Principles of Nursing Practice Chapter Exam Questions - 994 Verified Questions

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Principles of Nursing Practice

Chapter Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Principles of Nursing Practice provides students with a comprehensive foundation in the essential concepts, skills, and values underpinning professional nursing. The course explores the core principles that guide safe, ethical, and evidence-based patient care, including patient-centered care, teamwork and collaboration, communication, clinical reasoning, and cultural competence. Emphasis is placed on the integration of theoretical frameworks with practical application in various healthcare settings. Students will examine legal and ethical responsibilities, standards of practice, and the role of the nurse as a leader and advocate for health and well-being. By the end of the course, students will be equipped with the knowledge and critical thinking abilities necessary to deliver high-quality nursing care across diverse populations.

Recommended Textbook

Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 16th Edition by Clayton

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Chapter 1: Drug Definitions, Standards, and Information

Sources

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which is the most authoritative reference for medications that are injected?

A)Physician's Desk Reference

B)Handbook on Injectable Drugs

C)DailyMed

D)Handbook of Nonprescription Drugs

Answer: B

Q2) Which legislation authorizes the FDA to determine the safety of a drug before its marketing?

A)Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (1938)

B)Durham Humphrey Amendment (1952)

C)Controlled Substances Act (1970)

D)Kefauver Harris Drug Amendment (1962)

Answer: A

Q3) Which source contains information specific to nutritional supplements?

A)USP Dictionary of USAN & International Drug Names

B)Natural Medicines Comprehensive Database

C)United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP NF)

D)Drug Interaction Facts

Answer: C

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Chapter 2: Basic Principles of Drug Action and Drug

Interactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which route(s) enable(s) drug absorption more rapidly than the subcut route? (Select all that apply.)

A)IV route

B)IM route

C)Inhalation/sublingual

D)Intradermal route

E)Enteral route

Answer: A, B, C

Q2) The nurse recognizes that which factor(s) would contribute to digoxin toxicity in a 92-year-old patient? (Select all that apply.)

A)Taking the medication with meals

B)Prolonged half life of the drug digoxin

C)Impaired renal function

D)Diminished mental capacity

Answer: B, C

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Chapter 3: Drug Action Across the Life Span

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Sample Questions

Q1) After giving instructions to an expectant mother about taking medications during pregnancy, which patient statement indicates the need for further teaching?

A)"I will not take herbal medicines during pregnancy."

B)"For morning sickness, I will try crackers instead of taking a drug."

C)"If I get a cold, I will avoid taking nonprescription medications until I check with my physician."

D)"I will limit my alcohol intake to only one glass of wine weekly."

Answer: D

Q2) Which intervention would be considered to reduce accumulation of a drug in a patient who has decreased liver function?

A)Decreasing the time interval between dosages

B)Reducing the dosage

C)Administering the medication intravenously

D)Changing the drug to one that has a longer half life

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: The Nursing Process and Pharmacology

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Q1) What is the basis of the NANDA I taxonomy?

A)Functional health patterns

B)Human response patterns

C)Basic human needs

D)Pathophysiologic needs

Q2) The nurse is prioritizing care of a pediatric patient diagnosed with cystic fibrosis.Which nursing diagnosis would the nurse consider the highest priority?

A)Risk for altered nutrition: less than body related to decreased appetite

B)Altered breathing pattern related to thickened mucus secretions

C)Knowledge deficit related to disease process

D)Impaired skin integrity related to decreased mobility

Q3) What is the priority nursing diagnosis for an older adult with diabetes who is hospitalized for pneumonia?

A)Deficient knowledge related to lack of information about diabetic medication

B)Risk for falls related to weakness

C)Impaired gas exchange related to decreased pulmonary ventilation

D)Imbalanced nutrition: more than body requirements related to obesity

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Chapter 5: Patient Education to Promote Health

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Q1) The nurse is preparing to instruct a patient and his wife on technique and importance of assessing pulse prior to taking heart medication.Which principle(s) of learning would be appropriate in this situation? (Select all that apply.)

A)The learning environment

B)The patient's and wife's learning styles

C)The objectives/goal statements listed on the patient's care plan

D)The patient's financial ability to purchase the medication

E)The patient's understanding of the seriousness of his illness

Q2) The nurse has taught a patient's spouse to administer an injectable medication.After the spouse completed a return demonstration of the injection in the hospital, the nurse does not feel confident that this can be carried out independently at home and requests referral for a home health nurse.The nurse is using which phase of the nursing process?

A)Assessment

B)Implementation

C)Planning

D)Evaluation

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Chapter 6: A Review of Arithmetic

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Sample Questions

Q1) 15 kg = _____ lb

Q2) 0.5 + 0.05 = _____

Q3) 5/18 - 2/9 = _____

Q4) Convert 1 tablespoon to milliliters (mL): _____

Q5) 1 qt = _____ cups

Q6) 10,000 * 0.75 = _____

Q7) 7/10 ÷ 3/5 = _____

Q8) 0.00007 = _____

Q9) 5/12 * 3/4 = _____

Q10) What is the most accurate way for the nurse to document the administration of two milligrams of a medication?

