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Product Management is a comprehensive course that explores the core principles, strategies, and tools used by successful product managers in the development and lifecycle of products and services. Students will learn how to identify market opportunities, define product vision, create roadmaps, collaborate with cross-functional teams, and drive the development process from conception to launch. The course covers essential topics such as user research, MVP definition, agile methodologies, product analytics, go-to-market strategies, and post-launch performance evaluation, equipping students with practical skills to manage and deliver products that effectively address user needs and business goals.
Recommended Textbook
New Products Management 10th Edition by C. Merle Crawford
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Q1) The job of a _____ in the field of new products is to help project managers develop and use good new product processes.
A)team executive
B)process manager
C)functional representative
D)technical specialist
Answer: B
Q2) Product development has become more challenging due to:
A)lack of feedback from superiors.
B)increased level of employee expectations.
C)reduction in the budget allocated for HR activities in several firms.
D)increased globalization.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is the least innovative category of new products?
A)Cost-reduced products
B)New-to-the-firm products
C)New-to-the-world products
D)Additions to existing product lines
Answer: A
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Q1) The basic new products process begins with:
A)concept generation.
B)opportunity identification and selection.
C)concept / project evaluation.
D)development.
Answer: B
Q2) The product protocol should focus upon:
A)product price.
B)product specifications.
C)product advertising.
D)product benefits.
Answer: D
Q3) In which of the following stages is the first full test-of-fit with manufacturing made?
A)Launch
B)Opportunity Identification
C)Concept Generation
D)Development
Answer: D
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Q1) These platforms can be strategically important.They are based upon billion-dollar assets so many of these platforms are personally driven by CEOs.Identify the platform in discussion.
A)Channel platform
B)Category platform
C)Product platform
D)Brand platform
Answer: D
Q2) A platform can be a technology,a design,a subsystem-anything that can be shared by one or more product families.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following statements is true about a platform?
A)The term platform was initially used in the packaged goods industry.
B)A platform can be a design.
C)Usage of a platform generally increases the cost of the products.
D)Platforms can be used for manufactured goods but not for services.
Answer: B

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Q1) Concept generation must be a(n)_____ process.
A)passive
B)reactive
C)active
D)defensive
Q2) Discuss the advantages and risks of open innovation.
Q3) Which of the following inputs,in the case of a service,required by the creation process can be BEST described as the sequence of steps by which the service will be created?
A)Form
B)Technology
C)Benefit
D)Conceptualization
Q4) All of the following are common barriers to a firm's creativity EXCEPT:
A)strong functional area allegiance.
B)heavy stress on continuous improvement.
C)strong group friendships / cohesion.
D)management tolerance of "mistakes."
Q5) What are the various obstacles to idea generation?
Q6) Discuss the toolkits for user innovation method.
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Q1) According to an assessment by the Arlington Institute,in the future,human cloning will raise ethical issues as well as the possibility of extending human life thanks to organ and tissue cloning.This high-impact,low-probability event is an example of:
A)observation.
B)lateral thinking.
C)wild cards.
D)itemized response.
Q2) Which of the following techniques can suggest new product functions by creating as many verb-object combinations as possible?
A)Reverse brainstorming
B)Omniscient proximity
C)Product function analysis
D)Scenario analysis
Q3) Which of the following guidelines should be followed for conducting a good scenario analysis?
A)Do a 20- to 25-year projection
B)A group of about 20 people works best
C)Periodically summarize progress
D)Never repeat the groups for scenario analyses
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Q1) Techniques used for creating perceptual gap maps based on overall similarities require customers to rate choices on individual attributes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The data obtained from users using customer attribute ratings is used for creating an OS perceptual gap map.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Determinant gap maps are speedy and cost-efficient.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statements is true regarding a perceptual gap map based on overall similarities?
A)It discovers gaps as well as demand.
B)It uses past sales data to predict future trend.
C)It takes into consideration phantom attributes.
D)It generates a perceptual map whose axes are clearly labeled with determinant attributes.
Q5) Describe determinant gap maps.
