Psychology for Health Professions Chapter Exam Questions - 7014 Verified Questions

Psychology for Health Professions

Chapter Exam Questions

Course Introduction

This course offers an introduction to the key psychological concepts and principles relevant to health professions, emphasizing the role of psychological factors in physical health, illness, treatment, and recovery. Students will explore topics such as behavior change, stress and coping, patient-provider communication, cultural influences on health, and the psychological impact of chronic and acute illnesses. Through case studies and practical applications, the course equips future health professionals with the skills to better understand, communicate with, and support patients, fostering more effective and compassionate care in diverse healthcare settings.

Recommended Textbook

Discovering Psychology 7th Edition by

Sandra E. Hockenbury

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70 Chapters

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Section 1: Introduction and Research Methods

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Q1) Give an example of two factors that are positively correlated, and explain what that means.

Answer: The answer should include the following information (Answers will vary.): A positive correlation is one in which two factors vary in the same direction so that two variables increase or decrease together. For example, the text cites a strong positive correlation between GPA and the use of self-testing as a study strategy. The more students engage in self-testing, the better their GPA. The text gives several additional examples at the end of the chapter related to studying. These techniques may be used to improve GPA.

Q2) Which perspective in contemporary psychology was influenced by Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow? What does this perspective focus on?

Answer: The answer should include the following information: The humanistic perspective was influenced by Carl Rogers and Maslow's development of a theoretical framework for motivation. This approach focuses on the motivation of people to grow psychologically, the influence of interpersonal relationships on a person's self-concept, and the importance of choice and self-direction in striving to reach one's potential.

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3

Chapter 1: Section 2: Introduction and Research Methods

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Q1) Behaviorism focuses on _____.

A)unconscious influences

B)dreams

C)observable behaviors

D)early life experiences

Answer: C

Q2) Researchers were interested in the effects of alcohol consumption on the perceived attractiveness of members of the opposite sex. One group of participants was given four drinks containing alcohol, and another group was given four drinks that did not contain alcohol, but both the alcoholic and nonalcoholic drinks tasted identical. Next, both groups of participants rated the attractiveness of members of the opposite sex by viewing pictures and rating attractiveness on a 1-to-10 scale. Which of the following is the independent variable in this study?

A)alcohol consumption

B)ratings on the attractiveness scale

C)the taste of the drinks

D)perceived attractiveness

Answer: A

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Chapter 1: Section 3: Introduction and Research Methods

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Q1) Extraneous variables are factors other than the ones being studied that, if not controlled, could affect the outcome of the experiment.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) Psychologists can control every aspect of the animals' environment and even their genetic background, and therefore they can exercise greater control over animal subjects than over human subjects.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) In the gingko biloba experiment, the test scores of the participants in both the experimental group and the placebo control group improved because of the practice effect.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 1: Section 4: Introduction and Research Methods

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Q1) Wilhelm Wundt:

A)was Sigmund Freud and Erik Erikson's mentor.

B)proposed a doctrine called interactive dualism-the idea that mind and body were separate entities.

C)was the founder of physiology-a branch of biology that studies the functions and parts of living organisms.

D)defined psychology as the study of consciousness and emphasized the use of experimental methods to study and measure it.

Q2) According to Psych For Your Life: Successful Study Techniques, which of the following studying strategies should you AVOID?

A)Using flashcards.

B)Taking notes on your laptop.

C)Studying while multitasking.

D)Taking notes by hand.

Q3) While Freud emphasized _____, Rogers emphasized _____.

A)unconscious conflicts; conscious experiences

B)unconscious conflicts; overt, measurable behavior

C)development; sexuality

D)favorable mental health; mental illness

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Page 6

Chapter 1: Section 5: Introduction and Research Methods

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Q1) The _____ perspective contended that psychology should focus its scientific investigations strictly on observable conducts that could be objectively measured and verified.

A)psychodynamic

B)humanistic

C)behavioral

D)biological

Q2) The first African American to earn a Ph.D. in psychology was:

A)Mary Whiton Calkins.

B)Francis C. Sumner.

C)Edward B. Titchener.

D)G. Stanley Hall.

Q3) Norris strives to identify and understand consistent patterns of behavior. She is willing to consider new or alternative explanations of behavior and mental processes. Dr. Norris is demonstrating:

A)open-mindedness.

B)skepticism.

C)lawful understanding.

D)cautious interpretation.

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Page 7

Chapter 2: Section 1: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Q1) Describe the functions of glial cells, as well as the microglia, astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and Schwann cells.

Q2) Li is an avid runner. Despite her busy lifestyle, Li runs at least 50 miles a week, even in the winter months. When asked why running is such a high priority, Li explains that she loves experiencing a "runner's high." Explain what this concept means.

Q3) Describe the differences in male and female brains and discuss what conclusions can be drawn from research on gender differences and the brain.

Q4) Select two neurotransmitters and describe their influence on behavior.

Q5) Describe the sequence of events that occurs when one neuron communicates with another neuron.

Q6) Briefly describe the functions of the different subdivisions of the peripheral nervous system.

Q7) What contributions did Pierre Paul Broca and Karl Wernicke make to the understanding of the brain?

Q8) What are the functions of the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system?

Q9) What are the key structures of the midbrain and what roles do they play?

Page 8

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Chapter 2: Section 2: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Q1) How does cocaine achieve its effects?

A)It mimics dopamine.

B)It interferes with the reuptake of dopamine.

C)It mimics serotonin.

D)It blocks the reuptake of endorphins.

Q2) White matter is to gray matter as _____ is(are) to _____.

A)cell bodies and glial cells; myelinated axons

B)myelinated axons; neural cell bodies and glial cells

C)dendrites; glial cells and axons

D)midbrain; hindbrain

Q3) As you take this test, you do not have to focus on taking your next breath or making your heart beat. This is because the _____ is involved in the control of vital life functions, such as breathing, heart rate, and digestion.

A)medulla

B)pons

C)thalamus

D)parietal lobe

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Chapter 2: Section 3: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Q1) Neurons outnumber glial cells by about 10 to 1.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The Human Connectome Project's goal is to map the millions of miles of neural connections among the 100 billion neurons in the human brain.

A)True

B)False

Q3) According to one research study that involved participants who learned how to juggle, learning a new motor skill produces physical changes in specific brain structures related to the skill.

A)True

B)False

Q4) An action potential is produced by the movement of ions across the axon membrane.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The psychograph machine provides detailed images of the brain's structures.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 2: Section 4: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Q1) Reduced brain levels of the neurotransmitter _____ is most notably involved in the progressive memory loss that characterizes Alzheimer's disease.

A)GABA

B)serotonin

C)dopamine

D)acetylcholine

Q2) Messages from other neurons or specialized cells and sensory receptors are typically:

A)collected by the synaptic vesicles.

B)relayed by glial cells to the correct node of Ranvier.

C)received by the dendrites.

D)received by the axon terminals.