A) Two mg

B) 2.0 mg

C) 2 mg

D) II mg

Q11) 3.75 - 1.5 = _____

Q13) 4.302 + 1.88 + 0.009 = _____ Page 8

Q12) 500 mL of solution containing 350 mL alcohol in water: _____

Q14) 0.100 ÷ 1000 = _____

Q15) Convert 2 tsp to milliliters (mL): _____

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Page 9

Chapter 7: Principles of Medication Administration and Medication Safety

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Sample Questions

Q1) Who defines the standards of care for the practice of nursing? (Select all that apply.)

A)State boards of nursing

B)Hospital policy and procedures

C)Federal laws regulating health care facilities

D)The Joint Commission

E)Professional nursing associations

Q2) Which example best demonstrates safe drug administration by the nurse?

A)Administering an oral medication with the patient sitting upright

B)Asking children to say their name before administering the medication

C)Leaving the medications on the bedside stand after verifying patient identification

D)Returning the unused portion of a medication to a stock supply bottle

Q3) What is the most reliable method to calculate a pediatric patient's medication dosage?

A)Age

B)Height

C)Body surface area (BSA)

D)Placement on a growth scale

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Chapter 8: Percutaneous Administration

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Sample Questions

Q1) Place the following steps for administration of nose drops in the correct order.(Enter your answer with a comma and space between each lettered option as follows: A, B, C, D, E.)

A) Draw medication into the dropper.

B) Instruct patient to blow the nose gently.

C) Review practice setting policy.

D) Explain the steps to the patient.

E) Position the patient into supine position with head backward over edge of bed.

F) Instill medication.

Q2) Which order(s) would be examples of percutaneous medication administration? (Select all that apply.)

A)Timolol 0.5% 1 drop to each eye daily

B)Albuterol nebulizer 2.5 mg qid

C)Heparin 5000 units IV

D)Lasix 20 mg PO every AM

E)Silvadene 1% topically to affected area

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Chapter 9: Enteral Administration

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Sample Questions

Q1) In which position would the nurse place a patient before the administration of an enteral feeding?

A)Supine

B)Semi-Fowler's

C)Left lateral

D)Prone

Q2) When assessing aspirated stomach contents, the nurse notes the color to be green with sediment.The nurse is aware that this most likely represents _____ fluid.

A)pleural

B)gastric

C)intestinal

D)tracheobronchial

Q3) Which action by the nurse is appropriate when administering enteric coated tablets?

A)Administer with an antacid.

B)Crush the tablet and mix with applesauce.

C)Encourage the patient to drink a full glass of water.

D)Instruct the patient to place the medication between the cheek and teeth.

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12

Chapter 10: Parenteral Administration: Safe Preparation of

Parenteral Medications

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which action by the nurse is accurate when withdrawing medication into a syringe from a vial?

A)Inject an amount of air equal to the medication into the vial.

B)Break the thin neck of the vial container.

C)Remove the rubber stopper on the top of the vial.

D)Discard the initial 0.5 mL of medication to ensure sterility.

Q2) An adult patient is to receive two medications IM.Which action by the nurse is most important in order to mix the medications in one syringe?

A)Assess for the presence of adequate muscle mass.

B)Ensure that the combined medication amount is less than 2 mL.

C)Determine the compatibility of the medications.

D)Use a needle that is 25 gauge.

Q3) Which principle(s) is/are correct for mixing insulin? (Select all that apply.)

A)Insulin orders and calculations must be checked with another nurse.

B)Air is injected into the vial of the shorter acting insulin first.

C)The longer acting insulin is drawn up first.

D)The nurse must verify the compatibility of the insulin types.

E)Withdraw the shorter acting insulin first.

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Chapter 11: Parenteral Administration: Intradermal,

Subcutaneous, and Intramuscular Routes

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse administers B<sub>12</sub> IM to a patient in a long term care facility.After administering this medication, the nurse will: (Select all that apply.)

A)carefully recap the needle.

B)identify the patient.

C)massage site of injection.

D)dispose of the used needle according to policy.

E)apply a small bandage to the site.

Q2) A 65-year-old man who weighs 180 lb (81.8 kg) is to receive 1.5 mL of a viscous antibiotic by intramuscular (IM) injection.Which needle and syringe will be used?

A)5/8 inch, 25-gauge needle with 5 mL syringe

B)1 inch, 28-gauge needle with 4 mL syringe

C)1 1/2 inch, 21-gauge needle with 3 mL syringe

D)3 inch, 16-gauge needle with 1.5 mL syringe

Q3) Which is the preferred IM site for injecting a 6-month-old child?

A)Dorsogluteal

B)Abdominal

C)Vastus lateralis

D)Deltoid muscle

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Chapter 12: Parenteral Administration: Intravenous Route

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line inserted to continue IV antibiotic therapy at home.With proper care, how long can this type of venous access device remain in place?

A)2 months

B)4 months

C)6 months

D)12 months

Q2) Which needle is used to access implanted infusion devices?

A)Jamshidi

B)Huber

C)Gigli

D)Crutchfield

Q3) The nurse notes that a patient with cardiac disease has IV heparin infusing and that it is behind by 2 hours.What is the best nursing action?

A)Increase the IV rate and recheck in 1 hour.

B)Change the infusion rate to TKO.

C)Discontinue the solution using aseptic technique.

D)Contact the health care provider for consultation.

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15

Chapter 13: Drugs That Affect the Central Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which category of medications is used for peripheral vascular diseases characterized by excessive vasoconstriction, such as Raynaud's disease?

