Professional Nursing Practice
Test Questions
Course Introduction
Professional Nursing Practice explores the foundational elements essential to the nursing vocation, emphasizing the integration of theory, evidence-based practice, and core professional values. This course examines the historical and contemporary roles of nurses within healthcare systems, ethical principles, legal responsibilities, and professional standards that guide nursing behaviors. Students develop competency in communication, cultural sensitivity, and collaboration as they learn to advocate for patients and uphold best practices in diverse clinical environments. Emphasis is placed on reflective practice, critical thinking, and leadership skills to prepare students for effective participation in multidisciplinary healthcare teams.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Surgical Nursing Clinical Management for Positive Outcomes Single Volume 8th Edition
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82 Chapters
1873 Verified Questions
1873 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Health Promotion and Disease Prevention
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a nursing history before a physical exam, a nurse identifies a client as being in a violent relationship. The most important intervention by the nurse at this time is to A) ask the physician to order a series of x-rays to look for old broken bones.
B) call the police if the abusive partner is in the waiting room.
C) help the woman develop an individual plan to diminish future abuse.
D) refer her to the local battered women's shelter.
Answer: C
Q2) The nurse is planning a community STD (sexually transmitted disease) screening fair. This activity would be considered A) epidemiologic prevention.
B) primary prevention.
C) secondary prevention.
D) tertiary prevention.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Health Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client had surgery yesterday and is complaining of pain. The best action by the nurse is to
A) ask the patient which pain medication she/he took last.
B) do a complete assessment of the pain.
C) prepare to administer the ordered pain medication.
D) record the client's complaints thoroughly and get the pain medication.
Answer: B
Q2) The nurse collecting data on a client's social history asks questions regarding the client's (select all that apply)
A) exposure to communicable diseases.
B) home life.
C) immunization history.
D) lifestyle.
E) social roles.
Answer: A, B, D, E
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Chapter 3: Critical Thinking
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Sample Questions
Q1) At the beginning of the shift a student nurse is meeting with the registered nurse (RN) assigned to the student's client. The student nurse should provide the RN with which information? (Select all that apply.)
A) Assessments the student will make
B) Documentation the student will complete
C) Medications the student will administer
D) Treatments the student can perform
E) What time the student is going to lunch
Answer: A, B, C, D
Q2) A nurse with 6 year's labor and delivery experience is floated to the intensive care unit. In this situation, the nurse would most likely function at the level of A) advanced beginner.
B) competent.
C) novice.
D) proficient.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse cautions that, when consumed in large quantities, antioxidants can become pro-oxidants, which
A) absorb large quantities of free radicals.
B) can produce free radicals.
C) create a free radical "shield."
D) enhance the immune system.
Q2) A young Hispanic woman tells the nurse that she is going to have a healing ritual to center her spirit after the recent death of her husband. The nurse recognizes the alternative medicine system of A) Ayurveda.
B) Curanderismo.
C) Reiki.
D) Tai Chi.
Q3) A nurse understands that many conventional drugs are derived from plants, such as A) meperidine (Demerol).
B) penicillin.
C) quinine.
D) steroids.
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6
Chapter 5: Ambulatory Health Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse contacts a client by follow-up telephone call after the client's visit to an ambulatory care center. The client who would benefit most from this intervention
A) has undergone cast removal.
B) has undergone same-day surgery.
C) is having blood pressure monitored.
D) is having blood sugar monitored.
Q2) The facility that could best represent an ambulatory care center is a
A) home health care agency.
B) hospital with less than 50 beds.
C) rehabilitation center.
D) student health center.
Q3) In a telephone consultation, the ambulatory care center nurse may
A) assess cardiac or fetal monitoring.
B) decide how soon the client should be seen at the center.
C) give advice based on the nurse's phone assessment.
D) teach a specific procedure based on approved protocols.
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Chapter 6: Acute Health Care
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A registered nurse (RN) seeking work in a voluntary health agency would choose a
A) church-affiliated hospital.
B) proprietary hospital.
C) state university hospital.
D) veterans administration (VA) hospital.
Q2) A hospital staff nurse is collaborating with a nurse case manager in planning the care of a client with a below-the-knee amputation. The primary role of the case manager is
A) client education on specialized care.
B) coordination of care for the client.
C) direct care of the client's medical problems.
D) education of the staff nurse.
Q3) Using a nursing intensity classification system, the nurse manager assesses that the client requiring the greatest amount of care is the
A) 24-year-old with a 3-day-old fractured femur in Russell's traction.
B) 37-year-old in isolation for hepatitis who is vomiting.
C) 42-year-old 1 day after a craniotomy.
D) 76-year-old 4 days after a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) who is comatose.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Critical Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The essential nurse competency that the critical care nurse uses when providing best care practices is
A) advocacy.
B) clinical inquiry.
C) clinical judgment.
D) systems thinking.
Q2) The nurse admitting clients to an intensive care unit understands that research demonstrates best client outcomes when clients
A) are in an area that allows liberal family visitation.
B) have consistent nurses caring for them.
C) have state of the art physiologic monitoring.
D) receive multidisciplinary care led by an intensivist.
Q3) A nurse working in critical care would plan interactions with clients' families based on the understanding that families most need
A) knowledge.
B) respect.
C) sleep.
D) spiritual support.
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Chapter 8: Home Health Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Henry Street Settlement in New York City, which offered public health nursing to clients with chronic health problems, was established by
A) Clara Barton.
B) Dorothea Dix and Sojourner Truth.
C) Frances Root.
D) Lillian Wald and Mary Brewster.
Q2) The service requested and needed by an applicant to home health that would not be eligible for coverage under Medicare is
A) home health aide.
B) housekeeping services.
C) physical therapy.
D) speech therapy.
Q3) A home health nurse has a client with permanent left-sided weakness after a stroke; the client is cared for by his wife and daughter. The nurse will design the plan of care to A) help the wife manage the home.
B) limit input from the wife and daughter.
C) reduce the impact of the client's health care beliefs.
D) stimulate the client to become independent.
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Chapter 9: Long-Term Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) In regard to nursing services in a long-term care facility, OBRA regulations include
A) a director of nursing that holds at least a master's degree in health administration.
B) availability of vocational nurses on each unit 24 hours a day, 7 days a week.
C) the presence of at least four direct caregivers on duty per unit for each shift, regardless of census.
D) the provision of nursing personnel consistent with the level of care and needs of residents.
Q2) Transfer from a long-term care facility is being considered for a combative resident.OBRA Resident Rights that impact this decision include
A) a legitimate and documented reason for the transfer.
B) addressing the problem behavior in the care plan.
C) the family preventing the discharge through litigation.
D) the resident has the right to delay the transfer for 20 days.
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Chapter 10: Rehabilitation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rehabilitation nurse reminds a client that according to the International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health (ICF), the broad theoretical qualification criterion for rehabilitation services is that the client
A) has impaired mobility in two limbs.
B) has impairments that lead to reduced ability to engage in activities.
C) is no longer capable of independent living.
D) requires assistance in mobility, dressing, and toileting.
Q2) The nurse clarifies that the Medicare criteria to qualify for rehabilitation services include that a client will
A) communicate adequately to be understood.
B) participate in 3 hours of therapy daily.
C) require three or more therapeutic modalities.
D) walk independently with crutches, cane, or walker.
Q3) The nurse makes sure that the client and the family understand that in the transdisciplinary approach, the entire team
A) estimates the time required for full functioning.
B) identifies a primary therapist.
C) limits what each discipline will offer.
D) sets team goals during transdisciplinary meetings.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Clients with Fluid Imbalances
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client had a stroke and is now being tube-fed. An important intervention the nurse should include in the care plan related to fluid and electrolyte balance is to
A) consult with a dietitian about providing sufficient calories.
B) check the sodium concentration of the formula.
C) prevent too-rapid infusion by using a feeding pump.
D) provide 1 ml of water per 1 kilocalorie of formula.
Q2) The nurse who is caring for a client prescribed diuretics and fluid restriction to control edema can most easily evaluate the effectiveness of the medical protocol by A) calculating plasma osmolality.
B) careful weight assessment.
C) checking the lab report on serum sodium level.
D) measuring the ankle circumference.