Q3) Lydia experiences a rush of euphoria after her daily five-mile run. This sensation is known as:

A)neurogenesis.

B)the runner's high.

C)the synaptic rush.

D)the split-brain high.

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Chapter 2: Section 5: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Q1) Michael takes medication that increases _____ levels to help control symptoms of Parkinson's disease.

A)endorphin

B)serotonin

C)GABA

D)dopamine

Q2) According to your textbook, _____ is associated with increased endorphin levels.

A)nicotine addiction

B)heavy consumption of alcohol

C)muscle rigidity during aerobic exercises

D)the pain-relieving effect of acupuncture

Q3) The brainstem is made up of several structures, which include the:

A)thalamus, hypothalamus, hippocampus, and amygdala.

B)medulla, pons, cerebellum, reticular formation, and midbrain, including the substantia nigra.

C)temporal lobe, parietal lobe, the occipital lobe, and frontal lobe.

D)corpus callosum, cerebral cortex, and the structures that make up the limbic system.

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Chapter 3: Section 1: Sensation and Perception

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Q1) What is the basic pathway for information transmission from the eye to the brain?

Q2) Your roommate, Ben, believes that subliminal stimuli are embedded in all forms of electronic media-movies, television shows, YouTube, commercials, and music videos. He gets upset every time he comes home and finds you watching television in the living room, as he does not want to be influenced by these messages. Is Ben correct that subliminal stimuli can affect your thoughts and behavior? Explain your answer.

Q3) Distinguish the fast and slow pain pathways in terms of the sequence of nervous system structures to which pain signals are transmitted.

Q4) How do rods and cones differ?

Q5) What properties of a sound wave correspond to our perception of sound?

Q6) Describe and contrast the trichromatic and the opponent-process theories of color vision.

Q7) Describe Weber's law and give an example to illustrate it.

Q8) Distinguish between sensation and perception.

Q9) Briefly describe the key structures of the eye including the function of each structure.

Q10) What is the kinesthetic sense and where are its sensory receptors located?

Page 13

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Chapter 3: Section 2: Sensation and Perception

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Sample Questions

Q1) From the optic chiasm, visual information travels first to the:

A)olfactory bulb.

B)thalamus.

C)primary visual cortex.

D)hypothalamus.

Q2) In _____, an abnormally curved eyeball results in blurry vision for lines in a particular direction.

A)presbyopia

B)astigmatism

C)myopia

D)hyperopia

Q3) The ability to accurately gauge the distance of the coffee cup on your desk as you reach for it is called:

A)motion parallax.

B)biofeedback.

C)accommodation.

D)depth perception.

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14

Chapter 3: Section 3: Sensation and Perception

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Q1) Some of the axons that make up the optic nerve project to the midbrain, and this secondary pathway is responsible for processing information about the location of an object.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Phantom limb pain is most likely the result of a psychotic reaction to the trauma of surgical amputation.

A)True

B)False

Q3) There is evidence that people from Western cultures are more likely than people from Eastern cultures to focus more attention on the figure of a visual image and less on the ground.

A)True

B)False

Q4) In a pioneering study of human pheromones, it was found that the menstrual cycles of female college roommates became synchronized over time.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 3: Section 4: Sensation and Perception

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Q1) After an injury has healed, it is possible to experience pain signals in or around the injured site. This phenomenon is called:

A)sensitization.

B)adaptation.

C)hallucination.

D)generalization.

Q2) As you enter the locker room at the college gym, you notice the sharp, distinctive smell of chlorine from the adjacent swimming pool. The stimulation of special receptors in your nose by airborne molecules of chlorine is an example of _____, and your interpretation of the stimulation is an example of _____.

A)gustation; transduction

B)sensation; perception

C)perception; sensation

D)olfaction; transduction

Q3) When you taste a sour lemon, your taste receptors send messages to your:

A)olfactory cortex.

B)amygdala.

C)thalamus.

D)frontal lobes.

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Chapter 3: Section 5: Sensation and Perception

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Q1) The visible spectrum includes:

A)red, orange, and yellow light waves.

B)the visual field, including peripheral vision.

C)ultraviolet rays, gamma rays, and radio waves.

D)the range of wavelengths in the electromagnetic spectrum that are visible to the human eye.

Q2) Research indicates that the effects of subliminal stimuli tend to be:

A)fairly strong but short-lived.

B)fairly strong and long-lasting.

C)weak and short-lived.

D)weak but long-lasting.

Q3) The term sensation refers to:

A)a vague feeling of excitement or pleasure.

B)the process of detecting a physical stimulus such as light, sound, heat, or pressure.

C)the transformation of physical energy into chemical energy.

D)the interpretation and organization of sensory stimuli.

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Chapter 4: Section 1: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) Describe and provide an example of misdirection, inattentional bias, and inattentional deafness.

Q2) How are sleepwalking and sleep-related eating disorders similar? Also explain how they differ.

Q3) What are the potential benefits of meditation?

Q4) Describe the two categories of meditation, and discuss the general effects of meditation.

Q5) What are beta brain waves and alpha brain waves, and when are we most likely to experience them?

Q6) How is sleep involved in the formation of memories?

Q7) Define the term consciousness. What does consciousness enable us to do?

Q8) Mel, aged 68, has been an avid fan of meditation since he was a young college student. His brother-in-law, Dave, believes that mediation is a waste of time with no lasting benefits. According to research presented in the Focus on Neuroscience box: Mediation and Brain: in your textbook, which man is correct?

Q9) What is exploding head syndrome? Is this a rare condition? Explain your answer.

Page 18

Q10) According to researcher Paul Thompson and his colleagues, MRI scans reveal significant tissue loss in the brains of chronic methamphetamine users. Which areas of the brain were most affected?

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Chapter 4: Section 2: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding dreams?

A)People usually have four or five dreaming episodes each night.

B)The first REM episode of the night is the shortest, lasting only about 10 minutes.

C)Early morning dreams, which can last for 40 minutes or longer, are the dreams most likely to be remembered.

D)All of these statements are true regarding dreams.

Q2) Troubled by various psychological symptoms, Tanisha decides to ask her therapist to hypnotize her and take her back to her earliest memories to see if she experienced some kind of traumatic event that might explain her current problems. If Tanisha's therapist agreed to do so, what is likely to happen?

A)Tanisha will be able to retrieve accurate memories of early childhood, but not infancy.

B)Tanisha will be able to retrieve accurate memories back to and including her experiences during birth.

C)Tanisha's traumatic memories are probably too deeply repressed to be retrieved through hypnosis unless the therapist is able to enlist the help of Tanisha's hidden observer.

D)Tanisha is likely to produce pseudomemories rather than accurate memories.