A)Adrenergic agents

B)Alpha adrenergic blocking agents

C)Beta adrenergic blocking agents

D)Cholinergic agents

Q2) A patient hospitalized in an acute care setting reports to the nurse that since starting on an adrenergic medication, he has been feeling "dizzy and weak." The most appropriate action for the nurse is to:

A)immediately notify the physician.

B)teach the patient to move slowly from standing to sitting.

C)discontinue the adrenergic blocker.

D)monitor the blood pressure in both the supine and standing positions.

Q3) Why are beta blockers used cautiously in patients with respiratory conditions?

A)They mask the signs and symptoms of acute hypoglycemia.

B)They cause extensive vasodilation and cardiac overload.

C)They may produce severe bronchoconstriction.

D)They increase hypertensive episodes.

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Chapter 14: Drugs Used for Sleep

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for an older patient recently admitted to an assisted living center who is experiencing insomnia associated with the recent relocation.At bedtime, which nursing action will assist the patient to sleep?

A)Offering the patient hot tea

B)Encouraging the patient to ambulate in the hallway

C)Performing back massage

D)Administering an analgesic

Q2) A patient has been prescribed lorazepam (Ativan), a benzodiazepine used to treat insomnia.Which action will the nurse take?

A)Advise the patient to take the medication with food.

B)Assess the patient's blood pressure in sitting and lying positions.

C)Inform the patient to discontinue the medication once sleep improves.

D)Instruct the patient to lie down before taking the medication.

Q3) For what conditions are benzodiazepines prescribed?

A)Chronic amnesia

B)Chronic insomnia

C)Preoperative sedation

D)Psychotic episodes

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17

Chapter 15: Drugs Used for Parkinsons Disease

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is providing education to a patient recently placed on selegiline disintegrating tablets.Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A)"This medication will help slow the development of symptoms."

B)"I will place the tablet on my tongue before breakfast."

C)"I may need to use a stool softener for constipation."

D)"I should not push the tablet through the foil."

Q2) A patient taking rasagiline is assessed by the nurse to have a lasting significant increase in blood pressure.When reviewing the patient's current list of medications, the nurse decides to hold the next dose of:

A)dextromethorphan.

B)levodopa.

C)ciprofloxacin.

D)Valium.

Q3) Dopamine agonists have been linked with which adverse effects in patients with Parkinson's disease?

A)Oculogyric crisis

B)Tardive dyskinesia

C)Sudden sleep events

D)Akathisia

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Chapter 16: Drugs Used for Anxiety Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which assessment(s) would be included in the evaluation of a patient with anxiety?

(Select all that apply.)

A)Physical examination

B)Psychological evaluation

C)History of precipitation stressors

D)Medication history

E)Substance abuse history

F)Blood glucose level

Q2) A newly admitted psychiatric patient repetitively states, "I wish I were dead.I just want to kill myself." The priority nursing at this time is to:

A)establish a trusting relationship.

B)encourage a nonstimulating environment.

C)provide for patient safety.

D)identify signs of increased anxiety.

Q3) Which is true regarding psychological drug dependence?

A)It is easier to treat than physiological dependence.

B)It is not considered a true addiction.

C)It is easily controlled by influencing the patient's perceptions.

D)It requires medical intervention to treat.

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Chapter 17: Drugs Used for Mood Disorders

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Q1) The nurse must be sure to instruct the patient about which potential adverse effect(s) of tricyclic antidepressants? (Select all that apply.)

A)Diarrhea

B)Dryness of mouth, nose, and throat

C)Constipation

D)Nocturia

E)Urinary retention

F)Blurred vision

Q2) Which assessment would the nurse expect to observe in a patient who has been prescribed trazodone for treatment anxiety?

A)Excessive thirst

B)Hand tremor

C)Drowsiness

D)Diarrhea

Q3) What occurs with mania associated with bipolar disorder?

A)Varying degrees of sadness

B)Distinct episodes of elation

C)Suicide

D)Psychomotor retardation

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Chapter 18: Drugs Used for Psychoses

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Q1) Which is/are extrapyramidal adverse effect(s) of antipsychotic agents? (Select all that apply.)

A)Spasmodic movements of muscle groups

B)Masklike expression

C)Lip smacking

D)Inability to sit in one place for an extended period

E)Weight gain

Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient who is taking clozapine (Clozaril) to have weekly blood tests for the first 6 months of treatment to monitor for which potential complication?

A)Agranulocytosis

B)Vitamin deficiencies

C)Clotting abnormalities

D)Polycythemia

Q3) What is the most common cause of nonadherence to antipsychotic pharmacologic treatment?

A)Expense

B)Increased symptoms of chemical dependency

C)Extrapyramidal effects

D)Inability of the patient to understand the need to take medications

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Chapter 19: Drugs Used for Seizure Disorders

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Q1) A patient on anticonvulsant therapy confides to the nurse at an outpatient clinic that she suspects she may be pregnant.The nurse should encourage the patient to take which action(s)? (Select all that apply.)

A)Consult an obstetrician.

B)Discontinue medications.

C)Carry an identification card.

D)Provide a list of seizure medications.

E)Consider oral contraception.

Q2) What information would be most important for the nurse to provide to a patient when teaching about the adverse effects of succinimide therapy?

