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Psychology for the Social Sciences introduces students to fundamental psychological concepts, theories, and research methods, focusing on their application to social science disciplines such as sociology, anthropology, economics, and political science. The course explores how cognitive, emotional, and behavioral processes influence individual and group behavior within diverse social contexts. Topics include perception, motivation, learning, personality, socialization, group dynamics, attitude formation and change, and psychological aspects of social issues. Emphasis is placed on fostering critical thinking, understanding the interplay between individual psychology and societal structures, and applying psychological insights to address real-world social challenges.
Recommended Textbook
Psychology Modules for Active Learning 13th Edition by Dennis Coon
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Q1) Your textbook authors recommend using a reflective note-taking strategy known as the _______ method.
A)SQ4R
B)EMDR
C)NASP
D)LISAN
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following allow(s)such functionality as having the text read aloud to you as well as synchronizing your notes with your personal Evernote account?
A)PsycPORT
B)MindApps
C)PsycINFO
D)StudyTechApps
Answer: B
Q3) The S in the SQ4R method stands for sequential thinking.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) When using websites for information on psychological topics,which of the following sources would be considered authoritative?
A)Wikipedia
B)personal blogs
C)the American Psychological Association
D)all of these
Answer: C
Q2) Which type of processing is appropriate for entertainment but does not work well if your goal is to learn course material?
A)Contextual processing
B)Elaborative processing
C)Experiential processing
D)Reflective processing
Answer: C
Q3) The I in the LISAN method stands for identify.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Which of the following is a form of critical thinking based on a careful collection of evidence,accurate descriptions and measurements,precise definitions,controlled observations,and repeatable results?
A)intuitive analysis
B)the introspective method
C)the scientific method
D)theoretical projection
Answer: C
Q2) Pseudopsychologies are types of unfounded beliefs held without evidence or in the face of falsifying evidence. These unfounded beliefs are referred to as
A)superstitions.
B)empirical evidence.
C)intersubjective data.
D)deductions.
Answer: A
Q3) An empirical investigation structured to answer questions about the world in a systematic and intersubjective fashion is known as a(n) ______.
Answer: scientific observation
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Q1) Which of the following is the idea that all behavior has prior causes that would completely explain one's choices and actions if all such causes were known?
A)humanism
B)natural selection
C)cultural relativity
D)determinism
Q2) Cambria is a psychologist who is conducting research regarding which marketing methods and which types of packaging were the most successful in selling her company's products to college students.Cambria is most likely a(n) ______ psychologist.
A)community
B)environmental
C)consumer
D)comparative
Q3) Humanistic theories emphasize
A)internal motives,conflicts,and unconscious forces.
B)free will and self-determination.
C)that stimulus and response connections determine behavior.
D)the use of rewards and punishments to shape behavior.
Q4) William James was the founder of the school of thought known as ______.
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Q1) Random assignment of subjects to groups in an experiment is used to reduce the effects of
A)the independent variable.
B)the dependent variable.
C)experimenter bias.
D)extraneous variables.
Q2) The use of chance,such as flipping a coin,to assign subjects to the experimental and control groups is called
Q3) Sometimes in a drug study,the experimental group given the actual drug and the control group given the inactive substance both initially show improvement.This is due to A)the Barnum effect.
B)the placebo effect.
C)a biased sample.
D)a random assignment of subjects.
Q4) In an experiment on the effects of sleep deprivation on eyehand coordination,the participants' scores on the eyehand coordination test would be the ______ variable.
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Q1) An advantage of the case study method is that it
A)provides identification of clear cause-and-effect relationships.
B)allows information about large numbers of people to be gathered.
C)allows prediction.
D)allows investigation of rare or unusual problems or events.
Q2) A teacher asks the school psychologist to observe her class through the two-way mirror and determine why the class disruptions are occurring.Just as the psychologist is walking into the room off to the side of the classroom to observe,the teacher assistant tells the psychologist,"Pay close attention to Claire and Robert over there by the maps.I think they are the real troublemakers in the class." After this encounter,the school psychologist will have to struggle with the
A)observer effect.
B)observer bias.
C)placebo effect.
D)anthropomorphic error.
Q3) A correlation coefficient of -.87 indicates a very weak relationship between the two events.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) If students who complete a study skills course raised their grade point averages,can we conclude that the course caused their improvement?
A)Yes,because the scientific data was collected.
B)Yes,because a negative correlation exists between these students' grade point averages before and after taking the course.
C)Yes,because the course resulted in a self-fulfilling prophecy.
D)No,because there was no control group.
Q2) Inferences,interpretations,and opinions,including the opinions of experts,have no value in science or critical thinking.
A)True
B)False
Q3) On a daytime talk show,a television actress relates how she cured all three of her children's hyperactivity by using a special diet and exercise regime.She explains that interested parents can buy her book detailing this "cure" online starting today.As a critical thinker,evaluate this actress' claim of curing her children's hyperactivity.
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Q1) The capacity of our brains to change in response to experience is referred to as
Q2) A neuron is made up of dendrites,a soma,and a(n) A)axon.
B)synapse.
C)diaton. D)peptide.
Q3) A barefoot child steps on a bee,then jerks his or her foot back in response to the sting.This response has likely involved all parts of the nervous system EXCEPT the brain. A)True B)False
Q4) After a nerve impulse occurs,the neuron is temporarily less likely to fire because A)the cell is still above its resting level.
B)potassium ions flow out of the neuron while the membrane gates are open.
C)acetylcholine acts as an inhibitor.
D)a positive after-potential has occurred.
Q5) A nerve cell carrying information from your eyes,ears,fingers,etc.toward the central nervous system is called a(n)__________neuron.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Scientists destroyed a tiny area of a cat's limbic system by inserting a tiny electrode into this target area and then passing an electric current through the electrode.The technique used is known as A)ESB.
B)neural induction.
C)deep lesioning.
D)FMRI.
Q2) Describe how Daniel Langleben is using a brain scanning technique to detect lying.
Q3) The use of an electrode to stimulate small areas of the brain beneath the surface is called A)ESB.
B)deep lesioning.
C)fMRI. D)electroencephalography.
Q4) The research strategy of linking specific structures in the brain with specific psychological or behavioral functions is known as neurocortical induction. A)True
B)False
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Q1) After having a stroke,Rich can speak and understand what has been said to him,but he now has great difficulty understanding the context in which something is said.Rich also misunderstands sarcasm and jokes.Rich has most likely suffered a stroke to A)the left hemisphere.
B)the right hemisphere.
C)Broca's area.
D)Wernicke's area.
Q2) When the speech therapist shows Jess a spoon,he calls it a "cup." The stroke most likely damaged which part of Jess' brain?
A)amygdala
B)Broca's area
C)Wernicke's area
D)hypothalamus
Q3) The "splitbrain" operation involves cutting the connections within the midbrain in order to control severe spatial neglect.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a correct match between endocrine gland and hormone?
A)pineal gland--------norepinephrine
B)pancreas-----------insulin
C)ovaries-------------estrogen
D)testes---------------testosterone
Q2) A detective is shot and suffers brain damage.He is unable to store new memories,so he must relearn information each day from photographs and notes as he tries to find the criminal who shot him.The part of his brain that was most likely damaged was the A)hypothalamus.
B)hippocampus.
C)somatosensory cortex.
D)amygdala.
Q3) All of the following are problems associated with the pituitary gland,EXCEPT for A)acromegaly.
B)virilism.
C)dwarfism.
D)giantism.