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Chapter 4: Section 3: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) At any given moment we are faced with more information than we can effectively process. This suggests that attention has limited capacity.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The suprachiasmatic nucleus is the internal master biological clock that governs the timing of circadian rhythms.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In a study examining brain differences between practitioners of meditation and those who never meditated, MRI scans showed that several cortical areas were thicker in the meditators' brains than in the non-meditators.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Each of the addictive drugs-including alcohol, cocaine, heroin, nicotine, and the amphetamines-has its own separate reward system involving different neurotransmitters in the brain.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 4: Section 4: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) Biological processes that systematically vary over a 24-hour cycle are called _____ and are regulated by a cluster of neurons called the _____.

A)intrinsic rhythms; melatonin cluster

B)circadian rhythms; suprachiasmatic nucleus

C)circadian rhythms; pineal gland

D)brain waves; suprachiasmatic nucleus

Q2) Which of the following statements about dreaming is FALSE?

A)People usually have four or five dreaming episodes each night.

B)The first REM episode of the night is the shortest, lasting only about 10 minutes.

C)Early-morning dreams, which can last for 40 minutes or longer, are the dreams most likely to be remembered.

D)Most of our nighttime dreams are frightening and may signal early warning signs of depression or anxiety.

Q3) Sleepwalking and sleep terrors are _____ that tend to occur during _____.

A)parasomnias; stages 3 and 4 NREM sleep

B)parasomnias; REM sleep

C)dyssomnias; stages 1 and 2 NREM sleep

D)dyssomnias; REM sleep

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21

Chapter 4: Section 5: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) Research indicates that nightmares:

A)are a strong indication that the individual is at risk for or currently experiencing major depression.

B)are not an indication of psychological or sleep disorders unless they occur frequently, cause difficulties returning to sleep, or cause daytime distress.

C)primarily occur during NREM slow-wave sleep.

D)are the most common type of parasomnia.

Q2) Which of the following is an example of a parasomnia?

A)insomnia

B)narcolepsy

C)obstructive sleep apnea

D)sleep-related eating disorder (SRED)

Q3) Sleep researchers who study disruptions in the amount, quality, or timing of sleep, including insomnia, obstructive sleep apnea, and narcolepsy, are interested in a broad category of sleep disorders called:

A)parasomnias.

B)dissociative states.

C)dyssomnias.

D)lucid dreaming states.

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Page 22

Chapter 5: Section 1: Learning

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Q1) Define punishment, describe the two types of punishment, and explain the drawbacks of using punishment.

Q2) Describe at least three strategies that can be used to change behavior without resorting to punishment.

Q3) Provide two examples of how Watson applied classical conditioning principles to advertising.

Q4) Compare and contrast positive reinforcement and negative reinforcement, and provide an original example of each.

Q5) Why did conditioned taste aversions appear to violate the original principles of classical conditioning, and how did they come to be explained?

Q6) Define instinctive drift, and explain its implications for operant conditioning.

Q7) According to your text, what was Skinner's most radical-and controversial-belief? Explain how the concept of gamification is built upon Skinner's operant conditioning principles.

Q8) Compare and contrast operant and classical conditioning in terms of types of behavior studied, responses conditioned, extinction processes, and cognitive and evolutionary influences on each.

Page 23

Q9) What conditions increase the likelihood that a behavior will be imitated?

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Chapter 5: Section 2: Learning

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Q1) According to psychologist Edward C. Tolman, learning that is not immediately demonstrated in overt behavior is termed:

A)learned helplessness.

B)response extinction.

C)latent learning.

D)trial-and-error learning.

Q2) An organism enhances its odds of survival by being able to learn that a neutral stimulus can signal an important upcoming event, as in:

A)operant conditioning.

B)classical conditioning.

C)observational learning.

D)learned helplessness.

Q3) A shuttlebox was used by:

A)Martin Seligman and Steven Maier to demonstrate the phenomenon of learned helplessness.

B)B. F. Skinner to demonstrate the phenomenon of shaping.

C)John Garcia to demonstrate the phenomenon of taste aversions.

D)Ivan Pavlov to demonstrate the phenomenon of stimulus generalization.

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Chapter 5: Section 3: Learning

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Q1) B. F. Skinner stressed the fact that behavior ultimately arises from causes that are within the individual.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A major contribution of B. F. Skinner to the psychology of learning was his demonstration of the effects on behavior of different schedules of reinforcement.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The unconditioned response and the conditioned response are the same behavioral response, but they are elicited by different stimuli.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Most television violence is performed by unattractive villains who are punished for their misdeeds, clearly sending the message that "it does not pay to use violence."

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Section 4: Learning

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Q1) When Anna was three years old, her aunt's pet parakeet landed on her head and pecked at her scalp, hurting her. Following this incident, Anna was afraid of the parakeet. But over time, Anna has become afraid of anything that flies, including butterflies, large flying insects, and wild birds. This example illustrates the phenomenon of _____ in _____ conditioning.

A)instinctive drift; operant

B)stimulus discrimination; classical

C)biological preparedness; operant

D)stimulus generalization; classical

Q2) According to Albert Bandura, the four factors that are necessary for observational learning to occur are:

A)attention, memory, motor skills, and motivation.

B)attention, conditioning, cognition, and reinforcement.

C)reinforcement, operant, stimulus discrimination, and imitation.

D)stimulus, response, conditioning, and consequence.

Q3) The majority of studies on media violence and aggressive behavior are:

A)focused on adolescents.

B)causal.

C)correlational.

D)retroactive.

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Chapter 5: Section 5: Learning

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Q1) Whenever her cell phone vibrates, Akiko immediately retrieves her phone to see who is texting her. The majority of the time, Akiko also answers the text right away. In this scenario, the vibrating cell phone is a(n) _____ for Akiko's response.

A)discriminative stimulus

B)operant

C)conditioned reinforcer

D)primary reinforcer

Q2) An organism enhances its odds of survival by being responsive to the consequences of its actions. This reflects the concept of:

A)observational learning.

B)motivational learning.

C)operant conditioning.

D)classical conditioning.

Q3) In the famous "Little Albert" study, what was the conditioned stimulus?

A)the white rat

B)fear of the loud clang

C)fear at the sight of the rat

D)the loud clang

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Chapter 6: Section 1: Memory

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Q1) Identify and describe at least two factors that seem to influence forgetting.

Q2) What do tip-of-the-tongue experiences demonstrate about retrieval cues?

Q3) According to the Culture and Human Behavior: Culture's Effects on Early Memories box in your text, what cultural factors likely contribute to differences in autobiographical memory?

Q4) Provide a detailed description of a research study by Elizabeth Loftus that demonstrates the misinformation effect, including the results and implications of the study.

Q5) How do explicit and implicit memory differ? Give an example of each.

Q6) Describe the conditions that lead to long-term potentiation, and describe what happens within the neural circuit that is strengthened.

Q7) Describe two forms of the encoding specificity principle, and give an example of each.

Q8) Describe the progression and symptoms of Alzheimer's disease, including changes in the brain.

Q9) Compare and contrast the characteristics of suppression and repression, giving an example of each.