Q3) When assessing the laboratory values for an assigned client with fluid excess, the nurse finds the value that is consistent with this diagnosis to be A) BUN 12 mg/dl.
B) hematocrit of 46%.
C) plasma osmolality of 285 mOsm/kg.
D) plasma sodium level of 129 mEq/L.
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Chapter 12: Clients with Electrolyte Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has a low serum calcium level. During a bath the nurse cleans the client's face with a cloth, and the lips, nose, and side of the face contract. The nurse documents the presence of
A) Bell's palsy.
B) Chvostek's sign.
C) tic douloureux.
D) Trousseau's sign.
Q2) The nurse caring for a client taking thiazide diuretics should be sure to observe for A) decreased urine output.
B) increased peristalsis.
C) neurologic depression.
D) neuromuscular irritability.
Q3) For a client in renal failure with an abnormally elevated serum potassium level, the priority assessment by the nurse would be the client's
A) electrocardiogram (ECG) strips.
B) level of consciousness.
C) serial BUN and creatinine levels.
D) urine output.
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14
Chapter 13: Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has a blood pH of 7.30 and is being treated with an infusion of sodium bicarbonate. The nurse should assess this client for a possible delayed reaction of increasing levels of which component in the blood?
A) Bicarbonate
B) Calcium
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Glucose
Q2) In an assessment of current clients, the nurse recognizes that the client most likely to develop respiratory acidosis has A) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
B) hypokalemia.
C) salicylate overdose.
D) pulmonary fibrosis.
Q3) To prevent error in sampling arterial blood gases (ABGs), the nurse will A) place the sample immediately in ice water.
B) shake the sample to mix in heparin.
C) transfer the sample from syringe to air-tight glass test tube.
D) use a large beveled needle to withdraw the sample.
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15
Chapter 14: Clients Having Surgery
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38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most appropriate explanation by the nurse to explain why a client cannot eat before surgery is
A) "Anesthesia works best on an empty stomach."
B) "The stomach should be empty to prevent complications."
C) "There is not enough time before surgery to digest the food."
D) "You will not have to go to the bathroom frequently before surgery."
Q2) The nurse explains to a client that because of alterations in liver function caused by cirrhosis, the client is predisposed to postoperative fluid shifts and wound infection related to
A) elevated creatinine phosphokinase levels.
B) elevated lactic dehydrogenase levels.
C) low albumin levels.
D) low blood urea nitrogen levels.
Q3) During the preoperative interview, the client's statement that would alert the nurse to an increased risk during surgery is "I
A) am a reformed smoker; I haven't had a cigarette in 10 years."
B) rarely eat red meat; it usually makes me feel bloated."
C) take a couple of aspirin every day for my headaches."
D) take a large assortment of vitamins daily."
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Perspectives in Genetics
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12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse working with clients who seek genetic testing has an important role in (Select all that apply)
A) ensuring privacy and confidentiality.
B) helping the client negotiate disruptions in family dynamics.
C) recognizing the potential for stigmatization.
D) understanding the process of informed consent.
Q2) A nurse educating clients in a genetic screening clinic explains that recessive genes on autosomal chromosomes can be passed on
A) to children of either gender.
B) only to males.
C) only to females.
D) to females after skipping a generation.
Q3) Autosomes are the chromosomes that A) are common to males and females.
B) are inherited from the paternal side.
C) determine gender.
D) exist in paired forms.
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17
Chapter 16: Perspectives in Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse reviewing a research report recognizes that a discussion of oncogenes will address
A) a chemotherapeutic agent that eradicates viruses that cause cancer.
B) factors in the immune system protecting the client from malignant growths.
C) risk factors in cancer development.
D) segments of DNA that transform normal cells into malignant cells.
Q2) A client has worked for 2 years installing insulation containing asbestos. The nurse will determine further assessment questions based on the understanding that occupational exposure to carcinogens represents _____% of all human cancers.
A) <2
B) 2-8
C) 10-12
D) >12
Q3) In planning programs for cancer prevention, the nurse should provide information about cancer as the _____ leading cause of death
A) major
B) second
C) third
D) fourth
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Clients with Cancer
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a client with cancer of the thyroid gland has a tumor classified as T2, N1, M0. The nurse explains that the "T" in this classification schema represents
A) number of years the tumor has been present.
B) site of the tumor.
C) size of the tumor.
D) virulence of malignancy.
Q2) The nursing action that has the highest priority for a 32-year-old client with an implanted radiation source should focus on
A) assessing the client's reaction to the diagnosis and treatment.
B) preventing skin problems related to radiation.
C) promoting regular activity while confined to the room.
D) safeguarding the client and others from unnecessary radiation exposure.
Q3) When there is extravasation of vincristine (Oncovin), the nurse should initially
A) apply cold compresses to the site.
B) apply manual pressure to delay further circulation.
C) call the physician immediately.
D) leave the cannula in place and aspirate.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Clients with Wounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has a large, sacral pressure ulcer with a red wound base and no drainage. Which solution would the nurse select as the most appropriate solution for cleansing this wound?
A) A weak iodine solution
B) Dakin's solution
C) Half-strength hydrogen peroxide
D) Normal saline
Q2) The nurse who is using an enzymatic debridement ointment will
A) apply the ointment liberally over large areas.
B) keep the area moist after application.
C) medicate the client before applying ointment to viable tissue.
D) use the ointment cautiously on neoplastic ulcers.
Q3) A nurse is changing a dressing over a client's abdominal surgical incision. Which action by the nurse is most important?
A) Apply dressings using aseptic or sterile technique.
B) Irrigate the wound with copious amounts of solution.
C) Use strict sterile technique, including sterile gloves.
D) Wash the suture line carefully to remove debris.
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Chapter 19: Perspectives on Infectious Disease and Bioterrorism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is aware that anthrax is at the top of the threat list for bioterror weapons because (Select all that apply)
A) early manifestations are vague and look like a cold.
B) it would have a high mortality rate.
C) the attack would be invisible and odorless.
D) there is no vaccination available.
Q2) The nurse can best instruct a client to avoid the acquisition of hookworm by A) advising the client not to eat raw pork products.
B) advising the client to drink only bottled water when traveling.
C) encouraging the client to wear shoes outdoors.
D) teaching the client good hand-washing technique.
Q3) A notation on a client's health record notes that she has a subclinical infection. The nurse assessing this client would expect
A) clinical manifestations of the disease that are not as dramatic as usual.
B) fever with no elevation in the white blood cell count.
C) no systemic manifestations of disease.
D) reports of fatigue and lassitude after the infection.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Clients with Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) A postoperative client has liberal orders for pain medication and the nurse is delivering them on a strict schedule. The client denies pain when assessed but appears worried, is fidgeting in bed, cries occasionally, and uses the call light frequently for "minor" requests. When analyzing this situation, which component of the pain medication plan might the nurse discover needs revision?
A) The doses of medications are too low.
B) The interval between doses is too long.
C) The nurse needs a better therapeutic relationship with the client.
D) The route of administration should be changed to a faster acting route.
Q2) A client with a known opioid addiction is scheduled for surgery tomorrow. The nurse can best meet this client's needs for pain control by incorporating which interventions into the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)
A) Be prepared to use higher than normal doses of pain medications.
B) Involve the client and significant others in planning pain management techniques.
C) Offer a referral to an addictions' specialist.
D) Plan to taper opioids slowly to avoid withdrawal symptoms.
E) Request a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump for the immediate postoperative phase.
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22
Chapter 21: Perspectives in Palliative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse suggests that the client should try a mu-agonist type of opioid, which is often effective in managing pain, such as
A) acetaminophen.
B) hydromorphone.
C) ibuprofen.
D) naproxen.
Q2) The hospice nurse supports the family coping task of establishing a relationship with the health care team by
A) discussing the functioning of the family unit without the loved one.
B) explaining the roles of all interdisciplinary team members.
C) giving permission to take time to maintain friendships.
D) providing brief explanations about the care being delivered.
Q3) The hospice nurse requests the drug temazepam (Restoril) for a client who has difficulty in A) falling asleep.
B) falling asleep and staying asleep.
C) sleeping without nightmares.
D) staying asleep.