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Q1) The only sure way to check brain dominance is to perform a medical test that involves
A)deep lesioning within each hemisphere.
B)assessing one cerebral hemisphere at a time.
C)spatial ablation.
D)karotyping and DNA analysis for lateralization.
Q2) Regarding handedness,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Prenatal hand preferences persist for at least ten years after birth.
B)Handedness appears to be influenced by a single gene on the Y chromosome.
C)Forcing a left-handed child to use the right hand may create speech or reading problems.
D)Two left-handed parents are more likely to have a left-handed child than two right-handed parents are.
Q3) A combination of preference for using hand,foot,eye,and ear is referred to as A)sidedness.
B)neuroplasticity.
C)hemispherization.
D)preferential lateralization.
Q4) The risk for developing more immune-related diseases is highest in individuals with _______ handedness.
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Q1) Forty percent of all newborns are classified as easy children,ten percent are classified as difficult,and about 15 percent are classified as slow-to-warm-up.How are the remaining 35 percent classified?
A)restrained-unexpressive
B)intensely shy or intensely moody
C)moderately easy
D)as not fitting into a single category
Q2) Josh is a difficult baby who cries and is hard to console,which makes his parents unhappy and elicits negative parenting.This,in turn,causes Josh to cry more frequently.This illustrates
A)reciprocal influences.
B)genetic predispositions.
C)a parental behavior that would occur even if Josh had an easy temperament. D)all of these.
Q3) Developmental psychology is the study of
A)the language,personality,and emotions of children and adolescents.
B)the stages of life and the important tasks of each.
C)progressive changes in behavior and abilities from conception to death.
D)the role of maturation in the unfolding of human potential.
Q4) Substances capable of causing birth defects are known as _______.
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Q1) Research studies suggest that anger is the only emotion that newborn infants clearly express.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A baby's emotional needs for love and trust are every bit as important as obvious needs for food,water,and physical care.These emotional needs of the infant are known as _______ needs.
Q3) Lee Ann is visibly upset when her mother leaves the room.When her mother returns after a few minutes of absence,Lee Ann rushes to greet her mother and hugs her mother's legs.According to Mary Ainsworth's research,Lee Ann is exhibiting which type of attachment?
A)securely attached
B)insecure-avoidant
C)insecure-ambivalent
D)disorganized-disoriented
Q4) According to Carroll Izard,emotions are "hardwired" by heredity and related to evolution.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Unlike Piaget,psychologists currently believe that children can understand that other people's mental states differ from their own at young what age?
A)two
B)four
C)seven
D)11
Q2) When people modify their existing mental patterns to fit new requirements,they are exhibiting
A)assimilation.
B)accommodation.
C)egocentrism.
D)conservation.
Q3) According to Chomsky,humans develop language because they have a A)perceptual set.
B)telegraphic readiness.
C)learning set.
D)biological predisposition.
Q4) According to Piaget,when a person uses existing mental patterns in new situations,this person is using the process of __________.
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Q1) Jorge does not cheat on tests or copy other students' work because he does not want to be suspended from school and receive a zero on his test or other schoolwork.If Jorge uses this type of moral reasoning in most situations,one could say that Jorge is exhibiting which level of moral development?
A)preconventional
B)conventional
C)postconventional
D)postformal
Q2) Emily is a middle-aged woman who lives alone.Her income is secure and her life is comfortable.Still,she seems unhappy and without direction,possibly because she lacks A)autonomy.
B)disengagement.
C)generativity.
D)a sense of identity.
Q3) The life stage known as adolescence is
A)a biologically defined event that begins at puberty.
B)a culturally-defined period between childhood and adulthood.
C)a stage of biological stability but social upheaval.
D)recognized as the time between 13 and 18 in all cultures.
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Q1) According to your textbook,the finding that more educated people tend to be a little happier than the less educated appears to occur because higher education generally results in
A)better health and a longer life.
B)more hobbies and leisure time.
C)higher income and more social status.
D)more personal accomplishments and a diversity of interests.
Q2) People who win lotteries are often less happy than they were before winning. A)True B)False
Q3) Research shows that people tend to be happy if they are making progress toward their personal _____.
Q4) Explain how and why each of the following factors influences one's happiness: (a)life events; (b)income,including the effects of "instant riches"; (c)education; (d)marital status; (e)religion; (f)age; (g)gender;and (h)work.
Q5) Less educated people tend to be a little happier than the people who are more educated.
A)True B)False
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Q1) In order to artificially restore sight,researchers have used a miniature television camera to send electrical signals directly to the brain,bypassing damaged eyes and optic nerves.This system involved the use of sensory
A)adaptation.
B)localization.
C)gating.
D)assimilation.
Q2) In their experiments on the brain and perceptual features,Blakemore,Cooper,Grobstein,and Chow found that the kittens raised in the horizontally-striped rooms
A)bumped into chair legs.
B)missed when they tried to jump to horizontal surfaces.
C)had difficulty walking in a straight line.
D)experienced no difficulty in any visual task since the eyes easily adapt.
Q3) Which of the following involves the process of extracting perceptual features from stimulus patterns?
A)sensory analysis.
B)sensory adaptation.
C)perceptual gating.
D)perceptual localization.
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Q1) If your eyeball is too long,the resulting condition is called
A)farsightedness.
B)presbyopia.
C)astigmatism.
D)nearsightedness.
Q2) Which receptor cells produce color sensations and fine details,work best in bright light,and lie mainly at the center of the eye?
A)phosphenes
B)rods
C)cones
D)stereocilia
Q3) Red-green color blind individuals do not have a severe difficulty with traffic lights because
A)the red light is always on top and the green light is brighter than the red.
B)the "red" traffic signals have blue light mixed in with the red.
C)the "green" light is really yellowgreen.
D)all of these are utilized.
Q4) The "hole" in the retina where the optic nerve leaves the eye forms an area known as the _____.
Q5) The most common test for color blindness or color weakness is the _____ test.
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Q1) Jessie has a nagging backache after a day spent raking leaves.This nagging pain
A)involves the body's reminding system for pain.
B)is carried by small nerve fibers.
C)may cause agony long after this injury has healed.
D)involves all of these characteristics.
Q2) Frequency is to pitch as amplitude is to A)compression.
B)rarefaction.
C)tone.
D)loudness.
Q3) Regarding the gate control theory and acupuncture,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Messages carried by large,fast nerve fibers seem to close the spinal gate directly.
B)Messages from small,slow fibers go through the pain gate and on to a "central biasing system."
C)The acupuncture needles activate the large,fast nerve fibers and close the spinal gate directly.
D)Acupuncture produces short-term pain relief for about half of the patients tested.
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Q1) You are riding on a train.As you look out the window,the farmhouses near the tracks appear to be moving backwards but the large hill in the distance with a water tower at the top appears stationary.In addition,the sun even appears to be moving in the same direction you are traveling.This phenomenon illustrates A)the linear perspective.
B)retinal disparity.
C)the motion parallax.
D)interposition.
Q2) When two images are fused into one overall image,a three-dimensional sight occurs,which is referred to as A)accommodation.
B)convergence.
C)linear perspective.
D)stereoscopic vision.
Q3) Convergence and retinal disparity are similar in that both are monocular cues.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An initial guess regarding how to organize and perceive a stimulus pattern is known as a(n) _______.
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Q1) According to psychologist Barbara Frederickson,negative emotions generally narrow our perceptual focus,increasing the likelihood of A)bottom-up processing.
B)sensory gating.
C)inattentional blindness.