Q10) How does neurological research explain some instances of déjà vu?

Q11) Compare and contrast maintenance rehearsal and elaborative rehearsal. Page 28

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Chapter 6: Section 2: Memory

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Q1) Brenda's Aunt Shelby got to the point where she just couldn't recall any more details. "Honestly, that's all I can remember about being in the same first-grade class as Bruce Springsteen. It was just too long ago," Shelby explained to her disappointed niece. That Shelby was unable to recall her other long-term memories about attending elementary school with Bruce Springsteen is most likely an example of:

A)absentmindedness.

B)retrieval cue failure.

C)source confusion.

D)anterograde amnesia.

Q2) How can you increase the length of time that you can hold information in your short-term memory?

A)Use maintenance rehearsal by repeating the information.

B)Use a process called clustering.

C)Move the information into sensory memory.

D)Use iconic memory to hold the memory longer.

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Chapter 6: Section 3: Memory

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Q1) Sensory memory allows you to hear a series of musical notes as a melody.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The research of psychologist George Sperling demonstrated that the maximum capacity of sensory memory is four items of information, plus or minus one.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Iconic memory and echoic memory are both types of sensory memory.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Long-term memory is like a high definition video camera that captures all details of everyday events.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Research has shown that the bits and pieces of information that people usually recall during a tip-of-the-tongue experience are completely unrelated to the blocked memory.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 6: Section 4: Memory

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Sample Questions

Q1) A classic experiment by psychologist George Sperling demonstrated that:

A)the capacity of short-term memory is virtually limitless.

B)the schemas that people hold in a particular situation can erroneously influence the details they later remember about the situation.

C)distributed practice is superior to massed practice.

D)information is held in visual sensory memory for about half a second.

Q2) Why did Karl Lashley fail to uncover the area of the rat's brain in which the memory trace of the maze was stored or located?

A)Memory could not be studied with the relatively crude and simplistic methods that Lashley used in the early 1900s.

B)A rat's memory for maze running is a classically conditioned response and is not localized in one area of the brain, such as the cortex or cerebellum.

C)Lashley was looking in the cerebral cortex for the memory trace, when he should have been looking in the cerebellum.

D)A rat's memory for maze running is not a single memory but a complex set of interrelated memories involving information from multiple senses and is distributed throughout the brain and not localized in the cortex.

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Page 32

Chapter 6: Section 5: Memory

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Sample Questions

Q1) "My first memory? I can remember the nature walks that our preschool class took almost every day. It was really just a city park that had a small lake and was about three blocks away, but I remember all of us walking in pairs, holding hands, and crossing the streets." According to the research discussed in the Culture and Human Behavior box, memories of general, group activities centered on family or community members were MOST likely to be:

A)a pseudomemory.

B)reported by European American college students.

C)a déjà vu experience.

D)reported by Chinese and Taiwanese college students.

Q2) In the earliest stages of Alzheimer's disease, the MOST common symptoms are:

A)agitation and moodiness.

B)spontaneous recovery of long-term and working memories.

C)forgetting names of familiar people and the locations of familiar places.

D)misplacing common objects and moodiness, such as one's keys, glasses, or checkbook.

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33

Chapter 7: Section 1: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe three strategies that can be used to make a decision among several alternatives.

Q2) List the five characteristics of language, and give an example of each.

Q3) For individuals who are genetically related, how does similarity in IQ scores vary with degree of genetic relatedness?

Q4) Danica is the parent of 5-year-old Mariah. Mariah will be attending a large charter school in the fall. The school offers many classes that are taught in both English and Spanish. Danica is worried about her daughter being in both types of classes, as she believes bilingualism leads to confusion, delayed language development, learning problems, and lower intelligence. Using research presented in your text, explain why Danica's beliefs are wrong. Be sure to include the benefits of bilingual education in your answer.

Q5) Compare and contrast Howard Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences with Robert Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence.

Q6) According to the In Focus box, "Does a High IQ Score Predict Success in Life?" were all of Terman's gifted subjects successful? Explain your answer, comparing outcomes of the A group and the C group.

Q7) Define heritability and explain heritability estimate.

Page 34

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Chapter 7: Section 2: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Sample Questions

Q1) With whom do you associate the "triarchic theory of intelligence"?

A)Louis Thurman

B)Howard Gardner

C)Charles Spearman

D)Robert Sternberg

Q2) Lewis Terman studied 1,500 California children between the ages of eight and 12 who had IQs above 140. What were the findings of Terman's research?

A)Other than their high intelligence, there were no significant differences between them and other children in their age group.

B)The highly intelligent children tended to be socially well adjusted and healthier and taller than other children of their age.

C)Although intelligent, the high-IQ children were socially and physically inept.

D)As compared to the control group of average children, the highly intelligent children were much more prone to illness and accidents.

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Chapter 7: Section 3: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Sample Questions

Q1) When people are motivated by external rewards, such as money or grades, they are displaying intrinsic motivation.

A)True

B)False

Q2) An aptitude test is designed to measure a person's capacity to benefit from education or training.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Research has shown that the underlying cause of stereotype threat is that people experience social functional fixedness, which interferes with effective communication in diverse social situations.

A)True

B)False

Q4) It is now known that environmental factors influence or regulate the activation of many of the genes that we inherited from our biological parents.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 7: Section 4: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Q1) Erika is asked to generate a list of five different animals that can be kept as pets. She quickly responds, "dogs, cats, goldfish, gerbils, and canaries." Dogs would thus represent Erika's _____ for the _____ concept of "pets."

A)defining features or attributes; natural B)prototype; natural C)exemplar; formal D)prototype; formal

Q2) For his independent project in Cooking 101, Henry decides to develop a new dip for raw vegetables, using sour cream and herbs. He tries one combination of ingredients after another, adjusting the seasoning as he goes along. What problem-solving strategy is Henry using?

A)working backward heuristic

B)additive model

C)single-feature algorithm

D)trial and error

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Chapter 7: Section 5: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Q1) Crissy likes to drive fast, counting on her matronly appearance and southern charm to avoid getting a speeding ticket. She believes that most speeders who get tickets are young males driving high-performance cars, so she was surprised when an officer pulled her over and gave her a $200 speeding ticket despite the fact that she had three kids with soccer balls and uniforms in the back of her SUV. Crissy was misled by the _____ in her belief that she was highly unlikely to get a speeding ticket.

A)representativeness heuristic

B)belief-bias effect

C)confirmation bias

D)availability heuristic

Q2) _____ is defined as the tendency to view objects as functioning only in their usual or customary way.

A)Functional fixedness

B)Conceptualization

C)Consolidation

D)Intuition

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Chapter 8: Section 1: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) Ann wants to achieve the goal of completing a marathon. Outline how she could create and use goal intentions and implementation intentions to help achieve that goal.

Q2) What is anthropomorphism? What evidence suggests that elephants experience emotion?