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Q1) In which of the following types of conjoint analyses is the respondent shown several alternative product choices and asked which one he / she would prefer?
A)Discrete choice analysis
B)Adaptive conjoint analysis
C)Choice-based conjoint analysis
D)Bayesian analysis
Q2) Conjoint analysis uses monotone analysis of variance (MONANOVA)to identify the:
A)appropriate price for a new product.
B)best market for a new product.
C)strengths and weaknesses of a competitor.
D)customer's underlying value system within the rank order data.
Q3) Explain the terms "utility lever" and "buyer's experience cycle."
Q4) Conjoint analysis is an analytical tool used to assess tradeoffs much like _____ analysis is a tool to develop perceptual maps.
A)factor
B)block
C)features
D)concept
Q5) What is information acceleration (IA)? Explain with an example.
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Q1) Early in the life of a new product,an idea is fragile and easy to kill;later in the development cycle the idea becomes a strong proposal and is tough to stop.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The farther a new product idea is allowed to proceed through the development process:
A)the easier it is to kill it.
B)the less stringent the evaluation it must pass.
C)the easier it is to wave aside the hurdles.
D)the smaller the number of people supporting it.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true regarding surrogate questions?
A)Surrogates often remain constant at different times in the evaluation process.
B)An example of a surrogate question is,"Will the product sell?"
C)They are based on the fact that the timing of factual information often matches our need for it.
D)Their response has little value except to help answer a critical question that cannot be answered directly.
Q4) Discuss the risk / payoff matrix.Explain go error and drop error.
Q5) Discuss the people dimension of the new product process.
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Q1) Concept testing is a part of the _____ process.
A)development
B)prescreening
C)launch
D)full screening
Q2) Discuss uses of concept testing.
Q3) Which of the following evaluation precedes the appearance of the concept?
A)Market testing
B)Creation of product innovation charter
C)Concept testing
D)Joint space mapping
Q4) Concept testing,if done properly,is equally effective and useful for all types of products.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following eliminates the greatest number of product ideas?
A)The PIC
B)Market testing
C)Attribute testing
D)Preference testing
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Q1) With reference to the source of scoring model factor,margins on sales is a surrogate factor considered on level two.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is considered to be a technical success factor by the Industrial Research Institute Scoring Model?
A)Proprietary position
B)Raw materials / components supply
C)Market need
D)Customer strength
Q3) The Analytic Hierarchy Process is a form of _____ analysis.
A)attribute
B)factor
C)decision tree
D)scoring
Q4) The list of factors used for scoring model should be reduced as much as possible and always kept fluid.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Explain the top-down and bottom-up approaches to strategy development.
Q2) Firms that build strategic criteria into their project selection tools are using a _____ strategic approach.
A)top-down
B)top-two-boxes
C)market testing
D)bottom-up
Q3) This strategy especially appeals to managers who feel business is suffering from "paralysis by analysis."
A)Low cost development and marketing
B)Go ahead with sound forecasts but prepare to handle the risks
C)Approve situations,not numbers
D)Forecast what is known
Q4) Which of the following forecasting techniques is most likely to be suitable for a time horizon of less than three months?
A)Delphi probe
B)Simple regression
C)Scenario writing
D)Jury of executive opinion
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Q1) Quality function deployment (QFD)is probably best suited to _____.
A)new-to-the-organization products
B)new platform development
C)product improvements
D)line extensions
Q2) The attempt to explain to the consumer why a specific product is the best choice for the solution to a specified problem is at the root of _____.
A)product positioning
B)product innovation charters
C)wildcatting
D)researching
Q3) Which of the following best defines a product?
A)Target market of the product
B)Positioning of the product
C)Marketing plan of the product
D)Attributes of the product
Q4) The purpose of the protocol remains constant irrespective of the market segment and time.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) What are derivative products?
Q2) Product designing is used to pretty up a product that is about ready to be manufactured.
A)True
B)False
Q3) On average,up to 80 percent of a product's cost is determined by the time it is designed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is a prototype? What types of prototypes may be used,and for what purposes?