D)sensory adaptation.
Q2) Creative people habituate more slowly than average.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Asking questions,seeking clarifications,and finding alternate channels of information are ways that one can actively look for additional evidence to check the accuracy of one's perceptions.This process is known as
Q4) A person will be able to recognize people of other races better if the person is in a positive mood rather than a negative mood.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe five ways that one's perceptual accuracy can be enhanced.
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Q1) Regarding modern parapsychology studies,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Modern parapsychologists still do not consider double-blind experiments and the replication of experiments to be important.
B)Modern parapsychologists have improved security and accuracy in their record keeping.
C)In the last 10 years,hundreds of experiments have been reported in parapsychological journals with many of them seeming to support the existence of psi abilities.
D)For every parapsychology study with positive results,there are many others that fail and are never published.
Q2) Modern parapsychologists are now well aware of the need to use an experimental arrangement in which the participants and the experimenters who have direct contact with the participants are unaware of whether the participants are in the experimental or control group.This experimental arrangement is known as a(n) _______ experiment.
Q3) If Danella believes that she can communicate with the spirits of the dead,she believes that she has the purported ability called _______.
Q4) Events that seem to defy accepted scientific laws are known as _______.
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Q1) While meditating,Bradley tries to achieve a total non-judgmental awareness of the world.Bradley is using _______ meditation.
Q2) Interest in hypnosis began in the 1700s when an Austrian doctor believed he could cure diseases with magnets.This Austrian doctor was _______.
Q3) What do Buddhists engaging in meditation practices,Navaho elders drinking peyote tea,and New Zealand Maori priests performing nightlong rituals to communicate with the mythical period the Aborigines call "Dreamtime" all have in common?
A)They are used as a rite of passage for the young men in each culture.
B)They are all meant to cleanse the mind and body and bring about altered awareness and personal revelation.
C)They are all considered illegal practices in most Western cultures.
D)They have all of these in common.
Q4) Researcher Herbert Benson believes that the core of meditation is the A)mantra used.
B)relaxation response.
C)basic suggestion effect.
D)disinhibiting effects of the meditation label.
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Q1) Regarding sleep patterns,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)One study showed that 28hour "days" work for some people.
B)Astronauts continue to sleep on their normal earth schedule while in space.
C)The natural sleep pattern has a ratio of two to one between time awake and time asleep.
D)Adapting to shorter-than-normal days is more promising than adapting to longer-than-normal days.
Q2) As a sleep researcher is monitoring you,he notices that your brain waves are showing almost all delta waves.He awakens you at this point,and you awaken in a complete state of confusion.You are most likely in which stage of sleep?
A)Stage 4 of NREM
B)REM sleep
C)Stage 2 of NREM
D)Stage 1 of NREM
Q3) Short bursts of brain activity in Stage 2 sleep are called _______.
Q4) Contrast the activation-synthesis hypothesis with the neurocognitive dream theory and include the names of the theorists who proposed each theory and whether or not each is supported by research.
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Q1) Which of the following are electrical devices that look and feel like cigarettes as they vaporize a smokeless mist that can mimic tobacco smoke and help a smoker to enjoy the ritual of smoking while withdrawing from nicotine?
A)E-cigarettes
B)EMDRs.
C)Lucid smokers
D)Micro-smokers
Q2) The effects of caffeine become apparent with doses as small as the amount found in about one-half cup of brewed coffee,which is _______ milligrams.
A)five
B)25
C)50
D)100
Q3) Regarding alcohol and women,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Alcohol is absorbed slower and metabolized more quickly by women's bodies.
B)Women get intoxicated from less alcohol than men do.
C)Women who drink are more prone to liver disease,osteoporosis,and depression.
D)Each extra drink per day adds seven percent to a woman's risk of breast cancer.
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Q1) According to Ernest Hartmann,the major clue to the meaning of a dream lies in the A)familiarity of the dream characters.
B)emotional tone of the dream.
C)setting of the dream.
D)actions of the dream characers.
Q2) Jana has an argument with her husband and then dreams that she accidentally backs into his motorcycle,damaging it slightly.Of Freud's four mental filters that disguise dreams,this would be an example of _______.
Q3) According to Freud,the mental filters that disguise the meanings of dreams are called
A)dream processes.
B)ego defense mechanisms.
C)fixations.
D)archetypes.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT one of the dream processes described by Freud?
A)condensation
B)illumination
C)displacement
D)symbolization

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Q1) In her developmental psychology classes,Dr.Windham utilizes problem-based learning,which involves presenting the students with open-ended real-life cases.The students must determine the important aspects of the problem and then come up with a plan of action to solve the problem using their textbook and notes.Dr.Windham is using a type of
A)instrumental learning.
B)rote learning.
C)respondent conditioning.
D)guided discovery.
Q2) Which of the following is a real world example of using feedback to change people's behaviors so that they will increase their conservation efforts?
A)providing information regarding the number of gallons of water consumed that week
B)providing cash back for recycling
C)placing an energy tax on gasoline
D)none of these
Q3) Learning is a relatively permanent change in behavior due to _______.
Q4) Classical and operant conditioning are the two types of _______ learning.
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Q1) Which of the following is a fear that persists even when no realistic danger exists?
A)compulsion
B)unconditioned reaction
C)phobia
D)neurosis
Q2) Most children quickly learn to tell the difference between the voice tones of adults that are associated with punishment from those associated with praise or affection.This learned ability is called
A)a spontaneous recovery.
B)stimulus discrimination.
C)stimulus generalization.
D)place learning.
Q3) The unconditioned stimulus,by definition,leads to a(n)
A)conditioned response.
B)conditioned stimulus.
C)unconditioned response.
D)classic response.
Q4) Explain how the classical conditioning of an eye blink came to be used as a diagnostic tool.
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Q1) As a coffee lover,you have become very efficient at carrying out the steps necessary to make a cup of espresso. Your learning is an example of A)response chaining.
B)spontaneous recovery.
C)vicarious reinforcement.
D)secondary reinforcement.
Q2) Little Cory was disruptive during the family game time,so he was sent to his room.Being sent to "time out" is an example of A)negative reinforcement.
B)aversive conditioning.
C)positive punishment.
D)response cost.
Q3) Which of the following is the tendency to make an operant response when stimuli previously associated with reward are present and to withhold the response when stimuli associated with nonreward are present?
A)latent learning.
B)response chaining.
C)operant stimulus discrimination.
D)operant stimulus generalization.

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Q1) When you get traffic tickets,you not only have to pay fines,but you also incur higher insurance rates.This loss of money due to speeding would be an example of A)response cost.
B)positive punishment.
C)negative reinforcement.
D)extinction.
Q2) The most common error in the use of punishment for training or discipline is that it is A)seldom severe enough to be effective.
B)often accompanied by no explanation.
C)relied on to the exclusion of other methods.
D)administered unfairly.
Q3) Drawbacks to punishment include all of the following EXCEPT that A)punishment may encourage aggression.
B)people and situations associated with punishment may become feared or disliked. C)punishment may encourage escape and avoidance learning.
D)punishment has not been shown to be effective in suppressing behaviors.
Q4) Describe three problems that occur as punishment increases in severity.
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Q1) In a behavioral contract,you state a specific problem behavior you want to control,or a goal you want to achieve as well as stating the rewards you will receive,privileges you will forfeit,or punishments you must accept with the contract being signed by you and a person you trust.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In setting realistic goals for gradual improvement on each successive week during behavioral self-management,it is important to remember the principle of A)extinction.