Q3) Ron is a hungry man. Today he is visiting his favorite restaurant where he plans to consume a steak dinner. Ron leads an active lifestyle. For instance, on most days Ron goes hiking in the woods for a prolonged period of time without bringing any food supplies. Describe how the following terms relate to Ron's hunger, satiety, and energy balance: leptin, ghrelin, and cholecystokinin.

Q4) Taking the evolutionary perspective, describe how emotions might help people adapt to their environment. In your answer, note how Charles Darwin viewed the functions of emotional displays in both humans and nonhuman animals.

Q5) Lindsey is so overjoyed when her team wins the state championship that she leaps into the air and screams. Describe how the James-Lange and two-factor theories of emotion would each explain Lindsey's experience of emotion.

Q6) Contrast competence motivation and achievement motivation, and give an original, real-life example of each.

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Page 39

Chapter 8: Section 2: Motivation and Emotion

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following restored normal metabolism, body temperature, immune functioning, and body weight in the genetically mutated ob/ob mice?

A)supplemental leptin

B)aerobic exercise on a treadmill

C)blocking receptor sites for the hormone ghrelin

D)blocking receptor sites for cholecystokinin

Q2) Yamomoto is very careful to hide her true feelings and control her facial expressions when she is in the presence of the senior administrators in the hospital in which she works. This example illustrates:

A)genetic predispositions.

B)the facial feedback hypothesis.

C)display rules of her culture.

D)physiological components of emotion.

Q3) Increased brain levels of neuropeptide Y causes:

A)increased eating behavior and decreased body metabolism.

B)decreased body metabolism and decreased eating behavior.

C)increased eating behavior and increased body metabolism.

D)increased body metabolism and decreased eating behavior.

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Chapter 8: Section 3: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) People with damage to the amygdala lose the ability to distinguish between friendly and threatening faces.

A)True

B)False

Q2) According to the evolutionary perspective, many wild animals overeat when food is available because this reduces food available to other animals, which then die, reducing competition.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Self-actualization is defined by Maslow as the full use and exploitation of talents, capacities, and potentialities.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Although drive theories of motivation are of historical interest, their concepts are no longer used by contemporary psychologists in explaining motivated behavior.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: Section 4: Motivation and Emotion

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Sample Questions

Q1) Rats with a damaged amygdala:

A)cannot acquire a classically conditioned fear response.

B)overproduce leptin and become extremely lean, despite eating several times their normal amount of calories daily.

C)are more easily classically conditioned to fear-inducing stimuli than rats with intact brains.

D)display the characteristics of starving animals, have voracious appetites, and have five times the amount of body fat as normal rats.

Q2) In collectivistic cultures, achievement motivation tends to reflect:

A)individual goals.

B)an urge to control or influence the behavior of other people or groups.

C)increasing the success or status of one's family or group.

D)the quest for personal self-efficacy.

Q3) According to the _____ theory of emotion, your subjective emotional experience is the direct result of physical changes in your body.

A)James-Lange

B)cognitive-appraisal

C)self-determination

D)Schachter-Singer two-factor

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Page 42

Chapter 8: Section 5: Motivation and Emotion

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Sample Questions

Q1) Emotions such as feelings of contentment:

A)involve intense physical reactions.

B)are characterized by decreased physical arousal.

C)cause spikes in physical and emotional arousal.

D)have no effect on the body.

Q2) When Graham was taking his first ride up the steep slope at the beginning of the Mighty Mouse Roller Coaster ride, he became aware of his high level of physiological arousal. He then began to feel very fearful. The sequence of events in Graham's emotional experience reflects _____ theory of emotion.

A)Schachter and Singer's two-factor

B)Walter Cannon's theory

C)the James-Lange

D)the instinct or evolutionary

Q3) Marshall sleeps, on average, five hours per night. Compared to adults who sleep seven to eight hours a night, Marshall is 50 percent more likely to:

A)be underweight.

B)lose weight but gain it back.

C)be obese.

D)have a high basal metabolic rate.

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Page 43

Chapter 9: Section 1: Lifespan Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe Jean Piaget's views about the nature of cognitive development in children.

Q2) What cognitive abilities and limitations characterize a child's thinking during the sensorimotor and preoperational stages?

Q3) Compare the typical sleeping arrangements of families with infants in the United States with those of other cultures, and discuss how these differences reflect different cultural beliefs and norms.

Q4) Define genotype and phenotype and give an example of how the interaction of genetics and environment can influence phenotype.

Q5) Describe the typical progression of sexual development from puberty through late adolescence. Compare the experiences of girls and boys in terms of the ages at which various milestones of puberty are achieved.

Q6) In regards to physical development in infancy and childhood, describe the cephalocaudal and proximodistal trends. How do these trends in infant development compare to the developmental sequence for body segments in the womb?

Q7) List and describe factors that can affect the timing of puberty.

Q8) Define and compare the adult development milestones of menopause and andropause.

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Chapter 9: Section 2: Lifespan Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) In homes where both parents are present and have a close relationship with their infant, the infant tends to develop an attachment relationship to:

A)his mother but not his father.

B)his father but not his mother.

C)both parents at about the same time.

D)one parent or the other but not both.

Q2) When Ryan brings home his spelling and math papers from the second grade, Ryan's stepmother expresses pride in his work and posts the papers on the refrigerator for the other family members to see. In terms of Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, Ryan's stepmother is fostering a sense of _____ in Ryan.

A)generativity

B)identity

C)industry

D)autonomy

Q3) The term genotype refers to:

A)a recessive gene that is found only on the X chromosome.

B)the genetic makeup of an organism.

C)a computer-enhanced image of the genes found embedded in a single chromosome.

D)a category of living organisms that are genetically related.

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Page 45

Chapter 9: Section 3: Lifespan Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Between the ages of 5 and 8 months, infants are able to stand alone without holding on.

A)True B)False

Q2) The shortest phase of prenatal development is called the germinal, or zygotic, period.

A)True B)False

Q3) Puberty is the stage of adolescence in which an individual reaches sexual maturity and becomes physiologically capable of sexual reproduction.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Carol Gilligan's main criticism of Kohlberg's theory of moral development is that it reflects a male perspective that may not accurately depict the development of moral reasoning in women.

A)True B)False

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46

Chapter 9: Section 4: Lifespan Development

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Q1) According to _____ theory of gender-role development, gender roles are learned through reinforcement, punishment, and modeling.

A)evolutionary

B)social learning

C)gender schema

D)biological

Q2) According to research on gender-role stereotypes, which individual is likely to be the MOST rigid in his or her beliefs?

A)Deacon, who is 9

B)Renee, who is 14

C)Rose, who is 40

D)George, who is 65

Q3) Martina is pregnant with her first child. She wonders how the embryo receives nourishment and rids itself of carbon dioxide and other wastes. You can tell Martina that the _____ performs this function.

A)placenta

B)amniotic sac

C)umbilical cord

D)zygote.