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Chapter 22: Clients with Sleep and Rest Disorders and Fatigue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains to a client with severe depression and who takes tricyclic antidepressants that the effectiveness of this type of medication may be a result of A) increased stage 4 sleep.
B) prevention of night awakenings.
C) prevention of sleep terrors.
D) suppression of REM sleep.
Q2) The nurse explains that clients with narcolepsy often also experience cataplexy, which is a/an
A) inability to move for several minutes on awakening.
B) seizure-like episode with tonic and clonic movements.
C) sudden loss of muscle tone that lasts for several minutes.
D) trance-like period of 5 minutes or more.
Q3) Most sleeping time is spent in A) REM sleep.
B) stages 1 and 2 sleep.
C) stage 4 sleep.
D) very light sleep.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Clients with Psychosocial and Mental Health
Concerns
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that although uncomfortable, mild anxiety under normal circumstances usually
A) interferes with problem solving.
B) is short-lived.
C) is repressed and forgotten.
D) spirals into panic.
Q2) A client with depression says to the nurse, "I have been on this antidepressant for 5 days and I still feel awful." The nurse can be most supportive by responding
A) "Depression is a horrible feeling. I am sure that you will be getting results from your medication in a few days."
B) "Depressive feelings make you feel hopeless. I will call your doctor and see if I can get an order for something to make you feel better."
C) "It's tough to wait for relief. Many drugs take several weeks to manage symptoms."
D) "You mustn't feel so down. Everyone reacts to medications in a slightly different way."
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Chapter 24: Clients with Substance Abuse Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that disorienting flashbacks may be experienced by a client under the influence of A) alcohol.
B) cocaine.
C) heroin.
D) LSD.
Q2) During history-taking, a client tells the nurse that he is addicted to caffeine and that he drinks 10 to 12 cups of coffee a day as well as several cola drinks and iced tea. The nurse would warn the client that during his NPO status for surgery, he should expect to experience
A) diarrhea.
B) euphoria.
C) headache.
D) itching.
Q3) The theory that describes substance abuse as a learned behavior is called the A) biologic model.
B) family system model.
C) psychological model.
D) sociocultural model.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Assessment of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse preparing a client for a dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) test explains that the purpose of this test is to measure A) amount of joint deformity.
B) degree of bone loss.
C) degree of fracture healing.
D) presence of bone infection.
Q2) A client with a new cast for his fractured ulna tells the nurse that he cannot feel his fingers. The nurse should initially
A) check for capillary refill in the client's fingers.
B) notify the physician immediately.
C) reassure the client that this is normal.
D) remove the padding around the fingers to increase space.
Q3) A client complains of deep aching in his lower leg. The nurse completes an assessment focusing on other indicators of A) bone cancer.
B) infection.
C) muscle strain.
D) neuromuscular impairment.
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Chapter 26: Management of Clients with Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is transferring a client with a noncemented total hip arthroplasty (THA) from bed to walker. In order to assist the client safely, which action will the nurse encourage before the client uses the walker? The nurse will tell the client to
A) place one foot on floor and hold the walker to stand.
B) push off of the bed with the arms and gain balance on one foot.
C) slowly bear weight on both legs.
D) stand at the bedside on both feet so the nurse can assess for syncope.
Q2) The nurse instructing a client at risk for osteoporosis would encourage the client to include which item in the client's diet?
A) Beans
B) Citrus fruits
C) Dairy products
D) Red meat
Q3) On admitting a client with acute osteomyelitis, the nurse is not surprised at the client's complaint of
A) generalized bone pain.
B) localized pain and redness.
C) nausea and vomiting.
D) paresthesias in the affected extremity.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Management of Clients with Musculoskeletal
Trauma or Overuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse informs a client that her plaster cast is dry because the nurse has assessed that the cast is
A) cold to the touch.
B) dull on percussion.
C) gray in color.
D) odorless.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a community group about bone health. Which of the following does the nurse recommend? (Select all that apply.)
A) Engage in regular weight-bearing exercise.
B) Get plenty of calcium and vitamin D in the diet.
C) If diagnosed with osteoporosis, take medications as prescribed.
D) Stop, or do not start, smoking.
E) Swim or cycle to get aerobic activity without stressing joints.
Q3) After the cast on a client's fractured ulna has been changed to a bivalve cast, the nurse will alter the approach to care by
A) omitting vascular checks to the extremity.
B) preventing pinching the extremity between the two halves.
C) taking off both halves of the cast when x-ray films are ordered.
D) taping the halves together with paper tape.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Assessment of Nutrition and the Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When preparing a client for gastric analysis, the nurse should plan for A) antacid administration.
B) fluoroscopic examination.
C) frequent expectoration for samples.
D) nasogastric tube insertion.
Q2) For a client taking a histamine H? blocker to reduce clinical manifestations of gastritis, the nurse would clarify that the client is at risk for a possible deficiency of vitamin
A) A.
B) B<sub>12</sub>.
C) C.
D) D.
Q3) A hospitalized client has lost several pounds in the last week. The nurse reviews the client's lab results understanding that which test is the best indicator of acute nutritional changes?
A) Albumin level
B) Pre-albumin level
C) RBC count
D) Total protein level
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Chapter 29: Management of Clients with Malnutrition
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4027
Sample Questions
Q1) Before administering enteral feeding, the nurse can ensure proper tube placement by
A) asking the client to swallow.
B) auscultating the stomach as 10 ml of water is injected.
C) extracting stomach contents from the tube.
D) holding the end of the tube under water to check for bubbling.
Q2) The nurse's action that will best prevent clogging of a gastric feeding tube is to A) adhere to the tube flushing protocol.
B) apply intermittent suction.
C) check tube placement every 4 hours.
D) periodically reposition the tube.
Q3) A client who is diagnosed with bulimia would be most likely to manifest the psychosocial alteration of A) denial.
B) depression.
C) self-mutilation.
D) social withdrawal.
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Chapter 30: Management of Clients with Ingestive Disorders
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4028
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse should anticipate that a client with mechanical obstruction of the esophagus would initially have difficulty swallowing
A) bread.
B) carbonated beverages.
C) mashed potatoes.
D) saliva.
Q2) The nurse would assess the client with an early mechanical obstruction of the esophagus for
A) aspiration.
B) coughing.
C) dysphagia.
D) vomiting.
Q3) The nurse encourages the client to obtain routine dental care because plaque formation can lead to
A) herpes simplex infection.
B) oral cancer.
C) periodontal disease.
D) stomatitis.
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Chapter 31: Management of Clients with Digestive Disorders
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4029
Sample Questions
Q1) A client needs insertion of a long tube for intestinal decompression. The tube that is inappropriate for intestinal decompression is the
A) Cantor tube.
B) Harris tube.
C) Miller-Abbott tube.
D) Salem sump tube.
Q2) A nurse is teaching health promotion measures to a support group for clients who are at high risk for gastric cancer. Important health promotion measures to advise the clients include (select all that apply)
A) avoiding alcohol.
B) eating a diet high in nitrites.
C) limiting salted fish and pickled foods.
D) quitting smoking.
Q3) Before tube insertion, the nurse performs the NEX measurement, which is the
A) distance from the tip of the nose to the ear lobe and to the xiphoid.
B) length of a tube from the hub to the tip converted to centimeters.
C) distance from the ear lobe to the umbilicus.
D) width of the lumen of the tube multiplied by the length.
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Chapter 32: Assessment of Elimination
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4030
Sample Questions
Q1) Palpation
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q2) A nurse is taking a history from a middle-age male client. He states that he takes no prescribed medications, but he does take saw palmetto and pumpkin daily. The nurse recognizes these herbs as being used to
A) acidify the urine.
B) maintain prostate health.
C) prevent bladder cancer.
D) ward off sexually transmitted diseases.
Q3) A nurse is assessing a client with right upper quadrant pain. The nurse asks questions directly related to the health of the client's A) appendix.
B) kidneys.
C) liver.
D) spleen.
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34
Chapter 33: Management of Clients with Intestinal Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4031
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for several clients. One client needs ostomy care. The nurse delegates ostomy care to the unlicensed assistive personnel for the client who A) has had the ostomy for several years, but whose arthritis makes self-care difficult. B) is afraid to touch the ostomy, causing the nurse to be frustrated and short-tempered. C) underwent ostomy surgery 3 days ago and has been stable with a red stoma. D) uses multiple brands and sizes of appliances and pouches.