B)response cost.
C)shaping.
D)stimulus generalization.
Q3) Elaine wants to get to her classes,work,and church on time,so she keeps a tally sheet in her car with two columns labeled "On time" and "Late," and she puts a mark in each column to count the number of times she is on time and the number of times she is late.Elaine is keeping track of the frequency of her responses through _______.
Q4) A formal agreement stating behaviors to be changed and consequences that apply is known as a(n) _______.
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Q1) According to economist Jesse Shapiro,the intent of much advertising is to
A)lie to the consumer regarding their product.
B)provoke creative thinking in consumers about how this product can benefit them.
C)"jam" the consumer's memory with positive impressions of a product.
D)appeal to consumer's vanity and selfishness by "tricking the consumer into buying a product that will 'prolong' life,beauty,and youthfulness."
Q2) According to economist Jesse Shapiro,the more positive fictional commercials we see,the less likely we are to remember an actual negative experience with a product because
A)the commercial produces an indelible implicit memory that is difficult to eradicate from one's memory.
B)of the impact of peer pressure on people's attitudes.
C)the positive fictional memories of the commercial "jam," or block,our ability to remember actual negative memories when deciding whether to buy a product.
D)of cognitive dissonance and our tendency to rationalize our decisions.
Q3) Iconic and echoic memories are part of the stage of memory known as _______ memory.
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Q1) Forgetting may be due to a failure in either storage,retrieval,or
A)assimilation.
B)encoding.
C)recoding.
D)feedback.
Q2) Which area of the brain is of particular importance for memory storage because it grows new neurons and makes new connections within the brain?
A)hippocampus
B)pons
C)reticular formation
D)medulla
Q3) Normally,when you are backing a car,the steering wheel is turned in the direction you want to go,the same as when moving forward.However,when backing a trailer,you must turn the steering wheel away from the direction you want the trailer to go.This situation results in
A)latent learning.
B)negative reinforcement.
C)negative transfer.
D)avoidance conditioning.
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Q1) If you want to improve your memory,your best bet would be to
A)use herbs,such as Ginko biloba.
B)take large doses of Vitamin E.
C)use learned strategies for encoding and retrieval.
D)receive electroconvulsive shocks (ECS)to improve long-term potentiation.
Q2) According to Wilding and Valentine,individuals with exceptional memories have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT for
A)using learned memory strategies.
B)having specialized interests and knowledge that make certain information easier to encode.
C)having naturally superior memory abilities,such as vivid mental images.
D)having superior intellectual abilities or differently structured brains.
Q3) Eidetic memory is more common in childhood and becomes rare by adulthood.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A common error made by college students is
A)marking too much in their textbooks.
B)using elaborative processing.
C)overlearning.
D)looking at their errors after a test is graded.
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Q1) Mnemonic memories work best in the short run and are more fragile than conventional memories.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a mnemonic technique?
A)Making a rhyme out of the last letter of all items in a list to be recalled.
B)Using maintenance rehearsal to keep information in long-term memory.
C)Making bizarre and unusual associations.
D)Using the tip-of-the-tongue effect.
Q3) Which type of mnemonic was shown in one experiment to help people remember lists of 15 to 22 errands?
A)acrostics
B)the keyword method
C)forming a story or chain
D)taking a mental walk
Q4) In using mnemonics,words are generally easier to remember than visual pictures or images.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) If you translated "Pepsi is for the younger generation" into Spanish and the translation reads "Pepsi reverses aging," you have a problem with A)morphemes.
B)phonemes.
C)semantics.
D)grammar.
Q2) Regarding animal communication,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)In their natural habitat,apes and monkeys make only a few dozen distinct cries,which carry messages,such as "attack," "flee," or "food here."
B)Animal communication lacks the productive quality of human language.
C)No other animals besides apes and monkeys have been able to be taught to communicate with word symbols.
D)The pygmy chimpanzee named Kanzi has the vocabulary and the ability to invent a simple grammar that are equal to those abilities shown by two-year old humans.
Q3) Define cognition;differentiate between experiential processing and reflective processing;explain which type of processing planning requires;and identify and briefly describe the three basic units of thought.
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Q1) Trial-and-error thinking in which all possibilities are tried,more or less randomly is called a(n) _______ strategy.
Q2) At first amateur naturalists painfully identify the birds,butterflies,mammals,or plants they find by mechanically searching through published field guides.In time,those who persist begin to identify more and more species from memory and others based on the general properties they have learned through experience.These amateurs who base their identifications on the general properties of the species observed are using which type of problem-solving?
A)trial and error
B)rote
C)understanding
D)the use of algorithms
Q3) Regarding fixation,which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Fixation is also known as conditional thinking.
B)Fixation is a way of using insight to solve a problem.
C)Fixation is a type of mnemonic device.
D)Fixation is a barrier to problem solving.
Q4) Explain how experts,such as chess masters,differ from novices regarding how they approach problem solving.
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Q1) Regarding the practice of "thinslicing," which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)In the "thinslicing" studies,six seconds was all that participants needed to form intuitive judgments of an instuctor's teaching ability.
B)"Thinslicing" is a case of hurried irrationality that always leads to faulty reasoning.
C)"Thinslicing" involves the use of the cognitive unconscious.
D)"Thinslicing" is more valuable when you take the time to verify it through further observation.
Q2) The stage of creative thought during which problem-solving proceeds at a subconscious level is the _______ stage.
A)incubation
B)orientation
C)preparation
D)illumination
Q3) Explain what "thinslicing" is,and describe the findings of Ambady and Gladwell regarding this use of intuition,including the role of the cognitive unconscious and the limitations of "thinslicing."
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Q1) A person who has either a high IQ or has special talents or aptitudes is said to be A)mentally flexible.
B)gifted.
C)cognitively aware.
D)intuitive.
Q2) Which of the following psychologists was asked by the minister of education in Paris in 1904 to find a way to distinguish slower students from the more capable (or the capable but lazy)with the result being the modern intelligence test?
A)Jean Piaget
B)Alfred Binet
C)Maria Montessori
D)Sigmund Freud
Q3) A 10-year-old child with a mental age of 10 would have an IQ of A)110.
B)100.
C)120.
D)50.
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Q1) A problem is presented in the textbook that involves connecting nine dots arranged in a square using four continuous lines drawn without lifting the pencil.Most people are initially unable to solve this problem because they assume incorrectly that they are not allowed to extend the lines beyond the square formed by the dots.This incorrect assumption illustrates how which of the following can be major barrier to creative thinking?
A)incubation
B)divergent thinking
C)a prototype
D)a mental set
Q2) According to your textbook,which of the following questions would be the LEAST likely to lead to a creative solution?
A)What can I extract from the known information?
B)Is any part of the problem pretty or ugly or stupid or friendly?
C)What is the one best answer to this problem?
D)Is this in any way like a problem I've solved before?
Q3) Briefly describe five of the seven suggestions for promoting divergent thinking and enhancing creative problem solving.
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Q1) Regarding the basic emotions,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Basic emotions,like fear,are likely first processed by subcortical brain structures in the limbic system.
B)Basic emotions develop early in infancy,unfolding mainly because of maturation.
C)People in different cultures display different basic emotions and different facial expressions.
D)It is highly likely that we share the experience of basic emotions with other mammals.
Q2) If Margie studies her college course in order to get good grades and praise from her parents,she would be described as being intrinsically motivated.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When your body temperature is at its daily peak,you are more likely to be
A)feeling "down" emotionally.