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Chapter 9: Section 5: Lifespan Development

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Q1) Anson has an 80-year-old grandfather. Anson wants to make sure his grandfather maintains his cognitive abilities as long as possible. According to Focus on Neuroscience: Boosting the Aging Brain, from which of the following behaviors would Anson's grandfather benefit MOST?

A)taking vitamins and supplements

B)watching stimulating television programs

C)taking at least one daily nap

D)engaging in aerobic exercise

Q2) Mark and Mathew are identical twins who developed from a single zygote and share identical DNA. Nevertheless, as they develop, differences in physical and psychological characteristics become evident. These differences are due to:

A)each twin's unique genetic blueprint.

B)pruning of unused neurons in each child's brain.

C)allele variation.

D)epigenetic change.

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Chapter 10: Section 1: Personality

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Q1) What are the functional and structural brain differences that have been associated with the Big Five personality traits?

Q2) Based on the text's discussion of behavioral genetics, discuss the role of genetic and environmental influences on personality development. How do researchers determine whether or not a trait is genetically influenced?

Q3) Summarize the key ideas proposed by Carl Jung.

Q4) Describe the four major theoretical perspectives on personality.

Q5) What personality types did Hans Eysenck describe in his trait theory of personality?

Q6) Cindy recently gave birth to her first child. She unexpectedly went into labor at a shopping mall, and had the baby before the ambulance could arrive to take her to the hospital. Cindy had to endure the pain of childbirth in a strange, stressful environment without any anesthetic. Her baby is now 3 months old, and when people ask Cindy about her birthing experience, she claims that she cannot remember most of that day. In the context of Freud's psychoanalytic theory, what is the likely cause of Cindy's lapse in memory? Will she ever remember this event in full?

Q7) What are the basic assumptions in Carl Rogers's humanistic theory of personality?

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Chapter 10: Section 2: Personality

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Q1) Psychologist Colin DeYoung and his colleagues had over 100 male and female participants undergo MRI scans and also take the NEO Personality Inventory, a personality test that is used to measure the Big Five. The researchers then compared the brain scans and the personality test results. What was one of the results that they found?

A)Agreeableness was associated with greater volume in the fusiform gyrus, an area of the cortex specialized for perceiving faces.

B)Agreeableness was associated with lesser volume in the fusiform gyrus, an area of the cortex specialized for perceiving faces.

C)Agreeableness was associated with greater volume in the middle frontal gyrus, an area of the cortex specialized for perceiving faces.

D)Agreeableness was associated with lesser volume in the middle frontal gyrus, an area of the cortex specialized for perceiving faces.

Q2) Ego defense mechanisms:

A)increase anxiety.

B)operate consciously.

C)distort thoughts or perceptions of reality.

D)provide a safe outlet for the libido.

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Page 50

Chapter 10: Section 3: Personality

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Q1) Karen Horney was the person who stressed the importance of parent-child relationships in the development of personality, and described three patterns of behavior that individuals use to defend against basic anxiety.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Nathan's personality test results indicated that he has a distinct personality type, ESTJ (extraverted, sensing, thinking, feeling). It is most likely that Nathan has taken the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI).

A)True

B)False

Q3) Robert McCrae and Paul Costa, Jr. are best known for proposing that there are three basic dimensions of personality: introversion-extraversion, neuroticism-emotional stability, and psychoticism.

A)True

B)False

Q4) In the past the CIA relied on graphology to help agents recruit and manage spies.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 10: Section 4: Personality

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Q1) On her birthday, Rose was given a new computer by her children. However, she has never turned it on because she doesn't think she will be able to learn how to use it. How would Albert Bandura explain Rose's behavior?

A)Rose is very low in Factor 3, Openness to Experience.

B)Rose's beliefs of self-efficacy are very weak in regards to learning how to use a computer.

C)Being able to use a computer is incompatible with Rose's ISFP (introverted, sensing, feeling, and perceiving) personality type.

D)Because of her basic anxiety, Rose is using a psychological defense mechanism called denial.

Q2) According to Sigmund Freud, the newborn infant is motivated by:

A)the superego.

B)the pleasure principle.

C)the reality principle.

D)basic anxiety.

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Chapter 10: Section 5: Personality

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Q1) In a research study described in your text, trained graphologists evaluated handwriting samples of 170 people. What were the findings of that study?

A)Graphology was found to provide a valid assessment of occupational aptitude and was the best predictor of vocational success.

B)The trained graphologists were highly accurate in identifying the actors, actresses, and psychologists in the pool of participants but were unable to identify those who were nuns, monks, or librarians.

C)Although the graphologists predicted that they would be 100 percent accurate in distinguishing among the participants, they were not much more accurate than people with no training in graphology.

D)Graphology was found to be highly accurate in distinguishing among people in different occupational groups and in identifying several personality traits.

Q2) Basic anxiety is to _____ as feelings of inferiority is to _____.

A)Karen Horney; Alfred Adler

B)Alfred Adler; Karen Horney

C)Carl Rogers; Albert Bandura

D)Carl Jung; Hans Eysenck

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Page 53

Chapter 11: Section 1: Social Psychology

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Q1) Give two examples of the fundamental attribution error, and explain how it can influence our explanations for the behavior of other people.

Q2) Describe the Stanford Prison Experiment, and explain how the results of that study help explain the mistreatment of prisoners at Abu Ghraib.

Q3) Using the tips listed in Table 11.5 of your textbook describe how to resist an authority's unacceptable orders.

Q4) What was the Robbers Cave Experiment? How did psychologist Muzafer Sherif create and then reduce tensions between two groups of boys at a summer camp?

Q5) What is conformity? How is it influenced by normative and informational social influence, and culture?

Q6) What is a stereotype, and what is stereotype threat? What scientific evidence exists to support the notion of stereotype threat?

Q7) Define the rules of reciprocity and commitment, provide an example of each, and indicate how persuasion tactics can be resisted.

Q8) Under what conditions are bystanders most likely to help a stranger? Least likely to help a stranger?

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Chapter 11: Section 2: Social Psychology

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Q1) The branch of psychology that studies how a person's thoughts, feelings, and behavior are influenced by the presence of other people and by the social and physical environment is called _____ psychology.

A)cognitive

B)behavioral

C)evolutionary

D)social

Q2) Strayer investigates the mental processes we use to make sense of our physical environment and form judgments about the characteristics and motives of other people. Dr. Strayer is most likely a(n) _____ psychologist.

A)evolutionary

B)clinical

C)social

D)cognitive

Q3) The most significant factor in attraction is:

A)a great personality.

B)familiarity with the person.

C)similarity.

D)physical appearance.

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Page 55

Chapter 11: Section 3: Social Psychology

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Q1) Similarity is a powerful predictor of attraction in most Western cultures.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Multiple elements combined to create the conditions for brutality at Abu Ghraib prison, including in-group versus out-group thinking, negative stereotypes, dehumanization, and prejudice.