A)Nausea, vomiting, and indigestion are common during the initiation of therapy.

B)Avoid taking the medication with food or milk to minimize adverse effects.

C)Sedation, drowsiness, and dizziness tend to worsen with continued therapy.

D)Reducing the dosage of medication will relieve symptoms of nausea.

Q3) Which medication is used to control seizures or prevent migraine headaches?

A)Topiramate (Topamax)

B)Zonisamide (Zonegran)

C)Valproic acid (Depakene)

D)Tiagabine (Gabitril)

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Page 22

Chapter 20: Drugs Used for Pain Management

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Q1) What information is most accurate regarding the nurse's understanding of pain management?

A)Older patients have difficulty describing their pain level.

B)Encourage patients to report pain before the pain becomes too severe.

C)Use the smallest dose of medication possible to control pain.

D)Pain medication administration ordered PRN will maintain a constant blood level.

Q2) Which medication would the nurse administer to a patient who is rating the pain at 8 on a 0 to 10 scale?

A)Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

B)Morphine (Roxanol)

C)Oxycodone (OxyContin)

D)Oxycodone and aspirin (Percodan)

Q3) What is the best way for the nurse to evaluate the effectiveness of the patient's opiate agonist?

A)Ability of the patient to tolerate more activity

B)Increased sleep time throughout the night

C)Reduction of respiratory rate from 24 to 18 breaths/min

D)Verbal report of 2 on a 1 to 10 scale

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Chapter 21: Introduction to Cardiovascular Disease and Metabolic Syndrome

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Q1) Which is the mechanism of action demonstrated by exercise in managing blood glucose levels?

A)Exercise causes release of glucose and promotes a reduced blood glucose level.

B)Exercise on a regular basis causes a reduction in lean body mass, which helps regulate blood glucose levels.

C)Increased muscle mass and less fat tends to normalize blood glucose levels because glucose is used by muscle cells when exercising.

D)Exercise stimulates the liver, the primary storage and utilization site of glucose, to release glucose.

Q2) Healthy diets should include no more than which percentage of saturated fat based on total calories?

A)30%

B)10%

C)7%

D)2%

Q3) Weight: 70 kilograms.Height: 164 cm (1.65 m).What is the BMI?

Q4) Weight: 140 pounds.Height: 5 feet 4 inches.What is the BMI?

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Chapter 22: Drugs Used to Treat Dyslipidemias

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Q1) The nurse is preparing medications for a patient.When is the best time for the nurse to administer lovastatin (Mevacor)?

A)2 hours after breakfast

B)During the patient's dinner

C)1 hour before breakfast

D)30 minutes before lunch

Q2) Which vitamin has antilipemic actions?

A)C

B)A

C)D

D)B<sub>3</sub>

Q3) The nurse is teaching a patient about statin therapy.Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A)"I will take this medication at night."

B)"This medication will reduce blood clot formation."

C)"I will avoid drinking grapefruit juice."

D)"If I get a headache, I will notify my health care provider."

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Chapter 23: Drugs Used to Treat Hypertension

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Sample Questions

Q1) If blood pressure is 120/70, what is the MAP?

Q2) Prior to the administration of a beta adrenergic blocker, the nurse notes the patient to have a heart rate of 52 beats/min, peripheral edema, crackles in the bases of the lungs, and mottled skin.Which is the priority nursing action?

A)Administer the medication as ordered.

B)Re evaluate the patient in 20 minutes.

C)Obtain a serum blood level.

D)Withhold the medication and notify the health care provider.

Q3) The nurse is finished conducting nutritional education with a patient about the DASH (dietary approaches to stop hypertension) diet.The patient would like to complete the breakfast menu for tomorrow.Which foods offered for breakfast would be most appropriate for the patient to choose? (Select all that apply.)

A)Grapefruit

B)Bacon

C)Whole milk

D)Orange juice

E)Eggs

F)Oatmeal

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26

Chapter 24: Drugs Used to Treat Dysrhythmias

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Q1) A patient is admitted to the telemetry unit with a diagnosis of cardiovascular disease.When performing the initial assessment, the nurse records blood pressure in the left arm of 142/84, blood pressure in the right arm of 138/80, temperature of 98.8° F, and radial pulse of 80 and that is weak and irregular.The nurse should notify the physician regarding:

A)both blood pressure and pulse.

B)blood pressure only.

C)pulse only.

D)both blood pressure and temperature.

Q2) A patient is admitted to the acute care telemetry unit with a diagnosis of atrial fibrillation.The physician orders dofetilide (Tikosyn).Before initiating this medication, the nurse will:

A)hold anticoagulant medications.

B)remove ECG leads.

C)assess potassium level.

D)ensure QTc interval is more than 440 to 500 msec.

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Chapter 25: Drugs Used to Treat Angina Pectoris

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Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient about nitroglycerin prior to discharge to home.Which instruction will the nurse provide the patient?

A)"Report any headaches following self administration to your health care provider."

B)"Carry the medication in a pocket directly next to the body."

C)"Carry the medication with you at all times."

D)"Store nitroglycerin in a clear glass container with a tight lid."

Q2) What will the nurse include in discharge teaching for patients on nitrate therapy? (Select all that apply.)