B)less adaptable and make poorer decisions.
C)less helpful and less peaceful.
D)more creative.
Q4) The "target" of one's motivated behavior is known as a(n) _______.
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Q1) Which of the following terms refers to the changes in the sexual drives of female mammals (other than humans)that create a desire for mating?
A)estrus
B)mensis
C)hormonal readiness
D)androgyny
Q2) Regarding the human sex drive,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)The human sex drive is affected more by hormones than the sex drive of lower animals.
B)In humans,the sex drive can be aroused at virtually any time by almost anything.
C)The human sex drive is capable of motivating a wide range of behaviors.
D)The human sex drive does not show a clear relationship to deprivation,that is,the amount of time that has passed since the drive was last satisfied.
Q3) Which of the following would have the LEAST effect on feelings of hunger?
A)removing a person's stomach
B)weight dropping below the body's "set point"
C)removing the hypothalamus
D)the sugar level of the blood being low
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Q1) Lie detectors (polygraphs)can accurately tell the difference between lying and anxiety.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Vicki is taking her morning walk when a strange dog appears in her path and begins to growl at her.Vicki's heart begins to race,the hair on her arms stands on end,and her palms begin to sweat as fear envelops her.These symptoms that Vicki is experiencing are due to the reactions of which nervous system?
A)sympathetic
B)parasympathetic
C)somatic
D)central
Q3) To summarize the contemporary model of emotion,which of the following theorists showed us the importance of emotional appraisal in creating an emotion?
A)Cannon and Bard
B)James and Lange
C)Richard Lazarus
D)Paul Ekman
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Q1) People who have the ability to amplify or restrain their emotions,depending on the situation,are
A)intuitive.
B)rational-emotive.
C)emotionally intelligent.
D)divergent thinkers.
Q2) Positive emotions tend to
A)create dangerous situations.
B)broaden our focus.
C)narrow our focus.
D)make us content with the status quo.
Q3) Emotions that create an urge to play,to be creative,to explore,and to savor life are our _______ emotions.
A)unconscious
B)negative
C)positive
D)suppressed
Q4) Using strengths that we already possess,such as kindness,originality,humor,optimism,and generosity,can help us to cultivate _______.
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Q1) Jack is a boy that was born XXY with an extra X chromosome.As a result,when he matures,he may appear feminine and have undersized sexual organs.Jack has _______ syndrome.
Q2) A child with Klinefelter's syndrome
A)is considered to be genetically female.
B)has only one X chromosome and no additional X or Y chromosome.
C)will appear feminine,have undersized sexual organs,and be infertile.
D)is characterized by all of these.
Q3) Regarding secondary sexual characteristics,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Secondary sexual characteristics occur in response to hormonal signals from the pituitary gland.
B)Secondary sexual characteristics involve more superficial physical features of the body.
C)Secondary sexual characteristics appear at the time of birth.
D)Secondary sexual characteristics signal that the individual is biologically ready for reproduction.
Q4) Discuss the problems faced by male homosexuals and lesbians and the false stereotypes that have participated in many of these problems.
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Q1) Females who have been exposed to androgens before birth tend to A)have difficulty becoming pregnant.
B)become permanently masculinized.
C)be "tomboys" in childhood.
D)show an elevated interest in male-oriented activities as adults.
Q2) The process of learning gender behaviors regarded as appropriate for one's sex in a given culture is called
A)sexual scripting.
B)biological biasing.
C)gender role socialization.
D)sexual orientation.
Q3) Studies of other cultures indicate that
A)gender roles are consistent from one society to another.
B)one's innate skills have the greatest impact on the development of gender roles.
C)gender roles do not occur naturally,but rather are constructed.
D)none of these statements are true.
Q4) Discuss the biological biasing effect and how it is used to explain different thinking abilities in women and men,and discuss the evidence that contradicts this theory.
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Q1) Regarding the human sexual response and sexual compatibility,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)For satisfying lovemaking,couples should strive to reach simultaneous orgasm.
B)There is no relationship between penis size and male sexual potency.
C)About one woman in three does not experience orgasm during the first year of marriage.
D)Although individual differences exist in flaccid penis size,there tends to be much less variation in penis size during erection.
Q2) Regarding the female sexual response,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Ninety percent of all women reach orgasm when masturbating.
B)One woman in three does not experience orgasm during the first year of marriage.
C)About 40 percent of women regularly have multiple orgasms.
D)Only about 30 percent of women regularly reach orgasm through intercourse alone.
Q3) A child that shows an unusual avoidance of,or an interest in,sexual matters,increases misbehavior,is secretive,and develops sleep problems most likely has experienced child _______.
Q4) Surgical removal of the testicles or ovaries is known as _______.
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Q1) Always being pleasant and avoiding discussions of difficult topics are ways that couples can increase their intimacy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Desire disorders must be defined in relation to
A)the person's age and gender.
B)the person's expectations.
C)the person's sexual history.
D)all of these.
Q3) Which technique would most likely be used to treat female sexual interest/arousal disorder?
A)sensate focus
B)the squeeze technique
C)systematic desensitization
D)the dyspareunia method
Q4) If a person has a sexual dysfunction that is due to psychological or emotional reasons,then the cause would be considered __________.
Q5) Assuming that you know what your partner is thinking or feeling can muddle or block communication and is known as "__________."
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Q1) A system of concepts,assumptions,ideas,and principles proposed to explain people's unique and relatively stable behavior patterns is called
A)the law of inherited temperaments.
B)somatotypic guidelines.
C)a personality theory.
D)a semantic differential.
Q2) Besides the basic ten clinical subscales,the MMPI-2 also has additional scales to identify substance abuse,eating disorders,Type A behavior,and the inability to function in a job.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Virginia is insecure,anxious,lacking in confidence,and overly self-critical.Virginia is experiencing A)low self-esteem.
B)organismic valuing.
C)a congruent self.
D)all of these.
Q4) If a personality test measures consistently every time it is given,we say that the test is _______.
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Q1) Compassion was the overriding trait of Mother Theresa's personality.According to Gordon Allport,when a trait,such as Mother Theresa's compassion,is so basic and dominant that all of a person's behavior can be traced to that trait,the trait is called a _______ trait.
A)common
B)cardinal
C)source
D)primary
Q2) Trait theorists believe that we have a hereditary readiness to behave in particular ways since they think of traits as
A)miniature cardinal types.
B)biological predispositions.
C)character profiles.
D)possible selves.
Q3) Margarita's traits have been assessed using the 16 PF.The graph of her scores on this measure is called a(n)
Q4) Describe your personality using the five dimensions of the Big Five Personality Model.
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Q1) Sometimes a person may feel guilty without knowing why.Psychoanalytic theory credits such guilt to the
A)preconscious workings of the ego.
B)conscious workings of the id.
C)unconscious workings of the superego.
D)postconscious workings of the ideal self.
Q2) Regarding self-actualization,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Although Maslow tried to investigate self-actualization empirically,his choice of people for study was subjective.
B)The concept of selfactualization is very similar to Freud's concept of fixation.
C)Self-actualization is primarily a process rather than a goal or end point.
D)Maslow's primary contribution was to draw our attention to the possibility of lifelong personal growth.
Q3) To think of oneself as being a good,lovable,worthwhile person is an example of A)positive self-regard.
B)the ideal self.
C)narcissism.
D)incongruence.
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Q1) Studies have shown which of the following to be influenced by heredity?