Q2) Until a diagnosis is made, the nurse caring for a client being evaluated for acute appendicitis should treat pain and discomfort with A) comfort touch and reassurance. B) frequently changing the client's position.
C) narcotic pain medication.
D) warm compresses applied to the belly.
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Chapter 34: Management of Clients with Urinary Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4032
Sample Questions
Q1) A client is having intravesical BCG instillation for bladder cancer. Safety precautions the nurse should implement include
A) disinfect the toilet and urine containers with bleach.
B) limit time giving direct client care to 30 minutes per 8-hour shift.
C) not allowing visitors into the room during the instillation.
D) wearing a gown and gloves when entering the room.
Q2) A client has an autonomous neurogenic bladder. The nurse plans care for this client understanding that the client
A) cannot perceive bladder fullness or initiate or maintain urination.
B) feels no bladder-filling sensation but empties the bladder reflexively.
C) feels the sensation of the bladder filling but cannot initiate micturition.
D) has a temporary problem with initiating micturition.
Q3) Noting that the client's stoma is red and moist 8 hours after urinary diversion surgery, the nurse would
A) continue to make hourly assessments of the stoma.
B) notify the surgeon immediately.
C) remove the pouch and reapply it correctly.
D) remove the pouch to expose the stoma to air.
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36
Chapter 35: Management of Clients with Renal Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4033
Sample Questions
Q1) A client with hydronephrosis has undergone stent placement to relieve the obstruction. The priority action of the nurse is to
A) assess serum electrolytes and glucose levels.
B) monitor for manifestations of urinary tract infection.
C) monitor vital signs every 30 minutes for the first 4 hours.
D) provide accurate hourly fluid volume replacement.
Q2) When obtaining the history of a client with acute glomerulonephritis, the nurse should be sure to ask about A) a history of hypertension.
B) a history of long-term analgesic use.
C) recent respiratory tract infections.
D) recent urinary tract infections.
Q3) The nurse caring for a client admitted for massive blood loss from ruptured esophageal varices would assess closely for A) albuminuria related to renal hypertension.
B) decreasing urine output related to hypovolemia.
C) hematuria related to glomerular damage.
D) urine changes related to rhabdomyolysis.
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Chapter 36: Management of Clients with Renal Failure
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4034
Sample Questions
Q1) A client with renal failure has an order to infuse dopamine (Intropin) to activate the dopamine receptors in the kidney. The nurse would set the infusion rate for
A) 21 to 25 mg/kg/minute.
B) 11 to 20 mg/kg/minute.
C) 6 to 10 mg/kg/minute.
D) 1 to 5 mg/kg/minute.
Q2) The nurse explains to a client's family that the most common overall manifestation of ARF is that
A) expected urine output is altered.
B) the client's breath develops a fruity odor.
C) urine specific gravity is greater than 1.040.
D) urine develops a "root beer" color.
Q3) To help the peritoneal dialysis client who is complaining of low back pain associated with increased weight in the abdomen, the nurse would suggest
A) lying down as much as possible.
B) performing specified exercises.
C) reducing voluntary fluid intake.
D) walking on surfaces with gradual inclines.
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Chapter 37: Assessment of the Reproductive System
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4035
Sample Questions
Q1) When calling a woman to inform her that the results of her Pap smear are suspicious, the nurse should first
A) interpret the cytologic findings for the client.
B) provide an opportunity to discuss concerns and ask questions.
C) refer the client for further diagnostic evaluation by a physician.
D) schedule immediate retesting to validate the findings.
Q2) A nurse palpates a small lump in a woman's breast. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to
A) ask the client if any relatives have had breast cancer.
B) document its characteristics and the position of the client.
C) refer the client for a same-day mammography.
D) tell the client to return next month for a repeat examination.
Q3) The nurse instructs a client that a normal observation during breast self-examination (BSE) is
A) contour changes.
B) dimpling.
C) nipple deviation.
D) variation in breast size.
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Chapter 38: Management of Men with Reproductive Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4036
Sample Questions
Q1) After the urinary catheter is removed on the fourth day following a transurethral resection, the client is upset because he is dribbling urine. The most appropriate nursing intervention in this situation is to
A) help keep the client dry, explaining that it may take some time to clear up.
B) obtain urine for culture, because he may have a urinary tract infection.
C) remind him to void every hour to prevent dribbling.
D) tell him the problem will clear up in a few days.
Q2) A nurse teaches a client who underwent insertion of a prostatic stent 5 weeks ago to be sure to tell all care providers about this procedure. When the client asks about the reason for this instruction, the nurse would reply that
A) increased frequency of assessment for prostatic cancer is needed.
B) ongoing antibiotic therapy will be needed for 1 year.
C) the client should not be catheterized through the stent for at least 3 months.
D) the client should not undergo magnetic resonance imaging.
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Chapter 39: Management of Women with Reproductive Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4037
Sample Questions
Q1) Reading in the client record that a female client has undergone type II excision of the genitalia, the nurse would understand that there has been excision of the
A) clitoris and labia minora.
B) clitoris only.
C) entire vulva.
D) labia minora and labia majora.
Q2) The statement by a client who has undergone radiation therapy for vaginal cancer that would indicate the need for further teaching is
A) "I can try different positions for intercourse."
B) "I need to stop douching."
C) "If I take a warm bath to relax before sex, it might make it easier."
D) "I'm distressed about never having sexual intercourse again."
Q3) A clinic nurse is assessing a 16 year-old girl with menstrual complaints. When the nurse learns that the client has had a recent infibulation, the nurse should
A) call the local authorities.
B) find a smaller speculum.
C) educate the client about perineal hygiene.
D) tell the parents this is not done in this country.
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Chapter 40: Management of Clients with Breast Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4038
Sample Questions
Q1) A client complains of premenstrual mastalgia. Self-care measures the nurse could suggest to help decrease the client's manifestations might include having the client
A) apply ice to her breasts.
B) decrease caffeine intake.
C) perform breast massage.
D) use warm, moist soaks.
Q2) For a client receiving cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) as part of chemotherapy for her breast cancer, the nurse would include the instruction to A) drink eight glasses of water daily.
B) eat iron-rich foods.
C) practice good skin care.
D) take high-fiber laxatives.
Q3) In the discharge teaching plan for a client with breast augmentation, the nurse would explain that the client should A) avoid touching the breasts.
B) perform full range-of-motion arm exercises a week after surgery.
C) sleep on her back in a head-elevated position for a week.
D) take aspirin for pain relief and to decrease inflammation.
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42
Chapter 41: Management of Clients with Sexually
Transmitted Infections
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4039
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a client with herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 2 appropriate methods to prevent further spread of the virus while lesions are present. The nurse stresses that clients should
A) apply warm soaks to the lesions.
B) complete antibiotic therapy.
C) maintain separate towels and other personal items.
D) stop using condoms because they are irritating.
Q2) The nurse is counseling a client with herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection. Which of the following would best meet most clients' needs in coping with this diagnosis?
A) Contact information for a support group
B) Information about promising drug trials
C) Websites containing STD information
D) Written information about the disease and treatment
Q3) The nurse determines that the woman who least needs screening for chlamydial infection is a
A) 22-year-old with multiple partners.
B) 35-year-old with a single partner
C) high-risk pregnant woman.
D) sexually active 17-year-old.
Page 43
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Chapter 42: Assessment of the Endocrine and Metabolic Systems
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4040
Sample Questions
Q1) As an indication that the safety needs of a client scheduled for an angiography are being addressed, the nurse would ask
A) "Are you allergic to any seafood?"
B) "Have you gained or lost weight in the last 2 months?"
C) "What is your age and marital status?"
D) "When was the date of your last tetanus booster?"
Q2) A client is having a physical examination and tells the nurse about a painful area in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. Based on this information, the nurse would
A) avoid any manipulation or contact with the painful area.
B) examine the painful area at the end of the assessment.
C) examine the right upper quadrant area first.
D) notify the physician to complete the examination.
