

B) disengagement

C) social reconstruction

D) selective optimization with compensation

Q4) Describe the selective optimization with compensation model.

Page 18

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Chapter 17: Culture and Diversity

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Q1) The stage of death during which a person may wish to be alone is:

A) anger.

B) denial.

C) bargaining.

D) acceptance.

Q2) Approximately __________ of survivors experience normal or uncomplicated grief reactions.

A) 80 to 90%

B) 70 to 80%

C) 60 to 70%

D) 50 to 60%

Q3) Mieka was in a major car accident and,as a result,cannot live without being hooked up to a respirator.After several months,Mieka's parents decided to have the respirator turned off,and Mieka died two days later.This is an example of:

A) uninformed euthanasia.

B) informed euthanasia.

C) active euthanasia.

D) passive euthanasia.

Q4) Define euthanasia.Name and describe the two types of euthanasia.

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