A)intelligence and some mental disorders
B)facial features and body type
C)temperament
D)all of these
Q2) Many of the seemingly "astounding" coincidences shared by reunited twins may occur because twins tend to notice similarities and ignore the differences,which illustrates the tendency called the _______.
Q3) When parents are rejecting,punishing,sarcastic,humiliating,or neglectful,their children tend to be characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
A)being independent.
B)having impaired self-esteem.
C)being hostile.
D)being unresponsive and unstable.
Q4) According to Miller and Dollard,early feeding experiences
A)are linked to adult needs for power.
B)form a person's attitudes toward cleanliness,conformity,and bodily functions.
C)lead to the learning of gender roles.
D)help form a person's basic active or passive orientation toward the world.
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Q1) Every time Josie is in a group of people without her family,she has an intense feeling of apprehension.Josie is exhibiting
A)generalized anxiety.
B)social anxiety.
C)a manic episode.
D)hysteria.
Q2) Shyness is often triggered by all of the following EXCEPT
A)informal settings.
B)being the focus of attention.
C)being noticeably different from others.
D)meeting someone of higher status.
Q3) Shyness is linked to one's acute awareness of oneself as a social object,which is called _______ self consciousness.
Q4) Regarding shyness,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Shy persons almost always blame themselves when a social encounter does not go well.
B)Shy persons often lack social skills.
C)Shy people show a great deal of private self-consciousness.
D)Fears of rejection are more frequent or intense for shy persons.
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Q1) Stress is likely to occur whenever
A)anger or rage occurs.
B)persistent or stereotyped responding is required of an organism.
C)an organism is forced to distinguish between real and imagined barriers.
D)demands are placed on an organism to adjust or adapt.
Q2) Regarding stress and stress reactions,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)A stress reaction begins with the same autonomic nervous system arousal that occurs during emotion.
B)Stress reactions are produced by both pleasant and unpleasant events.
C)Short-term stresses can be uncomfortable,but they rarely do any damage.
D)Activities that provoke eustress are usually threatening and highly unpleasant.
Q3) Megan is often so depressed that she eats and sleeps poorly,rarely exercises,and has been smoking more. According to health psychologists,Megan is exhibiting a
A)disease-prone personality.
B)Type B personality.
C)behavioral risk personality.
D)stress-prone personality.
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Q1) When a stressful event happens,our emotions will be affected most by A)the amount of time it will take to deal with the situation.
B)how we appraise this situation.
C)whether the somatic nervous is aroused or not.
D)whether pressure or frustration is felt.
Q2) Assimilation,marginalization,integration,and separation are the four main patterns of
A)adaptation to a new culture.
B)stress management techniques.
C)microstressors faced by college students.
D)typical reactions during a psychosomatic illness.
Q3) When aggression is directed at a target other than the source of frustration,which type of aggression is likely to occur?
A)repressed
B)dissonant
C)displaced
D)sublimated
Q4) A person with the choice of being in the "frying pan or the fire" is in a(n) _______ conflict.
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Q1) Researchers in San Antonio,Texas,asked older people if they were hopeful about the future.Those who answered "No" died at elevated rates,which illustrates the devastating effects of
A)sublimation.
B)approach-avoidance conflict.
C)learned helplessness.
D)reaction formation.
Q2) When a depressed person has feelings or thoughts of worthlessness,he or she should
A)ignore them and go back to studying.
B)write them down and then write a rational answer to each one.
C)repeat the thoughts over and over until they lose their meaning.
D)try to get more sleep by taking an afternoon nap.
Q3) Acting out an opposite behavior to block threatening impulses or feelings is the basic idea behind the defense mechanism known as _______.
Q4) When people overcome impoverishment or some type of personal tragedy and achieve outstanding success,they are illustrating the positive defense mechanism known as _______.
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Q1) The study of links among behavior,stress,disease,and the immune system is called
Q2) Hardy personalities are strong in
A)commitment,finding ways of turning whatever they are doing into something that seems interesting and important.
B)control and are less likely to see themselves as victims of circumstances.
C)challenge and find fulfillment in continual growth.
D)all of these.
Q3) The most common psychosomatic problems are skin rashes (hives)and hypertension (high blood pressure).
A)True
B)False
Q4) Regarding how one can reduce hostility toward others,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Find ways to reduce how often you feel anger,indignation,irritation,and rage.
B)Learn to be kinder and more considerate of others.
C)Quietly analyze the motives of people before you trust them.
D)Remember that it is entirely possible to succeed in life without sacrificing your health or happiness in the process.
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Q1) In one study,college students who learned stress inoculation exhibited all of the following EXCEPT
A)less depression.
B)less anxiety.
C)better self-esteem.
D)more passive behaviors.
Q2) The simplest way of coping with stress is to
A)learn to manage stress.
B)modify or remove the source of the stress.
C)learn to ignore upsetting conditions.
D)increase your immune system to withstand any emotional stresses.
Q3) List four of the bodily effects that are triggered by stress;and describe three techniques for reducing these effects.
Q4) Physical symptoms and a tendency to make poor decisions are increased by
A)being unrealistically optimistic about situations.
B)negative thoughts and "selftalk."
C)not focusing intently on your goals.
D)being too relaxed in stressful situations.
Q5) Stress can be reduced by having close,positive relationships with other people,which is termed _______.
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Q1) Which of the following disorders involves a person exhibiting bodily complaints,such as chronic pain that suggest illness or injury but for which there is no identifiable organic cause?
A)trauma- and stressor-related disorders
B)obsessive-compulsive and related disorders
C)neurocognitive disorders
D)somatic symptom and related disorders
Q2) While reading this module,a student notices what seems to be abnormal tendencies in his own behavior.This
A)indicates that the student needs to guard against falling prey to the "medical student's disease."
B)illustrates that pathological behavior is an exaggeration of normal defenses and reactions.
C)does not mean that the person's behavior is necessarily abnormal.
D)indicates all of these.
Q3) Failure to match one's behavior to widely accepted norms or to the unusual minimum rules for social conduct describes the definition of normality referred to as _______.
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Q1) Disorganized schizophrenia typically develops in A)young toddlers and preschool children.
B)elementary school-age children.
C)adolescents and young adults.
D)the middle-aged and elderly adults.
Q2) Many symptoms of schizophrenia seem to arise from A)abnormalities in controlling anger.
B)impairment in selective attention.
C)drug usage.
D)exaggerated emotion.
Q3) Research has shown that the right combination of inherited potential and environmental stress may produce mind- altering changes in the brain.These changes may cause psychotic behavior and various forms of psychopathology.This is called the _______ model.
Q4) Children are more likely to develop schizophrenia if their mothers,during the middle of their pregnancies,were exposed to the influenza (flu)virus or to _______.
Q5) Imaginary sensations,such as seeing,hearing,or smelling things that do not exist in the real world are known as
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Q1) Mood disorders often appear to be produced from within,that is,they have an _______ cause.
A)endogenous
B)extraneous
C)erroneous
D)exogenous
Q2) After her divorce,Megan has felt down and depressed more days than not for almost two years.Although her depression would not be considered intense and she has been able to go to work and take care of her two children,she has felt fatigued and dejected much of the time.Her self-esteem is low,and she does not seem to take much pleasure in her accomplishments at work or in socializing with her friends.When one of her friends convinces Megan to see a psychologist,this psychologist diagnosed Megan with a A)conversion reaction.
B)cyclothymic disorder.
C)major depressive disorder.
D)persistent depressive disorder.
Q3) Roughly 13 percent of all women who give birth develop a moderately severe depression that begins within three months following childbirth called _______ depression.