Q3) In preparing a client for urine collection in the evaluation of urinary ketosteroids, the nurse would
A) place an indwelling catheter.
B) place a preservative in the collection bottle.
C) measure hourly urine outputs.
D) use a new collection bag.
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Chapter 43: Management of Clients with Thyroid and Parathyroid Disorders
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4041
Sample Questions
Q1) In the initial treatment of a teenager with hyperthyroidism, the nurse would anticipate using
A) levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid).
B) liothyronine sodium (Cytomel).
C) methimazole (Tapazole).
D) radioactive iodine (131I).
Q2) In a client admitted to the clinical unit with a sporadic goiter, the nurse might expect to find that the client
A) frequently travels in foreign countries.
B) has a large intake of aspirin.
C) ingests a large amount of cabbage.
D) lives in the Great Lakes region.
Q3) The nurse should assess a client with a history of hypothyroidism for A) goiter.
B) Graves' disease.
C) Hashimoto's thyroiditis.
D) myxedema.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Management of Clients with Adrenal and Pituitary Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4042
Sample Questions
Q1) Before surgery, a client diagnosed with pheochromocytoma would be instructed to avoid
A) a diet high in vitamins and minerals.
B) coffee, tea, and cola.
C) long rest periods.
D) sedative medications.
Q2) In a client with addisonian crisis, assessment would indicate that the drug Kayexalate is not effective when the nurses assesses the clinical manifestation of A) decreasing blood pressure.
B) low back pain.
C) pedal edema.
D) rapid or erratic pulse.
Q3) For a client who has undergone transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, the aspect of usual postoperative care that the nurse would modify is
A) administration of oxygen.
B) leg exercises.
C) nutrition.
D) oral care.
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Chapter 45: Management of Clients with Diabetes Mellitus
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4043
Sample Questions
Q1) In planning teaching and ongoing care for a new diabetic client, the clinic nurse should base the plan around concepts such as (Select all that apply)
A) continual assessment of client knowledge and skill level.
B) empowering the client to become the expert in his/her care.
C) liberal use of referrals depending on client need.
D) the nurse being the expert in diabetes care.
E) using a multidisciplinary approach.
Q2) The nurse evaluating the laboratory studies of a 46-year-old client would recognize that the laboratory report most suggestive of the presence of diabetes mellitus is
A) a glucose tolerance test that takes 2 hours to return to normal.
B) fasting blood glucose level of 151 mg/dl.
C) high urine ketone levels with +2 glycosuria.
D) random ("casual") blood glucose level of 80 mg.
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Chapter 46: Management of Clients with Exocrine
Pancreatic and Biliary Disorders
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4044
Sample Questions
Q1) A client who had pancreatic surgery has been started on medication therapy with pancrelipase (Pancrease). The manifestation that the nurse would report as an indication that the dosage may be insufficient is
A) black, tarry stools.
B) clay-colored stools.
C) constipation.
D) steatorrhea.
Q2) A client with a history of cholelithiasis presents at the hospital with nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, and jaundice. The nurse would assess the client for A) common bile duct obstruction.
B) infarct of the hepatic vein.
C) perforation of the gallbladder.
D) spasm of the biliary tree.
Q3) The nurse planning the care of a client admitted with severe pancreatitis would anticipate the diet order of A) clear liquids.
B) enteral feedings.
C) NPO with TPN.
D) soft, low fat.
Page 48
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Chapter 47: Management of Clients with Hepatic Disorders
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4045
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to immunize a client who has had sexual contact with a known carrier of hepatitis B. The nurse would know that the medication providing the best immediate protection against hepatitis B is
A) hepatitis B immune globulin.
B) hepatitis B surface antigen.
C) hepatitis B vaccine.
D) standard immune globulin.
Q2) A client has been admitted with a diagnosis of "fatty liver." The nurse is aware that manifestations of this condition are
A) likely to worsen even after the cause is eliminated.
B) related to the degree of fat infiltration.
C) severe even in mild cases of the condition.
D) vague and nonspecific.
Q3) The nurse preparing to discharge a client with acute hepatitis B instructs the client to avoid
A) acetaminophen and aspirin.
B) laxatives and stool softeners.
C) nicotine and caffeine.
D) oral decongestants.
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Assessment of the Integumentary System
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4046
Sample Questions
Q1) After tape is applied for skin patch testing, the nurse would include in the client's instructions to return to the clinic for tape removal and initial reading in A) 24 hours.
B) 48 hours.
C) 3 days.
D) 7 days.
Q2) The nurse would record the presence of a lichenification as a A) complicated lesion.
B) primary lesion.
C) secondary lesion.
D) simple lesion.
Q3) In a highly pigmented client, the nurse would best assess for erythema by A) follicular accentuation.
B) induration.
C) reddening of the skin.
D) striation.
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Chapter 49: Management of Clients with Integumentary Disorders
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4047
Sample Questions
Q1) When providing topical treatment of lesions for a client with intertrigo, the nurse would avoid the use of
A) Burrow's solution.
B) cornstarch.
C) talc-containing powder.
D) topical steroids.
Q2) Before initiation of photochemotherapy (PUVA), the nurse instructs a client suspected of having lupus erythematosus about the diagnostic study that will be performed first, which is a(n)
A) antinuclear antibody test.
B) chest x-ray study.
C) complete blood cell count.
D) platelet count.
Q3) To help decrease the threat of a melanoma in a client at risk, the nurse would suggest that the client's diet should include
A) fish oil capsules.
B) lemon grass tea.
C) oatmeal.
D) red meat.
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Chapter 50: Management of Clients with Burn Injury
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4048
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would assess that the client with a "major burn" is
A) 60 years old with a 20% burn.
B) 32 years old with a 14 % burn.
C) 18 years old with an 18% burn.
D) 10 years old with a 15% burn.
Q2) To reduce contractures of the knee in a client with extensive burns of the knee and mid-leg, the nurse would position the client with the knee
A) extended.
B) flexed.
C) adducted.
D) abducted.
Q3) A severely burn-injured client is being discharged at the end of the week. Important interventions the nurse can provide to assist the client with re-integration into society include (Select all that apply)
A) down-playing the appearance of the burned areas to prevent discouragement.
B) encouraging the client to interact with people outside the hospital setting.
C) making the client totally responsible for all physical care to improve confidence.
D) role-playing potentially difficult social interactions with the client.
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Chapter 51: Assessment of the Vascular System
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4049
Sample Questions
Q1) During a physical exam, the nurse asks the client about medical problems that can impact vascular health, including (Select all that apply)
A) diabetes.
B) heart disease.
C) stroke or TIA.
D) gallbladder disease.
E) prior frostbite.
Q2) A client has a suspected DVT. The nurse would prepare the client to undergo a A) air plethysmography.
B) ankle-brachial index measurement.
C) computed tomography (CT) scan.
D) ultrasonic duplex scan.
Q3) During lower extremity inspection of a client with early chronic venous disease, the nurse would expect to find
A) decreased peripheral pulses.
B) dependent cyanosis.
C) muscular hypertrophy.
D) pitting edema of the lower extremities.
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53
Chapter 52: Management of Clients with Hypertensive Disorders
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4050
Sample Questions
Q1) In advising a hypertensive client who is reluctant to give up smoking, the nurse would state that nicotine from smoking
A) causes significant, irreversible changes in blood vessels.
B) does not affect blood pressure but increases risk of cardiovascular disease.
C) increases blood pressure immediately for a short time.
D) is statistically linked to the development of hypertension.
Q2) A client has two BP readings of (134/84) and 9138/86) at a community screening event. The client smokes and has "some sort of eye disease like my grandma had" plus the client states, "I might have high sugar." The most appropriate action by the nurse would be to (Select all that apply)
A) advise the client to return tomorrow for repeat blood pressure readings.
B) arrange for the client to be seen at a local urgent care center today.
C) inform the client about the high risk of developing hypertension.
D) tell the client that the blood pressure readings are not considered high.
E) work with the client to identify risk factors and create a plan to address them.
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Management of Clients with Vascular Disorders
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4051
Sample Questions
Q1) A client is scheduled to have a femoral-popliteal bypass with a synthetic graft. The nurse's preoperative teaching would include information about preoperative A) antibiotics.