A)True

B)False

Q3) When we are uncertain or doubt our judgment, we may look to our reference group as a source of accurate information, which is called informational social influence.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Normative social influence is behavior that is motivated by the desire to gain social acceptance and approval.

A)True B)False

Q5) Phillip Zimbardo is most famous for conducting the Stanford Prison Experiment. A)True B)False

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Chapter 11: Section 4: Social Psychology

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Q1) Research indicates that people have a strong tendency to perceive others in terms of two basic social categories:

A)the in-group and the out-group.

B)popular and unpopular.

C)friendly and antisocial.

D)conformists and nonconformists.

Q2) In Milgram's original experiment, the:

A)"learner" was given actual electric shocks, some of them very severe, by the "teacher" during the course of the experiment.

B)"teacher" was allowed to decide which level of shock, if any, to administer to the "learner."

C)subject assigned to the "teacher" role was given a sample electric shock at the 45-volt level.

D)"learner" was allowed to leave once the level of shock administered by the "teacher" became too painful.

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Chapter 11: Section 5: Social Psychology

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Q1) Even though it had been billed as "one of the most delightfully funny Broadway plays every produced," Michael thought the jokes were corny, the actors were too mechanical in delivering their lines, and the singing was mediocre. However, at the conclusion of the play, Michael reluctantly stood up with the rest of the audience to join in the standing ovation. Michael's behavior clearly illustrates:

A)obedience.

B)prosocial behavior.

C)the stereotype threat.

D)conformity.

Q2) Because of his deep concerns about the effects of global warming, Riley took part in a protest demonstration in front of the hotel where the head of the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency was making a speech to an annual meeting of coal producers. This example BEST illustrates the _____ component of attitudes.

A)behavioral

B)emotional

C)biological

D)cognitive

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Chapter 12: Section 1: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) Describe the role of major life events and change in producing stress. Next, list some of the limitations of the life events approach to measuring the impact of stress on health.

Q2) What gender differences have been found in the effects of social support?

Q3) Describe the Type A and Type B behavior patterns, and identify the personality dimension or dimensions that seem to produce the highest health risks.

Q4) Identify and describe what is involved in the stress pathway identified by Hans Selye, and explain the conditions under which this response may be helpful or harmful to physical health.

Q5) Do personality factors cause disease? Describe the research findings on this topic and explain why psychologists and other scientists are cautious in the statements they make about the connections between personality and health.

Q6) Define burnout, explain the characteristics of burnout, and describe work situations that are likely to lead to burnout, as well as steps that can be taken to prevent burnout.

Q7) What kinds of social support efforts are LEAST likely to be perceived as helpful? What is "invisible support"?

Q8) What is a placebo, and how are placebos used in biomedical research?

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Chapter 12: Section 2: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) When Deon got to the parking lot, he was distressed to find that his new car had been badly damaged by a hit-and-run driver. At this point, Deon is probably in the _____ stage of the general adaptation syndrome.

A)stress contagion

B)alarm

C)resistance

D)exhaustion

Q2) Brandon came down with viral pneumonia. His body's immune system will produce _____ to defend him against the infection.

A)lymphocytes

B)adrenaline and noradrenaline

C)corticosteroids

D)catecholamines

Q3) Walter Cannon is to _____ as Robert Ader is to _____.

A)the fight-or-flight response; psychoneuroimmunology

B)the general adaptation syndrome; psychoneuroimmunology

C)the general adaptation syndrome; the fight-or-flight response

D)psychoneuroimmunology; the general adaptation syndrome

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Chapter 12: Section 3: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) People in the highest socioeconomic levels of society tend to have the highest levels of psychological distress and physical illness.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Because microaggressions are subtle forms of racism, they contribute very little to the stress experienced by minority groups.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In a survey about racism, less than 10 percent of African American adolescents reported being treated as incompetent or dangerous-or both-on the basis of their race.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Although racism and discrimination can create social problems, they are not significant sources of ongoing or chronic stress for those who are discriminated against on the basis of their race.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 12: Section 4: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) Research has generally found that people who have many friends, a large social network, and frequent contact with others are:

A)more likely to get sick because they are exposed to more germs than people who have few social contacts.

B)less likely to develop a serious illness than people who have little contact with others.

C)more likely to develop a serious illness because they experience more daily hassles as a result of the demands involved in having a large social networks.

D)more likely to experience the stress contagion effect and have lower resistance to infections, and a higher incidence of cardiovascular disease and stroke.

Q2) _____ is to acute stress as _____ is to prolonged stress.

A)The fight-or-flight response; the general adaptation syndrome

B)The general adaptation syndrome; the fight-or-flight response

C)Psychoneuroimmunology; health psychology

D)Health psychology; psychoneuroimmunology

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Chapter 12: Section 5: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) Lisa and Xavier are both middle-aged people who are under a great deal of stress. Which of the following statements about Lisa and Xavier is TRUE?

A)Xavier is more likely than Lisa to avoid his problems.

B)Lisa is more likely than Xavier to seek out social support.

C)Lisa is more likely than Xavier to engage in confrontive coping.

D)Xavier and Lisa are equally likely to turn to alcohol to cope.

Q2) According to Martin Seligman, people who exhibit a(n) _____ explanatory style are more likely to _____.

A)pessimistic; experience the stress contagion effect

B)optimistic; use internal, stable, and global explanations for negative events

C)pessimistic; use external, unstable, and specific explanations for negative events

D)optimistic; be healthier and persist despite setbacks

Q3) According to psychologist Shelley Taylor, the hormone _____ is higher in females than males and may promote the _____ response to threats.

A)oxytocin; tend-and-befriend

B)cortisol; fight-or-flight

C)catecholamines; tend-and-befriend

D)oxytocin; fight-or-flight

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Chapter 13: Section 1: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) Describe the characteristics of dissociative identity disorder, and discuss the factors that have been implicated in its development. Why are many psychologists and other mental health professionals skeptical about the validity of this disorder?

Q2) What evidence is there to support, and to contradict, the dopamine hypothesis as an explanation of schizophrenia?

Q3) Compare and contrast the characteristics and possible causes of anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa.

Q4) Define major depressive disorder, persistent depressive disorder, and seasonal affective disorder (SAD), and describe the similarities and differences between these three disorders.

Q5) What was the National Comorbidity Survey Replication (NCS-R)? What did it reveal about past-year and lifetime occurrence of symptoms of any psychological disorders, and how do these rates compare to common perceptions about the prevalence of psychological disorders?

Q6) What kinds of themes are commonly present in delusional thinking?

Q7) Describe the learning principles involved in the development of some phobias, including the role of biological preparedness. Include "real world" examples for each.

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Chapter 13: Section 2: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) Severely restricted eating and an intense fear of weight gain is to _____ as binge eating followed by self-induced vomiting is to _____.