A)Increase caffeine in diet

B)Relaxation techniques

C)Proper storage of medications

D)Pain assessment

E)Isometric exercise program

Q3) How do beta adrenergic blocking agents reduce myocardial oxygen demand?

A)By inhibiting the stimulation of norepinephrine and epinephrine

B)By increasing the production of dopamine and acetylcholine

C)By delaying the destruction of acetylcholinesterase and cholinesterase

D)By enhancing the sensitivity of alpha receptors and beta receptors

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Chapter 26: Drugs Used to Treat Peripheral Vascular Disease

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Q1) Which are included in the baseline assessment of PVD? (Select all that apply.)

A)History of heart disease

B)Smoking and dietary habits

C)Current medications

D)Weight

E)Limb pain

F)Mental status

Q2) Which patient statement indicates to the nurse that the patient has a good understanding of PVD?

A)"Symptoms are warning signs of the increased potential to develop diseases."

B)"Pharmacologic treatments can reverse the disease process."

C)"Surgical interventions will cure the disease."

D)"Controlling contributing factors may affect the progression of the disease."

Q3) Which assessment verifies increased blood perfusion to the lower extremities?

A)Toes cool to the touch

B)Decreased sensation below the knees

C)Increased amplitude of pedal pulses

D)Paleness of the foot

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Chapter 27: Drugs Used to Treat Thromboembolic Disorders

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Q1) Which is an accurate nursing action when administering subcutaneous enoxaparin, a low-molecular-weight heparin product?

A)Expel the air bubble from the prefilled syringe.

B)Leave the needle in place for 10 seconds after injection.

C)Administer the medication into the deltoid muscle.

D)Massage the site after injection to increase absorption.

Q2) A patient is receiving 1400 units of heparin/hour on an IV pump.The aPTT time is 54.The laboratory control is 25.Which action by the nurse is accurate?

A)Bolus the patient with an additional 5000 units of heparin.

B)Stop the heparin immediately and notify the health care provider that the patient's blood level is toxic.

C)Administer protamine sulfate stat.

D)Continue with the prescribed rate.

Q3) Which symptom is indicative of bleeding in a patient taking warfarin (Coumadin)?

A)Bradycardia

B)Petechiae

C)Increased urinary output

D)Dry skin

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30

Chapter 28: Drugs Used to Treat Heart Failure

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Q1) The nurse is to administer digoxin to an 18 month old patient who weighs 16.5 lb.Guidelines for administration read as follows: 0.0075-0.010 mg/kg/day.Which is a safe medication dosage?

A)0.05 mg

B)0.12 mg

C)0.074 mg

D)0.75 mg

Q2) The nurse is caring for a 3-year-old girl who has a congenital heart anomaly.The patient's current medications include digoxin and furosemide (Lasix).The apical pulse rate is 100 beats/min.Which action will the nurse take?

A)Administer the medication.

B)Contact the pediatric cardiologist for further orders.

C)Hold the digoxin.

D)Request that another unit nurse assess the child.

Q3) Which action of ACE inhibitors results in effective treatment of heart failure?

A)Increased afterload

B)Increased aldosterone

C)Increased preload

D)Increased cardiac output

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Page 31

Chapter 29: Drugs Used for Diuresis

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Q1) The nurse transcribes a new order for ethacrynic acid (Edecrin) on a patient with edema resulting from cirrhosis of the liver.Which currently prescribed medication(s) should the nurse report to the ordering health care provider? (Select all that apply.)

A)Digoxin

B)Prednisone

C)Tobramycin

D)Lipitor

E)Zofran

Q2) Which sign(s) and/or symptom(s) of dehydration may occur as a result of a diuretic? (Select all that apply.)

A)Decreased urine specific gravity

B)Skin remains peaked on turgor assessment

C)Bounding peripheral pulses

D)Neck vein engorgement

E)Soft, sunken eyeballs

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Chapter 30: Drugs Used to Treat Upper Respiratory Disease

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Q1) Which topically active aerosol steroids are highly effective for reducing sneezing, nasal itching, stuffiness, and rhinorrhea? (Select all that apply.)

A)Beclomethasone (Beconase AQ)

B)Prednisone (Deltasone)

C)Fluticasone (Flonase)

D)Flunisolide (Nasarel)

E)Budesonide (Rhinocort Aqua)

Q2) What initiates the sneeze reflex?

A)Stimulation of the vagus nerve

B)Irritation of the nasal mucosa by foreign particulate matter

C)Stimulation of the tonsils

D)Enervation of the olfactory cranial nerve

Q3) What can result if a patient overuses topical decongestants?

A)Hypertensive crisis

B)Allergic reaction

C)Secondary congestion

D)Permanent olfactory damage

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Chapter 31: Drugs Used to Treat Lower Respiratory Disease

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Q1) Premedication assessments before the use of anticholinergic bronchodilating agents should verify that the patient has no history of which condition?

A)Diabetes

B)Hypertension

C)Liver disease

D)Glaucoma

Q2) From where do the fluids of the respiratory tract originate?

A)Specialized mucous glands called goblet cells

B)Lymph fluid drawn across nasal membranes by osmosis

C)Specialized beta cells in the islets of Langerhans

D)Cells that produce aqueous humor

Q3) What is the reason for administering potassium iodide to a patient with emphysema?