B) anticoagulants.
C) platelets.
D) skin preparation.
Q2) A client who is overweight and smokes is newly diagnosed with thromboangiitis obliterans. The nurse's teaching plan would focus on the highest priority of A) controlling high blood pressure.
B) exercising regularly.
C) following a low-fat diet.
D) smoking cessation.
Q3) When a client scheduled for insertion of a vena cava filter begins to sweat and becomes diaphoretic, the nurse would recognize these clinical manifestations as A) cerebrovascular accident.
B) myocardial infarction.
C) onset of pneumonitis.
D) pulmonary embolism.
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Chapter 54: Assessment of the Cardiac System
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4052
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse palpating the precordium of a 73-year-old client for the point of maximal intensity (PMI) would place the hands
A) at Erb's point in an elderly client.
B) at the level of the sternal manubrium.
C) at the fifth intercostal space, medial to the midclavicular line.
D) to the left of the angle of Louis.
Q2) The critical piece of information related to the client's myocardium that is obtained through a PET scan is
A) electrical activity of the heart.
B) myocardial viability.
C) patency of coronary arteries.
D) status of valves.
Q3) The nurse establishing teaching priorities for a community health program would rank cardiovascular disease as a cause of death as A) first.
B) fifth.
C) seventh.
D) tenth.
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Chapter 55: Management of Clients with Structural
Cardiac Disorders
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would stress in a discharge teaching plan for a client recovering from endocarditis that to avoid further complication, the client should A) become actively involved in social and community activities.
B) drink at least 1000 ml of fluid daily to ensure adequate hydration.
C) initiate a comprehensive daily exercise program.
D) notify the physician when invasive dental procedures are planned.
Q2) For a client waiting for a heart transplant who has been fitted with a left ventricular assist device (LVAD), the nurse would explain that the purpose of this device is to A) electrically stimulate the left ventricle to contract.
B) extract blood from the left ventricle and propel it into the systemic circulation.
C) measure hemodynamics of cardiac output occurring because of dysrhythmias.
D) sound an alarm when the intraventricular pressure drops.
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Chapter 56: Management of Clients with Functional
Cardiac Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4054
Sample Questions
Q1) A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with severe dyspnea, fear, noisy respirations, sweating, and tachypnea. The nurse would recognize that the client is exhibiting manifestations of
A) acute pulmonary edema.
B) acute myocardial infarction.
C) chronic congestive heart failure.
D) right ventricular failure.
Q2) A nurse is speaking to a group of high school girls about not smoking. The nurse would caution them that the risk of CHD in women who smoke is greater than that for nonsmoking women by
A) two times.
B) three times.
C) four times.
D) five times.
Q3) The nurse would recognize that the client at greatest risk for CHD is a
A) 35-year-old man who is 15 pounds overweight.
B) 40-year-old woman who repeatedly gains and loses 15 pounds.
C) 45-year-old man who lost 30 pounds by following a strenuous diet.
D) 50-year-old man 20 pounds overweight but a lifelong swimmer.
Page 58
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Chapter 57: Management of Clients with Dysrhythmias
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4055
Sample Questions
Q1) To prevent possible complications from cardioversion, before administering the shock, the nurse would ensure that the (Select all that apply)
A) emergency equipment is nearby and in working order.
B) joules are set to 50-100 joules initially on a monophasic machine.
C) machine is set to synchronize with the client's QRS complex.
D) the Code Blue team has arrived and is prepared.
Q2) A client with a serum potassium level of 6.6 mEq/L would have a characteristic ECG configuration of
A) increased PR interval.
B) inverted QRS complex.
C) no change.
D) tall T wave.
Q3) A client in the CCU goes into sudden ventricular fibrillation. The priority action by the nurse would be to immediately administer A) a lidocaine bolus.
B) atropine.
C) cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
D) intravenous (IV) magnesium.
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59
Chapter 58: Management of Clients with Myocardial Infarction
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is instructing a client in the proper administration of sublingual nitroglycerin (NTG). The nurse would include in the teaching plan information that the client should
A) assess blood pressure for reactive hypertension after each dose.
B) repeat the dosage every 5 minutes for three times if pain is not relieved.
C) store NTG tablets in the refrigerator for up to 6 months.
D) take an aspirin before taking the first dose of NTG.
Q2) A client newly diagnosed with STEMI has the nursing diagnosis Anxiety related to hospital admission. The nurse assesses that goals have been met when the client
A) continues to ask questions.
B) cries openly while the nurse is there.
C) is able to rest quietly.
D) needs repetition of information.
Q3) Four hours after the onset of pain from an MI, the nurse would expect an increase in which laboratory result?
A) Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
B) CK-MB
C) Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
D) Leukocyte count
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Chapter 59: Assessment of the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would explain to a client that the most helpful test in the evaluation of a possible pulmonary embolus is
A) alveolar lavage.
B) bronchoscopy.
C) gallium scan.
D) ventilation-perfusion scan.
Q2) A client has just returned from China and is concerned about possible respiratory disorders. The nurse would advise the client to have a screening to assess for exposure to
A) adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
B) histoplasmosis.
C) tuberculosis.
D) Valley fever.
Q3) Evaluating the respiratory status of a 59-year-old man with vague complaints of respiratory problems, the nurse would know the assessment that is normal is
A) an inspiratory wheeze heard only with a stethoscope.
B) dyspnea with mild exertion.
C) reports of loud snoring by the client's spouse.
D) the absence of sputum production after coughing.
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Page 61
Chapter 60: Management of Clients with Upper Airway Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explaining the pieces of a tracheostomy to a client would note that the portion of the tracheostomy apparatus used to round the end of the tube for insertion is the
A) flange.
B) inner cannula.
C) obturator.
D) pilot tube.
Q2) The observation that would require an immediate nursing intervention for a client recently returned to the unit following partial laryngectomy is
A) blood-tinged sputum.
B) copious respiratory secretions.
C) difficulty swallowing.
D) pulsating tracheostomy tube.
Q3) The measure that would best aid the nurse in removing heavy, tenacious secretions during suctioning is
A) encouraging frequent coughing and deep breathing.
B) employing postural drainage before suctioning.
C) hyperinflating the lungs before suctioning.
D) instilling sterile saline directly into the trachea.
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Chapter 61: Management of Clients with Lower Airway and Pulmonary Vessel
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client tells the nurse that he read something about "dead space" in an article about emphysema and asks the nurse to explain it to him. The nurse's most accurate answer would be the following:
A) "Any part of your lungs that contains mucous secretions is called dead space."
B) "Dead space is an area of your lung that does not participate in air exchange."
C) "Parts of the lower airway that serve as a conduit for fresh air."
D) "This is a small area of necrotic tissue that can cause infection."
Q2) A client has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). In reviewing this client's laboratory values, the nurse would not be surprised to see a/an
A) decreased sedimentation rate.
B) elevated RBC count.
C) normochromic anemia.
D) therapeutic INR.
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63
Chapter 62: Management of Clients with Parenchymal and Pleural Disorders
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34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would explain that the client's diagnosis of interstitial pneumonia means A) pus has accumulated in the major bronchi.
B) the alveoli are filled with fluid.
C) the small bronchioles are inflamed.
D) there is an inflammatory response in the tissue surrounding the air space.
Q2) The nurse would know that the client most likely to exhibit a false-negative Mantoux reaction is the client who is
A) being treated for sickle cell disease.
B) HIV-positive.
C) malnourished.
D) previously diagnosed with TB.
Q3) A spinal cord-injured client complains of severe dyspnea in the side-lying position. The nurse anticipates diagnostic testing to reveal
A) a pleural abscess.
B) a tension pneumothorax.
C) bilateral diaphragmatic paralysis.
D) pneumonia.
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Page 64
Chapter 63: Management of Clients with Acute Pulmonary Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse planning care for an intubated client includes which interventions to prevent accidental extubation? (Select all that apply.)
A) Avoid opioid analgesics to prevent confusion and sedation.
B) Do not reposition the client unless absolutely necessary.
C) Keep tubing out of the client's reach.
D) Provide adequate sedation and pain control.
E) Use wrist restraints according to hospital policy.