A)anorexia nervosa; bulimia nervosa

B)bulimia nervosa; anorexia nervosa

C)body dysmorphic disorder; anorexia nervosa

D)bulimia nervosa; body dysmorphic disorder

Q2) The National Comorbidity Survey Replication (NCS-R) found that:

A)almost 1 out of 2 adults (46 percent) has experienced the symptoms of a psychological disorder at some point thus far in his or her life.

B)there was a very low degree of comorbidity; few people with one disorder were likely to be diagnosed with another disorder as well.

C)the vast majority of people with a psychological disorder seek professional treatment for their symptoms.

D)only 1 out of every 10 adults (10 percent) has experienced the symptoms of a psychological disorder at some point in his or her life.

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65

Chapter 13: Section 3: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) Martin has felt despondent and sad for the last six weeks since learning that his brother was killed while on a routine military patrol in Afghanistan. Outwardly, Martin is functioning adequately at school and his part-time job. But privately, Martin still feels very sad about the loss of his brother and has withdrawn from activities that usually bring him happiness. Martin is likely experiencing the symptoms of major depressive disorder.

A)True

B)False

Q2) According to the research discussed in the Critical Thinking box on smoking and psychological disorders, smoking seems to cause or trigger the development of psychological disorders in vulnerable people.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The fear of having a panic attack in a place from which escape would be difficult or impossible is called ergophobia.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 13: Section 4: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) According to the _____ of panic disorder, people with panic disorder are likely to misinterpret and exaggerate the meaning of their normal physical sensations and may be the victims of their own illogical thinking.

A)biological model

B)catastrophic cognitions theory

C)triple vulnerabilities model

D)biosocial developmental theory

Q2) _____ disorders are inflexible, maladaptive patterns of thoughts, emotions, behavior, and interpersonal functioning that are stable over time and across situations and deviate from the expectations of the individual's culture.

A)Anxiety

B)Major depressive

C)Culture-bound

D)Personality

Q3) Which of the following is NOT a core symptom of posttraumatic stress disorder?

A)Frequent, intrusive recollections of a traumatic event

B)Numbing of emotional responsiveness

C)Memory loss and an inability to identify threatening situations

D)Avoidance of stimuli that tend to trigger memories of a traumatic event

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Page 67

Chapter 13: Section 5: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) Taijin kyofusho is:

A)a form of meditation used in collectivistic cultures that has been found to be highly effective in treating social anxiety disorders.

B)a variation of major depressive disorder seen primarily in Asian countries that is characterized by despondency over failing to live up to family or community expectations.

C)the Japanese word used to describe a disorder that is very similar to dissociative identity disorder.

D)a form of social anxiety that usually affects young Japanese males.

Q2) An eating disorder in which the individual refuses to maintain a minimally normal body weight, is extremely afraid of gaining weight or becoming fat, and has a distorted perception about the size of his or her body is called:

A)cyclothymic disorder.

B)anorexia nervosa.

C)bulimia nervosa.

D)dysthymia.

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Chapter 14: Section 1: Therapies

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Q1) Contrast the assumptions of behavior therapy with those of cognitive therapy.

Q2) What are some of the important points that someone should keep in mind if he or she is considering psychotherapy?

Q3) What roles do self-help groups play in helping people with psychological problems? Give an example of a self-help group and describe how it works.

Q4) How are the operant conditioning procedures of positive reinforcement and extinction used to modify behaviors?

Q5) How does psychotherapy differ from biomedical therapy? Are the two always used separately?

Q6) How do paraprofessionals and lay counselors differ?

Q7) How do insight-oriented therapies (e.g., psychodynamic and humanistic therapies) differ from behavior therapy?

Q8) What effects do benzodiazepines produce? What are possible side effects?

Q9) Describe the psychotherapy techniques that were developed by Sigmund Freud, and explain their therapeutic functions.

Q10) Describe three therapeutic techniques that are used in non-European cultures (or used with members of non-European cultures).

Page 69

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Chapter 14: Section 2: Therapies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements about aversive conditioning is FALSE?

A)In general, aversive conditioning is not very effective.

B)Aversive conditioning attempts to create an unpleasant conditioned response to a harmful stimulus, such as cigarette smoking or alcohol consumption.

C)Aversive conditioning has been used to treat cigarette smoking, alcohol addiction, and compulsive gambling.

D)Aversive conditioning is a key component of systematic desensitization.

Q2) Valium, Librium, Xanax, and other similar antianxiety medications:

A)act quickly and reduce the physical and emotional feelings of anxiety in about an hour.

B)usually produce their anxiety-reducing effects only after two to three weeks.

C)can safely be taken for months or years without any serious side effects.

D)work by decreasing the level of the neurotransmitter GABA and slowing down brain activity.

Q3) Drugs that diminish psychotic symptoms are called:

A)antidepressants or antidelusionary medications.

B)antipsychotic medications or neuroleptic medications.

C)benzodiazepines or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.

D)inhibitor medications or tranquilizers.

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Page 70

Chapter 14: Section 3: Therapies

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Q1) Identifying negative automatic thoughts and irrational beliefs is a key first step in establishing an anxiety hierarchy for use in systematic desensitization.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Psychotropic medications are prescription drugs that alter mental functions and alleviate psychological symptoms.

A)True

B)False

Q3) One of the historical medical treatments for psychological disorders was called the circulating swing, which involved suspending the patient above the floor and spinning him or her.

A)True

B)False

Q4) When undergoing psychotherapy, you can expect change to happen overnight; as a general rule, most people make significant progress after one session of therapy.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 14: Section 4: Therapies

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Sample Questions

Q1) One advantage that group therapy has over individual therapy is that:

A)group therapy can be conducted by non-professionals and untrained group members.

B)group members receive helpful feedback and support from one another.

C)clients are more relaxed in a group than they are in individual therapy.

D)group therapy is more effective than individual therapy.

Q2) _____, a treatment for major depressive disorder, does NOT involve applying an electrical current to the patient.

A)TMS

B)VNS

C)ECT

D)DBS

Q3) ECT is primarily used to treat:

A)bipolar disorder.

B)seasonal affective disorder.

C)schizophrenia.

D)major depressive disorder.

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Chapter 14: Section 5: Therapies

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Q1) In the movie As Good As It Gets, actor Jack Nicholson plays the character of Melvin Udall, a gifted writer who always eats in the same restaurant, brings his own plastic utensils, and engages in strict patterns of behavior, such as repetitive hand washing or walking carefully on the sidewalk to avoid stepping on a crack. Failure to follow these ritual behaviors results in extreme anxiety and distress. The character Nicholson was portraying would probably be diagnosed with _____ disorder.

A)autism spectrum

B)Tourette's

C)borderline personality

D)obsessive-compulsive

Q2) Which of the following statements about social anxiety disorder is TRUE?

A)People with social anxiety disorder typically are unaware that their fears are unreasonable or excessive.

B)Social anxiety disorder is also referred to as phonophobia.

C)People with social anxiety disorder are intensely afraid of having a panic attack in a public place.

D)More women than men experience social anxiety disorder.

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