A)To increase blood iodide levels

B)To decrease mucus viscosity

C)To reduce metabolic needs of the body

D)To decrease bronchial irritation

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Chapter 32: Drugs Used to Treat Oral Disorders

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Q1) A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) uses a corticosteroid inhaler bid.Which adverse effect is associated with this medication?

A)Mucositis

B)Plaque

C)Xerostomia

D)Candidiasis

Q2) What is the primary pharmacologic therapy for Candida albicans?

A)Steroids

B)Antifungal agents

C)Topical anesthetics

D)Topical anti inflammatory agents

Q3) In addition to discomfort, which are adverse effects of xerostomia? (Select all that apply.)

A)Reduced taste and appetite

B)Excessive salivation

C)Difficulty chewing and swallowing food

D)Increase in dental caries

E)Difficulty with speech

F)Improved taste and enjoyment of food

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Page 35

Chapter 33: Drugs Used to Treat Gastroesophageal Reflux and Peptic Ulcer Diseases

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is planning to administer an antacid to a patient diagnosed with PUD who will receive an H<sub>2</sub> antagonist at 8:00 AM.When is the most appropriate time for the nurse to provide the antacid to this patient?

A)With the H<sub>2</sub> antagonist

B)30 minutes prior to the H<sub>2</sub> antagonist

C)2 hours after the H<sub>2</sub> antagonist

D)Within an hour after the H2 antagonist

Q2) Which factor(s) contribute(s) to the development of PUD? (Select all that apply.)

A)Cigarette smoking

B)Stress

C)Genetics

D)Excessive ingestion of milk products

E)H.pylori

Q3) Which is a common adverse effect of magnesium based antacid preparations?

A)Heartburn

B)Rebound indigestion

C)Constipation

D)Diarrhea

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Chapter 34: Drugs Used to Treat Nausea and Vomiting

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Q1) A patient is beginning the second round of high dose cisplatin.Severe, chemotherapy induced nausea and vomiting (CINV) occurred following the first treatment, requiring 72 hours of continuous IV hydration.In addition to her chemotherapy regimen, which medication would be best to administer?

A)Prochlorperazine (Compazine) suppository daily, on the day of treatment and the next 3 days

B)Anticholinergic agents, such as diphenhydramine or meclizine

C)Parenteral ondansetron 1 hour before chemotherapy, with oral ondansetron to continue for the next 4 days

D)Parenteral ondansetron during chemotherapy, with prochlorperazine suppositories daily for 1 week

Q2) What is the purpose for the nurse administering metoclopramide (Reglan) IV postoperatively?

A)Prolong the effects of anesthesia.

B)Decrease the potential for thrombus formation.

C)Prevent postoperative nausea and vomiting.

D)Decrease postoperative pain.

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Page 37

Chapter 35: Drugs Used to Treat Constipation and Diarrhea

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient receiving palliative care with opioid induced constipation.Laxative therapy has been unsuccessful in treating this patient.Which PRN medication should the nurse provide to best alleviate this type of constipation?

A)Methylnaltrexone

B)Bisacodyl

C)Mineral oil

D)Docusate

Q2) Which symptom is the patient with a lactase deficiency most likely to exhibit?

A)Constipation

B)Excessive salivation

C)Diarrhea

D)Vomiting

Q3) Which instruction will the nurse include in the discharge teaching of a patient taking psyllium?

A)"Administer with a full glass of water."

B)"Limit the intake of high fiber foods."

C)"Avoid mixing in juice."

D)"Fat soluble vitamin deficiency is common."

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Chapter 36: Drugs Used to Treat Diabetes Mellitus

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Q1) The nurse is instructing a patient about insulin administration.Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A)"I may need more insulin if I have surgery."

B)"Once I open my insulin, I will store it in the refrigerator."

C)"I will date the insulin bottle when I open it."

D)"I will keep a spare bottle of insulin on hand."

Q2) Which statement(s) regarding type 2 diabetes mellitus would be correct? (Select all that apply.)

A)Type 2 diabetes is more prevalent in overweight people older than 45 years.

B)A genetic predisposition exists for the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus.

C)Type 2 diabetes requires lifelong insulin replacement.

D)Type 2 diabetes is often diagnosed after complications have resulted.

E)Women have a higher incidence of type 2 diabetes.

Q3) What test determines glycemic control over the previous 8 to 10 weeks?

A)24 hour glucose clearance test (GTT)

B)Fructosamine test

C)Fasting blood sugar (FBS)

D)A<sub>1c</sub> test

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Chapter 37: Drugs Used to Treat Thyroid Disease

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Q1) Which nursing diagnosis may be identified for a patient with hyperthyroidism?

A)Imbalanced nutrition: more than body requirements

B)Constipation

C)Disturbed sleep pattern

D)Ineffective airway clearance

Q2) Which patient would be a candidate for radioactive iodine therapy?

A)A 17-year-old woman with Graves' disease

B)A 64-year-old woman with hypothyroidism

C)A 46-year-old man with heart disease and thyroid cancer

D)An 82-year-old man with myxedema crisis

Q3) Which medication is used in the treatment of hypothyroidism?

A)Levothyroxine (Synthroid)

B)Radioactive iodine

C)Propylthiouracil (Propacil)

D)Methimazole (Tapazole)

Q4) When assisting with the care of a patient with hyperthyroidism, the nurse will:

A)provide a cool environment.