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Q1) Regarding people with an antisocial personality disorder,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Many successful businesspersons,entertainers,politicians,and other seemingly normal people have psychopathic leanings.
B)Having unusual brain-wave patterns that suggest underarousal of the brain may explain why sociopaths tend to be thrill seekers.
C)Antisocial personality disorders are rarely treated with success with the sociopath manipulating therapy,just like any other situation.
D)Although the psychopath appears cold and selfish in their dealings with others,people with this disorder are usually tormented by guilt afterward.
Q2) Of the common specific phobias listed,which is the most common among Americans?
A)fear of crowds
B)fear of airplanes
C)fear of closed spaces
D)fear of storms,thunder,and lightning
Q3) Contrast the psychodynamic,humanistic,existential,behavioral,and cognitive views of anxiety and anxiety-related disorders.
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Q1) Regarding patterns of suicide,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)The suicide rate is three times higher in Hungary than in the United States.
B)The suicide rate in the United States is almost ten times higher than the rate in Azerbaijan.
C)Between 1950 and 1990,suicide rates for adolescents and young adults doubled.
D)Suicide rates tend to decrease with advancing age.
Q2) Regarding the leading causes of death among 15- to 24-year-olds,suicide ranks as _______.
Q3) Withdrawal from others,personality change,depression,and giving away prized possessions are among the warning signs for
A)a suicide attempt.
B)bipolar II disorder.
C)adolescent turbulence.
D)dysthymia.
Q4) Regarding patterns of suicide,which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Women outnumber men in the total number of deaths by suicide.
B)White males 65 years and older have one of the lowest risks of committing suicide.
C)Divorced men have lower rates of suicide than married men do.
D)Native Americans have the highest rate of suicide in the United States.
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Q1) Objections to the use of Internet therapy include which of the following?
A)Brief e-mails are no way to make a diagnosis.
B)Short-hand texts and the use of emotional icons,such as smiley faces,are a poor substitute for real human interactions.
C)Internet therapists may or may not be trained professionals.
D)All of these are objections to Internet therapy.
Q2) Dr.Caradon is a psychologist,who believes that her clients can learn to change their troublesome thoughts,so she has her clients practice thought-stopping procedures at home between sessions.Dr.Caradon would best be described as a(n) _______ psychologist.
A)action-oriented,directive
B)action-oriented,nondirective
C)insight-oriented,directive
D)insight-oriented,nondirective
Q3) Which of the following is the most likely outcome for psychotherapy?
A)a complete personal transformation
B)a renewal of intellectual and creative abilities
C)overcoming the effects of early psychologically damaging experiences
D)learning skills to better cope with stress
Q4) The first true psychotherapy was _______.
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Q1) Lenny,a 17-year-old college student,is playing online poker and believes that his losses must soon be followed by wins,so he doubles his bet.Lenny is exhibiting the cognitive distortion known as
A)vicarious reinforcement.
B)the gambler's fallacy.
C)the tension-release error.
D)selective memory.
Q2) According to Freud,repressed memories,motives,and conflicts remain active in the personality and cause some people to develop rigid ego defenses and compulsive,self-defeating behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In which type of therapy must the person actively seek to solve his or her own problems with the therapist's job being to create a safe "atmosphere of growth" by providing opportunities for change?
A)psychoanalysis
B)rational-emotive behavioral therapy (REBT)
C)client-centered therapy
D)interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT)

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Q1) Patrick and Mike are brothers who are fighting over a new toy.Their mother sends them to separate rooms until they can calm down and agree to share the toy and play "nicely." Mother is using the operant conditioning technique known as
Q2) Behavior therapy is considered a(n) _______-oriented approach.
A)action
B)insight
C)cathartic
D)psychodynamic
Q3) By using which of the following could Alba learn to associate a negative emotional response with her undesirable habit of compulsive hair-pulling?
A)operant conditioning
B)escape training
C)aversion therapy
D)conditioned helplessness
Q4) EMDR is a behavioral therapy that involves having clients visualize upsetting images,while watching a pencil being moved side-to-side before their eyes.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Regarding the risk-benefit ratio of Clozaril,what can be concluded?
A)Clozaril has not been shown to be very effective in alleviating the symptoms of schizophrenia.
B)Unlike other antipsychotic drugs,Clozaril has not been shown to have any dangerous side-effects.
C)Many experts consider the risk of using Clozaril worth it,because schizophrenia robs people of a worthwhile life.
D)For most patients,the risks of using Clozaril,outweigh any benefits of the drug.
Q2) Regarding electroconvulsive therapy (ECT),which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)ECT causes shock-induced seizures that alter the biochemical balances in the brain and body.
B)ECT is a treatment that involves passing a 250-volt electrical current through the brain for three minutes.
C)ECT treatments are given in a series of sessions spread over several weeks or months.
D)Although ECT is mainly used to treat depression,it is still used to treat other disorders.
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Q1) To reduce the time you spend watching TV,you vividly imagine yourself failing an important exam because you watched TV rather than studying.This technique is called A)stimulus substitution.
B)thought control.
C)covert sensitization.
D)thought stopping.
Q2) Which of the following is listed as an effective counseling skill in your text?
A)Focus on trying to understand the cause of the person's behavior.
B)Provide generous advice coupled with multiple solutions to the person's problems.
C)Ask openended questions to encourage a free expression of the person's ideas.
D)Keep the conversation going with absolutely no silence.
Q3) The simplest thought-stopping technique makes use of mild punishment to suppress upsetting mental images and internal "talk."
A)True
B)False
Q4) One of the best things you can do when offering support to another person is to give feedback by simply restating what is said,which is called _______.
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Q1) Ramon is convinced that less restrictive ownership of guns by law-abiding citizens will greatly reduce the crime rates in this country.Ramon's ideas regarding gun ownership and crime rates represent which component of an attitude?
A)belief
B)action
C)experience
D)emotion
Q2) Research suggests that if you wish to persuade an audience,only one side of the argument should
A)be presented to a poorly informed audience.
B)be presented to a well-informed audience.
C)be presented to every audience.
D)never be presented to an audience.
Q3) Since meeting her college roommates,Lisa has become an advocate for recycling and other environmental issues and has joined her roommates' environmental club;thus,Lisa's college roommates and the environmental club would be considered both membership and reference groups for Lisa.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) If you make a small contribution to a political party,you are more likely to give a larger donation when asked later.This is an example of the _______ effect.
Q2) Sarah thought she was getting a great deal on her first home.She later learned that the realtor did not divulge the added expenses.She felt compelled to close the deal even though she would be paying too much in the deal.Sarah succumbed to the A)lowball technique.
B)highball technique.
C)foot-in-the-door effect.
D)door-in-the-face effect.
Q3) When the participants in Milgram's experiment received their orders over the phone,they
A)conformed more completely due to the formality of the telephoned instructions.
B)completely refused to participate in the learning trials.
C)were only slightly more obedient than they were if face-to-face with the authority. D)were less obedient than they were if face-to-face with the authority.
Q4) Describe the procedures used in brainwashing and in cult conversion,and explain how these two procedures are similar and how they are different.
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Q1) According to evolutionary theorists,mate selection can be attributed to which of the following?
A)food-gathering habits
B)rites of passage
C)maternal instincts
D)reproductive challenges
Q2) Prosocial behavior is any behavior that has a positive impact on other people,while antisocial behavior is any behavior that has a negative impact on other people.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In an experiment involving a thick cloud of smoke being blown into a room through a vent,a person quickly noticed the presence of the smoke when the person was
A)in a medium-size group.