Q2) A client has rapidly progressing ARDS. Which actions by the nurse can help the family during this crisis? (Select all that apply.)
A) Avoid disturbing them in the waiting room.
B) Limit visiting time so the family does not fatigue.
C) Provide frequent condition updates.
D) Use clear communication.
Q3) As part of the care of a mechanically ventilated client, the nursing action that would be inappropriate is
A) providing oral care every 2 hours.
B) keeping the head of the bed flat while intubated.
C) using aseptic technique for suctioning.
D) washing the hands before and after care.
Page 65
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Chapter 64: Assessment of the Eyes and Ears
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is complaining of dryness, burning, and grittiness in both eyes. The nurse would conduct further assessments to confirm a suspicion of
A) acute angle glaucoma.
B) allergies.
C) hypertensive eye disease.
D) mild corneal abrasion.
Q2) A client is being treated for arthritis with large doses of aspirin, and the nurse assesses the client for ototoxicity. The most indicative clinical manifestation of damage to the eighth cranial nerve is
A) ear pain.
B) hearing loss.
C) nystagmus.
D) tinnitus.
Q3) Before insertion of the otoscope speculum in the ear of an adult, the nurse would pull the pinna
A) down and back.
B) down and forward, and out.
C) up and back, and out.
D) up and forward.
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Chapter 65: Management of Clients with Visual Disorders
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is concerned about a client's slowly healing corneal ulcer because such an injury can lead to
A) cataract formation.
B) perforation of the anterior chamber.
C) retinal detachment.
D) secondary glaucoma.
Q2) The nurse would counsel clients who have experienced optic neuritis that they should see a physician regularly because they are at high risk for A) diabetes mellitus.
B) glaucoma.
C) multiple sclerosis.
D) permanent blindness.
Q3) The nurse obtaining the history of a client admitted for retinal detachment would note that the assessment finding not consistent with retinal detachment is the client's report of
A) a feeling of having a "curtain pulled over my eyes."
B) experiencing intense pain.
C) "floaters" in the visual field.
D) sudden flashes of bright light.
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Chapter 66: Management of Clients with Hearing and Balance Disorders
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23 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A young client has a perforation of the tympanic membrane that occurred while cleaning the ear with a pointed object. The nurse would advise that
A) a hearing aid is usually necessary after the tympanic membrane heals.
B) perforations often heal spontaneously with no complications.
C) the client should remain in a quiet environment until healed.
D) the client will most likely experience vertigo.
Q2) The nurse is conducting a wellness seminar on healthy hearing through the life span and would suggest which of the following activities as primary prevention measures for hearing loss? (Select all that apply)
A) "Avoid inserting hard objects into the ear."
B) "Care for your hearing aids according to the manufacturer's directions."
C) "Don't use medications that can cause hearing loss."
D) "See your doctor right away for symptoms of ear infection."
E) "Wear protective head gear when participating in sports."
Q3) After assisting a client with insertion of a hearing aid, the nurse would
A) allow the client to adjust volume before speaking.
B) cup hand over the client's ear to check for feedback.
C) explain that the whistling noise will subside in a few minutes.
D) stand in front of the client and speak loudly.
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Chapter 67: Assessment of the Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In assessing the cause of the decreased level of consciousness in a client in a coma, the diagnostic procedure that would provide the most accurate information is
A) computed tomography (CT) scan.
B) detailed history of the accident.
C) physical examination.
D) skull x-ray film.
Q2) During a lumbar puncture on a client in the lateral recumbent position, the physician remarks that the opening pressure is normal. The nurse would interpret this to mean that the pressure is
A) below 5 mm Hg.
B) between 6 and 13 mm Hg.
C) between 14 and 25 mm Hg.
D) above 25 mm Hg.
Q3) The nurse would explain to a client scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG) that an EEG
A) assesses for the presence of solid masses in the brain.
B) measures the adequacy of cerebral perfusion.
C) records cerebral blood flow patterns.
D) traces superficial electrical activity of the cerebral cortex.
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Page 69
Chapter 68: Management of Comatose or Confused
Clients
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a client does not respond to verbal stimuli, to determine level of consciousness the nurse should
A) apply pressure across the client's nail bed.
B) ask the client to squeeze the nurse's fingers.
C) check deep tendon reflexes.
D) lightly pinch the skin of the hand.
Q2) A nurse preparing to give mouth care to a comatose client should first place this client into the position of A) high Fowler.
B) lateral.
C) low Fowler.
D) prone.
Q3) A nurse could appropriately assess for the doll's eye reflex in a client who is a/an A) conscious man who has been diagnosed with acute cerebrovascular accident. B) conscious young woman after an auto accident.
C) unconscious elderly man who has sustained a cervical spine injury.
D) unconscious teenager who has overdosed on drugs.
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Page 70
Chapter 69: Management of Clients with Cerebral Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a client receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) should assess for
A) anorexia, numbness, and tingling of extremities.
B) ataxia, nausea, and bleeding tendency.
C) headache, myalgias, and arthralgias.
D) unsteady gait, slurred speech, and blurred vision.
Q2) Three days following intracranial surgery a client develops fever, nuchal rigidity, and headache. The nurse would suspect
A) cerebral emboli.
B) extradural hematoma.
C) increased ICP.
D) meningitis.
Q3) For a client who had a transsphenoidal resection of a pituitary tumor, the nurse plans to
A) assess the "mustache" dressing for drainage.
B) do minimal mouth care for the first 2 days.
C) encourage the use of straws when drinking.
D) provide heated mist and humidified oxygen.
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Page 71
Chapter 70: Management of Clients with Stroke
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has had two TIAs. Priority nursing actions focus on
A) helping the client reduce risk factors for stroke.
B) providing emotional support during this stressful time.
C) teaching the client's family about rehabilitation.
D) working with a speech therapist on speech problems.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a client who had a stroke several years ago. The client has indicators of being malnourished. The nurse would assess the client for which of the following?
A) Ability to throw the head back to propel the food
B) Embarrassment and frustration over trouble eating
C) Inability of the bowel to absorb nutrients
D) Positioning the head with a sideways' tilt
Q3) Self-care measures the nurse or speech therapist should teach the client who has residual dysphagia after a stroke include (Select all that apply)
A) chewing each bite thoroughly.
B) placing foods in the unaffected side of the mouth.
C) sticking to only semi-liquids and very soft foods.
D) turning the head to the unaffected side and checking for retained food.
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Page 72
Chapter 71: Management of Clients with Peripheral Nervous System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) On the second postoperative day following herniated disk surgery, the client says, "My legs are numb. I thought surgery was going to fix my problems." The nurse's best response to explain the continued pain is
A) "Because of the surgery, there is some swelling, which should subside."
B) "This pain is from the anesthesia and will subside by this afternoon."
C) "This pain is positional and will subside if you roll over on your side."
D) "You are probably moving around too much. I will raise the knee gatch."
Q2) On the first postoperative day, a client who had a cervical surgery requests the bedpan often, but cannot void. Based on these observations, the nurse should
A) assess for bladder distention.
B) assess for manifestations of urinary tract infection.
C) document this outcome as normal.
D) increase fluid intake.
Q3) The nurse instructs a group of secretaries that which activities could prevent carpal tunnel syndrome?
A) Getting up and walking every hour
B) Routine use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication
C) Splinting and elevation of the hand
D) Worksite evaluation and modifications
Page 73
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Chapter 72: Management of Clients with Degenerative Neurologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is assessed as being in the mild stage of Alzheimer's disease (AD). The nurse recognizes the complaint made by the client's family that is most closely related to the diagnosis is that the client
A) "has difficulty using simple things, such as her toothbrush or comb."
B) "seems to have lost control over her bowels."
C) "seems indifferent about things she used to care about."
D) "uses words in the wrong context."
Q2) The nurse cautions clients with ALS and their families to be aware that (Select all that apply)
A) activities should be spaced throughout the day.
B) clients experience incontinence, an early cause of falling.
C) cognition will usually decline late in the disease.
D) muscle weakness may cause a risk for injury.
Q3) The nurse explains that the pathology of Huntington's disease involves
A) a decrease in the neurotransmitter norepinephrine.
B) an excess of the neurotransmitter dopamine.