Q5) The development of the augmented aspects of the product is an activity most often led by marketing people and is called _____.
A)envelope design
B)colocation
C)prototyping
D)ideation
Q6) Excellence in design benefits the bottom line of a firm.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Briefly define product architecture.What steps are involved in this process?
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Q1) For risky projects,rewards tied to the project's profit outcome tend to enhance performance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following organizational options offers the least project focus?
A)Functional
B)Functional matrix
C)Balanced matrix
D)Project matrix
Q3) What are the various conflict management styles?
Q4) In this conflict management style,team members with unpopular positions do not think it is worth the trouble and back out of the decision.
A)Smoothing
B)Withdrawal
C)Forcing
D)Give and take
Q5) Functional areas tend to focus more on company goals than their own goals.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Discuss the various problems associated with globally dispersed teams.
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Q1) If a firm plans to use only one type of use testing,products selected for testing should be preferably drawn from _____.
A)a batch
B)a laboratory
C)a pilot plant
D)final production
Q2) A batch product should be used for testing alone only if the production process is prohibitively expensive.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The first choice to do the product use test is the development team,but if vendor personnel are members of such teams,then they cannot participate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Even though beta testing is the ideal test,firms anxious to save time and money or to leapfrog competitors nevertheless opt to go with gamma testing.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Under _____,customers build the desired product,get an assessment of the resulting price,and state their likelihood of making a purchase.
A)virtual product testing
B)mass customization
C)benchmarking
D)channel-splitting
Q2) Discuss the "crossing the chasm" model suggested by Geoffrey Moore.
Q3) For a new entry or line addition in an established market the emphasis is on stimulation of _____,which entails drawing market share away from competition.
A)selective demand
B)primary demand
C)customer migration
D)temporary demand
Q4) Product cost is one of the common customer acceptance measures,used by firms as goals for individual products.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the various types of product line replacement strategies.
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Q1) Large firms are more likely to preannounce than firms with smaller share.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In most cases,the first step toward adoption is _____.
A)launch
B)announcement
C)trial
D)awareness
Q3) While launching a new product,intensity of coverage is an important issue in cases where:
A)warranty / maintenance service needs to be offered easily.
B)the product is complex.
C)the product is relatively new to the world.
D)customers need training for using the product.
Q4) Typically,the copy strategy statement should be written by _____.
A)the finance manager
B)the product development / launch team
C)the CEO
D)copywriters
Q5) Describe three common patterns for launch strategies and tactics.
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Q1) Pseudo sale is more vigorous than the controlled sale and much more revealing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Identify the controlled sale market testing method that involves outlets even if on a very limited basis.
A)Direct marketing
B)Speculative sale
C)Informal selling
D)Minimarketing
Q3) Firms that want to use two or more market testing techniques are more likely to begin with a _____ method.
A)minimarket
B)pseudo sale
C)direct marketing
D)full sale
Q4) Market testing for industrial goods and services can be conducted with the help of simulated test marketing.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the two important insights that can be gained from market testing?
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Q1) The toughest part of launch management is developing a situation analysis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to the expected effects matrix,devastating events having a low likelihood of occurrence:
A)must be dealt with immediately.
B)are "alert" variables that must be watched closely.
C)can be safely ignored.
D)are "control" variables that require contingency planning and tracking,if possible.
Q3) The most common type of company failure is _____,particularly at the retail or dealer level.
A)inappropriate pricing
B)inadequate distribution
C)inappropriate advertising
D)poor packaging
Q4) A launch management system must have an effective tracking system-with "trigger points" to activate contingency plans.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Generally,_____ product innovation refers to either new product design or delivery that reduces negative impacts on the environment.
A)white
B)natural
C)green
D)social
Q2) The unauthorized production of goods that are protected by trademark,copyright,or patent is known as near brand usage.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following best represents express warranty?
A)An instruction for use
B)Absence of a safety device
C)A statement of fact made by the manufacturer about a product
D)Information regarding an inherent risk
Q4) Most industries aggressively greet every legislative thrust on new products,and vigorous public affairs programs are standard fare.
A)True
B)False
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