B)anticipate ordering a low calorie diet.

C)limit daily caffeine intake.

D)encourage intake of bran products.

Page 40

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Chapter 38: Corticosteroids

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is instructing a patient about adverse effects associated with corticosteroid therapy.What information would be important to include? (Select all that apply.)

A)Avoid crowds or people with an infection.

B)Monitor and care for your skin daily; change positions frequently.

C)Take medication on an empty stomach.

D)During periods of physical or psychological stress, higher doses of corticosteroids are necessary.Contact your health care provider.

E)Follow a diet low in sodium.

Q2) A patient who has been taking glucocorticoids over the past 3 months for Crohn's disease comes in for a follow up visit.On assessment, the nurse notes facial edema, thinning extremities, and a fatty deposition (buffalo hump) on the scapular area.The patient reports the symptoms of the Crohn's disease are "somewhat better." What will the nurse expect the treatment to be?

A)Decrease the steroid dosage by one half.

B)Increase the steroid dosage.

C)Maintain the steroid dosage.

D)Immediately stop the steroid dosage.

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Chapter 39: Gonadal Hormones

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is discussing estrogen therapy with a patient education group.When relaying information, the nurse may explain that therapeutic outcomes of estrogen therapy include: (Select all that apply.)

A)contraception.

B)hormonal balance.

C)treatment of severe facial acne.

D)appetite suppression.

E)prevention of heart disease.

Q2) When preparing a female patient for the endocrine changes that may occur as a result of androgen changes, the nurse will include information regarding:

A)priapism.

B)voice changes.

C)gynecomastia.

D)fluid retention.

Q3) What is the rationale for using an androgen as part of breast cancer treatment?

A)For maintenance of fat stores

B)To promote nutrition

C)To prevent wasting resulting from cancer growth

D)For palliative treatment to suppress cancer cell growth

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Page 42

Chapter 40: Drugs Used in Obstetrics

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Sample Questions

Q1) What will the nurse include when teaching a postpartum patient about expected adverse effects of Rh<sub>o</sub>(D) immune globulin? (Select all that apply.)

A)Nausea

B)Constipation

C)Fever

D)Insomnia

E)Aches

F)Diarrhea

G)Anorexia

Q2) When caring for the neonate immediately following delivery, the priority nursing diagnosis will be:

A)risk for bleeding.

B)altered body temperature.

C)ineffective airway clearance.

D)risk for infection.

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43

Chapter 41: Drugs Used in Mens and Womens Health

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse working at the community health clinic receives a call from a teen patient who reports that she has missed one of her birth control pills.Which response by the nurse is accurate? (Select all that apply.)

A)Take the missed pill now.

B)Take the next pill at the regularly scheduled time.

C)Come into the clinic for a pregnancy test.

D)Start with the next month's pill packet at day 1.

E)Take the missed pill and the next pill together at the next regularly scheduled time.

Q2) The nurse is giving instructions to a young female at an outpatient clinic regarding combination OCP therapy.What information will the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)

A)Medication should be taken at approximately the same time daily.

B)A back up birth control method should be used for the first 6 months.

C)Medication should be discontinued 1 year before attempting pregnancy.

D)Headaches, dizziness, and chest or abdominal pain should be reported immediately.

E)If a pill is missed, take it immediately and remain on schedule for the next dosage.

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Chapter 42: Drugs Used to Treat Disorders of the Urinary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is complaining of moderate bladder pain and spasms secondary to a UTI.Which drug would assist in relieving symptoms?

A)Tolterodine (Detrol)

B)Nitrofurantoin (Furadantin)

C)Phenazopyridine hydrochloride (Pyridium)

D)Oxybutynin chloride (Ditropan)

Q2) A 42-year-old woman is admitted with complaints of dysuria, frequency, and lower back pain.The urinalysis report is positive for red blood cells, and the blood work shows an elevated white blood cell count.Which medication will the nurse anticipate that the health care provider will order?

A)Meperidine (Demerol)

B)Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine)

C)Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

D)Metronidazole (Flagyl)

Q3) Which organism causes most UTIs?

A)Proteus mirabilis

B)Klebsiella pneumoniae

C)Escherichia coli

D)Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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Chapter 43: Drugs Used to Treat Glaucoma and Other Eye Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) What information will the nurse include when teaching the patient and family about postoperative care for a trabeculectomy? (Select all that apply.)

A)Use aseptic technique for all dressing changes and medication administration.

B)Place the patient on the operated side.

C)Avoid heavy lifting.

D)Redness in the eye, pain, and swelling are common occurrences after surgery.

E)Avoid straining on defecation.

Q2) Which discharge instruction will the nurse include for a patient sent home from the clinic who is taking an adrenergic ophthalmic solution for an acute inflammation?

A)Headaches and eye pain are adverse effects to be reported to the health care provider immediately.

B)Mouth dryness should be reported immediately.

C)Avoid driving or operating machinery until blurring subsides.

D)"Halos" or yellow rings around objects will be seen while taking this medication.

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Chapter 44: Drugs Used for Cancer Treatment

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why are bone marrow stimulants used in the treatment of cancer?