C) destruction of white matter in the brain.
D) formation of neurofibrillary tangles and plaques.
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Chapter 73: Management of Clients with Neurologic
Trauma
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse encourages the client who has sustained a C5 complete spinal cord injury that he should anticipate that he will be able to
A) dress totally independently.
B) feed himself.
C) learn to type or use a computer.
D) self-catheterize.
Q2) A client arrives in the emergency department after being involved in a motor vehicle accident; the client exhibits a complete loss of motor, sensory, autonomic, and reflex activity below the injury level. The nurse can determine if he is experiencing spinal shock by assessing
A) blood pressure and pulse rate.
B) for muscle spasm.
C) the presence of bowel sounds.
D) the pupillary response.
Q3) The emergency department nurse should position the client with cranial injuries
A) in high-Fowler position and knees elevated.
B) side-lying with head of bed elevated 20 degrees.
C) supine with head of bed elevated 30 degrees.
D) supine with the bed completely flat.
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Chapter 74: Assessment of the Hematopoietic System
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Q1) The nurse assesses the client who underwent partial removal of the stomach a year ago for the manifestations of A) anemia.
B) high white blood cell count.
C) low platelet count.
D) shortened bleeding times.
Q2) The nurse is monitoring the laboratory test results for a client receiving anticoagulation therapy. The nurse is aware that the International Normalized Ratio (INR) for most clinical conditions requiring anticoagulation is A) less than 1.
B) 1 to 2.
C) 2 to 3.5.
D) 3 to 5.5.
Q3) The nurse notes that a client has a higher than normal reticulocyte count. This would indicate
A) bone marrow depression.
B) dehydration.
C) increased erythrocyte production.
D) polycythemia vera.
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Page 76
Chapter 75: Management of Clients with Hematologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The manifestation that would require immediate investigation in a client with infectious mononucleosis is
A) abdominal pain.
B) joint discomfort.
C) leukocyte count of 12,000/mm<sup>3</sup>.
D) sore throat.
Q2) The nursing diagnosis that would have priority in the care of a client with agranulocytosis is
A) alteration in bowel elimination: Constipation due to iron overload.
B) Impaired Gas Exchange due to low RBC count.
C) potential for Impaired Skin Integrity due to poor nutritional status.
D) Risk for Infection due to decreased leukocyte count.
Q3) The nurse recognizes that manifestations seen in a client with agranulocytosis are the result of
A) elevated granulocytes.
B) hypoprothrombinemia.
C) profound neutropenia.
D) thrombocytosis.
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Chapter 76: Management of Clients with Immune Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client with a history of type 1 hypersensitivity reaction is receiving immunotherapy (or desensitization therapy). The nurse administering the allergen injection at 1:00 PM would ask the client to remain in the office until
A) 1:10 PM.
B) 1:20 PM.
C) 1:40 PM.
D) 2:15 PM.
Q2) A nurse would observe the client for how long to determine whether there is an immediate reaction to a skin test?
A) 1 to 2 minutes
B) 2 to 5 minutes
C) 5 to 10 minutes
D) 10 to 20 minutes
Q3) The nurse explains that a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction results in
A) antibody formation.
B) cell destruction.
C) mast cell production.
D) T-cell stimulation.
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Chapter 77: Management of Clients with Rheumatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client with RA is anxious to perform all of her activities of daily living. The nurse can best help the client by encouraging A) a slow, progressive schedule of daily activities.
B) complete rest during periods of exacerbation.
C) performance of activities in the early morning.
D) the use of assistive devices for dressing.
Q2) A client has dermatomyositis. The nurse will include priority interventions in the care plan provisions to meet the problem of
A) difficulty ambulating.
B) difficulty swallowing.
C) disorientation.
D) phlebitis.
Q3) The intervention the client with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) can do that is most effective in preserving motor function during periods when the affected joints are not inflamed is
A) application of moist heat to joints.
B) encouraging moderate increase in activity.
C) promotion of a high-protein diet.
D) restriction of the client's activity.
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Chapter 78: Management of Clients with Acquired
Immunodeficiency Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse understands the most significant laboratory study for the client who is HIV positive is the
A) CD4+ cell count.
B) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test.
C) total white blood cell count.
D) Western blot test.
Q2) When planning a community teaching event, the nurse should recognize that the group in which HIV infection is growing most rapidly is
A) adults older than 50 years.
B) blacks and Hispanics.
C) black teenagers.
D) gay white men.
Q3) The situation that would be least helpful to manage pain in the AIDS client who is an injecting drug user is
A) carefully rationing narcotic prescriptions.
B) having multiple practitioners prescribing medications.
C) limiting rescue doses of narcotic analgesics on a monthly basis.
D) refusing to fill lost prescriptions.
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Chapter 79: Management of Clients with Leukemia and Lymphoma
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Sample Questions
Q1) After a bone marrow transplant, a client develops GVHD and is readmitted to the hospital. The nurse intervenes to prevent which potential complication of treatment for GVHD?
A) Anorexia
B) Bleeding
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Infection
Q2) A client with acute leukemia develops a neutrophil count of 450/mm³. The nurse should (Select all that apply)
A) allow no plants or live flowers in the room.
B) allow no visitors at this time.
C) ensure strict adherence to hand-washing protocol.
D) place the client on protective isolation.
E) restrict the client's access to raw fruits and vegetables.
Q3) The nurse explains that acute leukemia is caused by
A) accumulation of immature blast cells.
B) excessively rapid mitosis of leukemic cells.
C) proliferation of neutrophils.
D) undifferentiated blast cells entering bone marrow.
Page 81
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Chapter 80: Management of Clients Requiring
Transplantation
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Q1) The nurse working with a post-transplant client tells the client that he should refrain from returning to his distant original home for up to A) 1 week.
B) 8 weeks.
C) 3 months.
D) 6 months.
Q2) A client who had a liver transplant 4 days ago has developed a fever and decreased biliary tube drainage. The nurse anticipates an order for the client to have a A) liver biopsy.
B) set of blood cultures.
C) ultrasound.
D) white blood cell count.
Q3) The nurse working with a client awaiting organ transplant would focus on dispelling the false belief that
A) medications used to prevent organ rejection have significant side effects.
B) the risk of organ rejection is an ongoing possibility post transplant.
C) transplantation will resolve the manifestations of end-stage organ disease.
D) transplantation will resolve most of the problems now faced by the family.
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Chapter 81: Management of Clients with Shock and Multisystem
Disorders
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Q1) A client is receiving fluid replacement for treatment of shock and the nurse assesses a central venous pressure (CVP) of 15 cm water. The nurse anticipates which of the following interventions?
A) Administration of vasoconstrictors
B) Administration of vasodilators
C) Decreasing fluid infusion
D) Increasing fluid infusion
Q2) When a client is admitted to the emergency department with a gunshot wound to the abdomen and is experiencing severe blood loss, the nurse anticipates the initial use of
A) dextran.
B) normal saline.
C) packed red blood cells.
D) whole blood.
Q3) Distributive shock is primarily due to
A) a fluid shift from the vascular space.
B) an increase in the size of the vascular space.
C) inadequate circulating blood volume.
D) inadequate pumping action of the heart.
83
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Chapter 82: Management of Clients in the Emergency Department
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a 100-kg client who sustained a burn injury over 50% of total body surface area (TBSA). How much fluid should this client receive in the first 8 hours?
A) \( 100-200 \mathrm{ml} \)
B) \( 1000-2000 \mathrm{ml} \)
C) \( 5000-10,000 \mathrm{ml} \)
D) \( 10,000-15,000 \mathrm{ml} \)
Q2) An unconscious client is brought to the emergency department (ED) by ambulance following a car accident. Without a family member to give informed consent, the nurse should
A) begin treatment of the client under the doctrine of implied emergency consent.
B) have a hospital administrator sign the consent form.
C) request the physician to sign the consent form.
D) wait until a family member is contacted before treating the client.
Q3) A client is brought to the ED with a suspected neck injury. The nurse should
A) adjust the table to sit the client upright.
B) apply a hard cervical collar to the nuchal area.
C) check for full range of motion of the head.
D) place a rolled towel under the client's neck.
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