B)alone in the room.
C)a female.
D)a male.
Q4) We are encouraged to help others who have helped us because of the norms of
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Q1) An unwarranted positiveness or certainty in matters of belief or opinion is called
Q2) Equal-status contact between members of different social groups
A)can reduce prejudice and stereotyping.
B)decreases mutual interdependence.
C)increases discrimination.
D)increases intergroup conflict.
Q3) The demonstration by Jane Elliot with blue-eyed and brown-eyed children suggests that an effective way to generate conditions of prejudice is to
A)require persons to compete for scarce resources.
B)intermingle two diverse groups with each other.
C)produce inequalities in power,prestige,or privileges.
D)demand that members of two groups cooperate to achieve a common goal.
Q4) Aggression cues include all of the following EXCEPT
A)angry thoughts.
B)words and gestures.
C)the weapons effect.
D)instinctual drives.
Q5) Prejudice that is expressed in a disguised fashion is known as _______ prejudice.
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Q1) A good way to reduce social stereotyping is for groups to engage in social competition.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Each ethnic group has strengths that members of other groups could benefit from emulating.For instance,all of the following groups emphasize family networks that help buffer them from some of the stresses of daily life EXCEPT for which group?
A)African Americans
B)Asian Americans
C)European Americans
D)Latinos
Q3) A good antidote for social stereotyping involves
A)adopting just-world beliefs.
B)creating self-fulfilling prophecies.
C)accepting status inequalities.
D)seeking individuating information.
Q4) Describe implicit prejudice and why it occurs,and explain how becoming less prejudiced involves developing an "openness to the other."
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Q1) Which of the following has been shown to increase productivity,involvement at work,and job satisfaction,and to reduce job-related stresses?
A)participative management
B)task-analyzed management
C)scientific management
D)job specialization
Q2) Which of the following is typical of Theory X leadership?
A)participative management
B)worker autonomy
C)management by objectives
D)job specialization
Q3) The study of critical incidents is a frequent part of A)a job analysis in preparation for employee selection.
B)an effort to implement the assumptions of Theory X leadership.
C)an effort to implement the assumptions of Theory Y leadership.
D)efforts at job enrichment.
Q4) Studies have shown that companies with more women in leadership roles perform better financially.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) By using energy-efficient lights,Don has reduced the volume of greenhouse gases he adds to the atmosphere,and by doing so he immediately sees a reduction in his
A)conservation factor.
B)carbon footprint.
C)ecological debt.
D)BMI footprint.
Q2) Putting a raised flowerbed around a sign to protect it from vandalism or finding ways to encourage individuals to conserve electricity would reflect the work of _______ psychologists.
Q3) The measurement and analysis of the effects an environment has on the behavior and perceptions of people within that environment is called a(n) _______.
Q4) Which of these would be the best example of the tragedy of the commons?
A)panicking during a dorm fire
B)failure to conserve gasoline,water,or electricity
C)aggressive driving during rush-hour
D)going into debt because of unforeseen circumstances
Q5) Describe the four spatial norms observed in North America,and explain how these can affect our interactions with people from other cultures.
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Q1) According to jury research,juries are more likely to A)convict defendants wearing glasses because they look like they have something to hide.
B)form an opinion early in the trial,making it difficult for them to fairly judge evidence that contradicts their opinion.
C)base their decisions on the evidence than on their perceptions of the attorneys or what the judge wants.
D)do all of these.
Q2) Regarding the field of educational psychology,a planned method of instruction is referred to as
A)a teaching strategy.
B)a mnemonic device.
C)mental practice.
D)task analysis.
Q3) Teaching styles,intelligence testing,gifted children,and test writing are all topics of interest for _______ psychologists.
Q4) Describe the teaching strategies of direct instruction and discovery learning,noting the advantages of each.
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Q1) Topics of interest for human factors psychologists would include furniture design,augmented cognition,and technology and aging.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The row of vertical buttons in elevators that mimic the layout of the floors is an example of _______ design.
A)intuitive
B)natural
C)convergent
D)divergent
Q3) In which of the following approaches are people's actual performances compared with what they are thinking and make it possible to fine-tune the details of a design?
A)marketing metaphor
B)thinking aloud protocol
C)telepresence design
D)natural design metaphor
Q4) According to Psychologist Donald Norman,the row of vertical buttons in elevators that mimic the layout of the floors is an example of a(n) _______ design.
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Q1) Regarding the normal curve,which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Relationships between the standard deviation and the normal curve do not change.
B)A normal curve represents the distribution of chance events.
C)A normal curve shows that a low number of people score near the middle of a distribution.
D)A normal curve is applicable to a wide range of psychological variables and traits.
Q2) The range and standard deviation are measures of A)central tendency.
B)variability.
C)frequency distribution.
D)correlation.
Q3) On a normal curve,95 percent of all the cases would be found between which two standard deviations (SDs)?
A)0 and +3
B)-1 and +1
C)-2 and +2
D)-3 and +3
Q4) Given these scores 22,44,33,55,33,22,44,22,55,22,the mode is _______.
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Q1) The authors of Psychology: Modules for Active Learning, (13th Edition)recommend several books that might be of some assistance in developing your skill set,which of the following is NOT one of the books?
A)Becoming a master student: Concise (14th ed. )
B)Procrastination: Why you do it,what to do about it.
C)Everything you always wanted to know about being a psychology major (2nd ed. )
D)College study skills: Becoming a strategic learner (7th ed. )
Q2) Which of the following skills was NOT introduced in Psychology: Modules for Active Learning, (13th Edition)?
A)study skills
B)intuitive skills
C)cultural awareness skills
D)critical thinking skills
Q3) In Psychology: Modules for Active Learning, (13th Edition),the informational boxes that were specifically designed to enhance the cultural awareness skills of psychology students are the _______ boxes.
Q4) The discussion of these topics develops psychology students' _______ skills.
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Q1) Given these scores 22,44,33,55,33,22,44,22,55,22,the mode is _______ .
Q2) Researchers usually cannot use populations when doing their studies because A)populations are not representative of a sample.
B)it is usually impractical or impossible.
C)statistical methods are only applicable to sample groups.
D)the requirement of randomness cannot be met.
Q3) The type of statistics that is used to summarize numerical data is called _______ statistics.
Q4) Matt is using a single score that describes how scattered or "spread out" his distribution of scores is.Matt is using a measure of A)central tendency.
B)the mean.
C)variability.
D)the median.
Q5) Measures of variability provide a single score that describes how scattered or "spread out" a distribution of scores is.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) As a psychology major,Maria has demonstrated the ability to listen efficiently,to write psychology reports in APA style,to make oral presentations as an individual and in groups,and to use charts and graphs to clarify the information presented.According to the Guidelines for the Undergraduate Psychology Major,she is most fully demonstrating _______ skills.
Q2) According to the Guidelines for the Undergraduate Psychology Major,being able to display open-mindedness and healthy skepticism in evaluating the quality and credibility of information would most fully meet which of the following competencies?
A)application of psychology
B)critical thinking skills in psychology
C)information and technological literacy
D)knowledge base of psychology
Q3) List the ten major goals that college psychology programs try to meet in teaching their students,according to the APA's Guidelines for the Undergraduate Psychology Major,and discuss how these goals are met through the five sets of skills emphasized throughout Psychology: Modules for Active Learning, (13th Edition).
Q4) The discussion of these topics develops psychology students' _______ skills.
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