A)To increase uptake of the chemotherapy from the interior of the bones

B)To strengthen bones weakened by pathologic processes

C)To enhance the patient's immune system during treatment

D)To protect the bone marrow from destructive actions from the cancer treatment

Q2) The nurse is providing education about chemotherapy to a patient who is being discharged.Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

A)"I will shave with an electric razor."

B)"I will take aspirin for a headache."

C)"I will wash my laundry separate from other family members."

D)"I will flush the toilet twice after using."

Q3) Which symptom is the patient who is receiving bleomycin (Blenoxane) therapy most likely to exhibit?

A)Increased respiratory rate and cough

B)Weight gain and peripheral edema

C)Numbness and tingling of hands and feet

D)Lethargy and orthostatic hypotension

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Chapter 45: Drugs Used to Treat the Muscular System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient taking a neuromuscular blocking agent is assessed to have a heart rate of 120 and blood pressure of 80/50.The nurse will anticipate the physician writing an order for:

A)ABGs.

B)blood glucose level.

C)CBC.

D)liver function tests.

Q2) Patients with which conditions must be carefully assessed to determine whether they would tolerate treatment with a neuromuscular-blocking agent? (Select all that apply.)

A)Pregnancy

B)Hepatic disease

C)Pulmonary disease

D)Renal disease

E)Neurologic disorders

F)Psychiatric disorders

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Chapter 46: Antimicrobial Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is planning to administer ertapenem IV to a patient in the intensive care unit.When preparing this medication, the nurse will consider reconstituting it with: (Select all that apply.)

A)water.

B)bacteriostatic water.

C)0.9% sodium chloride.

D)0.45% dextrose.

E)1% lidocaine.

Q2) An older adult who has septicemia is receiving IV aminoglycoside therapy.Which symptom is most important for the nurse to monitor?

A)Bone marrow suppression

B)Ototoxicity

C)Gastrointestinal (GI) distress

D)Photosensitivity

Q3) On what is the selection of an antimicrobial agent based?

A)Sensitivity of the microorganism to the drug

B)Half life of the medication

C)Therapeutic levels of the drug

D)Bioavailability of the drug

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Page 49

Chapter 47: Nutrition

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is being discharged on psyllium (Metamucil).Which explanation(s) by the nurse would be accurate regarding fiber intake? (Select all that apply.)

A)It adds bulk to fecal content.

B)It enhances gastric emptying.

C)It decreases blood cholesterol concentration.

D)It decreases postprandial blood glucose concentration.

E)It stimulates the appetite.

Q2) A patient is receiving total parenteral nutrition.Which action(s) will the nurse perform? (Select all that apply.)

A)Assess for electrolyte imbalance.

B)Check residual volume qid.

C)Position the patient in a high Fowler's position.

D)Monitor blood glucose levels.

E)Discard the solution every 24 hours.

Q3) Which meal contains the best sources of dietary fiber?

A)Eggs, bacon, orange juice

B)Salad, whole wheat toast, sliced peach

C)Roast beef, mashed potatoes with gravy, corn, milk

D)Grilled hamburger on a bun, fresh carrot sticks, potato chips

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Page 50

Chapter 48: Herbal and Dietary Supplement Therapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which herb is used to stimulate the innate immune system?

A)Aloe

B)Echinacea

C)Chamomile

D)Ginger

Q2) Aloe gel for topical use has been marketed to treat which conditions? (Select all that apply.)

A)Sunburn

B)Psoriasis

C)Migraine headaches

D)Pain and inflammation

E)Itching

Q3) What is black cohosh used for?

A)Preventing miscarriage during the first trimester

B)Reducing symptoms of premenstrual syndrome

C)Providing antispasmodic activity of the gastrointestinal (GI) system

D)Controlling migraine headaches

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Chapter 49: Substance Abuse

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Sample Questions

Q1) Clonidine (Catapres) is used in treating which opioid withdrawal symptom(s)?

(Select all that apply.)

A)Hypertension

B)Tremors

C)Agitation

D)Depression

E)Sweating

F)Nausea

Q2) What is the rationale for administering acamprosate (Campral)?

A)Withdrawal from alcohol addiction

B)Maintenance of sobriety

C)Improvement of renal function

D)Correction of electrolyte imbalances

Q3) What does a urinalysis that is positive for the drug tested indicate?

A)It indicates illegal drug use.

B)It verifies drug dependency.

C)It is a violation of the individual's constitutional rights.

D)It verifies whether the drug is present in the specimen.

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Chapter 50: Miscellaneous Agents

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient recently diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease is placed on memantine (Namenda).The family asks why this medication is given.Which explanation(s) by the nurse are accurate? (Select all that apply.)

A)Memantine prevents the neurodegeneration of the disease.

B)Memantine improves word recall.

C)Memantine increases the ability to do tasks.

D)Memantine improves sleep.

E)Memantine increases appetite.

Q2) The nurse receives an order to administer colchicine 0.6 mg every 1 to 2 hours until the patient exhibits adverse effects.The nurse will monitor for which adverse effect?

A)Diminished fever

B)Diarrhea or nausea

C)Increased urination

D)Decrease in erythema

Q3) Which nursing action is accurate when administering colchicine?

A)Administer the medication subcutaneously.

B)Maintain fluid intake of at least eight 8 ounce glasses daily.

C)Increase fiber in the diet to prevent constipation.

D)Inform the patient that pain will be alleviated in 2 weeks.

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